JUNIOR ENGINEER

10. After a piece of pipe has been cut, the hole

1. The instrument used to reshape a grinding is cleaned out with a:
wheel that is grooved or out of round is called A. pipe reamer C. pipe taper
a: B. pipe cleaner D. hole cleaner
A. wheel aligner C. wheel emery
B. wheel dresser D. wheel cutter 11. The tool used for cutting pipe threads is
called a:
2. The instruments used to remove old packing A. pipe cutter C. pipe threader
from packing glands and stuffing boxes are B. pipe stock and die D. pipe ratchet cutter
called:
A. packing tools C. gland box cleaners 12. The tool used when working with large sizes
B. packing bits D. packing screws of pipe is called a:
A. chain pipe wrench C. chain holder
3. When working on bearing and checking for B. chain tongs D. A or B
high spots, it is customary to apply:
A. white lead C. dykem blue 13. The tool used when preparing to put fittings
B. read lead D. Prussian blue on copper tubing is called a:
A. tube spreader C. tube retarder
4. If you wanted to check the face of a pump B. flaring tool D. tube countersink
slide valve or other flat-faced valve, you could
check for trueness on a: 14. Which of the following is not a standard
A. flat board C. piece of glass thread form?
B. surface plate D. bearing plate A. square C. double flute
B. American national D. 60 sharp V
5. To keep a metal clean while soldering, one
would use a: 15. The tool used to cut threads in a hole is
A. flax B. torch C. flux D. corroder called a:
A. top B. tap C. bit D. reamer
6. Before splicing electric wires, they should be:
A. tinned C. soldered 16. Hand taps are provided in sets of three
B. clean and tinned D. insulated called:
A. taper, plug, and end
7. To check the speed of a motor or other rotary B. short, taper, and bottom
machine, one would use a: C. taper, plug, and bottom
A. speed indicator C. tachometer D. short, medium, and long
B. micrometer D. A or C
17. Which of the following taps should be used
8. Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, it to start a thread?
should be: A. plug B. short C. bottom D. taper
A. marked with chalk C. scribed
B. center-punched D. protracted 18. When preparing to tap a hole, the size of
the drill will be:
9. A tap or die marked - 20 indicates: A. equal to the size of the tap
A. radius 20 cm long B. smaller than the size of the tap
B. radian 20 threads per inch C. larger than the size of the tap
C. diameter 20 threads per inch D. none of the above
D. turn 20 times
19. Pipe taps are: 29. The tool used for cleaning files is called a:
A. the same size from end to end A. file cleaner C. file oilstone
B. not fluted B. file card D. scraper
C. tapered
D. not hardened 30. Which of the following is the smallest size
drill?
20. When preparing to tap a hole for a pipe A. #80 C. #1
fitting the size of the drill will be: B. #60 D. #0
A. larger than the tap size
B. equal to the size of the tap 31. Which of the following is the largest size
C. smaller than the tap size drill?
D. none of the above A. A C. Z
B. X D. XX
21. Which of the following does not have to be
lubricated when drilling? 32. The size of a drill is stamped on the:
A. steel B. brass C. monel D. tool steel A. point C. margin
B. shank D. flute
22. The tool to use when cutting a hole in the
side of a round piece of metal is called a: 33. Which of the following safety precautions
A. vise B. jaw holder C. V block D. chuck should be followed when pouring Babbitt?
A. operator must wear goggles
23. When measuring a drill for size measure B. the surface to be babbitted must be free of
across the: moisture
A. margins C. shank C. the surface to be babbitted must be clean
B. flutes D. point D. all of the above

24. N.C. stands for: 34. Which of the following safety precautions
A. neutral cut C. national cut should be followed when renewing a flange
B. national coarse D. not center gasket?
A. drain the line thoroughly
25. N.F. stands for B. isolate the section to be worked on
A. national file C. neutral file C. tie down isolation valves
B. national fine D. not found D. all of the above

26. The tool used in precision work to smooth 35. Before installing a new flange gasket be sure
or enlarge holes is called a: that the:
A. round out C. reamer A. flange faces are painted
B. drift pin D. protractor B. isolating valves are open
C. flange faces are absolutely clean
27. Which of the following chisels would be D. old gasket is in place
used for cutting oil grooves?
A. diamondpoint chisels C. roundnose chisel 36. On a standard wire gage:
B. cold chisel D. hot chisel A. #10 is larger than #5
B. #25 is smaller than # 20
28. Which of the following is not a cut of file? C. #1 is smaller than #2
A. smooth C. half-round D. #30 is larger than #25
B. second cut D. bastard
37. Which of the following tools would be most B. outside diameter D. wire gage
useful when taking leads on bearings?
A. dividers C. micrometer 47. Water hammer is caused by:
B. outside calipers D. center gage A. hitting pipe water with hammer
B. too much water in pipe system
38. The wrench size for a nut is: C. water in steam lines
A. 1 C. D. steam in water lines
B. 1 D. 10/24
48. Insulation is used on piping to:
39. The sketch indicates that a vertical pipe line A. hold in heat C. cut down heat loses
must be offset 45 in order to avoid the B. hold in cold D. any of the above
obstruction. The center 2 center
measurement for the offset T is (see fig. 3A): 49. Which of the following types of valves is
A. 36.5 C. 22.62 used in the bilge manifold?
B. 30.45 D. 28.42 A. swing check C. angle
B. non-return D. globe
40. Which of the following would cause got
bearing? 50. Valve stem packing is measured from the:
A. improper oil C. improper alignment A. O. D. of the valve stem to the bottom of the
B. dirt in oil D. all of the above packing gland
B. top of the packing gland to the bottom of the
41. The melting point of Babbitt is gland
approximately: C. O. D. of the valve stem to the I. D. of the
A. 1000F C. 750C packing box
B. 650F D. 500F D. I. D. of the valve stem to the bottom of the
gland
42. When pouring Babbitt it:
A. can be poured in several pourings 51. The tool used to cut threads on pipe is
B. must be poured all at one time called a:
C. must be done at intervals A. pipe tool C. pipe vise
D. must be done in cool place B. pipe stock D. pipe cutter

43. Which of the following groups of pipe sizes 52. The pipe fitting which has two openings and
is correct? provides a turn of 90 is called:
A. , , , 7/8, 1 C. , 3/8, , , 1 A. an elbow C. a coupling
B. , 3/8, , 5/8, , 1 D. , , 5/8, , 1 B. a tee D. a union

44. A pipe wrench (Stillsons) is designed for use 53. A plug cock offers:
on: A. more resistance of flow than a globe valve
A. hexagonal objects C. square objects B. the same resistance to flow as a globe globe
B. round objects D. flat objects valve
C. less resistance to flow than a globe valve
45. Pipe is measured by: D. the same resistance to flow as a angle valve
A. inside diameter C. thickness of wall
B. outside diameter D. wire gage 54. The most common flux to use when
soldering brass, copper, or tin is:
46. Tubing is measured by: A. tallow C. borax
A. inside diameter C. thickness of wall B. rosin D. sal ammoniac
55. One turn of the screw on a micrometer D. any of the above
moves the spindle:
A. .25 C. .025 63. The cylinder of piston type steam engines
B. .205 D. .110 are counter bored to:
A. give a larger head clearance
56. The process used to retard corrosion on iron B. prevent piston rings from wearing a groove in
pipe is called: the cylinder at the end of the stroke
A. soldering C. tempering C. give a larger volumetric clearance
B. annealing D. galvanizing D. prevent piston rings from slipping on the
piston
57. On XX heavy pipe the extra metal is added
to the: 64. When installing packing in a packing box:
A. outside A. leave one old turn at the bottom of the
B. inside packing box
C. half on the inside, half on the outside B. remove one turn and install one new turn of
D. three quarters on the outside, one quarter packing
on the inside D. leave sufficient end clearance on each turn to
allow for expansion
58. Valve seats are usually: D. place end cuts directly in line with each other
A. screwed in C. pressed in
B. dropped in D. A or C 65. The micrometer reading in Fig. 3B is:
A. .299 B. .304 C. .306 D. .303
59. When grinding in valves the disc is secured
to the stem by: 66. The micrometer reading in Fig. 3C is:
A. inserting a cotter pin A. .226 B. .225 C. .224 D. .250
B. placing emery cloth between stem and disc
C. welding 67. The micrometer reading in Fig. 3D is:
D. A or B A. .226 B. .200 C. .201 D. .224

60. A fresh-water tank is located on the bridge

deck. What will the pressure be at an outlet in
the engine room 50 below the tank?
A. 20 psi C. 23 psi
B. 21.7 psi D. 25 psi

61. In the duplex reciprocating pump:

A. the slide valve for one cylinder is controlled
by the piston rod of the other cylinder
B. both slide valves operate simultaneously
C. each slide valve is controlled by its own
piston rod
D. one slide valve operates the other slide valve

62. The jerky operation of a reciprocating pump

may be caused by:
A. small leaks in the suction line
B. suction valve only partially open
C. dirty suction strainer
68. The heat required to change the physical
state of a substance is called:
A. sensible C. centigrade heat
B. latent heat D. radiant heat
69. The latent heat of fusion is:
A. 288 BTU C. 144 BTU
B. 32 BTU D. 212 BTU
70. The amount of heat released by steam
when it changes to water at the same
temperature is called:
A. latent heat of condensation
B. latent heat of vaporization
C. latent heat of saturation
D. sensible heat of condensation
71. The latent heat of vaporization is:
A.288 BTU C. 970 BTU
B. 144 BTU D. 907 BTU
72. On board ship the chemical energy of the
fuel oil is converted to:
A. mechanical energy for propulsion
B. electrical energy for lightning
C. thermal energy for heating
D. all of the above
73. Latent heat:
A. changes the physical state of a substance
B. changes the temperature of a substance
C. changes the color of a substance
D. has no effect on a substance
74. The pressure of the atmosphere pressing
down on the earth is called:
A. air pressure C. atmospheric pressure
B. absolute pressure D. sensible pressure
75. Absolute pressure is:
A. the pressure of the atmosphere of the earth
B. the same as gage pressure
C. the pressure of the steam in a boiler
D. gage pressure plus atmospheric pressure
76. The boiling point on the centigrade
thermometer is:
A. 212 B. 100 C. 200 D. 180
77. The freezing point on the Fahrenheit
thermometer is:
A. 0 B. 30 C. 32 D. 34
78. The freezing point on the centigrade
thermometer is:
A. 32 B. 0 C. 15 D. 30
79. The boiling point on the Fahrenheit
thermometer is:
A. 212 B. 180 C. 100 D. 200
80. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is:
A. 15.7 psi C. 14.0 psi
B. 14.7 psi D. 0 psi
81. A perfect vacuum represented by:
A. 30 of silver C. 30 of mercury
B. 15 of mercury D. 15 of silver
82. Sensible heat changes:
A. the temperature of a substance without
changing its form
B. the shape of a substance
C. a solid to a liquid
D. a liquid to a gas
83. Specific heat is the number of:
A. BTU that must be added or subtracted to
change the temperature of a substance 1 F
B. BTU needed to change a solid to a gas
C. heat units in a liquid
D. heat units in a specified amount of steam
84. Assuming a perfect vacuum of 30 and
atmospheric pressure as 15 psi, 28 of vacuum
in a condenser would be the same as:
A. 10 psi B.1 psi C. 2 psi D. 15 psi
85. The latent heat of fusion is the amount of
heat required to:
A. melt one pound of metal
B. melt one pound of ice at 32 F. without
changing the temperature
C. melt one pound of ice at 32 C.
D. change one pound of ice to steam
86. The unit of measurement of energy is the: B. 1 lb of solid matter D. lb of solid matter
A. BTU B. BUT C. ASME D. ENG
95. An instrument consisting of a wet-and dry-
87. The formula for work is: bulb thermometer (used in air conditioning) is
A. force x time C. force x distance called a
B. force x time x distance D. none of the above A. hygrometer C. psychrometer
B. pyrometer D. A or C
88. The unit of measurement of work is:
A. the pound C. 1 ft in 96. A square foot of steel plate 1/8 thick
B. the ft oz D. 1 ft pound weighs 5 lb. The weight of a steel plate 10 ft
long and 4 ft wide would be:
89. The latent heat of evaporation is the: A. 200 lb C. 20 lb
A. amount of heat required to convert 1 lb of B. 2000 lb D. 20,000 lb
water at 212 F. into steam at the same
temperature 97. Cast iron weighs 640 lb per cubic foot. The
B. number BTU required to evaporate 1 lb of ice weight of a cast iron block 14 x 12 x 18 is:
C. number of BTU in 1 lb of steam A. 1200 lb B. 1000 lb C. 1120 lb D. 1088 lb
D. amount of heat required to change 1 lb of ice
to 1 lb of steam 98. A tank 28 in diameter and 14 high is filled
with water. The total pressure on the bottom of
90. In a steam type radiator theoretically each the tank is:
pound of steam that condenses of water will A. 3741 lb B. 4257 lb C. 2573 lb D. 3000 lb
give off:
A. 180 BTU B. 970 BTU C. 144 BTU D. 212 BTU 99. A double-bottom tank is 18 wide, 24 long,
and 4 deep. It is filled with fresh water. The
91. A BTU is the amount of heat necessary to: total capacity in tons is:
A. change water to steam A. 50 B. 48 C. 55 D. 45
B. change steam to water
C. change the temperature of any substance 100. Sheet metal of #18 gage is heavier than:
D. rise the temperature of 1 lb of water 1F. A. 12 gage B. 14 gage C. 22 gage D. 16 gage
under ordinary atmospheric conditions
101. The pipe-fitting symbol represents
92. The higher one goes above the earths a:
surface the: A. cross C. screwed T
A. less the atmospheric pressure B. straight elbow D. flange T
B. more the atmospheric pressure
C. atmospheric pressure stays the same 102. The pipe-fitting symbol represents
D. none of the above a:
A. flange 90 elbow C. reducer elbow
93. One horsepower is equal to: B. screwed 90 elbow D. none of the above
A. the amount of work a horse can produce in 1
hr 103. The pipe-fitting symbol represents
B. 33,000 ft-lb to work per minute a:
C. 33, 000 ft-lb work per hour A. street elbow
D. the power delivered to a shaft in 1 hr B. flanged reducing elbow 90
C. spigot
94. 32 lb of sea water contain: D. flange reducing elbow 45
A. 2 lb of solid matter C. 3 lb of solid matter
104. The pipe-fitting symbol represents a: 112. The valve which is always partially open
A. screwed cross C. double T when the evaporator is in operation is the:
B. flanged cross D. any of the above A. vapor valve
B. continuous blowdown valve
105. Shims are used to: C. bottom blowdown valve
A. separate fresh-and salt- water lines D. surface blowdown valve
B. replace fuses
C. adjust cylinder liners 113. An offset is pipe fitting refers to:
D. adjust bearing clearance A. a cut-off running at right angles to the
original piping
106. The process used to retard corrosion (rust) B. two pipes running parallel to each other
on iron pipe and fittings is called: C. a bend in the pipe
A. tinning C. galvanizing D. two sizes of pipe in the same run
B. soldering D. sulphurizing
114. If a piston-type flush valve is not operating
107. The system used for braking scale from the properly, the most likely cause would be:
evaporator coils while the evaporator is in A. a plugged by-pass hole
operation is called: B. a cracked diaphragm
A. recirculating C. cracking-off C. a stuck pilot valve
B. blowing-down D. dumping D. Any of the above

108. The coils in the evaporator are attached to 115. The piping symbol represents a:
the headers by: A. soldered joint C. screwed joint
A. pipe nipples C. welding B. welded joint D. broken joint
B. union-type fittings D. bolted flanges
116. The piping symbol represents a:
109. When distilling salt water the cooling- A. 45 elbow-welded C. 120 elbow-welded
water discharge from the distiller is fed back to B. 45 elbow-soldered D. 120 screwed joint
the evaporator as feedwater:
A. to cut down on the amount of cooling water
needed
B. to prevent an excess amount of cooling
water from being discharged to the bilges
C. to supply hot water to the evaporator for
more economical operation
D. none of the above

110. When distilling salt water the evaporator

should be blown down when the salinity
reaches:
A. 3/32 B. 1/32 C. 2/32 D. 5/32

111. The instrument also used in conjunction

with the salinity indicator is the:
A. pyrometer C. hydrometer
B. monometer D. thermometer
 ANSWERS TO JUNIOR ENGINEER QUESTIONS

1. B 41. B 81. C
2. A 42. B 82. A
3. D 43. C 83. A
4. B 44. B 84. B
5. C 45. A 85. B
6. B 46. B 86. A
7. D 47. C 87. C
8. B 48. D 88. D
9. C 49. B 89. A
10. A 50. C 90. B
11. B 51. B 91. D
12. D 52. A 92. A
13. B 53. C 93. B
14. C 54. B 94. B
15. B 55. C 95. D
16. C 56. D 96. A
17. D 57. B 97. C
18. B 58. D 98. A
19. C 59. D 99. B
20. A 60. B 100. C
21. B 61. A 101. C
22. C 62. D 102. B
23. A 63. B 103. B
24. B 64. C 104. B
25. B 65. B 105. D
26. C 66. A 106. C
27. C 67. D 107. C
28. C 68. B 108. B
29. B 69. C 109. C
30. A 70. A 110. A
31. C 71. C 111. D
32. B 72. D 112. B
33. D 73. A 113. C
34. D 74. C 114. A
35. C 75. D 115. B
36. B 76. B 116. A
37. C 77. C
38. A 78. B
39. C 79. A
40. D 80. B
 REFRIGERATING ENGINEER
1. A method of reducing capacity without
reducing compressor speed is called:
A. low-pressure bypassing
B. high- pressure bypassing
C. hot-gas bypassing
D. short-cycling
2. The thermal expansion valve responds to the:
A. amount of superheat in the vapor leaving the
coil
B. amount of superheat in the liquid
C. temperature in the evaporator coils
D. pressure in the evaporator coils
3. The bulb for the thermal expansion valve is
located:
A. in the middle of the evaporator coils
B. near the evaporator coils outlet
C. near the evaporator coils inlet
D. on the bottom row of evaporator coils
4. Thermostat is a:
A. temperature-operated switch
B. pressure-operated switch
C. superheat-operated switch
D. back-pressure-operated switch
5. The elements of a thermostat switch are
usually of the:
A. diaphragm type C. valve type
B. bimetal type D. pilot-valve type
6. When heavy electrical currents are involved,
the thermostat will be operated by a:
A. small circuit breaker C. fusetron
B. pressure pipe D. relay
7. If the compressor runs continually, the cause
might be the:
A. high-pressure cutout switch is jammed open
B. low-pressure switch is jammed shut
C. thermal bulb is not operating properly
D. scale trap is clogged
8. The solenoid valve can be typed as a:
A. thermal valve C. bellows valve
B. magnetic stop valve D. bimetallic valve
9. If the compressor has been running
satisfactorilly for a long period of time but the
oil level can rise slowly, the thing to do would
be to:
A. drain without sufficient oil to bring it down to
the proper running level
B. shutdown the compressor and check the oil
level with the machine stopped
C. check the dehydrator cartridge
D. check to see if there is too much refrigerant
in the system
10. If the compressor had been running
satisfactorily for a long period of time but
suddenly the compartment temperature started
to rise, the trouble might be:
A. the solenoid valve has jammed shut
B. the expansion valve may have water frozen in
it
C. a refrigerant leak has developed
D. Any of the above
11. When charging a Freon system, all the
valves should be in their normal position except
in the:
A. expansion valve C. king valve (liquid)
B. purge valve D. solenoid valve
12. Abnormal discharge temperatures would be
caused by:
A. leaky suction valves C. faulty piston rings
B. leaky discharge valves D. any of the above
13. A device for holding open the suction valve
and drawing gas from the suction manifold and
returning it to the suction line without
compressing it is called a:
A. discharge line bypass C. suction line bypass
B. cylinder unloader D. relief valve
14. As heat is removed from a substance it gets
colder. When no more heat can be removed
and the temperature cannot be lowered any
further, we have reached:
A. perfect zero C. absolute zero
B. double zero D. cold zero
15. The boiling point of water in an open
container at sea level is 212F. If the pressure in
the open container is decreased, such as going
up to the top of a mountain, the boiling point
will be:
A. increased C. the same
B. decreased D. none of the above
16. Another name for the liquid valve is the:
A. master valve C. Freon valve
B. king valve D. shutoff valve
17. If the temperature in the icebox is too high,
the trouble could be:
A. a clogged scale trap
B. air in the system
C. automatic controls not functioning properly
D. insufficient cooling water to the condenser
18. Oil is added to a Freon compressor by:
A. pouring through oil hole in base
B. pumping in with a hand pump
C. pumping in with an electric-driven pump
D. shutting down the machine and pouring in
through the crack-case inspection plate opening
19. If no gaskets are used in the piping joints of
a Freon system, the joints must be is to:
A. finished joints C. ground joints
B. welded joints D. soldered joints
20. When adding oil to a Freon system one
must be sure that:
A. all air is removed from the pump and fittings
B. there is not too high a suction pressure
C. the discharge pressure is not too high
D. the condenser is shutdown
21. If the head pressure is too high:
A. the relief valve should open before the high-
pressure cutout
B. the relief valve should open and let excess
refrigerant go to receiver
C. the high-pressure cutout switch should
operate before the relief valve opens
D. close in on the suction valve
22. If the compressor-discharge temperature is
higher than the receiver temperature:
A. increase the amount of cooling water to the
condenser
B. decrease the amount of cooling water to the
condenser
C. add more refrigerant to the system
D. remove some of the refrigerant from the
system
23. The dehydrator is used:
A. to remove moisture from the system
B. to remove air from the system
C. when adding refrigerant to the system
D. A and C
24. If the discharge side of the thermal
expansion valve is warmer than the inlet side,
the:
A. expansion valve is working normally
B. expansion valve is not working normally
C. solenoid is not working normally
D. scale trap is dirty
25. The oil level in the compressor should be
checked:
A. while the compressor is in operation
B. just before starting the compressor
C. after a long period of operation
D. B and C
26. The relief valve is located on the:
A. discharge side of condenser
B. discharge side of compressor
C. outlet of the evaporator coils
D. receiver tank
27. The expansion valve on a Freon system
controls the:
A. superheat of the gas leaving the compressor
B. back pressure in the evaporator
C. temperature of the icebox
D. superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator
28. The scale trap is located between the:
A. king valve and the expansion valve
B. solenoids valve and expansion valve
C. evaporator and receiver
D. compressor and evaporator
29. If the high-pressure switch on the
compressor opens and stops the compressor, a
possible cause could be:
A. too much cooling water going through the
condenser
B. no enough refrigerant in the system
C. a leak in the evaporator coils
D. no enough cooling water going through the
condenser
30. The capacity of the refrigerating unit can be
regulated by:
A. changing the speed of the compressor
B. changing the amount of cooling water to the
condenser
C. changing the amount of the refrigerant in the
system
D. any of the above
31. Which of the following would not cause high
suction pressure?
A. insufficient refrigeration
B. leaky suction valves
C. expansion valve stuck open
D. suction valve not adjusted properly
32. A device used to keep moisture from
passing through the system is called a:
A. humidifier C. dehydrator
B. aerator D. trap
33. If a compressor runs continuously, the cause
might be a:
A. defective thermal valve
B. clogged scale trap
C. stuck high-pressure switch
D. Stuck low-pressure switch
34. Dairy products should be kept at a
temperature of:
A. 10 to 20 C. 35 to 45 42. When starting s refrigerating system,
B. 20 to 30 D. 15 to 25 always:
35. The purpose of the expansion valve bypass
is to:
A. increased the efficiency of the plant
B. increased the capacity of the evaporator
C. control the refrigerant to the evaporator in
case the automatic valve fail
D. bypass the compressor
36. Frost on the outside of the thermal
expansion valve maybe caused by:
A. air in the system C. moisture in the system
B. too much superheat D. any of the above
37. The charging valve is located between the:
A. king valve and expansion valve
B. receiver and the condenser
C. compressor and the receiver
D. evaporator coils and the compressor
38. A high suction pressure and a cold crankcase
indicate:
A. air in the system
B. leaky suction valves
C. expansion valve open too wide
D. B or C
39. A high temperature in the icebox could not
be caused by:
A. insufficient refrigerant
B. air in the system
C. expansion valve open too wide
D. too much refrigerant in system
40. When securing a Freon system for repairs:
A. pump down to 1 or 2 pounds pressure
B. pump down to a slight vacuum
C. pump down to 10 to 15 pounds pressure
D. remove all refrigerant from system
41. The solenoid valve is located between the:
A. scale trap and the thermal expansion valve
B. thermal expansion valve and the evaporator
C. king valve and the scale trap
D. automatic and manual expansion valves
A. vent the condenser
B. vent the evaporator
C. bypass the condenser
D. none of the above
43. Before securing a compressor to do
maintenance work on it, be sure to:
A. have gas mask handy
B. notify the captain
C. make arrangements to have perishables
taken care of
D. A and C
44. 212F is equal to:
A. 106C B. 110C C. 100F D. 100C
45. A good refrigerant should:
A. have a low boiling point
B. have a higher latent heat
C. be able to be liquefied at normal sea-water
temperatures
D. all of the above
46. 140F is equivalent to:
A. 50C B. 60C C. 40C D. 55C
47. 70C is equivalent to:
A. 150F B. 160F C. 158F D. 155F
48. Low suction pressure is caused by:
A. air in the system
B. leaky compressor suction valves
C. solenoid valve not functioning properly
D. expansion valve causing flooding back
49. The charging connection in a refrigerating
system is located:
A. before the receiver
B. between the condenser and the receiver
C. between the receiver and the king valve
D. between the king valve and the solenoid
valve
50. If there is too much Freon in the system:
A. the compressor will short cycle
B. the compressor will run continuously
C. the safety valve will discharge
D. it will mix with the oil in the crankcase
51. A refrigerating unit of 1 ton capacity can
remove:
A. 500 BTUs per min C. 200 BTUs per min
B. 288 BTUs per min D. 100 BTUs per min
52. Too much oil in the compressor would:
A. absorb too much refrigerant from the system
B. damage the expansion valve
C. cause leakage through the shaft seals
D. deposit oil on the condenser tubes
53. The refrigerant with the lowest boiling point
is:
A. NH3 B.CO2 C. F12 D. F22
54. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the
removal of:
A. 288,000 BTU per 24 hrs
B. 28,000 BTU per 24 hrs
C. 28,800 BTU per 24 hrs
D. 280,000 BTU per 24 hrs
55. Which of the following would cause a high
suction pressure?
A. expansion valve not open enough
B. expansion valve open too wide
C. king valve not open wide enough
D. dirty dehydrator
56. Which of the following would cause high
head pressure?
A. dirty dehydrator
B. insufficient cooling water
C. air in the condenser
D. all of the above
57. Which of the following would cause low
head pressure?
A. too much cooling water
B. insufficient refrigeration gas
C. insufficient cooling water
D. A and B
58. The principle of mechanical refrigeration is:
A. the absorption of temperature under heat,
pressure, compression, and expansion
B. the compression of a liquid under
temperature and expansion
C. the absorption of heat under temperature,
compression, pressure, and expansion
D. the conversion of a liquid to a gas
59. The function of the expansion valve is to:
A. change the high-pressure liquid to a low-
pressure liquid
B. regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to
the expansion coils
C. change the gas refrigerant to a liquid
D. shut off the flow of refrigerant to the
condenser
60. The oil separator (trap) is located between
the:
A. compressor discharge valve and the
condenser
B. condenser and the receiver
C. receiver and the king valve
D. receiver and the expansion valve
61. The purpose of the oil trap is:
A. to remove oil from the charging tank
B. to add oil to the compressor
C. to remove oil from the refrigerating gas
D. none of the above
62. The boiling point of the ammonia at
atmospheric pressure is:
A. -28 C. B. +28 C. C. +28F. D. -28 F. D. removes trapped oil from the refrigerant
66. The purpose of the dehydrator is to:
A. remove oil from the refrigerant
B. add more refrigerant to the system
C. remove moisture from the refrigerant
D. remove moisture from the crankcase oil
67. Which of the following would you apply if a
person got Freon on his eyes?
A. soapy water C. clean water
B. sterile mineral oil D. sodium bicarbonate
68. The thermal expansion valve is located
between the:
A. receiver and the king valve
B. king valve and the solenoid valve
C. solenoid valve and the evaporator coils
D. charging valve and the solenoid valve
69. The thermal expansion valve:
A. controls the amount of gas coming from the
dehydrator
B. maintains a constant superheat of gas leaving
the evaporator coils
C. controls the amount of gas going to the
receiver

63. The boiling point of CO2 at atmospheric
pressure is:
A. +110F. B. -110F. C.+110C. D.-110C
64. The boiling point of Freon at atmospheric
pressure is:
A. -22F. B. +22F. C.+22C. D. -22C.
65. The dehydrator is located between the:
A. receiver and the king valve
B. receiver and the expansion valve
C. condenser and the king valve
D. condenser and receiver
66. The purpose of the dehydrator is located
between the:
A. receiver and the king valve
B. receiver and the expansion valve
C. condenser and the king valve
D. condenser and receiver
70. Water in the refrigerant is liable to:
A. freeze on the expansion valve seat and cut
flow of the liquid refrigerant
B. emulsify the oil in the compressor
C. freeze in the king valve
D. clog the oil trap
71. The purpose of the scale trap is to:
A. control the amount of the scale going to the
compressor
B. remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant
C. remove dirt, scale, and metal chips from the
refrigerant
D. dissolve scale and dirt in the system
72. A double-seated valve allows the valve to
be:
A. packed only in the closed position
B. packed in wide open or closed position
C. operated as suction or discharge valve
D. removed for replacement without shutting
down
73. Sensible heat:
A. can be measured with a thermometer
B. cannot be measured with a thermometer
C. changes in the receiver tank
D. increases with the cold
74. The latent heat of fusion is the amount of
heat required to convert:
A. 2 lbs. of ice at 32F to 1 lb. of ice at 32F
B. 1 lb. of ice at 32F to 1 lb. of water at 32F
C. 1 lb. of ice at 32F to 1 lb. of steam at 32F
D. 2 lbs. of ice at 32F to 1 lb. of water at 32F
75. The latent heat vaporization of water is:
A.144 BTU B. 940 BTU C. 970 BTU D. 288 BTU
76. The latent heat vaporization is the amount
of heat required to convert:
A. 1 lb. of water at 212F to 1 lb. of steam at
212 F
B. 1 lb. of water at 180F to 1 lb. of steam at
180 F
C. 2 lbs. of water at 212F to 1 lb. of steam at
212 F
D. 1 lb. of ice at 32F to 1 lb. of steam at 212F
77. Too high suction pressure could be caused
by:
A. expansion valve open too wide
B. leaky suction valves
C. expansion valve bulb not working properly
D. any of the above
78. How is an ammonia system purged so that
the operator will not be overcome by the
fumes?
A. into the atmospheric line
B. into a bucket of water
C. into a bucket of lube oil
D. back into the compressor
79. How is a CO2 system purged?
A. when CO2 comes out, frost will form on a
piece of metal held near the outlet
B. through the king valve
C. the CO2 will come out in liquid form
D. pumped out with a suction pump
80. How is a Freon system purged?
A. the same as the ammonia system
B. the same as the CO2 system
C. back to the extra supply bottle
D. with a reefer pump
81. The solenoid valve is:
A. a pressure-controlled stop valve
B. a Freon-controlled check valve
C. a temperature-controlled stop valve
D. none of the above
82. The latent heat of fusion of ice is:
A. 144 BTU B. 188 BTU C. 940 BTU D. 500 BTU
83. Latent heat:
A. can be measured with a thermometer
B. can be measured with a pyrometer
C. cannot be measured with a thermometer
D. changes as the refrigerant cools
84. Absolute zero is:
A. 970 below 0 on the Fahrenheit scale
B. 460 below 0 on the Fahrenheit scale
C. 144 below 0 on the Fahrenheit scale
D. the same as 0 on the Centigrade scale
85. When the evaporator coils are located in
the icebox, the system is unknown as a:
A. direct system
B. low-pressure system
C. indirect system
D. high-pressure system
86. The amount of CO2 of Freon in a cylinder is
measured by:
A. pressure C. weight
B. volume D. psi
87. An excessively high head pressure could be
caused by:
A. solenoid valve shutoff
B. insufficient cooling water to the condenser
coil
C. insufficient cooling water to the evaporator
coil
D. too much cooling water to the condenser
88. The solenoid valve is controlled by:
A. the amount of liquid in the system
B. the amount of gas In the system
C. the temperature in the condenser
D. the thermal switch operated by the icebox
temperature
89. The purge valve is located:
A. in the lowest part of the system
B. in the highest part of the system
C. on the receiver discharge
D. on the evaporator coil
90. The system should be purged:
A. while the system is operating
B. while starting up the system
C. after the system has been shut down for a
few hours
D. once a week
91. The function of the compressor is to:
A. pulls the refrigerant gas through the system
B. increase the pressure of the refrigerant
C. discharge the refrigerant to the condenser
D. all of the above
D. suction valve not open enough
95. The high pressure side of the system is
sometimes referred to as the:
A. suction side
B. cold side
C. hot side
D. filling side
96. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the cooling
effect of :
A. 2000 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hours
B. 2000 lbs. of ice melting in 12 hours
C. 2000 lbs. of water being converted to ice
D. 2240 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hours
97. The scale trap (liquid strainer) is located
between the
A. compressor and oil separator
B. king (liquid ) valve and expansion valve
C. expansion valve and evaporator coils
D. evaporator coil and compressor
98. When there is a Freon leak, the halide torch
will burn :
A. orange
B. blue
C. white
D. green

92. The expansion valve is located between the: 99. Which of the following could be used to
A. receiver and evaporator check a leak in an ammonia system?
B. evaporator and compressor A. litmus paper
C. compressor and condenser B. halide torch
D. condenser and receiver C. sulphur stick
D. A and C
93. If frost forms on the cylinder, the cause
would be: 100. Valve and piping in an ammonia system are
A. expansion valve not open wide enough made of:
B. charging valve left open A. iron
C. expansion valve open to wide B. Brass
D. dehydrator not working properly C. copper
D. bronze
94. Which of the following would cause high
head pressure? 101. In an ammonia system, the oil gauge must
A. icebox door left open be kept:
B. Insufficient cooling water A. closed except when checking oil level
C.Too much cooling water B. open at all times
C. closed when machine is shutdown 108. A sulphur stick burning in the presence of
D. open when machine is shutdown ammonia will give off a :
A. dense yellow smoke
102. Freon is : B. dense whit smoke
A. colorless C. dense red smoke
B. odorless D. dense green smoke
C. nonpoisonous
D. All of the above 109. If the compressor were to run continuously
without lowering the temperature, the trouble
103. Which of the following gasket materials would probably be:
should be used on a Freon system? A. insufficient refrigerant in the system.
A. Metallic B. leaks
B. asbestos C. leaky discharge valve
C. rubber D. any of the above
D. A and B
110. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be
104. A double pipe condenser has: detected by:
A. two piping systems side by side, one with A. smelling the discharge water
cooling water one with refrigerant B. applying litmus paper to the circulating water
B. a small pipe inside a larger pipe, the cooling discharge
water passing through the small pipe and the C. adding oil of peppermint to the system and
refrigerant through the large pipe. tracing the smell
C. two pipes for cooling water and one for the D. applying a soapy mixture to the condenser
refrigerant heads and looking for bubbles
D. none of the above
111. When purging an ammonia condenser into
105. air can be prevented from getting into the a bucket of water, one can tell when the air is
system by: out and ammonia starts to come through by
A. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the the:
high pressure side type A. smell of ammonia being liberated from the
B. keeping the dehydrator clean at all times water
C. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the B. color of the water turning green
low pressure side type C. color of the water turning bluish
D. running the refrigerant to an aerator D. change of the bubbling sound of air to the
crackling sounds of ammonia
106. the agent used in an indirect reefer system
is: 112. Large leaks in a Freon system cannot
A. sodium chloride always be detected with halide torch because it
B. potassium chloride changes color with the slightest amount of
C. calcium chloride Freon present. A large leak can be detected
D. A and C easier by applying
A. sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch
107. An Ammonia leak will turn litmus paper : for the color change
A. blue B. a soapsuds solutions, mix with a little
B. red glycerine to hold the solutions together, and
C. green watch for the bubbles
D. yellow C. a thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and
watch for bubbles
D. a lighted candle at the joints and watching
for leaky spots blowing candle flame
113. When the evaporator coils are located in a
brine solution and the brine is pumped through
the icebox, the system is known as:
A. a direct system
B. an indirect system
C. a low-pressure system
D. a double-evaporator system
114. Obstruction of the expansion valve is
usually caused by:
A. congealed oil in the system
B. scale
C. water in the system
D. all of the above
115. Too low suction pressure could be caused
by:
A. dirty scale traps
B. shortage of refrigerant gas
C. too much oil in the system
D. any of the above
116. If an electrically operated compressor
failed to start, the cause might be:
A. an open switch
B. a blown fuse
C. burned-out holding coils in solenoid valve
D. any of the above
117. The oil separator is located between the:
A. evaporator and the compressor
B. compressor and the condenser
C. condenser and the dehydrator
D. solenoid valve and the thermal expansion
valve
118. To help a person who had been
overexposed to ammonia gas, one would:
A. apply artificial respiration
B. wrap in warm blankets
C. apply could compresses
D. douse with cold water
119. If the compressor short-cycles on the low-
pressure cutout, the trouble might be:
A. lack of refrigerant
B. dirty traps and strainers
C. too much frost on coils
D. any of the above
120. Ammonia will corrode:
A. copper B. bronze C. brass D. all of the above
121. The dehydrating agent in Freon system is
usually:
A. slaked lime C. activated alumina
B. sodium chloride D. calcium chloride
122. If any of the electrically controlled devices
in a Freon system malfunction, which of the
following valves will also automatically shut off?
A. king valve
B. expansion valve
C. solenoid valve
D. condenser cooling-water inlet valve
123. Many pressure gages on a Freon system
have two dials or graduations on one gage. The
two dials represent:
A. pressure and temperature
B. liquid pressure and gas pressure
C. suction and discharge pressure
D. cooling-water inlet and outlet temperatures
124. A leaky discharge valve can usually be
detected by:
A. a fluctuating high-pressure gage
B. a drop in icebox temperatures
C. a discharge pressure lower than normal
D. any of the above
125. The suction pressure in a Freon system
should be:
A. the pressure which corresponds with a
temperature about 20F. below the
temperature of the icebox
B. the pressure which corresponds with a
temperature equal to the temperature of the
icebox
C. the pressure which corresponds with a
temperature about 20 above the temperature
of the icebox
D. none of the above
126. The disadvantage of a CO2 system over an
ammonia system is the fact that:
A. the CO2 system requires a larger prime mover
B. the CO2 system operates at a much higher
pressure
C. the pipes and fittings of a CO2 system must be
of the high-pressure type
D. all of the above
127. One disadvantage of a CO2 system is the
fact that:
A. it is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the
circulating water temperature is too high
B. it is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the
circulating water temperature is too low
C. due to high pressure it is difficult to keep oil
from mixing with refrigerant
D. it takes more refrigerant to keep the icebox
cold
128. The crossover connection in an ammonia
system can be used to:
A. reduce the pressure on the discharge side of
the condenser
B. hot-gas defrost
C. pump air out of the system
D. add refrigerant to the system
129. Another name for discharge pressure is:
A. suction pressure C. head pressure
B. absolute pressure D. condenser pressure
130. Oil used in a refrigerating system is:
A. lube oil SAE 20 C. lube oil SAE 10
B. straight mineral oil D. vegetable oil
131. The discharge pressure of the compressor
should be:
A. the pressure which corresponds to a
temperature from 5 to 15 below that of the
condenser discharge
B. the pressure which corresponds to a
temperature from 5 to 15 higher than the
condenser discharge
C. the pressure which corresponds to a
temperature equal to that of the condenser
discharge
D. none of the above
132. A leaky suction valve can usually detected
by:
A. a fluctuating suction-pressure gage
B. a higher suction pressure
C. closing in on the suction valve having no
effect on the suction pressure
D. any of the above
133. The purpose of relief valves on
refrigerating machines is to:
A. prevent overloading in the ice boxes
B. bypass the compressor when dehydrating
C. prevent excessive pressure in case of
stoppage on the discharge side of the system
D. A and B
134. The relief valve on an ammonia machine is
located:
A. on the discharge pipe from the condenser
B. on the discharge pipe from the compressor
C. on the compressor head
D. A or B
135. The relief valve on a CO2 machine is
located:
A. on the discharge pipe from the condenser
B. next to the king valve
C. on the discharge pipe between the
compressor and the discharge valve
D. in the compressor head
136. Excess frost on the evaporator coils:
A. keeps the icebox cooler
B. reduces the efficiency of the plant
C. takes the load off the compressor
D. does not affect the system
137. Air circulation in the icebox is
accomplished by the use of:
A. louver doors C. diffuser fans
B. hallow sidewalls D. air vents to deck
138. Before securing a compressor to do
maintenance work on it, be sure to:
A. pump down system C. purge the system
B. have spare parts ready D. A and B
139. Some causes of a noisy compressor are:
A. worn bearings, pins, etc.
B. too much oil in crankcase
C. slugging due to folding back of refrigerant
D. any of the above
147. Sweating of the crankcase is caused by:
A. too much superheat
B. insufficient superheat
C. expansion of valve hung up
D. too much oil in the system

140. Slugging is usually caused by: 148. If an automatic Freon system will not start
A. too much oil in the system up, check the:
B. too much refrigerant in the system A. high-pressure cutout
C. expansion valve not operating properly B. low-pressure cutout
D. too much cooling water to condenser C. reset mechanism
D. all of the above
141. Zinc rods are found in the:
A. evaporator coils 149. The cooling-water side of the condenser
B. salt-water side of condenser should be opened for inspection every:
C. compressor crankcase A. 6 months C. 2 years
D. refrigerant side of condenser B. year D. 3 months

142. A double-trunk piston is used to: 150. If the thermal expansion valve becomes in
A. prevent gas from getting to crankcase operative the iceboxes will have to be
B. absorb some of the side thrust controlled by the:
C. prevent oil from mixing the refrigerant A. solenoid valve
D. all of the above B. manual expansion valve
C. king valve
143. The purpose of the receiver is to: D. manual solenoid valve
A. cool the refrigerant gas
B. separate the oil from the refrigerant 151. The low-pressure cutout switch is operated
C. store the refrigerant by:
D. condense the refrigerant A. a magnet C. spring tension
B. a bellows D. water pressure
144. When a pressure gage reads 0, the
absolute pressure is: 152. A good refrigerant should be:
A. 30 psi B. 14.7 psi C. 0 psi D. 17.4 psi A. nonpoisonous C. noninflammable
B. nonexplosive D. all of the above
145. The heat used to change a soil to a liquid is
called: 153. If a refrigerating system extracted 48,000
A. latent heat of fusion BTU per hour, the tonnage of the machine
B. sensible heat of fusion would be:
C. latent heat of liquid A. 5 tons B. ton C. 2 tons D. 4 tons
D. specific heat of fusion
154. The purpose of the low-pressure cutout
146. The heat used to change a gas to a vapor is switch is to:
called: A. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of
A. latent heat of fusion the compressor
B. latent heat of vaporization B. maintain a preset suction pressure to the
C. specific heat of vaporization compressor
D. latent heat of gas C. cut out the compressor at a set pressure
D. cut compressor in and out at a preset
pressure
155. The most likely cause of high superheat
would be:
A. too much refrigerant
B. expansion valve open too wide
C. expansion valve closed in too much
D. back-pressure valve set too high
156. The pressure of the evaporator is to:
A. absorb latent heat of the vaporization
B. absorb latent heat of the fusion
C. transfer latent heat of vaporization
D. transfer latent heat of fusion
157. Air is removed from the system by:
A. increasing the amount of cooling water
B. opening the purge valve
C. running the refrigerant through an aerator
D. running the refrigerant through a deaerator
158. The suction pressure switch is operated by:
A. electric current C. pressure on a bellows
B. thermocouple D. a relay cutout
159. A hot suction line might be caused by:
A. insufficient refrigerant
B. insufficient lubrication
C. expansion valve closed too much
D. too much refrigerant
160. The device used for low-pressure control
and high-pressure cutout on a compressor is
called a:
A. cutout C. controller switch
B. compressor controller D. cutout switch
161. Thermal expansion valves are usually of
the:
A. bellows type C. diaphragm type
B. magnetic type D. A or C
162. Liquid reaching the compressor through
the suction line is called:
A. flooding back C. overflowing
B. superheating D. recycling
163. Pressure controllers usually of the:
A. diaphragm-type construction
B. bellows-type construction
C. magnetic-type construction
D. pilot-valve type construction
164. If the cooling water to the condenser
should suddenly fail:
A. the solenoid valve will close
B. the expansion valve will close
C. the compressor will shut down
D. an alarm will ring to notify the engineer
165. If the solenoid valve closed by accident,
the compressor would be stopped by the:
A. low-pressure cutout switch
B. high-pressure cutout switch
C. low-water cutout switch
D. automatic trip
166. The solenoid valve controls the:
A. amount of refrigerant entering the
evaporator coils
B. amount of refrigerant going to the expansion
valve
C. amount of refrigerant going to the
compressor
D. pressure of the refrigerant going to the
evaporator coils
167. As Freon passes through the expansion
valve:
A. the volume decreases and the pressure
increases
B. the volume increases and the pressure
increases
C. the pressure decreases and the volume
increases
D. the volume decreases and the pressure
decreases
168. When checking zinc plates in a condenser,
one should:
A. paint the plates with red lead
B. install all new plates
C. clean the plates and renew worn-out ones
D. ground each plate to the shell
169. If the compressor short-cycles on the high- B. dehydrator D. receiver
pressure cutout, which of the following would
you check? 179. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 8 is the:
A. be sure system is getting cooling water A. dehydrator C. strainer
B. if plenty of cooling water is running through B. condenser D. evaporator
but it is not picking up heat, the condenser
tubes need cleaning 180. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 2 is the:
C. check for too much refrigerant in the system A. dehydrator C. strainer
D. all of the above B. oil trap D. scale trap

170. In a refrigerating system the temperature

is at its highest between the:
A. condenser and receiver
B. compressor and condenser
C. receiver and evaporator
D. evaporator and compressor

171. A Freon unit will tend to short-cycle when

operating under: 181. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 3 is the:
A. heavy loads C. light loads A. charging valve C. purge valve
B. normal conditions D. all of the above B. liquid valve D. scale trap

172. Short-cycling means that the machine: 182. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 5 is the:
A. grounds out frequently C. runs too fast A. condenser C. evaporator
B. stops and starts frequently D. runs too slow B. receiver D. dehydrator

173. Freon is: 183. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 6 is the:

A. noncorrosive C. nontoxic A. solenoid valve C. purge valve
B. flammable D. A and C B. charging valve D. liquid valve

174. A refrigerant should have a: 184. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 9 is the:
A. high latent heat C. low latent heat A. thermal expansion valve C. solenoid valve
B. high sensible heat D. low sensible heat B. manual expansion valve D. liquid valve

175. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 7 is the: 185. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 11 is the:
A. purge valve C. charging valve A. solenoid valve
B. liquid valve D. solenoid valve B. thermal expansion valve
C. liquid valve
176. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 12 is the: D. none of the above
A. thermal expansion valve C. liquid valve
B. solenoid valve D. manual expansion valve 186. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 15 is the:
A. high-pressure cutout
177. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 10 is the: B. low-pressure cutout
A. solenoid valve C. liquid valve C. relief valve
B. strainer D. purge valve D. scale trap

178. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 4 is the:

A. evaporator C. condenser
 ANSWERS TO REFRIGERATING ENGINEER QUESTIONS

1. C 48. C 95. C 142. D

2. A 49. D 96. A 143. C
3. B 50. A 97. B 144. B
4. A 51. C 98. D 145. A
5. D 52. A 99. D 146. B
6. D 53. B 100. A 147. D
7. B 54. A 101. A 148. D
8. B 55. B 102. D 149. D
9. B 56. D 103. D 150. B
10. D 57. D 104. B 151. B
11. C 58. C 105. C 152. D
12. D 59. B 106. D 153. D
13. B 60. A 107. A 154. D
14. C 61. C 108. B 155. C
15. B 62. D 109. D 156. A
16. B 63. B 110. B 157. B
17. C 64. A 111. D 158. C
18. B 65. B 112. B 159. A
19. C 66. C 113. B 160. B
20. A 67. B 114. D 161. D
21. C 68. C 115. D 162. A
22. B 69. B 116. D 163. B
23. D 70. A 117. B 164. C
24. B 71. C 118. A 165. A
25. D 72. B 119. D 166. B
26. B 73. A 120. D 167. C
27. D 74. B 121. C 168. C
28. A 75. C 122. C 169. D
29. D 76. A 123. A 170. B
30. D 77. D 124. D 171. C
31. A 78. D 125. A 172. B
32. C 79. A 126. D 173. D
33. D 80. B 127. A 174. A
34. C 81. C 128. B 175. C
35. C 82. A 129. C 176. A
36. C 83. C 130. B 177. B
37. A 84. B 131. B 178. C
38. D 85. A 132. D 179. A
39. C 86. C 133. C 180. B
40. A 87. B 134. C 181. C
41. A 88. D 135. C 182. B
42. A 89. B 136. B 183. D
43. D 90. C 137. C 184. B
44. D 91. D 138. D 185. A
45. D 92. A 139. D 186. B
46. B 93. C 140. C
47. C 94. B 141. B