IBPS IT Officer 2014 Question Bank ExamPundit

IT Fundamentals Questions
1. First calculating device is :

a. Clock
b. Difference Engine
c. Abacus
d. Calculator
e. All
2. Analog computer is:
a. A machine which work an data which is always
b. Arithmetic high level language
c. Communicate at low level
d. All those
e. None of these
3. Super computer:
a. Process data of more than one user at one time
b. It is fast and costly computer system
c. It is used in large organization
d. These all
e. None of these
4. Characteristics of fifth generation computer:
a. Used in home
b. Artificial intelligence
c. Very low cast
d. All
e. None of these
5. In production of I.C chip of computer what is needed in the following:
a. Chromium
b. Silicon
c. Platinum
d. Gold
e. None of these
6. Father of computer is called:
a. Marconi
b. Addison
c. Charles Babbage
d. Herman Hellenist
e. None to these
7. First super computer developed in India is :
a. Param
Page 1 of 518 www.exampundit.in

b. Aryabhatt
c. Buddha
d. Ram
e. None of these
8. Who developed integrated chip:
a. CV Raman
b. Robet Nayak
c. JS Kilbi
d. C Babbage
e. None of these
9. Which material is layered at magnetic disk:
a. Iron Oxide
b. Phosphorus bent oxide
c. Magnesium oxide
d. Sodium per oxide
e. None of these
10. Main characteristics of 4th generation was:
a. Transistor
b. VLSI
c. IC
d. Vacuum Tube
e. None of these

11. By which printer a character prints is only one stroke:
a. Laser printer
b. Dot matrix printer
c. Line printer
d. Both a and b
e. Thermal printer
f. None of these
12. Which of following in not an input device:
a. keyboard
b. monitor
c. joy sticks
d. microphone
e. none of these
13. how many arrow keys are there in a computer keyboard:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None of these
14. Which is following is an output device:
a. Printer
b. Monitor
c. Mouse
d. A & B Both
e. None of these
15. Hardcopy of document is:
a. Printer on printer
b. Stored on floppy
c. Stored in CD
d. Stored in Hard disk
e. None of these
16. A scanner scans:
a. Pictures
b. Text
c. Both Picture & Text
d. Neither Picture & text
e. None of these
17. A printer is this kind of device:
a. Input

b. world processing
c. Processing
d. Output
e. None of these
18. pick the odd one:
a. Mouse
b. Scanner
c. Printer
d. Keyboard
e. None of these
19. Capital letters on a keyboard are referred to as:
a. Caps Lock
b. Grownup
c. Big guys
d. Uppercase Letters
e. None of these
20. You can use Tab key to.
a. Move a cursor across the screen.
b. Intend a paragraph
c. Move the cursor down the screen
d. Only a and b
e. None of these.
21. Memory visible in computer is:
a. Ram
b. DSL
c. USB
d. LAN
e. CPU
22. When we work an any document on Pc, it stored temporarily on:
a. RAM
b. ROM
c. CPU
d. Flash memory
e. CD-ROM
23. Part of computer in which data and programs are stored is called:
a. Processor
b. Memory
c. Software
d. Hardware

e. None of these
24. Any data or instructions natural into memory of a computer is considered as
a. Storage
b. Output
c. Input
d. Information
e. None of these
25. Where is data saved permentely
a. Memory
b. Storage
c. CPU
d. Printer
e. None of these
26. The primary device that computer uses to store information:
a. TV
b. Storehouse
c. Desk
d. Hard drive
e. None of these
27. What is the shortcut key to print:
a. Ctrl + O
b. Ctrl + P
c. Ctrl + K
d. Ctrl + R
e. None of these
28. Spelling and Grammar tool is used to:
a. Check Spelling
b. Check Grammar
c. Correct Spelling
d. Correct Grammar
e. All of these
29. Book mark is used to:
a. Store the location of document
b. Store the document in Hard disk
c. Check document
d. All of these
e. None of these
30. Hyperlink creates link from:
a. Same document

b. Other document
c. Any internet website
d. All of these
e. None of these
31. Which is the view of MS Word:
a. Normal
b. Web Layout
c. Print Layout
d. All of these
e. None of these
32. Shortcut key of cut:
a. Ctrl + C
b. Ctrl + X
c. Ctrl + K
d. Ctrl + R
e. None of these
33. PC stands for:
a. Personal Computer
b. Private Computer
c. Public Computer
d. Both a and b
e. None of thes
34. Main circuit board of computer is called:
a. Father Board
b. Mother Board
c. Keyboard
d. All of these
e. None of these
35. To run CD in computer we need:
a. FD Drive
b. CD Drive
c. Zip Drive
d. Pen Drive
e. None of these
36. Which is not the part of system unit:
a. Monitor
b. CPU
c. CD-ROM
d. Floppy Disk

e. None of these
37. A disk in which you store information
a. Floppy Disk
b. Hard Disk
c. Compact Disk
d. None of these
e. All of these
38. A computer Hard Disk is:
a. Arithmetic and Logic Unit
b. System Unit
c. Computer Software
d. Computer Hardware
e. None of these
39. MS Word is used to prepare:
a. Presentation
b. Spreadsheet
c. Documents
d. All of these
e. None of these
40. H2O is the example of:
a. Drop cap
b. Sub Script
c. Super Script
d. All of these
e. None of these
41. The extension of excel file is:
a. exl
b. xls
c. doc
d. ppt
e. None of these
42. MS Excel is the part of:
a. MS Office
b. Open Office
c. Windows
d. All of these
e. None of thes
43. Short cut key to check spelling and grammar:
a. F5

b. F6
c. F7
d. F8
e. None of these
44. Header and Footer is in ______ menu
a. File
b. Edit
c. View
d. Insert
e. Format
45. In MS Word Table the formula to add list of numbers is
a. Add
b. Addition
c. Sum
d. Total
e. None of these
46. What is computer?
a. Electronic machine
b. Power machine
c. Electric machine
d. These all
e. None of these
47. A_____________ is an electronic device that process data and convert it in to information?
a. Computer
b. Processor
c. Case
d. Style
e. None of these
48. . Is processed in information by computer processor?
a. Number
b. Processor
c. Input
d. Data
e. None of these
49. What is ATM?
a. branch of bank
b. staff counter of bank
c. withdrawal of cash with out staff
d. all of these

e. none of these
50. Meaning of data processing is___
a. Collection of data
b. Working of computer
c. To do calculation
d. Prepare information for business use
e. none of these
51. part of CPU which coordinates all function of computer and other component____
a. mother board
b. coordination board
c. control unit
d. ALU
e. none of these
52. data going to computer is called_____
a. operate
b. algorithm
c. input
d. calculation
e. flowchart
53. input is modified unto output by___
a. peripherals
b. memory
c. storage
d. input out unit
e. data copy
54. which one of these is not a characteristic or function of computer____
a. data collection
b. data storage
c. data processing
d. data output
e. data copy
55. which is called data in computer
a. number
b. symbol
c. information provided
d. information containing number and symbol
e. none of these
56. information in computer is called____
a. data

b. number
c. symbol
d. stored data
e. none of these
57. Which is part of CPU?
a. Keyboard
b. Printer
c. Tape
d. ALU
e. none of these
58. What is E.D.P?
a. electronic data part
b. electronic data power
c. electronic data processing
d. electronic data personal
e. none of thes
59. CPU stands for_____

a. Cover processing unit
b. control processing unit
c. central processing unit
d. all
e. none of these
60. ALU stands for___
a. Arithmetic logic unit
b. Arithmetic large unit
c. Arithmetic long unit
d. All of these
e. None of these
f.
61. _______ is not the special key on keyboard.
a. Ctrl
b. Alt
c. LCD
d. Space bar
62. Which is not a output device:
a. Monitor
b. Mouse
c. Printer

d. Speaker
63. Shortcut key to Cut selected text in MS-Word:
a. Ctrl + v
b. Ctrl + z
c. Ctrl + t
d. Ctrl +x
64. There are ________ types of alignment in MS-Word.
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
65. Shortcut key to open a file:
a. Ctrl + v
b. Ctrl + O
c. Ctrl + t
d. Ctrl +x
66. Task Pane is in ________ menu.
a. File
b. Table
c. View
d. Help
67. There are ________ rows in Excel.
a. 256
b. 65536
c. 1024
d. 254
68. Hand mouse cursor shown on _________.
a. Hyperlink
b. Footnote
c. Page note
d. Wrong word
69. CPU is acronym of
a. Central processing unit
b. Central performance unit
c. Central preparation Unit
d. None of the above
70. Pivot Table is in:
a. File
b. Edit

c. Data
d. Tools
e. None of these
71. MS Access is used for creating:
a. Document
b. Database
c. Presentation
d. Spreadsheet
e. None of these
72. Which is the primary memory
a. RAM
b. HDD
c. Flash
d. All of these
e. None of these
73. Which is not the type of printer:
a. Dot matrix
b. Laser
c. Desk-jet
d. Bubble jet
e. None of these
74. What is the shortcut key of redo:
a. Ctrl + Z
b. Ctrl + Y
c. Ctrl + R
d. Ctrl + H
e. None of these
75. Saved document is referred as:
a. File
b. Word
c. Folder
d. Project
e. None of these

DBMS MCQ
1. Mechanism developed to enforce users to enter data in required format is:

a. Data validation
b. Input mask
c. Criteria
d. Data verification
2. The raw facts and figures are:

a. Data
b. Information
c. Snapshot
d. Reports
3. The feature that database allows to access only certain records in database is:
a. Forms
b. Reports
c. Queries
d. Tables
4. Which filter method lets you filter the records that match the selected field?
a. Filter by form
b. Filter by selection
c. Auto filter
d. Advanced filter
5. Which filter method lets you filter records based on criterion you specify?
a. Filter by form
c. Auto filter
d. Advanced filter
6. You can find Sort & Filter group of commands in

a. Home ribbon
b. Create ribbon
c. Database tools ribbon
d. Fields ribbon
7. Which of the following filter method is not available in Access?

a. Filter by selection
b. Filter by form
c. Advanced filter
d. None of above
8. By Grouped Report you understand

a. Type of report generated by the Report Wizard
b. Type of report that present records sorted in ascending or descending order as you specify
c. Type of report that displays data grouped by fields you specified
d. None of above
9. The text you typed in Description column in Table Design View is displayed on
a. Description bar in forms

b. Report Footer when printed
c. Title bar of MS Access while entering data
d. Status bar while entering data
10. What is the maximum allowed field size for Boolean (Yes/No) fields?
a. 1
b. 8
c. 50
d. 255
11. What is the size of Data & Time field type?

a. 1
b. 8
c. 255
d. 50
12. Which of the following field type can store maximum data?
a. Yes/No fields
b. Date/Time fields
c. Text fields
d. Memo fields
13. To display associated record from related table in datasheet view, you can
a. Double click the record
b. Apply filter by form command
c. Single click on expand indicator (+) next to the record
d. Double click on expand indicator (+) next to the record
14. Arrange according to the size

a. Record, field, byte, bit
b. Bit, field, byte, record
c. Field, byte, record, bit
d. Byte, bit, record, field
15. What type of relationship exists between a Student table and Fees table?
a. One to one
b. One to many
c. Many to many
d. One to many and many to many
16. Identify the relationship between a Movie table and Stars table:
a. One to one
b. One to many
c. Many to many
d. None of above
17. What type of relationship exists between a Teacher table and Class table?
a. One to many
b. Many to many
c. One to one
d. Two to two

18. Which of following relationship type is not possible to realize in Access Database directly?
a. One to one
b. One to many
c. Many to many
d. None of above
19. For which kind of relationship you need a junction table to reflect real world situation?
a. One to one
b. One to many
c. Many to many
d. None of above
20. What do you need if you should enforce many-to-many relationship between two tables?
a. Parent table
b. Child table
c. Junction table
d. Many-to-many relationship can't be created in database
21. You can display data from multiple tables by using

a. Page break
b. Sub form
c. Columnar form
d. Tabular form
22. What is the best data type for a field that stores mobile numbers?
a. Text
b. Number
c. Date/Time
d. Memo
23. What field type is best to store serial numbers?

a. Number
b. AutoNumber
c. Text
d. Memo
24. Which of the following field type is used to store photograph of employees?
a. Memo
b. Picture
c. OLE
d. Photo
25. Which of the following method can be used to add more tables in a database?
a. Design View
b. Table Wizard
c. By Entering Data
d. All of above
26. From which version Microsoft introduced Backstage View for Access Interface?
a. Access 2003
b. Access 2007
c. Access 2010

d. Access does not have Backstage View
27. You can display Backstage View by clicking on

a. File menu
b. Home tab
c. Control box
d. Quick Access Toolbar
28. Why do you pin an item in list?

a. To mark it to delete from list
b. To move it up and make it always available
c. To make it default database when you open Access
d. None of above
29. The options like Save, Open Database, Print are available in
a. Home tab
b. Backstage View tab
c. File menu
d. Database Tools tab
30. What is relational database?

a. A place to store relational information
b. A database that is related to other databases
c. A database to store human relations
d. None of above
31. The advantage of computerized database over manual database is

a. We can get the information our quick
b. We can put in information quick
c. Solve the repeated information and consistency problem
d. All of above
32. Circular button with Office icon in it is

a. Control box
b. Office box
c. Company box
d. Control menu box
33. Group names in ribbon can be helpful to

a. Group the commands so that when you move one, you can move all of them together
b. Give a name for buttons on ribbon
c. Find the required option by inspecting through them
d. All of above
34. The options like Relationship, SQL Server etc. are found in
a. External data tab
b. Database tools tab
c. Create tab
d. Home tab
35. Navigation pane is placed on

a. The left of Access workspace

b. The right of Access workspace
c. Just below the Access workspace
d. Just above the status bar
36. You can filter the display of different Access objects in navigation pane from
a. View tab in ribbon
b. Drop down menu at the top of navigation pane
c. Sort & Filter group in Home menu
d. Database tab
Answers to Multiple Choice Questions
1. Mechanism developed to enforce users to enter data in required format is:

b. Input mask
2. The raw facts and figures are:

a. Data
3. The feature that database allows to access only certain records in database is:
c. Queries
4. Which filter method lets you filter the records that match the selected field?
5. Which filter method lets you filter records based on criterion you specify?
a. Filter by form
6. You can find Sort & Filter group of commands in

a. Home ribbon
7. Which of the following filter method is not available in Access?

c. Advanced filter
8. By Grouped Report you understand

c. Type of report that displays data grouped by fields you specified
9. The text you typed in Description column in Table Design View is displayed on
d. Status bar while entering data
10. What is the maximum allowed field size for Boolean (Yes/No) fields?
a. 1
11. What is the size of Data & Time field type?

b. 8
12. Which of the following field type can store maximum data?
d. Memo fields
13. To display associated record from related table in datasheet view, you can
c. Single click on expand indicator (+) next to the record
14. Arrange according to the size

a. Record, field, byte, bit
15. What type of relationship exists between a Student table and Fees table?
b. One to many
16. Identify the relationship between a Movie table and Stars table:
c. Many to many
17. What type of relationship exists between a Teacher table and Class table?
b. Many to many
18. Which of following relationship type is not possible to realize in Access Database directly?
c. Many to many
19. For which kind of relationship you need a junction table to reflect real world situation?
c. Many to many
20. What do you need if you should enforce many-to-many relationship between two tables?
c. Junction table
21. You can display data from multiple tables by using

b. Sub form
22. What is the best data type for a field that stores mobile numbers?
a. Text
23. What field type is best to store serial numbers?

b. AutoNumber
24. Which of the following field type is used to store photograph of employees?
c. OLE
25. Which of the following method can be used to add more tables in a database?
d. All of above
26. From which version Microsoft introduced Backstage View for Access Interface?
b. Access 2007
27. You can display Backstage View by clicking on

a. File menu
28. Why do you pin an item in list?

b. To move it up and make it always available
29. The options like Save, Open Database, Print are available in
c. File menu
30. What is relational database?

a. A place to store relational information
31. The advantage of computerized database over manual database is

d. All of above

32. Circular button with Office icon in it is
b. Office box
33. Group names in ribbon can be helpful to

c. Find the required option by inspecting through them
34. The options like Relationship, SQL Server etc. are found in
b. Database tools tab
35. Navigation pane is placed on

a. The left of Access workspace
36. You can filter the display of different Access objects in navigation pane from
b. Drop down menu at the top of navigation pane

Important MCQ Questions on DBMS
1. _______refers to the basic facts and entities, such as names and numbers.
a. Data
b. Information
c. Input
d. Output
2. Information is processed from __________

a. Output
b. Data
c. Memory
d. None of these
3. MIS stands for:

a. Management Information Server
b. Management Information Service
c. Management Information System
d. Master Information System

4. Which is the false statement:
a. A database is ordered collection of data.
b. A database is systematic compilation of records in a computer.
c. DBMS manages the database
d. Data helps in making decisions.
5. Which is the data model

a. Relational
b. Object-Relational
c. Network
d. All of these
6. Which is not the feature of database:

a. Data redundancy
b. Independence
c. Flexibility
d. Data Integrity
7. Which is the type of data independence:

a. Physical data independence
b. Logical data independence
c. Both
d. None of these
8. Which is the feature of database:

a. Query Language

b. Multi user access
c. Data Dictionary
d. All of these
9. Which is the advantage of database:

a. Prevents Data redundancy
b. Restricts unauthorized access
c. Persistent storage
d. Backup and recovery
e. Integrity Constraints
f. All of these
10. Which is the database language:

a. C
b. C++
c. SQL
d. None of these
11. Which person is responsible for overall activities for database:

a. Database designer
b. Database analyst
c. Database Administrator
d. Database manager
12. Which level of database is viewed by user:

a. Internal level
b. External Level
c. Conceptual Level
d. All of these
13. Internal level has:

a. Individual Users View of the database
b. Community view of the database
c. Physical Representation of the database
d. All of these
14. Which is the component of database management system:

a. Query Language
b. Database Manager
c. File manager
d. All of these
15. ______is the structure of the database.

a. Table

b. Relation
c. Schema
d. None of these
16. Schema is usually stored in____________.

a. Tables
b. Data Dictionary
c. Both
d. None of these
17. Schema is defined by:

a. DML
b. DDL
c. DCL
d. DQL
18. DML language is used to:

a. Define schema
b. Define internal level
c. Access Data
d. All of these
19. DBMS is the bridge between operating system and ___________.

a. User
b. Database administrator
c. Application program
d. None of these
20. Which is the most popular database model:

a. Network Model
b. Relational Model
c. Hierarchical Model
d. Object Oriented
21. Which is the schema object:

a. Database links and clusters
b. Packages and Indexes
c. Procedures and functions
d. All of these
22. In database records are called:

a. Attributes
b. Entity
c. Tuples
d. Relations

23. An entity has a set of ___________ that describe it.
a. Attributes
b. Entity
c. Tuples
d. Relations
24. In ER model rectangle represents:

a. Attributes
b. Entity set
c. Relationships
d. None of these
25. Date is the type of attribute:

a. Simple
b. Composite
c. Single values
d. Multi valued
26. __________is the attribute or group of attributes that uniquely identify occurrence of each entity.
a. Foreign key
b. Super Key
c. Primary Key
d. All of these
27. _________is the real world object, such as a person, place etc.
a. Attribute
b. Entity
c. Records
d. All of these
28. Grant and revoke is the type of command:

a. DDL
b. DML
c. DCL
d. DQL
29. A user that manages the files of application in DBMS is called:

a. Administrator
b. Database analyst
c. File Manager
d. None of these
30. ________is the information about data.

a. Data

b. Meta-Data
c. Entity
d. Relations
1. DBA stands for:
a. Database associated
c. Database application
d. None of these
2. DBMS stands for:
d. Database management system
3. Which means a place where data can be stored in a structured manner:
a. CPU
b. Database
c. ALU
d. All of these
4. A database is a complex ______:
a. Data structure
b. Memory
c. Both
d. None
5. The set of data available to the user, the so-called:
a. Start-user data
b. End-user data
c. Database
d. None of these
6. How is describing the end-user data:
a. Memory
b. CPU
c. ALU

d. Data
7. DBMS is to impose a logical and structured organization on:
a. Register
b. Data
c. Memory
d. None of these
8. How many basic operation performed in DBMS:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
9. Basic operation performed in DBMS are:
a. Management of data in the database
b. Management of user associated with database
c. Both
d. None
10. _____is a collection of programs performing all necessary action associated with a database:
11._______is a program or set of program that interacts with the database at some point in its execution:
a. A database system
b. A database application
c. Both
d. None
12.________is a collection of application programs that interacts with the database along with DBMS:
a. A database system
b. A database application
c. Both
d. None
13.In which services the processes of database management and data management are complementary:

14.ACID stands for:
a. Atomicity, consistency, isolation, and durability
b. Atomicity, command, integrity, and data
c. Atomicity, control, integrated, and direct
d. None of these
15. A DBMS provides users with the conceptual representation of:
a. Register
b. Data
c. Logical view
d. Physical view
16.Which structure of data clearly is one of the main features of the database approach:
a. Logical view
b. Physical view
c. Both
d. None
17.A _____view of data expresses the way a user thinks about data
a. Logical view
b. Physical view
c. Both
d. None
18.A physical view of data refers to the way data is handled at a_____ its storage and retrieval:
a. High level
b. Low level
c. Medium level
d. All of these
19.In logical and physical view of data the set of principles that defines a data model may be divided into
how many parts:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

d. 4
20.In logical and physical view of data the set of principles that defines a data model may be divided into
which part:
a. Data definition
b. Data manipulation
c. Data integrity
d. All of these
21.The overall description of a database is called______:
a. Data definition
b. Data manipulation
c. Data integrity
d. Database schema
22.Which is proper subset designed to support views belonging to different classes of users in order to hid
or protect information:
a. Schema
b. Subschema
c. Non-schema
d. None-subschema
23.A data dictionary is a repository that manages _____:
a. Database
b. Memory
c. Metadata
d. All of these
24.Which languages are used to define and query a database:
a. Database
b. Memory
c. Metadata
d. All of these
25.DDL stand for:
a. Data definition language
b. Data description languages
c. Data design languages
d. Database dictionary languages

26.Which are the not most frequently used DDL statements:
a. CREATE
b. DROP
c. ALTER
d. None of these
27.VDL stand for:
a. View data languages
b. View design languages
c. View definition languages
d. View done languages
28.SDL stands for
a. Stand definition languages
b. Storage definition languages
c. Select definition languages
d. system definition languages
29.The DDL is used to specify the_____:
a. Conceptual schemas
b. Internal schemas
c. Both
d. None
30.The SDL is used to specify the_______:
a. Conceptual schemas
b. Internal schemas
c. Both
d. None
31.DML stands for:
a. Data description languages
b. Data design languages
c. Database dictionary languages
d. Data manipulation languages
32.Which is used for data retrieval from the database:
a. DDL
b. DML

c. SDL
d. VDL
33. Which is used to specify the user views and their mappings to the conceptual schema:
a. DDL
b. DML
c. SDL
d. VDL
34.How many types of DML:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
35.What are the types of DML:
a. Low level
b. High level
c. Procedural DML
d. All of these
36. Which is requires a user to specify what data is needed and how to get it:
a. Low level
b. Procedural DML
c. Both
d. None
37.Data is manipulated by procedure calls to subroutines provided by a_____:
a. Data
b. DBMS
c. Register
d. All of these
38.The programming languages is called:
a. Sublanguages
b. Host languages
c. VDL
d. DDL

39. The DML is called:
a. Sublanguages
b. Host languages
c. VDL
d. DDL
40.Which command are included in a general purpose programming languages:
a. DDL
b. DML
c. SDL
d. VDL
41.A database management system are very complex_____:
a. Art
b. Command
c. Languages
d. System
42.How many levels of abstraction in DBMS:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
43.Which are the three levels of abstraction:
a. Physical
b. Logical
c. External
d. All of these
44.How many types of data independence:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
45.Which are the types of data independence:
a. Physical
b. Logical

c. Both
d. All of these
46.Which is the transformation of requests and results between different levels of abstraction:
a. Evaluation
b. Mapping
c. Compiler
d. Precompiler
47.Which mapping exists between the conceptual and internal levels:
a. Conceptual
b. Internal
c. Both
d. None
48.Which mapping exists between the external and conceptual levels:
a. Conceptual
b. Internal
c. Both
d. None
49.The related and interconnected software components of a DBMS are described by the _______:
a. Logical architecture
b. Physical architecture
c. Both
d. None
50.Which are the types of physical DBMS architecture can be split :
a. Back end
b. Front end
c. Both
d. None
51.In which end is really just any application that runs on top of the DBMS and acts as a user interface:
a. Back end
b. Front end
c. Both
d. None

52.Data are stored in________ as database:
a. Data files
b. Data dictionary
c. Database
d. Data administrator
53.RAD stands for:
a. Rotate application development
b. Register application development
c. Related application development
d. Rapid application development
54.DA stands for:
a. Data administrator
b. Database active
c. Define application
d. All of these
55.Which is the person responsible for overall control f the database system:
a. DDL
b. DBMS
c. DBA
d. SDL
56.DBA stands for:
a. Database maintenance
c. Database backup
d. Database designer
57.Transaction is an action used to perform some manipulation on data stored in the____:
a. Memory
b. Record
c. Database
d. All off these
58.How many features of a DBMS which provide a number of advantages for data management:
a. 1
b. 3

c. 5
d. 7
59.Which is a DBMS keeps back-up copies of the database:
a. Backup
b. Recovery
c. Both
d. None
60.In which the database can be restored up to the last consistent state after the system failure:
a. Backup
b. Recovery
c. Both
d. None
61.Which are the not user in End-user:
a. Nave users
b. Casual users
c. Sophisticated user
d. All of these
62.Which are the not features of a DBMS which provide a number of advantages for data management:
a. DML
b. DDL
c. SDL
d. None of these
63.Minimal data redundancy means improved _________:
a. Data independence
b. Data consistency
c. Data integration
d. Data sharing
64.Who access the database occasionally and have different needs each time:
a. Nave users
b. Casual users
d. All of these
65.Who interact with the system without writing a program:

a. Nave users
b. Casual users
d. All of these
66.Who interact with the system by invoking one of the permanent application program:
a. Nave users
b. Casual users
d. All of these
67.The main interface that a native user uses is a form interface using___:
a. DDL
b. GUI
c. OLAP
d. DML
68.The provision of _______ is a major objective for database system:
a. Data independence
b. Data consistency
c. Data integration
d. Data sharing
69.Who is requested to carry out various operation, such as insert, delete, update and retrieval vwiours on
the database by the user:
a. DBA
b. DBMS
c. DBS
d. DDL
70.____ is a translates into low-level instruction that a query processor understands:
a. DBA
b. DBMS
c. DBS
d. DDL
71.Retrieval of data is done by using a ____:
a. Stack
b. Query

c. Linked list
d. All of these
72.DML is a languages by which user accesses or manipulates the ________:
a. Data model
b. Data consistency
c. Data integration
d. Data sharing
73.Which is the central component of the DBMS software that can also be termed as the database control
system:
a. Data consistency
b. Data integration
c. Data sharing
d. Data manager
74.Which is stored information about description of data in the database:
a. Data files
b. Data dictionary
c. Database
d. Data administrator
75.After conversion of high level queries into low level commands for file access and is called
compiled_____:
a. DDL
b. DML
c. SDL
d. VDL
76.Which is installs, configures, troubleshoots and maintains a database system:
a. DBA
b. DDL
c. DML
d. SDL
77.Which is incorporated to create an appropriate physical database that is transformed by a logical data
model:
a. SDL
b. VDL
c. Both

d. None
78.SQL stands for:
a. System query language
b. Sequential query language
c. Sets query languages
d. None of these
79.CSV stands for:
a. Command system values
b. Comma system values
c. Command separated values
d. Comma separated values
80.PDF stands for:
a. Physical data format
b. Portable document format
c. Physical document format
d. Portable data format
81. XML stands for:
a. Xtensible markup languages
b. Xtensible memory languages
c. Both
d. None
82.BLOB stands for:
a. Binary languages Objects
b. Bit large Objects
c. Binary low objects
d. Binary large objects
83.Which is refers to the collection of related data values or items called fields:
a. Record
b. Record blocking
c. Fixed-length record
d. Variable-length record
84.Every record in the same size in bytes the file is constituted of_____:
a. Record

b. Record blocking
c. Fixed-length record
d. Variable-length record
85._________ is the records in the file are of different sizes:
a. Record blocking
b. Fixed-length record
c. Variable-length record
d. None of these
86.In which circumstances not variable-length record occur:
a. Mixed files
b. Repeating field
c. Both
d. None
87.The block containing the record is the unit of data transferred between the________:
a. Main memory and The disk
b. Data and Memory
c. Data and Disk
d. All of these
88.Who is the unit of data transferred:
a. The memory
b. The data
c. The user
d. The block
89. _____is a collection of all occurrences of similar types of records:
a. Data
b. Data item
c. File
d. All of these
90.How many types of recodes in a file-based system:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

91. Which are is not type of recodes in a file-based system:
a. Logical records
b. Physical records
c. Both
d. None
92.Which contain information about a file needed by system programs for accessing file records:
a. File blocks
b. File operations
c. File headers
d. None of these
93.The file operations can be divided into how many categories:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
94._____ take into account only such records that are valid:
a. Algorithm
b. Searching algorithm
c. Flow chart
d. All of these
95. ______ file organization is vital for ensuring the most efficient access of files and records:
a. File blocks
b. File operations
c. File headers
d. File organization
96.New records are placed at the end of the file it is referred to as____:
a. Heap file
b. Pile file
c. Both
d. None
97.The field which is used to order the file is referred to as ________:
a. Sorted field
b. Ordering field

c. Both
d. None
98.Binary search accesses _____ blocks:
a. Log(b)
b. Log2(b)
c. 2log(b)
d. Log(2b)
99.Which provides precise partition between abstract characteristics of the data type and its
implementation specifications:
a. Data
b. Data item
c. File
d. Data abstraction
100.ODBS stands for:
a. Off data base connection
b. Open data base connection
c. Oriented data base connection
d. All of these
101.DDL stands for:
a. Decode data languages
b. Data define languages
c. Database define languages
d. Define data languages
102. SOA stands for:
a. Services oriented abstraction
b. System oriented abstraction
c. Services oriented architecture
d. All of these
103. ADSL stands for:
a. Acquired data system line
b. Asymmetric digital subscribe line
c. Asymmetric digital subscribe languages
d. Acquired data system languages

104.Which services are insulated by abstraction from the fundamental physical data:
a. DDL
b. ODBC
c. SOA
d. ADSL
105.EII stand for:
a. Enterprise information integration
b. End information integration
c. Enterprise input information
d. None of these
106.______ is another name given to data integration when use in the management context:
a. EII
b. IEI
c. GUI
d. SUI
107.LAV stands for:
a. Logical as view
b. Local as view
c. Land as view
d. Last as view
108.GAV stands for:
a. Global as view
b. Global as verify
c. Both
d. None
109.ETL stands for:
a. End transforming and loudening
b. Extracting transforming and loading
c. Extracting transforming and languages
d. End transforming and languages
110.GSM stands for:
a. Global source mapping
b. Global system map

c. Global system master
d. Global system mode
111.Which are the accepted ways for modeling such correspondence:
a. LAV
b. GAV
c. Both
d. None
112.CDI stands for:
a. Computer data input
b. Code data input
c. Computer data integration
d. Computer data information
113.How many structure used in ontology based on data integration application are explained:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
114.______ is the commercial application of data integration:
a. EII
b. IEI
c. GUI
d. SUI

115.ANSI stands for:
a. Analyst national system institute
b. Analog national system institute
c. Analyst national standards institute
d. American national standards institute
116.SPARC stands for:
a. System planning and requirements
b. Standards planning and requirements
c. Both
d. None
1. Which can choose from several approaches to manage data:
a. DBMS
b. DDL
c. SDL
d. CDL
2. Which provides mechanisms to structure data in the data base being modeled:
a. DBMS
b. DDL
c. SDL
d. CDL
3. E-R stands for:
a. Entry relationship
b. Entity relationship
c. Both
d. None
4. Which models a collection of various concepts that are use to describe the structure of a data base:
a. Data base
b. Data model
c. Data
d. Recorded
5. Data at the conceptual level and view level can be describe with the help of____:

a. Data model
b. Relation model
c. Record based logical model
d. All of these
6. How many types of record based logical models:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
7. Which are the types of record based logical models:
a. Relational
b. Network
c. Hierarchical
d. All of these
8. E-R model entities and their relationship are corresponded as ___ dimensional tables:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
9. Which are the not properties of a relation are:
a. Row order are insignificant
b. Column order are insignificant
c. The values are atomic
d. None of these
10.Which is the various key:
a. Super key
b. Primary key
c. Secondary key
d. Alternate key
e. Candidate key
f. Foreign key
g. Concatenated key
h. All off these

i. None f these
11.Which is a primary domain:
a. Domain
b. Data
c. Register
d. Models
12.In which year the relational model introduced:
a. 1969
b. 1970
c. 1971
d. 1972
13.In which person introduced the relational model:
a. E.F. codd
b. F.F. codd
c. E.E. codd
d. None of these
14.How many components in relational model:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
15.Which components are use in make up the relational model:
a. Structural
b. Manipulative
c. Integrity
d. All off these
16. Who is represent a data base as a collection of relation value:
a. Data model
b. Relation model
c. Record based logical model
d. All of these
17.The heading of a relation is also referred to as ________:
a. Relation schema

b. Intension
c. Both
d. None
18.In relational model the body of the relation is referred to as_______:
a. Extension
b. Criterion
c. Relation
d. None of these
19. Which is the set of defined atomic values for an attribute:
a. Domain
b. Data
c. Register
d. Models
20.Which is the name of role played by a domain in the relation:
a. Relational schema
b. Domain
c. Attribute
d. Relation
21. Which is made up of relation name and a list of attributes:
a. Relational schema
b. Domain
c. Attribute
d. Relation
22.A ______ is defined as the subset of the subset of the Cartesian product of domains:
a. Extension
b. Criterion
c. Relation
d. None of these
23.SQL schema is how many types of relation schema may be defined:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

24.In a SQL schema may be defined as which types:
a. VIEWS
b. BASE RELATION
c. BOTH
d. NONE
25.CAD stands for:
a. Computer aided design
b. Computer aided data
c. Computer aided database
d. None of these
26.Which is refers to knowledge about the meaning of data:
a. Data types
b. Base relation
c. Semantic knowledge
d. All of these
27.In which is do not fully support the domain concept:
a. DBMS
b. DBS
c. RDBMS
d. All of these
28.Which is used for searching and retrieving records from the database:
a. DBS
b. DBMS
c. DDL
d. DML
29. How many types of data structures used in hierarchical model:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
30.PCR stands for:
a. Primary child relationship
b. Parent child relationship

c. Both
d. None
31.Which types of data structures used in Hierarchical model:
a. PCR
b. Records
c. Both
d. None
32._____it is an1:N relationship between two different record types:
a. DATA
b. RELTION
c. PCR
d. All of these
33.Which is a database model used to represent objects and the relationship among these objects:
a. Data model
b. Relation model
c. Hierarchical model
d. Network model

34.RDBMS stands for:
a. Relational database management system
b. Relational database management structured
c. Relational database management search
1. Which algebra is widely used in computer science:

a. Arithmetic algebra
b. Relational algebra
c. Both
d. None
2. _____algebra has similar power of expression as relational calculus and first order logic:
a. Arithmetic algebra
b. Relational algebra
c. Both
d. None
3. In relation algebra a new term was defined by codd as __________:
a. Relation
b. Relation completeness
c. Relation operation
d. Relation selection
4. How many primitive operators of relation algebra as proposed by codd:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
5. Which are the primitive operators of relation algebra as proposed by codd:
a. Selection
b. Projection
c. Cartesian product
d. Set union
e. Set difference
f. Rename
g. All of these
h. None of these
6. Which is a unary operation:
a. Selection operation
b. Primitive operation
c. Projection operation
d. Generalized selection

7. Relational calculus can be divided into how many calculi:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
8. Which is relation calculus:
a. Tuple relation calculus
b. Domain relational calculus
c. Both
d. None
9. Which calculus is based on specifying a number of tuple variables:
a. Tuple relation calculus
b. Domain relational calculus
c. Both
d. None
10. SQL is used for interacting with___:
a. DBMS
b. RDBMS
c. DDL
d. SDL
11. SQL is a ______languages:
a. Database languages
b. Declarative languages
c. Both
d. None
12. ISO stands for:
a. Input standards organization
b. Interrupt standard organization
c. International standards organization
d. None of these
13. Which is a collection of a defined group of database object like tables, indexes, tablespace:
a. Database
b. Record
c. Memory
d. All of these
14. A_____ is a single non-decomposable data element in a table:
a. View
b. Column
c. Tablespace
d. None of these
15. SQL outputs a single table known as the ______:
a. View
b. Column
c. Tablespace
d. Result set

16. How many forms of SQL:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. None of these
17. Which are form of SQL:
a. Interactive
b. Embedded
c. Both
d. None
18. In SQL which operators on a data base to produce output for user demand:
a. Interactive
b. Embedded
c. Both
d. None
19. In SQL which command can be put inside a program written in some other languages like C,C++:
a. Interactive
b. Embedded
c. Both
d. None
20. Data is passed to a program environment through______:
a. DBMS
b. SQL
c. DDL
d. SDL
21. DQL stands for:
a. Data query line
b. Data query languages
c. Data query land
d. Direct query languages
22. TCL stands for:
a. Transaction control languages
b. Transaction command languages
c. Transaction connect languages
d. None of these
23. Which is that part of SQL that allows a database user to create and restructure data base objects:
a. DBMS
b. SQL
c. DDL
d. SDL
24. ______commands in SQL allow controlling access to data within database:
a. Database
b. Data
c. Data control
d. All of these

25. How many interfaces provided by oracle:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
26. In which are interface provided by oracle:
a. SQL *PLUS
b. SQL*PLUS command line interface
c. SQL Plus Worksheet(introduced in ORACLE8i)
d. SQL *PLUS(introduced in ORACLE9i)
e. All of these
f. None of these
27. SQL has how many main commands for DDL:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
28. Which are main commands for DDL in SQL:
a. CREATE
b. ALTER
c. DROP
d. All of these
29. How many data types in oracle:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
30. In which are the data types in oracle:
a. ANSI standard data types
b. Oracle defined data types
c. Both
d. None
31. A_____ is a query that retrieves rows from more than one table or view:
a. Start
b. End
c. Join
d. All of these
32. A condition is referred to as _____:
a. Join in SQL
b. Join condition
c. Both
d. None
33. Which oracle is the join condition is specified using the WHERE clause:
a. Oracle 9i
b. Oracle 8i

c. Pre-oracle 9i
d. Pre-oracle 8i
34. Oracle-9i is supported by the__________ syntax:
a. ANSI SQL-96
b. ANSI SQL-97
c. ANSI SQL-98
d. ANSI SQL-99
35. How many join types in join condition:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
36. Which are the join types in join condition:
a. Cross join
b. Natural join
c. Join with USING clause
d. Outer join
e. Join with ON clause
f. All of these
37. How many tables in a join query have no join condition:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. None of these
38. Which product is returned in a join query have no join condition:
a. Equijoins
b. Cartesian
c. Both
d. None
39. Which is a join condition contains an equality operator:
a. Equijoins
b. Cartesian
c. Both
d. None
40. Which command defines its columns, integrity constraint in create table:
a. Create command
b. Drop table command
c. Alter table command
d. All of these
41. It refers to set of one or more columns that designates the ______ key in a referential integrity constraint:
a. Select key
b. Foreign key
c. Write key
d. None of these
42. Which constraint that requires that the column contain a value when it is initially inserted into the table:

a. IS NULL
b. NOT NULL
c. UNIQUE
d. None
43. Which constraint that identifies a column or combination of columns as a unique key:
a. IS NULL
b. NOT NULL
c. UNIQUE
d. None
44. Which command is use for removing a table and all its data from the database:
a. Create command
b. Drop table command
c. Alter table command
d. All of these
45. Which command that allows the removal of all rows from a table but flushes a table more efficiently since
no rollback information is retained:
a. TRUNCATE command
b. Create command
c. Drop table command
d. Alter table command
46. Which join refers to join records from the write table that have no matching key in the left table are include
in the result set:
a. Left outer join
b. Right outer join
c. Full outer join
d. Half outer join
47. How many set operations supports the oracle SQL:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
48. Which are the set operations supports the oracle SQL:
a. UNION
b. UNION ALL
c. INTERSECT
d. MINUS
e. All of these
49. ______ operator merges the result sets of two component queries:
a. UNION
b. UNION ALL
c. INTERSECT
d. MINUS
50. How many component queries are combined using the set operators:
a. 1
b. 2

c. 3
d. 4
51. In precedence of set operators the expression is evaluated from______:
a. Left to Left
b. Right to Right
c. Left to Right
d. Right to Left
52. View in SQL a view may be defined as a :
a. Stored query
b. Virtual table
c. Both
d. None
53. Which views is using in several advantages:
a. Simplicity
b. Security
c. User reports
d. Data integrity
e. All of these
54. How many types of views in SQL:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
55. Which are the types of views in SQL:
a. Inline view
b. Database view
c. Materialized view
d. All of these
56. Which operation are allowed in a join view:
a. UPDATE
b. INSERT
c. DELETE
d. All of these
57. The materialized view was introduced by:
a. Oracle 6
b. Oracle 7
c. Oracle 8
d. Oracle 9
58. We can delete from join view provided there is__________ key preserved table in the join:
a. One and Only One
b. One and Two
c. Two and One
d. None of these
59. Which view that contains more than one table in the top-level FROM clause of the SELECT statement:
a. Join view

b. Datable join view
c. Updatable join view
d. All of these
60. Which option is used to create a view as a constrained view and prohibit specific insert and update
operations with the view:
a. DATABASE
b. WITH CHECK OPTION
c. WITH WRITE OPTION
d. WITH OPTION
61. Which command is used to add the views to the database:
a. DATABASE VIEW
b. CREATE VIEW
c. CREATE OPTION
d. None of these
62. Which option is used with the WHERE clause:
a. DATABASE
d. WITH OPTION
63. Which option may be used to create the inline view as a constrained view:
a. DATABASE
d. WITH OPTION
64. In which year ORACLE, an SQL product was released:
a. 1976
b. 1977
c. 1978
d. 1979
65. The prototype for SQL was originally developed by:
a. INTEL
b. APPLE
c. IBM
d. All of these
66. In which year relational algebra became prominent after the relational model of database was published:
a. 1969
b. 1970
c. 1971
d. 1972
67. Relational algebra became prominent after the relational model of database was published by:
a. Codds
b. F.F. codd
c. E.E. codd
d. None of these
68. Which is an ANSI standard and has many different versions:

a. IBM
b. SQL
c. RDBMS
d. ORACLE
69. Which is used for interfacing with RDBMS:
a. IBM
b. SQL
c. ANSI
d. ORACLE
70. Which is the basis for SQL and also for all other contemporary database system like MS SQL Server, IBM
DB2, Oracle, My SQL and MICROSOFT Access:
a. DDL
b. SDL
c. RDBMS
d. None of these
1. Which is basically an RDBMS in which object oriented features are implemented:
a. Java
b. C++
c. Oracle
d. DBMS
2. Which was the first commercial RDBMS:
a. MS SQL
b. DB2
c. MY SQL
d. ORACLE
3. In which year RSI introduced oracle V2:
a. 1978
b. 1979
c. 1980
d. 1981
4. Which version of oracle, released in 1983:
a. V1
b. V2
c. V3
d. V4

5. Which version of oracle supported multi-version read consistency:
a. V1
b. V2
c. V3
d. V4
6. In which year oracle v5 was released:
a. 1977
b. 1979
c. 1983
d. 1985
7. Which version of oracle entered the market with more features:
a. V2
b. V3
c. V5
d. V6
8. Which has enhancements in the input/output operation of disk, scalability, locking of row, backup and
recovery:
a. Oracle V6
b. Oracle V5
c. Oracle V3
d. Oracle V4
9. Oracle 8 is an object relational database that was released in:
a. 1977
b. 1979
c. 1983
d. 1985
10. V6 of oracle also included the first version for_____:
a. PL
b. SQL
c. Both
d. None
11. Which was introduced stored procedures and triggers in PL/SQL:

a. Oracle V6
b. Oracle V5
c. Oracle V3
d. Oracle V7
12. Version 8i entered the market in______:
a. 1979
b. 1989
c. 1999
d. None of these
13. RAC stands for:

a. Real application cluster
14. Which version included RAC that enable multiple instances for accessing a database simultaneously:
a. V2i
b. V4i
c. V6i
d. V9i
15. Oracle 9i was introduced in:
a. 1999
b. 2000
c. 2001
d. 2002
16. ASM stands for:

a. Automatic storage management
17. Oracle database 11g was released in_________:
a. 2001
b. 2002
c. 2006
d. 2007
18. The server process contains memory for a private session which is its own and is called_________:
a. SGA
b. PGA
c. Both
d. None

19. Tables and indexes that are data of logical database structure that are stored physically in the form
of______:
a. Data files
b. Control files
c. Online redo log files
d. All of these
20. Which files has metadata that specifies database structure that includes database name along with database
files names and locations:
a. Data files
b. Control files
d. All of these
21. Which is also known as redo records, recording whatever changes are made to data:
a. Data files
b. Control files
d. All of these
22. The data in oracle database is stored in blocks known as ________:
a. Data blocks
b. Extents
c. Segments
d. Tablespaces
23. Which contains many extents:
a. Data blocks
b. Extents
c. Segments
d. Tablespaces
24. _____ shows a specified number of data blocks that are logically contiguous and keeps a particular type of
information in its storage:
a. Data blocks
b. Extents
c. Segments
d. Tablespaces

25. Which are logical storage units contained in a database and a logical container for some segment:
a. Data blocks
b. Extents
c. Segments
d. Tablespaces
26. SOA stands for:

a. Service- oriented architecture
27. SOAP stands for:
a. Simple object access protocol
28. WSDL stands for:
a. Web services description language
29. ONS stands for:
a. Oracle net services
30. OLTP stands for:
a. Online transaction processing
31. OLAP stands for:
a. Online analytical processing
32. Which refers to a software that can be executed on two or more kinds of computer containing two or more
kinds of operating system:
a. Data blocks
b. Extents
c. Segments
d. Portable
33. Which refers to independent events of the main program flow of the systems that lacks concurrency:
a. RDBMS
b. Portable
c. Asynchronously
d. None of these
34. Which is a method provided by an operating system, running in a sequence of steps:
a. Storage
b. Process
c. Computing
d. None of these
35. How many interfaces provided by oracle:
a. 1
b. 2

c. 3
d. 4
36. Which interface provided by oracle:

a. SQL*PLUS
b. SQL*PLUS command line interface
c. SQLPlus Worksheet
d. iSQL*PLUS
e. All of these
1. Analysis of an existing system starts when a customer request either for computerizing his ________:
a. Non-computerized operations
b. Computerized operations
c. Relational operation
d. Database operation
2. Which is done by developers is centered on input and output expected by the customer:
a. Requires interaction
b. Analysis of starting
c. Analysis of existing
d. None of these
3. What dose a system design include:
a. I/O devices
b. CPU
c. Storage unit
d. All of these
4. Which are used by developers to extrapolate complexities of real world into a computer based model:
a. Data analysis techniques
b. Data analysis model
c. Data structure
d. Data analysis
5. A conceptual data model defines the structure of the data and method or processes that use:
a. File
b. Data
c. Operation
d. Testing
6. CDA stands for:
a. Confirmatory data analysis
7. EDA stands for:
a. Exploratory data analysis
8. WWW stands for:
a. World wide web

9. Which is the forerunner of data analysis having close link with data visualization and data dissemination:
a. Data analysis model
b. Data structure
c. Data analysis
d. Data integration
10. In preliminary and final designs the design of physical database focuses the way data is physically_____:
a. Delete
b. Start
c. Stored
d. Read
11. Primary steps for converting a logical data model to preliminary physical data model are:
a. Converting entities into file
b. Converting relationship for accessing paths using keys
c. Adding
d. De-normalization
e. Tuning
f. Converting
g. Reduction of chain length
h. All of these
i. None of these
12. JPEG stands for:
a. Joint photographic experts group
13. MPEG stands for:
a. Moving pictures experts group
14. DVI stands for:
a. Digital video interactive
15. Which refers to the process of installing programs/software in a system of information system:
a. Requires interaction
c. Implementation
d. Testing
16. Which refers to the process of executing new and revised programs to check whether the process and
running properly:
a. Maintenance
c. Implementation
d. Testing
17. Which refers to the proper upkeep of data, hardware, software and in general of the entire system:
a. Tuning
c. Implementation
d. Maintenance
18. Which refers to the use of various techniques for the adjustments and change made to help the system work
efficiently:
a. Tuning

c. Implementation
d. All of these
19. Files that require immediate access, must be stored on_____:
a. Slow devices
b. Faster devices
c. Medium devices
d. All of these
20. The batch accesses may be stored on slow devices such as________:
a. Optical disk
b. Tape
c. Both
d. None
21. How many types of changeover methods:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
22. Which the types of changeover methods:
a. Direct
b. Parallel
c. Pilot
d. Staged or phased
e. All of these
23. How many types of maintenance:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
24. Which are the not a type of maintenance:
a. Corrective
b. Adaptive
c. Perfective
d. None of these
25. Which is conducted for assessing the quality of the system produced by developer for customer:
a. Maintenance
c. Implementation
d. Testing
1. Which is one of the major important components of the relational database:

a. Query execution

b. Query process
c. Query optimizer
d. Query transaction
2. Which is refers to the process of restoring the data that has been stored in a compter:
a. Retrieve
b. Backup
c. Recovery
d. Deadlock
3. Query processing refers to technique of maintaining managing and manipulating data stored with in the
computer system by using____ queries:
a. DBMS
b. RDBMS
c. SQL
d. None of these
4. How many major stages of query processing:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
5. Which are the major stages of query processing:
a. Query execution
b. Query optimizer
c. Both
d. None
6. In query processor which ordering is related to hash joins by SQL server 7.0:
a. Interesting ordering
b. Index intersection
c. Index joins
d. Parallel queries
7. Which Microsoft SQL server makes selection of the most appropriate index every table even if there are
many predicates in the query:
a. Microsoft SQL server6.0
b. Microsoft SQL server6.5
c. Microsoft SQL server7.0
d. Microsoft SQL server7.5
8. Which is implement it to the index intersection in index joins:
a. SQL server6.0
b. SQL server6.5
c. SQL server7.0
d. SQL server7.5
9. Which server can joins the indexes when only multiple indexes combined can cover the query:
a. SQL
b. DBMS
c. RDBMS
d. All of these

10. How many types of disk I/O:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
11. In which is types of I/O disk:
a. Random I/O
b. Sequential I/O
c. Both
d. None
12. Choosing for large and non-indexed tables, specifically for intermediate results can be termed
as__________:
a. Hashing
b. Parallelism
c. Disk
d. Deadlock
13. SMP stands for:
a. System multi-processing
b. Server multi-processing
c. Symmetric multi-processing
d. Securing multi-processing
14. Which in the database which is a software component in the RDBMS that carries out analysis of SQL
statement for finding the best way for its execution:
a. Query execution
b. Query process
c. Query optimizer
15. Which can be defined as the method in which the selected plan is executed at the query optimization stages:
a. Query execution
b. Query process
c. Query optimizer
16. Which refers to technique of maintaining, managing and manipulating data store within the computer
system by using SQL queries:
a. Query execution
b. Query processing
c. Query optimizer
17. Which is the method of processing the plan selected throughout query optimization:
a. Query execution
b. Query process
c. Query optimizer
18. Which refers to a property of computer to run several operation simultaneously and possible as computers
await response of each other:

a. Concurrency
b. Deadlock
c. Backup
d. Recovery
19. Which is refers to a stalemate situation due to which no further progress is possible as computer await
response of each other:
a. Concurrency
b. Deadlock
c. Backup
d. Recovery
20. Which is a duplicate copy of a file program that is stored on a different storage media than the original
location:
a. Concurrency
b. Deadlock
c. Backup
d. Recovery
21. Which is duplication of computer operations and routine backups to combat any unforeseen problems:
a. Concurrency
b. Deadlock
c. Backup
d. Recovery
22. Optimization that is basically related to the rewriter module is termed as__________:
a. Semantic query optimization
b. Global query optimization
c. Both
d. None
23. Optimization basically related to the Rewrite module is termed as_______:
a. Semantic query optimization
b. Global query optimization
c. Both
d. None
24. Database security helps organizations to protect data from_____:
a. Internal users
b. External users
c. Non-external users
d. Non internal users
25. Copying files to secondary or specific devices is known as______:
a. Retrieve
b. Backup
c. Recovery
d. Deadlock
26. How many types of recovery control techniques:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4

d. 5
27. Which are types of recovery control techniques:
a. Deferred update
b. Immediate update
c. Both
d. None
1. FD stands for:
a. Functional dependency
b. Facilitate dependency
c. Functional data
d. Facilitate data
2. In which model of database data is stored in tables:
a. Network model
b. Relational model
c. Hierarchical model
d. None of these
3. The relational database model and after that by a researcher at _______:
a. IBM
b. Apple
c. Intel
d. All of these
4. The database containing tables related to each other that help in the smooth processing of data is called
______:
a. Service database
b. Relation database
c. Related database
d. None of these
5. A table can be defined as a set of______:
a. Rows
b. Columns
c. Both
d. None

6. Which is very essential as no single set has a specific sot order for its elements:
a. Rows
b. Columns
c. Tables
d. All of these
7. How many types of keys in relation database design:
a. Primary key
b. Candidate key
c. Foreign key
d. All of these
8. Which keys are used that are a column in the table:
a. Primary key
b. Candidate key
c. Foreign key
d. All of these
9. Which key is referencing a primary key in a table:
a. Primary key
b. Candidate key
c. Foreign key
d. All of these
10. Which key is used to fined the customer from the table:
a. Primary key
b. Candidate key
c. Foreign key
d. All of these
11. Which key have a common meaning:
a. Foreign key
b. Primary key
c. Both
d. None
12. A domain is a collection of values from where the columns are_____:
a. Deleted

b. Created
c. Main tend
d. All of these
13. Which access provides a partial support to domains:
a. Microsoft
b. Microprocessor
c. Microcomputer
d. Memory
14. Which database relationship is considered only between pairs of tables:
a. Service database
b. Relational database
c. Related database
d. None of these
15. In relationships how many different ways in which two tables may be related:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
16. In which ways two tables may be related:
a. One-one
b. One-many
c. Many-many
d. All of these
17. Which rules are defined in relational models they from as an essential part of any relation database:
a. Integrity rules
b. Database
c. Record
d. Memory
18. How many types of integrity rules:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

19. Which are the types of integrity rule:
a. General
b. Database specific
c. Both
d. None
20. How many general rules in a relational model and being general rules these are applicable to all database:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
21. Which rules are know as entity integrity and referential integrity:
a. General
b. Database specific
c. Both
d. None
22. ______states that primary keys should not be null:
a. Entity integrity
b. Referential integrity
c. Both
d. None
23. Integrity constraints that do not fall under the preceding two integrity rules are referred to as______:
a. Entity integrity rule
b. Referential integrity rule
c. General integrity rule
d. Database specific integrity rule
24. Which has support for specification of global rule applicable to the whole table:
a. Microsoft access1.0
b. Microsoft access1.5
c. Microsoft access2.0
d. Microsoft access2.5
25. In creating a table a row contains:
a. Memory
b. Record
c. Field
d. None

26. In creating a table a column contains:
a. Memory
b. Record
c. Field
d. None
27. Which have not have client/server architecture:
a. DBS
b. DBMS
c. RDBMS
d. All of these
28. Which command creates database objects like tables views and indexes:
a. Create command
b. Update command
c. Both
d. None
29. Which command enables alteration the data stored in existing records:
a. Create command
b. Update command
c. Deletion command
d. All of these
30. Which query joins many dimension of tables to a fact table which contains large amount of rows and uses
aggregate:
a. IBM
b. SQL
c. ANSI
d. ORACLE
31. Which valued facts formalize the concept of functional dependency:
a. Single-valued
b. Double-valued
c. Both
d. None
32. Which relationship model provides a starting point for identifying schemas and integrity constraints:

a. Entity
b. Referential
c. Both
d. None
33. FD stands for:
a. Formal dependency
b. Functional dependency
c. Fact dependency
d. Superset dependency
34. Which is derived from mathematical theory:
a. IBM
b. SQL
c. ANSI
d. FD
35. Which are dependent on the information of what can be stored in the relation and serve as integrity
constraints:
a. IBM
b. SQL
c. ANSI
d. FD
36. A relation state r of R that satisfies the functional dependency constraints is called_____ of R:
a. Legal relation state
b. Unlegal relation state
c. FD
d. All of these
37. How many various types of dependencies:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
38. Which are the dependencies types:

a. Full functional dependency
b. Partial dependency
c. Trivial functional dependency
d. All of these

39. FDs are the types of constraints that are based on______:
a. Key
b. Key revisited
c. Superset key
d. None of these
40. What is a super key:
a. Key
b. Key revisited
c. Superset key
d. None of these
41. Which s essential a business problem not a data problem:
a. Data
b. Database
c. Database design
d. All of these
42. Which is primarily the result of a thorough understanding of information about an enterprise:
a. Data
b. Database
c. Database design
d. Data modeling
43. McFadden has defined normalization in his which book___________:

a. Database modern management
b. Management database of modern
c. Modern database management
d. Database management
44. The database design prevents some data from being represented due to _______:
a. Deletion anomalies
b. Insertion anomalies
c. Update anomaly
d. None of these
45. How many types of insertion anomalies:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

d. 4
46. Who developed the normalization process:
a. E.F. codd
b. F.F. codd
c. E.E. codd
d. None of these
47. E.F.Codd developed the normalization process in the which early:
a. 1969
b. 1970
c. 1971
d. 1972
48. Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that design by examining the relationship between
attributes:
b. Database modeling
c. Normalization
d. Decomposition
49. Which is the process of breaking a relation into multiple relations:
c. Normalization
d. Decomposition
50. Which formal method that locates and analyses relation schemas on the basis of their primary, candidate
keys, and the FDs that are present among the attributes of these schemas:
c. Normalization
d. Decomposition
51. In decomposition technique of splitting a relation into_____ relation:
a. ONE or MORE
b. TWO or MORE
c. THREE or MORE
d. FOUR or MORE

52. Codd suggested how many forms in normalization process:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
53. Consequently R.Boyce-Codd jointly launched powerful definition for the thired normal form called______:
a. Boyce-Codd normal form
b. First normal form
c. Second normal form
d. All of these
54. BCNF stands for:
a. Basic -Codd normal form
b. Build -Codd normal form
c. Boyce-Codd normal form
d. None of these
55. Which forms simplifies and ensures that there is minimal data aggregates and repetitive groups:
a. 1NF
b. 2NF
c. 3NF
d. All of these
56. Which forms every non-prime attribute is fully dependent functionally on the candidate key of a relational
schema:
a. 1NF
b. 2NF
c. 3NF
d. 5NF
57. Which forms is required when although NF is present more normalization is required:
a. 1NF
b. 2NF
c. 3NF
d. 4NF
58. Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity:
a. 2NF
b. 3NF
c. 4NF

d. 5NF
59. PJNF stands form:

a. Practically join normal form
b. Project join normal form
c. Pages join normal form
d. programming join normal form
60. Which forms are based on the concept of functional dependency:
a. 1NF
b. 2NF
c. 3NF
d. 4NF
61. Which one is based on multi-valued dependency:

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth

Computer System Architecture MCQ
1. Which is an important data transfer technique :

a. CPU
b. DMA
c. CAD
d. None of these
2. Which device can be thought of as transducers which can sense physical effects and convert them into
machine-tractable data:
a. Storage devices
b. Peripheral devices
c. Both
d. None
3. Which devices are usually designed on the complex electromechanical principle:
a. Storage devices
b. Peripheral devices
c. Input devices
d. All of these
4. Which disk is one of the important I/O devices and its most commonly used as permanent storage
devices in any processor:
a. Hard disk
b. Optical disk
c. Magneto disk
d. Magneto Optical disk
5. In storage devices PC have hard disk having capacities in the range of _____:
a. 12GB to 15GB
b. 15GB to 20GB
c. 20GB to 80GB
d. 80GB to 85GB
6. Which disk is a 3.5-inch diskette with a capacity of 1.44MB:
a. Soft disk
b. Floppy disk
c. Both
d. None
7. Which has a large storage capacity of 2 to8GB:
a. Magnetic tape
b. Magnetic disk
c. Soft disk
d. Floppy disk
8. Which disk read the data by reflecting pulses of laser beams on the surface:
a. Magnetic disk
b. Soft disk

c. Floppy disk
d. Optical disk
9. Data access time of optical disk varies from 200 to 350minutes with transfer rate of ________:
a. 130KB/s to 400KB/s
b. 130KB/s to 500KB/s
c. 150KB/s to 600KB/s
d. 150KB/s to 800KB/s
10. NAND type flash memory data storage devices integrated with a _______ interface:
a. ATM
b. LAN
c. USB
d. DBMS
11. Which disk is based on the same principle as the optical disk:
a. Optical disk
b. Magnetic disk
c. Magneto-optical disk
d. All of these
12. WAN stands for:
a. Wide area network
b. Word area network
c. World area network
d. Window area network
13. The human-interactive I/O devices can be further categorized as____:
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Both
d. None
14. I/O devices are categorized in 2 parts are:
a. Character devices
b. Block devices
c. Numeral devices
d. Both a & b
15. UART stands for:
a. Universal asynchronization receiver/transmitter
b. Universal asynchronous receiver/transmitter
c. United asynchronous receiver/transmitter
d. Universal automatic receiver/transmitter
16. Which are following pointing devices:
a. Light pen
b. Joystick
c. Mouse
d. All of these
17. Full form of LED:
a. Light emitting diode
b. Light encounter destination

c. Live emitting diode
d. None of these
18. In_______ mouse we use pair of LED:
a. Optical
b. Digital
c. Analog
d. All of these
19. ______is device that is designed for gaming purposes and based on principle of electricity:
a. Joy
b. Stick
c. Joystick
d. None of these
20. Joystick uses shaft potentiometers for:
a. X-Y DIRECTION
b. Only X direction
c. Only Y direction
d. All of these
21. Full form of ADC:
a. Analog to digital converter
b. Digital to analog converter
c. Accumulator digital converter
d. All of these
22. A system that enables computer to recognize human voice called:
a. Voice system
b. Voice input system
c. Input system
d. None of these
23. 2 commonly used voice input systems are:
a. Micro
b. Microphone
c. Voice recognition software
d. Both b & c
24. Optical scanner devices are:
a. MICR
b. OMR
c. OCR
d. All of these
25. MICR stands for:
a. Magnetic ink character recognition
b. Magnetic initiate character recognition
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
26. _______technique is used in evaluating objective answer sheets:
a. Optical Mark Reader
b. Optical Marker Reader

c. Optical Marker Reading
d. All of these
27. _______technique help in banking sector:
a. OCR
b. OMR
c. MICR
d. None of these
28. ______camera records image, converts it into digital format via ADC and stores it on a frame buffer:
a. Video
b. Without video
c. Audio
d. None of these
29. Sensors are______ type of devices:
a. Interactive
b. Non-interactive
c. Interaction
d. Intermediate
30. Output devices commonly referred as:
a. Terminals
b. Host
c. Receivers
d. Senders
31. Terminals classified in to 2 types are:
a. Hard copy
b. Soft copy
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
32. VDU stands for:
a. Video display unit
b. Visual display unit
c. Visual data unit
d. None of these
33. A monitor consists of :
a. ARU
b. BRT
c. CRT
d. ARU
34. LCD stands for:
a. Liquid crystal display
b. Liquid catalog display
c. Liquid crystal data
d. Liquid code display
35. The size of monitor ranges from:
a. 12-12 inch
b. 12-21 inch

c. 21-12 inch
d. 21-11 inch
36. Range of color depends on:
a. Number of bits code lines with each pixel
b. Number of bits associated with each pixel
c. Number of instructions associated with each pixel
d. Number of code associated with each pixel
37. Which parameter defines number of times electron beam scans screen in a second:
a. Refresh rate
b. Data transfer rate
c. Pitch rate
d. All of these
38. Refresh rate refresh screen up to:
a. 30 Hz per frame
b. 33 Hz per frame
c. 44 Hz per frame
d. 20 Hz per frame
39. Printer speed is ______pages per minute:
a. 13
b. 12
c. 11
d. 10
40. Printer is a:
a. Hardcopy
b. Softcopy
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
41. Laser printer is type of:
a. Impact printer
b. Non-impact printer
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
42. ______printer print 120 to 200 characters per second:
a. Dot-matrix
b. Laser
c. Line
d. None of these
43. In_______ printing, each character is printed on the paper by striking a pin or hammer against an inked
ribbon:
a. Non-impact printing
b. Impact printing
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
44. Dot matrix printer is 2 types is:
a. Daisy wheels

b. Matrix printer
c. High quality matrix printer
d. Both a & c
45. In daisy wheel printer can print 40 character/second and bold characters are achieved by overprinting the
text:
a. Four times
b. Double
c. Once
d. Thrice
46. _______printers spray tiny droplets of coloured inks on the paper and pattern depends on how nozzle
sprays the ink:
a. Inkjet printer
b. Laser printer
c. Daisy wheel
d. Dot matrix printer
47. Laser printer is a type of :
a. Impact printing
b. Non-impact printing
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
48. ______are used for printing big charts, drawings, maps and 3 dimensional illustrations specially for
architectural and designing purposes:
a. Printers
b. Plotters
c. Speakers
d. Mouse
49. DAC stands for:
a. Digital to analog converter
b. Analog to digital converter
c. Only digital converter
d. Only analog converter
50. In text to speech, speech is synthesized using lookup table of______ and these clubbed together to
form_______:
a. Phonemes, Words
b. Phonemes, Sentences
c. Character, Phonemes
d. Word, Character
51. ______interface is an entity that controls data transfer from external device, main memory and or CPU
registers:
a. I/O interface
b. CPU interface
c. Input interface
d. Output interface
52. The operating mode of I/O devices is_______ for different device:
a. Same

b. Different
c. Optimum
d. Medium
53. To resolve problems of I/O devices there is a special hardware component between CPU and_______ to
supervise and synchronize all input output transfers:
a. Software
b. Hardware
c. Peripheral
d. None of these
54. I/O modules are designed with aims to:
a. Achieve device independence
b. Handle errors
c. Speed up transfer of data
d. Handle deadlocks
e. Enable multi-user systems to use dedicated device
f. All of these
55. IDE is a_________ controller:
a. Disk
b. Floppy
c. Hard
d. None of these
56. In devices, controller is used for______:
a. Buffering the data
b. Manipulate the data
c. Calculate the data
d. Input the data
57. By which signal flow of traffic between internal and external devices is done:
a. Only control signal
b. Only timing signal
c. Control and timing signal
d. None of these
58. In devices 2 status reporting signals are:
a. BUSY
b. READY
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
59. I/O module must recognize a______ address for each peripheral it controls:
a. Long
b. Same
c. Unique
d. Bigger
60. Each interaction b/w CPU and I/O module involves:
a. Bus arbitration
b. Bus revolution
c. Data bus

d. Control signals
61. Which are 4 types of commands received by an interface:
a. Control, status, data output, data input
b. Only data input
c. Control, flag, data output, address arbitration
d. Data input, data output, status bit, decoder
62. Two ways in which computer buses can communicate with memory in case of I/O devices by using:
a. Separate buses for memory and I/O device
b. Common bus for memory and I/O device
c. both a & b
d. none of these
63. There are 2 ways in which addressing can be done in memory and I/O device:
a. Isolated I/O
b. Memory-mapped I/O
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
64. Advantages of isolated I/O are:
a. Commonly usable
b. Small number of I/O instructions
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
65. In _______ addressing technique separate address space is used for both memory and I/O device:
a. Memory-mapped I/O
b. Isolated I/O
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
66. _______is a single address space for storing both memory and I/O devices:
a. Memory-mapped I/O
b. Isolated I/O
c. Separate I/O
d. Optimum I/O
67. Following are the disadvantages of memory-mapped I/O are:
a. Valuable memory address space used up
b. I/O module register treated as memory addresses
c. Same machine intersection used to access both memory and I/O device
d. All of these
68. Who determine the address of I/O interface:
a. Register select
b. Chip select
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
69. 2 control lines in I/O interface is:
a. RD, WR
b. RD,DATA
c. WR, DATA

d. RD, MEMORY
70. In I/O interface RS1 and RS0 are used for selecting:
a. Memory
b. Register
c. CPU
d. Buffer
71. If CPU and I/O interface share a common bus than transfer of data b/w 2 units is said to be:
a. Synchronous
b. Asynchronous
c. Clock dependent
d. Decoder independent
72. All the operations in a digital system are synchronized by a clock that is generated by:
a. Clock
b. Pulse
c. Pulse generator
d. Bus
73. Asynchronous means:
a. Not in step with the elapse of address
b. Not in step with the elapse of control
c. Not in step with the elapse of data
d. Not in step with the elapse of time
74. ________is a single control line that informs destination unit that a valid is available on the bus:
a. Strobe
b. Handshaking
c. Synchronous
d. Asynchronous
75. What is disadvantage of strobe scheme:
a. No surety that destination received data before source removes it
b. Destination unit transfer without knowing whether source placed data on data bus
c. Cant said
d. Both a & b
76. In_______ technique has 1 or more control signal for acknowledgement that is used for intimation:
a. Handshaking
b. Strobe
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
77. The keyboard has a__________ asynchronous transfer mode:
a. Parallel
b. Serial
c. Optimum
d. None
78. In _______transfer each bit is sent one after the another in a sequence of event and requires just one line:
a. Serial
b. Parallel
c. Both a & b

d. None of these
79. Modes of transfer b/w computer and I/O device are:
a. Programmed I/O
b. Interrupt-initiated I/O
c. DMA
d. Dedicated processor such as IOP and DCP
e. All of these
80. ______operations are the results of I/O operations that are written in the computer program:
a. Programmed I/O
b. DMA
c. Handshaking
d. Strobe
81. _______is a dedicated processor that combines interface unit and DMA as one unit:
a. Input-Output Processor
b. Only input processor
c. Only output processor
d. None of these
82. ______is a special purpose dedicated processor that is designed specially designed for data transfer in
network:
a. Data Processor
b. Data Communication Processor
c. DMA Processor
d. Interrupt Processor
83. ______processor has to check continuously till device becomes ready for transferring the data:
a. Interrupt-initiated I/O
b. DMA
c. IOP
d. DCP
84. Interrupt-driven I/O data transfer technique is based on______ concept:
a. On demand processing
b. Off demand processing
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
85. Which technique helps processor to run a program concurrently with I/O operations:
a. Interrupt driven I/O
b. DMA
c. IOP
d. DCP
86. 3 types of exceptions are:
a. Interrupts
b. Traps
c. System calls
d. All of these
87. Which exception is also called software interrupt:
a. Interrupt

b. System calls
c. Traps
d. All of these
88. User programs interact with I/O devices through:
a. Operating system
b. Hardware
c. Cpu
d. Microprocessor
89. Which table handle store address of interrupt handling subroutine:
a. Interrupt vector table
b. Vector table
c. Symbol link table
d. None of these
90. Which technique is used that identifies the highest priority resource by means of software:
a. Daisy chaining
b. Polling
c. Priority
d. Chaining
91. ________interrupt establishes a priority over the various sources to determine which request should be
entertained first:
a. Priority interrupt
b. Polling
c. Daisy chaining
d. None of these
92. _____method is used to establish priority by serially connecting all devices that request an interrupt:
a. Polling
b. Daisy chaining
c. Priority
d. None of these
93. In daisy chaining device 0 will pass signal only if it has:
a. Interrupt request
b. No interrupt request
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
94. VAD stands for:
a. Vector address
b. Symbol address
c. Link address
d. None of these
95. _______interrupt method uses a register whose bits are set separately by interrupt signal for each device:
a. Parallel priority interrupt
b. Serial priority interrupt
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
96. ______register is used whose purpose is to control status of each interrupt request in parallel priority

interrupt:
a. Mass
b. Mark
c. Make
d. Mask
97. The ANDed output of bits of interrupt register and mask register are set as input of:
a. Priority decoder
b. Priority encoder
c. Priority decoder
d. Multiplexer
98. Which 2 output bits of priority encoder are the part of vector address for each interrupt source in parallel
priority interrupt:
a. A0 and A1
b. A0 and A2
c. A0 and A3
d. A1 and A2
99. What is the purpose
100. of A0 and A1 output bits of priority encoder in parallel priority:
a. Tell data bus which device is to entertained and stored in VAD
b. Tell subroutine which device is to entertained and stored in VAD
c. Tell subroutine which device is to entertained and stored in SAD
d. Tell program which device is to entertained and stored in VAD
101. When CPU invokes a subroutine it performs following functions:
a. Pushes updated PC content(return address) on stack
b. Loads PC with starting address of subroutine
c. Loads PC with starting address of ALU
d. Both a & b
102. DMAC stands for:
a. Direct memory access controller
b. Direct memory accumulator controller
c. Direct memory access content
d. Direct main access controller
103. IOP stands for:
a. Input output processor
104. DCP stands for:
a. Data communication processor
105. Which may be classified as a processor with the direct memory access capability that communicates
with I/O devices:
a. DCP
b. IOP
c. Both
d. None
106. The processor that communicates with remote terminals like telephone or any other serial
communication media in serial fashion is called ______:
a. DCP

b. IOP
c. Both
d. None
107. Instruction that are used for reading from memory by an IOP called _______:
a. Commands
b. Block diagram
c. Interrupt
d. None of these
108. Data communication with a remote device a special data communication is used_______:
a. Multiprocessor
b. Serial communication
c. DCP
d. IOP
109. CRC stands for:
a. Cyclic redundancy check
110. Which is used for synchronous data, PID is process ID, followed by message, CRC code and EOP
indicating end of block:
a. DCP
b. CRC
c. IOP
d. SYNC
111. Which is commonly used in high speed devices to realize full efficiency of communication link:
a. Transmission
b. Synchronous communication
c. Multiprocessor
d. All of these
112. Multiprocessor use ________ than two CPUs assembled in single system unit:
a. One or More
b. Two or More
c. One or One
d. Two or Two
113. Which refers the execution of various software process concurrently:
a. Multiprocessor
b. Serial communication
c. DCP
d. IOP
114. Which is used for this and known as high speed buffer exist with almost each process?
a. Primary
b. RAM
c. Cache
d. None of these
115. Data and instructions are accessed from local memory and global memory that is used by_____:
a. Internetworking facilities
b. Interconnection facilities
c. Both a & b

d. None of these
116. Multiprocessor uses large caches but limited process that shares________
a. Memory bus
b. Single memory bus
c. Double memory bus
d. None of these
117. Distributed are shares also referred to as tightly coupled and loosely coupled multiprocessor
respectively and hence called __________
a. Coupled multiprocessor
b. Shared multiprocessor
c. Distributed multiprocessor
d. None of these
118. Which consist if a numbers of processor can be accessed among various shared memory modules?
a. Coupled memory multiprocessor
b. Shared memory multiprocessor
c. Distributed memory multiprocessor
d. None of these
119. Which keeps a number of processors in which virtual storage space is assigned for redundant
execution:
a. Coupled memory multiprocessor
b. Shared memory multiprocessor
c. Distributed memory multiprocessor
d. None of these
120. The memory capacity in system is considered because the connecting processors are used______:
a. Network
b. Internet
c. Intranet
d. None of these
121. Intercrosses arbitration system for multiprocessor shares a _________:
a. Primary bus
b. Common bus
c. Domain bus
d. All of these
122. Which is used to decentralize the decision to avail greater flexibility to the system that makes
processor or microprocessor in a very short:
a. Arbitration
b. Centralized
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
123. Which is signal tells that an arbitration of the access bus is possible during interprocessing:
a. DBA
b. BAP
c. BNA
d. None of these
124. Which signal bus request :

a. BAP
b. BNA
c. BAL
d. DBA
125. Which signal on the bus indicates that request from process arbitration is to be processed:
a. BAL
b. BREQ
c. BM4
d. DBA
126. Which signal is exchange information by bus:
a. BECH
b. BM4
c. BAL
d. All of these
127. Which signal on bus applies +1 to the priority of resolution circuits of the arbitration designate a new
arbitration:
a. BM4
b. BAL
c. BNA
d. DBA
128. Which signal create 3 lines of bus in which signals from the encoded number of processors:
a. BM1 to BM3
b. BAL
c. Both
d. None of these
129. Which signal request the validation signal make active if its logic level is 0 and validate signals from
BM1 to BM3:
a. BAL
b. BM4
c. BNA
d. All of these
130. Which signal represents synchronization signal decided by interprocess arbitration with a certain
delay or signal DMA:
a. BAL
b. BNA
c. Both
d. None of these
131. In which condition only one process holds a resource at a given time:
a. Mutual exclusion
b. Hold and wait
c. Both
d. None of these
132. In which condition one process holds the allocated resources and other waits for it:
a. No preemption
b. Hold and wait

c. Mutual exclusion
d. All of these
133. In which condition resource is not removed from a process holding:
a. Synchronization problem
b. No preemption
c. Hold and wait
d. None of these
134. In which condition busy waiting, programmer error, deadlock or circular wait occurs in
interprocessing:
a. Synchronization problem
b. No preemption
c. Hold and wait
d. None of these
135. Mechanism can be referred to as adding a new facility to the system hence known as _______:
a. Process
b. Arbitration
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
136. Which is a mechanism used by the OS to ensure a systematic sharing of resources amongst
concurrent resources:
a. Process synchronous
b. Process system
c. Process synchronization
d. All of these
137. _________ is basically sequence of instructions with a clear indication of beginning and end for
updating shared variables
a. Critical section
b. Entry section
c. Remainder section
d. All of these
138. Which provides a direct hardware support to mutual exclusion
a. Test-and-set(TS)
b. Swap instruction
c. Wait instruction
d. Signal instruction
139. A process waiting to enter its critical section may have to wait for unduly_______:
a. Short time or may have to wait forever
b. Long time or may have to wait forever
c. Short time or may have to wait for long time
d. Long time or may have to wait for short time
140. Which is a modified version of the TS instruction which is designed to remove busy- waiting:
a. Swap instruction
b. Wait instruction
c. Signal instruction
d. Both b & c

141. PCB stands for:
a. Process control block
142. ____ gets activated whenever the process encounters a busy condition code:
a. Wait instruction
b. Signal instruction
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
143. _____ are new and mutually exclusive operation:
a. Wait instruction
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
144. _______ gets activated whenever a process leaves the critical region and the flag is set to false:
a. Wait instruction
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
145. Which represent an abstraction of many important ideas in mutual exclusion:
a. Process synchronous
b. Process system
c. Semaphores
d. All of these
146. A semaphore is a ______ integer variable upon which two atomic operations wait and signal are
defined:
a. Negative integer
b. Non- Negative integer
c. Positive integer
d. None of these
147. Which operation is executed as soon as a process exits from a critical section:
a. Wait
b. Signal
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
148. CCR stands for:
a. Conditional critical region
149. ________ is a control structure in a high-level programming language:
a. CPU
b. ALU
c. DDR
d. CCR
150. The exclusion between processes is ensured by a third semaphore called______:
a. Mutex
b. Mutual
c. Memory
d. All of these

151. ______ semaphore provides mutual exclusion for accesses to the buffer pool and is initialized to the
value:
a. Mutex
b. Mutual
c. Memory
d. All of these
152. Which processes access and manipulate the shared data concurrently:
a. Micro processes
b. Several processes
c. Both
d. None of these
153. Which section is basically a sequence of instruction with a clear indication of beginning and end for
updating shared variables:
a. Racing section
b. Critical section
c. Both
d. None of these
154. In which section only one process is allowed to access the shared variable and all other have to wait:
a. Critical section
b. Racing section
c. Entry section
d. Remainder section
155. Which are the problem of critical section:
a. Mutual exclusion
b. Progress
c. Bounded wait
d. All of these
156. Which section refer to the code segment of a process that is executed when the process intends to
enter its critical section:
a. Critical section
b. Entry section
c. Reminder section
d. None of these
157. Which section refer to the code segment where a shared resource is accessed by the process:
a. Reminder section
b. Entry section
c. Both
d. None of these
158. Which section is the remaining part of a processs code:
a. Racing section
b. Critical section
c. Entry section
d. Reminder section
159. How many conditions for controlling access to critical section:
a. 2

b. 4
c. 3
d. 5
160. Which instruction provides a direct hardware support to mutual exclusion:
a. SP instruction
b. TS instruction
c. Both
d. None of these
161. Which instruction also improves the efficiency of the system:
a. Swap instruction
b. TS instruction
c. Both
d. None of these
162. Which instruction allows only one concurrent process to enter the critical section:
a. RP instruction
b. SP instruction
c. TS instruction
d. None of these
163. Which section problem can be solved simply in a uniprocessor environment if the we are able to
prevent the occurrence of interrupt during the modification of a shared variable:
a. Entry section
b. Critical section
c. Non-critical section
d. None of these
e.
164. The problem of readers and writers was first formulated by ________:
a. P.J. Courtois
b. F.Heymans
c. D.L. Parnas
d. All of these
165. Which is a situation in which some process wait for each others actions indefinitely:
a. Operating system
b. Deadlock
c. Mutex
d. None of these
166. _________system handles only deadlocks caused by sharing of resources in the system:
a. Operating system
b. Deadlock
c. Mutex
d. None of these
167. A deadlocks occurs when the how many conditions are met:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

168. Which are the characteristics of deadlocks:
a. Mutual exclusion
b. Hold and wait
c. No pre-emption
d. Circular wait
e. All of these
169. RAG stands for:
a. Resource allocation graph
170. How many events concerning RAG can occur in a system:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
171. Which are the events concerning RAG can occur in a system:
a. Request for a resource
b. Allocation of a resource
c. Release of resource
d. All of these
172. How many methods for handling deadlocks:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
173. Which are the method for handling deadlocks:
a. Deadlock prevention
b. Deadlock avoidance
c. Deadlock detection
d. All of these
174. How many condition that should be met in order to produce a deadlock:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
175. Which are the condition that should be met in order to produce a deadlock:
a. Mutual exclusion
b. Hold and Wait
c. No preemption
d. Circular wait
e. All of these
176. In protocol each process can make a request only in an ________:
a. Increasing order
b. Decreasing order
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
177. In protocol above mentioned ________protocol are used then the circular wait-condition can not

hold:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
178. Which state refers to a state that is not safe not necessarily a deadlocked state:
a. Safe state
b. Unsafe state
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
179. ________ a direct arrow is drawn from the process to the resource rectangle to represent each
pending resource request:
a. TS
b. SP
c. CCR
d. RAG
180. The attributes of a file are:
a. Name
b. Identifier
c. Types
d. Location
e. Size
f. Protection
g. Time, date and user identification
h. All of these
181. The various file operation are:
a. Crating a file
b. Writing a file
c. Reading a file
d. Repositioning within a file
e. Deleting a file truncating a file
f. All of these
182. Which operations are to be performed on a directory are:
a. Search for a file
b. Create a file
c. Delete a file
d. List a directory
e. Rename a file
f. Traverse the file system
g. All of these
183. Which memory is assembled between main memory and CPU:
a. Primary memory
b. Cache memory
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

184. Which is considered as semi-conductor memory , which is made up of static RAM:
a. Primary memory
b. Cache memory
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
185. Which is one of the important I/O devices and is most commonly used as permanent storage device
in any processor:
a. Soft disk
b. Hard disk
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
186. ______ can read any printed character by comparing the pattern that is stored in the computer:
a. SP
b. CCR
c. RAG
d. OCR
187. Which system is a typical example of the readers and writers problem:
a. Airline reservation system
b. Airport reservation system
c. Both
d. None of these
188. Which lock can arise when two processes wait for phone calls from one another:
a. Spine lock
b. Dead lock
c. Both
d. None of these
189. Which lock is more serious than indefinite postponement or starvation because it affect more than
one job:
a. Deadlock
b. Spinelock
c. Both
d. None of these
1. A number system that uses only two digits, 0 and 1 is called the___________:
a. Octal number system
b. Binary number system
c. Decimal number system
d. Hexadecimal number system
2. In which computers, the binary number are represented by a set of binary storage device such as flip flop:
a. Microcomputer
b. Personal computer
c. Digital computer

d. All of these
3. A binary number can be converted into _________:
a. Binary number
b. Octal number
c. Decimal number
d. Hexadecimal number
4. Which system is used to refer amount of things:
a. Number system
b. Number words
c. Number symbols
d. All of these
5. _________are made with some part of body, usually the hands:
a. Number words
b. Number symbols
c. Number gestures
d. All of these
6. __________are marked or written down:
a. Number system
b. Number words
c. Number symbols
d. Number gestures
7. A number symbol is called a ___________:
a. Arabic numerals
b. Numerals
c. Both
d. None of these
8. 0,1,2 ,3 ,4,5,6 ,7,8 and 9 numerals are called:
a. Arabic numerals
b. String numerals
c. Digit numerals
d. None of these
9. How many system of arithmetic, which are often used in digital system:
a. 5
b. 6
c. 3
d. 4
10. Which are the system of arithmetic, which are often used in digital system:
a. Binary digit
b. Decimal digit
c. Hexadecimal digit
d. Octal digit
e. All of these
11. In any system, there is an ordered set of symbols also known as___________:
a. Digital
b. Digit

c. Both
d. None of these
12. Which is general has two parts in number system:
a. Integer
b. Fraction
c. Both
d. None of these
13. MSD stand for:
a. Most significant digit
b. Many significant digit
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
14. LSD stand for:
a. Less significant digit
b. Least significant digit
c. Loss significant digit
d. None of these
15. The _____ and ________ of a number is defined as the number of different digits which can occur in each
position in the system:
a. Base
b. Radix
c. Both
d. None of these
16. Which system has a base or radix of 10:
a. Binary digit
b. Hexadecimal digit
c. Decimal digit
d. Octal digit
17. Each of the ten decimal digits__________:
a. 1 through 10
b. 0 through 9
c. 2 through 11
d. All of these
18. The binary number system is also called a __________:
a. Base one system
b. Base two system
c. Base system
d. Binary system
19. The two symbols 0 and 1 are known as:
a. Bytes
b. Bits
c. Digit
d. All of these
20. In which counting, single digit are used for none and one:
a. Decimal counting

b. Octal counting
c. Hexadecimal counting
d. Binary counting
21. In which numeral every position has a value 2 times the value f the position to its right:
a. Decimal
b. Octal
c. Hexadecimal
d. Binary
22. A binary number with 4 bits is called a_________:
a. Bit
b. Bytes
c. Nibble
d. None of these
23. A binary number with 8 bits is called as a___________:
a. Bytes
b. Bits
c. Nibble
d. All of these
24. In which digit the value increases in power of two starting with 0 to left of the binary point and decreases
to the right of the binary point starting with power -1:
a. Hexadecimal
b. Decimal
c. Binary
d. Octal
25. Which system is used in digital computers because all electrical and electronic circuits can be made to
respond to the states concept:
a. Hexadecimal number
b. Binary number
c. Octal number
d. Decimal number
26. Which addition is performed in the same manner as decimal addition:
a. Binary
b. Decimal
c. Both
d. None of these
27. ______in all digital systems actually performs addition that can handle only two number at a time:
a. Register
b. circuit
c. digital
d. All of these
28. Which machine can perform addition operation in less than 1 ms:
a. Digital machine
b. Electronic machine
c. Both
d. None of these

29. ________is the inverse operation of addition:
a. Addition
b. Multiply
c. Subtraction
d. Divide
30. ________of a number from another can be accomplished by adding the complement of the subtrahend to
the minuend:
a. Subtraction
b. Multiply
c. Divide
d. All of these
31. Complement the subtrahend by converting all __________and all __________:
a. 1s to 0s
b. 0s to 1s
c. Both
d. None of these
32. Each device represent :
a. 1 bit
b. 2 bit
c. 3 bit
d. 4 bit
33. A 0 in the sign bit represents a _____________ and a 1 in the sign bit represents a ____________:
a. Positive number
b. Negative number
c. Both
d. None of these
34. How many main sign number binary codes are used:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 6
35. Which are the types of binary codes number:
a. Sign magnitude
b. 1s complement code
c. 2s complement code
d. All of these
36. How many types of addition in the 2s complement system:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
37. Which are the types of addition in the 2s complement system:
a. Both number positive
b. A Positive number and a smaller negative number
c. A negative number and a smaller positive number

d. Both number negative
e. All of these
38. How many important ideas to notice about these odometer readings:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
39. Which are the types of important ideas to notice about these odometer readings:
a. The MSB is the sign bit :0 for a +sign and 1 for a sign
b. The negative number represent the 2s complement of the positive number
c. Both
d. All of these
40. Which is an algorithm or techniques used to multiply two numbers:
a. Addition algorithm
b. Subtraction algorithm
c. Multiplication algorithm
d. All of these
41. Which algorithm are used depending on the size of the numbers:
a. Simple algorithm
b. Specific algorithm
c. Both
d. None of these
42. Which algorithm is named after Volker Strassen:
a. Strassen algorithm
b. Matrix algorithm
c. Both
d. None of these
43. Strassen algorithm was published in ___________:
a. 1967
b. 1969
c. 1987
d. 1980
44. Which algorithm is used for matrix multiplication:
a. Simple algorithm
c. Strassen algorithm
d. Addition algorithm
45. Which algorithm is a divided and conquer algorithm that is asymptotically faster:
a. Simple algorithm
c. Strassen algorithm
d. Addition algorithm
46. Which method required 8 multiplication and 4 addition:
a. Multiplication
b. Usual multiplication

c. Both
d. None of these
47. Which algorithm is a multiplication algorithm which multiplies two signed binary numbers in 2s
complement notation:
a. Usual multiplication
b. Booths multiplication
c. Both
d. None of these
48. Which algorithm includes repeated addition of two predetermined values A and S to a product P and then
performs a rightward arithmetic shift on P:
a. Booths algorithm
b. Usual algorithm
c. Multiplication algorithm
d. None of these
49. Which algorithm in mathematics expresses the outcome of the process of division of integers by another:
a. Addition algorithm
b. Multiplication algorithm
c. Division algorithm
d. None of these
50. Which algorithm is used to find GCD of two integers:
a. Multiplication algorithm
b. Division algorithm
c. Addition algorithm
d. Simple algorithm
51. Which algorithm is used as a general variant of a theorems, in the domain of integral numbers:
a. Multiplication algorithm
b. Division algorithm
c. Addition algorithm
d. Simple algorithm
52. How many main approaches to algorithm for division:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
53. How many algorithm based on add/subtract and shift category:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 3
d. 6
54. Which are the algorithm based on add/subtract and shift category:
a. Restoring division
b. Non-restoring division
c. SRT division
d. All of these
55. Several methods for converting a ___________:

a. Decimal number to a binary number
b. Binary number to a decimal number
c. Octal number to a decimal number
d. Hexadecimal number to a binary number
56. A popular method knows as double-dabble method also knows as _________:
a. Divided-by-one method
b. Divided-by-two method
c. Both
d. None of these
57. Which method is used to convert a large decimal number into its binary equivalent:
a. Double dabble method
b. Divided-by-two-method
c. Both
d. None of these
58. In this method, the decimal number is _________:
a. Repeatedly divided by 4
b. Repeatedly divided by 2
c. Repeatedly divided by 1
d. None of these
59. The conversion of decimal fraction to binary fraction may be accomplished by using ___________:
a. Several techniques
b. Simple techniques
c. Both
d. None of these
60. Which system was used extensively by early mini computers:
a. Decimal number
b. Octal number
c. Hexadecimal number
d. Binary number
61. 3 bit binary numbers can be represented by ____________:
a. Binary number
b. Decimal number
d. Octal number
62. A number system that uses eight digits,0,1,2,3,4,5,6, and 7 is called an ________:
a. Binary number system
b. Decimal number system
c. Octal number system
d. None of these
63. Which system each digit has a weight corresponding to its position:
a. Hexadecimal number system
b. Binary number system
d. Octal number system
64. Which odometer is a hypothetical device similar to the odometer of a car:

a. Binary
b. Decimal
c. Hexadecimal
d. Octal
65. An __________can be easily converted to its decimal equivalent by multiplying each octal digit by
positional weight:
a. Binary number
b. Octal number
d. Decimal number
66. The simple procedure is to use ___________ :
a. Binary-triplet method
b. Decimal-triplet method
c. Octal-triplet method
d. All of these
67. Which system groups number by sixteen and power of sixteen:
a. Binary
b. Hexadecimal
c. Octal
d. None of these
68. Which number are used extensively in microprocessor work:
a. Octal
b. Hexadecimal
c. Both
d. None of these
69. Which number is formed from a binary number by grouping bits in groups of 4-bit each starting at the
binary point:
a. Binary
b. Octal
c. Decimal
d. Hexadecimal
70. Which number system has a base of 16 :
a. Binary number system
b. Octal number system
d. Hexadecimal number system
71. Counting in hex, each digit can be increment from__________:
a. 0 to F
b. 0 to G
c. 0 to H
d. 0 to J
72. Which number can be converted into binary numbers by converted each hexadecimal digit to 4 bits binary
equivalent using the code:
a. Binary number
b. Decimal number

c. Octal number
d. Hexadecimal number
73. One way to convert from decimal to hexadecimal is the _________:
a. Double dabble method
b. Hex dabble method
c. Binary dabble method
d. All of these
74. Binary numbers can also be expressed in this same notation by _________representation:
a. Floating point
b. Binary point
c. Decimal point
d. All of these
75. How many parts of floating point representation of a number consists:
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
76. The first part of floating point represents a signed fixed point number called:
a. Exponent
b. Digit
c. Number
d. Mantissa
77. The second part of floating point designates the position of the decimal point and is called:
a. Mantissa
b. Binomial
c. Octal
d. Exponent
78. The fixed point mantissa may be _______or__________:
a. Fraction
b. Integer
c. Both
d. None of these
79. The number of bit required to express_________ and _______ are determined by the accuracy desired from
the computing system :
a. Exponent
b. Mantissa
c. Both
d. None f these
80. Which part is not physically indicated in the register:
a. Binary
b. Decimal
c. Octal
d. None of these
e.
81. The exponent contains the decimal number :

a. +05
b. +03
c. +04
d. +07
82. The first or the integer part is known as________:
a. Exponent
b. Integer
c. Binomial
d. None of these
83. How many bits of mantissa :
a. 4
b. 8
c. 10
d. 16
84. How many bit of exponent:
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
85. Which number is said to be normalized if the more significant position of the mantissa contains a non zero
digit:
a. Binary point number
b. Mantissa point number
c. Floating point number
d. None of these
86. Which operation with floating point numbers are more complicated then arithmetic operation with fixed
point number :
a. Logical operation
b. Arithmetic operation
c. Both
d. None of these
1. _____ is a command given to a computer to perform a specified operation on some given data:
a. An instruction
b. Command
c. Code
d. None of these
2. An instruction is guided by_____ to perform work according:
a. PC

b. ALU
c. Both a and b
d. CPU
3. Two important fields of an instruction are:
a. Opcode
b. Operand
c. Only a
d. Both a & b
4. Each operation has its _____ opcode:
a. Unique
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
5. which are of these examples of Intel 8086 opcodes:
a. MOV
b. ADD
c. SUB
d. All of these
6. _______specify where to get the source and destination operands for the operation specified by the
_______:
a. Operand fields and opcode
b. Opcode and operand
c. Source and destination
d. Cpu and memory
7. The source/destination of operands can be the_______ or one of the general-purpose register:
a. Memory
b. One
c. both
d. None of these
8. The complete set of op-codes for a particular microprocessor defines the______ set for that processor:
a. Code
b. Function
c. Module
d. Instruction

9. Which is the method by which instructions are selected for execution:
a. Instruction selection
b. Selection control
c. Instruction sequencing
d. All of these
10. The simplest method of controlling sequence of instruction execution is to have each instruction explicitly
specify:
a. The address of next instruction to be run
b. Address of previous instruction
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
11. As the instruction length increases ________ of instruction addresses in all the instruction is_______:
a. Implicit inclusion
b. Implicit and disadvantageous
c. Explicit and disadvantageous
d. Explicit and disadvantageous
12. ______is the sequence of operations performed by CPU in processing an instruction:
a. Execute cycle
b. Fetch cycle
c. Decode
d. Instruction cycle
13. The time required to complete one instruction is called:
a. Fetch time
b. Execution time
c. Control time
d. All of these
14. _____is the step during which a new instruction is read from the memory:
a. Decode
b. Fetch
c. Execute
d. None of these
15. ________is the step during which the operations specified by the instruction are executed:
a. Execute
b. Decode
c. Both a& b
d. None of these

16. Decode is the step during which instruction is______:
a. Initialized
b. Incremented
c. Decoded
d. Both b & c
17. The instruction fetch operation is initiated by loading the contents of program counter into the______ and
sends_____ request to memory:
a. Memory register and read
b. Memory register and write
c. Data register and read
d. Address register and read
18. The contents of the program counter is the _______ of the instruction to be run:
a. Data
b. Address
c. Counter
d. None of these
19. The instruction read from memory is then placed in the_______ and contents of program counter is______
so that it contains the address of_______ instruction in the program:
a. Program counter, incremented and next
b. Instruction register, incremented and previous
c. Instruction register, incremented and next
d. Address register, decremented and next
20. Execution of instruction specified by instruction to perform:
a. Operation
b. Operands
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
21. _______ is a symbolic representation of discrete elements of information:
a. Data
b. Code
c. Address
d. Control
22. Group of binary bits(0&1) is known as:
a. Binary code
b. Digit code

c. Symbolic representation
d. None of these
23. A group of 4 binary bits is called:
a. Nibble
b. Byte
c. Decimal
d. Digit
24. BCD uses binary number system to specify decimal numbers:
a. 1-10
b. 1-9
c. 0-9
d. 0-10
25. The ______ are assigned according to the position occupied by digits:
a. Volume
b. Weight
c. Mass
d. All of these
26. what is the BCD for a decimal number 559:
a. [0101 0101 1001]

BCD
b. [0101 0001 1010]
c. [0101 1001 1001]
d. [1001 1010 0101]
27. ________are the codes that represent alphabetic characters, punctuation marks and other special
characters:
a. Alphanumeric codes
b. ASCII codes
c. EBCDIC codes
d. All of these
28. Abbreviation ASCII stands for:

a. American standard code for information interchange
b. Abbreviation standard code for information interchange
c. Both
d. None of these
29. How many bit of ASCII code:

a. 6
b. 7
c. 5
d. 8
30. Which code used in transferring coded information from keyboards and to computer display and printers:
a. ASCII
b. EBCDIC
c. Both
d. None of these
31. Which code used to represent numbers, letters, punctuation marks as well as control characters:
a. ASCII
b. EBCDIC
c. Both
d. None of these
32. abbreviation EBCDIC stand for:

a. Extended binary coded decimal interchange code
b. External binary coded decimal interchange code
c. Extra binary coded decimal interchange code
d. None of these
33. How many bit of EBCDIC code:
a. 7
b. 8
c. 5
d. 9
34. Which code the decimal digits are represented by the 8421 BCD code preceded by 1111:
a. ASCII
b. EBCDIC
c. Both
d. None of these
35. _________ has the property that corrupting or garbling a code word will likely produce a bit string that is
not a code word:
a. Error deleting codes

b. Error detecting codes
c. Error string codes

d. None of these
36. Which is method used most simple and commonly:
a. Parity check method

b. Error detecting method
c. Both
d. None of these
37. Which is the method of parity:
a. Even parity method

b. Odd parity method
c. Both
d. None of these
38. The ability of a code to detect single errors can be stated in term of the _________:
a. Concept of distance
b. Even parity
c. Odd parity
d. None of these
39. The first n bit of a code word called __________ may be any of the 2 n n- bit string minimum error bit:
a. Information bits
b. String bits
c. Error bits
d. All of these
40. A code in which the total number of 1s in a valid (n+1) bit code word is even, this is called an __________:
a. Even parity code

b. Odd parity code
c. Both
d. None of these
41. A code in which the total number of 1s in a valid (n+1)bit code word is odd and this code is called
an__________:
a. Error detecting code

b. Even parity code
c. Odd parity code
d. None of these

42. a code is simply a subset of the vertices of the _____:
a. n bit
b. n cube
c. n single
d. n double
43. Which method is used to detect double errors and pinpoint erroneous bits:
a. Even parity method
b. Odd parity method
c. Check sum method
d. All of these
44. A code that is used to correct error is called an _________:
a. Error detecting code
b. Error correcting code
c. Both
d. None of these
45. A received ___________with a bit error will be closer to the originally transmitted code word than to any
other code word:
a. Code word
b. Non code word
c. Decoding
d. All of these
46. Which code word was originally transmitted to produce a received word is called:
a. Non code word

b. Code word
c. Decoding
d. None of these
47. The hardware that does this is an ________:

a. Error detecting decoder
b. Error correcting decoder
c. Both
d. None of these
48. Hamming codes was developed in __________:
a. 1953
b. 1950
c. 1945
d. 1956
49. ____________ between two code words is defined as the number of bits that must be changed for one code

to another:
a. Hamming codes
b. Hamming distance
c. Both
d. None of these
50. It is actually a method for constructing codes with a minimum distance of ____:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 3
d. 5
i
51. The bit position in a ___________ can be numbered from 1 through 2 -1:
a. Hamming code word

b. Hamming distance word
c. Both
d. None of these
52. Each check bit is grouped with the information bits as specified by a____________:
a. Parity check code

b. Parity check matrix
c. Parity check bit
d. All of these
53. The pattern of groups that have odd parity called the _________must match one of the of columns in the
parity check matrix:
a. Syndrome
b. Dynodes
c. Both
d. None of these
54. Which are designed to interpret a specified number of instruction code:
a. Programmer
b. Processors
c. Instruction
d. Opcode
55. Which code is a string of binary digits:

a. Op code
b. Instruction code
c. Parity code
d. Operand code
56. The list of specific instruction supported by the CPU is termed as its ____________:
a. Instruction code
b. Parity set
c. Instruction set
d. None of these
57. __________is divided into a number of fields and is represented as a sequence of bits:
a. instruction
b. instruction set
c. instruction code
d. parity code
58. Which unit is necessary for the execution of instruction:
a. Timing
b. Control
c. Both
d. None of these
59. Which unit provide status , timing and control signal:
a. Timing and control unit

b. Memory unit
c. Chace unit
d. None of these
60. Which unit acts as the brain of the computer which control other peripherals and interfaces:
a. Memory unit
b. Cache unit
c. Timing and control unit
d. None of these
61. It contains the ____________stack for PC storage during subroutine calls and input/output interrupt
services:
a. Seven- level hardware

b. Eight- level hardware

c. One- level hardware
d. Three- level hardware
62. Which unit works as an interface between the processor and all the memories on chip or off- chip:
a. Timing unit
b. Control unit
c. Memory control unit
d. All of these
63. The maximum clock frequency is_______:
a. 45 MHZ
b. 50 MHZ
c. 52 MHZ
d. 68 MHZ
64. ________ is given an instruction in machine language this instruction is fetched from the memory by the
CPU to execute:
a. ALU
b. CPU
c. MU
d. All of these
65. Which cycle refers to the time period during which one instruction is fetched and executed by the CPU:
a. Fetch cycle
b. Instruction cycle
c. Decode cycle
d. Execute cycle
66. How many stages of instruction cycle:
a. 5
b. 6
c. 4
d. 7
67. Which are stages of instruction cycle:
a. Fetch
b. Decode
c. Execute
d. Derive effective address of the instruction

e. All of these
68. Which instruction are 32 bits long , with extra 16 bits:

a. Memory reference instruction
b. Memory reference format
c. Both
d. None of these
69. Which is addressed by sign extending the 16-bit displacement to 32-bit:
a. Memory address
b. Effective memory address
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
70. Which are instruction in which two machine cycle are required:
a. Instruction cycle
b. Memory reference instruction
c. Both
d. None of these
71. Which instruction are used in multithreaded parallel processor architecture:

c. Both
d. None of these
72. Which instruction are arranged as per the protocols of memory reference format of the input file in a
simple ASCII sequence of integers between the range 0 to 99 separated by spaces without formatted text and
symbols:

c. Both
d. None of these
73. ____________ is an external hardware event which causes the CPU to interrupt the current instruction
sequence:
a. Input interrupt
b. Output interrupt
c. Both
d. None of these
74. ISR stand for:

a. Interrupt save routine

b. Interrupt service routine
c. Input stages routine
d. All of these
75. Which interrupt services save all the register and flags:
a. Save interrupt
b. Input/output interrupt
c. Service interrupt
d. All of these
76. IRET stand for:
a. Interrupt enter
b. Interrupt return
c. Interrupt delete
d. None of these
77. Which are benefit of input/output interrupt:

a. It is an external analogy to exceptions
b. The processor initiates and perform all I/O operation
c. The data is transferred into the memory through interrupt handler
d. All of these
78. Which are the not causes of the interrupt:
a. In any single device
b. In processor poll devices
c. It is an external analogy to exception
d. None of these
79. Which are the causes of the interrupt:
a. In any single device
b. In processor poll devices
c. In a device whose ID number is stored on the address bus
d. All of these
80. Which are the functioning of I/O interrupt:
a. The processor organizes all the I/O operation for smooth functioning
b. After completing the I/O operation the device interrupt the processor
c. Both
d. None of these
81. _________with which computers perform is way beyond human capabilities:
a. Speed
b. Accuracy
c. Storage
d. Versatility
82. _________ of a computer is consistently:

a. Speed
b. Accuracy
c. Storage
d. Versatility
83. GIGO stand for:
a. Garbage-in-garbage-out
b. Garbage-in garbage-occur
c. Both
d. None of these
84. How many basic operations of versatility:
a. 5
b. 6
c. 4
d. 7
85. Which are the operation of versatility:

a. exchange of information with the outside world via I/O device
b. Transfer of data internally with in the central processing unit
c. Performs of the basic arithmetic operations
d. All of these
86. ____________ of information in a human brain and a computer happens differently:
a. Intelligence
b. Storage
c. Versatility
d. Diligence
87. Which are the basic operation for converting:
a. Inputting
b. Storing
c. Processing
d. Outputting
e. Controlling
f. All of these
88. The control unit and arithmetic logic unit are know as the ___________:
a. Central program unit

b. Central processing unit

c. Central primary unit
d. None of these
89. Which unit is comparable to the central nervous system in the human body:
a. Output unit
b. Control unit
c. Input unit
d. All of these
90. ___________ of the primary memory of the computer is limited:
a. Storage capacity
b. Magnetic disk
c. Both
d. None of these
91. Information is handled in the computer by _________:
a. Electrical digit
b. Electrical component
c. Electronic bit
d. None of these
92. 0 and 1 are know as ___________:
a. Byte
b. Bit
c. Digits
d. Component
93. 0 and 1 abbreviation for:
a. Binary digit
b. Octal digit
c. Both
d. None of these
94. How many bit of nibble group:
a. 5
b. 4
c. 7
d. 8

95. How many bit of bytes:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
96. Which is the most important component of a digit computer that interprets the instruction and processes
the data contained in computer programs:
a. MU
b. ALU
c. CPU
d. PC
97. Which part work as a the brain of the computer and performs most of the calculation:
a. MU
b. PC
c. ALU
d. CPU
98. Which is the main function of the computer:
a. Execute of programs
b. Execution of programs
c. Both
d. None of these
99. How many major component make up the CPU:
a. 4
b. 3
c. 6
d. 8
100. Which register holds the current instruction to be executed:
a. Instruction register
b. Program register
c. Control register
d. None of these
101. Which register holds the next instruction to be executed:

b. Program register
c. Program control register
d. None of these
102. Each instruction is also accompanied by a___________:
a. Microprocessor
b. Microcode
c. Both
d. None of these
103. Which are microcomputers commonly used for commercial data processing, desktop publishing and
engineering application:
a. Digital computer
b. Personal computer
c. Both
d. None of these
104. Which microprocessor has the control unit, memory unit and arithmetic and logic unit:
a. Pentium IV processor
b. Pentium V processor
c. Pentium III processor
d. None of these
105. The processing speed of a computer depends on the __________of the system:
a. Clock speed
b. Motorola
c. Cyrix
d. None of these
106. Which microprocessor is available with a clock speed of 1.6 GHZ:
a. Pentium III
b. Pentium II
c. Pentium IV
d. All of these
107. Which processor are used in the most personal computer:
a. Intel corporations Pentium

b. Motorola corporations
c. Both
d. None of these
1. RTL stands for:
a. Random transfer language

b. Register transfer language
c. Arithmetic transfer language
d. All of these
2. Which operations are used for addition, subtraction, increment, decrement and complement function:
a. Bus
b. Memory transfer
c. Arithmetic operation
d. All of these
3. Which language is termed as the symbolic depiction used for indicating the series:
a. Random transfer language
b. Register transfer language
c. Arithmetic transfer language
d. All of these
4. The method of writing symbol to indicate a provided computational process is called as a:
a. Programming language
b. Random transfer language
c. Register transfer language
d. Arithmetic transfer language
5. In which transfer the computer register are indicated in capital letters for depicting its function:
a. Memory transfer
b. Register transfer
c. Bus transfer
d. None of these
6. The register that includes the address of the memory unit is termed as the ____:
a. MAR
b. PC
c. IR
d. None of these
7. The register for the program counter is signified as_____:

a. MAR
b. PC
c. IR
d. None of these
8. In register transfer the instruction register as:
a. MAR
b. PC
c. IR
d. None of these
9. In register transfer the processor register as:
a. MAR
b. PC
c. IR
d. RI
10. How many types of micro operations:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
11. Which are the operation that a computer performs on data that put in register:
a. Register transfer
b. Arithmetic
c. Logical
d. All of these
12. Which micro operations carry information from one register to another:
b. Arithmetic
c. Logical
d. All of these
13. Micro operation is shown as:
a. R1->R2
b. R1<-R2

c. Both
d. None
14. In memory transfer location address is supplied by____ that puts this on address bus:
a. ALU
b. CPU
c. MAR
d. MDR
15. How many types of memory transfer operation:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
16. Operation of memory transfer are:
a. Read
b. Write
c. Both
d. None
17. In memory read the operation puts memory address on to a register known as :
a. PC
b. ALU
c. MAR
d. All of these
18. Which operation puts memory address in memory address register and data in DR:
a. Memory read
b. Memory write
c. Both
d. None
19. Arithmetic operation are carried by such micro operation on stored numeric data available in_____:
a. Register
b. Data
c. Both
d. None

20. In arithmetic operation numbers of register and the circuits for addition at _____:
a. ALU
b. MAR
c. Both
d. None
21. Which operation are implemented using a binary counter or combinational circuit:
b. Arithmetic
c. Logical
d. All of these
22. Which operation are binary type, and are performed on bits string that is placed in register:
a. Logical micro operation
b. Arithmetic micro operation
c. Both
d. None
23. A micro operation every bit of a register is a:
a. Constant
b. Variable
c. Both
d. None
24. Which operation is extremely useful in serial transfer of data:

c. Shift micro operation
d. None of these
25. Which language specifies a digital system which uses specified notation:
b. Arithmetic
c. Logical
d. All of these
26. IR stands for:

a. Input representation
b. Intermediate representation
c. Both
d. None
27. HDL stands for:
a. Human description language

b. Hardware description language
c. Hardware description land
d. None of these
28. VPCC stands for:
a. Variable portable C compiler
b. Very portable C compiler
c. Both
d. None
29. In register transfer which system is a sequential logic system in which flip-flops and gates are constructed:
a. Digital system
b. Register
c. Data
d. None
30. High level language C supports register transfer technique for______ application:
a. Executing
b. Compiling
c. Both
d. None
31. A counter is incremented by one and memory unit is considered as a collection of _______:
a. Transfer register
b. Storage register
c. RTL
d. All of these
32. Which is the straight forward register transfer the data from register to another register temporarily:
a. Digital system
b. Register
c. Data
d. Register transfer operations
33. In organization of a digital system register transfer of any digital system therefore it is called:
a. Digital system
b. Register
c. Data
d. Register transfer level
34. The binary information of source register chosen by:
a. Demultiplexer
b. Multiplexer

c. Both
d. None
35. Which control transfer passes the function via control______:
a. Logic
b. Operation
c. Circuit
d. All of these
36. Register are assumed to use positive-edge-triggered _____:
a. Flip-flop
b. Logics
c. Circuit
d. Operation
37. IDE stands for:

a. Input device electronics
b. Integrated device electronic
c. Both
d. None
38. ATA stands for:
a. Advance technology attachment
b. Advance teach attachment
c. Both
d. None
39. The memory bus is also referred as______:
a. Data bus
b. Address bus
c. Memory bus
d. All of these
40. How many parts of memory bus:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6
41. A three state gate defined as:
a. Analog circuit
b. Analog fundamentals

c. Both a&b
d. Digital circuit
42. In 3 state gate two states act as signals equal to:
a. Logic 0
b. Logic 1
c. None of these
d. Both a & b
43. In 3 state gate third position termed as high impedance state which acts as:
a. Open circuit
b. Close circuit
c. None of these
d. All of above
44. In every transfer, selection of register by bus is decided by:
a. Control signal
b. No signal
c. All signal
d. All of above
45. every bit of register has:
a. 2 common line
b. 3 common line
c. 1 common line
d. none of these
46. DDR2 stands for:
a. Double data rate 2

b. Data double rate 2
c. Dynamic data rate 2
d. Dynamic double rate 2
47. SDRAM stands for:

a. System dynamic random access memory
b. Synchronous dynamic random access memory
c. Both
d. None
48. Which is referred as a sequential circuit which contains the number of register as per the protocol:

a. RTL
b. RAM
c. MAR
d. All of these
49. Which operation refer bitwise manipulation of contents of register:

d. None of these
50. Which symbol will be used to denote an micro operation:
a. (^)
b. (v)
c. Both
d. None
51. which symbol will be denote an AND micro operation:
a. (^)
b. (v)
c. Both
d. None
52. Which operation are associated with serial transfer of data:

d. None of these
53. The bits are shifted and the first flip-flop receives its binary information from the_____:
a. Serial output
b. Serial input
c. Both
d. None
54. How many types of shift micro operation:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
55. Which shift is a shift micro operation which is used to shift a signed binary number to the left or right:

a. Logical
b. Arithmetic
c. Both
d. None of these
56. which shift is used for signed binary number:
a. Logical
b. Arithmetic
c. Both
d. None of these
57. Arithmetic left shift is used to multiply a signed number by_____:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. All of these
58. The variable of_______ correspond to hardware register:
a. RAM
b. RTL
c. ALU
d. MAR
59. In which shift is used to divide a signed number by two:

a. Logical right-shift
b. Arithmetic right shift
c. Logical left shift
d. Arithmetic left shift
60. How evolved in register transfer language and where:
a. Chirsfraser 1980
b. J.davidson 1980
c. Chirs fraser 1920
d. J.davidson 1920
e. A and B
f. B and C
g. C and D

1. _______is the first step in the evolution of programming languages:
a. machine language
b. assembly language
c. code language
d. none of these
2. Mnemonic refers to:
a. Instructions
b. Code
c. Symbolic codes
d. Assembler
3. Mnemonic represent:
a. Operation codes
b. Strings
c. Address
d. None of these
4. To represent addresses in assembly language we use:
a. String characters
b. Arrays
c. Structure
d. Enum
5. Assembler works to convert assembly language program into machine language :

a. Before the computer can execute it
b. After the computer can execute it
c. In between execution
d. All of these
6. ________generation computers use assembly language:
a. First generation
b. Third generation
c. second generation
d. fourth generation
7. Assembly language program is called:
a. Object program
b. Source program
c. Oriented program

d. All of these
8. To invoke assembler following command are given at command line:
a. $ hello.s -o hello.o
b. $as hello.s o o
c. $ as hello o hello.o
d. $ as hello.s o hello.o
9. By whom address of external function in the assembly source file supplied by ______ when activated:
a. Assembler
b. Linker
c. Machine
d. Code
10. An______ -o option is used for:
a. Input file
b. External file
c. Output file
d. None of these
11. The assembler translates ismorphically______ mapping from mnemonic in these statements to machine
instructions:
a. 1:1
b. 2:1
c. 3:3
d. 4:1
12. Assembler works in______ phases:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4
13. The assembler in first pass reads the program to collect symbols defined with offsets in a table_______:
a. Hash table
b. Symbol table
c. Both a& b
d. None of these

14. In second pass, assembler creates _______in binary format for every instruction in program and then refers
to the symbol table to giving every symbol an______ relating the segment.
a. Code and program

b. Program and instruction
c. Code and offset
d. All of these
15. which of the 2 files are created by the assembler:
a. List and object file

b. Link and object file
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
16. In which code is object file is coded:
a. Link code
b. Decimal code
c. Assembly code
d. Binary code
17. which type of errors are detected by the assembler:
a. syntax error
b. logical error
c. run time error
d. none of these
18. MOVE AX BX in this LINES OF CODE what type of error is declared:

a. Undeclared identifier MOVE
b. undeclared identifier AX
c. Accept as a command
d. Not look in symbol table
19. In given lines of code MOV AX,BL have different type of operands according to assembler for 8086
architecture these identifiers must be of:
a. Different type only in byte
b. Same type either in word or byte
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
20. What type of errors are not detected by assemblers:
a. Syntax error
b. Run time error
c. Logical error

d. All of these
21. ______serves as the purpose of documentation only:
a. List
b. object
c. link
d. code
22. An assembler is a utility program that performs:

a. Isometric translation
b. Isomorphic translation
c. Isochoric translation
d. None of these
23. Assemblers are of 2 types:
a. 1 pass
b. 2 pass
c. both a & b
d. none of these
24. CP/CMS assembly language was written in ________assembler:
a. S/340
b. S-350
c. S/320
d. S/360
25. ASM-H widely used _____assembler:
a. S/370
b. S/380
c. S/390
d. S/360
26. Assembler is a_______:
a. Interpreter
b. Translator
c. Exchanger
d. None of these
27. A_______ processor controls repetitious writing of sequence:
a. Macro

b. Micro
c. Nano
d. All of these
28. IBM-360 type language is example which supporting______ language:
a. Micro
b. Macro
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
29. _________ is attached to using macro instruction definition:
a. Name
b. Definition
c. Identifier
d. All of these
30. END of macro definition by:
a. NAME
b. MEND
c. DATA
d. MEMORY
31. Process of replacing the sequence of lines of codes is known as:
a. Expanding die macro

b. Expanding tri macro
c. Tetra macro
d. None of these
32. A program that links several programs is called:
a. Linker
b. Loader
c. Translator
d. None of these
33. _______address is not assigned by linker:
a. Absolute
b. Relative
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

34. ________address is provided by linker to modules linked together that starting from______:
a. Absolute and 0
b. Relative and 0
c. Relative and 1
d. Relative and 3
35. A linker is also known as:
a. Binder
b. Linkage editor
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
36. Loading is _______ with the task of storage management of operating system and mostly preformed after
assembly:
a. Bound
b. Expanded
c. Overlaps
d. All of these
37. _______contain library program have to be indicated to the loader:
a. Externally defined
b. Internally defined
c. Executable file
d. All of these
38. It is the task of the ________to locate externally defined symbols in programs, load them in to memory by
placing their _______of symbols in calling program:
a. Loader and name

b. Linker and values
c. Linker and name
d. Loader and values
39. Linker creates a link file containing binary codes and also produces_______ containing address information
on linked files:
a. Link map
b. Map table
c. Symbol map
d. None of these

40. how many types of entities contained by assembler to handle program:
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
41. which of the following are types of assembler entities:
a. Absolute entities
b. Relative entities
c. Object program
d. All of these
42. ________have addresses where instructions are stored along with address of working storage:
a. Relative entities
b. Absolute entities
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
43. Absolute entities are __________whom value signify storage locations that are independent of resulting
machine code:
a. Numeric constants
b. String constants
c. Fixed addresses
d. Operation codes
e. All of these
44. A module contains machine code with specification on______:
a. Relative addresses
b. Absolute addresses
c. Object program
d. None of these
45. After actual locations for main storage are known, a ______adjusts relative addresses to these actual
locations:
a. Relocating loader
b. Locating loader
c. Default loader
d. None of these
46. If there is a module from single source-language only that does not contain any external references, it

doesnt need a linker to load it and is loaded______:
a. Indirectly
b. Directly
c. Extending
d. None of these
47. Modern assemblers for RISC based architectures make optimization of instruction scheduling to make use
of CPU _______efficiently:
a. Pipeline
b. Without pipeline
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
48. which are of the following modern assemblers:

a. MIPS
b. Sun SPARC
c. HP PA-RISC
d. x86(x64)
e. all of these
49. How many types of loop control structures in C language:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 2
d. 3
50. Types of loop control statements are:
a. For loop
b. While loop
c. Do-while loop
d. All of these
51. <Initial value> is_______ which initializes the value of variable:
a. Assignment expression
b. Condition value
c. Increment/decrement
d. None of these
52. The format %8d is used to print_______ values in a line:
a. 11

b. 10
c. 9
d. 12
53. <Condition> is a _________expression which will have value true or false:
a. Relational
b. Logical
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
54. <Increment> is the________ value of variable which will be added every time:
a. Increment
b. Decrement
c. Expanding
d. None of these
55. _______is the statement block of for loop lies inside block of another for loop:
a. Nested for loop

b. Nested while loop
c. Nested do-while loop
d. None of these
56. SPARC stands for:

a. Scalable programmer architecture
b. Scalable processor architecture
c. Scalable point architecture
d. None of these
57. Full form of MIPS assembler is:
a. Microprocessor without interlocked pipeline stage
b. Microprocessor with interlocked pipeline stage
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
58. _______ statement block is executed atleast once for any value of the condition:
a. For statement
b. Do-while statement
c. While statement
d. None of these
59. _______statement is an unconditional transfer of control statement:
a. Goto

b. Continue
c. Switch
d. All of these
60. In Goto statement the place to which control is transferred is identified by a statement______:
a. Label
b. Display
c. Break
d. None of these
61. The continue statement is used to transfer the control to the________ of a statement block in a loop:
a. End
b. Beginning
c. Middle
d. None of these
62. The__________ statement is used to transfer the control to the end of statement block in a loop:
a. Continue
b. Break
c. Switch
d. Goto
63. ________function is used to transfer the control to end of a program which uses one argument( ) and takes
value is zero for_______ termination and non-zero for _______termination:
a. Exit( ),normal, abnormal

b. Break, normal, abnormal
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
64. To design a program it requires_______:
a. Program specification
b. Code specification
c. Instruction specification
d. Problem specification
65. Testing helps to ensure _______of the program for use within a system:
a. Quality, accuracy and except
b. Quality, accuracy and acceptance
c. Design, assurance and acceptance
d. Quality, accuracy and development

66. An unstructured program uses a ________ approach to solve problems:
a. Linear
b. Top down
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
67. In a complex program, the ______overlaps:
a. Branching
b. Condition
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
68. How many structures structured programs are written:
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 6
69. following are structured programs written in simple structures:
a. Sequence
b. Selection
c. Iteration
d. All of these
70. Iteration also called:
a. Repetition
b. Straight
c. Selection
d. Sequence
71. In ________instructions are followed one after the other in the preset order in which they appear within
program:
a. Sequence
b. Selection
c. Break
d. Iteration
72. _______means that one of two alternative sequences of instruction is chosen based on logical condition:

a. Sequence
b. Selection
c. Repetition
d. None of these
73. _________is sequence of instructions is executed and repeated any no. of times in loop until logical
condition is true:
a. Iteration
b. Repetition
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
74. A ________is a small program tested separately before combining with final program:
a. Module
b. Block
c. selection
d. none of these
75. _______uses various symbols to represent function within program and is _______representation:
a. Flowchart, pictorial
b. Algorithm, pictorial
c. Pictorial, flowchart
d. None of these
76. ______Avoid crossing flow lines:
a. Flowchart
b. Algorithm
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
77. A flow chart is drawn from top to bottom and_____:
a. Right to left
b. Only right
c. Left to right
d. Only left
78. Flowchart that exceed page should be properly linked using ________to portions of flowchart on
different pages:
a. Connectors

b. Interconnections
c. Connections
d. None of these
79. ________is useful to prepare detailed program documentation:
a. Flowchart
b. Algorithm
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
80. Pseudo means:
a. Imitation
b. Imitate
c. In imitation
d. None of these
81. Preparing the pseudocode requires _______time than drawing flowchart:
a. Less
b. More
c. Optimum
d. None of these
82. There is _____standard for preparing pseudocode instructions:
a. No
b. 4
c. 2
d. 6
83. ______are used to translate high level language instructions to a machine code:
a. Translators
b. Interpreters
c. Compilers
d. None of these
84. The compiler _______translate a program code with any syntax error:
a. Can
b. Cannot
c. Without
d. None of these

85. Before checking the program for errors in translating code into machine language the high level language
code is loaded into_________:
a. Register
b. Memory
c. Data
d. CPU
86. After compilation of the program ,the operating system of computer activates:
a. Loader
b. Linker
c. Compiler
d. None of these
87. The linker has utilities needed for ________within the translated program:
a. Input
b. Output
c. Processing
d. All of these
88. Flowchart is a_______ representation of an algorithm:
a. Symbolic
b. Diagrammatic
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
89. In flow chart symbols the _______operation represents the direction of flow:
a. Connector
b. Looping
c. Arrows
d. Decision making
90. Which register is memory pointer:
a. Program counter
b. Instruction register
c. Stack pointer
d. Source index
91. How many approaches are used to design control unit:

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
92. Which are the following approaches used to design control unit:
a. Hardwired control
b. Microprogrammed control
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
93. Cache memory is located between main memory and_____:
a. CPU
b. Memory
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
94. _______arrow represents the value obtained by evaluating right side expression/variable to the left side
variable:
a. Forth
b. Inbetween
c. Back
d. None of these
95. A ________ is written as separate unit, apart from main and called whenever necessary:
a. Subroutine
b. Code
c. Block
d. None of these
96. _______uses the stack to store return address of subroutine:
a. CPU
b. Microprocessor
c. register
d. memory
97. A subroutine is implemented with 2 associated instructions:

a. CALL
b. RETURN
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
98. Call instruction is written in the ______program:
a. Main
b. Procedures
c. Program
d. Memory
99. Return instruction is written in_______ to written to main program:
a. Subroutine
b. Main program
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
100. When subroutine is called contents of program counter is location address of _______instruction
following call instruction is stored on ________and program execution is transferred to______ address:
a. Non executable, pointer and subroutine
b. Executable, Stack and Main program
c. Executable, Queue and Subroutine
d. Executable, Stack and Subroutine
101. A subroutine called by another subroutine is called:
a. Nested
b. For loop
c. Break
d. Continue
102. The extent nesting in subroutine is limited only by:

a. Number of available Stack locations
b. Number of available Addressing locations
c. Number of available CPU locations
d. Number of available Memory locations
103. Which are of the following instructions of hardware subroutines:
a. SCAL
b. SXIT
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
104. Importance in local variable and index registers in subroutine does_____:

a. Alter
b. Not alter
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
105. Markers in subroutine cannot be accepted as limits whereas this markers stands for:
a. Top of stack
b. Bottom of stack
c. Middle of stack
d. All of these
106. Subroutines are placed in identical section to caller so that SCAL and SXIT _______overpass divison
limits:
a. Dont
b. Does
c. Cross
d. By
107. _________subroutine declaration come after procedure announcement:
a. Global
b. Local
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
108. subroutines are invoked by using their________ in a subroutine call statement and replacing formal
parameters with________ parameters:
a. Identifier and formal

b. Identifier and actual
c. Expression and arguments
d. None of these
109. Parameters can be stacked by ________just as with procedures:
a. Asterisk(*)
b. Arrow
c. Line
d. Pipeline
110. The subroutines are determined by functioning of ________instructions:

a. SCAL and SXIT
b. only SCAL
c. only SXIT
d. none of these
111. Call is________ subroutine call:
a. Conditional
b. Unconditional
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
112. A flag is a _________that keep track of a changing condition during computer run:
a. Memory
b. Register
c. Controller
d. None of these
113. When a subroutine is ________the parameters are loaded onto the stack and SCAL is executed:
a. Executed
b. Invoked
c. Ended
d. Started
114. Subroutine is called _______:
a. In Same program
b. In external program
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
115. If internal subroutine is called global data is used to pass values defining parameters between
_________program and defined _______:
a. Main and subroutine

b. Local and subroutine
c. Global and subroutine
d. Global and main
116. In what type of subroutine actual parameters are passed through the main program to formal
parameters in the related subroutine:
a. Internal

b. External
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
117. By defining the _________register as last in first out stack the sequence can handle nested
subroutines:
a. S
b. J
c. R
d. T
118. The ______stack can be 4-word memory addressed by 2 bits from an up/down counter known as the
stack pointer:
a. FIFO
b. PIPO
c. SISO
d. LIFO
119. getchar :: IO char in this given function what is indicated by IO char:

a. when getchar is invoked it returns a character
b. when getchar is executed it returns a character
c. both a & b
d. none of these
120. If we define putchar function in putchar :: char -> IO ( ) syntax than character input as an argument
and returns_____:
a. Useful value
b. Get output
c. Get no output
d. None of these
121. The front panel display provides lights as green LED represent _____ and red LED represent _____for
device programmer who writes input/output basic:
a. Busy and Error

b. Error and Busy
c. Busy and Busy
d. Error and Error
122. The input data for processing uses the standard input device which by default is a ________:
a. Mouse
b. Scanner

c. Keyboard
d. Monitor
123. The processed data is sent for output to standard ________device which by default is computer
screen:
a. Input
b. Output
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
124. Each instruction is executed by set of micro operations termed as:
a. Micro instructions
b. Mini instructions
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
125. For each micro operation the control unit generates set of______ signals:
a. Control
b. Address
c. Data
d. None of these
126. Sequence of microinstructions is termed as micro program or________:
a. Hardware
b. Software
c. Firmware
d. None of these
127. The micro program is an ________written in microcode and stored in firmware which is also
referred as___________:
a. Interpreter and control memory
b. Translator and control store
c. Translator and control memory
d. Interpreter and Translator
128. Compared to hardware, firmware is ________to design micro programmed organization:
a. Difficult
b. Easier
c. Both a& b
d. None of these

129. Compared to software, firmware is _______to write:
a. Easier
b. Difficult
c. Mediator
d. Optimum
130. _________program converts machine instructions into control signals:

a. Control memory program
b. Control store program
c. Both a & b
d. Only memory
131. who coined the term micro program in 1951:
a. T.V. Wilkes
b. M.V. Wilkes
c. S.V. Wilkes
d. D.V. Wilkes
132. what is full form of EDSAC:

a. Electronic delay source accumulator calculator
b. Electronic delay storage automatic code
c. Electronic destination source automatic calculator
d. Electronic delay storage automatic calculator
133. Who led to development of read only magnetic core matrix for use in control unit of small computer
at IBMs laboratory:
a. John Faircloughs
b. Johny fairclough
c. Mr. Redcliff
d. M.V. Wilkes
134. From1961-1964 John faircloughs research played an important role to pursue full range of
compatible computers as system:
a. System/360
b. System/460
c. System/560
d. System/780
135. Each microinstructions cycle is made of 2 parts:
a. Fetch
b. Execute
c. Code

d. Both a & b
136. One of use of microprogramming to implement ________ of processor in Intel 80x86 and Motorola
680x0 processors whose instruction set are evolved from 360 original:
a. Control structure
b. Without control
c. Control unit
d. Only control
137. The function of these microinstructions is to issue the micro orders to______:
a. CPU
b. Memory
c. Register
d. Accumulator
138. Micro-orders generate the_______ address of operand and execute instruction and prepare for
fetching next instruction from the main memory:
a. Physical
b. Effective
c. Logical
d. all of above
139. Which of the following 2 task are performed to execute an instruction by MCU:
a. Microinstruction execution
b. Microinstruction sequencing
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
140. What is the purpose of microinstruction executions:

a. Generate a control signal
b. Generate a control signal to compile
c. Generate a control signal to execute
d. All of these
141. Which microinstruction provide next instruction from control memory:
b. Microinstruction Buffer
c. Microinstruction decoder
d. Microinstruction Sequencing
142. Which are the following components of microprogramed units to implement control process:
b. Microinstruction address generation

c. Control store microprogram memory
d. Microinstruction Buffer
e. Microinstruction decoder
f. All of these
143. Microcodes are stored as firmware in _______:
a. Memory chips
b. Registers
c. accumulators
d. none of these
144. A control memory is______ stored in some area of memory:
a. Control instruction
b. Memory instruction
c. Register instruction
d. None of these
145. A computer having writable control memory is known as_________:

a. Static micro programmable
b. Dynamic micro programmable
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
146. The control memory contains a set of words where each word is:
a. Microinstruction
b. Program
c. Sets
d. All of these
147. During program execution content of main memory undergo changes and, but control memory
has______ microprogram:
a. Static
b. Dynamic
c. Compile time
d. Fixed
148. What happens if computer is started :

a. It executes CPU microprogram which is sequence of microinstructions stored in
ROM
b. It executes code microprogram which is sequence of microinstructions stored in
ROM
c. It executes boot microprogram which is sequence of microinstructions stored in
ROM

d. It executes strap loader microprogram which is sequence of microinstructions
stored in ROM
149. Control memory is part of ______ that has addressable storage registers and used as temporary
storage for data:
a. ROM
b. RAM
c. CPU
d. Memory
150. How many modes the address in control memory are divided:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
151. which of the following is interrupt mode:
a. Task mode
b. Executive mode
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
152. Mode of addresses in control memory are:
a. Executive mode
b. Task mode
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
153. Addresses in control memory is made by____ for each register group:
a. Address select logic

b. Data select logic
c. Control select logic
d. All of these
154. There are how many register groups in control memory:
a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8

155. What type of circuit is used by control memory to interconnect registers:
a. Data routing circuit

b. Address routing circuit
c. Control routing circuit
d. None of the these
156. Which memory is used to copy instructions or data currently used by CPU:
a. Main memory
b. Secondary memory
c. Cache memory
d. None of these
157. Copy of instruction in cache memory is known as:
a. Execution cache
b. Data cache
c. Instruction cache
d. All of these
158. Copy of data in cache memory is called:
a. Data cache
b. Execution cache
c. Address cache
d. Control cache
159. What are 2 advantages of cache memory:

a. Reduction of average access time for CPU memory
b. Reduction of bandwidth of available memory of CPU
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
160. On what method search in cache memory used by the system:
a. Cache directing
b. Cache mapping
c. Cache controlling
d. Cache invalidation
161. ______process starts when a cpu with cache refers to a memory:
a. Main memory
b. External memory

c. Cache
d. All of these
162. When cache process starts hit and miss rate defines in cache directory:
a. during search reads

b. during search writes
c. during replace writes
d. during finding writes
163. In cache memory hit rate indicates:

a. Data from requested address is not available
b. Data from requested address is available
c. Control from requested address is available
d. Address from requested address is not available
164. In cache memory miss rate indicates:
a. Availability of requested data
b. Availability of requested address
c. Non-Availability of requested data
d. Non-Availability of requested address
165. Which 3 areas are used by cache process:
a. Search, updating, invalidation
b. Write, updating, invalidation
c. Search, read, updating
d. Invalidation, updating, requesting
166. Updating writes to cache data and also to _______:
a. Directories
b. Memory
c. Registers
d. Folders
167. Invalidation writes only to_____ and erases previously residing address in memory:
a. Folders
b. Memory
c. Directory
d. Files
168. _______machine instruction creates branching to some specified location in main memory if result of
last ALU operation is Zero or Zero flag is set:
a. Branch on One
b. Branch on Three
c. Branch on Nine

d. Branch on Zero
169. Full form of CAR:

a. Control address register
b. Content address register
c. Condition accumulator resource
d. Code address register
170. Two types of microinstructions are:
a. Branching
b. Non-branching
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
171. Which are 3 ways to determine address of next micro instruction to be executed:
a. Next sequential address

b. Branching
c. Interrupt testing
d. All of these
172. Branching can be________:
a. Conditional
b. Unconditional
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
173. In which branching condition is tested which is determined by status bit of ALU:
a. Unconditional
b. Conditional
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
174. which branch is achieved by fixing status bit that output of multiplexer is always one:
a. Unconditional
b. Conditional
c. Looping
d. All of these
175. Which register is used to store addresses of control memory from where instruction is fetched:
a. MAR

b. BAR
c. CAR
d. DAR
176. Control ROM is the control memory that holds:
a. Control words
b. Memory words
c. Multiplexers
d. Decoders
177. Opcode is the machine instruction obtained from decoding instruction stored in:
a. Stack pointer
b. Address pointer
c. Instruction register
d. Incrementer
178. Branch logic determines which should be adopted to select the next______ value among possibilities:
a. CAR
b. GAR
c. HAR
d. TAR
179. ________ generates CAR+1 as possibility of next CAR value:
a. Decrementer
b. Incrementer
c. Postfix
d. Prefix
180. ________used to hold return address for operations of subroutine call branch:
a. TBR
b. HDR
c. SDR
d. SBR
181. Which of following 2 types of computer system considered by micro programmed unit:
a. Micro level computers
b. Machine level computers
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
182. Following are the components of micro programmed control unit:

a. Subroutine register
b. Control address register
c. Memory Of 128 words with 20 bits per words
d. All of these
183. Various machine level components are:
a. Address register
b. Program counter
c. Data register
d. Accumulator register
e. Memory of 2K,16 bits/word RAM
f. Multiplexers
g. All of these
184. Data transfers are done using:
a. Multiplexer switching
b. Demultiplexer switching
c. Adder switching
d. Subtractor switching
185. PC can be loaded from_____:
a. BR
b. CR
c. AR
d. TR
186. Which functions are performed by CU:

a. Data exchange b/w CPU and memory or I/O modules
b. External operations
c. Internal operations inside CPU
d. Both a & c
187. Which are internal operations inside CPU:
a. Data transfer b/w registers
b. Instructing ALU to operate data
c. Regulation of other internal operations
d. All of these
188. How many paths taken by movement of data in CU:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 2
189. 2 data paths in CU are:
a. Internal data paths

b. External data paths

c. Both a & b
d. None of these
190. _______is the data paths link CPU registers with memory or I/O modules:
a. External data paths

b. Internal data paths
c. Boreal data paths
d. Exchange data paths
191. ______is data paths there is movement of data from one register to another or b/w ALU and a
register:
a. External
b. Boreal
c. Internal
d. Exchange
192. Which is the input of control unit:

a. Master clock signal
b. Instruction register
c. Flags
d. Control signals from bus
e. All of these
193. If _______flag is set then control unit issues control signals that causes program counter to be
incremented by 1:
a. Zero
b. One
c. Three
d. Eight
194. Which control unit is implemented as combinational circuit in the hardware:

a. Microprogrammed control unit
b. Hardwired control unit
c. Blockprogrammed control unit
d. Macroprogrammed control unit
195. Microprograms are usually stored in:
a. ROM
b. RAM
c. SAM
d. SAN
196. Among them which is the faster control unit:

a. Hardwired
b. Microprogrammed
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
197. For CISC architecture_______ controllers are better:
a. Microprogrammed
b. Hardwired
c. Betterwired
d. None of these
198. Full form of FSM is:
a. Finite state machine

b. Fix state machine
c. Fun source metal
d. All of these
199. Rules of FSM are encoded in:
a. ROM
b. Random logic
c. Programmable logic array
d. All of these
200. In RISC architecture access to registers is made as a block and register file in a particular register can
be selected by using:
a. Multiplexer
b. Decoder
c. Subtractor
d. Adder
201. Outputs of instruction/data path in CU are:
a. Reg R/W
b. Load/Reg-Reg
c. ALU function select
d. Load control
e. Read control
f. IR Latch
g. JUMP/Branch/Next PC
h. All of these

202. One last bit of control output is for control of_______ state:
a. Minor
b. Major
c. Mixer
d. None of these
203. Following are 4 major states for load are:
a. Fetch
b. Decode
c. Memory
d. Write back
e. All of these
204. Jump has 3 major states are:
a. Fetch
b. Decode
c. Complete
d. All of these
205. ________ state keeps track of position related to execution of an instruction:
a. Major
b. Minor
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
206. An instruction always starts with state___:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 0
207. Decoding of an instruction in RISC architecture means decision on working of control unit for:
a. Remainder of instructions
b. Divisor of instructions
c. Dividend of instructions
d. None of these
208. Which control is used during starting of instruction cycle:
a. Write

b. Read
c. R/W
d. None of these
209. ________function select takes op code in IR translating to function of ALU and it may be compact
binary code or one line per ALU:
a. ALU
b. CPU
c. Memory
d. Cache
210. ________is dependent on instruction type in CU:
a. Jump
b. Branch
c. NextPC
d. All of these
211. __________dependent on instruction and major state and also comes in starting of data fetch state as
well as write back stage in CU:
a. Register read
b. Register write
c. Register R/W
d. All of these
212. _______dependence over op-code in CU:
a. Load register
b. Load Reg/Reg
c. Only Load
d. None of these
213. Full form of PLA in CU:

a. Progrmmable Logic Array
b. Programs Load Array
c. Programmable Logic Accumulator
d. all of these
214. Which are tasks for execution of CU or MCU:
b. Microinstruction sequencing
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

215. Branching is implemented by depending on output of:
a. CD
b. RG
c. CC
d. CR
216. Who determine under what conditions the branching will occur and when:
a. By combination of CD and BT
b. By combination of CD and BR
c. By combination of CD and CR
d. By combination of TD and BR
217. The character U is used to indicate:
a. Undefined transfers
b. Unfair transfers
c. Unconditional transfers
d. All of these
218. Which field is used to requests for branching:
a. DR
b. CR
c. TR
d. BR
219. which field is used to determine what type of transfer occurs:
a. CR
b. SR
c. BR
d. MR
220. Source statements consist of 5fields in microinstruction source code are:

a. Lable
b. Micro-ops
c. CD-spec
d. BR-spec
e. Address
f. All of these
1. Which is a type of microprocessor that is designed with limited number of instructions:

a. CPU
b. RISC
c. ALU
d. MUX
2. Which unit is a pipeline system helps in speeding up processing over a non pipeline system:
a. CPU
b. RISC
c. ALU
d. MUX
3. The group of binary bits assigned to perform a specified operation is known as:
a. Stack register
b. Control word
c. Both
d. None
4. How many binary selection inputs in the control word:
a. 1
b. 7
c. 14
d. 28
5. In control word three fields contain how many bits:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
6. Three fields contains three bits each so one filed has how many bits in control word:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
7. How is selects the register that receives the information from the output bus:
a. Decoder
b. Encoder
c. MUX

d. All of these
8. A bus organization for seven _____register:
a. ALU
b. RISC
c. CPU
d. MUX
9. How many source register propagate through the multiplexers:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
10. How many bits of OPR select one of the operations in the ALU:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
11. five bits of OPR select one of the operation in the ____ in control register:
a. CPU
b. RISC
c. ALU
d. MUX
12. The OPR field has how many bits:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
13. In stack organization the insertion operation is known as ____:
a. Pop
b. Push
c. Both
d. None
14. In stack organization the deletion operation is known as ____:

a. Pop
b. Push
c. Both
d. None
15. A stack in a digital computer is a part of the_____:
a. ALU
b. CPU
c. Memory unit
d. None of these
16. In stack organization address register is known as the:
a. Memory stack
b. Stack pointer
c. Push operation
d. Pop operation
17. In register stack a stack can be organized by a ______number of register:
a. Infinite number
b. Finite number
c. Both
d. None
18. Which operation are done by increment or decrement the stack pointer:
a. Push
b. Pop
c. Both
d. None
19. In register stack a stack can be a finite number of_____:
a. Control word
b. Memory word
c. Transfer word
d. All of these
20. The stack pointer contains the address of the word that is currently on____:
a. Top of the stack

b. Down of the stack

c. Top and Down both
d. None
21. In register stack items are removed from the stack by using the ____operation:
a. Push
b. Pop
c. Both
d. None
22. Which register holds the item that is to be written into the stack or read out of the stack:
a. SR
b. IR
c. RR
d. DR
23. In register stack the top item is read from the stack into:
a. SR
b. IR
c. RR
d. DR
24. In conversion to reverse polish notation the ____and____ operations are performed at the end:
a. Add and subtract

b. Subtract and multiplication
c. Multiplication and subtract
d. All of these
25. RPN stands for:
a. Reverse polish notation

b. Read polish notation
c. Random polish notation
d. None of these
26. Instruction formats contains the memory address of the______:
a. Memory data
b. Main memory
c. CPU
d. ALU

27. In instruction formats instruction is represent by a________ of bits:
a. Sequence
b. Parallel
c. Both
d. None
28. In instruction formats the information required by the ______ for execution:
a. ALU
b. CPU
c. RISC
d. DATA
29. The operation is specified by a binary code known as the_____:
a. Operand code
b. Opcode
c. Source code
d. All of these
30. Which are contains one or more register that may be referenced by machine instruction:
a. Input
b. Output
c. CPU
d. ALU
31. Memory mapped ___is used this is just another memory address:
a. Input
b. Output
c. Both
d. None
32. Which operation use one operand or unary operations:
a. Arithmetic
b. Logical
c. Both
d. None
33. 3-Address format can be represented as :

a. dst <-[src1][src2]
b. dst ->[src1][src2]

c. dst <->[src1][src2]
d. All of these
34. 2- Address format can be represented as:
a. dst ->[dst]*[src]
b. dst<-[dst]*[src]
c. dst<->[dst]*[src]
d. All of these
35. In 1-address format how many address is used both as source as well as destination:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
36. The stack pointer is maintained in a____:
a. Data
b. Register
c. Address
d. None of these
37. ___ mode of addressing is a form of implied addressing:
a. Stack
b. Array
c. Queue
d. Binary
38. Stack uses RPN to solve ______expression:
a. Logical
b. Arithmetic
c. Both
d. None
39. In the RPN scheme the numbers and operators are listed__________:
a. One after another

b. One before another
c. Another after one
d. Another before one
40. In addressing modes instruction has primarily how many components:
a. 1

b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
41. EA stands for:
a. Effective add
b. Effective absolute
c. Effective address
d. End address
42. In which addressing the operand is actually present in instruction:
a. Immediate addressing
b. Direct addressing
c. Register addressing
d. None of these
43. In which addressing the simplest addressing mode where an operand is fetched from memory is_____:
d. None of these
44. which addressing is a way of direct addressing:
d. None of these
45. In which mode the main memory location holds the EA of the operand:
d. Indirect addressing
46. Which addressing is an extremely influential way of addressing:
a. Displacement addressing
b. Immediate addressing
c. Direct addressing
d. Register addressing

47. In the base register addressing the register reference may be _____:
a. Implicit
b. Explicit
c. Both
d. None
48. In post indexing the indexing is performed_____
a. Before the indirection

b. After the indirection
c. Same time indirection
d. All of these
49. In post-indexing the contents of the address field are used to access a memory location containing a___
address:
d. None of these
50. In pre indexing the indexing is performed_____
a. Before the indirection

b. After the indirection
c. Same time indirection
d. All of these
51. The final addressing mode that we consider is______:

d. Stack addressing
52. In data transfer manipulation designing as instruction set for a system is a complex_____ :
a. Art
b. System
c. Computer
d. None of these
53. Which addressing is an extremely influential way of addressing:

d. Displacement addressing
54. Which addressing offset can be the content of PC and also can be negative:
a. Relative addressing
b. Immediate addressing
c. Direct addressing
d. Register addressing
55. The length of instruction set depends on:
a. Data size
b. Memory size
c. Both
d. None
56. In length instruction some programs wants a complex instruction set containing more instruction, more
addressing modes and greater address rang, as in case of_____:
a. RISC
b. CISC
c. Both
d. None
57. In length instruction other programs on the other hand, want a small and fixed-size instruction set that
contains only a limited number of opcodes, as in case of_____:
a. RISC
b. CISC
c. Both
d. None
58. The instruction set can have variable-length instruction format primarily due to:
a. Varying number of operands
b. Varying length of opcodes in some CPU
c. Both
d. None
59. An instruction code must specify the address of the____:
a. Opecode
b. Operand
c. Both
d. None
60. A simple ____ differs widely from a Turing machine:

a. CISC
b. RISC
c. CPU
d. ALU
61. How many types of basically Data manipulation:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e.
62. Which is data manipulation types are:
a. Arithmetic instruction
b. Shift instruction
c. Logical and bit manipulation instructions
d. All of these
63. Arithmetic instruction are used to perform operation on:
a. Numerical data
b. Non-numerical data
c. Both
d. None
64. How many basic arithmetic operation:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
65. which are arithmetic operation are:
a. Addition
b. Subtraction
c. Multiplication
d. Division
e. All of these
f. None of these
66. In which instruction are used to perform Boolean operation on non-numerical data:
a. Logical and bit manipulation
b. Shift manipulation
c. Circular manipulation
d. None of these

67. Which operation is used to shift the content of an operand to one or more bits to provide necessary
variation:
a. Logical and bit manipulation
d. None of these
68. ________is just like a circular array:
a. Data
b. Register
c. ALU
d. CPU
69. Which control refers to the track of the address of instructions:
a. Data control
b. Register control
c. Program control
d. None of these
70. In program control the instruction is set for the statement in a:
a. Parallel
b. Sequence
c. Both
d. None
71. How many types of unconditional jumps used in program control are follows:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
72. Which are unconditional jumps used in program control are follows:
a. Short jump
b. Near jump
c. Far jump
d. All of these
73. Which instruction is used in program control and used to decrement CX and conditional jump:
a. Loop

d. None of these
74. Which is always considered as short jumps:
a. Conditional jump
b. Short jump
c. Near jump
d. Far jump
75. Who change the address in the program counter and cause the flow of control to be altered:
a. Shift manipulation
b. Circular manipulation
c. Program control instruction
d. All of these
76. Which is the common program control instructions are:
a. Branch
b. Jump
c. Call a subroutine
d. Return
e. All of these
f. None of these
77. Which is a type of microprocessor that is designed with limited number of instructions:
a. CISC
b. RISC
c. Both
d. None
78. SMP Stands for:
a. System multiprocessor
b. Symmetric multiprocessor
c. Both
d. None
79. UMA stands for:
a. Uniform memory access

b. Unit memory access
c. Both

d. None
80. NUMA stands for:

a. Number Uniform memory access
b. Not Uniform memory access
c. Non Uniform memory access
d. All of these
81. SIMD stands for:
a. System instruction multiple data
b. Single instruction multiple data
c. Symmetric instruction multiple data
d. Scale instruction multiple data
82. MIMD stands for:
a. Multiple input multiple data
b. Memory input multiple data
c. Multiple instruction multiple data
d. Memory instruction multiple data
83. HLL stands for:
a. High level languages

b. High level line
c. High level logic
d. High level limit
84. Which is a method of decomposing a sequential process into sub operations:
a. Pipeline
b. CISC
c. RISC
d. Database
85. How many types of array processor:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
86. Which are the types of array processor:
a. Attached array processor

b. SIMD array processor
c. Both
d. None

87. Which are the application of vector processing:
a. Weather forecasting
b. Artificial intelligence
c. Experts system
d. Images processing
e. Seismology
f. Gene mapping
g. Aerodynamics
h. All of these
i. None of these
88. Which types of jump keeps a 2_byte instruction that holds the range from- 128to127 bytes in the memory
location:
a. Far jump
b. Near jump
c. Short jump
d. All of these
89. Which types of register holds a single vector containing at least two read ports and one write ports:
a. Data system
b. Data base
c. Memory
d. Vector register
90. Parallel computing means doing several takes simultaneously thus improving the performance of
the________:
a. Data system
b. Computer system
c. Memory
d. Vector register
91. Which is used to speed-up the processing:
a. Pipeline
b. Vector processing
c. Both
d. None
92. Which processor is a peripheral device attached to a computer so that the performance of a computer can
be improved for numerical computations:

c. Both
d. None
93. Which processor has a single instruction multiple data stream organization that manipulates the common
instruction by means of multiple functional units:

c. Both
d. None
94. Which carry is similar to rotate without carry operations:
a. Rotate carry
b. Rotate through carry
c. Both
d. None
95. In the case of a left arithmetic shift , zeros are Shifted to the ______:
a. Left
b. Right
c. Up
d. Down
96. In the case of a right arithmetic shift the sign bit values are shifted to the_____:
a. Left
b. Right
c. Up
d. Down

QUESTIONS ON COMPUTER NETWORKS
1. ISO stands for
a. International Organization for Standardization
b. Internet Organization for Standardization
c. International Organization Standardization
d. International for Organization Standardization
2. The main principle of layered architecture is
a. Separation of responsibility
b. Addition of responsibility
c. Subtraction of responsibility
d. None of these
3. Which type of network operating system in Novell Netware
a. Client
b. Server
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
4. How many layers a Novell Netware protocol stack uses
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
5. TCP/IP model is the _______ , which is used in the OSI model
a. Oldest protocol
b. Not so old protocol
c. Newly established protocol
d. None of these
6. In layered architecture, each layer is responsible for a ________ amount of work
a. Infinite
b. Finite
c. Large

d. None of these
7. Layering the communications process means breaking down the communication process
into______ and _____ to handle interdependent categories
a. Smaller
b. Easier
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
8. The convention and rules used in such communications are collectively known as
a. Peer
b. Layer protocol
c. Network
d. None of these
9. The entities comprising the corresponding layers on different computers are called
________ which communicate by using layer protocol
a. Peer
b. Layer protocol
c. Network
d. None of these
e.
10.OSI has two meanings refers to
a. OSI basic reference model
b. Protocol that are authorized by ISO
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
11. Network is the term used for a group of
a. protocols
b. layers
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

12.The groups of layers provides information to allows _________, which correctly obeys the
appropriate protocol
a. Hardware implementation
b. Software implementation
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
13.Which are never form a part of the architecture because they are not visible from the
outside
a. Interface specification
b. Implementation details
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
14.The information exchanged between two computers is physically carried by means of

_________ with the help of certain coding method
a. Electronics signal
b. Electrical signal
c. Physical signal
d. Physical circuits
15. For two computers to reliably exchange data, they must have a
a. compatible implementation of encoding
b. interpreting data carrying electrical signals
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
16.Transmission media deals with the types of medium used , which is dictated by the
a. Desirable bandwidth
b. Immunity to noise
c. Attenuation properties
d. All of these
e.

17.The data communication process allocates memory resources, commonly known
as___________ for the sake of transmission and reception of data
a. Communication buffers
b. Communication media
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
18. The receiving computer must be capable of

distinguishing between information
Carrying signal and mere noise
a. Error control
b. Logical channels
c. Routing
d. All of these
19.In error control, this corruption could be in the form of ________________
a. Noise
b. Electromagnetic interference
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
20.Protocols should provide at least ______ logical channels per connection
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
21. Data exchange can take place between any _____ workstations
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
22.Depending on the nature of the involved application in layered architecture, the dialog
type may be
a. Duplex

b. Half duplex
c. Simplex mode
d. All of these
23. The session recovery can be achieved by providing a
a. Checkpoint
b. Check mechanism
c. Character encoding
d. Terminal emulation
24.The check pointing circumvent session recovery requirement by retransmitting only the
a. Affected files
b. Saving time
c. Bandwidth
d. All of these
e.
25.Some good examples of presentation problems are the existing incompatibilities between
the__________ standard of character encoding
a. ASCII
b. EBCDIC
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
26. This is the entities in the same layers but on different computers
a. Peer entities
b. Entities
c. Service provider
d. SAP
27. Which function of the layer provides certain services
a. Peer entities
b. Entities
c. Service provider

d. SAP
28.Which function of the layer uses certain services
a. Peer entities
b. Entities
c. Service provider
d. Service user
29.Which is the point from where services can be accessed .each point is the unique address
a. Peer entities
b. Entities
c. Service provider
d. SAP
30. Which are the active elements such as processes, IO chips in every layers
a. Peer entities
b. Entities
c. Service provider
d. SAP
31.Which is the reliable connectionless service with acknowledgement
a. Registered E-mail
b. Junk E-mail
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
32. Which is the unreliable connectionless service without acknowledgement
a. Registered E-mail
b. Junk E-mail
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
33.In which model, Request-reply command is example of connectionless service
a. Client-server model
b. User model

c. Server model
d. None of these
34. Which service is specified by a set of primitives available to a service user to

interact with the service provider
a. connection-oriented
b. connectionless
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
35.Which are parameters to define conditions
a. Protocol
b. Primitives
c. Confirmed service
d. SAP
36.A confirmed services is defined with a
a. Request
b. Confirm
c. Response
d. Indication
e. Primitives
f. All of these
g.
37.The Service primitives are the part of
a. Protocol
b. Primitives
c. Confirmed service
d. SAP
38.An unconfirmed is defined with a
a. Request
b. Indication
c. Confirm

d. Response
e. Both a & b
f. All of these
39.Which are the distinct concepts and are important to release connections between sender
and receiver
a. Services
b. Protocol
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
40.Which is provided to the upper layer by an immediate lower layer
a. Protocol to service
b. Service to protocol
c. Service primitives
d. None of these
41. The characteristic of each layer are as
a. Name
b. Content
c. Function
d. Total no of layers depend on type of network
e. All of these
f.
42.The basic function of each single layer is to provides service to the
a. Layer of the top
b. Layer of the bottom
c. Layer above it
d. Layer below it
43.________ the protocol can make communication between the two either difficult or
impossible
a. Breaching

b. Branching
c. Broaching
d. Brunching
44.The network architecture can be termed as a
a. Set of layers
b. Set of protocols
c. Set of machines
d. Both a & b
45.The hectic task of designing the whole network can be distributed in the
a. Smaller
b. Easier
c. Simpler design problems
d. All of these
46.Which is the computers from the same manufacturer it was not possible to run
both_______ solution and _______ simultaneously
a. IBM
b. DEC
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
47.ISO-OSI reference model these could only be run one at a time by the end__________
a. 1969s
b. 1971s
c. 1970s
d. 1972s
48.Which is a reliable connection-oriented service has two subparts
a. Message sequences
b. Byte streams
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.

49.Which is similar to postal system where every message contains the complete destination
address and is mapped through the system, free of all the others
a. Connection-oriented services
b. Connectionless services
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
50.The various types of services provided by the interface to the layers above them are listed
as follows
a. Connection-oriented services
b. Connectionless services
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
51.The connectionless services can be further sub-divided into many categories
a. Unreliable datagram
b. Acknowledged datagram
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
52.Unreliable connectionless service can be also termed as
a. Datagram service
b. Data service
c. Byte stream service
d. None of these
53.By the end of _________, the Open System Interconnection model was developed by the
International Organization for Standardization to break the barrier
a. 1980
b. 1970
c. 1990
d. 1960
54.The first and the lowest layer is called the ___________________________
a. Physical layer

b. Supporting rules for low-level signaling
c. Hardware implementation
d. All of these
55.The seventh and the highest layer is the application layer that deals with the
a. User interface
b. Applications
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
56.In moving from layer one to layer seven, the level of abstraction ________
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. May be increases or decreases
d. None of these
e.
57.The first layer deals with the actual ____________
a. Hardware of networks
b. The specific methods of sending bits from one device to another
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
58.The second layer also deals with ________________
a. Signaling
b. Hardware
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
59.The transport layer is the one, which links the communication process to this
_________________
a. Hardware-oriented protocol
b. Software-oriented protocol
c. Both a & b

d. None of these
60.Which is collectively known as a protocol data unit(PDU)
a. Data
b. Header
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
61.The seventh layer does not deal with __________ concepts very much
a. Hardware
b. Even operating system
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
62.The basic philosophy of the seven-layer model is that each layer may be defined
a. Dependently of every other layer
b. Independently of every other layer
c. Dependent on same layer
d. None of these
63.The seven layers of the OSI model are categorized into ________ groupings
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
64.The lower layers are layers
a. 1,2,3
b. 1,2,3,4
c. 1,2,3,4,5
d. 2,3,4,5,6
65.The upper layers are layers
a. 5,6
b. 5,7
c. 6,7

d. 5,6,7
66.The lower layers are implemented by using ______________ with the incidence of
hardware reducing to software from layer 1 to layer 4
a. Software
b. Hardware
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
67.The upper layers are not expected to know anything about ____________
a. Networking
b. Network addresses
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
68.The bottom four layers take the responsibility of _________________
a. Networking
b. Network addresses
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
69.The OSI interface is a process of communication between adjacent layers in which data is
passed between
a. Layer n
b. Layer n-1
c. Layer n+1
d. All of these
70.The layers 3 and 4 interface are used by protocol to _____________
a. Pass control
b. Pass Data information
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

71.This refers to communication up and down the protocol stack every time any data is sent
received across the network
a. Vertical communication
b. Horizontal communication
c. Protocols
d. OSI interfaces
72.Which is a communication process running at a particular layer on one host machine can
accomplish logical communication with a similar process running at the same layer on
another host machine
a. Vertical communication
b. Horizontal communication
c. Protocols
d. OSI interfaces
73.Which OSI model supports the interconnection of different implementations of various

autonomous layers
a. Modularity
b. Inter-layer interactions
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
74.The functions of the OSI layer model are
Layers Functions

1 Physical It moves bits between devices by using media
2 Data link It tends to assemble packets into bytes and bytes into frames
and provides access to media by using MAC address
3 Network It is responsible for providing logical addressing which

routers use for path determination and routing
4 Transport It provides reliable or unreliable delivery and performs

error correction before retransmit. It is also responsible for
end-to-end connection
5 Session It aims to keep different applications data separately and

provides dialog control
6 Presentation It provides rules to present data, handle processing like

encryption, compression and translation services
7 Application It aims to provide a user interface like file, print, message,

database and application services
75.A number of transmission media exist, some of them are
a. Open wire circuits
b. Twisted pair cables
c. Coaxial cables
d. Fiber optic cables
e. Wireless
f. All of these
76.The physical layer specifies the representation of each bit as a
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Phase or frequency
d. All of these
77.The physical layer uses four types of bit signaling approaches these are
a. RZ(return to zero) by using pulse signaling
b. NRZ(non return to zero) transmission by using level signaling
c. Manchester encoding by using phase signaling
d. NRZ-I(non return to zero-invertive) by using bandwidth

e. All of these
78.What are the two types of systems that are used to provide timing signal
a. Asynchronous communications
b. Synchronous communications
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
79.The timing signal identifies the boundaries between the
a. Bytes
b. Bits
c. Gigabyte
d. Megabyte
80.Which bit stream is to be transmitted with the objective that when the sending side sends
_____ bit
a. 1
b. 0
c. 1,0
d. None of these
81.Which bit stream is to be transmitted with the objective that when the received by the
receiving side as 1 bit, not as ___ bit
a. 1
b. 0
c. 1,0
d. None of these
82.It defines the electrical and mechanical aspects of interfacing to a physical medium for
transmitting data ________________________________
a. As well as setting up
b. Maintaining
c. Disconnecting physical links
d. All of these
83.The functions of the physical layer are

a. Describing hardware specifications
b. Encoding and signaling
c. Data transmission and reception
d. All of these
84.The physical layer supports various encoding and signaling functions to convert data,
from bit stream to frame and vice versa, to send across the network
a. Describing hardware specifications
b. Encoding and signaling
c. Data transmission and reception
d. None of these
85.What is an example of a physical layer definition
a. RS-323C/D
b. RS-232C/D
c. RS-233C/D
d. RS-322C/D
86. Examples of data link layers are
a. HDLC
b. Ethernet
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
87.The functions of the data link layer are
a. Logical Link control(LLC)
b. Media Access Control(MAC)
c. Data framing
d. Addressing
e. Error detection and handling
f. All of these
88.The data link layer also deals with the issue of addressing what is popularly known as
a. Hardware
b. Address

c. MAC address
d. All of these
89.Some of the examples of MAC are
a. CSMA/CD for Ethernet
b. Token passing for the Token Ring network
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
90.The functions of the Network layer are
a. Logical addressing
b. Routing
c. Datagram encapsulation
d. Fragmentation and reassembly
e. All of these
91.The routing of network layer may be
a. Static
b. Dynamic
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
92.The network layer uses which service for delivering packets across the network
a. Connection-oriented
b. Connectionless service
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
93.In broadcast network ,the routing problem is ________, so the network layer is often thin
or even nonexistent
a. Complex
b. Simple
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

94.The transport layer provides the necessary function to enable communication between
_____________ processes on different computers
a. Software application
b. Hardware application
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
95.The transport layer accepts data from the ______ and splits it up into smaller units so that
it can be passed to the network layer
a. Network layer
b. Session layer
c. Presentation layer
d. Physical layer
96. Which protocol uses the transport layer
a. FTP
b. TFTP
c. HTTP
d. TCP/IP
97.The functions of transport layer are
a. Process-level addressing
b. Multiplexing and de-multiplexing
c. Segmentation, packaging and reassembly
d. Connection establishment , management and termination
e. Acknowledgements and retransmission
f. Flow control
g. All of these
98.The session layer is responsible for _______________ the dialogues between

communicating applications
a. Establishing
b. Maintaining

c. Arbitrating
d. All of these
e.
99. The session layer provides enhanced useful services in some applications such
as
a. Remote login
b. Remote file transfer
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
100.Some examples of APIs are
a. NetBIOS
b. TCP/IP sockets
c. Remote Procedure Calls (RPCs)
d. All of these
101.Which enable an application to complete specified high level communications over the
network successfully and easily with the help of a standardized set of services
a. RPCs
b. APIs
c. TCP/IP
d. All of these
102.The data link layer is also known as
a. Link layer
b. Data layer
c. Open layer
d. None of these
103.Some example of data link layers are
a. HDLC
b. Ethernet
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

104.Which provides link to many wireless and wired local area networking (LAN) like
Ethernet ,FDDI, IEEE802.11 etc to function
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Transport layer
d. Presentation layer
105.Which layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data across the physical link
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Transport layer
106.The responsibility of data link layer include functions such as
a. Data flow control
b. Breaking the input data
c. Frame formatting
d. Transmission of the frame sequence
e. Error detection
f. Link management
g. All of these
107.Which layer performs functions relative to the syntax and semantics of the information
transmitted
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Transport layer
108.The types of data handling issue that presentation layer provides are as follows
a. Translation
b. Compression
c. Encryption
d. All of these

109.In translation, different types of computers like _____________in an Inter-network have
many distinct characteristics and represent data in different ways
a. PCs
b. Macintoshes
c. UNIX systems
d. AS/400 servers
e. All of these
110.Which layer allows the user to use the network
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Application layer
111.The application layer provides network-based services to the user are
a. Distributed database
b. Electronic mail
c. Resource sharing
d. File transfer
e. Remote file access
f. Network management
g. All of these
112.Which layer provides user interface to communicate with a computer
a. Physical layer
b. Application layer
c. Transport layer
113.The most popular application layer protocols are
a. HTTP, FTP
b. SMTP, DHCP
c. NFS, Telnet
d. SNMP, POP3

e. NNTP, IRC
f. All of these
114.Which model is considered the oldest protocol of all computer networks like the
ARPANET and its successor, the Internet
a. TCP/IP Reference model
b. SMTP model
c. Telnet model
d. NNTP model
e.
115.Most users rely on ______ for the purpose of file transfers, electronic mail(e-mail) and
remote login services
a. TCP/IP
b. SMTP
c. DHCP
d. NFS
e.
116.How many layers TCP/IP model has
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
117.TCP/IP layer specifies the __________ layer
a. Physical layer
b. Application layer
c. Transport layer
118.TCP/IP defines a four-layer model consisting of the
a. Internet layer
b. Transport layer
c. Application layer

d. Network interface layer
e. All of these
119.TCP/IP architecture is based on the three sets of interdependent processes are
a. Application-specific processes
b. Host-specific processes
c. Network-specific processes
d. All of these
120.Which TCP/IP standards define protocols for TCP/IP networks for layer two
implementation to fill the gap between the network layer and the physical layer
a. Serial Line Internet Protocol(SLIP)
b. Point-to-Point Protocol(PPP)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
121.The Internet layer of the TCP/IP matches with the which layer of the OSI model
a. Network layer
b. Physical layer
c. Session layer
d. Data link layer
122.The Packet format and protocol at internet layer is called
a. Network protocol
b. Internet protocol
c. OSI protocol
d. None of these
123.Which protocols are found in a Internet Layer of TCP/IP model
a. IP
b. ICMP
c. RIP
d. BGP
e. All of these
124.Which protocols are found in a Network interface Layer of TCP/IP model

a. Ethernet
b. FDDI
c. Token Ring
d. All of these
e.
125.Which protocols are found in a Transport Layer of TCP/IP model
a. TCP
b. UDP
c. FDDI
d. Both a & b
126.Which protocols are found in a Application Layer of TCP/IP model
a. FTP
b. TFTP
c. SMTP
d. NFS
e. TELNET
f. SNMP
g. All of these
h. None of these
127.The UDP Protocols are
a. Reliable
b. Connection-oriented
c. Connectionless
d. Unreliable
i. Both a & b
ii. Both c & d
iii. None of these
128.Which protocols are found in the application layer
a. Numerous
b. UDP

c. TCP
d. IP
129.Which other function include __________________and identification of port number
a. Sequence control
b. Error recovery and control
c. Flow control
d. All of these
130.TCP layer is a
a. Service
b. Connection type service
c. Connectionless type service
d. None of these
131.The basic functions of application layer are _____________ that wish to communicate
with one another
a. To identify the source machine
b. To identify the destination machine
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
132.The Internet has definite standards for FTP that connects to a
a. Remote machine
b. Sends an arbitrary file
c. Fetches an arbitrary file
d. All of these
133.FTP addresses the
a. Issues of authentication
b. Listing of directory contents
c. ASCII or binary files
d. All of these
134.Another aspect of the application layer is to __________ ,this application is called telnet
a. Login remotely

b. Logout
c. Remotely
d. None of these
135.TCP connection with another location and then pass keystrokes from the _______
a. Remote host to local host
b. Local host to remote host
c. remote host to remote host
d. Local host to Local host
136.Similarly, there are many other applications such as NNTP enabling communication
between a ___________
a. News server
b. News client
c. Web(HTTP)-based protocol for communication on the WWW
d. All of these
137.FTP is among the oldest protocols used in the_____
a. Internet
b. Web
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
138.Which is a file server access protocol that enables a user to transfer files between two
hosts
a. SMTP
b. TCP
c. FTP
d. NNTP
139.FTP is widely available on almost all-browsers indicating that all computing platforms,
including _________
a. DOS
b. OS/2
c. UNIX and up to the mainframe level have this service available

d. All of these
140.Which dose not require any familiarity with the remote operating system
a. SMTP
b. TCP
c. FTP
d. NNTP
e.
141.Modern FTP servers known as _______
a. TCPD
b. FTPD
c. SMTD
d. CTPD
142.FTPD support two different TCP connections namely_______
a. Control connection
b. Data connection
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
143.Which is invoked for the entire duration of transfer of file or FTP session
b. Data connection
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
144.Which connection is establish as and when it is required
b. Data connection
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
145.The main function of data connection is to facilitate transfer of file and directory to and

from the________
a. Clients at the servers request
b. Clients at the clients request
c. Server at the servers request
d. Server at the clients request
146.TFTP stands for
a. Transfer file trivial protocol
b. Transfer file transfer protocol
c. Trivial file trivial protocol
d. Trivial file transfer protocol
147.Which is also an internet service intended for the transfer of files from one computer to
another over a network
a. TFTP
b. FTP
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
148.TFTP does not provide _____________
a. Password protection
b. User directory capability
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
149.TFTP is simpler than the ___________ but less capable
a. FTP
b. SMTP
c. NNTP
d. FTPD
150.Which is one of the most popular network services
a. Electronic message
b. Electronic mail
c. Electric mail

d. None of these
e.
151.Electronic mail works like an
a. Post mail
b. Postal mail
c. Post card
d. None of these
152.E-mail has two parts namely
a. User agent
b. Message Transfer agent
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
153.MTA stands for
a. Message Transmission Agent
b. Machine Transfer Agent
c. Message Transfer Agent
d. Mobile Transfer Agent
154.Which is a software package that transports the message created by a user to destination
mailboxes possibly on remote machines
a. User agent
b. MTA
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
155.The MTA has to perform more complex jobs than other applications
a. MTA distinguishes between local and remote recipients
b. MTA needs to deliver copies of a message to several machines
c. MTA allows mixing of text, voice appending documents, files and video in a
message
d. MTA handles temporary failures when a destination machine is temporarily

unavailable

e. All of these
156.In MTA, e-mail address consist of the following components
a. Mailbox names
b. Symbolic names
c. Group names(mail exploders)
d. All of these
157.Which is the user interface to the mail system
a. User agent
b. MTA
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
158.Which refers to the name of a service rather than a specific user
a. Mailbox names
b. Symbolic names
d. All of these
159.Which refers to an alias for a set of recipients, that consults an internal database to
specify the mail addresses
a. Mailbox names
b. Symbolic names
d. All of these
160.There are a number of e-mail packages available. Some of them are free like
____________________, while some are paid
a. Google mail
b. Yahoo mail
c. Hotmail
d. All of these
161.In MTA, all of them are also not alike but most of the e-mail software have common basic
functionality these are

a. Send and receive mail messages
b. Save your messages in a file
c. Print mail messages
d. Forward a mail message to other recipients
e. Reply to mail messages
f. Attach a file to a mail message
g. All of these
162.E-mail address has three parts
a. A user identity or name
b. An at sign(@)
c. The domain name, which basically specifies the address of the users mail server
d. All of these
163.SMTP is the ________ standard for an electronic mail service provider
a. dee facto
b. de facto
c. de fact
d. none of these
164.SMTP uses ______ transport for the reliably delivery of mail messages
a. FTP
b. TCP
c. MTA
d. FTPD
165.The SMTP server also allows _____
a. NNTP
b. Telnet service
c. FTPD
d. none of these
166.SMTP can be considered as a complement of ______
a. UUDP
b. UUCP

c. UCCP
d. UCPD
167.SMTP commands consist of human-readable __________
a. EBCDIC strings
b. ASCII strings
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
168.MIME stands for
a. Multipurpose Internet Machine Extensions
b. Multiprogramming Internet Machine Extensions
c. Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
d. Multipurpose Internet Mail Exchange
169.________ standards were used to encode binary files for transfer through SMTP, which
has now become a standard with its varied version
a. FTPD
b. FTP
c. MIME
d. UUCP
e.
170.POP3 stands for
a. Postal Office Protocol
b. Post Office Protocol
c. Post Office Program
d. Posting of Protocol
171.IMAP stands for
a. Internet Machine Access Protocol
b. Internet Message Access Protocol
c. Internet Multipurpose Access Protocol
d. Inkjet Message Access Protocol
172.Which one is a push kind of protocol

a. SMTP
b. POP3
c. IMAP
d. All of these
173.Which one is a pull kind of protocol
a. SMTP
b. POP3
c. IMAP
d. Both b & c
174.Telnet can also be used to connect other ports serving as _____________
a. User-defined services
b. Well-known services
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
175.Telnet works as a _____________ model where it establishes a virtual connection by

using the TCP transport protocol
a. User-defined
b. Well-known
c. Client-server
d. All of these
e.
176.The Telnet program requires two arguments
a. The name of a computer on which the server runs
b. The protocol port number of the server
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
177.______________ to support centralized terminal management can support
a. Transfer binary data
b. Support byte macros
c. Emulate graphics terminals

d. Convey information
e. All of these
178.Telnet service is unique in the manner that is ___________ like other TCP/IP services
a. Platform-specific
b. Not platform-specific
c. Platform-service
d. None of these
179.0Some of the Telnet commands are as follows
Interrupt Process(IP) It terminates the running program
Abort output(AO) It refers to discarding of any buffered output
Are You there(AYT) This command allows a client to send an out-of-band query to
verify whether the remote end is still there
Erase character(EC) It refers to the erasing of the previous character
Erase line(EL) It deletes the entire current line
Synchronize It clears the data path to the remote party
Break It is equivalent to the BREAK or ATTENTION key
180.Novell NetWare is a ___________ network operating system that was created by Novell,
Inc
a. Client type
b. Server type
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
181.Novell NetWare uses a protocol stack having _____
a. 3 layers
b. 4 layers
c. 5 layers
d. 6 layers
182. IPX stands for
a. Internet Packet Exchange
b. Inter-network Packet Exchange

c. Inter-network Protocol Exchange
d. Internet Package Exchange
183._______ is a networking protocol used by the Novell NetWare operating systems for
performing connectionless communication
a. NVT
b. IPX
c. IP
d. FTP
184.The rise 1985 saw the rise of Novell NetWare when _____________ were launched
a. NetWare 286 2.0a
b. Intel 80,286 16-bit processor
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
185.Two methods of operation were supported by NetWare 286 2.x namely are
a. Dedicated
b. Non-dedicated
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
186.Beginning with NetWare 3.x, assistance for _____ protected mode was included,
removing the 16MB memory limit of NetWare 286
a. 16-bit
b. 32-bit
c. 64-bit
d. 128-bit
187.Which managed all functions and was activated at startup or at the time of requirement
a. NLM(NetWare Loadable Module)
b. FTP
c. SMTP
d. FTPD

188.A set of protocols used in the communication network can be termed as
a. Protocol
b. Protocol stack
c. Protocol layer
d. None of these
e.
189.According to RFC 1122 the TCP/IP consists of ________
a. 2 layers
b. 3 layers
c. 4 layers
d. 5 layers
e.
190.The lowest layers of the TCP/IP establishes communication with
a. Upper layer
b. Physical media
c. Next layer
d. Protocol
191.When data travels downwards from upper the layer in TCP/IP, each upper layer attaches
a
a. Footer
b. Header
c. Standard
d. None of these
e.
192.After the transmission of data in bit form to another machine it travels upward,
____________ the header till data reaches the application layer
a. Stripping in
b. Stripping off
c. Tackling off
d. Tackling in

e.
193.In which year, Netware directory service were added to the Netware version 4
a. 1993
b. 1996
c. 1998
d. 2001
194.In which year. Version 4.11 was launched by Novell
a. 1993
b. 1996
c. 1998
d. 2001
195.In which year, NetWare5 was launched in October
a. 1993
b. 1996
c. 1998
d. 2001
196.In which year, NetWare6 was launched
a. 1993
b. 1996
c. 1998
d. 2001
e.
197.Every protocol with a certain from of contact is known as
a. Protocol stack
b. Protocol suite
c. Stack
d. Suite
198.Which is a file server access protocol that enables a user to transfer file between two
hosts, across the network or Internet using TCP
a. FTPD

b. FTP
c. Telnet
d. PPP
199.Which is a remote terminal protocol that enables a user at one location to establish a
TCP connection with another location
a. FTPD
b. FTP
c. Telnet
d. PPP
200.Which protocol is used by network computers operating system for sending error
messages
a. FTPD
a. FTP
b. Telnet
c. ICMP
1. Which protocol was based on the specification called the Ethernet

a. IEEE 802.3
b. CSMA/CD
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
2. MAC(Medium Access Control)sub layer is between the
a. Physical layer
b. Data Link layer
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
3. Depending on the transmission media used, the Ethernet can be classified into following
categories are
a. Thick Ethernet or 10base5
b. Cheaper Net or Thin Net(10base2)
c. Star LAN(10baseT)
d. Optical Fibre CSMA/CD LAN (10baseF)
e. All of these
4. The characteristics of the Thick Ethernet cable are

a. Provides connectivity to max of 1024 stations
b. Cable supports a max distance of 500meters
c. Max distance covered by a network using Thick Ethernet is 2.5Km
d. Max no of stations supported by the Ethernet is 1024
e. All of these
5. A 10 Mbps cable is like a
a. Blue hose
b. Yellow hose
c. Black hose
d. None of these
6. All stations in a Thick Ethernet is connected to a
a. Twisted pair cable
b. Coaxial cable
c. CSMA/CD
d. Transceiver
7. A group of stations connected to a cable forms a
a. Repeater
b. Transceiver
c. Segments
d. Groups
8. Which device is used to link two network segments, which are separated by a long distance
a. Repeater
b. Transceiver
c. Segments
d. Groups
9. Each cable is connected to a Ethernet cable through a
a. Repeater
b. Transceiver
c. Segments
d. Groups
10. A repeater consists of _______ transceiver
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e.
11. The functions performed by physical layer are
a. Encoding the data
b. Medium access

c. Data encapsulation
d. Both a & b
12. The functions performed by logical layer are
a. Data encapsulation
b. Link management
c. Medium access
d. Both a & b
e.
13. The computer or station is connected to a Ethernet card, Ethernet card consists of
a. Station interface
b. Data packet generator
c. A link management unit
d. All of these
14. The output of a Ethernet card is connected to the data encoder/decoder, which in turn is
connected to the transmission cable through a
a. Repeater
b. Transceiver
c. Segments
d. Groups
15. The IEEE802.3 Ethernet frame format are
a. Preamble-7byte
b. Start of frame-1byte
c. Destination address-6byte
d. Source address-6byte
e. Length-2byte
f. Information field-46to 1500bytes
g. Frame check sequencer-4byte
h. All of these
16. The local area networks that do not require the capabilities of complete Ethernet system, the
IEEE802.3 standard committee has created a new standard called
a. Thin net
b. Star LAN
c. Optical fibre CSMA/CD
d. None of these
17. The characteristics of thin net or cheaper net is
a. Max distance is up to 200meters
b. Max no of nodes is 30
c. Max stations per network is 1024
d. Node spacing is 0.5meters

e. Cable diameter is 0.25inches
f. BNC-T-connector is used to connect cables and N-series connector
g. All of these
18. The third variation of IEEE802.3 standard was a
a. Thin net
b. Star LAN
c. Optical fibre CSMA/CD
d. None of these
19. The characteristics of Star LAN are
a. It operates data rate up to 1Mbps
b. The configuration contains up to 5 upward levels of hubs
c. Twisted pair cable already used in telephone lines for transmission media
d. Each group of stations is connected to a local hub
e. The hubs are connected in the form of tree
f. All of these
20. The characteristics of optical fibre CSMA/CD LAN are
a. Good immunity to the electromagnetic interference
b. Low loss of power
c. High bandwidth
d. Less weight
e. High transmission security
f. All of these
21. The optical fibre version of CSMA/CD LAN has a no of advantage than the
a. Coaxial cable version of Ethernet
b. Twisted cable version of Ethernet
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
22. A token ring is a ring topology created by IBM in
a. 1960
b. 1990
c. 1970
d. 1980
e.
23. A stream of data is called a
a. Token
b. Frame
c. Token Ring
d. None of these
24. A central hub called _______ is used to connect each station in a star type of topology

a. MSAU(Multi Station Access Unit )
b. CSAU
c. SSAU
d. None of these
25. The advantage of Token ring mechanism is
a. It prevents collision by ensuring that only one station at a time is
transmitting
b. Ensures delivery of frame
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
26. Which uses electromechanical relays to make the physical star into a logical ring
a.
b. MSAU(Multi Station Access Unit )
c. CSAU
d. SSAU
e. None of these
27. NAUN stands for
a. Nearest Active Upstream Neighbour
b. Network Active Upstream Neighbour
c. Network administrator Upstream Neighbour
d. None of these
28. IBM token ring products were available with speeds of
a. 4Mbps
b. 16Mbps
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
29. High-Speed Token Ring(HSTR) technology is also available with speed of
a. 100Mbps
b. 1Gbps
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
30. The frame format of a token ring in a ring topology is
a.
b. Preamble
c. Start Delimiter
d. Frame Control
e. Destination Address
f. Source Address

g. Date
h. FCS
i. End Delimiter
j. Frame status
k. All of these
31. In a token ring , stations are connected to a
a. Physical ring
b. Logical ring
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
32. How many modes a ring interface can operate
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
33. A ring interface can operate different modes
a. Listen mode
b. Talk mode
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
34. In physical layer of token ring , signal speed of this media is
a. 1Mbps
b. 4Mbps
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
35. IBM released a token ring version that can operate at a speed of ______
a. 4Mbps
b. 6Mbps
c. 8Mbps
d. 16Mbps
36. Differential_______ encoding schema is used for encoding the digital data
a. Manchester
b. Multi programming
c. Multi processor
d. None of these
37. The MAC sub layer is on the____ of the physical layer
a. Bottom
b. Mid
c. Top

d. None of these
38. When there is no traffic on the ring______ token circulates continuously until some station
grabs it
a. 3-byte
b. 5-byte
c. 7-byte
d. 9-byte
39. The length of the frame_________________
a. Short
b. Long
c. May be long or short
d. None of these
40. The maximum time a station is permitted to hold the token is known as________
a. Token time
b. Token holding time
c. Token ring
d. None of these
41. The IEEE802.5 token frame format are
a. Start of frame and end of frame
b. Access control
c. Frame control
d. Source address and destination address
e. Checksum
f. All of these
42. The token ring management activities are
a. Monitor stations
b. Ring initialization
c. Lost tokens
d. Orphan frames
e. All of these
43. The stations crashed after transmitting a short frame form
a.
b. Monitor stations
c. Ring initialization
d. Lost tokens
e. Orphan frames
f. All of these
44. The FDDI network stands for
a. Fibre Distributed Data Incorporation

b. Fibre Distributed Data Institute
c. Fibre Distributed Data Interface
d. Fibre Distributed Dual Incorporation
45. The FDDI network is a
a. High-speed
b. High-bandwidth
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
46. The FDDI network is based on the
a. Physical transmission
b. Optical transmission
c. Logical transmission
d. None of these
e.
47. The characteristics of FDDI network are
a. It transport data at a rate of 100Mbps
b. It can support up to 500stations on a single network
c. This network is used for connecting high-end computers
d. Rapid transfer of large amount of data
e. FDDI network consists of two counter-rotating rings
f. It was designed to run through fibre cables or copper media
g. It was based on ring topology with token passing
h. It helps and support extend the capabilities of older LANs , such as Ethernet
and token ring
i. It provides a reliable infrastructure for businesses ,moving even mission-
critical applications to networks
j. Easier to maintain
k. Compatible to standard-based components and various operating systems
l. All of these
48. The ANSI began working on the FDDI-standard in
a. 1980
b. 1981
c. 1982
d. 1983
49. The FDDI specification was released in
a. 1982
b. 1983
c. 1984
d. 1986

50. The most key elements of FDDI was defined in
a. 1986
b. 1982
c. 1985
d. 1989
51. The FDDI considered as a _______ of IEEE802.5standard
a. Predecessor
b. Successor
c. Tool
d. None of these
e.
52. FDDI network comprises 2 bottom layer in ISOs OSI model namely
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
53. The physical layers are
a. PMD
b. PHY
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
54. The ANTC stands for
a. Advanced Network Test Center
b. American National Test Center
c. American National Token Center
d. None of these
55. The word EANTC stands for
a. European ANTC
b. Easily ANTC
c. Efficient ANTC
d. None of these
56. The FDDI is
a. More than LAN
b. Less than WAN
c. Less than LAN
d. Both a & b
57. The FDDI network can easily be added to network topologies such as

a. Ethernet
b. Token ring
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
58. The FDDI supports four different types of cables as
a. Multimode fibre optic cable
b. Single mode fibre optic cable
c. Unshielded twisted-pair copper wiring
d. Shielded twisted-pair copper wiring
e. All of these
59. The PMD stands for
a. Physical Medium Dependent
b. Physical Medium Distance
c. Physical Media Dependent
d. Permitting Medium Dependent
60. For optical fibre media , which PMD is used
a. TP-PMD
b. Fibre PMD
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
61. For copper media , which PMD is used
a. TP-PMD
b. Fibre PMD
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
62. Other two significant PMD are
a. SMF-PMD(Single Mode Fibre-PMD)
b. LCF-PMD(Low Cost Fibre-PMD)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
63. The fibre PMD-ANSI X3T9.5/48 describes the physical layer that uses
a. Fibre components
b. Optical components
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
64. The characteristics and parameters of the optical fibre cable allowed for FDDI are
a. Wavelength of light(normal is 1300nm)

b. Attenuation and bandwidth
c. Max bit error rate
d. Dispersion of optical media
e. Numerical aperture(normal is 0.275)
f. Intensity of light
g. Jitter of pulse
h. Allowed power between two stations
i. All of these
65. The PHY are
a. Data link layer protocol
b. Physical layer protocol
c. Network protocol
d. None of these
66. The micrometer graded index fibre are
a. 62.5/125
b. 85/125
c. 50/125
d. 100/140
e. All of these
67. The max number of PHYs pre FDDI are
a. 200
b. 500
c. 1000
d. 1800
e.
68. The DAS stands for
a. Dual Access Station
b. Dual Attachment Station
c. Data Access Station
d. Data Attachment Station
69. SAS stands for
a. Single Access Station
b. Single Attachment Station
c. Single Attached Station
d. None of these
70. Which standard is applied in the LLC(Logical Link Control) layer
a. IEEE802.5
b. IEEE802.2
c. IEEE802.6

d. IEEE802.4
71. The MAC layer specifies how to handle
a. Synchronous data traffic
b. Asynchronous Data traffic
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
72. IEEE802.2 standard works on ______________ modes
a. Connectionless
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
73. If the received data is damaged or lost, the destination machine to retransmit the data known
as _____________
a. SNAP
b. ARQ
c. LLC
d. MAC
74. ARQ stands for
a. Array Repeat Request
b. Automatic Repeat Request
c. Automatic Request Repeat
d. Acknowledgement Repeat Request
75. SNAP stands for
a. Subnetwork Access Package
b. Subnetwork Access Packet
c. Structured Access Protocol
d. Subnetwork Access Protocol
76. LLC header contains _______ additional eight-bit address fields known as service access
points or SAPs to request SNAP service
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
77. PDU stands for
a. Packet Device Unit
b. Protocol Device Unit
c. Protocol Data Unit
d. Protocol Data Universal
78. IEEE802.3 Ethernet has become one of the most used ________

a. WAN media
b. LAN media
c. MAN media
d. None of these
79. Around 1984, DIX(a consortium of Digital, Intel and Xerox) and IEEE created standards for
Ethernet, which are popularly known as the ________
a. IEEE802.3
b. IEEE802.1
c. IEEE802.2
d. IEEE802.3
80. Which another group took the responsibility for developing medium access protocols
a. DLMAC
b. ARQ
c. LAN
d. SNAP
81. Ethernet is the ______ expensive high-speed LAN alternative
a. More
b. Least
c. None of these
82. Ethernet transmits and receives data at a speed of ___________
a. 5 million bits per second
b. 10 million bits per second
c. 15 million bits per second
d. 20 million bits per second
83. In Ethernet, Data is transferred between wiring closets using either a __________
a. Heavy coaxial cable
b. Thick net
c. Fibre optic cable
d. All of these
e.
84. Ethernet was first designed and installed by Xerox Corporation at its Palo Alto Research
Center(PARC) in the mid _________________
a. 1960s
b. 1970s
c. 1980s
d. 1965s
85. In 1980, ____________ came out with a joint specification which has become the de facto
standard
a. DEC

b. Intel
c. Xerox
d. All of these
86. Ethernet frames travel at the data link layer of the OSI model and must be a minimum of
________
a. 32bytes
b. 64bytes
c. 128bytes
d. 256bytes
87. Ethernet frames travel at the data link layer of the OSI model and must be a maximum of
________
a. 1515bytes
b. 1516bytes
c. 1517bytes
d. 1518bytes
88. FCS stands for

a. Frame Check System
b. Frame Check Sequence
c. Frame Cyclic Sequence
d. Frame Checksum Sequence
89. Ethernet IEEE802.3 frame description of each field in ___________________
a. Preamble (P)
b. Start Frame Delimiter (SFD)
c. Destination Address
d. All of these
90. The need for devising a mechanism to avoid such deadlocks, some of the important methods
are listed below:
a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA
c. Token passing
d. Polling
e. All of these
91. _________ cable is used widely as a backbone technology
a. TV
b. Fibre
c. Fibre optic cable

d. None of these
e.
92. Which are used to connect LANs and LAN segments in a campus environment
a. Microwave
b. Infrared systems
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
93. The advantages of coaxial cable include high bandwidth in the range of ________ and more,
better error performance and lack of severe distance limitation
a. 200MHz
b. 300MHz
c. 400MHz
d. 500MHz
94. The disadvantage of coaxial cable have been mitigated to a _______ through the development
of new coaxial designs
a. Small extent
b. Large extent
c. Either large or small
d. None of these
e.
95. Which uses traditional thick baseband coaxial cable in a bus topology to connect multiple
computers, this single line transmission is called a Segment
a. 10Base2(Thick Net/Yellow Ethernet)
b. 10Base5(Thick Net/Yellow Ethernet)
c. 10Base2(Thin Net/Black Ethernet)
d. 10Base5(Thin Net/Black Ethernet)
96. A coaxial cable _______ in diameter known as thick coaxial cable is used as a transmission
line
a. 5mm
b. 10mm
c. 15mm
d. 20mm
97. A transceiver is used to connect a ____________________
a. Coaxial cable
b. Terminals
c. Transmitter
d. Both a & b
98. A transceiver cable also referred to as an __________ cable and is used to connect a
transceiver and the NIC

a. ALU
b. AUI(Attachment Unit Interface)
c. LAN
d. MAN
99. In 10Base5(Thick Net/ Yellow Ethernet) the maximum length of this cable is ______, up to
100 transceivers can be connected to each segment
a. 40 metres
b. 45 metres
c. 50 metres
d. 55 metres
100. In 10Base5(Thick Net/ Yellow Ethernet) the minimum allowable distance between
transceivers is _______
a. 1.5 metres
b. 2.5 metres
c. 3.5 metres
d. 4.5 metres
e.
101. 10Base stands for ___________
a. 10Mbps
b. Baseband transmission system
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
102. The 5 of 10Base5 signify a maximum of _________ segment length
a. 50- metre
b. 500- metre
c. 5000- metre
d. 550- metre
103. The 5 of 10Base5 segment may be extended up to ______ by using repeaters
a. 500 metres
b. 1000 metres
c. 1500 metres
d. 2000 metres
104. Which uses thinner baseband coaxial cable in a bus topology so that multiple
computers can be connected to a single transmission line
a. 10Base2(Thick Net/Yellow Ethernet)
b. 10Base5(Thick Net/Yellow Ethernet)
c. 10Base2(Thin Net/Black Ethernet)
d. 10Base5(Thin Net/Black Ethernet)
105. In 10Base2(Thin Net/Black Ethernet) a coaxial cable of thinner gauge of _______ in

diameter
a. 5mm
b. 10mm
c. 15mm
d. 20mm
106. The thinner cable is less costly to acquire and deploy, although its performance is less
in terms of transmission distance because of its cost it is sometimes called ___________
a. Chaplet
b. Cheapnet
c. None of these
107. 10Base2 signifies in the same manner as 10Base5 except 2 is signified here as _______
maximum segment length(actually 185 metres)
a. 100 metres
b. 200 metres
c. 250 metres
d. 300 metres
108. BNC stands for
a. Bayonet Neil Connection
b. Bayonet Neil Connector
c. Bayonet Neil Connectionless
d. Bayonet Network Connection
109. Which is used to connect a cable and terminals or terminators
a. BNC
b. T-connector
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
110. Only up to ______ per segment can be connected to a T-connector
a. 10 nodes
b. 20 nodes
c. 30 nodes
d. 40 nodes
111. The minimum allowable distance is ____ between consecutive connections
a. 0.2 metres
b. 0.5 metres
c. 1.5 metres
d. 2.5 metres
112. UTP stands for
a. Universal Twisted Pair
b. Unshielded Twisted Pair

c. Universal Transmission Pair
d. Unique Twisted Pair
113. STP stands for
a. System Twisted Pair
b. Shielded Twisted Pair
c. System Twisted Panel
d. Subscriber Twisted Protocol
114. UTP has been proved to perform at very high data rates _____ over short distances
a. 50Mbps
b. 100Mbps
c. 150Mbps
d. 200Mbps
115. 10BASET(twisted pair Ethernet) uses _______________
a. Cat 3
b. Cat 4
c. 5 UTP
d. All of these
116. Ethernet Specifications
10Base5 10Base2 10BaseT
Transmission speed 10Mbps 10Mbps 10Mbps
Transmission Coaxial cable Coaxial cable UTP Cat 3,4,5

medium
Maximum segment 500 metre 185 metre 100 metre

length
Maximum 100 30 -
node/segment
Minimum length 2.5 metre 2.5 metre -

between node
Repeaters/Series 4 4 4
Maximum network 2500 metre 925 metre 500 metre

length
117. The two general types of token passing schemes are

a. Token ring
b. Token bus

c. Both a & b
d. None of these
118. A DQDB(Distributed Queue Dual Bus) provides service over cable interface for
a. LAN
b. MAN
c. WAN
d. All of these
e.
119. The DQDB supports _______ based on cell switching technology similar to
Asynchronous Transfer Mode(ATM)
a. Data
b. Voice
c. Video transmission
d. All of these
120. The Asynchronous Transfer Mode(ATM) is an _________ for cell relay
a. ITU-TSS(International Telecommunication Union-Telecommunication
Standardization Sector)
b. TIU-ESS
c. PTU-DSS
d. None of these
121. The ATM networks are
a. Connection-less service
b. Connection oriented service
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
122. The ATM cell has a fixed length of
a. 51bytes
b. 62bytes
c. 53bytes
d. 63bytes
123. The cell is broken into the two main sections called
a. Header
b. Payload
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
124. Which sections of cell carries the actual information(voice, data or video)
a. Header
b. Payload(48bytes)
c. Both a & b

d. None of these
125. Which sections of cell is the addressing mechanism
a. Header(5bytes)
b. Payload(48bytes)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
126. The disadvantage of DQDB is to have
a. Fluctuating data rate
b. High bandwidth
c. High susceptibility to error
d. Fixed bandwidth distribution
127. The frame format of DQDB are
a. Header
b. ST(Segment Type)
c. MID(Message Identifier)
d. Information
e. LEN(Data Length)
f. CRC(Cyclic Redundancy Check)
g. All of these
128. GPS stands for
a. Global Partition System
b. General Partition System
c. Global Positioning System
d. General Positioning System
129. Which satellite communication involve a satellite relay station that is launched into a
geostationary, geosynchronous, or geostatic orbit
a. Temporary
b. Contemporary
c. Permanent
d. None of these
e.
130. The contemporary satellite communication launched into a
a. Geostationary orbit
b. Geosynchronous orbit
c. Geostatic orbit
d. All of these
131. The contemporary satellite communication are called
a. Geostationary satellite

b. Geostatic satellite
c. Geosynchronous satellite
d. All of these
132. In case of satellite communication two different frequencies are used as carrier
frequency to avoid interference b/w incoming and outgoing signals are
a. Uplink frequency
b. Downlink frequency
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
133. Which frequency is used to transmit signal from the earth station to satellite
a. Uplink frequency
c. Broadcast
d. None of these
e.
134. Which frequency is used to transmit signal from the satellite to earth station
a. Uplink frequency
c. Broadcast
d. None of these
e.
135. In which manner, satellite can serve a point-to-multipoint network requirement
through a single uplink station and multiple downlink stations
a. Uplink frequency
c. Broadcast
d. None of these
136. The general properties of satellite communication______________
a. Each signal travel 36,000 km in each direction
b. The cost of satellite communication is quite high
c. Security must be imposed through encryption
d. Satellite provides increment in bandwidth
e. Satellite provides extensive error detection and correction capabilities
f. All of these
137. TDMA stands for
a. Time Division Multiplexing Access
b. Time Dynamically Multiple Access
c. Time Division Multiple Access
d. Time Division Multiple Assigning

138. The most commonly used satellite access schemes are
a. TDM/TDMA
b. Fixed assigned TDMA
c. Slotted ALOHA
d. Dynamic reservation
e. All of these
139. The VSAT stands for
a. Very Small Accessing Terminal
b. Very Small Access Topology
c. Very Small Aperture Terminal
d. None of these
140. The VSAT technology is based on the
a. Wired satellite technology
b. Wireless satellite technology
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
141. The VSAT networks offer value added satellite based services capable of supporting the
a. Internet
b. Data
c. Satellite based video
d. Audio LAN
e. Voice or fax communication
f. Provide powerful, dependable, private and public network commn solutions
g. All of these
142. The VSAT system operates in two different bands named
a. Ku-band
b. C-band
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
143. The VSAT system operates under C-band frequency are
a. 5.925to 6.425 GHz
b. 3.700to 4.200GHz
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
144. The VSAT system operates under Ext-Cband frequency are
a. 6.725 to 7.025GHz
b. 4.500 to 4.800GHz
c. Both a & b

d. None of these
e.
145. The VSAT system operates under Ku-Band 1 frequency are
a. 4.000 to 14.500GHz
b. 10.950 to 11.700GHz
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
146. The Ku-band networks are commonly used in
a. Europe and North America
b. Asia and Africa
c. Latin America
d. Both a & b
147. The C-band networks are commonly used in
a. Europe and North America
b. Asia and Africa
c. Latin America
d. Both b & c
148. Which band of frequencies require the large VSAT antenna
a. Ku-band
b. C-band
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
149. Which band of frequencies require the smaller VSAT antenna
a. Ku-band
b. C-band
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
150. The components of VSAT network are
a. Master earth station
b. Remote earth station
c. Satellite
d. All of these
151. The first component-master earth station is also known as
a. Central hub station
b. Central satellite
c. Backbone
d. All of these
152. The master earth station has a large _______ meter antenna

a. 3
b. 6
c. 5
d. 4
153. The hub earth station consists of
a. Radio frequency(RF)
b. Intermediate frequency(IF)
c. Base-band equipment
d. All of these
154. The RF equipment consists of the following sub-systems are
a. Antenna
b. Low noise amplifier(LNA)
c. Down converter, up converter
d. High-power amplifier
e. All of these
155. The IF and base-band equipment consists of
a. IF combiner/divider
b. Modulator and demodulator
c. Customer equipment interface
d. Processing equipments
e. All of these
156. The customer equipment interface unit provides the interface to the
a. Customer host equipment
b. Protocol emulation
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
157. The remote earth station of VSAT comprises of
a. Outdoor unit(ODU)
b. Indoor unit(IDU)
c. Inter-facility link(IFL)
d. All of these
158. The outdoor unit is generally installed in the
a. Ground
b. Indoor unit
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
159. The VSAT outdoor unit consists of
a. Standard 1.8 meter offset feed antenna
b. Solid-state amplifier(SSPA)

c. Low Noise Amplifier(LNA)
d. Feed horn
e. All of these
160. The indoor unit functions as a
a. Amplifier
b. Modem
c. PCs
d. None of these
1. Data can be either
a. Images
b. Numbers
c. Words
d. All of these
2. The word Data is derived from
a. Latin
b. Contextual
c. DB
d. None of these
3. How many types of data are
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
4. The types of data are
a. Qualitative
b. Quantitative
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
5. Data are taken as ________ level of abstraction
a. Highest

b. Middle
c. Lowest
d. None of these
6. Information are taken as ________ level of abstraction
a. Highest
b. Middle
c. Lowest
d. None of these
7. Knowledge are taken as ________ level of abstraction
a. Highest
b. Middle
c. Lowest
d. None of these
8. The quantitative data is expressed in
a. Numerical form
b. Non-numerical form
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
9. The qualitative data is expressed in
a. Numerical form
b. Non-numerical form
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
10.The qualitative data may be
a. Things
b. Words
c. Text
d. None of these
11.Which type of data is hard, rigorous, credible and scientific

a. Qualitative data
b. Quantitative data
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
12.Which data are rich, poor, tall, short, good, bad, better
a. Qualitative data
b. Quantitative data
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
13.Data type is thought of as a set of
a. Values
b. Operations on values
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
14.Data type as defined in programming language are
a. Integers
b. Floating-point numbers
c. Characters
d. Alphanumeric strings
e. All of these
15. The smallest addressable unit of data is defined as a group of ___ bits is known as a byte:
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
16.The unit processed by machine code instructions is called a _______
a. Word
b. Number
c. Bit
d. Byte

17. The machine code unit may be _________ depending on the computer architecture:
a. 8 bit or 16 bit
b. 16 bit or 32 bit
c. 32 bit or 64 bit
d. 64bit or 128 bit
18.In a 32-bit word it can represent unsigned integer values ranging from
a. 0 to 232 -1
31 31
b. -2 to 2 -1
c. 0 to 264 -1
31
d. 0 to 2 -1
19.In a 32-bit word it can represent signed integer values ranging from
a. 0 to 232 -1
31 31
b. -2 to 2 -1
c. 231 to 264 -1
31
d. 0 to 2 -1
20.A signal is an
a. Electric current
b. Electromagnetic field
c. Electronic current
d. Both a & b
21.A signal is used to convey data from
a. One place to another place
b. One system to another system
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

22.In case of PSTN, signaling between
a. A telephone user
b. The telephone network
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
23.A channel is defined as a path between
24.The path of channel may be
a. Physical
b. Logical
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
25.The path of channel may be
a. Hard wired
b. Wireless
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
26.Noise of channel noise___________ the quality of information and data
a. Upgrades
b. Degrades
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
27.In channel , the information may not be
a. Reproduced
b. Reach the receiver at all
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

28.In channel noise, data by affecting communications and files of all types including
a. Images
b. Audio
c. Text
d. Programs
e. Telemetry
f. All of these
29.Information and data may be treated as a signal in either
a. Electrical form
b. Electromagnetic form
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
30.The noise may be classified as ______________ based upon the sources
a. Internal
b. External
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
31.The noise generated because of electricity or atmospheric disturbances is of the order of
a. 300kHz
b. 300MHz
c. 300GHz
d. 300Hz
32.The noise generated which is lower than the high frequency range of ____ and may have
more interface with the signal of information:
a. 300MHz
b. 300kHz
c. 300GHz
d. 300Hz
33.External noise is generally picked up from electrical appliances existing

____________________

a. In the vicinity
b. From the atmosphere
c. From electrical transformers
d. Also from outer space
e. All of these
34.Internal noise is generated in the
a. Channels
b. Receivers
c. Transmitter
d. Both a & b
35.Internal noise is less dependent on frequency, but has a significant effect at:
a. Higher frequency
b. Low frequency
c. Middle frequency
d. No frequency
36.External noise has _______ effect on higher frequencies
a. More
b. Less
c. No
d. None of these
37.Internal noise is fairly low in case of
a. Digital signal processing
b. Fiber optics technology
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
38.Noise is measured in terms of the signal to noise ratio
a. S/N
b. SNR
c. S/M
d. Both a & b

39.The unit of noise is
a. decibels
b. Hertz
c. Micron
d. bits per second
e.
40.____________ defined as the size of the range of frequencies that can be transmitted
through a channel
a. Channel Bandwidth
b. Channel Data Transmission Rate
c. Channel noise
d. Channel capacity
41.In other words channel bandwidth may be define it as the volume of information per unit
time that a _____________________
a. Computer
b. Person
c. Transmission medium can handle
d. All of these
42.Channel Bandwidth is measured in
a. decibels
b. Hertz
c. Micron
d. bits per second
43.Bandwidth is expressed as data speed in ___________ digital systems:
a. decibels
b. Hertz
c. Micron
d. bits per second

44.In analog systems, bandwidth is expressed as the difference between the
a. Highest frequency
b. Lowest frequency
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
45.__________ is determined by the maximum number of bits that can be transmitted per
unit time through the physical medium:
a. Channel Bandwidth
b. Channel Data Transmission Rate
c. Channel noise
d. Channel capacity
46.Channel Data Transmission Rate is measured in
a. decibels
b. Hertz
c. Micron
d. bits per second
47.Which gave the maximum data rate of a noiseless channel
a. H.Nyquist in 1924
b. H.Nyquist in 1934
c. Peter Sain in 1932
d. None of these
48.Channel latency depends on the
a. Signal propagation speed
b. Media characteristics
c. Transmission distance
d. All of these
49._____________ is the amount of time that is needed for the information to propagate from
the source to destination through the channel:
a.
b. Propagation time

c. Channel Latency
d. Channel Utilization
e. Both a & b
50.Throughput may be defined as the number of _______________ through a data

communication system over a period of time:
a. bits
b. characters
c. blocks passing
d. All of these
51.___________ may be defined as range of frequencies assigned to a channel
a. Bandwidth
b. Channel noise
c. Bit rate
d. Channel latency
52.Higher the Bandwidth,________ will be the data transmission rate or throughput
a. More
b. Less
c. Medium
d. None of these
53.In transmission of a signal, the range of carrier frequencies depends on the
a. Nature of medium
b. Requirement of the applications supported
c. Nature of distance
d. Both a & b
54.________ may be defined as the range of frequencies being supported by a particular

transmission medium
a. Frequency
b. Frequency spectrum
c. Carrier frequency
d. None of these

55.The actual range of frequencies supporting a given communication is known as
a. Baud rate
b. Pass band
c. Band data
d. Pass
56.Higher frequency signal offers _________ bandwidth
a. Lesser
b. Greater
c. Medium
d. None of these
57.________ refers to the minimum or maximum spatial separation between devices over a
link, in the context of a complete, end to end circuit
a. Bandwidth
b. Channel
c. Distance
d. None of these
58._________ is the rate over network speed which is used to detect errors while transmitting
data
a. Bit rate
b. Data rate
c. Baud rate
d. Pass band
59. What is the frequency range of gamma and cosmic rays
a. >1008GHz
b. <1018GHz
c. >1018GHz
d. <1008GHz
60.The most popular method for detecting errors in bit rate is ________ a parity bit alongside
the data bit for a character

a. Deleting
b. Inserting
c. Modifying
d. Updating
61.TDM means
a. Total division multiplex
b. Time division modem
c. Time detect modem
d. Time division multiplex
62.FEC means
a. Formal Error Checking
b. Forward Error Checking
c. Forward Error Character
d. Formal Error Character
63.The net bit rate is also known as
a. Pass bit rate
b. Data bit rate
c. Useful bit rate
d. Network bit rate
64.The incorrect bit rate is also known as
a. Data bit rate
b. Useful bit rate
c. Network bit rate
d. Parity bit
65.The example of net bit rate are
a. TDM
b. FEC
c. Framing Bit
d. All of these
66.The speed of connection of bit rate is determined by

a. TDM
b. FEC
c. Framing Bit
d. All of these
67.The FEC is also refers to
a. Logical layer net bit rate
b. Physical layer net bit rate
c. Prefix layer net bit rate
d. None of these
68.The size of the multimedia file is the product of _______
a. Bit rate in bytes
b. Bit rate in kilobytes
c. Bit rate in gigabytes
d. None of these
69.The size of the multimedia file is the length of recording in seconds divided by:
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 16
e.
70.The fundamentals of Bit rate:
a. The sample uses different number of bits
b. The data is encoded by different number of bits
c. The material is sampled at different frequencies
d. The information is digitally compressed by different algorithms
e. All of these
71.The bit rate is __________ for a specific network
a. Fixed
b. Uniform
c. Fixed and Uniform

d. None of these
72.The gross bit rate is the number of bits transmitted
a. per second by an ideal transmitter
b. per second by an ideal transistor
c. per min by an ideal transmitter
d. per min by an ideal transistor
73.The bit rate could be as high as
a. 1Gbit/s
b. 1Mbit/s
c. 1Mbyte/s
d. 1Gbyte/s
74.Bit rate is used to calculate the speed of time to access the network
a. Without getting error frames
b. Getting error frames
c. Without getting error format
d. Getting error format
75.Bit rate is always ________ to the baud rate
a. Equal
b. More
c. Equal or more
d. None of these
76.Baud rate determines the bandwidth required to transmit the ______
a. Signal
b. Data
c. Symbol
d. None of these
77.Lesser bandwidth is required to move these signal units with _____ bits for an efficient
system
a. Less
b. Large

c. Equal
d. None of these
78.A character set was designed by
a. Jean-Maurice-Emile Baudot in 1874
b. Jean-Maurice-Emile Baudot in 1885
c. John-Maurice-Emile Baudot in 1864
d. John-Merry-Emile Baudot in 1894
79.Character set system was implemented using keyboard having ____
a. 8-key
b. 6-key
c. 5-key
d. 9-key
80.Who modified system using keyboard using 5-key
a. Donald Murray in 1901
b. Donald Merry in 1902
c. Donald Duck in 1904
d. Donald Murray in 1902
81.Donald Murray modification took a shape as
a. International Telegraph Alphabet 1
b. International Telephone Alphabet 1
c. International Television Alphabet 1
d. International Telegram Alphabet 1
82.International Telegraph Alphabet 1 was further developed to
a. ITA 1
b. ITA 2
c. ITA 3
d. ITA 4
83.In character code system, a 5-bit code is
a. 00011
b. 00101

c. 00010
d. 10101
84.A 5-bit code is signified a
a. Line Feed
b. Light Feed
c. Line Format
d. None of these
85.The basic idea behind coding was really workable if number of characters it had to handle
do not require more than
a. 8 characters
b. 16 characters
c. 32 characters
d. 64 characters
86.For covering all the characters of alphabet with special
a. Characters
b. Punctuation marks
c. Other control characters
d. Other coding technique was needed
e. All of these
87.Encoding is done for data
a. Inside computer
b. Outside computer
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
88.The following data techniques are used
a. Binary Coded Decimal(BCD)
b. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code(EBCDIC)
c. American Standard Code for Information Interchange(ASCII)
d. Unicode
e. Manchester Code

f. Differential Manchester Encoding(DME)
g. Return to Zero(RZ)
h. Non Return to Zero(NRZ)
i. Non Return to Zero Invertive(NRZ-I)
j. MLT-3
k. 4B/5B
l. 5B/6B
m. All of these
89.Unicode Examples are
a. UTF-7
b. UTF-8
c. UTF-16
d. UTF-32
e. UTF-EBCDIC
f. All of these
90.Binary Coded Decimal system makes use of a series of _____ to represent a decimal
number
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
e.
91.Nibble is known as series of ____
a. 8 bits
b. 4 bits
c. 16 bits
d. 32 bits
92.Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code is developed by
a. Parallel to ASCII, IBM in 1964
b. Parallel to ASCII, IBM in 1974

c. Parallel to ASCII, IBM in 1962
d. Parallel to ASCII, IBM in 1964
93.EBCDIC is a coding system that uses
a. 8 bit
b. 4 bit
c. 16 bit
d. 32 bit
94.A byte in EBCDIC system of coding contained ___ nibbles
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 6
95.First nibble is known as
a. Zone
b. Digit
c. Byte
d. Bit
96.Second nibble is known as
a. Zone
b. Digit
c. Byte
d. Bit
97.First nibble represents category to which the __________
a. Characters belong
b. Integers belong
c. String belong
d. None of these
98.ASCII is a ___ bit coding for representing characters of English alphabets
a. 64 bit
b. 7 bit

c. 16 bit
d. 32 bit
e.
99.ASCII was published in
a. 1964
b. 1965
c. 1963
d. 1966
100.Unicode was developed by
a. Unicode Consortium
b. Unique Consortium
c. Unicode Constant
d. None of these
101.Unicode is appeared in
a. 1992
b. 1991
c. 1993
d. 1994
102.The first version of Unicode
a. Unicode 1.0
b. Unicode 2.0
c. Unicode 3.0
d. None of these
103.Unicode version 5.0 appeared in
a. 2005
b. 2006
c. 2007
d. 2004
104.In Unicode there were codes for representing characters and their basic graphical
representation are known as
a. Graphical

b. Graphemes
c. Graphs
d. None of these
105.The first 256 code points belong to __________ for conversion to Roman Text
a. ISO 5589-1
b. ISO 5569-1
c. ISO 5579-1
d. ISO 5559-1
106.Unicode mapping methods are of two types, namely are
a. UTF(Unicode Transformation Format)
b. UCS(Unicode Character Set)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
107.Every communication channel has a ________ which is defined as the frequency range
a. Channel
b. Bandwidth
c. Carrier
d. Data rate
108.The bandwidth is a _________ property of a transmission medium
a. Physical
b. Logical
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
109.A telephone wire has bandwidth of ______ for short distance
a. 1M
b. 2M
c. 3M
d. 4M
110.Data rate that can be achieved using a channel depends on the _____________ of a
channel

a. Frequency
b. Bandwidth
c. Data rate
d. Capacity
111.The undesirable waveform is known as
a. Anti-Aliasing
b. Aliasing
c. Channel
d. Bandwidth
112.The word PCM stands for
a. Primary code mapping
b. Pulse code modulation
c. Primary channel modulation
d. None of these
113.How many way to communicate, display, store or manipulate information
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
114.The way to communicate, display, store or manipulate information are
a. Analog
b. Digital
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
115.The analog form of electronic communication represents the information in
a. Continuous electromagnetic wave form
b. Discrete form
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
116.The digital form of electronic communication represents the information in

a. Continuous electromagnetic wave form
b. Discrete form
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
117.The word AM stands for
a. Analog Modulation
b. Analog Manipulation
c. Amplitude Modulation
d. Analog Modeling
118.The word FM stands for
a. Frequency Modulation
b. Fourier Manipulation
c. Frequency Manipulation
d. Frequency Modeling
119.The bandwidth of voice grade channel is approximately
a. 4000Hz
b. 5000Hz
c. 6000Hz
d. 3000Hz
120.The bandwidth of CATV video channel is approximately
a. 2MHz
b. 4MHz
c. 6MHz
d. 8MHz
121.The advantages of FM over AM are
a. Improved signal to noise ratio(about 25dB)
b. Less radiated power
c. Well defined service areas for given transmitter power
d. Smaller geographical interference between neighboring stations
e. All of these

122. The disadvantages of FM are
a. Much more bandwidth(as much as 20 times as much)
b. More Complicated receiver
c. More complicated transmitter
d. All of these
123.Computer are________ in nature
a. Analog
b. Digital
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
124.SS7 means
a. Signal Source7
b. Signaling source7
c. Signaling system7
d. Signal system7
125.SS7 is a
a. System
b. Source
c. Protocol
d. None of these
126.The PSTN provides a _________ path between the destination and source
a. Logical
b. Physical
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
127.The functions of SS7 are
a. Controlling network
b. Set up and tear down the call
c. Handles the routines decision
d. All of these

128.SS7 uses voice switches known as
a. SSWs(Service Switching websites)
b. SSPs(Service Switching Points)
c. SSNs(Service Switching Networks)
d. SSDs(Service Switching Data)
129.SSPs uses Query Service Control Point (SCP) database using Packet switches called
a. Signal Transfer Points(STPs)
b. SSWs(Service Switching websites)
c. SSPs(Service Switching Points)
d. SSNs(Service Switching Networks)
130._____________ refers to correct detection by receiving equipment at the beginning and

end of data that was sent from sending equipment
a. Asynchronous
b. Synchronous
c. Synchronization
d. None of these
131.Synchronous systems can be classified into three categories:
a. Asynchronous systems
b. Character synchronous systems
c. Flag Synchronous systems
d. All of these
132.Asynchronous transmission is a _________ method of transmission in which a sign bit is

added to the beginning:
a. Start
b. Stop
c. Start-stop
d. None of these
133.Manchester is also known as
a. MPE(Manchester Phase Encoding)
b. MPD(Manchester Phase Data)

c. MPN(Manchester Phase Network)
d. MPW(Manchester Phase Website)
134.Manchester coding is used in telecommunication by
a. Encoding standard 802.3
b. Ethernet standard 802.3
c. Ethernet standard 805.3
d. Encoding standard 805.3
135. For 10Mbps Ethernet carrier frequency is
a. 20MHz
b. 15MHz
c. 10MHz
d. 5MHz
e.
136.The another name of DME(Differential Manchester Encoding)
a. CDP(Conditioned Diphase Encoding)
b. MPE(Manchester Phase Encoding)
c. SSWs(Service Switching websites)
d. SSPs(Service Switching Points)
137.In DME, logical values are indicated by _______________ of transitions
a. Absence
b. Presence
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
138.In RZ, zero between each bit signifies a _____________
a. Rest Condition

b. Neutral Point
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
139.The NRZ-pulses contain ____ energy in comparison to that of a RZ code
a. less
b. more
c. either less or more
d. none of these
140.NRZ has no ___ state
a. Rest
b. Zero
c. Neutral
d. None of these
141.MLT-3 is an encoding scheme in which ____ voltage levels are used
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
142.Due to four transitions the maximum fundamental frequency requirement is reduced to

____
a. One-fourth of the baud rate
b. One-third of the baud rate
c. One-half of the baud rate
d. None of these
143.Who specified the committee scheme of coding
a. ANSI X3T9.7
b. ANSI X5T9.6
c. ANSI X3T9.5
d. ANSI X6T9.5
144.FDDI uses ANSI X3T9.5 for obtaining 100Mbps from a signal of ______

a. 32.25MHz
b. 31.25MHz
c. 31.24MHz
d. 32.26MHz
145.4B/5B encoding scheme is also known as
a. Block coding
b. Bit coding
c. Byte coding
d. Block character
146.In 4B/5B scheme, we need a 125MHz clock for a signal of
a. 1000MHz
b. 100MHz
c. 10MHz
d. 99MHz
147.The 5B/6B scheme encodes the scrambled 5-bit data pattern into predetermined _____
bit symbol
a. 5
b. 4
c. 6
d. 3
148.Modulation is the technique used to translate
a. Information from source to destination
b. Low frequency to higher frequency
c. Source to higher frequency
d. Low frequency to destination
149.The low frequency signal are
a. Audio
b. Video
c. Music
d. Data

e. All of these
150.The modulation/demodulation is a
a. Linear process
b. Non-linear process
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
151.In character synchronous system ,_______ are added
a. Special character
b. Start bit
c. Stop bit
d. None of these
152.Special character are called
a. STN
b. SYN
c. SBN
d. SRN
153.The character string of the SYN character is
a. 01001111
b. 10001110
c. 00010110
d. 00110011
154.The character synchronous system receives _______ as one character
a. 2bit
b. 4bit
c. 8bit
d. 16bit
155.In the 4B/5B we need a 125MHz clock for a signal of
a. 100MHz
b. 10MHz
c. 1000MHz

d. 10000MHz
156.5B/6B creates a data pattern that is placed with equal numbers of
a. 1
b. 0
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
157.How many encoding techniques we used today
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 10000
158.Modulation is the technique used to translate low-frequency(base-band) signals like

__________ to a higher frequency
a. Audio
b. Music
c. Video
d. Data
e. All of these
159.Modulation/ demodulation is a non linear process where two different sinusoids are
_________
a. Addition
b. Subtraction
c. Multiplied
d. Division
160.Angular frequency id defined as _______ the frequency of carrier signal
a. Once
b. Twice
c. Thrice
d. None of these
161.The frequencies that comprise the message (base band) are translated into a _________

range of frequencies
a. Lower
b. Higher
c. Zero
d. None of these
162.Modulation also reduces the size of antenna for higher frequencies with ________
frequency
a. Lower
b. Greater
c. Middle
d. None of these
163.The non-linearity results in several ___________ harmonics
a. Even
b. Odd
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
164.Harmonics are the _________ of the frequency, that is the message frequency
a. Addition
b. Subtraction
c. Multiply
d. Division
165.The carrier frequency may be a ___________
a. Radio wave
b. Light wave
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
166.The amplitude of carrier frequency ________ in accordance with the modulated signal
a. Can not change
b. Change
c. Either change or not

d. None of these
167. The frequency of the carrier ___________and we get a complex wave
a. does not changed
b. Change
c. Either change or not
d. None of these
168.For demodulation, it needs the carrier frequency to be generated or derived at the

receiving location known as
a. DSB-SC
b. DBS-CS
c. BDS-SC
d. BSD-CS
169.The full form of DSB-SC
a. Direct Side Band-Suppressed Carrier
b. Direct Side Base-Suppressed Carrier
c. Double Side Band-Suppressed Carrier
d. Double Slide Band-Suppressed Carrier
170.One more kind of analog modulation is called
a. Vestigial side band modulation
b. Vestigial side base modulation
c. Vestigial slide band modulation
d. Vestigial slide base modulation
171.Pulse code modulation is a method by which an audio signals are represented as
a. Direct data
b. Digital data
c. Device data
d. None of these
172.Pulse Code Modulation(PCM) requires bandwidth of ________
a. 32Kbps
b. 64Kbps

c. 128Kbps
d. 256Kbps
173.PCM is a coding scheme used in digital communication because of _____ sensitive to

noise
a. Less
b. Middle
c. High
d. None of these
174.In digital signal the main source of noise is ___________, which introduces as the finite
number of quantization levels during the conversion to PCM code
a. Quantization noise
b. Equalization noise
c. Digital noise
d. None of these
175.The main parameters in determining the quality of a PCM system are the
a. Dynamic range
b. Signal-to-Noise Ratio(SNR)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
176.The maximum error occurs between the
a. Original level
b. Quantized level
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
177.The maximum error occurs when the original level falls exactly halfway between ______
quantized levels
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1

178.The dynamic range is the ratio of the
a. Largest possible signal magnitude
b. Smallest possible signal magnitude
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
179.For a six bits system the dynamic range will be approximately equal to ___
a. 34dB
b. 36dB
c. 40dB
d. 38dB
180.In dynamic range, the largest voltage amplitude is _______ the smallest voltage
amplitude
a. 32times
b. 64times
c. 125times
d. 256times
181.The disadvantages associated with the Delta Modulation PCM is
a. Slope overload
b. Granular noise
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
182.Communication channels like ____________ are usually analog media
a. Telephone lines
b. Television lines
c. Digital lines
d. None of these
183.Which is a bandwidth-limited channel
a. Digital media
b. Analog media
c. Both a & b

d. None of these
184.In the case of telephone lines, the usable bandwidth falls in the range of _______
a. 300Hz to 3000Hz
b. 300Hz to 3300Hz
c. 30Hz to 3300Hz
d. 33Hz to 3300Hz
185.Digital information signals have the shape of pulse and represented by
a. 0
b. 1
c. both a & b
d. none of these
186.The following types of modulation are used in modems
a. ASK-Amplitude Shift Keying
b. FSK-Frequency Shifted Keying
c. PSK-Phase Shift Keying
d. DPSK-Differential Phase Shift Keying
e. BPSK-Binary Phase Shift Keying
f. QPSK-Quadrature Phase Shifted Keying
g. QAM- Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
h. All of these
187.The main advantage of this technique, it is easy to such
a. Signals
b. Also to detect them
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
188.Telephone lines limit amplitude changes to some _________ changes per second
a. 3000
b. 3300
c. 3100
d. 3330

189.In the Frequency Shift keying, the frequency of the carrier signal is changed according to
the data
a. Modulation
b. Data
c. Signals
d. None of these
190.In the Phase Shift Keying method a sine wave is transmitted and the phase of the sine
wave carries the ______
a. Analog data
b. Digital data
c. Signal data
d. None of these
191.For a 0, a __ degrees phase sine wave is transmitted
a. 0
b. 45
c. 90
d. 180
192.For a 1, a __ degrees phase sine wave is transmitted
a. 0
b. 45
c. 90
d. 180
193.A sub method of the phase modulation is
a. Differential phase modulation
b. Direct phase modulation
c. Double phase modulation
d. None of these
194.Differential phase modulation technique is also called
a. Amplitude Shift Keying
b. Phase Shift Keying

c. Frequency Shift Keying
d. None of these
195.In the differential phase shift keying, For a 0 the modem shifts the phase of each
succeeding signal in a certain number of degrees
a. 0
b. 45
c. 90
d. 180
196.In the differential phase shift keying, For a 1 the modem shifts the phase of each
succeeding signal and a different certain number of degrees
a. 0
b. 90
c. 180
d. 270
197.In binary phase shift keying, the case of 4 different phase shifts, where each symbol
represents ____, the modulation technique is called quadrature PSK(QPSK)
a. 2 bits
b. 4 bits
c. 8 bits
d. 16 bits
198.In binary phase shift keying, the case of 8 different phase shifts, where each symbol
represents ____, the modulation technique is called
a. QPSK
b. 8PSK
c. 8QAM
d. 8FSK
199.Binary Phase Shift Keying is measured in
a. Decibel
b. Baud
c. Hertz
d. bits per second

200.In QPSK, the four angle are usually out of phase by
a. 0
b. 45
c. 90
d. 180
201. The AM is considered as a
a. Linear process
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
202.The FM is considered as a
a. Linear process
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
203.The phase modulation is similar to the
a. Amplitude Modulation
b. Frequency Modulation
c. Angle Modulation
d. Pulse Code Modulation
204.In PM, ________ of the carrier wave changes
a. Frequency
b. Phase
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
205.PCM requires bandwidth of
a. 21Kbps
b. 24Kbps
c. 64Kbps

d. 65Kbps
206.In data communication using computers ,________ signal are normally converted into
PCM
a. Analog
b. Digital
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
207.The PCM is a coding scheme used in __________ communication because of less

sensitive to noise
a. Analog
b. Digital
c. Both a &b
d. None of these
208.________ is a process where multiple analog message signals or digital data streams are
combined into one medium over a shared medium
a. Multiplexing
b. Modulation
c. Encoding technique
d. De-multiplexing
209. The various ways to multiplex are
a. Frequency Division Multiplexing(FDM)
b. Time Division Multiplexing(TDM)
c. Code Division Multiplexing(CDM)
d. Wavelength Division Multiplexing(WDM)
e. All of these
210.In which , Multiple channels are combined onto a single aggregate signal for
transmission

211.In FDM , channels are separated in the aggregate by their
a. Bandwidth
b. Signal
c. Frequency
d. None of these
212._________ was the foremost multiplexing scheme to have the benefits of wide scale
network deployment and till today, such systems are still in use and are used with analog
transmission
213.The two alternative technologies of multiplexing for digital sources are
e. Both b & c
f. Both a & b
g. Both c & d
214._______ provides a means for merging data from the varied sources into a single
channel to support communication over a microwave system , satellite system or a
telephone lines
215.The TDM are implemented in two ways are
a. Synchronous TDM
b. Asynchronous TDM
c. Both a & b

d. None of these
e.
216.In which type of TDM , a single channel is divided into time slots and each transmitting
device is assigned for least one of the time slots for its transmission
a. Synchronous TDM
b. Asynchronous TDM
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
217.The Asynchronous TDM is properly known as
a. Statistical TDM
b. Static TDM
c. Dynamic TDM
d. None of these
218.Which ways of Multiplex are more flexible
a. FDM
b. TDM
c. CDM
d. None of these
219.In which way of multiplex ,the whole amount for a certain amount of time is provided to
the user and all user uses the same frequency but at different time
a. FDM
b. TDM
c. CDM
d. None of these
220.To overcome the inefficiency of standard TDM, a technique known as
a. CDM
b. FDM
c. STDM
d. CDMA
221.The word UHF means

a. Ultra -High Form
b. Ultra Half-Form
c. Ultra- High-Frequency
d. Ultra-Half-Frequency
222.________ may be defined as the form of multiplexing where the transmitter encodes the
signal using a pseudo random sequence
a. CDM
b. FDM
c. STDM
d. CDMA
223.The number of different frequency per bit are called
a. Bit rate
b. Data rate
c. Baud rate
d. Chip rate
224.If one or more bits are transmitted at the same frequency are called
a. Frequency doping
b. Frequency hopping
c. Frequency hoping
d. Frequency hipping
225.The main disadvantage of CDM is
a. Protection from interference
b. Tapping as only the sender know the spreading code
c. Tapping as only the receiver know the spreading code
d. All of these
226.The Code Division Multiple Access(CDMA) was widely introduced in
a. 1963
b. 1989
c. 1979
d. 1958

227.In CDMA system ,all user transmit in the ______ bandwidth simultaneously
a. Different
b. Same
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
228.The spread spectrum technology of CDMA is ___________ than TDMA
a. More secure
b. Provides higher transmission quality
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
229.A CDMA call starts with a standard rate of ___________ bits per second
a. 9500
b. 9200
c. 9300
d. 9600
230.The code used with the signal for spreading have
a. Low cross-correlation values
b. Unique to every user
c. Higher transmission quality
d. Both a & b
231.In spread spectrum technique, a receiver is only capable of selecting the desired signal if
it has the knowledge about the code of the intended
a. Receiver
b. Transmitter
c. Both a & b
d. Signal
232.The major advantage of spread spectrum technique may be enumerated as
a. Low power spectral density

b. Interference limited operation
c. Privacy due to unknown random codes
d. Reduction of multi path affects
e. All of these
233. The word FHSS stands for
a. frequency hopping spread spectrum
b. file hopping spread spectrum
c. file hiding spread spectrum
d. frequency hopping special spectrum
234. The word DSSS stands for
a. digital sequence spread spectrum
b. direct sequence spread spectrum
c. digital sequence special spectrum
d. direct signal spread spectrum
235.The pattern of switching from one channel to another channel is known as
a. Hipping
b. Hyping
c. Harping
d. Hopping
236.________ is best known spread spectrum technique in which a pseudo random noise
code multiples the signal
a. FHSS
b. FCSS
c. DSSS
d. DHSS
237.A pseudo random noise code is a sequence of chips valued________ with noise-like
properties
a. -1 and1(polar)
b. 0 and 1(non-polar)
c. Both a & b

d. None of these
e.
238.________ time is the time spent on a channel with certain frequency
a. FDM
b. Dwell
c. Dowel
d. Dowry
e.
239.FHSS includes_______ technology
a. FDM
b. TDM
c. CDM
d. Both a & b
e.
240. Individual channels are
a. Data
b. Audio
c. Video or their combination
d. All of these
241.__________ a multi-channel system in which a number of individuals channels are

multiplexed for transmission
a. System
b. Carrier
c. Carrier system
d. None of these
242.T-carrier signaling scheme was developed by
a. Bell Laboratory
b. Hell Laboratory
c. Dull Laboratory
d. None of these

243. T1 standards is widely used in
a. Japan
b. North America
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
244.T-carrier was digital signal 1, DS1 or DS-1 which is known as
a. T1
b. E1
c. DS0
d. DS1
245.DS-1 conveys the meaning of
a. Direct Service-Level 1
b. Digital Service-Level 1
c. Double Service-Level 1
d. Digital Slide-Level 1
246.E1 signifies another carrier system that finds use outside
a. North America
b. Japan
c. South Korea
d. All of these
247.A DS1 circuit comprises ________ , each of 8 bits
a. 24 channels
b. 26 channels
c. 28 channels
d. 30 channels
248.24 channels are also called
a. Timeslots
b. DS0
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

249.DS0 channel is a ______ that is multiplexed
a. 68Kbit/s
b. 64Kbit/s
c. 62Kbit/s
d. 70Kbit/s
250.DS1 is full-duplex circuit in which the circuit does concurrent transmission and
reception at a data rate of ___
a. 1.533Mbit/s
b. 1.544Mbit/s
c. 1.566Mbit/s
d. 1.555Mbit/s
251.By sampling each 8-bit frame for 8000 times per second, total bandwidth achieved is
________
a. 1.537Kbit/s
b. 1.536Kbit/s
c. 1.538Kbit/s
d. 1.539Kbit/s
252.Framing schemes are of two types:
a. Super Frame(SF)
b. Extended Super Frame(ESF)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
253.Framing channel has been divided into two each with ______ in Super Frame
a. 2Kbit/s
b. 3Kbit/s
c. 4Kbit/s
d. 6Kbit/s
254.There are _____ contiguous frames of 193-bit each in a Super Frame
a. 10
b. 12

c. 14
d. 16
255.There are _____ contiguous frames of 193-bit each in a Extended Super Frame
a. 20
b. 22
c. 24
d. 26
256.Framing channel has been divided into two each with _______ in Super frame
a. 2Kbit/s
b. 4Kbit/s
c. 6Kbit/s
d. 8Kbit/s
257.One is used for alignment of ________
a. Terminal frame
b. Signaling frame
c. Super frame
d. Switching frame
e.
258.Second is used for alignment of ________
a. Terminal frame
b. Signaling frame
c. Super frame
d. Switching frame
e.
259.Alignment of terminal is carried out with frames having _______ in the super frame
a. Even-number
b. Odd-number
c. Prime-number
d. None of these
260.A frame having _________ in the super frame is used for signaling alignment of frame

a. Even-number
b. Odd-number
c. Prime-number
d. None of these
261.T1 is recognized by its original ______ line rate
a. 1.566Mbit/s
b. 1.544Mbit/s
c. 1.555Mbit/s
d. 1.533Mbit/s
262.T1 used the encoding technique _______
a. AMI
b. LAN
c. DS1
d. CEPT
263.AMI means
a. Analog Memory Interchange
b. Alternate Memory Interchange
c. Alternate Mark Inversion
d. Analog Mark Interchange
264.AMI requires less
a. Bandwidth
b. Signal
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
265.CEPT means
a. Conference European of Postal Telecommunications
b. European Conference of Postal and Telecommunications
c. European Control of Postal Telecommunications
d. None of these
266.CEPT after ten years of launch of T1 system used _____ for framing known as European

E1
a. 2bits
b. 4bits
c. 8bits
d. 16bits
267.An E1 carrier carries digital information at ______
a. 2.084Mbps
b. 2.048Mbps
c. 2.044Mbps
d. 2.088Mbps
268.An E1 circuit has been divided into ____ time slots
a. 30
b. 32
c. 34
d. 36
269.32 time slots implements an individual communication channel supporting a bit rate of
________
a. 60Kbps
b. 62Kbps
c. 64Kbps
d. 66Kbps
270.An E1 frame has a total of _________
a. 128bits
b. 256bits
c. 64bits
d. 192bits
271.Which is used to exchange information over the E1 carriers that connect remote zones
a. Protocols Frame Relay
b. Cell Relay
c. Both a & b

d. None of these
e.
272.CEPT revised and improved the technology adopted by
a. T-carrier system
b. E-carrier system
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
273.Which was taken by International Telecommunications Union Telecommunication

Standardization Sector(ITU-T)
a. T-carrier system
b. E-carrier system
c. E1 system
d. T1 system
274.ITU-T finds wide use all over the world except three nations namely
a. UK, USA, Japan
b. USA, Canada, Japan
c. Japan, America, USA
d. Japan, America, Canada
275.PDH means
a. Plesiochronous Digital Hierarchy
b. Plasma Digital Hierarchy
c. Pointer Double Hard disk
d. Plasma Double Hierarchy
276. In 32 timeslots of E1, only ___ are used two of these are used for framing and signalling
call setup
a. 20
b. 15
c. 30
d. 40

277.High quality of call is ensured since transmission takes place with a constant
a. Latency
b. Capacity
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
278.Another timeslot is reserved for signalling purposes
a. TS16
b. TS15
c. TS14
d. TS13
279.Which is controlled some standard protocols in the field of telecommunications
a. Teardown
b. Call setup
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
280.E1 is different from earlier T-carrier systems since all ___ of every sampling are available
for every call
a. 4bits
b. 8bits
c. 16bits
d. 32bits
281.There are two general categories of transmission media
a. Bounded(guided) media
b. Unbounded(unguided) media
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
282.__________ are bounded media
a. Twisted pair
b. Coaxial cable
c. Fibre optic cables

d. All of these
283.________ are known as unbounded transmission
a. microwave and satellite transmission
b. both travel through the air
c. which has no boundaries
d. all of these
284.Wireless transmission systems do not make use of a
a. Physical conductor
b. Guide to bind the signal
c. Logical conductor
d. Both a & b
285.Energy travels through the air rather than
a. Copper
b. Glass
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
286.The transmission systems addressed under this category include
a. Microwave
b. Satellite
c. Infrared
d. All of the above
287.Which are used in radio transmission in one form or another
a. Radio
b. TV
c. Cellular phones
d. All of these
288._______ is the one example of long distance communication
a. Satellite signal
b. Satellite relay

c. Analog signal
d. Digital signal
289.The RF(Radio Frequency) is divided in different ranges starting from
a. Very low frequency(VLF)
b. Extremely high frequency(EHF)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
290.Two transmitters cannot share the same frequency band because of
a. Mutual interference
b. Band usage is regulated
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
291.PDAs means
a. Personal Digital Assistants
b. Personal Double Assistants
c. Personal Digital Analogs
d. Power Digital Assistants
292.ADSL means
a. Analogs Digital Subscriber Lines
b. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Lines
c. Assistants Digital Subscriber Lines
d. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber language
293.A pair of copper wires twisted together and wrapped with a plastic coating as a twisted
pair and which has a diameter of ____:
a. 0.2-0.6
b. 0.4-0.7
c. 0.2-0.8
d. 0.4-0.8
294.______ are the substances used for insulation purposes
a. Teflon(r)

b. Flouropolymer resin
c. Polyvinyl chloride
d. Polyethylene
e. All of these
f.
295.In modem data rate is restricted to approximately____:
a. 24Kbps
b. 28Kbps
c. 30Kbps
d. 32Kbps
e.
296._______ was first used in telephone system by Alexander Graham Bell
a. Copper medium
b. Copper signal
c. Copper set up
d. None of these
e.
297.The unshielded twisted pair states the link between the end in the communication closet
and the outlet which is further restricted to
a. 60metres
b. 90metres
c. 100metres
d. 190metres
298.A UTP cable contains __________ twisted pairs
a. 2 to 240
b. 2 to 4200
c. 2 to 2400
d. None of these
299. The major disadvantage of UTP is
a. Bandwidth is lower

b. Bandwidth is higher
c. Bandwidth is limited
d. Bandwidth is dynamic
300.STP stands for
a. Shielded twisted pair
b. Signal transmission pair
c. Shielding twisted process
d. Shielded transmission pair
301.150Ohms STP contains ________IBM connector or RJ45
a. 1 pair
b. 2 pairs
c. 3 pairs
d. 4 pairs
302.100Ohm UTP contains _________ and 8-pin modular connector(ISDN)
a. 2 pairs
b. 3 pairs
c. 4 pairs
d. 5 pairs
303.________ contains multi-mode fibre
a. 52.5/125
b. 72.5/125
c. 62.5/125
d. 82.5/125
304.What are the biggest advantage of UTP
a. Flexibility
b. Cost-effective media
c. Usability of both data communication and voice
d. All of these
305.LED means
a. Light Emitting Device

b. Light Emitting Diode
c. Light Exchange Device
d. Light Exchange Diode
306.The effective capacity of coaxial cable depends on the
a. Spacing of amplifiers
b. The length of the circuit
c. The gauge of the centre conductor
d. Other intermediate devices
e. All of these
307.LANs function over coaxial cable to the __________ specifications
a. 10BASE5
b. 10BASE2
c. 10BASET
d. All of these
308.Coaxial cables are of two types
a. Baseband
b. Broadband
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
309.The gauge of coaxial cable is _____ than the twisted pair
a. Thicker
b. Thinner
c. Heavy
d. Bulky
310.Traditional coaxial cable is quite ________ of which Ethernet LAN 10Base5 is an

example
a. Thick
b. Heavy
c. Bulky
d. All of these

311.Twin axial cables contains _____ such configurations within a single cable sheath
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
312.The mechanical protections cover the _________
a. Secondary buffer coating
b. Primary buffer coating
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
313.The bandwidth is typically ________ over a length of one kilometer of fibre expressed as
MHz-Km
a. 10 to 20
b. 20 to 30
c. 30 to 40
d. 40 to 50
314.In which multimode fibre, light is refracted by an increasing amount as it moves away
from the core
a. Single mode fibre
b. Step index multimode fibre
c. Graded index multimode fibre
d. All of these
315.The actual bandwidth of graded index multimode fibre depends on
a. How well a particular fibres index profile minimizes model dispersion
b. The wavelength of light launched into the fibre
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
316.The typical bandwidth of graded index multimode fibre range from
a. 100MHz-Km to over 1GHz-Km
b. 200 MHz-Km to over 1GHz-Km

c. 300 MHz-Km to over 1GHz-Km
d. 150 MHz-Km to over 1GHz-Km
317.Which multimode fibre has a thinner inner core
a. Single mode fibre/ Monomode fibre
d. All of these
318.In which multimode fibre , different wavelength of light travel at a different speeds
a. Single mode fibre
d. All of these
319.The single mode fibers have the
a. Very broadest bandwidth
b. Lowest cost
c. Lowest attenuation of any optical fibre
d. All of these
320.The advantage of single mode fibre are
a. Small size and light weight
b. Large bandwidth
c. Flexibility and high strength
d. Secure against signal leakage and interference
e. No short circuit problems
f. All of these
321.The fibre optic systems consists of a
a. Light sources
b. Cables
c. Light detectors
d. All of these
322.In a fiber optic system, ______ are opto-electric devices

a. Repeater
b. EMI
c. RMI
d. RFI
323.EMI/RFI means
a. Electro Magnetic Interference / Radio Frequency Interference
b. Electronics Magnetic Interference/Redundancy Frequency Interference
c. Electro Minute Intrinsically/ Radio Fibre Interference
d. None of these
324.Monomode fibre optic systems routinely are capable of transmitting signal over distances
in excess of
a. 250Km
b. 350Km
c. 225Km
d. 325Km
325.CAD means
a. Computer aided distribution
b. Computer application design
c. Computer aided design
d. None of these
326.Bounded Media Comparison Chart
Media Advantages Disadvantage
Twisted pair cable Inexpensive, well established Sensitive to noise, short

, easy to add nodes distances, limited bandwidth,
security hazard because of
easy interception
Coaxial cable (in High bandwidth, long Physical dimensions, noise

comparison to twisted) distances immunity security is better
in pair cable
Optical fibre cable Very High bandwidth, long Connections, cost

distances, noise immunity,

high security, small size
327.In data communication the signal has to travel through the transmission media that may
be
a. Wired
b. Wireless
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
328.There exist three causes of impairment in transmission errors
a. Attenuation
b. Distortion
c. Noise
d. All of these
329.___________ is the loss of the signal power while traversing a transmission media
including electronic circuitry
a. Attenuation
b. Distortion
c. Noise
d. None of these
330.Attenuation is measured in terms of
a. Hertz
b. Micro
c. decibel
d. Kilometer
331.Distortion is calculated as the ratio of the
a. Signal at two different points
b. Relative power of two signals at the same point
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
332.A negative value of decibel indicates _______ of signal strength
a. Loss

b. Gain
c. Either loss or gain
d. None of these
333.A positive value of decibel indicates _______ of signal strength
a. Loss
b. Gain
c. Either loss or gain
d. None of these
e.
334.The attenuation includes a number of factors like
a. Transmitting and receiving antennas
b. Transmitter powers
c. Modulation techniques
d. Frequency of the transmission
e. Atmospheric conditions
f. All of these
335.Distortion is proportional to the square of the _________
a. Atmospheric conditions
b. Modulation techniques
c. Operating frequency
d. Operating system
336.Equalizing devices are ________ at intermediate points to keep the shape of the signal
intact
a. Created
b. Inserted
c. Modified
d. Deleted
337.Data processing and transmission systems experience errors due to several reasons
a. Electrostatic interference can be caused from circuits or machines lying close by
b. Inductance and capacitance, loss in transmission due to leakages, impulses from

static in the atmosphere, etc, lead to distortion
c. Resistance to current in a cable can be caused due to attenuation
d. All of these
338.The main constraints are due to the physical medium that produces
a. Noise
b. Distortion
c. Attenuation
d. Dropouts
e. All of these
339.The digital signals do not suffer from ___________ but they are susceptible to dropouts
a. Noise
b. Distortion
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
340.The use of several parity bits are
a. Help to detect any error
b. Find if any bits are inverted
c. They should be re-inverted so that the original data is restored
d. All of these
341.SECDEC means
a. Single error correction, double error detection
b. Single exchange correction, double exchange detection
c. Single error code, double error detection
d. Single error character, double error detection
342.The types of errors are
a. Single Bit Errors
b. Burst Errors
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.

343.A transmission cable has
a. Inductance
b. Capacitance
c. Resistance
d. All of these
344.The inductance and capacitance tends to
a. Causes the amplitude of the signal to reduce
b. Distort the shape of a signal
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
345.The resistance tends to
a. Causes the amplitude of the signal to reduce and therefore loss of power
b. Distort the shape of a signal
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
346.Which type of error corrupt the single bits of transmission
a. Burst errors
b. Single bit errors
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
347. Which type of error corrupt the multiple bits of transmission
a. Burst errors
b. Single bit errors
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
348.ENQ means
a. Enquiry
b. Encryptions
c. Enquire

d. None of these
349.BER stands for
a. Byte Enquiry Rate
b. Bit Error Rate
c. Burst Enquiry resistance
d. Burst Error Rate
350.NAK means
a. None Acknowledge
b. Noise Acknowledge
c. Negative Acknowledgement
d. Network Acknowledgement
351.The No of bits that get affected in burst errors depends upon the
a. Duration of the noise
b. Transmission time of the no of bits of the transmitted packet
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
352. The redundant bit enables
a. correction of errors
b. detection of errors
c. Redundancy check
d. All of these
353.The types of redundancy processes are
a. Parity check
b. Cyclic redundancy check
c. Checksum
d. All of these
e.
354.__________ is the technique of providing a data string that is added to information

packets used to detect errors in data packets
a. CRC

b. Parity check
c. Checksum
d. All of these
e.
355.Which redundancy process can detect the more than 95 per cent of all errors
a. CRC
b. Parity check
c. Checksum
d. All of these
356.CRC means
a. Circuit Redundancy Check
b. Cyclic Redundancy Check
c. Checksum Rail Check
d. None of these
357.The Two-dimensional parity check method can not
a. Correct the errors
b. Detect the errors
c. Correct and detect the errors
d. None of these
358.When signal amplitude degrades along a transmission medium , this is called
a. Signal attenuation
b. Signal bandwidth
c. Frequency
d. Data rate
359.The CRC is validated by using _______ conditions
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

360.The two conditions of CRC are
a. It should possess exactly one bit less than the divisor
b. When CRC is appended to the end of the data stream
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
1. The device used for splits data into frames and then combines frames into data in frame
relay is termed as
a. FRAD(Frame Relay And Disassembly)
b. Framing
c. Both a & b
d. Slipping Window Protocol
2. The Error controls involves
a. Sequencing of control frame
b. Sending of control frame
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
3. During communication, a channel that is noisy may causes
a. Loss of bits from a frame
b. Flips of bits
c. Complete disappearance of frames
d. Introduction of new bits in the frame
e. All of these
4. The data link layer encapsulates each packet in a frame by adding
a. Header
b. Trailer
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
5. The Frame format of framing are

a. DLCI-10bits
b. EA-2location(First one is fixed at 0 and second at 1)
c. DE-1 is set for the part that can be discarded first when congestion occurs
d. Data size-vary up to 4096bytes
e. All of these
6. Which is a simple data link protocol based on certain ideal assumptions to explain the
working of the data link layer
a. Stop ARQ
b. Wait ARQ
c. Go back-N ARQ
d. Both a & b
7. The assumptions of Stop and Wait ARQ are as
a. Infinite buffer size
b. Half Duplex
c. Does not produce any error
d. Network layers are always ready
e. All of these
8. The protocol based on the assumption are called
a. Elementary data link protocol
b. Data link protocol
c. Sliding Window Protocol
d. HDLC
9. The basic objective of computer communication in a network environment is to send an

infinitely long message from the ____________
a. Source node to the source node
b. Destination node to the destination node
c. Source node to the destination node
d. None of these
10.In stop and wait protocol
a. Sequence number are required

b. Sequence number are not required
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
11.The stop and wait protocol is
a. easy to Implement
b. Does not call for congestion
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
12.The disadvantage of stop and wait protocol is
a. Error free communication channel does not exist
b. Acknowledgement may get lost
c. Deadlock situation may occur
d. All of these
13. Which protocol enables the source machine to possess more than one outstanding frame
at a time by using buffers
a. Stop ARQ
b. Wait ARQ
c. Go back-N ARQ
d. Both a & b
14. The Go back-N ARQ overcomes the problem of
a. PAR
b. PER
c. PRA
d. DAR
15.Another important issue in the design if the data link is to control the rate of data
transmission between _____________
a. Source and destination host
b. Two source and destination host
c. Three source and destination host
d. None of these

16.Which one is the important protocol used by the data link layer
a. Sliding protocol
b. Sliding Window protocol
c. Stop sliding approach
d. None of these
17.The sender keeps a list o consecutive sequence numbers is known as
a. Window
b. Sending window
c. Stop and wait ARQ
d. Sliding window
18.Which protocol is for data transmission and is bi-directional, used in the data link layer
that corresponds to layer 2 of OSI model
a. Sending window
b. Sliding window protocol
c. Stop and wait ARQ
d. Sliding window
19.Sliding window protocol keeps record of frame sequences sent and acknowledged when
communication takes place between ____________
a. Users
b. Two users
c. More users
d. None of these
20.Sliding window protocol is also used by most of the _______________________
a. Connection oriented protocols
b. Connection oriented network protocols
c. Connection network protocols
d. None of these
21.Which is used by many users to establish their home PC to the Internet via a phone-line
connection
a. FTP

b. PPP
c. OSI
d. PAR
e.
22. Sliding window protocol works on _________ in which there is simultaneous two-way
communication
a. no duplex
b. half duplex
c. full duplex
d. single duplex
e.
23.Sliding window protocol makes use of two types of frames namely
a. Data frame
b. Acknowledgement frame
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
24.Another improvement is done over this stop and wait type protocol by use of ________
a. Back
b. Piggybacking
c. Piggy
d. None of these
25.A technique in which acknowledgement is temporarily delayed and then hooked onto next
outgoing frame is known as
a.
b. Back
c. Piggybacking
d. Piggy
e. None of these
26.RTT stands for
a. Robin time taken

b. Round trip time
c. Round time trip
d. Round time trip
27.The variants of sliding window protocol are
a. Go back n
b. Selective repeat
c. Selective reject
d. All of these
28.The sliding window protocol employs ___________
a. A wait approach
b. A stop approach
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
29.HDLC is a __________ synchronous data link layer protocol
a. Bit-oriented
b. Byte-oriented
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
30.HDLC provides
a. Switched protocol
b. Non- Switched protocol
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
31.HDLC is a superset of ___________
a. ADCCP
b. SDLC
c. ISO
d. OSI
32.HDLC also has a subset of ______________

a. ADCCP
b. SDLC
c. ISO
d. FRAD
33.Which is another subset of HDLC that finds use in packet switched networks of ITU-TS
X.25
a. ADCCP
b. SDLC
c. LAP-B(Link Access Protocol-Balanced)
d. None of these
34.In HDLC three types of stations are specified by the data link layer
a. Primary Station
b. Secondary Station
c. Combined Station
d. All of these
35.HDLC works on three different types of configurations namely
a. Balanced configurations
b. Unbalanced configurations
c. Symmetrical configurations
d. All of these
36.Frames of secondary station are known as _________ are sent only on request by the
primary station
a. Response
b. Responses frame
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
37.Which is a unit of data transmission
a. Frame
b. Stop and wait ARQ
c. HDLC

d. Frame relay
38.A configuration has at least two combined stations in which every station has equal and
complimentary responsibility known as __________________
d. None of these
39.Balanced configurations find use only in the such cases as given below
a. Operation: Full or half duplex
b. Network: Point to Point
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
40. A configuration has one primary station and at least one secondary station , and it exists
as one station exercises control over other stations known as ________
d. None of these
41.Symmetrical configurations comprises of _________________________
a. Two independent
b. Unbalanced stations
c. Connected point to point
d. All of these
e.
42.Logically, every station is considered as __________ stations
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e.

43.The protocol and data are totally independent, this property known as ____________
a. Transmission
b. Transparency
c. Transparent
d. Transport
44.In HDLC, problems like _______________ do not occur
a. Data loss
b. Data duplication
c. Data corruption
d. All of these
45.How many modes of operations are defined for the HDLC protocol
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
46.Three modes of operations are defined for the HDLC protocol
a. Normal Response Mode(NRM)
b. Asynchronous Response Mode(ARM)
c. Synchronous Balanced Mode(ABM)
d. All of these
47.In primary station initializes links for controlling the data flow between ___________
a. Primary and secondary stations
b. Error control
c. Logical disconnection of the second stations
d. All of these
48.The ABM mode is suitable only to __________ environment
a. Point
b. Point-to-point
c. First-to-end-point
d. None of these

49.In the HDLC protocol, frame consists of __________
a. Three fields
b. Four fields
c. Five fields
d. Six fields
e.
50.A special eight-bit sequence ________ is referred to as a flag
a. 01111111
b. 01111110
c. 11101110
d. 11101110
51.In the HDLC protocol, every frame consists of __________ with a flag
a. Starts
b. End
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
52.A 8-bit address is used when the total number of stations exceeds _______
a. 64
b. 128
c. 256
d. None of these
53.Data can be arbitrarily ______
a. Long
b. Empty
c. Full
d. Both a & b
54.The HDLC procedure uses a flag synchronous system, these are
a. Bit order of transmission (information frame)
b. Bit order of transmission (supervisor frame)
c. Both a & b

d. None of these
55.FCS (frame check sequence) is a _______ sequence for error control
a. 4bit
b. 16bit
c. 32bit
d. 64bit
56.The disadvantage of SLIP are as follows
a. No error check function is available
b. Protocols other than IP cannot be used
c. No function is available to authenticate link level connections
d. No function is available to detect loops
e. All of these
57.PPP has several advantages over non-standard protocol such as
a. SLIP
b. X.25
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
58.PPP was designed to work with layer 3 network layer protocols including ___________
a. IP
b. IPX
c. Apple talk
d. All of these
59.PPP can connect computers using _________
a. Serial cable, phone line
b. Trunk line, cellular telephone
c. Specialized radio links
d. Fiber optic links
e. All of these
60.Most dial-up access to Internet is accomplished by using _____

a. HDLC
b. PPP
c. IP
d. IPX
61.RAS has an important role in the proliferation of Internet based services in the form of
_________________
a. VoIP
b. Data over IP
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
62.Which is opening new challenges in the development of RAS where VoIP enabled RAS are
the need of time
a. Voice convergence
b. Data convergence
c. Voice and data convergence
d. None of these
63.Remote access is possible through an __________________
a. Internet service provider
b. Dial up connection through desktop
c. Notebook over regular telephone lines
d. Dedicated line
e. All of these
64.A remote access server also known as ____________________
a. Communication
b. Communication server
c. Layer
d. None of these
65.RAS technology can be divided into two segments _________
a. Enterprise
b. Infrastructure

c. Both a & b
d. None of these
66.VPN stands for
a. Virtual Public networking
b. Virtual private networking
c. Virtual package networking
d. Virtual packet networking
67.PPP provides three principal components
a. Encapsulating datagrams
b. Establishment, configurations and testing
c. Establishment and configurations
d. All of these
68.PPP is able to function across any _______ interface
a. DTE
b. DCE
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
69.PPP may include
a. RS232C
b. RS-423
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
70.In PPP, the default maximum length of the information field is ________
a. 1000bytes
b. 1500bytes
c. 2000bytes
d. 2500bytes
e.
71.The protocols that are differentiate PPP from HDLC are the

a. Link Control Protocol(LCP)
b. Network Control Protocol(NCP)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
72.For terminate PPP ,the four steps are
a. Link establishment
b. Link configuration negotiation
c. Configuration acknowledgement frame
d. Configuration terminates
e. All of these
73.The LCP can terminates the link at any time is done by
a. Request to the user
b. Not Request to the user
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
74.The termination of link may happen
a. Due to physical event
b. Due to logical event
c. Due to window event
d. None of these
75.The three classes of LCP frames are
a. Link establishment frame
b. Link termination frame
c. Link maintenance frame
d. All of these
76.The NCP phase in PPP link connection process is used for establishing and configuring
different network layer protocols such as
a. IP
b. IPX
c. AppleTalk

d. All of these
77.In NCP, The link traffic consists of any possible combination of
a. NCP
b. LCP
c. Network-layer protocol packets
d. All of these
78.The IP control Protocol(IPCP) is the
a. IP-specific LCP protocol
b. IP-specific NCP protocol
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
79.If the calling peer has an IP address, it tells the
a. Called peer What it is
b. The called peer can assign the caller one from a pool of addresses
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
80.If the calling peer does not have an IP address, it tells the
a. Called peer What it is
b. The called peer can assign the caller one from a pool of addresses
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
81.The authentication process involves transmission of password information between
a. RADIUS server
b. RAS(Remote Access Server)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
82.The Authentication transaction used between a Remote access user and RAS can be divided
into two categories are
a. PAP(Password Authentication Protocol)
b. CHAP(Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol)

c. Both a & b
d. None of these
83.The digest is a
a. One-way encryption
b. Two- way encryption
c. Three- way encryption
d. Four- way encryption
84.The technology which is useful for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) has been
developed by
a. Microsoft Corporation
b. U.S. Robotics
c. Several remote access vendor companies, known as PPTP forum
d. All of these
85.PPTP means
a. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol
b. Point-to-Point Termination Protocol
c. Private-to-Private termination protocol
d. Private-to-Private Tunneling Protocol
86.The PPTP is used to ensure that message transmitted from one VPN node to another are
a. Not secure
b. Secure
c. Networks
d. IPX
87. What is the extension of PPTP
a. PPP
b. RAS
c. L2TP(Layer Two Tunneling Protocol)
d. None of these
88.The two main components that make up L2TP are the
a. L2TP Access Concentrator(LAC)

b. L2TP Network Server(LNS)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
89.A user connects to NAS through
a. ADSL
b. Dialup POTS
c. ISDN
d. Other service
e. All of these
90.Which is a platform on which Internet service providers(ISP) and other service providers
enables their user to access the various internet based services
a. RAS
b. TCP
c. ARQ
d. SLIP
1. A computer network permits sharing of
a. Resources
b. Information
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
2. The first operational computer network in the world was the _________ for the United
States Department of Defense
a. ARPANET
b. ERNET
c. SKYNET
d. DARPANET
e.
3. ATM stands for

a. Automatic taller machine
b. Automated teller machine
c. Automatic transfer machine
d. Automated transfer machine
4. _______ is the technology that connects the machines and people within a site in a small
area
a. LAN
b. MAN
c. WAN
d. None of these
5. ______ is a network that covers geographic areas that are larger, such as districts or cities
a. LAN
b. MAN
c. WAN
d. None of these
e.
6. ______ is a network that this technology connects sites that are in diverse locations
a. LAN
b. MAN
c. WAN
d. None of these
7. ______ is a collection of point-to-point links that may form a circle
a. LAN
b. MAN
c. WAN
d. Ring topology
8. ______ refers to tone signals used for various control purposes via the telephone network
a. SMS
b. DTMF
c. GSM

d. None of these
9. LAN is a network that is restricted to a relatively
a. Small area
b. Large area
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
10.The components used by LANs can be categorized into
a. Hardware
b. Cabling protocols
c. Standards
d. All of these
e.
11.The various LAN protocols are
a. Ethernet
b. Token ring
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
12.The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers established a project named IEEE
project 802 during the year _____
a. 1990
b. 1970
c. 1980
d. 1960
13.In 1985, the committee issued a set of ___ standards
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
14.ISO revised these standards and reintroduced them as ISO 8802 standards during
____

a. 1977
b. 1987
c. 1997
d. 1999
15.The following are the important standards proposed by IEEE
a. IEEE 802.1- overview and relationship among the various IEEE standards
b. IEEE 802.3 or CSMA/CD bus
c. IEEE 802.4 or token bus
d. IEEE 802.5 or token ring
e. IEEE 802.6 or MAN protocol
f. All of these
16.When compared with the OSI reference model, the IEEE standard contains the following
layers:
a. Physical layer
b. Medium access control(MAC) equivalent to the lower part of the OSI data link layer
c. Logical link layer(LAC) equivalent to the upper part of the data link layer
d. Network layer, the OSI network layer, that performs some of the higher order layer
functions
e. All of these
17.The 802.2 compatible interfaces provide two major types of services, which are
a. Unacknowledged
b. Connectionless
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
18.The ________ follows the ring topology
a. IBM of LAN
b. LAN of IBM
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.

19.In a token ring, the stations are connected to the __________
a. Logical ring
b. Physical ring
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
20.A _________ preamble is used to synchronize the receivers clock
a. Four-byte
b. Three-byte
c. Two-byte
d. One-byte
21.Start of frame and end of frame are used to _______ the frame boundaries
a. Mark
b. Modify
c. Delete
d. Find
22.Frame control is also used to specify the ________
a. Frame technique
b. Frame type
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
23.The destination address and source address field is similar to
a. IEEE 802.3 or CSMA/CD bus
b. IEEE 802.4 or token bus
c. IEEE 802.5 or token ring
d. IEEE 802.6 or MAN protocol
24.Info field is used to ________
a. Send messages
b. Send data
c. Delete data

d. Create data
25.The maximum length of this field is _______ when the address is _______
a. 8182 & 2 bits
b. 8182 & 2 bytes
c. 8182 & 4 bits
d. 8182 & 4 bytes
26.The maximum length of this field is _______ when the address is _______
a. 8174 bytes & 6 bits
b. 8174 bytes & 6 bytes
c. 8174 bytes & 8 bytes
d. 8174 bits & 6 bytes
27.Check sum is used for
a. Error correction
b. Error detection
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
28.Solicit-successor frame contains the address of the
a. Sending station
b. Successor
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
29.Government agencies and local libraries often use a MAN to connect to private
a. Industries
b. Citizens
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
30.The geographical limit of a MAN may
a. Not span a city

b. Span a city
c. Either span or not
d. None of these
31.In MAN, different LANs are connected through a local _______
a. Telephone exchange
b. Computer wires
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
32.Some of the widely used protocols for MAN are
a. RS-232
b. X.25
c. Frame relay
d. Asynchronous transfer mode(ATM)
e. ISDN
f. OC-3lines(155 Mbps)
g. ADSL(asymmetric digital subscriber line)
h. All of the above
33. MAN stands for
a. Machine area network
b. Metropolitan area network
c. Metropolitan asynchronous network
d. Machine asynchronous network
34.WAN technologies function at the lower three layers of the OSI reference model
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Network layer
d. All of these
e.
35.WAN also uses switching technology provided by ____________
a. Local exchange

b. Long distance carrier
c. Both a & b
d. Small distance carrier
36. Packet switching technologies such as _____________ are used to implement WAN along
with statistical multiplexing
a. ATM
b. Frame relay
c. Switched multimeagabit data service
d. X.25
e. All of these
37.MAN uses only a
a. Long exchange
b. Local carrier
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
38.In MAN, a network is accomplished using components
a. Hardware
b. Protocols
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
39.In MAN, a network is accomplished using basic components
a. Hardware
b. Protocols(software)
c. Applications(useful software)
d. All of the above
40.The Internet(internetworking) ha become a potent tool for
a. Education
b. Productivity

c. Enlightenment
d. All of these
41.The Government of India had set up ERNET in ______ to provide TCP/IP connections for
education and research communities in India
a. 1976
b. 1986
c. 1996
d. 1999
42.The liberalized policies encouraged many private players like
a. DISHNET
b. JAINTV
c. Mantra online
d. All of these
43.The other government organizations like _______________ to enter this field to bring the
Internet to common people
a. NIC
b. VSNL
c. MTNL
d. All of the above
e.
44.The major network infrastructure available in the country has two types of WAN
a. Terrestrial WAN
b. VSAT WAN
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
45.Following are different options for setting up the Intranet, education portal or e-
commerce, etc.
a. Leased line
b. Dial Up connection

c. VSAT
d. Radio link
e. All of the above
46. The networks can be broadly divided into three categories namely
a. LAN for a single building
b. MAN- single city
c. WAN-country, continent and planet
d. All of the above
47.The host to terminal connection is a conventional type of connection between
a. Main frame
b. Dumb terminals
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
48.TC means
a. Terminal Computer
b. Terminal Controller
c. Technical Computer
d. None of these
49.A collection of interconnected networks is known as
a. Internetwork
b. Internet
c. Network
d. None of these
e.
50.The type of packet format supported by X.25 are as follows
a. Control packet
b. Data packet
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
51.A terminal controller may be used to integrate two or more terminals for connection with

a
a. Low speed line
b. High speed line
c. Single WAN line
d. Both a & b
52.ISDN stands for
a. Integrated Service Digital Network
b. Interaction System Digital Network
c. Inexpensive System Digital Network
d. None of these
53.For LAN to LAN connection, which are mainly used
a. ISDN
b. Leased Line
c. Frame relay
d. All of these
e.
54.Which function allows selection of the appropriate route based on IP header information
and sends packets through this route
a. Forwarding function
b. Filtering function
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
55.Which function allows dumping of invalid packets for a specific network instead of
forwarding
a. Forwarding function
b. Filtering function
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
56.Routing in the same network may be termed as
a. Local routing

b. Static routing
c. Dynamic routing
d. Distributing routing
57.The routing table possessed by a router includes
a. Combination of destination address
b. Next hops that corresponds to that address
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
58.If there is a fixed route information to each router, is called
a. Fixed routing
b. Dynamic routing
c. Both a & b
d. Distributed routing
59.If routing information is automatically updated by routers when changes are made to the
network configuration are called
a.
b. Fixed routing
c. Dynamic routing
d. Both a & b
e. Distributed routing
60.The processing required to transferring a packet from the source host to the destination
host or to the relaying router are called
a. Fixed routing
b. Dynamic routing
c. Local routing
d. Distributed routing
e.
61.ARP stands for
a. Address Resolution Protocol
b. Address Routing Protocol

c. Address Routing Packet
d. Address Routing Program
62.If two or more routers are connected to the same subnet, the network administration
determines which of the routers the messages should be sent to.. to eliminate this
problem._____ are used
a. MAC messages
b. ICMP messages
c. INDP messages
d. IMCP messages
e.
63.If two or more routers are available in distributed routing, which route should be selected
a. High possible cost
b. Least possible cost
c. Link cost
d. Both b & c
64.If there is no any specific intention, the cost for a single link is usually set at ___
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
65.Multi-path routing can be achieved in
a. Distance-vector type
b. Link-state type
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
66. If there are two or more routes to reach the same destination at the same cost, which
method is applicable to determine how to select this route
a. Round robin method
b. Random selection method
c. Mixed method

d. All of these
67.The Mixed method remains _________ for the amount of processing required
a. Effective
b. Ineffective
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
68. A set of networks interconnected by routers within a specific area using the same routing
protocol is called
a. Domain
b. Backbone
c. Inter-domain router
d. All of these
69.A network composed of inter-domain router is called
a. Domain
b. Backbone
d. All of these
70.A router within a specific domain is called
a. Domain
b. Backbone
d. All of these
71.Two or more domains may be further combined to form a
a. Domain
b. Backbone
d. Higher-order domain
72.Each domain is also called
a. Operation domain
b. Backbone

c. Inter-domain
d. All of these
e.
73.Routing protocol in such an internet system can be broadly divided into two types named
a. Intra- domain routing
b. Inter- domain routing
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
74.To communication between two or more domains, which are used
a. Intra- domain routing
b. Inter- domain routing
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
75.Some Intra-domain protocols are
a. RIP(Routing Information Protocol)
b. OSPF(Open Shortest Path First)
c. IS-IS(Intermediate System to Intermediate System )
d. All of these
76.________ are the algorithms are available to update contents of routing tables
a. Distance-Vector Protocol
b. Link-State Protocol
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
77.Distance vector protocols are
a. RIP
b. IGRP(Interior Gateway Routing Protocol )
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
78.RIP stands for
a. Routing Information Protocol

b. Routing Intra Protocol
c. Route Intermediate Protocol
d. Resolution Information Protocol
79.The Link state protocol are
a. OSPF(Open Shortest Path First)
b. IS-IS(Intermediate System to Intermediate System)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
80.In link state protocol, the load on router will be
a. Small
b. Large
c. Medium
d. None of these
e.
81. For large load on router, the processing is
a. Complex
b. Simple
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
82.Which protocol are used in link state type routing protocol developed for use in large scale
network
a. OSPF(Open Shortest Path First)
b. IS-IS(Intermediate System to Intermediate System)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
83.The common part of OSPF packet format is
a. Packet type
b. Packet length
c. Router ID
d. Area ID

e. Authentication type
f. Authentication data
g. Version
h. Checksum
i. Individual information part
j. All of these
84.The router may be classified into three types named
a. Domain border router
b. Internal router
c. Area border router
d. All of these
85.OSPF is a hierarchical routing composed of
a. Intra-area routing
b. Inter-area routing
c. Inter-domain routing
d. All of these
86.The word SLIP stands for
a. Serial Line IP
b. Standard Line IP
c. Serial Link IP
d. Standard Link IP
87.The word PPP stands for
a. Point to Point Protocol
b. Packet to Packet Protocol
c. Point to Packet Protocol
d. Packet to Point Protocol
88.________ is used mainly for connection between LANs that are remotely located from one
another
a. SLIP
b. PPP

c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
89. _________ is used for connection between routers or equipment that must be highly
reliable
a. SLIP
b. PPP
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
90.The wireless LANs offers the obvious advantage of
a. Avoidance of cabling cost
b. Provide LAN capabilities in temporary quarters
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
91.The bandwidth of wireless radio LAN is
a. 24Mbps
b. 2 Mbps
c. 4 Mbps
d. 8 Mbps
92.The frequency range of wireless LAN is
a. 900 MHz bands
b. 2GHz bands
c. 5 GHz bands
d. All of these
93. A hub antennae is located at a _________ from where line-of-sight can be established
with the various terminal antennae.
a. Highest point
b. Lowest point
c. Central point
d. None of these

94.The effective throughput is more in the range of _________ per hub
a. 1 to 2 Mbps
b. 2 to 3 Mbps
c. 3 to 4 Mbps
d. 4 to 5 Mbps
95.PDA stands for
a. Personal Device Assistant
b. Pointer Description Assistant
c. Personal Digital Assistant
d. Personal Description Analog
96.USB stands for
a. University System Bus
b. Universal System Board
c. University System Board
d. University Serial Bus
97._______ are wireless network standard with a data rate of only 2Mbps
a. IEEE802.11a
b. IEEE802.11b
c. IEEE803.11a
d. IEEE803.11b
98._______ are wireless network standard with a data rate of only11Mbps
a. IEEE802.11a
b. IEEE802.11b
c. IEEE803.11a
d. IEEE803.11b
99.IEEE802.11a and IEEE802.11b have a distance limitation up to _____ from the access
point router
a. 1000feet
b. 100feet
c. 101feet

d. 110feet
100.IEEE802.11a and IEEE802.11b uses _____ band
a. 1.4GHz
b. 2.4GHz
c. 3.4GHz
d. 4.4GHz
101.________ technology allows speeds up to 54Mbps
a. IEEE802.11g
b. IEEE803.11a
c. IEEE803.11b
d. IEEE802.11a
e.
102.________ allows the movement of device with or without user
a. User mobility
b. Device portability
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
103.A user can access to the same or similar telecommunication services at different places
a. User mobility
b. Device portability
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
104.A number of mobile and wireless device are
a. Sensor
b. Mobile-phone
c. PDA
d. Embedded controller
e. Pager

f. Palmtop
g. Notebook
h. All of these
i.
105.The availability of _________ made the wireless communication popular among the
masses.
a. Low cost microprocessor
b. Digital switching
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
106.Cellular radio has another popular names as
a. Cellular mobile
b. Cellular phone
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
107.Radio is basically a device, which has
a. Receiver
b. Transmitter
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
108.Wireless communication can be carried out
a. Use of radio
b. Without using radio
c. Both a & b
d. Without use of video
109.The term radio may be defined as consisting of ______________ of the signal
a. Modulation
b. Radiation
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

e.
110.A transmitter and an antenna are used to ____________ the modulated signal within
radio spectrum
a. Modulate
b. Radiate
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
111.In telephone system as we know that a voice with bandwidth of approximately ____
modulates the current of a telephone line
a. 2kHz
b. 3 kHz
c. 4 kHz
d. 5 kHz
112.Wireless ca be defined as the ____________________ by means of high frequency

electrical waves without a connecting wire
a. Radio transmission
b. Reception of signals
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
113.The frequency of a cell may be ________ after the interference zone
a. Reused
b. Used
c. Not be used
d. Not be reused
114.PSTN stands for
a. Public Switched Transport Network
b. Public System Transport Network
c. Public System Transfer Network
d. Public Switched Telephone Network

115.The radii of a cell may vary from ___________ in a building to a city
a. One of meters to tens of kilometers
b. Tens of meters to tens of kilometers
c. Hundreds of meters to tens of kilometers
d. Hundreds of meters to hundreds of kilometers
116.The shape of cell mat not be a ___________ and depends up on the environment
a. Hexagon
b. Circle
c. Pentagon
d. Both a & b
117.SDM stands for
a. System Division Multiple
b. System Division Multiplexing
c. Space Division Multiplexing
d. System Double Multiplexing
118.Frequencies for communication may vary from very high frequency to ________
a. Medium range
b. Microwave range
c. Digital range
d. None of these
e.
119.The signal may be analog or digital with _______
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase modulation
d. All of these
120.The multiplexing and access techniques are
a. SDM(Space Division Multiplexing)
b. FDM(Frequency Division Multiplexing)
c. TDM(Time Division Multiplexing)

d. CDM(Code Division Multiplexing)
e. All of these
121.The advantages of mobile communication may be looked into
a. Higher capacity
b. Higher number of users
c. Less transmission power needed
d. More robust
e. Decentralized base station deals with interference
f. Transmission area
g. All of these
122.The disadvantages of mobile communication are
a. Fixed network needed for the base stations
b. Handover(changing from one cell to another) necessary
c. Interference with other cells such as co-channel, adjacent-channel
d. All of these
123.The important issues on wireless communication are
a. Cell sizing
b. Frequency reuse planning
c. Channel allocation strategies
d. All of these
124.In the beginning around 1980, analog cellular telephone systems were developing in
___________
a. USA
b. UK
c. Europe
d. Japan
125.The proposed system was expected to meet certain as mentioned as
a. Good subjective speech quality
b. Low terminal and service cost
c. Support for international terminals

d. Spectral efficiency
e. ISDN compatibility
f. All of these
126.ETSI stands for
a. European Telecommunication Standards Institute
b. European Telephone Standards Institute
c. European Telecommunication Systems Institute
d. European Telecom Standards Institute
127.GSM(Global System for Mobile Communication) is a _______ digital mobile telephones

standard using a combination Time Division Multiple Access(TDMA) and
FDMA(Frequency Division Multiple Access)
a. First generation
b. Second generation
c. Third generation
d. None of these
e.
128.GSM provides only _______ data connection
a. 8.6kbps
b. 9.6kbps
c. 7.6kbps
d. 8.8kbps
129.The uplink and downlink frequencies for GSM are different and therefore a channel has
a pair of frequencies _______ apart
a. 70MHz
b. 80MHz
c. 90MHz
d. 60MHz
130.The separation between uplink and downlink frequencies are called
a. Duplex distance
b. Double distance

c. Triplex distance
d. None of these
131.In a channel the separation between adjacent carrier frequencies is known as channel
separation which is _______ in case of GSM
a. 100kHz
b. 200 kHz
c. 300 kHz
d. 400 kHz
132.The services supported by GSM are
a. Telephony
b. Fax and SMS
c. Call forwarding
d. Caller ID
e. Call waiting
f. All of these
133.GSM supports data at rates up to 9.6kbps on
a. POTS(Plain Old Telephone Service)
b. ISDN
c. Packet Switched Public Data Networks
d. Circuit Switched Public Data Networks
e. All of these
134.The access methods and protocols for GSM may be from
a. X.25
b. X.32
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
135.There are basic types of services offered through GSM are
a. Telephony or teleservices
b. Data or bearer services
c. Supplementary services

d. All of these
136.The supplementary services are used to enhance the features of
a. Bearer
b. Teleservices
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
137.Dual tone signals are used for various control purposes via the
a. Telephone network
b. Different from dual pulses
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
138.SMS(Short Message Service) is a message consisting of a maximum of ______

alphanumeric characters
a. 150
b. 160
c. 170
d. 180
139.GSM supports ______ Group 3 facsimile
a. CCIIT
b. CCITT
c. CCCIT
d. CCTTI
140.Call forwarding is a ________________
a. Telephony or teleservices
b. Data or bearer services
c. Supplementary services
d. All of these
141.The other services of call forwarding are
a. Cell broadcast, voice mail, fax mail

b. Barring of outgoing and incoming calls conditionally
c. Call hold, call waiting, conferencing
d. Closed user groups
e. All of these
142.GSM consists of many subsystems, such as the
a. Mobile station(MS)
b. Base station subsystem(BSS)
c. Network and Switching subsystem(NSS)
d. Operation subsystem(OSS)
e. All of these
143.Which forms a radio subsystem
a. Mobile station
b. Base station subsystem
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
144.The generic GSM network architecture which is composed of three subsystem

are__________
a. Radio subsystem (RSS)
b. Network and switching subsystem
c. Operation subsystem
d. All of these
145.The RSS is basically consisting of radio specific equipment such as ____________ to

control the radio link
a. Mobile station(MS)
b. Base station subsystem(BSS)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
146.The chief components of RSS are
a. BSS
b. Cellular layout

c. Base station controller(BSC)
d. All of these
147.SIM stands for
a. System Identity Module
b. Subscriber Identity Module
c. Subscriber Identity Modem
d. Subscriber Input Modem
148.MS contains a SIM card in the form of a very _______ inside the equipment
a. Large chip
b. Small chip
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
149.Cell site is defined as the location where _______________ are placed
a. Base station
b. Antennas
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
150.Cells are the basic constituents of a cellular layouts with ________
a. Cell sites
b. Cell systems
c. Cell forwarding
d. None of these
151.A cell is simply represented by simple ____________
a. Pentagon
b. Hexagon
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
152.The size of cells in case of GSM and Personal Communication Service(PCS) are much

smaller in the range of _______
a. 5Kms
b. 10Kms
c. 15Kms
d. 20Kms
153.The portions covered by the antenna are called
a. Portions
b. Sectors
c. Cell sector
d. None of these
154.The BTS or Base Transceiver Station is also called
a. RBS
b. PCS
c. GSM
d. SIM
155.BTS are housed with all radio equipments such as
a. Antennas
b. Signal processors
c. Amplifiers
d. All of these
e.
156.Base station may also be placed near center of cell and known as
a. Excited cell
b. Center excited cell
c. Center cell
d. None of these
157.The actual cell is the _____ hexagon, with the towers at the corners
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Red and blue

d. None of these
158.Antenna always transmits inward to each cell and area served depends on
a. Topography
b. Population
c. Traffic
d. All of these
159.Network and switching subsystem is composed of the ________________
a. Mobile Services Switching Center(MSC)
b. Home Location Register(HLR)
c. Visitor Location Register(VLR)
d. All of these
160.The mobile stations(MS) communicates only via the
a. BTS
b. BSS
c. BSC
d. Um
161.A BTS is connected to a mobile station via the
a. BTS
b. BSS
c. Abis interface with BSC
d. Um interface
e. Both c & d
162.The Um interface basically consists of _________ for wireless transmission
a. FDMA
b. TDMA
c. CDMA
d. All of these
163.The FDMA involves the division up to the maximum of _______

bandwidth into 124 carrier frequencies spaced 200 kHz apart

a. 25MHz
b. 35MHz
c. 24MHz
d. 20MHz
164.The FDMA channel are further divided in time with a burst period of approximately
_______ using a TDMA technique
a. 0.277ms
b. 0.377ms
c. 0.477ms
d. 0.577ms
165.The eight burst period are grouped into a TDMA frame which forms the basic unit for
definition of
a. Physical channel
b. Logical channel
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
166. One _______ is one burst period per TDMA frame
a. Physical channel
b. Logical channel
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
167.The more channel increases the
a. GSM
b. No of base station
c. No of mobile station
d. Transmitter power
168.The more channel decreases the
a. GSM
b. No of base station
c. No of mobile station

d. Transmitter power
169.The other popular name for MSC(Mobile Switching Center ) is
a. BS(Base Station)
b. MS(Mobile Switch)
c. MTSO(Mobile Telecommunication Switching Office)
d. Both b & c
170.MSC is connected to a ____________ at one end
a. Mobile station
b. Base station
c. Transmitter station
d. None of these
171.MSC is connected to a ____________ at other end
a. MSCs
b. PSTN
c. ISDN
d. None of these
172.MSCs acts as a __________
a. Switching
b. Local Switching exchange
c. Remote Switching exchange
d. None of these
173.The MSC also provides all the functionality such as
a. Registration
b. Handover
c. Authentication
d. Location updating
e. Call routing to a roaming subscriber
f. All of these
174.The MSC provided to establish link with other fixed networks termed as
a. Local MSC

b. Router MSC
c. Gateway MSC
d. Remote MSC
175.The main task of MSC are entrusted upon as
a. Interworking function(IWF)
b. Mobility management operations
c. Data service unit(DSU)
d. SS7
e. All of these
176.Name the two chief databases
a. Home location register(HLR)
b. Visitor location register(VLR)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
177. Which has its main task as associated with MSC
a. Home location register
b. Visitor location register
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
178.IMEI stands for
a. International mobile equipment identity
b. International mobile equipment information
c. Interworking mobile equipment information
d. Interworking management equipment information
179.Subscribers all administrative information along with the current location in GSM
network including in database of HLR are
a. IMEI number
b. Directory number
c. Current city

d. Last visited area
e. The class of service subscriber
f. All of these
180.HLR keeps the ____________ of each mobile that belongs to the MSC to which it is
interacting
a. Last location
b. First location
c. Current location
d. None of these
181.HLR performs the functions such as _____________ to subscribers at their current

locations by using user profile information
a. Delivery of calls
b. Information and messages
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
182.HLR maintains user information in the form of
a. Static information
b. Dynamic information
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
183.The static information is the
a. International Mobile Subscriber Identity
b. Service subscription information authentication key
c. Account status
d. All of these
184.The dynamic information is the _________ area of the mobile subscriber which is the
identity of the currently serving VLR
a. Last location
b. First location
c. Current location

d. None of these
185.The HLR handles SS7 transactions with both
a. MSCs
b. VLR nodes
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
186.VLR main tasks are association with
a. MSC
b. IMSI
c. TMSI
d. Roaming
e. All of these
187.In nutshell we can say that both the ___________work together to provide local
connections as well as roaming outside the local service area
a. HLR
b. VLR
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
188.The operations and Maintenance Center oversees the all important for__________
a. Proper operation
b. Setup of the network
c. Provides Telecommunication Management Network(TMN)
d. All of these
189.Operation Subsystem also provides interface NSS via O-Interface that may be
__________
a. X.25 interface
b. X.32 interface
c. X.23 interface

d. None of these
e.
190.Authentications Center(AuC) is used for
a. Authentication
b. Security by generating authentication algorithms
c. Cryptographic codes
d. All of these
191.AuC is responsible for maintaining all data needed to authenticate a call and to encrypt
__________________
a. Voice traffic
b. Signaling messages
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
192.EIR stands for
a. Equipment Identification Register
b. Equipment Identification Remote
c. Equipment Information Remote
d. Equipment Information Register
193.EIR fulfills the ______________ requirement of GSM
a. Security
b. Authentication
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
194.SIM card has a secret key for ________________ over the radio channel
a. Authentication
b. Encryption
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
195.GSM network checks the __________________ of a mobile device through EIR database

a. Type
b. Serial number
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
196.EIR maintains a database of ______________
a. Manufacturing devices
b. Malfunctioning devices
c. Functioning devices
d. None of these
197.Um is the link between a
a. Mobile station
b. Base station
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
198.GSM 900 operates on a frequency range of _________ for uplink
a. 890-910MHz
b. 890-915MHz.
c. 890-901MHz
d. 890-911MHz
e.
199.GSM 900 operates on a frequency range of _________ for downlink
a. 935-960MHz
b. 940-970MHz
c. 945-950MHz
d. 925-960MHz
200.FDM is used to ___________ the available frequency band in GSM
a. Addition
b. Divide

c. Both a & b
d. None of these
201.The GSM has many burst types such as
a. Normal burst
b. Access burst
c. Synchronization burst
d. Frequency correction burst
e. Dummy burst
f. All of these
202. The normal burst period lasts
a. Approximately 577ms or 15/26ms
b. Approximately 572ms
c. Approximately 567ms
d. Approximately 578ms
203.Which is provided to avoid overlap with other burst
a. Frequency space
b. Guard space
c. Information space
d. Bandwidth space
204.Which is a dedicated time slots within a data or bit stream which repeats after a certain
period of time
a. Frequency
b. Amplitude
c. Channel
d. Normal burst
205.The channel can be further divided into
a. Dedicated channel
b. Common channel
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

206.Both the dedicated and common channel are allocated to a
a. Base station
b. Mobile station
c. Mobile switch
d. All of these
e.
207.When a slot repeated every 4.615ms constitute a _______ channel which can be split
into several logical channel
a. Logical
b. Physical
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
208. TDMA is used to split carrier frequency of 200kHz into_______ time slots
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 24
209.GSM 900 has _____ physical full duplex channels
a. 125
b. 124
c. 248
d. 247
210.GSM 900 has _____ physical half duplex channels
a. 125
b. 124
c. 248
d. 247
211.Time slot is also known as
a. Logical channel
b. Physical channel

c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
212.A Traffic Channel(TCH) is defined for speech and data at a rates of
a. 9.6kb/s
b. 4.8kb/s
c. 2.4kb/s
d. All of these
e.
213.The length of 24 TDMA frames are kept
a. 120ms
b. 130ms
c. 150ms
d. 160ms
214. How many frames are included for traffic in 26TDMA frames
a. 1
b. 24
c. 25
d. 16
215.How many frames are included for Slow Associated Control Channel(SACCH) in
26TDMA frames
a. 1
b. 24
c. 25
d. 16
216.How many frames are included for currently unused in 26TDMA frames
a. 1
b. 24
c. 25
d. 16

217.Which are basically used to control the logical channels
a. CCHs
b. TCH
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
218.Depending upon the task performed by the Control Channels(CCHs),they are categorized
in
a. Broadcast Control Channels(BCCH)
b. Common Control Channels(CCCH)
c. Dedicated Control Channels(DCCH)
d. All of these
219.The different control channel are accessed by
a. Idle mode
b. Dedicated mode mobile
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
220.Which is a unidirectional downlink point to multi-point signaling channel from BTS to

MS
a. BCCH
b. CCCH
c. DCCH
d. All of these
221.Which is bi-directional point to multi-point signaling channel that exchanges the

signaling information for network access management and transport information
regarding connection setup between MS and BTS
a.
b. BCCH
c. CCCH
d. DCCH
e. All of these

f.
222.Which is bidirectional and are multiplexed on a standard channel for registration,

location updating and authentication in order to set up a call or TCH
a. BCCH
b. CCCH
c. DCCH
d. All of these
223.GSM specifies a multiplexing scheme to integrate several frames where a periodic

pattern of 26 slots occurs in all TDM frames with a TCH , the combination of these frames
are called
a. Multiframe
b. Traffic-multiframe
c. Multiprogramming
d. None of these
224.Out of 26 frames, 24 are used for traffic, one is used for the __________ and one is
currently unused
a. SACCH(Slow Associated Control Channel)
b. FACCH(Fast Associated Control Channel)
c. BCCH
d. CCCH
225.GSM is already mentioned that the duration of one TDMA frame is
a. 4.516ms
b. 4.615ms
c. 4.156ms
d. 4.165ms
226.Control multiframe comprises of 51 TDMA frame with a duration of ________
a. 234.5ms
b. 233.5ms
c. 235.4ms
d. 235.3ms
227.2048 superframes constitute a ________

a. hyperframe
b. lowerframe
c. strongerframe
d. none of these
228.GSM has three functional layers
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Layer three in correspondence with OSI model
d. All of these
229.In OSI model, the lower three layers usually terminate in the ______ but it is not true in
case of GSM
a. Another node
b. Same node
c. Two nodes
d. None of these
230.In protocols, the RR part of layer three is spread over the
a. MS
b. BTS
c. BSC
d. MSC
e. All of these
231.Physical layer is the ___________ which provides transfer of bit streams over the
physical radio links through Um interface
a. Lowest layer
b. Highest layer
c. First layer
d. None of these
232.Physical layer handles all radio specific functions such as ________________
a. Creation of bursts

b. Multiplexing of bursts into TDMA frame
c. Synchronization with BTS
d. Channel coding, error detection and correction
e. Quality control on the downlink
f. All of these
233.The digital modulation and security related issues such as encryption of digital data are
carried over the radio interface between ____________
a. MS
b. BTS
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
234.The communication on Abis interface between _____ and BSC is established by using the
standard LAPD
a. MS
b. BTS
c. MTS
d. None of these
235.A reliable data link service is provided between _________ through Message Transfer
Part of SS7
a. BSC
b. MSC
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
236.The layer three chiefly comprises of _____________
a. RR(radio resource management)
b. MM(Mobility management)
c. CM(call control management)
d. All of these

237.What are the functions of mobility management
a. Location update
b. Authentication
c. Temporary Mobile Subscriber Identity
d. Reallocation
e. All of these
f.
238.CM performs
a. Establishment
b. Maintenance
c. Termination of a circuit-switched call
d. All of these
e.
239.CM performs other supporting
a. Supplementary service(SS)
b. Short Message Service(SMS)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
240.The radio resource management sublayer terminates at the
a. BSC
b. BSS
c. MSC
d. MTS
241.The radio resource management is used to establish physical connections over the call-
related signaling and traffic channels between the ______________
a. BSC
b. BSS
c. MS
d. Both b & c
242.The RR layer is the part of RR layer is implemented in the BTS to provide functions

between the ___________
a. BTS
b. BSC
c. MSC
d. Both a & b
243.The __________ is also responsibility of the layers
a. Handover
b. Handoff
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
244.Which uses signal strength measurements and cell congestion information to determine
when a handoff should occur
a. MSC
b. BSS
c. BSC
d. Both a & b
245.Handoff notifications are sent to respective ____ which in turn forward them to HLRs
a. VLRs
b. VLCs
c. VCDs
d. LCDs
246.The mobility management sublayer on the _____ of the RR is terminated at the MSC
a. Low
b. Top
c. Center
d. First
247.MM is used to
a. Establish
b. Maintain
c. Release connections between the MS a

d. The network MSC
e. All of these
248. The Communication Management protocol controls __________ call establishment
a. first-to-end
b. end-to-end
c. end-to-first
d. first-to-first
249.CM protocols are used in GSM network, these are
a. Transaction Capabilities Application Part(TCAP) protocol
b. Mobile Application Part(MAP) protocol
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
250.MAP is used between _________in the form of query and response messages
a. MSC
b. VLR
c. HLR
d. AuC
e. All of these
251.____________ Together with the MSC. Provide the call routing and roaming capabilities
of GSM where a subscriber can roam nationally and even internationally
a. HLR
b. VLR
c. CLR
d. Both a & b
252.MSISDN stands for
a. Mobile Subscriber ISDN Number
b. Mobile Station ISDN Number
c. Mobile Switching ISDN Number
d. Mobile Standard ISDN Number
253.Which number caller used to reach a mobile subscriber

a. MSISDN number
b. IMSI number
c. TMSI number
d. MSRN
254.MSISDN number consists of
a. Country code(such as 91 for India)
b. National subscriber destination code
c. Subscriber number
d. All of these
255.Which number of MSISDN is the address of the GSM provider
a. Country code(such as 91 for India)
b. National subscriber destination code
c. Subscriber number
d. All of these
256.Which is a unique identification number allocated to each mobile subscriber
a. MSISDN Number
b. IMSI Number
c. TMSI Number
d. MSRN
257.It sits inside SIM card, which can be carried out anywhere and can be used in any MS
a. MSISDN Number
b. IMSI Number
c. TMSI Number
d. MSRN
258.The IMSI number consists of
a. MCC(Mobile Country Code consisting of three digits)
b. MNC(Mobile Network Code consisting of two digits)
c. MSIN(Mobile Subscriber Identity Number consisting of ten digits)
d. All of these
259.Which is used in the place of the IMSI for the definite identification and addressing of

the mobile station
a. MSISDN Number
b. IMSI Number
c. TMSI Number
d. MSRN
260.In TMSI nobody can determine the identity of the subscriber by listening to the
__________
a. Video channel
b. Radio channel
c. Audio channel
d. None of these
e.
261.GSM used the _______ byte TMSI for local subscriber identification
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
262.Which is a temporary location-dependent ISDN number assigned by the locally

responsible VLR to each mobile station in its area
a. MSISDN Number
b. IMSI Number
c. TMSI Number
d. MSRN
263.The MSRN consists of
a. VCC(Visitor country code)
b. VNDC(Visitor national destination code)
c. The identification of the current MSC along with the subscriber number(SN)
d. All of these
264.GSM call may be classified into two types namely
a. MTC(Mobile Terminated Call)

b. MOC(Mobile Originated Call)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
265.___________ becomes necessary when mobile moves from area of one BSC into another
area of the same or into another BSC
a. Handoff
b. Handover
c. Haddon
d. Handwork
266.Handover involves a number of procedures depending upon the location are
a. Intra-cell handover
b. Inter-cell, intra-BSC handover
c. Inter-BSC, intra-MSC handover
d. Inter MSC handover
e. All of these
267.Which involve the transfer of connections from one channel to another channel on the
same BTS
268.Which involve the transfer of the connection from one BTS to another BTS on the same
BSC
269.The connections is transferred between BTS belonging to two different BSCs within one
MSC is called

270.Which involve the transfer of a connection to a BTS between two cells within another
MSC
271.A collection of interconnected networks is known as
a. Internet
b. Internetwork
c. Network
d. Internetworking
272.The process of interconnecting different network is called
a. Internet
b. Internetwork
c. Network
d. Internetworking
273.The internetworking protocol is known as
a. SMTP
b. PPP
c. TCP/IP
d. NNTP
274.The Network element that connects individual network is known as
a. Gateway
b. Router
c. TCP/IP
d. Both a & b
275.If single computer network is divided into segments and router are added between them
it forms an

a. Internet
b. Internetwork
c. Network
d. Internetworking
276.Which was used as original term for an internetwork which meant a method for
connecting networks with disparate technologies
a. Catenet
b. Bridge
c. PANs
d. Novell netware
277. The computer network are of different typessome are
a. PANs(Personal Area Networks)
b. Novell Netware
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
278.The word Internet and internet are
a. Different
b. Same
c. Dependent on each other
d. None of these
279.Which signifies the specific network model
a. internet
b. Internet
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
280.Which means generic interconnection of networks
a. internet
b. Internet
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

e.
281.Which protocol provides a reliable data transfer
a. TCP
b. UDP
c. IP
d. Both a & b
282.Which protocol provides a unreliable data transfer
a. TCP
b. UDP
c. IP
d. Both a & b
283.Every computer has a unique address called
a. IP
b. UDP
c. TCP
d. None of these
284.The IP address lies between
a. 0 to 245
b. 0 to 254
c. 0 to 255
d. 0 to 265
e.
285.DHCP stands for
a. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
b. Digital Host Communication Provider
c. Digital Host Communication Protocol
d. Dynamic Host Configuration Provider
286.__________ is used for every computer needs one protocol stack for communicating on
the Internet
a. Protocol stack

b. Protocol
c. Transmission protocol
d. None of these
287.Which protocol layer uses the protocols are WWW, HTTP, FTP, SMTP, e-mail etc
a. Application Layer Protocol
b. Transport Layer Protocol
c. Internet Layer Protocol
d. Hardware Layer
288.Which protocol uses TCP routes to an application on a computer by use of a port number
d. Hardware Layer
289.Which protocol moves IP packets to a specific computer by use of an IP address
d. Hardware Layer
290.Which contains network interface cards, modems for phones or wireless lines for
converting binary packet data to network signals and vice versa
d. Hardware Layer
291.Hardware layer handle raw
a. Bytes of data
b. Bits of data
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
292.Where is the TCP layer is situated in the application layer in the protocol stack

a. Below
b. Top
c. Center
d. None of these
293.TCP uses port number to route correct application on the ___________
a. Source computer
b. Destination computer
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
294.TCP is __________ in nature
a. Textual
b. Not textual
c. None of these
d.
295.TCP also contains a ___ checksum
a. 16bit
b. 16byte
c. 32bit
d. 32byte
296.What is the port number of the HTTP
a. 80
b. 25
c. 23
d. 20/21
297.What is the port number of the SMTP
a. 25
b. 23
c. 20/21
d. 27960
298.What is the port number of the Telnet

a. 25
b. 23
c. 20/21
d. 27960
299.What is the port number of the FTP
a. 25
b. 23
c. 20/21
d. 27960
300.What is the port number of the Quake III Arena
a. 25
b. 23
c. 20/21
d. 27960
301.TCP is ______________
a. Connection-oriented
b. Reliable
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
302.IP is ___________
a. Connectionless
b. Unreliable
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
303.IP does not ensure movement of a packet to its destination and have no knowledge of
__________
a. Port numbers
b. Connections

c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
304.IP packets ________ arrive in the order in which it is sent
a. May
b. May not
c. May or may not
d. None of these
e.
305.SMDS stands for
a. Switched Multiple Data Services
b. Switched Multimegabit Data Services
c. Switched Multiple Double Services
d. Switched Multiple Data Subscriber
306.SMDS is a packet switched, high speed, connectionless public data service that extends
a. Local Area Network
b. Metropolitan Area Network
c. Wide Area Network
d. All of these
307.In SMDS, the service follows
a. IEEE 802.6 DQDB(Distributed Queue Dual Bus)
b. IEEE 802.5 DQDB(Distributed Queue Dual Bus)
c. IEEE 802.4 DQDB(Distributed Queue Dual Bus)
d. IEEE 803.6 DQDB(Distributed Queue Dual Bus)
308.The SMDS is defined for MAN under_______ standard
a. IEEE 802.5
b. IEEE 802.4
c. IEEE 802.6
d. IEEE 802.2
309.SMDS is capable of variety of technologies including

a. DQDB(Distributed Queue Dual Bus)
b. Broadband ISDN(B-ISDN)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
310.North American implementation uses DQDB with DS1 at a data rate of
a. 1.5Mbit/s
b. 45Mbits/s
c. 1.6Mbit/s
d. 46Mbit/s
e.
311.North American implementation uses DQDB with DS3 at a data rate of
a. 1.5Mbit/s
b. 45Mbits/s
c. 1.6Mbit/s
d. 46Mbit/s
312.SMDS network also planned to link B-ISDN and SONET OC3 with a data rate of
a. 1.5Mbit/s
b. 45Mbits/s
c. 155Mbit/s
d. 1.9Mbit/s
313.SMDS is a
a. Data service
b. Telephone service
c. Frame service
d. Video service
314.SMDS is a
a. Technology
b. Protocol
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

e.
315.The word CPE means
a. Customer Premises Equipment
b. Computer Premises Equipment
c. Customer Packet Equipment
d. Customer Protocol Equipment
316.The SMDS is designed to handle
a. Continuous traffic
b. Finite traffic
c. Bursty traffic
d. All of these
317.The telephone service is designed to handle
a. Continuous traffic
b. Finite traffic
c. Bursty traffic
d. All of these
318.In SMDS , the telephone number consists of
a. Country code
b. Area code
c. Subscriber code
d. All of these
319.The SMDS can serve
a. Only area
b. Only nationally
c. Internationally
d. None of these
e.
320.Address of source and destination in SMDS both consists of 4 bit code followed by a
telephone no of max.
a. 12 decimal digits

b. 16 decimal digits
c. 15 decimal digits
d. 20 decimal digits
e.
321.The SMDS is similar to which transfer mode
a. Synchronous transfer mode
b. Asynchronous transfer mode
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
322.SMDS make use of cell relay with _______ per cell
a. 53 octets
b. 56 octets
c. 58 octets
d. 55 octets
e.
323.The data unit of SMDS can encapsulate frames of
a. IEEE802.3
b. IEEE802.5
c. FDDI
d. All of these
324.SMDS make use of
a. Copper
b. Fiber media
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
325.In SMDS, with a tick every 10msec user can send_________ on the average
a. 100,000 bytes/sec
b. 10,000 bytes/sec
c. 100,0000 bytes/sec
d. 100,000,00 bytes/sec

326.Which means the network can expand with minimal investment
a. SNMP
b. Scalability
c. Screening
d. Simple
e.
327. Which is a network protocol that is based on UDP and is a component of the component
of the Internet Protocol Suite, defined by IETF(Internet Engineering Task Force)
a. SNMP
b. Scalability
c. Screening
d. Multicasting
e.
328.The user can have access to high speed lines ______ connected to MAN
a. 32Mbits/s
b. 33Mbits/s
c. 34Mbits/s
d. 35Mbits/s
329.The user can having access capacity of ______ connected to MAN
a. 151Mbits/s
b. 152Mbits/s
c. 154Mbits/s
d. 155Mbits/s
330.The backbones of MAN has working data rate of ________
a. 139Mbits/s
b. 140Mbits/s
c. 155Mbits/s
d. 134Mbits/s
331.User is charged for maximum rate of __________ bandwidth
a. 34Mbits/s

b. 4Mbits/s
c. 10Mbits/s
d. 16Mbits/s
e. 25Mbits/s
f. Except (a) all are answers
332.SMDS was primarily used for connecting
a. LAN
b. MAN
c. WAN
d. PAN
333.In SMDS, MAN interconnect
a. Ethernet
b. Token ring networks
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
334.SMDS networks have many underlying devices for supporting high-speed service are
a. Subscriber network interface(SNI)
b. Carrier equipment
c. Customer Premises Equipment (CPE)
d. All of these
335.CPE may be devices such as
a. PCs(Personal computers)
b. Intermediate nodes
c. Terminals
d. All of these
e.
336.Which are intermediate nodes provided by SMDS carrier
a. Multiplexers
b. Modems
c. Routers

d. All of these
337.PDUs contain
a. Source address
b. Destination address
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
338. Addressing in SMDS has provision for
a. Group addressing
b. Security features
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
339.In SMDS, there are two useful security features, namely
a. Source address validation
b. Address screening
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
340.CCITT stands for
a. Consultative Committee International for Telegraphy and Telephony
b. International Consultative Committee for Telegraphy and Telephony
c. International Consultative Committee for Telephony and Telegraphy
d. Consultative Committee International for Telephony and Telegraphy
341.X.25, it was developed for computer connections used for
a. Timesharing connection
b. Terminal connection
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
342.X.25 provides a virtual high-quality digital network at
a. Low cost
b. High cost
c. Medium cost

d. All of these
343.Which is another useful characteristics of X.25
a. Speed
b. Matching
c. Speed matching
d. None of these
344.In X.25 DTEs are not required to use the same line speed because of the
a. Store
b. Forward nature of packet switching
c. Excellent flow control
d. All of these
345. In X.25, A host connected at 56kbps and communicating with numerous remote sites
can be linked with cheaper______ lines
a. 18.2kbps
b. 19.2kbps
c. 20.2kbps
d. 22.2kbps
346.In X.25 defines the protocols from
a. Layer 2 to Layer 3
b. Layer 1 to Layer 2
c. Layer 1 to Layer 3
d. Layer 3 to Layer 2
347.Based on X.25 rules, how many logical channel can be set on a single physical line
a. 256
b. 16
c. 4096
d. 2556
e.
348.To enable control of 4096 logical channels in X.25, there are ____ channel groups
a. 256

b. 16
c. 4096
d. 2556
349.Each logical channel group is divided into ____ logical channels
a. 256
b. 16
c. 4096
d. 2556
350.The channel grouping in X.25 are known as
a. Logical channel group number(LCGN)
b. Logical channel number(LCN)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
351.X.25 is a
a. Protocol
b. Data service
c. Telephone service
d. Technology
352.X.25 protocol was recommended by CCITT in
a. 1975
b. 1976
c. 1977
d. 1978
353.X.25 protocol exchanged the data control information between
a. A node
b. A user device
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
354.The user device and node are properly referred to as
a. DTE

b. DCE
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
355.A terminal of 1.2kbit/s can communicate with host computer at _______ through the
packet switched network
a. 9600bits/s
b. 8600bits/s
c. 7600bits/s
d. 6600bits/s
356.The transmission speed of sender should be ___________ as that of receiver in the X.25
a. Same
b. Different
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
357.X.25 make use of _______ service
a. Connectionless
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
358.PAD stands for
a. Packet Assembly and Disassembly
b. Procedure Assembly and Disassembly
c. Permanent Assembly and Disassembly
d. Package Assembly and Disassembly
359.X.25 supports two types of packet format named
a. Control packet
b. Data packet
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.

360.A X.25 packet make up the ______ of an HDLC frame
a. Frame field
b. Data field
c. Information field
d. Both b and c are same
361.Maximum packet sizes in X.25 vary from
a. 64bytes to 128bytes
b. 64bytes to 4096 bytes
c. 64bytes to 256bytes
d. 32bytes to 64bytes
362.A X.25 protocol use
a. Store and forward method
b. Stop and wait method
c. Store and stop method
d. None of these
363.The advantage of X.25 are
a. Was developed to recover errors
b. Packet switching eases compatibility problems in communications between PCs
c. Packet switching cannot waste bandwidth
d. All of these
364.Frame relay constitutes of the OSI _____ layer
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
365.Logical channels are identified by a number referred by
a. DLCI(Data Link Connection Identifier)
b. VLCI(Very Large Connection Identifier)
c. HDLC(High Level Data Link Control )
d. QLLC

366.DLCI can have a value between
a. 0 and 1025
b. 0 and 125
c. 0 and 256
d. 0 and 1023
e.
367.The device which splits data into frames as well as combines frames into data is referred
as
a. FRAD(Frame relay and Disassembly)
b. FDLC
c. HDLC
d. DLCI
368.Frame relay indicates network congestion using two flags namely ________ bits in data
frames
a. Forward Explicit Congestion Notification(FECN)
b. Backward Explicit Congestion Notification(BECN)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
369.Cell relay is data transmission services that uses transmission technology referred to as
a. ATM(Asynchronous Transfer Mode)
b. BTM
c. STM
d. DTM
370.The data transmission is a fixed length of data known as
a. Cell
b. Frame
c. Relay
d. Cell relay
371.Advantages of cell relay are
a. High-speed transmission

b. Multiplexing transmission
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
372.Disadvantages of cell relay are
a. Cell discarding occurs with congestion
b. High cost
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
373.The cell relay protocol corresponds to first ____ layer of OSI
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
374.The part that corresponds to second layer, that is, data link layer is referred to as
a. DLC layer
b. ATM layer
c. STM layer
d. Protocol layer
375.In cell relay these logical channels are represented as
a. Virtual Channels(VCs)
b. Virtual Paths(VPs)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
376.A VC is a virtual channel composed of
a. Frames
b. Cells
c. Relay
d. Protocol
377.VP is a bundle of
a. VCs

b. VCM
c. VCI
d. VIP
378.Identifiers are called ___________________ are used to identify VPS and VCs
a. VCIs
b. VIPs
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
379.In cell relay communication performed between
a. Two VP
b. Two VC
c. VP and VC
d. VP and VCI
380.ATM is an
a. International Telecommunication
b. International Telecommunication-Union
c. International Telecommunication Union-Telecommunication Standardization

Sector(ITU-T)
d. International Telecommunication Union-Telecommunication
381.ATM networks are
a. Connectionless
b. Interconnected
c. Connection oriented
d. None of these
382.In today ATM, separate networks are used to carry _________ information mostly
a. Voice
b. Video
c. Data
d. All of these
383.Data traffic in ATM tend to be

a. Continuous
b. Bursty
c. Discontinuous
d. None of these
384.ATM cell has a fixed length of __________
a. 52bytes
b. 53bytes
c. 54bytes
d. 55bytes
385.Which is a portion carries the actual information
a. Payload(48bytes)
b. Payment
c. Payroll
d. None of these
386.The purpose of ATM is to provide
a. High speed
b. Low-delay multiplexing
c. Switching networks
d. All of these
387.ATM is specifically designed as ________ technology for voice, video, and data
a. Single
b. Double
c. Multiple
d. None of these
388.ATM can support
a. Different speeds
b. Traffic types
c. Quality of service attached to applications
d. All of these
389.ATM cells coming from a user are guaranteed delivery at the other end with a

a. High probability
b. Low delay
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
390.The characteristics of ATM are as follows
a. The transport speeds of most ATM applications are most often 155Mbps and
622Mbps
b. ATM is a flexible service made possible by the size of the packets (cells).
c. The small cell size allows a variety of applications to run on ATM networks
including voice, video and data
d. All of these
391.Narrow band ISDN provides for the following services
a. Circuit-switched voice
b. Circuit-switched data
c. Low-speed packet
d. High-speed packet
e. All of these
392.The cell relay is considered to be the __________ of the future
a. Transmission service
b. Transport service
c. Transfer service
d. None of these
393.ISDN is a group of __________ standards relating to digital transmission across

conventional copper wire telephone lines, as also other media
a. CCITT
b. ITU
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
394.Narrow band ISDN is a digital service where the transport speeds are ______ (T1) or less
a. 1.533Mbps

b. 1.544Mbps
c. 1.555Mbps
d. 1.552Mbps
395.The range of speeds for the broadband ISDN services usually range from ______ to the
Gigabit range
a. 24Mbs
b. 25Mbs
c. 26Mbs
d. 27Mbs
396.BRA stands for
a. Basic Rate Access
b. Basic Random Assembly
c. Bit Rate Assembly
d. Bursty Rate Assembly
e.
397.BRA affords an ISDN user with simultaneous access to two _____ data channels
a. 32kbps
b. 64kbps
c. 128kbps
d. 256kbps
398.The ISDN Internetworking Equipment devices are
a. Terminal Adapters(TAs)
b. ISDN Bridges
c. ISDN Routers
d. All of these
399.Advantages of ISDN internetworking are
a. Quality
b. Economy
c. Availability
d. All of these

e.
400.ISDN connections mat be seen as very _______ digital conduits
a. High rate-of-error
b. Low rate-of-error
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
401.Each channel in BRA is referred to as
a. A-channel
b. B-channel
c. C-channel
d. F-channel
402.The B-channel is capable of carrying both
a. Voice
b. Data
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
403.The Another channel in BRA(Basic Rate Access) is referred as D-channel Functions at
a. 12Kbps
b. 14Kbps
c. 16Kbps
d. 18Kbps
404.The D-channel in BRA is used for sending and receiving signal between
a. User devices
b. ISDN
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
405.The total transmission rate of BRA workout to a combined total of
a. 144kbit/s
b. 145kbit/s

c. 146kbit/s
d. 147kbit/s
406.BRA is also known as ____________, as per CCITT
a. I.430
b. I.420
c. I.440
d. I.450
407.Which service provide up to thirty independent 64kbps B channels and a separate

64kbps D channel to carried the signaling
a. Basic rate access
b. Primary rate access
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
408.Primary rate access is also known as __________, as per CCITT
a. I.420
b. I.421
c. I.422
d. I.423
409.The CCITT eventually was reformed in to the group which is now called the ________
a. ITU-T
b. UIT-T
c. TIU-T
d. TUI-T
410.The two standards ISDN connectors are
a. RJ-45 type plug and socket uses unshielded twisted pair cable
b. One for accessing primary rate ISDN through a coaxial cable
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
411.ISDN can be accessed as per CCITT by using two service called
a. BRI(Basic Rate Interface)

b. PRI(Primary Rate Interface)
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
412.BRI includes ______ B channels and ________ D channel
a. One , two
b. Two, three
c. Two, one(may be written as 2B+D)
d. Three, two
413.BRI providing data transmission speed of
a. 62kbps
b. 63kbps
c. 64kbps
d. 65kbps
414.PRI is popularly referred to as ____________ due to the number of channels as per

CCITT
a. 20+D
b. 30+D
c. 40+D
d. 50+D
415.PRI can carry up to 30 independent, ________ lines of data or voice channels
a. 62kbps
b. 63kbps
c. 64kbps
d. 65kbps

Questions on Microprocessor and Assembly Language
1) Who is the brain of computer:

a. ALU
b. CPU
c. MU
d. None of these
2) Which technology using the microprocessor is fabricated on a single chip:
a. POS
b. MOS
c. ALU
d. ABM
3) MOS stands for:
a. Metal oxide semiconductor
b. Memory oxide semiconductor
c. Metal oxide select
d. None of these
4) In which form CPU provide output:
a. Computer signals
b. Digital signals
c. Metal signals
d. None of these
5) How many types of microprocessor comprises:
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 4
6) Which is the microprocessor comprises:
a. Register section
b. One or more ALU
c. Control unit
d. All of these
7) The register section is related to______ of the computer:
a. Processing
b. ALU
c. Main memory
d. None of these
8) What is the store by register:
a. data
b. operands

c. memory
d. None of these
9) How many types of classification of processor based on register section:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
10) In Microprocessor one of the operands holds a special register called:
a. Calculator
b. Dedicated
c. Accumulator
d. None of these
11) Accumulator based microprocessor example are:
a. Intel 8085
b. Motorola 6809
c. A and B
d. None of these
12) A set of register which contain are:
a. data
b. memory addresses
c. result
d. all of these
13) How many types are primarily register:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
14) There are primarily two types of register:
a. general purpose register
b. dedicated register
c. A and B
d. none of these
15) Which register is a temporary storage location:
a. general purpose register
b. dedicated register
c. A and B
d. none of these
16) How many parts of dedicated register:
a. 2

b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
17) Name of typical dedicated register is:
a. PC
b. IR
c. SP
d. All of these
18) PC stands for:
a. Program counter
b. Points counter
c. Paragraph counter
d. Paint counter
19) IR stands for:
a. Intel register
b. In counter register
c. Index register
d. Instruction register
20) SP stands for:
a. Status pointer
b. Stack pointer
c. a and b
d. None of these
21) The act of acquiring an instruction is referred as the____ the instruction:
a. Fetching
b. Fetch cycle
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
22) How many bit of instruction on our simple computer consist of one____:
a. 2-bit
b. 6-bit
c. 12-bit
d. None of these
23) How many parts of single address computer instruction :
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
24) Single address computer instruction has two parts:

a. The operation code
b. The operand
c. A and B
d. None of these
25) LA stands for:
a. Load accumulator
b. Least accumulator
c. Last accumulator
d. None of these
26) ED stands for:
a. Enable MRD
b. Enable MDR
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
27) LM stands for:
a. Least MAR
b. Load MAR
c. Least MRA
d. Load MRA
28) Causing a flag to became 0 is called:
a. Clearing a flag
b. Case a flag
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
29) Which are the flags of status register:
a. Over flow flag
b. Carry flag
c. Half carry flag
d. Zero flag
e. Interrupt flag
f. Negative flag
g. All of these
30) The carry is operand by:
a. C
31) The sign is operand by:
a. S
32) The zero is operand by:
a. Z
33) The overflow is operand by:

a. O
34) _____ is the condition:
a. CD
b. IR
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
35) ____ causes the address of the next microprocessor to be obtained from the memory:
a. CRJA
b. ROM
c. MAP
d. HLT
36) _________ Stores the instruction currently being executed:
b. Current register
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
37) In which register instruction is decoded prepared and ultimately executed:
b. Current register
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
38) The status register is also called the____:
a. Condition code register
b. Flag register
c. A and B
d. None of these
39) BCD stands for:
a. Binary coded decimal
b. Binary coded decoded
c. Both a & b
d. none of these
40) Which is used to store critical pieces of data during subroutines and interrupts:
a. Stack
b. Queue
c. Accumulator
d. Data register
41) The area of memory with addresses near zero are called:
a. High memory
b. Mid memory
c. Memory
d. Low memory

42) The point where control returns after a subprogram is completed is known as the :
a. Return address
b. Main Address
c. Program Address
d. Current Address
43) The subprogram finish the return instruction recovers the return address from the:
a. Queue
b. Stack
c. Program counter
d. Pointer
44) The processor uses the stack to keep track of where the items are stored on it this by using
the:
a. Stack pointer register
b. Queue pointer register
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
45) Which point to the ___ of the stack:
a. TOP
b. START
c. MID
d. None of these
46) Stack words on:
a. LILO
b. LIFO
c. FIFO
d. None of these
47) Which is the basic stack operation:
a. PUSH
b. POP
c. BOTH A and B
d. None of these
48) SP stand for:
a. Stack pointer
b. Stack pop
c. Stack push
d. None of these
49) How many bit stored by status register:
a. 1 bit
b. 4 bit

c. 6 bit
d. 8 bit
50) Which is the important part of a combinational logic block:
a. Index register
b. Barrel shifter
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
51) The structure of the stack is _______ type structure:

a. First in last out
b. Last in last out
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
52) The data in the stack is called:
a. Pushing data
b. Pushed
c. Pulling
d. None of these
53) The CU is designed by using which techniques:
a. HARDWIRED CONTROLS
b. MICROPROGRAMING
c. NANOPROGRAMING
d. ALL OF THESE
54) The 16 bit register is separated into groups of 4 bit where each groups is called:
a. BCD
b. Nibble
c. Half byte
d. None of these
55) A nibble can be represented in the from of:
a. Octal digit
b. Decimal
c. Hexadecimal
d. None of these
56) The left side of any binary number is called:
a. Least significant digit
b. Most significant digit
c. Medium significant digit
d. low significant digit

57) MSD stands for:
a. Least significant digit
b. Most significant digit
c. Medium significant digit
d. low significant digit
58) _____ a subsystem that transfer data between computer components inside a computer or
between computer:
a. Chip
b. Register
c. Processor
d. Bus
59) Which is called superhighway:
a. Processor
b. Multiplexer
c. Backbone bus
d. None of these
60) The external system bus architecture is created using from ______ architecture:
a. Pascal
b. Dennis Ritchie
c. Charles Babbage
d. Von Neumann
61) The network of wires or electronic path ways on mother board back side:
a. PCB
b. BUS
c. BOTH A and B
d. None of these
62) Which Bus connects CPU & level 2 cache:
a. Rear side bus
b. Front side bus
c. Memory side bus
d. None of these
63) Which bus carry addresses:
a. System bus
b. Address bus
c. Control bus
d. Data bus
64) A 16 bit address bus can generate___ addresses:
a. 32767
b. 25652

c. 65536
d. none of these
65) The processor 80386/80486 and the Pentium processor uses _____ bits address bus:
a. 16
b. 32
c. 36
d. 64
66) CPU can read & write data by using :
a. Control bus
b. Data bus
c. Address bus
d. None of these
67) Which bus transfer singles from the CPU to external device and others that carry singles
from external device to the CPU:
a. Control bus
b. Data bus
c. Address bus
d. None of these
68) Which is not the control bus signal:
a. READ
b. WRITE
c. RESET
d. None of these
69) When memory read or I/O read are active data is to the processor :
a. Input
b. Output
c. Processor
d. None of these
70) When memory write or I/O read are active data is from the processor:
a. Input
b. Output
c. Processor
d. None of these
71) Using 12 binary digits how many unique house addresses would be possible:
a. 28=256
12
b. 2 =4096
c. 216=65536
d. None of these
72) PROM stands for:

a. Programmable read-only memory
73) EPROM stands for:
a. Erasable Programmable read-only memory
74) Each memory location has:
a. Address
b. Contents
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
75) Which is the type of microcomputer memory:
a. Processor memory
b. Primary memory
c. Secondary memory
d. All of these
76) Secondary memory can store____:
a. Program store code
b. Compiler
c. Operating system
d. All of these
77) Secondary memory is also called____:
a. Auxiliary
b. Backup store
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
78) Customized ROMS are called:
a. Mask ROM
b. Flash ROM
c. EPROM
d. None of these
79) The ram which is created using bipolar transistors is called:
a. Dynamic RAM
b. Static RAM
c. Permanent RAM
d. DDR RAM
80) Which type of RAM needs regular referred:
a. Dynamic RAM
b. Static RAM
c. Permanent RAM
d. SD RAM
81) Which RAM is created using MOS transistors:

a. Dynamic RAM
b. Static RAM
c. Permanent RAM
d. SD RAM
82) Which latch is mostly used creating memory register:
a. SR-Latch
b. JK-Latch
c. D-Latch
d. T-Latch
83) Which statement is false about WR signal:
a. WR signal controls the input buffer
b. The bar over WR means that this is an active low signal
c. The bar over WR means that this is an active high signal
d. If WR is 0 then the input data reaches the latch input
84) Which technique is used for main memory array design:
a. Linear decoding
b. Fully decoding
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
85) CS stands for:
a. Cable select
b. Chip select
c. Control select
d. Cable system
86) WE stands for:
a. Write enable
b. Wrote enable
c. Write envy
d. None of these
87) When CS _____ the chip is not selected at all hence D7 to D0 are driven to high impedance
state:
a. High
b. Low
c. Medium
d. Stand by
88) The capacity of this chip is 1KB they are organized in the form of 1024 words with 8 bit
word The what is the site of address bus:
a. 8 bit
b. 10 bit

c. 12 bit
d. 16 bit
89) Which storage technique dose not decoding circuit:
a. Linear decoding
b. Fully decoding
c. Partially
d. None of these
90) In linear decoding address bus of 16-bit wide can connect only ____ of RAM.
a. 16 KB
b. 6KB
c. 12KB
d. 64KB
91) Which statement is wrong according to linear decoding :
a. Address map is not contiguous.
b. Confects occur if two of the select lines become active at the same time
c. If all unused address lines are not used as chip selectors then these unused lines
become dont cares
d. None of these
92) The problem of bus confect and sparse address distribution are eliminated by the use of
______ address technique:
a. Fully decoding
b. Half decoding
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
93) A microprocessor retries instructions from :
a. Control memory
b. Cache memory
c. Main memory
d. Virtual memory
94) Which register is used to communicate with memory:
a. MAR
b. MDR
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
95) SAM stands for:
a. Simple architecture machine
b. Solved architecture machine
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

96) MAR stands for:
a. Memory address register
b. Memory address recode
c. Micro address register
d. None of these
97) MDR stands for:
a. Memory data register
b. Memory data recode
c. Micro data register
d. None of these
98) VAM stands for:
a. Valid memory address
b. Virtual memory address
c. Variable memory address
d. None of these
99) Which microprocessor to read an item from memory:
a. VAM
b. SAM
c. MOC
d. None of these
100) Which bus plays a crucial role in I/O:
a. System bus
b. Control bus
c. Address bus
d. Both A and B
101) Which register is connected to the memory by way of the address bus:
a. MAR
b. MDR
c. SAM
d. None of these
102) How many bit of MAR register:
a. 8-bit
b. 16-bit
c. 32-bit
d. 64-bit
103) MOC stands for:
a. Memory operation complex
b. Micro operation complex
c. Memory operation complete

d. None of these
104) Which are the READ operation can in simple steps:
a. Address
b. Data
c. Control
d. All of these
105) The upper red arrow show that CPU sends out the control signals____ and _____
indicate the data is read from the memory:
a. Memory request
b. Read
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
106) The information is transferred from the_____ and ____ specified register:
a. MDR
b. CPU
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
107) The information on the data bus is transferred to the ______register:
a. MOC
b. MDR
c. VAM
d. CPU
108) The lower red curvy arrow show that CPU places the address extracted from the
memory location on the_____:
a. Address bus
b. System bus
c. Control bus
d. Data bus
109) DMA stands for:
a. Direct memory access
b. Direct memory allocation
c. Data memory access
d. Data memory allocation
110) DMA stands for:
a. Dynamic memory access
b. Data memory access
c. Direct memory access
d. Both B and C
111) CRT stands for:

a. Cathode ray tube
b. Compared ray tube
c. Command ray tube
d. None of these
112) The CPU sends out a ____ signal to indicate that valid data is available on the data bus:
a. Read
b. Write
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
113) The ____ place the data from a register onto the data bus:
a. CPU
b. ALU
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
114) The CPU removes the ___ signal to complete the memory write operation:
a. Read
b. Write
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
115) The value memvar must be transferred to the ___:
a. Computer
b. CPU
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
116) The microcomputer system by using the ____device interface:
a. Input
b. Output
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
117) How bit microprocessor inexpensive a separate interface is provided with I/O device:
a. 2 bit
b. 4 bit
c. 8 bit
d. 32 bit
118) How many ways of transferring data between the microprocessor and a physical I/O
device:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4

d. 5
119) The standard I/O is also called:
a. Isolated I/O
b. Parallel I/O
c. both a and b
d. none of these
120) standard I/O uses which control pin on the micro processor:
a. IO/M
121) A___ on this pin indicates a memory operation:
a. Low
b. High
c. Medium
d. None of these
122) The external device is connected to a pin called the ______ pin on the processor chip.
a. Interrupt
b. Transfer
c. Both
d. None of these
123) The DMA controllers are special hardware embedded into the chip in modern integrate
processor that ____and_____ to the system;
a. Data transfer
b. arbitrate access
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
124) The CPU completes yields control of the bus to the DMA controller via:
a. DMA acknowledge signal
b. DMA integrated signal
c. DMA implicitly signal
d. None of these
125) The mode of DMA are:
a. Single transfer
b. Block transfer
c. Burst block transfer
d. Repeated single transfer
e. Repeatedblock transfer
f. Repeated Burst block transfer
g. All of these
1. EOC stands for:

a. End of conversion
b. Emphasize of conversion
c. End of controller
d. None of these
2. IRR stands for:
a. Interrupt request register
b. Input request register
c. Interrupt resolver register
d. Input resolver register
3. ISR stands for:
a. Interrupt service register
b. Input service register
c. In-service register
d. All of these
4. PR stands for:
a. Priority register
b. Priority resolver
c. Priority request
d. None of these
5. IMR stands for:
a. Input mask register
b. Input mask resolver
c. Interrupt mask resolver
d. Interrupt mask register
6. INT stands for:
a. Input
b. Interrupt
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
7. INTA stands for:
a. Interrupt acknowledge
b. Interrupt access
c. Interrupt address
d. None of these
8. CS stands for:
a. Command select
b. Chip select
c. Chip series
d. Command series

9. RD stands for:
a. Read
b. Register
c. Request
d. Real
10. ICW stands for:
a. Interrupt command words
b. Interrupt command write
c. Initialization command words
d. Initialization command write
11. OCW stands for:
a. Operational command words
b. Operational conjunction words
c. Operational control words
d. Operational cost words
12. DMA stands for:
a. Direct memory allocation
b. Direct memory access
c. Direct memory application
d. Direct memory acknowledgment
13. HLD stands for:
a. High
b. Hour
c. Hold
d. None of these
14. HLDA stands for:
a. High acknowledgment
b. Hold acknowledgment
c. High access
d. Hold access
15. HRQ stands for:
a. Hold request
b. Hold read
c. Hold register
d. Hold resolver
16. AEN stands for:
a. Address enable
b. Address equivalent
c. Acknowledgment enable

d. Acknowledgment equivalent
17. ADSTB stands for:
a. Access strobe
b. Access strobe
c. Address store
d. Address strobe
18. MEMER and MEMW means:
a. Memory read
b. Memory write
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
19. HRQ and HLDA means:
a. Hold request
b. Hold acknowledgment
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
20. ADC stands for:
a. Analogue to analogue converters
b. Analogue to digital converters
c. Digital to digital converters
d. Digital to analogue converters
21. DAC stands for:
a. Analogue to analogue converters
b. Analogue to digital converters
c. Digital to digital converters
d. Digital to analogue converters
22. Which is the commonly used programmable interface and particular used to
provide handshaking:
a. 8251
b. 8254
c. 8259
d. 8255
23. Which is a programmable communication interface:
a. 8255
b. 8254
c. 8251
d. 8259
24. Which programmable timer is used to generate timing signal :
a. 8255

b. 8254
c. 8251
d. 8259
25. Which is widely used in interrupt controller with a number of microprocessor:
a. 8251
b. 8254
c. 8255
d. 8259
26. Which are used DMA controllers with 8085/8086 microprocessor:
a. 8237
b. 8257
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
27. Which provide a mechanism to establish a link between the microprocessor
and i/o device:
a. Input interface
b. Output interface
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
28. In which the processor uses a protection of the memory address to represent
I/O ports:
a. Memory mapped I/O
b. I/O memory mapped
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
29. The standard I /O is also called:
a. I/O mapped I/O
b. Isolated I/O
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
30. The processor of knowing the status of device and transferring the data with
matching speeds is called:
a. Handshaking
b. Peripheral
c. Ports
d. None of these
31. Which is designed to automatically manage the handshake operation:
a. 8251
b. 8254

c. 8255
d. 8259
32. Which mode is used for single handshake in 8255:
a. Mode 0
b. Mode 1
c. Mode 2
d. None of these
33. Which mode is used for double handshake in 8255:
a. Mode 0
b. Mode 1
c. Mode 2
d. None of these
34. Which mode is used for simple input or output without handshaking:
a. Mode 0
b. Mode 1
c. Mode 2
d. None of these
35. Which are used for port B in 8255:
a. PC0-PC2
b. PC3-PC7
c. PC6-PC7
d. PC3-PC5
36. Which are used for port A in 8255 mode 1:
a. PC0-PC2
b. PC3-PC7
c. PC6-PC7
d. PC3-PC5
37. Which are used for handshake lines for port A in 8255 mode 2:
a. PC0-PC2
b. PC3-PC7
c. PC6-PC7
d. PC3-PC5
38. AL&99H which operation is performed here:
a. Input
b. Output
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
39. 34H&AX which operation is performed here:
a. Input

b. Output
c. Progress
d. None of these
40. Which chip used for AD&DA converters in 8086 processor:
a. 8251
b. 8255
c. 8254
d. 8259
41. The time taken by the ADC from the active edge of SOC pulse till the active
edge of EOC signal is called:
a. Conversion over
b. Conversion delay
c. Conversion signal
d. None of these
42. Arrange the flowing step of the general algorithm for ADC interfacing:
i. Issuing start of conversion pulse to ADC.
ii. Marking the end of the conversion processes by the.
iii. Read digital data output of the ADC as equivalent
digital output.
iv. Ensuring the stability of analogue input applied to
the ADC.
a. 2,1,3,4
b. 4,1,2,3
c. 1,2,3,4
d. 4,3,2,1
43. Which chip is used for analogue to digital converter:
a. 0809
b. 0808
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
44. Which multiplexer by ADC 0808/0809:
a. 2:4
b. 3:8
c. 4:16
d. None of these
45. Which chip is used for DAC:
a. AD7521
b. AD7522
c. AD7523

d. AD7524
46. Which converters convert binary number into their equivalent voltages:
a. Analogue to analogue
b. Analogue to digital
c. Digital to digital
d. Digital to analogue
47. An external feedback resistor acts to control the:
a. Gain
b. Gate
c. Loss
d. Profit
48. Which used to generate accurate time delays and can be used for other timing
application such as a real time clock an event counter a digital one shot a square wave generator
and a complex wave form generator:
a. 8251 programmable timer
b. 8255 programmable timer
c. 8254 programmable timer
d. 8259 programmable timer
49. 8254 programmable timer counter has two inputs signals:
a. CLK
b. Gate
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
50. 8254 programmable timer counter has:
a. 1output signal
b. 2output signal
c. 3output signal
d. 4output signal
51. 8254 can operate how many operating modes:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
52. 8254 gate of a counter is to either:
a. Enable counting
b. Disable counting
c. Both
d. None of these
53. 8254 counters can count in the:

a. Binary
b. Decimal
c. Hexadecimal
d. A&B
54. How many modes in 8254:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
55. Which is the state of gate signal for normal contains:
a. Low
b. High
c. Undefined
d. None of these
56. Which generate an interrupt to the microprocessor after a certain interval of
time:
a. 8251
b. 8254
c. 8255
d. 8259
1. A central processing unit, fabricated on a single chip of semiconductor is called:
a. Microprocessor
b. RAM
c. ROM
d. None of these
2. Which is the architecture of microprocessor:
a. CISC
b. RISC
c. All of these
d. None of these
3. CISC stands for:

a. Complex Instruction System Computer
b. Complex Instruction Set Car

c. Complex Instruction Set Computer
d. None of these
4. RISC stands for:
a. Reduced Instruction Set Computer
b. Reduced Intergraded Set Computer
c. Resource Instruction Set Computer
d. Resource Instruction System Computer
5. Which is the components of computer:
a. System Bus
b. CPU
c. Memory Unit
d. All of these
6. System Bus Contains:
a. Address Bus
b. Data Bus
c. Control Bus
d. All of these
7. Microprocessor is the _____ of computer:
a. Hand
b. Heart
c. Brain
d. Leg
8. Microprocessor is fabricated on single chip using:
a. MOS
b. ALU
c. CPU
d. All of these
9. Which is the components of microprocessor:
a. Register unit
b. Arithmetic and logical unit

c. Timing and control unit
d. All of these
10. Which is an integral part of any microcomputer system and its primary purpose is to hold
program and data:
a. Memory unit
b. Register unit
c. A and B
d. None of these
11. How many group of memory unit:
a. Four
b. Three
c. Two
d. One
12. Which is the parts of memory unit:
a. Processor memory
b. Main memory
c. Secondary memory
d. All of these
13. MOS stand for:
a. Metal oxide semiconductor

b. Memory oxide semiconductor
c. A and B
d. None of these
14. Which system communicates with the outside word via the I/O devices interfaced to it:
a. Microprocessor
b. Microcomputer
c. Digital computer
d. All of these

15. A computer which has the microprocessor as______ is called as a microcomputer:
a. CPU
b. ALU
c. RU
d. None of these
16. The organization of I/O devices create a difference between _____:
a. Digital computer
b. Micro computer
c. A and B
d. None of these
17. How many generation of microprocessor:
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Three
18. The___ was very successful in the calculator market at that time:
a. Motorola 6800 and 6809

b. Microprocessor 4004
c. Intel 8085
d. None of these
19. How are the successful microprocessor:
a. 8004
b. 5006
c. 4004
d. All of these
20. How many microprocessor in the market during the same period:
a. 6

b. 8
c. 3
d. 5
21. PMOS stands for:

a. P-channel metal-oxide-semiconductor
b. P-channel memory oxide-semiconductor
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
22. Which provided the current:
a. Low-cost
b. Slow-cost
c. Low-Output
d. All the above
23. Second Generation_____?
a. 1974-1976
b. 1974-1978
c. 1974-1972
d. None of these
24. The beginning of very efficient____ microprocessor in second generation:
a. 4-bit
b. 8-bit
c. 16-bit
d. 64-bit
25. Which are some of popular processor:
a. Motorola 6800 and 6809

b. Intel 8085
c. Zilog Z80
d. All the above
26. NMOS stands for:

a. N-channel metal-oxide-semiconductor

b. P-channel metal-oxide-semiconductor
c. N-channel memory-oxide-semiconductor
d. All the above
27. _____ Was more common year:
a. CRT
b. TTL
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
28. Which technology speed faster and higher density:
a. PMOS
b. NMOS
c. HMOS
d. All the above
29. What is the period of 3 generation:
a. 1979-1981
b. 1979-1980
c. 1978-1979
d. 1978-1980
30. Third generation microprocessor is dominated by____ microprocessor:
a. 8 bit
b. 4 bit
c. 16 bit
d. 64 bit
31. Intel used HMOS technology to recreate_____:
a. 8084 A
b. 8086 A
c. 8085 A
d. 8088 A
32. HMOS stands for:

a. High performance metal oxide semiconductor
b. High processor metal oxide semiconductor
c. Both A and b
d. None of these
33. What is the period of fourth generation:
a. 1979-1980
b. 1981-1995
c. 1995-2000
d. 1974-1980
34. The fourth generation of microprocessor came really as a soon boon to the_____:
a. Computing environment
b. Processing environment
c. Hot environment
d. All of these
35. How many bit microprocessor in the era marked beginning of fourth generation:
a. 4 bit
b. 8 bit
c. 16 bit
d. 32 bit
36. They were fabricated using a low power version of the HMOS technology called____:
a. HSMOS
b. HCMOS
c. HSSOM
d. None of these
37. Motorola introduced _____ processor:
a. 2 bit-RISC
b. 4 bit-RISC
c. 8 bit-RISC
d. 32 bit-RISC

38. Motorola introduced 32 bit RISC processor called______:
a. MC 88100
b. MC 81100
c. MC 80100
d. MC 81000
39. Period of fifth generation?
a. 1974-1978
b. 1979-1980
c. 1981-1985
d. 1995-till date
40. The growth of vacuum tube technology has been listed as follow:
a. 1946-1957
b. 1958-1964
c. 1985-1999
d. None of these
41. The growth of transistor technology in_____:
a. 1946-1957
b. 1958-1964
c. 1985-1999
d. None of these
42. How are the growth of SSI technology in_____:
a. 1956 on words
b. 1965 on words
c. 1978 on words
d. 1978 on words
43. The growth of medium scale integration in______:
a. Till 1971
b. Till 1970

c. Till 1972
d. Till 1969
44. The growth of SSI up to____:
a. 100 device on a chip

b. 200 device on a chip
c. 300 device on a chip
d. 400 device on a chip
45. The growth of LSI technology on_____:
a. 1994-1995
b. 1971-1977
c. 1972-1978
d. None of these
46. Which is most commonly measured in terms of MIPS previously million instruction per
second:
a. Microprocessor
b. Performance of a microprocessor
c. Assembly line
d. None of these
47. The range of this rating for which microprocessor of_____:
a. VLSI
b. Motorola
c. Intel
d. Zilog
48. How can we make computers work faster?
a. The fetch-execute cycle and pipelining

b. The assembly
c. Both A and B
d. None of these

49. Who is the represents the fundamental process in the operation of the CPU:
a. The fetch-execute cycle and pipelining

b. The assembly
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
50. Which process information at a much faster rate than it can retrieve it from memory:
a. ALU
b. Processor
c. Microprocessor
d. CPU
51. _____ memory system which is discussed later can improve matters in this respect:
a. Data memory
b. Cache memory
c. Memory
d. None of these
52. The fetch-execute cycle is to use a system know as:
a. Assembly line
b. Pipelining
c. Cache
d. None of these
53. The time taken for all stages of the assembly line to become active is called the:
a. Flow through time

b. Clock period
c. Throughput
d. All of these
54. The clock period is denoted by:
a. Tp

b. T1+T2+T3-------+T n
c. Pt
d. None of these
55. Ti is the time taken for the ith stage and there are n stages in the:
a. Throughput
b. Assembly line
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
56. Who is the determined by the time taken by the stages the requires the most processing time:
a. Clock period
b. Flow through
c. Throughput
d. None of these
57. The ____ of can assembly line to be I/t p:
a. Clock period
b. Pipelining
c. Throughput
d. Flow through
58. Which is the microprocessor launched by Motorola corporation introduced:
a. Mc6800
b. 8080
c. IMP-8
d. RPS-8
59. How many bit MC6800 microprocessor:
a. 4-bit
b. 8-bit
c. 16-bit
d. 32-bit

60. Motorola has declined from having nearly __________ share of the microprocessor market to
much smaller share:
a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 60%
61. Which is the microprocessor launch by Fairchild company:
a. F-6
b. F-8
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
62. How many stages has fetch execute cycle:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
63. Which is the worlds first microprocessor?
a. Intel 4004
b. Motorola 68020
c. Intel8008
d. None of these
64. MOSFET stands for?

a. Metal-oxide-semiconductor field effect transistor
b. Metal-oxide-semiconductor fan effort transistor
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
65. What is the main problem of Intel 4004 microprocessor:
a. Speed
b. Memory size

c. World width
d. All of these
66. The evolution of the 4 bit microprocessor ended when Intel released in:
a. 4004
b. 8008
c. 40964
d. 4040
67. How many bit microprocessor still survives in low-end application such as microwave ovens
and small control system:
a. 4 bit
b. 16 bit
c. 32 bit
d. 64 bit
68. Calculator are based on______ microprocessor:
a. 4 bit
b. 16 bit
c. 32 bit
d. 64 bit
69. BCD stands for:
a. Binary coded decimal

b. Based coded decimal
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
70. Intel 8008 microprocessor realizing in:
a. 1971
b. 1973
c. 1999
d. 1988

71. Intel 8008 microprocessors upgraded version is:
a. 8080
b. 4004
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
72. Intel 8008 microprocessor was introduced in:
a. 1971
b. 1973
c. 1999
d. 1988
73. MC6800 microprocessor was introduced by:
a. Motorola corporation
b. Fairchild
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
74. Which Microprocessor producer continue successfully to create newer and improved version
of the microprocessor:
a. Intel
b. Motorola
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
75. Motorola has declined how many % share of the microprocessor market to a much smaller
share:
a. 50%
b. 55%
c. 48%
d. 51%
76. Which year Intel corporation introduced an updated version of the 8080- the 8085:

a. 1965
b. 1976
c. 1977
d. 1985
77. In 1977 which corporation introduced an updated version of the 8080- the 8085:
a. Motorola
b. Intel
c. Rockwell
d. National
78. How many bit microprocessor developed by Intel:
a. 4 bit
b. 8 bit
c. 32 bit
d. 64 bit
79. Which is the main feature of 8085:
a. Internal clock generator

b. Internal system controller
c. Higher clock frequency
d. All of these
80. Which is 16 Bit microprocessor:
a. 8088
b. 8086
c. 8085
d. All of these
81. How many speed of 8088,8085,8086 microprocessor:

a. 2.5 Million instruction per second
b. 1.5 Million instruction per second
c. 3.5 Million instruction per second
d. 1.6 Million instruction per second

82. Which year Intel family ensured:
a. 1965
b. 1978
c. 1981
d. 1999
83. Which corporation decided to use 8088 microprocessor in personal computer:
a. IBM
b. CRT
c. PMN
d. SPS
84. Which processor provided 1 MB memory:
a. 16-bit 8086 and 8088

b. 32-bit 8086 and 8088
c. 64-bit 8086 and 8088
d. 8-bit 8086 and 8088
85. Who was introduce the 80286 microprocessor updated on 8086,in 1983:
a. Intel
b. Motorola
c. Fairchild
d. None of these
86. Which is the microprocessor launched by Intel:
a. Z-8
b. 8080
c. 8000
d. None of these
87. Which is the microprocessor launched by national semiconductor:
a. IMP-4
b. IMP-8

c. IMP-6
d. IMP-7
88. Which is the microprocessor launched by Rockwell international:
a. RPS-4
b. RPS-6
c. RPS-8
d. All of these
89. Which is the microprocessor launched by Zilog:
a. Z-2
b. Z-4
c. Z-6
d. Z-8
90. CAD stands for:
a. Computer aided drafting

b. Compare aided drafting
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
91. GUI stands for:
a. Graphical user interface

b. Graph used Intel
c. Graphical use inter
d. None of these
92. VGA stands for:
a. Visual graph area

b. Visual graphics array
c. Visual graph accept
d. All of these
93. Pentium Pro Processor contains:

a. L1 Cache
b. L2 Cache
c. Both L1 & L2
d. None of these
94. L1 cache memory is places at ______
a. On Processor
b. On Mother Board
c. On Memory
d. All of these
95. L2 cache memory is places at ______
a. On Processor
b. On Mother Board
c. On Memory
d. All of these
96. Pentium Pro can address _____ of memory:
a. 4 GB
b. 128 GB
c. 256 GB
d. 512 GB
97. Which is the professional or Business version of Intel Processors:
a. Pentium II
b. Pentium Pro
c. Pentium MMX
d. Pentium Xeon
98. Pentium III processor is released in the form of:

a. Socket 370 Version
b. Slot 1 Version in Plastic Cartridge
c. Both a and b

d. None of these
99. What is the maximum clock speed of P III processors
a. 1.0 GHz
b. 1.1 GHz
c. 1.2 GHz
d. 1.3 GHz
100. Power PC microprocessor architecture is developed by:
a. Apple
b. IBM
c. Motorola
d. All of these
101. Which is not the main architectural feature of Power PC:

a. It is not based on RISC
b. Superscalar implementation
c. Both 32 & 64 Bit
d. Paged Memory management architecture
102. Alpha AXP is developed by:
a. DEC
b. IBM
c. Motorola
d. Intel
103. Which is not the main feature of DEC Alpha:

a. 64 Bit RISC processor
b. Designed to replace 32 VAX(CISC)
c. Seven stage split integer/floating point pipeline
d. Variable Instruction length
104. Which is not the open-source OS:
a. Debian
b. BSD Unix
c. Gentoo & Red Hat Linux
d. Windows

105. ISA stands for:
a. Instruct set area

b. Instruction set architecture
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
106. RISC stands for:

a. Reduced Instruction set computer
b. Reduced Instruct set compare
c. Reduced instruction stands computer
d. All of these
107. DEC stands for:
a. Digital electronic computer
b. Digital electronic corporation

c. Digital equipment corporation
d. None of these
108. How many architectural paradigms in microprocessor:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
109. Which are the architectural paradigms in microprocessor:
a. RISC
b. CISC
c. PISC
d. A and B
110. CISC stands for:

a. Complex instruction set computer
b. Camper instruct set of computer
c. Compared instruction set computer

d. None of these
111. PCs use____ based on this architecture:
a. CPU
b. ALU
c. MU
d. None of these
1. BIU STAND FOR:

a. Bus interface unit
b. Bess interface unit
c. A and B
d. None of these
2. EU STAND FOR:
a. Execution unit
b. Execute unit
c. Exchange unit
d. None of these
3. The register can be divided are:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
4. Which are the part of architecture of 8086:
a. The bus interface unit
b. The execution unit
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
5. Which are the four categories of registers:
a. General- purpose register
b. Pointer or index registers
c. Segment registers
d. Other register
e. All of these
6. Eight of the register are known as:
a. General- purpose register
b. Pointer or index registers
c. Segment registers
d. Other register

7. The four index register can be used for:
a. Arithmetic operation
b. Multipulation operation
c. Subtraction operation
d. All of these
8. IP Stand for:
a. Instruction pointer
b. Instruction purpose
c. Instruction paints
d. None of these
9. CS Stand for:
a. Code segment
b. Coot segment
c. Cost segment
d. Counter segment
10. DS Stand for:
a. Data segment
b. Direct segment
c. Declare segment
d. Divide segment
11. Which are the segment:
a. CS: Code segment
b. DS: data segment
c. SS: Stack segment
d. ES:extra segment
e. All of these
12. The acculatator is 16 bit wide and is called:
a. AX
b. AH
c. AL
d. DL
13. The upper 8 bit are called______:
a. BH
b. BL
c. AH
d. CH
14. The lower 8 bit are called_______:
a. AL
b. CL

c. BL
d. DL
15. IP stand for:
a. Industry pointer
b. Instruction pointer
c. Index pointer
d. None of these
16. Which has great important in modular programming:
a. Stack segment
b. Queue segment
c. Array segment
d. All of these
17. Which register containing the 8086/8088 flag:
a. Status register
b. Stack register
c. Flag register
d. Stand register
18. Which flag are used to record specific characteristics of arithmetic and logical instructions:
a. The stack
b. The stand
c. The status
d. The queue
19. How many bits the instruction pointer is wide:
a. 16 bit
b. 32 bit
c. 64 bit
d. 128 bit
20. How many type of addressing in memory:
a. Logical address
b. Physical address
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
21. The size of each segment in 8086 is:
a. 64 kb
b. 24 kb
c. 50 kb
d. 16kb
22. The physical address of memory is :
a. 20 bit

b. 16 bit
c. 32 bit
d. 64 bit
23. The _______ address of a memory is a 20 bit address for the 8086 microprocessor:
a. Physical
b. Logical
c. Both
d. None of these
24. To provide clarity in case of the status register_______ and __________ placeholders are
displayed:
a. Binary
b. Hexadecimal
c. Both
d. None of these
25. The pin configuration of 8086 is available in the________:
a. 40 pin
b. 50 pin
c. 30 pin
d. 20 pin
26. DIP stand for:
a. Deal inline package
b. Dual inline package
c. Direct inline package
d. Digital inline package
27. PA stand for:
a. Project address
b. Physical address
c. Pin address
d. Pointer address
28. SBA stand for:
a. Segment bus address
b. Segment bit address
c. Segment base address
d. Segment byte address
29. EA stand for:
a. Effective address
b. Electrical address
c. Effect address
d. None of these

30. BP stand for:
a. Bit pointer
b. Base pointer
c. Bus pointer
d. Byte pointer
31. DI stand for:
a. Destination index
b. Defect index
c. Definition index
d. Delete index
32. SI stand for:
a. Stand index
b. Source index
c. Segment index
d. Simple index
33. DS stand for:
a. Default segment
b. Defect segment
c. Delete segment
d. Definition segment
34. ALE stand for:
a. Address latch enable
b. Address light enable
c. Address lower enable
d. Address last enable
35. AD stand for:
a. Address data
b. Address delete
c. Address date
d. Address deal
36. NMI stand for:
a. Non mask able interrupt
b. Non mistake interrupt
c. Both
d. None of these
37. PC stand for:
a. program counter
b. project counter
c. protect counter

d. planning counter
38. AH stand for:
a. Accumulator high
b. Address high
c. Appropriate high
d. Application high
39. AL stand for:
a. Accumulator low
b. Address low
c. Appropriate low
d. Application low
40. Which are the categorized of flag:
a. Conditional flag
b. Control flag
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
41. Which are the general register:
a. AX: Accumulator
b. BX: Base
c. CX: Count
d. DX: Data
e. All of these
42. ________ is the most important segment and it contains the actual assembly language
instruction to be executed by the microprocessor:
a. Data segment
b. Code segment
c. Stack segment
d. Extra segment
43. The offset of a particular segment varies from _________:
a. 000H to FFFH
b. 0000H to FFFFH
c. 00H to FFH
d. 00000H to FFFFFH
44. Which are the factor of cache memory:
a. Architecture of the microprocessor
b. Properties of the programs being executed
c. Size organization of the cache
d. All of these
45. ________ is usually the first level of memory access by the microprocessor:

a. Cache memory
b. Data memory
c. Main memory
d. All of these
46. which is the small amount of high- speed memory used to work directly with the
microprocessor:
a. Cache
b. Case
c. Cost
d. Coos
47. The cache usually gets its data from the_________ whenever the instruction or data is
required by the CPU:
a. Main memory
b. Case memory
c. Cache memory
d. All of these
48. The amount of information which can be placed at one time in the cache memory is
called_________:
a. Circle size
b. Line size
c. Wide line size
d. None of these
49. How many type of cache memory:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
50. Which is the type of cache memory:
a. Fully associative cache
b. Direct-mapped cache
c. Set-associative cache
d. All of these
51. Which memory is used to holds the address of the data stored in the cache :
a. Associative memory
b. Case memory
c. Ordinary memory
d. None of these
52. Direct mapping is a _________ to implement cache memory :
a. Cheaper way

b. Case way
c. Cache way
d. None of these
53. A fourth bit called the _________:
a. Direct bit
b. Cache bit
c. Valid bit
d. All of these
54. FIFO stand for:
a. First in first other
b. First in first out
c. First in first over
d. None of these
55. Microprocessor reference that are available in the cache are called______:
a. Cache hits
b. Cache line
c. Cache memory
d. All of these
56. Microprocessor reference that are not available in the cache are called_________:
a. Cache hits
b. Cache line
c. Cache misses
d. Cache memory
57. __________ is the most commonly used cache controller with a number of processor sets:
a. L211 controller
b. L210 controller
c. L214 controller
d. None of these
58. LFB stand for:
a. Line full buffers
b. Line fill buffers
c. Line fan buffers
d. None of these
59. LRB stand for:
a. Line read buffers
b. Line ready buffers
c. Line root buffers
d. Line right buffers
60. EB stand for:

a. Effect buffers
b. Effecting buffers
c. Effection buffers
d. None of these
61. EB stand for:
a. Effect buffers
b. Effecting buffers
c. Effection buffers
d. Eviction buffers
62. WB stand for:
a. Write buffers
b. Written buffers
c. Wrote buffers
d. None of these
63. WA stand for:
a. Write allocate
b. Wrote allocate
c. Way allocate
d. Word allocate
64. In case of direct- mapped cache lower order line address bits are used the access the
___________:
a. RAM
b. ROM
c. Directory
d. HDD
65. The index high order bits in the address known as_________:
a. tags
b. label
c. point
d. location
e.
66. The parity bits are used to check that a__________:
a. Two bit error
b. Single bit error
c. Multi bit error
d. None of these
67. Who works as cache on the variable:
a. Register
b. Memory

c. Pointer
d. Segment
68. Second level is a cache on the ________:
a. Main memory
b. RAM
c. Both
d. None of these
69. The memory system is said to be effective if the access time of the cache is close to the
effective access time of the_____:
a. ROM
b. RAM
c. HDD
d. Processor
70. Cache is usually the____________ of memory access by the microprocessor:
a. First level
b. Second level
c. Third level
d. Fourth level
71. The principal of working of the cache memory largely depends on which locality:
a. Spatial locality
b. Temporal locality
c. Sequentially
d. All of these
72. Who work as a cache for the page table:
a. TLB
b. TLP
c. LEB
d. WAB
73. Which formula is used to calculate the number of read stall cycles:
a. Reads* Read miss rate * Read miss penalty
b. Write* (Write miss rate * Write miss penalty)+write buffer stalls
c. Memory access * Cache miss rate * Cache miss penalty
d. None of these
74. Which formula is used to calculate the number of write stall cycles:
d. None of these
75. Which formula is used to calculate the number of memory stall cycles:

d. None of these
76. Which causes the microprocessor to immediately terminate its present activity:
a. RESET signal
b. INTERUPT signal
c. Both
d. None of these
77. Which are the cache controller ports:
a. 64-bit AHB-Lite slave ports
b. 64-bit AHB-Lite master ports
c. Both
d. None of these
78. Cache can be controlled __________:
a. 16KB-2MB
b. 17 KB-2MB
c. 18 KB-2MB
d. 19 KB-2MB
79. Which is responsible for all the outside world communication by the microprocessor:
a. BIU
b. PIU
c. TIU
d. LIU
e.
80. INTR: it implies the__________ signal:
a. INTRRUPT REQUEST
b. INTRRUPT RIGHT
c. INTRRUPT RONGH
d. INTRRUPT RESET

Questions on Computer Graphics
1. Basic geometric transformation include
a. Translation
b. Rotation
c. Scaling
d. All of these
2. Some additional transformation are
a. Shear
b. Reflection
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
3. The transformation in which an object is moved in a minimum distance path from one position to another is
called
a. Translation
b. Scaling
c. Rotation
d. Reflection
e.
4. The transformation in which an object is moved from one position to another in circular path around a
specified pivot point is called
a. Translation
b. Scaling
c. Rotation
d. Reflection
5. The transformation in which the dimension of an object are changed relative to a specified fixed point is
called
a. Translation
b. Scaling
c. Rotation
d. Reflection
6. The selection and separation of a part of text or image for further operation are called

a. Translation
b. Shear
c. Reflection
d. Clipping
7. The complex graphics operations are
a. Selection
b. Separation
c. Clipping
d. None of these
8. In computer graphics, a graphical object is known as
a. Point
b. Segment
c. Parameter
d. None of these
9. An object can be viewed as a collection of
a. One segment
b. Two segment
c. Several segments
d. None of these
10.Every segment has its own attributes like
a. Size, visibility
b. Start position
c. Image transformation
d. All of these
11.By using the attributes of segment , we can________ any segment
a. Change
b. Control
c. Print
d. None of these
e.

12.A two-dimensional array contain the details of all the segment are called
a. Segmentation table
b. Segment name
c. Operation
d. None of these
e.
13.We assign all the attributes of segment under this
a. Segment name
b. Segment size
c. Array
d. None of these
14.The initial size of segment will be_______
a. 1
b. 0
c. 2
d. 3
15.The removal of a segment with its details are called
a. Alter the segments
b. Deletion of segments
c. Closing the segment
d. None of these
16.Deletion of any segment is much________ than creation of any new segment
a. Easier
b. Difficult
c. Higher
d. None
17._______is very important in creating animated images on the screen
a. Image transformation
b. Morphing
c. Clipping

d. None of these
18.Which attributes of image transformation change the size of an image corresponding to the x-axis and y-
axis
a. SCALE-X
b. SCALE-Y
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
19.Which attributes of image transformation change the position of image corresponding to the x-axis and y-
axis
a. TRANSLATE-X
b. TRANSLATE-Y
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
20.Which attributes of image transformation rotate the image by a given angle
a. TRANSLATE-X
b. TRANSLATE-Y
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
21.Which attributes of image transformation rotate the image by a given angle
a. ROTATE-X
b. ROTATE-Y
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
22.The graphics method in which one object is transformed into another object are called
a. Clipping
b. Morphing
c. Reflection
d. Shear
23.Example of morphing are

a. Oil takes the shape of a car
b. A tiger turns into a bike
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
24.A many sided figure is termed as
a. Square
b. Polygon
c. Rectangle
d. None
25.The end point of polygon are called as
a. Edges
b. Vertices
c. Line
d. None of these
26.The line segment of polygon are called as
a. Edges
b. Vertices
c. Line
d. None of these
27.How many types of polygon are
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
28.What are the types of polygon
a. Convex polygon
b. Concave polygon
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

29.If a line joining any of its two interior points lies completely within it are called
a. Convex polygon
b. Concave polygon
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
30.If a line joining any two of its interior points lies not completely inside are called
a. Convex polygon
b. Concave polygon
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
31.In which polygon object appears only partially
a. Convex polygon
b. Concave polygon
c. Both a & b
d. None
32. If the visit to the vertices of the polygon in the given order produces an anticlockwise loop are called
a. Negatively oriented
b. Positively oriented
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
33.If the visit to the vertices of the polygon in the given order produces an clockwise loop are called
a. Negatively oriented
b. Positively oriented
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
34.Which things are mainly needed to make a polygon and to enter the polygon into display file
a. No of sides of polygon
b. Vertices points

c. Both a & b
d. None of these
35.Two types of coordinates are
a. Positive and negative coordinates
b. Absolute and relative coordinates
c. Both a & b
d. None
36.Which approaches are used for determine whether a particular point is inside or outside of a polygon
a. Even-odd method
b. Winding number method
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
e.
37.The transformation that produces a parallel mirror image of an object are called
a. Reflection
b. Shear
c. Rotation
d. Scaling
38.The transformation that disturbs the shape of an object are called
a. Reflection
b. Shear
c. Rotation
d. Scaling
39.The process of mapping a world window in world coordinate system to viewport are called
a. Transformation viewing
b. View Port
c. Clipping window
d. Screen coordinate system
40.In which transformation the shape of an object can be modified in x-direction ,y-direction as well as in both
the direction depending upon the value assigned to shearing variables

a. Reflection
b. Shearing
c. Rotation
d. Scaling
41.The process of extracting a portion of a database or a picture inside or outside a specified region are called
a. Translation
b. Shear
c. Reflection
d. Clipping
42.The rectangle portion of the interface window that defines where the image will actually appear are called
a. Transformation viewing
b. View port
c. Clipping window
d. Screen coordinate system
43.The space in which the image is displayed are called
a. Screen coordinate system
b. Clipping window
c. World coordinate system
d. None of these
44.The rectangle space in which the world definition of region is displayed are called
b. Clipping window or world window
d. None of these
45.The object space in which the application model is defined
b. Clipping window or world window
d. None of these
e.

46.The process of cutting off the line which are outside the window are called
a. Shear
b. Reflection
c. Clipping
d. Clipping window
47.Some common form of clipping include
a. curve clipping
b. point clipping
c. polygon clipping
d. All of these
48.A composite transformation matrix can be made by determining the ________of matrix of the individual
transformation
a. Addition
b. Subtraction
c. Product
d. None of these
49.Each successive transformation matrix _________ the product of the preceding transformation
a. pre-multiples
b. post-multiples
c. both a & b
d. none of these
50.Forming products of transformation matrices is often referred as
a. Composition of matrix
b. Concatenation of matrix
c. Both a & b are same
d. None of these
51.The alteration of the original shape of an object, image, sound, waveform or other form of information are
called
a. Reflection
b. Distortion

c. Rotation
d. None of these
52. Two consecutive translation transformation t1 and t2 are
a. Additive
b. Subtractive
c. Multiplicative
d. None of these
53.Two consecutive rotation transformation t1 and t2 are
a. Additive
b. Subtractive
c. Multiplicative
d. None of these
e.
54.Two consecutive scaling transformation t1 and t2 are

a.Additive
a. Subtractive
b. Multiplicative
c. None of these
1. The graphics can be

a. Drawing
b. Photograph, movies
c. Simulation
d. All of these
2. Computer graphics was first used by
a. William fetter in 1960
b. James fetter in 1969
c. James gosling in 1991
d. John Taylor in 1980
3. The component of interactive computer graphics are
a. A light pen
b. Display unit
c. Bank of switches
d. All of these
4. Personal computer become powerful during the late
a. 1960

b. 1970
c. 1980
d. 1950
5. Three dimensional computer graphics become effective In the late
a. 1960
b. 1980
c. 1970
d. 1950
6. which environment has been one of the most accepted tool for computer graphics in business and graphics
design studios
a. graphics
b. Macintosh
c. quake
d. multimedia
7. Graphics is one of the_________ major key element in design of multimedia application
a. Five
b. Three
c. Four
d. Eight
8. Three dimensional graphics become popular in games designing , multimedia and animation during the late
a. 1960
b. 1970
c. 1980
d. 1990
9. The quake , one of the first fully 3D games was released in year
a. 1996
b. 1976
c. 1986
d. 1999
10. Types of computer graphics are
a. Vector and raster
b. Scalar and raster
c. Vector and scalar
d. None of these
11. Vector graphics is composed of
a. Pixels
b. Paths
c. Palette
d. None of these
12. Raster graphics are composed of
a. Pixels
b. Paths
c. Palette
d. None of these
13. Raster images are more commonly called
a. Pix map

b. bitmap
c. both a & b
d. none of these
14. Pixel can be arranged in a regular
a. One dimensional grid
b. Two dimensional grid
c. Three dimensional grid
d. None of these
15. The brightness of each pixel is
a. Compatible
b. Incompatible
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
16. Each pixel has ________basic color components
a. Two or three
b. One or two
c. Three or four
d. None of these
17. The quantity of an image depend on
a. No. of pixel used by image
b. No. of line used by image
c. No. of resolution used by image
d. None
18. Higher the number 0f pixels,_______ the image quality
a. Bad
b. Better
c. Smaller
d. None of above
19. A palette can be defined as a finite set of colors for managing the
a. Analog images
b. Digital images
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
20. Display card are
a. VGA
b. EGA
c. Both a & b
d. None of above
21. Display card is used for the purpose of
a. Sending graphics data to input unit
b. Sending graphics data to output unit
c. Receiving graphics data from output unit
d. None of these
22. Several graphics image file formats that are used by most of graphics system are
a. GIF
b. JPEG
c. TIFF

d. All of these
23. The GIF format is much _________to be downloaded or uploaded over the www
a. Slower
b. Faster
c. Medium
d. None of these
24. Once a file is saved in JPEG format ,some data is lost
a. Temporarily
b. Permanently
c. Both a & b
d. None
25. EPS image file format is used for
a. Vector graphics
b. Bitmap
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
26. TIFF (tagged image file format )are used for
a. Vector graphics
b. Bitmap
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
27. EPS means
a. Entire post script
b. Entire post scale
c. Encapsulated post script
d. None of these
28. The additive color models use the concept of
a. Printing ink
b. Light to display color
c. Printing line
d. None of these
29. The subtractive color model use the concept of
a. Printing ink
b. Light to display color
c. Printing line
d. None of these
30. Color apparent in additive model are the result of
a. Reflected light
b. Transmission of light
c. Flow of light
d. None of these
31. Color apparent in subtractive model are the result of
a. Amount of Reflected light
b. Transmission of light
c. Flow of light
d. None of these

32. Two dimensional color model are
a. RGB and CMKY
b. RBG and CYMK
c. RGB and CMYK
d. None
33. RGB model are used for
a. Computer display
b. Printing
c. Painting
d. None of these
34. CMYK model are used for
a. Computer display
b. Printing
c. Painting
d. None of these
35. The intersection of three primary RGB color produces
a. White color
b. Black color
c. Magenta color
d. Blue color
36. The intersection of primary CMYK color produces
a. White color
b. Black color
c. Cyan color
d. Magenta color
37. The RGB model display a much _______ percentage of the visible band as compared to CMYK
a. Lesser
b. Larger
c. Medium
d. None of these
38. Color depth can be defined by ________ which can be displayed on a display unit
a. Bits per pixel
b. Bytes per pixel
c. Megabyte per pixel
d. None of these
39. Each bit represent
a. One color
b. Two color
c. Three color
d. None
40. RGB true color model has _______ color depth
a. 24bit
b. 32bit
c. 64bit
d. None
41. CMYK true color model has _______ color depth
a. 24bit

b. 32bit
c. 64bit
d. None
42. Grey scale images have a maximum color depth of
a. 8bit
b. 16bit
c. 24bit
d. 32bit
43. Graphics with limited features is known as
a. Active graphics
b. Passive graphics
c. Grayscale image
d. None of these
44. Computer of present time have much higher memory and ________ storage capacity
a. Much smaller
b. Much bigger
c. Much slower
d. None
45. CRT means
a. Common ray tube
b. Cathode ray tube
c. Common ray tube
d. None
46. Refresh CRT consist of
a. Glass wrapper
b. The phosphor viewing surface
c. The electron gun assembly
d. All of above
47. The amount of time the phosphor produce light or shine is controlled by chemical composition of the phosphor.
This is known as
a. Persistence
b. Resistance
c. Generators
d. None
48. The electron beam in a color picture tube is refreshed_______ times in a second to make video realistic
a. 15 times
b. 25 times
c. 35 times
d. 45 times
49. DUST means
a. Direct view storage tube
b. Domain view storage tube
c. Direct view store tube
d. None
50. DUST is rarely used today as part of
a. Input device
b. Output device

c. Display systems
d. None
51. In DUST , is there refresh buffer
a. Yes
b. No
c. Both
d. None
52. The electron beam in DUST is designed to draw directly to
a. Phosphor
b. Storage mesh
c. Glass
d. None
53. The second grid in DUST is called
a. Phosphor
b. Storage mesh
c. Collector
d. None
54. To increase the energy of these slow moving electron and create a bright picture in DUST , the screen is
maintained at a
a. Low positive potential
b. High negative potential
c. High positive potential
d. None
55. A major disadvantage of DUST in interactive computer graphics is
a. Ability to selectively erase part of an image
b. Inability to selectively erase part of image from screen
c. Inability to produce bright picture
d. None
56. Interactive graphics is useful in
a. Training pilots
b. Computer aided design
c. Process control
d. All of these
57. The origin of computer graphics was developed in
a. 1950
b. 1960
c. 1970
d. 1990
58. The term business graphics came into use in late
a. 1950
b. 1960
c. 1970
d. 1990
59. Computer graphics is used in many DTP software as
a. Photoshop
b. Paint brush
c. Both a & b

d. None of these
60. Any CRT based display must be refreshing at least_______ times a second
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 10
61. The standardization is needed
a. To make application programs more portable
b. To increase their utility
c. To allow them to use in different application environment
d. All of these
62. GKS stands for
a. Graphics kernel system
b. Graphics kernel stands
c. Generic kernel system
d. None of these
63. GKS was developed by the
a. International standards organization
b. National standard organization
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
64. The resolution of raster scan display is
a. Low
b. High
c. Medium
d. None
65. Random scan systems are designed for
a. Line drawing application
b. Pixel drawing application
c. Color drawing application
d. None of these
66. Solid pattern in random scan display is ____ to fill
a. Difficult
b. Easy
c. Not fill
d. None of these
67. Raster scan is _______ expensive than random scan
a. More
b. Less
c. Both a & b
d. None
68. Two basic technique for producing color display with a CRT are
a. Shadow mask and random scan
b. Beam penetration method and shadow mask method
c. Random scan and raster scan
d. None of above
69. In beam penetration method of color CRT, two layer of phosphor coated are

a. Red and blue
b. Red and green
c. Blue and green
d. None of these
70. In beam penetration method of color CRT, which layer is red and which is green
a. Outer is red and inner is green
b. Inner is red and outer is green
c. Inner is red and inner is green
d. None
71. A shadow mask CRT has _____ phosphor color dots at each pixel position
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of these
72. Which color is produced with the green and red dots only
a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Magenta
d. White
73. Which color s produced with the blue and red dots
a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Magenta
d. White
74. Cyan color is produced when the blue and green are activated
a. Equally
b. Unequally
c. Both a & b
d. None
75. Which technique of color CRT is used for production of realistic image
a. Shadow mask method
b. Beam penetration method
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
76. In which method of CRT, convergence problem occur
a. Beam penetration method
b. Shadow mask method
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
77. Beam penetration method is used in
a. Random scan system
b. Raster scan system
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
78. Shadow mask method is used in
a. Random scan system
b. Raster scan system

c. Both a & b
d. None of these
79. Graphics data is computed by processor in form of
a. Electrical signals
b. Analog signals
c. Digital signals
d. None of these
80. An example of impact device is
a. Electrostatic printer
b. Inkjet printer
c. Line printer
d. Laser printer
81. To generate the characters , which are required
a. Hardware
b. Software
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
82. The method which uses array of dots for generating a character is called
a. Stoke method
b. Bitmap method
c. Star bust method
d. None of these
83. The hardware devices contain
a. Color printer / black white printer
b. Plotters
c. Both a & b
d. None
84. An example of black and white laser printer is
a. HP 4000
b. QMS
c. Both a & b
d. None
85. An example of color printer is
a. HP 4000
b. QMS
c. Both a & b
d. None
86. Non impact use various techniques to combine three color pigment ______ to produce a range of color patterns
a. Cyan , magenta and yellow
b. Cyan , white and black
c. Cyan , white and yellow
d. Black , magenta and yellow
87. Printers produce output by either
a. Impact method
b. Non impact method
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

88. What is name of temporary memory where the graphics data is stored to be displayed on screen
a. RAM
b. ROM
c. Frame buffer
d. None
89. The division of the computer screen into rows and columns that define the no. of pixels to display a picture is
called
a. Persistence
b. Resolution
c. Encapsulated post script
d. None
90. LCD means
a. Liquid crystal displays
b. Liquid crystal data
c. Liquid chrome data
d. None
91. LCD are commonly used in
a. Calculators
b. Portable
c. Laptop computers
d. All of these
92. LCD is an ______ device
a. Emissive
b. Non emissive
c. Gas discharge
d. None of these
93. Plasma panel is an __ device
a. Emissive
b. Non emissive
c. Expensive
d. None
94. Plasma device converts
a. Electrical energy into light
b. Light into electrical energy
c. Light into graphical energy
d. None of these
95. Plasma panel have_________ resolution
a. High
b. Good
c. Both a & b
d. Low
96. Plasma panel are also called
a. Liquid crystal display
b. Gas discharge display
c. Non emissive display
d. None of these
97. The basic graphical interactions are

a. Pointing
b. Positioning
c. Both a & b
d. None
98. GUI means
a. Graphical user interface
b. Graphical user interaction
c. Graphics uniform interaction
d. None
99. Which one is the basic input device in GUI
a. Mouse
b. Graphics tablet
c. Voice system
d. Touch panel
100. Pen or inkjet plotters use the following devices
a. Drum
b. Flat bed
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
1. ______is a flexible strip that is used to produce smooth curve using a set of point
a. Sp line
b. Scan-line method
c. Depth-sorting method
d. None of these
2. The types of sp line curve are
a. Open sp line
b. Closed sp line
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
3. Cubic sp line are
a. Simple to compute
b. Provides continuity of curves
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
4. The parametric form of 3D sp line are

a. X=f(t),y=g(t),z=h(t)
b. X=a0,y=b0,z=c0
c. F(t)=0,g(t)=0,h(t)=0
d. None of these
5. The value of t lies between
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 10
c. 0 and 1
d. 0and 3
6. The surfaces that is blocked or hidden from view in a 3D scene are known as
a. Hidden surface
b. Frame buffer
c. Quad tree
d. None of these
7. The problem of hidden surface are
a. Removal of hidden surface
b. Identification of hidden surface
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
8. Why we need removal of hidden surface
a. for displaying realistic view
b. for determining the closest visible surface
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
9. How many types of hidden surface algorithm are
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
10.The algorithm of hidden surface are

a. Object-space method
b. image-space method
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
11.The method which is based on the principle of comparing objects and parts of objects to each other to find
which are visible and which are hidden are called
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
12.The method which is based on the principle of checking the visibility point at each pixel position on the
projection plane are called
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
13.The types of hidden surface removal algorithm are
a. Depth comparison, Z-buffer, back-face removal
b. Scan line algorithm, priority algorithm
c. BSP method, area subdivision method
d. All of these
14.Which surface algorithm is based on perspective depth
a. Depth comparison
b. Z-buffer or depth-buffer algorithm
c. subdivision method
d. back-face removal
15.In which year Z- buffer algorithm are described
a. 1995
b. 1974
c. 1945

d. 1981
16.Z -buffer algorithm are
a. Simplest algorithm
b. Complex algorithm
c. Largest algorithm
d. None of these
17.Which is a tree type of data structure in which every internal node has at most four children
a. Point quad tree
b. Edge quad tree
c. Quad tree
d. None of these
18.The scan line coherence algorithm was developed by
a. Wylie
b. Evans
c. Cat mull
d. Both a & b
19.The array are used with scan line coherence algorithm are
a. For intensity value
b. For depth value
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
20.Scan lines are used to scan from
a. Top to bottom
b. Bottom to top
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
21.The painter algorithm were developed on
a. 1972 by Newell
b. 1972 by Evans
c. 1974 by Cat mull

d. None of these
22.The painter algorithm are also called
a. Depth sort algorithm
b. Priority algorithm
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
23. The painter algorithm are based on the property of
a. Polygon
b. Frame buffer
c. Depth buffer
d. None of these
24.The dynamic effect of an image is called
a. Video
b. Animation
c. Super sampling
d. None of these
25.The animation can be defined as a collection of images played in
a. Not sequence
b. Defined sequence
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
26. When sound is included in the animation, it become
a. Audio
b. Video
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
27. Many online animation tools are used to create animation in the form of
a. JPEG image
b. PDF image
c. GIF image

d. None of these
28.An ex of online animation tools are
a. Macromedia flash
b. GIF works
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
29.To produce the motion in the image by placing the elements of the image on different location ,which
software are used
a. Macromedia flash
b. GIF works
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
30.The name of a visible surface detection algorithm are
a. Back face detection
b. Back face removal
c. Ray tracing
d. None of these
31.Which type of quad tree can be defined as an adaptation of a binary tree represented two dimensional point
data
a. Point quad tree
b. Edge quad tree
c. Curves quad tree
d. Areas quad tree
32.Which type of quad tree is specifically used to store lines rather than points
a. Point quad tree
b. Edge quad tree
c. Curves quad tree
d. Areas quad tree
33.Which quad tree defines a partition of space in two dimension by dividing the region into four equal
quadrants, sub quadrants and so on

a. Curves quad tree
b. Areas quad tree
c. Region quad tree

d. None
34.The animation graphics can be created by
a. Hand
b. Computer assistance
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
35.The animation can be divided into
a. One part
b. Two parts
c. Three parts
d. Four parts
36.The types of animation are
a. Traditional animation
b. Computer animation
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
37.The types of computer animation are
a. 2D computer animation
b. 3D computer animation
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
38.The depth sorting method reforms surfaces sorting in________ order of depth
a. Increasing
b. Decreasing
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
39.The problem of discontinuity of lines is known as

a. Jaggies
b. Stair-casing
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
40.A quad-tree is a data structure which is used for graphical representation of
a. 2D digital picture or object
b. 3D picture or object
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
41.A octree is a data structure which is used for alternative representation of
a. 2D digital picture or object
b. 3D picture or object
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
42.How many data elements for each region in quad-tree data structure
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
43.How many data elements for each region in octree data structure
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
44.The main property of________ is that their shape is irregular
a. Fractals
b. Quad-tree
c. Rendering
d. None of these
45.The word fractals is coined by

a. Mandelbrot in 1975
b. Gosling in 1962
c. Mandelbrot in 1974
d. Mandelbrot in 1979
46.The fractals is used to
a. Generate image of natural object
b. Viewing of various mathematical system
c. Viewing of various physical system
d. All of these
47.A process with the help of which images or picture can be produced in a more realistic way is called
a. Fractals
b. Quad-tree
c. Rendering
d. None of these
48.For which purpose ,one needs to apply natural light effects to visible surface
a. Fractals
b. Quad-tree
c. Rendering
d. None of these
49.The basic ray tracing algorithm provides
a. Transparency
b. Visible-surface detection
c. Shadow effect, multiple light source illumination
d. All of these
50. Ray-tracing is an extension of
a. Ray calling
b. Ray casting
c. Ray sampling
d. None of these
51.A fast and simple method for rendering an object with polygon surface is

a. Constant-intensity shading
b. Flat shading
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
1. A three dimensional graphics has

a. Two axes
b. Three axes
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
2. _________as the most commonly used boundary presentation for a 3-D graphics object
a. Data polygon
b. Surface polygon
c. System polygon
d. None of these
3. A three dimensional object can also be represented using_______
a. Method
b. Equation
c. Point
d. None of these
4. An_______ can be considered as an extension of spherical surface
a. Bezier
b. Ellipsoid
c. Shearing
d. None of these
5. _______curve is one of the sp line approximation methods
a. Bezier
b. Ellipsoid
c. Shearing
d. None of these
6. A Bezier curve is a polynomial of degree ___________the no of control points used
a. One more than
b. One less than
c. Two less than
d. None of these
7. The most basic transformation that are applied in three-dimensional planes are
a. Translation
b. Scaling
c. Rotation
d. All of these
8. The transformation in which an object can be shifted to any coordinate position in three dimensional plane are
called
a. Translation

b. Scaling
c. Rotation
d. All of these
9. The transformation in which an object can be rotated about origin as well as any arbitrary pivot point are
called
a. Translation
b. Scaling
c. Rotation
d. All of these
10. The transformation in which the size of an object can be modified in x-direction ,y-direction and z-direction
a. Translation
b. Scaling
c. Rotation
d. All of these
11. Apart from the basic transformation ,________are also used
a. Shearing
b. Reflection
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
12. In which transformation ,the shape of an object can be modified in any of direction depending upon the value
assigned to them
a. Reflection
b. Shearing
c. Scaling
d. None of these
13. In which transformation ,the mirror image of an object can be seen with respect to x-axis, y-axis ,z-axis as well
as with respect to an arbitrary line
a. Reflection
b. Shearing
c. Translation
d. None of these
14. How many types of projection are
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
15. The types of projection are
a. Parallel projection and perspective projection
b. Perpendicular and perspective projection
c. Parallel projection and Perpendicular projection
d. None of these
16. How many types of parallel projection are
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
17. The types of parallel projection are

a. Orthographic projection and quadric projection
b. Orthographic projection and oblique projection
c. oblique projection and quadric projection
d. None of these
18. _________are the three dimensional analogs of quad trees
a. Quadric
b. Octrees
c. Geometry
d. None of these
19. By which more complex objects can be constructed
a. Quadric surfaces
b. Wire frame model
c. Composite transformation
d. None of these
20. _______refers to the common elements of graphics scenes ,often used in graphics package as primitive
components
a. Quadric surfaces
b. Wire frame model
d. None of these
21. _________refer to the shapes created by union, intersection and difference of given shapes
a. Wire frame model
b. Composite transformation
c. Constructive solid geometry methods
d. None of these
22. ________refer to a model that represent all the dimension of an object external as well as internal
a. Wire frame model
b. Constructive solid geometry methods
d. None of these
23. ________refers to the result obtained by multiplying the matrix of the individual transformation representation
sequences
a. Wire frame model
d. None of these
24. The projection in which the projection plane is allowed to intersect the x, y and z-axes at equal distances
a. Wire frame model
c. Isometric projection
d. Back face removal
25. In which projection ,the plane normal to the projection has equal angles with these three axes
a. Wire frame model
26. ___________is a simple object space algorithm that removes about half of the total polygon in an image as about

half of the faces of objects are back faces
a. Wire frame model
27. By which ,we can take a view of an object from different directions and different distances
a. Projection
b. Rotation
c. Translation
d. Scaling
28. Parallel projection shows the
a. True image of an object
b. True size of an object
c. True shape of an object
d. all of these
29. Projection rays(projectors) emanate from a
a. COP(centre of projection )
b. Intersect projection plane
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
30. The centre of projection for parallel projectors is at
a. Zero
b. Infinity
c. One
d. None of these
31. In orthographic projection, engineering use
a. Top view of an object
b. Front view of an object
c. Side view of an object
d. All of these
32. The orthographic projection that show more than one side of an object are called
a. Axonometric projection
b. Isometric projection
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
33. The projection that can be viewed as the projection that has a centre of projection at a finite distance from the
plane of projection are called
a. Parallel projection
b. Perspective projection
d. None of these
34. The perspective projection is more practical because the distant objects appear
a. Smaller
b. Larger
c. Neither smaller nor larger
d. None of these
35. The equation of scaling transformation will be

a. X1=x+Tx,y1=y+Ty,z1=z+Tz
b. X1=x.sx,y1=y.sy,z1=z.sz
c. Both of these
d. None of these
36. The equation of translation transformation will be
a. X1=x+Tx,y1=y+Ty,z1=z+Tz
b. X1=x.sx,y1=y.sy,z1=z.sz
c. Both of these
d. None of these
37. Sp line curve can be either
a. Bezier sp line
b. B sp line
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
38. Bezier sp line always passes through
a. First and second control point
b. Does not pass from First and second control point
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
39. The equation for describing surface of 3D plane are
a. Ax+ By+ Cz+ D= 0
b. Ax+ By+ Cz = 0
c. Ax+ By+ D= 0
d. Ax+ By+ Cz+ D= 1
40. The object refers to the 3D representation through linear, circular or some other representation are called
a. Quadric surface
b. Sweep representation
c. Torus
d. None of these
41. The distance of a line from the projection plane determines
a. Its size on projection plane
b. Its length on projection plane
c. Its width on projection plane
d. Its height on projection plane
42. The further the line from the projection plane, _______its image on the projection plane
a. Smaller
b. Larger
c. Neither smaller nor larger
d. None of these
43. The Bezier curve obtained from the four control points is called a
a. Square Bezier curve
b. Cubic Bezier curve
c. Hectare Bezier curve
d. Rectangle Bezier curve
44. The shape of a Bezier curve primarily depends upon the
a. Position of control points
b. Distance of control points

c. Position of control panel
d. None of these
45. The no of control points in a Bezier curve ensures the
a. Jaggies of curve
b. Smoothness of curve
c. Straightness of curve
d. None of these
46. More the control points of a Bezier curve,________ quality of the curve
a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Bad
d. None of these
47. ______is one of the function that is used to specify a single plane surface
a. Meta-ball model
b. Fill area
c. Reflection
d. None of these
48. Meta-ball is used to describe
a. Simplest object
b. Complex object
c. Composite object
d. None of these
49. Super quadrics is a class of object that contain
a. Data
b. Codes
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
50. When two molecules move apart, which effect on molecular shapes
a. Stretching
b. Snapping
c. Contracting
d. All of these
51. The sweep representation of an object refers to the
a. 2D representation
b. 3D representation
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
1. Interactive computer graphics uses various kind of input devices such as
a. Mouse
b. Graphic tablet
c. Joystick

d. All of these
2. Input function are used for
a. Control the data flow from these interactive devices
b. Process the data flow from these interactive devices
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
3. A graphics package contains
a. No of housekeeping task such as clearing a display screen
b. No of housekeeping task such as initializing parameters
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
4. The interactive computer graphics involves________ way communication b/w computer and the user
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. four
5. Interactive computer graphics enables a user to customize the graphics in _______

a. Computer way
b. His own way
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
6. User can make any change on image with the use of
a. Non-interactive graphics
b. Interactive graphics
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
7. The application area of computer graphics are
a. Political
b. Education and textbook
c. CAD and entertainment

d. All of these
8. CAD means
a. Car aided design
b. Computer art design
c. Computer aided design
d. None of these
9. DTP means
a. Draw top publishing
b. Desk top publishing
c. Desk town publishing
d. None of these
10.PCBs can be drawn using the computer graphics
a. In very efficiently way
b. In a shorter time
c. In a larger time
d. Both a & b
11.How many components of Interactive computer graphics are
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. four
12.What are the components of Interactive computer graphics
a. A digital memory or frame buffer
b. A television monitor
c. An interface or display controller
d. All of these
13.A display controller serves to pass the contents of
a. Frame buffer to monitor
b. Monitor to frame buffer
c. Both a & b

d. None of these
14.The image is passed repeatedly to the monitor _____in order to maintain a steady picture on the screen
a. 25 times a second
b. 30 times a second
c. 30 or more times a second
d. None of these
15.To store black and white images ,black pixels are represented by________ in the frame buffer and white
pixels by_______
a. Zero and one
b. One and Zero
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
16.A 16*16array of black and white pixels could be represented by________
a. 64bytes
b. 32bytes
c. 128bytes
d. 96bytes
17.The display controller converts 0s and 1s into_______
a. TV monitor
b. Video signal
c. Electronics signal
d. None of these
18.The image can be transmitted to the display point by________

a. Line
b. Segment
c. Point
d. None of these
19.Which graphics application provides a proper dialogue box to help the user
a. MS excel
b. MS Paint

c. MS word
d. None of these
20.The area of computer that is captured by an application is called
a. Window
b. View port
c. Display
d. None of these
21.A basic interactive picture construction technique are
a. Positioning and pointing, constraints
b. Grid, gravity field, rubber band method
c. Sketching, dragging, inking and painting
d. All of these
22.The movement of different attributes of image would make the image dynamic and such a dynamic effect is
termed as ________
a. Picture
b. Animation
c. Painting
d. None of these
23.Graphics output devices are
a. Graphics tablet, mouse
b. Keyboard
c. Light pen, joystick
d. None of these
24.Which method are used to get and set the position of a pixel, object or text in active area of a desktop
a. Drugging method
b. Basic positioning method
c. Sketching method
d. Gravity field method
25.The center of display screen is computed as
a. X max ,y max

b. Xmax/2,ymax/2
c. Xmax/3,ymax/3
d. None of these
26.The operation that is used for repositioned the object are called
a. Rubber band method
b. Gravity field
c. Dragging
d. None of these
27.Which method are used to construct and position the straight lines, arcs and circles, etcs
b. Gravity field
c. Dragging
d. None of these
28.Which are used to connect a line to already drawn line
b. Gravity field
c. Dragging
d. None of these
29.The rubber band is also applicable to_______ objects
a. Scale
b. Scalar
c. Vector
d. None of these
30. The division displayed on screen into row and columns is known as
b. Gravity field
c. Dragging
d. Grid
31.The function of a plotter is like a
a. Monitor

b. Projector
c. printer
d. None of these
32.A plotter is capable of
a. Printing a map
b. Printing a similar images
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
33.______ ink is used in laser printer
a. Wet
b. Dry
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
34.The cabinet in laser printer in which the ink is filled is called
a. Cartage
b. Toner
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
35.An inkjet printer places_______ of ink onto paper to print an image
a. Small droplets
b. large droplets
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
36.The size of these dot in inkjet printer usually lies between
a. 50 to60 microns in diameter
b. 20 to30 microns in diameter
c. 30 to40 microns in diameter
d. 10 to20 microns in diameter
37.The speed of printing in inkjet printer is
a. Fast

b. Slow
c. Not fast nor slow
d. None of these
38.The inkjet printer is mostly common due to their
a. Low cost
b. Performance
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
39.LCD stands for
a. Liquid core display
b. Liquid crystal display
c. Liquid crystal diagram
d. None of these
40. The LCD projector is the output device that is connected to the
a. Monitor
b. LCD
c. CPU
d. None of these
41.The size of the projected contents in LCD projector depends on the distance between
a. Projector and CPU
b. Projector and target screen
c. Projector and target memory
d. None of these
42.An LCD projector displays the contents in ________ manner than a simple monitor
a. Less flexible
b. More flexible
c. Inflexible
d. None of these
43. How many types of LCD projector
a. 1

b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
44.The types of LCD projector are
a. Flat panel and laser
b. Normal and roof mounted
c. Mesh model and curved
d. None of these
45.The roof mounted projector are fixed on the
a. Floor
b. Roof
c. Corner
d. None of these
46.The roof mounted projector can connect two or more computers or laptops in______
a. Serial
b. Parallel
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
47. The roof mounted projector are also enabled to take
a. Computer data
b. Printing data
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
48.The roof mounted projector takes computer data via a cable through
a. Serial port
b. Parallel port
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
49. The roof mounted projector are Bluetooth
a. Enabled

b. Disabled
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
50.The flat panel displays are________ in appearance
a. Flat
b. Curved
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
51.A touch screen display is an
a. Input device
b. Output device
c. Both a & b
d. Neither input nor output
52.The touch screen display shows the results of
a. Computation
b. Accept command and data from user for further computation
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
53.The flat panel display is called an
a. LCD monitor
b. LED monitor
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
54.A graphics tablet works on same principal as
a. Light pen
b. Monitor
c. Projector
d. None of these
55.The voice recognition system takes the command from the user in the form of
a. Writing

b. Voice
c. Both a& b
d. None of these
56.In the voice recognition system ,the voice is converted into
a. Machine code
b. Byte code
c. Electrical signal
d. None of these
57. A joystick is a
a. Graphics input device
b. Graphics output device
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
58.A joystick is consisting of a
a. Pen
b. Stick
c. Microphone
d. None of these
59. joystick are often used to control
a. Typing
b. Video games
c. Voice
d. None of these
60.The joystick often has _____ fire buttons to trigger some kind of action
a. One
b. More
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
61.In which year ,mostly modern joystick use a USB interface for connection to the personal computer
a. 2005

b. 2007
c. 2006
d. 2008
62.The light pen is an
a. Graphics input device
b. Graphics output device
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
63.The functioning of a light pen is similar to mouse except that
a. User can move the pointer
b. User can select objects on the display screen by pointing to object with the pen
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
64. A wireless mouse works on
a. Infra blue radiation
b. Infra red radiation
c. Infra green radiation
d. None of these
65.A wireless mouse consists of ______parts
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. None of these
66.The parts of wireless mouse is
a. Cable and a mouse
b. USB and a mouse
c. CPU and a mouse
d. None of these
67.The mouses motion typically translates into
a. Motion of a pointer on a display

b. Motion of a pointer on a CPU
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
68.How many types of keyboard

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
69.Types of keyboard are
a. Standard
b. Gaming and multimedia
c. Thumb sized
d. numeric
e. all of these
70.Which are used to achieve the predetermined orientations and alignments of the objects
a. Constraints
b. Grid
c. Gravity field
d. None of these
71.The major constraints are
a. Horizontal alignment
b. Vertical alignment
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
1. A technique by which the vertical and /or horizontal scan frequency of video signal can be changed for
different purpose and applications is called
a. Scan conversion
b. Polygon filling
c. Two dimensional graphics

d. Anti aliasing
2. The method which perform the scan conversion by using large number of delay cells are called
a. Analogue method
b. Digital method
c. Complex method
d. None of these
3. Digital method is also known as
a. Normal method
b. Buffered method
c. Real time method
d. None of these
4. Analogue method is also known as
a. Normal method
b. Buffered method
c. Real time or memory less method
d. None of these
5. Digital method allows a picture to be stored in line or frame buffer with
a. Same speed
b. Different speed
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
6. A pixel may be defined as
a. Smallest size object

b. Larger size object
c. Medium size object
d. None of these
7. A position in plane known as

a. Line
b. Point
c. Graphics

d. None of these
8. A line can be represented by
a. One point
b. Two points
c. Three points
d. Four points
9. The process of coloring the area of a polygon is called
a. Polygon filling
b. Polygon flow
c. Aliasing
d. None of these
10.How many types of polygon filling
a. Two
b. One
c. Three
d. Four
11. The algorithm used for filling the interior of a polygon is called
a. Flood fill algorithm
b. Boundary fill algorithm
c. Scan line polygon fill algorithm
d. None of these
12.The function of scan line polygon fill algorithm are
a. Find intersection point of the boundary of polygon and scan line
b. Find intersection point of the boundary of polygon and point
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
13.If the pixel is already filled with desired color then leaves it otherwise fills it. this is called
a. Flood fill algorithm
b. Boundary fill algorithm
c. Scan line polygon filling algorithm

d. None of these
14.A vector can be defined as

a. Intersection b/w two point position
b. Difference b/w two point position
c. Comparison b/w two point position
d. None of these
15.Bresanham circle algorithm uses the approach of
a. Midpoint
b. Point
c. Line
d. None of these
16.The side effect of scan conversion are
a. Aliasing
b. Anti aliasing
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
17.The process of reducing aliasing is called

a. Resolution
b. Anti aliasing
c. Sampling
d. None of these
18.Two basic technique for anti aliasing in ray tracing algorithm are
a. Pixel sampling and super sampling

b. Adaptive sampling and super sampling
c. Pixel sampling and super sampling
d. None of these
19.The problem of aliasing are
a. Staircase
b. Unequal brightness
c. Picket fence problem

d. All of these
20.The technique to minimizing aliasing are

a. Increased no of resolution
b. Modify pixel intensities
c. Super sampling
d. All of these
21.Lower persistence phosphorus is used in
a. Animation
b. Simple object
c. Complex object
d. All of these
22.Lower persistence phosphorus needs_________ refresh rate

a. Lower
b. Higher
c. Medium
d. None of these
23.Higher persistence phosphorus needs _________ refresh rate
a. Lower
b. Higher
c. Medium
d. None of these
24.Higher persistence phosphorus is used in

a. Animation
b. Simple object
c. Higher complex object
d. All of these
25.Phosphorus are of various types depending on
a. color
b. persistence
c. both a & b
d. none of these

C Language MCQ
1. Which is the C IDE:
a. GNU gcc compiler
b. Borland C++ compiler
c. Turbo C++ IDE
d. Visual Studio
e. All of Above
2. C us supported by the following operating system:
a. Unix
b. Linux
c. Windows
d. All of above
3. C is the ________ language:
a. Low level
b. High Level
c. Both Low and High Level
d. None of these
4. Which is not the feature of c language:
a. Portable
b. Terse
c. Modular
d. Efficient
e. None of these
5. You require to write and run c program:
a. Operating system
b. Text editor
c. Compiler
d. All of above
6. which is the shortcut key to compile program in Turbo C IDE:
a. Ctrl + F9
b. Alt + F9
c. Ctrl + F5
d. None of these
7. C has _______ keywords:
a. 30
b. 31
c. 32
d. 33
8. Which is the type of int:

a. Int
b. Unsigned int
c. Long
d. Unsigned long
e. All of above
9. Which is not the valid integer:
a. +345
b. 345UL
c. 123U
d. 123.0
10. Which is the invalid octal:
a. 0346
b. 0452
c. 0255
d. 0840
11. Which is invalid hexadecimal:
a. 0x345
b. 0xA132
c. 0xG120
d. 0x452F
12. The ASCII value of Y:
a. 88
b. 89
c. 90
d. 91
13. Which is not the fundamental data types:
a. Char
b. Array
c. Int
d. Float
14. Variable is a:
a. Location in memory
b. Location in CPU Registers
c. Both
d. None of these
15. Which is not the type of variable
a. Extrern
b. Register
c. Global

d. None of above
16. Which is the invalid identifiers name:
a. Pushp1
b. _pushp
c. 1Pushp
d. pushp_infotech
17. int can store:
a. Real numbers
b. Characters
c. String
d. None of these
18. Which is not the type of variable initializations:
a. Static
b. Dynamic
c. Both
d. None of these
19. In c language \a used for:
a. Form feed
b. Line Brack
c. Alarm
d. None of these
20. The Arithmetic operator % can be used with:
a. int
b. float
c. double
d. void
21. %d is the conversion letter for:
a. char
b. int
c. float
d. double
22. printf(%c, 65); Out of this line is:
a. 65
b. A
c. Both
d. None of these
23. Binary operator needs:
a. One operand
b. Two operand

c. Three operand
d. None of these
24. Which is the symbol for AND operator:
a. ||
b. &&
c. $$
d. None of these
25. printf(0 && 1 = %d\n, 0 && 1); Out of this line is:
a. 0 && 1 = 0
b. 0 && 1 = 1
c. 0 && 1 = 2
d. 0 && 1 = 3
26. int x=10;
printf("%d",x++); Output is:
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. None of these
27. >> operator is used for:
a. Right Shift
b. Left Shift
c. Both
d. None of these
28. char x=10;
printf("%d",~x); Output is:
a. 10
b. -10
c. -11
d. None of these
29. printf("%d",sizeof(int)); Output is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 6
d. 10
30. C program starts executing from:
a. main()
b. header file
c. both
d. None of these

31. Which is the incorrect statement:
a. Variable name can contain underscore.
b. Variable name may start from digit.
c. Variable name may not have white space character.
d. Keyword can not be a variable name.
32. Uninitialized variable may have:
a. Garbage value.
b. Can not be zero
c. Both
d. None of these.
33. Which is the correct variable name:
a. for
b. goto
c. character
d. if
34. Which is not the c keyword:
a. typedef
b. extern
c. register
d. local
35. Which operator is used to assign value to variables:
a. =
b. +
c.
d. /
36. \n used for
a. Alert
b. New line
c. Form feed
d. Backspace
37. printf(%u,&a); The output of this statement is:
a. Value of a
b. Address of a
c. Both
d. None of these.
38. String is:
a. Array of numbers.
b. Array of characters.
c. Both

d. None of these.
39. Which is the string termination character:
a. \n
b. \b
c. \0
d. None of these
40. char *name= India;
strupr(name);
puts(name); Output of this program is:
a. India
b. india
c. INDIA
d. iNDIA
41. Which is not the string handling function:
a. strlwr();
b. strcat();
c. strcmp()
d. strrev();
e. strlen();
f. None of these.
42. Which statement is wrong:
a. A function may have arguments.
b. A function may return value.
c. A can be invoked many time in a single program.
d. Function cannot be reused.
43. A function can return only _______
a. Single value
b. Two Values.
c. Many values.
d. None of these
44. Mathematical function are stored in _________ header file:
a. stdio.h
b. conio.h
c. math.h
d. string.h
45. A function which invokes itself repeatedly until some condition is satisfied is called a
___________ function.
a. Recursive
b. System

c. Library
d. None of these
46. ++ is ________ operator:
a. Decrement
b. Increment
c. Add
d. Plus-Plus
47. Which is the incorrect statement:
a. An array is the collection of variables.
b. All array variables have same type.
c. Array variables can be used individually.
d. None of these.
48. An array can be declared:
a. Statically
b. Dynamically
c. Both
d. None of these
49. Array can be:
a. Single Dimensional
b. Multi Dimensional
c. Both
d. None of these
50. Array index is always starts from:
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
51. An array is ____________ data-structure:
a. Linear
b. Non-linear
c. Hierarchical
d. None of these
52. Which is the false statement:
a. An array of characters is called string.
b. Array can be passed to function.
c. Array is always reference type.
d. None of these
53. Array can be sorted by using:
a. Bubble Sort

b. Merge Sort
c. Quick Sort
d. All of above
54. Which term is not related to function:
a. Prototype
b. Definition
c. Call
d. Receive
55. Which is the type of function arguments:
a. Formal
b. Actual
c. Both
d. None of these
56. Which not the input function:
a. gets();
b. getch();
c. getchar();
d. scanf();
e. getche();
f. None of these.
57. Which is not the output function:
a. printf();
b. puts();
c. puchar();
d. putch();
e. None of these.
58. int add(int,int); in the given function prototype select the correct statement:
a. int x=add(4.2,5);
b. int x=add(4,25);
c. int x=add(425);
d. int x=add();
59. A pointer variable can store ________
a. Constant value
b. Value of anther variable.
c. Address of another variable
d. None of these.
60. int *ptr; here ptr can store the address of:
a. int variable
b. float variable

c. double variable
d. All of above
61. int x=10;
int *y=&x; the variable y contains:
a. Value of x;
b. Address of x;
c. Both
d. None of these
62. int **ptr; here ptr is:
a. Pointer
b. Pointer to pointer
c. Both
d. None of these
63. In the call by reference we pass:
a. Value of the variable
b. Address of variable
c. Both value and address
d. None of these
64. int a[3]={4,5,6};
printf(%u,a); What is the output:
a. Value of first element.
b. Address of first element
c. Both
d. None of these
65. Which function is related to dynamic memory allocation:
a. malloc();
b. calloc()
c. realloc()
d. All of above.
66. strcmp() function is used for:
a. Copy two strings
b. Compare two strings.
c. Concatenation of two strings
d. None of these
67. Which is the formatted input function:
a. getch();
b. scanf();
c. gets();
d. getche();

68. Which is the incorrect function prototype:
a. int add(int,int);
b. int add(float, int);
c. float add(int,int);
d. float add(float,int);
69. Which is the incorrect function prototype based on c library:
a. char *gets(char *string);
b. int puts(const char*s);
c. char *cgets(char *str);
d. int cputs(const char*str);
e. None of these
70. Which is the type of files:
a. Text
b. Binary
c. Both
d. None of these
71. Which function is not related to file handling:
a. fopen();
b. fclose();
c. fprintf();
d. printf();
72. Which is the file opening mode:
a. r
b. w
c. rb
d. wb
e. a
f. All of above
73. A structured programming have:
a. Sequence
b. Selection
c. Iteration
d. All of Above
74. Which is not the selective control flow statement:
a. while
b. if
c. Switch-case
d. if-else
75. Which is the correct example of label:

a. Label;
b. Label:
c. Label,
d. #Label
76. Who is the manufacturer of C language:
a. Herbert Schieldt
b. Banjarne Stroups
c. Dennis Ritchie
d. None of these
77. C is the __________ language:
a. Object Oriented
b. Structured
c. Unified Modeling
d. None of these.
78. An efficient algorithm ______
a. Takes efficient time
b. Takes efficient memory
c. Both
d. None of these
79. Which technique is related to internal code:
a. Black Box
b. White Box
c. Alfa
d. Beta
80. Which is the type of white box testing:
a. Path Testing
b. Loop Testing
c. Domain Testing.
d. All of these

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IT Fundamentals Questions

1. First calculating device is :

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59. CPU stands for_____

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1. Mechanism developed to enforce users to enter data in required format is:

2. The raw facts and figures are:

6. You can find Sort & Filter group of commands in

7. Which of the following filter method is not available in Access?

8. By Grouped Report you understand

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11. What is the size of Data & Time field type?

14. Arrange according to the size

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21. You can display data from multiple tables by using

23. What field type is best to store serial numbers?

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27. You can display Backstage View by clicking on

28. Why do you pin an item in list?

30. What is relational database?

31. The advantage of computerized database over manual database is

32. Circular button with Office icon in it is

33. Group names in ribbon can be helpful to

35. Navigation pane is placed on

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Answers to Multiple Choice Questions

1. Mechanism developed to enforce users to enter data in required format is:

2. The raw facts and figures are:

6. You can find Sort & Filter group of commands in

7. Which of the following filter method is not available in Access?

8. By Grouped Report you understand

11. What is the size of Data & Time field type?

14. Arrange according to the size

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21. You can display data from multiple tables by using

23. What field type is best to store serial numbers?

27. You can display Backstage View by clicking on

28. Why do you pin an item in list?

30. What is relational database?

31. The advantage of computerized database over manual database is

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33. Group names in ribbon can be helpful to

35. Navigation pane is placed on

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2. Information is processed from __________

3. MIS stands for:

d. Master Information System

5. Which is the data model

6. Which is not the feature of database:

7. Which is the type of data independence:

8. Which is the feature of database:

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9. Which is the advantage of database:

10. Which is the database language: