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..NDA 4 NA (II) .

2004 I

T.B.C. : Q-OEBB-J-HB Test Booklet Series

Serial No. 106013
Time Allowed : Two Hours and Thirty Minutes
Maximum Marks : 600

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test . - , - - - - - - - - - - - - - - .
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions) in two Parts : PART-A and PART-B.
Each item in PART-B is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer. Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the
Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions
sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
{i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (033) of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even
if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that question.
urr-f : <!il i%;;fl !!ffii<iit 'Pf 'R -.rn I


Directions (For the 8 items which follow} :

Each of the following items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or
groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the
word in capital letters.

(a} Indifferent (a} Persecute
(b) Ascetic (b) Punish
(c) Unsettle (c) Torture
(d) Not hopeful (d) Ruin


(a) Unsuitable (a} Punitive

(b) Uncritical (b) Stringent
(c) Similar (c) Corrective
(d) Disproportionate (d) Strict


(a) Bluff (a) Unimportant

(b) Overstate (b) Transparent
(c) Explain (c) Important
(d) Underestimate (d) Unexpected


(a) Prominent (a) Hard to believe

(b) Seen (b) Considerable
(c) Observed (c) Inconsistent
(d) Quite clear (d) Unsatisfactory


Directions (For the 8 items which follow} :

Each of the following items consists of a word or group of words in capital letters, followed by
four words. Select the word that is furthest in meaning to the word or group of words in
capital letters.


(a) Optimistic (a) Violent
(b) Unwilling (b) Generous
(c) Enthusiastic (c) Mild
(d) Excited (d) Forgiving


(a) Plenty (a) Profound

(b) Prosperity (b) Difficult
(c) Facility (c) Secretive
(d) Simplicity (d) Mystical


(a) Thankless (a) Balance

(b) Sensitive (b) Indelicacy
(c) Pliant (c) Clumsiness
(d) Resolute (d) Savagery


(a) Bright (a} Pleasing
(b) Confusing (b) Rude
(c) Uncertain (c) Polished
(d) Great (d) Soft

Q-OEBB.J-HB/24A 3 [P. T. 0.

Directions (For the 8 items which follow} :

In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to
rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence.
Choose the proper sequence and mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Example 'Z' has been solved for you.

Z. Some people believe that the effect is very bad on children of cinema
p Q R s
The correct sequence should be
{a) P-S-R-Q
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) S-R-P-Q
(d) Q-S-R-P

Explanation :

The proper way of writing the sentence is "Some people believe that the effect of cinema on
children is very bad". This is indicated by the sequence P - S - R - Q and so (a) is the correct

17. About 200 years ago, in the south oflndia an old king ruled over a kingdom
p Q R
called Rajavarman
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q-S-R-P
(b) P- Q- R- S
(c) Q-P-S-R
(d) Q- S- P- R

18. his land a wooden plough the Indian peasant still uses to cultivate
p Q R s
The correct sequence should be
(a) R-Q-P-S
(b) Q- P- S- R
(c) S-R-Q-P
(d) R-Q-S-P

19. He was a man even if he had to starve who would not beg borrow or steal
p Q R
from anyone
The correct sequence should be

(a) P-Q-R-S

(b) P- R- Q- S

{c) Q-R-S-P

(d) Q- P- R- S

20. in the progress of universities play a crucial role our civilization in the present age
p Q R S
The correct sequence should be

(a) S-Q-P-R

(b) Q- R- S- P
(c) Q- R- P- S
{d) S- Q- R- P

21. far out into the sea for the next two weeks there were further explosions
p Q
which hurled ashes and debris

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q-R-P-S

(b) R- S- P- Q
(c) Q-R-S-P

(d) S- R- P- Q

Q-OEBJhi-HB/24A 5 [ P. T. 0.
22. William Shakespeare in his lifetime the great English dramatist
p Q
wrote thirty-five plays and several poems
R s
The correct sequence should be
(a) P- Q- R- S

(b) R- S- P- Q

(c) Q- S- R- P
(d) Q- R- S- P

23. Whenever I am with an old friend of nrine in New Delhi to have dinner
p Q R
I always try
The correct sequence should be
(a) S- Q- P- R

(b) Q- S- R- P
(c) R- P- S- Q

(d) P- R- Q- S

24. I don't know must have thought what people sitting next to me but I came away
p Q R s
The correct sequence should be
(a) R- S- Q- P
(b) R- Q- S- P

(c) P- Q- R- S

(d) P- R- Q- S

Q-OEBB-::J-HB/24A 6

Directions (For the 8 items which follow) :

(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three
separate parts and each one is labelled {a}, (b) and {c). Read each sentence to fmd out
whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one
error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts {a), (b) or {c), indicate
your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel
that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter {d) will signify a 'No error'

(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you
indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong.) Errors may
be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a
word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your
response on the Answer Sheet.

Examples 'P' and 'Q' have been solved for you.

P. The young child singed a very sweet song. No error

{a) (b) (c) {d)

Q. We worked very hard throughout the season. No error

(a) (b) (c) {d)

Explanation :

In item P, the word 'singed' is wrong. The letter under this part is (b), so (b) is the correct
answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not contain any

25. Inflation and shortages have made it very difficult for him
(a) (b)
to make his both ends meet. No error
(c) {d)

Q-OEB!hJ-HB/24A 7 [P.T.O.
26. The most studious boy in the class was made as the captain. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)

27. I am participating in the two-miles race tomorrow morning. No error

{a) (b) {c) (d)

28. The sum and substance of his speech were essentially anti-establis hment.
(a) (b) (c)
No error

29. It has been such a wonderful evening, I look forward to meet you again
{a) {b)
after the vacations. No error
{c) (d)

30. When the boy committed a mistake, the teacher made him to do
{a) (b)
the sum again. No error
(c) (d)

31. Unless the government does not revise its policy of liberalization

the growth of the indigenous technology will be adversely affected. No error

(b) (c) {d)

32. Supposing if you get a seat in the plane

(a) (b)
you will not take more than two hours to reach Mumbai. No error

Q-OEBB-J- HB/24A 8

Directions (For the 12 items which follow} :

In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, you wiil find several
questions based on the passage. First, read a passage and then answer the questions based
on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and
opinion of the author only.

Examples 'I' and 'J' have been solved for you.


In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely
and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at
different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no
matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower
groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear
to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against
dangers that threaten i.ts life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all
other creatures.

I. The author's main point is that J. Which one of the following

assumptions or steps is essential in
raJ different forms of life are found developing the author's position?
on the earth (a) All forms of iife have a single
overriding goal
(b) different levels of existence are (b) The will to survive of a creatui:e
possible in nature is identified with a desire for
(c) peace and security are the chief
(c) All beings are divided into
goals of all living beings
higher and lower groups
(d) even the weakest creature (d) A parallel is drawn between
struggles to preserve its life happiness and life, and pain
and death

Explanation :

I. The idea which represents the author's main point is "peace and security are the chief
goals of all living beings", which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.

J. The best assumption underlying the passage is "The will to survive of a creature is
identified with a desire for peace", which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 9 [P. T. 0.

No doubt, the 'green revolution' has led to self-sufficien cy in food production but it has also
brought with it the formidable problem of poisoning of food grains and other eatables. This is
caused by excessive use of chemicals on crops and pesticide residues. It has also created
havoc by exterminatin g the species of useful parasites and viruses which keep pests under
control. Scientists are now worried about the resurgence of such formidable pests in
menacing proportions which seem to undermine all that they have achieved in agricultural

33. From the reading of the passage, 35. Which one of the following
which one of these statements do statements best reflects the
you think is correct? underlying implication of the
(a) The 'green revolution' has solved
all problems in agriculture (a) Man's effort to control nature to
his advantage has always
(b) Application of chemicals has
created unseen dangers side by
resulted in everlasting side
preservation of grains
(b) Research in one area leads to a
(c) The 'green revolution' is a mixed
challenge for further research in
the same field
(d) Scientists are satisfied with
(c) At present, research in
achievemen ts in agricultural
preservation of agricultural
production is at the cross-roads

34. The statement that "the green (d) The excessive use of chemicals
revolution has also created havoc by and pesticides is dangerous
exterminatin g the species of useful
parasites and viruses" means 36. Which one of these phrases best
helps to bring out the precise
(a) all parasites and viruses keep
meaning of 'menacing proportions' ?
pests under control
(a) To an extent which becomes
(b) pesticides and chemicals kill
parasites and viruses, which
con trot pests (b) Assuming dimensions that
cause concem
(c) the pests are controlled by
parasites (c) Unimagined , dangerous
(d) application of chemicals to
grains has created havoc (d) Harmful size


Water is the basis of life. Every animal and every plant contains a substantial proportion of
free or combined water in its body, and no kind of physiological activity is possible in which
this fluid does not play an essential part. Water is, of course, necessary for animal life, while
moisture in the soil is equally imperative for the life and growth of plants and trees, though
the quantity necessarily varies enormously with the species. The conservation and utilization
of water is thus fundamental to human life. Apart from artesian water, the ultimate source in
all cases is rain or snowfall.

37. Water is the basis of life, because (c) water flows easily

(a} it is seen everywhere on the

(d) water does not play any role at
(b) it is obtained from the sea and

(c) it helps living things to exist

39. The passage is on
(d) it is necessary for the birth and
growth of all living things (a) the use of water in day-to-day

38. No kind of physiological activity is (b) the use of water in agriculture

possible without water, because

(a} water is a fluid (c) the use of wastewater

(b) water plays very important role (d) the importance of water in
in it human life


The importance of early detection of tuberculosis (TB}, regular treatment and nutritious food
are just not known widely enough. Often TB victims discontinue the treatment when the
symptoms disappear, without waiting for a complete cure; the next attack is more virulent
from bacteria which have thus become drug-resistant.

Anti-TB drugs are produced in India. The capability to meet the country's requirements of
anti-TB drugs in full already exists. Yet millions of Indians suffer from TB and thousands of
them die every year.

Q-OEB!h.I-HB/24A 11 [ P. T. 0.
Voluntary organizations and govemment agencies are doing commendable work. But we
have so far tackled only the fringe of the problem. What is now needed is a nation-wide
determination to fight TB. India eradicated smallpox with a national campaign. We can
eradicate TB too.

40. Treatment is discontinued- by TB (c) the disease appears in a new,

victims, when more dangerous form
(a) they think that the disease is
completely cured (d) the patient must get good,
nutritious food
(b) the apparent signs of TB are no
longer visible to them

(c) they run out of resources like

43. 'The fringe of the problem' means
money or medicine

(d) they are attacked by (a) the basic cause of the problem
drug-resistant bacteria

(b) the root of the problem

41. Millions of Indians suffer from TB,
(c) the side effects of the drugs
(a) people discontinue the
treatment too soon or do not (d) the edge of the problem, not the
start the treatment early enough main point

(b) India does not produce anti-TB

drugs of the required quality 44. Who or what become
'drug-resistant', according to the
(c) anti-TB drugs are not available passage?
at a reasonable price
(a) TB patients who are treated for
(d) people do not have nutritious a long time
(b) People who do not want to take
42. When the treatment of TB is medicine for their illness
discontinued too early
{c) TB bacteria that have not been
(a) the old symptoms reappear fully eradicated

(b) the patient gradually gets (d} Patients who have discontinued
better, although slowly the treatment

Q-OEB!hJ-HB/24A 12

Directions (For the 6 items which follow} :

In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S 1 ) and the
final sentence (S ) are given in ,the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been
removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, Rand S. You are required to find out the
proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

Example 'X' has been solved for you.

X. There was a boy named Jack.

At last she turned him out of the house.
So the mother asked him to find work.
Q They were very poor.
R He lived with his mother.
S But Jack refused to work.

The proper sequence should be

(a) R-Q-P-S (b) P- Q- R- S
{c) Q-P-R-S {d) R-P-S-Q

Explanation :
The proper sequence in this example is R- Q- P- S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is
the correct answer.
R These rates, however, do not
45. S 1 : Solar hot water systems that include the plumbing acquired
can supply hot water at an to connect the system to the
approximate temperature of kitchen, bathroom or toilet of
60 "C continuously, have the building, transportation,
recently been introduced. installation and taxes.
Larger quantities of water S This includes the price of
can be heated by increasing solar collector, a 100-litre
the number of solar insulated storage tank with
collectors. fittings and an automatic
p A similar 200-litre system, water heater to be used
but with two collectors, ideal during the monsoons or in an
for a family of five or six, emergency.
would cost around Rs 7,250. The proper sequence should be
Q A 100-litre per day system, (a) R-P-Q-S
suitable for a family of two or (b) Q- S- P- R
three, would cost around (c) S-R-Q-P
Rs4,270. (d) Q- P- S- R

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 13 I P. T. 0.
Corruption has been During college, Pamela
accepted as a way of life in Johnson had the opportunity
India. to work with a famous

1 think no serious effort has

been made to eradicate the She earned a doctorate and
wide-spread evil in India. today holds a key
government position.

p It is quite rampant in our p When her son was three, she

country. undertook the four-year hard
work of post-graduate
Q But it is pity that no one
hesitates to accept it when he Q But then she married, had a
gets a chance.
baby and became a full-time

R They criticize and condemn

others for taking; bribe. R None the less, Pamela never
lost sight of her desire to
study and assist tribal
S It is not uncommon to find
people talking against
corruption. s She enjoyed the experience
and decided to major in
The proper sequence should be

The proper sequence should be

(a) P- Q- S- R

(a] Q- P- R- S
(b) P- S- R- Q
{b) S- R- Q- P

(c) S- P- Q- R
(c) R- S- Q- P

(d) R- Q- S- P {d) S-Q-R-P

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 14
My friend Peter went to live in R The child's attention was
a village. arrested by the gentle
movement of the finger on
It did not like to work. her hand.

p But it was a very slow s She tried to imitate the

finger's motion.

Q So Peter bought a donkey for The proper sequence should be

five pounds. (a) Q- R- S- P
R One day his new neighbour (b) R- Q- P- S
told him that he must buy a (c) P-S-R-Q
(d) S- R- Q- P
S Every family there had a
donkey to carry things for
them. When she was not yet an
adult, Mother Teresa knew
The proper sequence should be that she had a vocation to
help the poor.
. (a) S - R - Q - P
She received permission for
(b) S- P- R- Q this after two years.
p At the age of 18, she left her
(c) Q-S-R-P
home to become a nun.
(d) Q-R-S-P
Q . . There she taught at a
convent high school and
became its Principal.
R She felt she must leave the
Miss Sullivan brought Helen job and go into slums to
Keller a doll. serve the poor.

Her heart was filled with s After training at Dublin, she

pleasure and pride. was sent to Calcutta where
she took her final vows.
p After some efforts, she
succeeded in making the The proper sequence should be
letters correctly.
(a) S-R-P-Q
Q When she had played with it (b) P-Q-S-R
for some time, Miss Sullivan (c) R-S-Q-P
spelt into her hand the letters
d--<J-1-1. (d) P-S-Q-R

Q-OEBlhJ-HB/24A 15 [ P. T. 0.

51. Consider the following statements 53. Which one of the following is not
with respect to the Radar Imaging a component of the scheme
Satellite (RISAT-2) : 'Innovation m Science Pursuit
1. This is the first Indian satellite for Inspired Research (INSPIRE)'
with microwave imaging con- launched by the Union of India?
figuration on board.
(a) Scheme for early attraction of
2. The satellite will boost India's talents for science
defence capabilities.
(b) Scholarship for higher
3. It can take images of the earth
day and night, even under
rainy and cloudy conditions. (c) Assured opportunity for
Which of the statements research careers
above is/ are correct? (d) Vocational training after higher
(a) 1 only

(b) . 2 and 3 only

54. Who among the following has
(c) 1, 2 and 3 been presented the Leontief
Award, 2009 for his/her outstand-
(d) 1 and 2 only ing contributions to the field of
economic theory?
52. Consider the following statements
(a) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
about Astra:
1. This anti-aircraft missile is (b) Prof. Bina Agarwal
procured by India from Russia.
(c) Prof. Amartya Sen
2. It is a single-stage, smokeless,
solid-propelled missile. (d) Jagdish Bhagwati
3. It may be launched from
different altitudes.
55. Areawise, which one of the following
Which of the statements given is the largest Lok Sabha
above are correct? constituency?

(a) 1 and 2 only {a) Kutch

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Kangra

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Ladakh

(d) 1 and 3 only (d) Patna Sahib

Q--OEBB-J-HB/24A 16

51. (RISAT-2) 53. f.l"'l fa f@ d it it m- m 'ffi'(1: IDU

f.l"'lfaf@ct '<1: : W" <j;t "!{ B
1. 'ft( t 'liR H'qi<JJ M (INSPIRE)' q;r
'<"\ f<Rrn -:m t?

(a) it fulR it full.

2. 'ft( i); 'fi\
'Sl"RN!ail 'fi\ 3WI>f<fu it full.

3. 'ft( lf'i i'l'llt0'1 it
>IT 1l!<ft <fiT llfi'! D<f-R-! 1 <l'!i<ll (bJ '3"ii'l<R it full.
tl (c) it full. "i,!f-if!H<!

it <!>T.!-mtit mf!
(a) 1 (d) '3"ii'l<R it ..-rG Olli'IBIN<!>

(b) 2 3fu 3

(c) 1, 2 3ft< 3
54. f.l "'l fa f(g (I i'i it 3TJffl<!> ftw::RI it
(d) 2
i'i fufu!! it full. ""'
2009 q;r R<n 1J'l1
52. ';mr' f.l"'lfclf@o '<1:

'iffi(l 't fbJ
(t.iJ-QO'lU1>14C! 'fii it
'liTI! fi);>rr I (c) mm 3ll1r'f iR
2. 'ft( irn-"llfu! (d) 'l"T<<<ff

3. it ll>il fua fit>rr '3!T
<l'!i<ll tI 55. <j;t WE #, f.l"'lfclfuio it # <!>T.!-m
"B'IIit t?
ij it <!>T.!-it mft t?

(a) 2

(b) 2 3fu 3

(c) 1, 2 3fu 3 (c)

(d) 3 (d)

Q-OEBB-..I-HB/24A 17 [ P. T. 0.
56. Indian Military Training Team 59. Consider the following statements :
(IMTRATI imparts training to army 1. Muhammad Hamdulla Sayeed,
officers of elected from Lakshadweep
parliamentary constituency,
(a) Nepal
is the youngest MP in the
{b) Bangladesh 15th Lok Sabha.
2. Agatha K. Sangma is the
(c) Maldives youngest Union Minister in
the 15th Lok Sabha who
(d) Bhutan
represents Shillong parlia-
mentary constituency.
57. Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given
l. The Green Governance Awards above is I are correct?
have been instituted by
Bombay Natural History (a) 1 only
Society (BNHS).
(b) 2 only
2. Tata Chemicals has won
the Green Governance {c) Both 1 and 2
Award, 2008 for its project on
conservation of the whale (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the statements given 60. Consider the following statements

above is/are correct? about the accident of AF 447, which
crashed over the Atlantic Ocean on
1st June, 2009 :
(a) 1 only
1. The Airbus A330-200 was on
(b) 2 only its way to Rio de Janeiro from
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. The scheduled flight usually
{d) Neither 1 nor 2 crosses the Tropic of Cancer on
its way to its destination.

58. The tourism phrase Paradise Which of the statements given

Unexplored refers to above is/ are correct?

(a) Jammu and Kashmir (a) 1 only

(b) North-East India (b) 2 only

{c) Chhattisgarh (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Uttarakhand (d) Neither 1 nor 2

56. ftlffidl {f.Pl itJ:r (IMTRAT) 59. f.l'"'IR!fula f<f<m: :
f.l'"'IRifula ilit t.rr 1. Be.nftl<
-litf it f.ICiiHa
<it >lfil'l1"! WIW <$ 1s<ff <I'll il

2. :wnm Wl'll 15<ff <I'll <lit
WIT llit '3l1 fiT<1itr
(c) m'l<fl'l "i!il <g{jj

(d) "@"
<mil il

57. f.i'"'lffifula 'R : (a) 1

ftlei>.ul (BNHS) m Bf<llf<la
(c) 1 3i'R 2 it-it
2. "!lH 2008
tR'11"1 <lit .wR\ 4Rl''HI 'R Z1C1 ldJ ";[ m1 3i'R '1 tt 2
't >m! firnr i I

60. 1 ""t!, <it :>i<0<.1iRi!i m'R

(a) 1 AF 447 <liT il f.l'"'lffifula
'R f<f<m:
1. A330-200 itful Wit "G

(c) 1 3i'R 2 it-it

2. <!t1 :>iiJ<!Pia :a:r:r.t 'RIO'! <tit am:

fdJ ";[ m1 3i'R ";[ tt 2 "'ffi fii4104d: q;<f;_bsJ <it 'ffi
<g{jj i I

58. ""c..,
...<-. 'q
q.; 1i'fl{s,;e ::>1 '1 Q><ru'<"l0 is

il <tit.!-m/ft
<g{jj i?
(a) 1

(b) -'l."ff 'lffi(l (b)

(c) ""1<.1 11'< (c) 1 3i'R 2 G'R1

(d) 3'd(l!s ldJ ";[ m1 3i'R ";[ m2

Q-OEBB.,J-HB/24A 19 [P.T.O.
61. Which one of the following 63. Consider the following statements
statements about Chandragupta II with regard to Champaran
is not correct? Satyagraha {1917) :
1. The Champaran Satyagraha
marked Mahatma Gandhi's
{d) Kalidasa and Amarasimha
first appearance in Indian
were famous scholars in his
politics as a leader of the
2. Young nationalists like
{b) He expanded his empire both Rajendra Prasad and J. B.
through matrimonial alliances Kripalani had worked with
and conquests Mahatma Gandhi at

{c) He married a Naga princess, 3. It was during this movement

named Kubera Naga that Mahatma Gandhi formu-
lated his philosophy of
(d) He married his daughter
Prabhavati to an Ahom prince Which of the statements given
above is/ are correct?

(a) 3 only

62. Mahatma Gandhi undertook 'fast (b) 1 and 2

unto death' against the Communal
Award. He, however, discontinued (c) 2 and 3
the fast, because
(d) 1 and 3

(a) the Congress leaders success- 64. The Passive Resistance Association
fully prevailed upon Mahatma was first formed by Mahatma
Gandhi to accept the Award Gandhi in South Africa in 1906 to
organize a campaign against the
(b) the British Govemment with- introduction of
drew the Communal Award (a) Poll Tax

{b) Certificate of Registration

(c) of the conclusion of the Poona
Pact (c) Legislations against Indian

(d) the weaker classes openly (d) Legislations to disenfranchise

opposed the Award the Indians

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 20
61. fMt i!; "'it li li 63. 'q&qj{OJ ldi"ll% {1917) -i); lj
l. 'ql'qi(OJ 'I 'iffifl<:l (f;ij;fjfil lj

(a) li 1foi "A -'tar i!; ""' li liW'll 'lim <liT Jl'<!Il
<it f<n<rr 1
2. afu: <ftc 'l'q<.11-1'1
<ll!<i 1f<\4l -2j '<l'GI(OI l\ l@lliT
(b) 31tH CfiT f<rnm: 'llfflili .
'lim i!; <rN q;rq f<n<rr m1
ekl-<illf'i m-.n f<n<rr
3. -.Bt i!; liW'll 'lim 'I
Q{'l11% -i); aN-t <:m- CfiT
(c) "'!I'TI "'fill' <lit "'!I'TI <1"1*41tl f<r;<rr I

(d) wHt >r'l11<l'ift CfiT

(1"1*41{ -i); <IN f<r;<rr

(b) 1 afu: 2

(c) 2 afu: 3

62. liW'll 'litil 'I e l'"ll<:lfil'h (ili"tl<.1

-i); '3W1(UT JmR' f<r;<rr I
(d) 1 afu: 3

omfq JmR wrrn q;(

64. l!lm"'T rfftfi -21 1906 li Gf&'f1!1 li

(a) 'tn3TI -21 lJWlll 'litil <it "1'<\ CfiT
1!#1 -i); ti'l><.1<1l'{oliii f.!t!fol [{;Ja li 3ffil'li f-i);u,
w:qa q;( fW<T ""1R -i); W:!fu! -i);
(b) f.ifro '! Wll<:lfllili mCf>T(
(a) "<ila

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 21 [P. T. 0.
65. What was the effect of the 67. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can
Government of India Act of 1935 resign his office by addressing his
on the national movement? resignation to

(a) the President

(a) It strengthened the movement
(b) the Prime Minister
(b) It weakened the movement by
(c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok
satisfying the people

(c) It weakened the movement, (d) the Chief Justice of India

because separate electorate
for the Muslims and Hindus
68. Who can initiate impeachment
created dissensions
proceedings against the President
of India?
(d) It weakened the movement,
because the Act introduced (a) Only Lok Sabha
federal system
(b) Only Rajya Sabha

(c) Either House of the Parliament

66. Which one of the following (d) Any Legislative Assembly
statements about 'Trusteeship' is
not correct?
69. The highest body that approves Five-
Year Plans in India is
(a) 'Trusteeship' provides a means
of transforming the capitalist (a) Planning Commission
order of society into an
egalitarian one (b) National Development Council

(c) Interstate Council

(b) It is based on the faith that
human nature is never beyond (d) Union Cabinet

70. Which among the following is the

(c) It does not recognize any right
exclusive jurisdiction of the State
of private ownership of
property, except so far as it
may be permitted by society for (a) Corporation tax
its own welfare
(b) Customs duty
{d) It excludes legislative (c) Sales tax
regulation of the ownership
and use of wealth (d) Income tax

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 22
65. 1 9 3 5 il; 'lffil mq;n:
"' 'I'U >f"f[q
'f.1 m!\<1 67. *
tNT 'liT
31'RT 'R i"'T'T V<fidT

(b) >llffilffi
(bJ i'Wi\ qij <!'W <g O<il M'l qij

(c) 'li'l if1itN;

!:Jtl<:1'lloil if;
lRNG "3m q;,; 68. 'lffil il; il; f<l%. <61 "llfsi;<n
<"liH q;,; V<fidT
(d) qij if1itN; (a}
it tiEflq 'f.1
pu (b)

(c) ii 'lfi UG-1

66. H'"'lffifulct <!i2T'it it it <"liH-m 1% '041fuct1'
if; fofcr-! it t? 69. =it <i'<l<"l<if>l
iffi'!T f.l'f.1'l 9i);{-m
'"'-' .,A-
(a} Olllffidi m "'' 'i"'i<"liGI
'li'l 1% it <"ql"ctfw
'liT mtR >l<:R 'lift (b) m!\<1 f<l<mr
(b) 3TIWl "' fol; "llR'!
(d) tiEflq qf:lq<l<.1
<li>ft >ft 'lfuiltR <it 'lti itifi

70. f.l'"'lfu fula ii it foou "' mq;n: <61

(c) "W'!fu iii f.ftt t<'llf?i<"l ili mf\

qij llf.'!RlT 'lti fWrt
Wli Wli m IDU 'lW'IJUT (a) f.\TJq- -q;>;

{b) <INr -W"!'
(d) tR il; t<'llf?i<"l >l<itrl il;
f<!m>ft i<lf:i<tll 'I 'f.1 'lift (d)

Q-OEBlhJ-HB/24A 23 [ P. T. 0.
71. Which one of the following theories of 74. Socialism is opposed to
Communism is not a doctrine of
(a) social security scheme
Karl Marx?
(b) equal distribution of wealth
(a) Dialectical Materialism
(c) unrestricted competition
(b) Historical Materialism
{d) collective ownership and
(c) Class Struggle
(d) Theory of New Democracy
75. Who among the following was the
72. Consider the following statements first Muslim military commander
who annexed Bihar and Bengal by
1. Report of the Administrative
overthrowing the Sena dynasty?
Reforms Commission, headed
by late Morarji Desai, (a) Mahmud Gawan
recommended the establish-
ment of Lokpal and Lokayukta (b) Bakhtiyar Khilji
institutions. (c) Adil Shahis
2. Lokpal is the highest
institution in India to (d) Shams-ud-din
investigate corruption at
higher places in Govemment. 76. Which one of the following was the
official language of Gupta period?
Which of the statements given
above is/ are correct? {a) Pali

(a) 1 only {b) Magadhi

(b) 2 only {c) Prakrit

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Sanskrit

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

77. The agenda for the Round Table
Conferences held in London was to
73. Which among the following is an
extraconstitutional growth in (a) discuss the report of the Simon
Indian democracy? Commission

(a) Attomey General of India (b) rorm a Constitution for India

(b) Autonomous Districts (c) find a solution of the

communal problem in India
(c) Political Parties
(d) find a solution for the problems
(d) Deputy Chairman of the of the 'depressed classes' of
Council of States India

Q-OEBB-,J-HB/24A 24
71. f.t!OlR!Rso fu4t"ii11l it <fiR-m 74. i?
'lil<'f 'liT ...m (a)
(b) IR 'liT Bl1R fuRuJ
(c) 1

(d) flll{t;i!> 11'FIR

75. f.'l!OlR1Rsa 1\ it <fiR %

'l>lli":S( 'liT, Wif.\ i'l'l 'liT 01R!l
fon;R q;) """ it
72. f.i'"'lR!fu!ct lR fc!<rR :

1. FFff<r <fiT 3WII;TGT 1j (a) 'l'f.l

'lf3i1 'J.tffi 3WWJ <liT fuiti (b)
1j <:1l'1>41<.1 <:1l'l>l@i <liT
<liT mwr (c) :mfu;r

2. <:1'1'1>41<.1 m'bl1: (d)

\mFffi <liT "!A 'lif.t 'ffii1 1\

7 6. f.'t!OlRtfu! a it it <fiR-m :!11 'lil<.1 <liT

1l it it%?
(a) 1:fR'ft
(a} 1 tbJ lfiTim
(b) (c) >IT'f'l

(c) 1 2 GHt
(d) 'I ill 1 'I oft 2 77. it W'l'! SQ. >ira iR <liT
'!>i<h(.;oft q<[l

(a) 'fiWR <liT fuiti 'R

73. f.'t!OlR!fu!ct 1\ it <fiR 1\

mr;-f<ll!1!f '<*IT
(b) >rl< full. <W<m;r 'liT f.\lrtur

(c) >rl< <liT flll'll tfil'l> WWlT 'liT <f'il QR


= ''!ftful Cf'il' <liT wwn3ll 'liT

Q-OEB!hl-HB/24A 25 [P.T. 0.
78. Freedom of the press in India is 81. Chambal river is a part of

(a) available to the people under (a) Sabarmati basin

the law of the Parliament
(b) Ganga basin
(b) specifically provided in the
Constitution (c) Narmada basin

(c) implied in the right of freedom (d) Godavari basin

of expression

(d) available to the people of India 82. Match List-! with List-ll and select
under executive order the correct answer using the code
given below the Lists

79. Consider the following statements : List-I List-If

(Industry) (Location)
1. The vernal equinox falls on
March 21. A. Petrochemicals 1. Ranchi
B. Aluminium 2. Hyderabad
2. On equinox, the sun is directly
C. Electronics 3. Vadodara
overhead at the equator.
D. Heavy Engineering 4. Koraput
3. The changes in the day length
on equinox result from the Code:
changes in the tilt of the earth
with respect to the sun. (a) A B c D
3 4 2 l
Which of the statements given
above is/ are correct? (b) A B c D
1 2 4 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) A B c D
(b) 1 only 3 2 4 1

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) A B c D

1 4 2 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

83. Which one of the following separates

SO. Tropical cyclone of Philippines is North and South Islands of New
termed as Zealand?

(a) Typhoon (a) Foveaux Strait

(b) Willy-willy (b) Bass Strait

(c) Hurricane (c) Cook Strait

(d) Baguio (d) Torres Strait

Q-OEBB-.J-HB/24A 26
(a} <iii 3!tff.l qiJ (a) t!l<i(4<fil?tufi

(b) 1jTrr i;]uf\

(b) i'i filt'iil!!d: (c) 'llfull?tuft

(c) i'i

82. 'liT B 3W
(d) 3!tfR '1ffi! fu; '111: 'F <l>l wiM <!i{ mt

wft-1 wfi-JI
79. f.l'"lRifiilo <mil 'R :

1. 21
A. 1. 1]Tfi
2. 'R mm
B. 2.

3. 'R K-it i'i c. 3.

'l:"-<fi i'i qftq<f.{l D. ..00 4.

i'i B "!i'r..-m/B -mT
{a) A B c D
(a} 1 3ffi: 2 3 4 2 1

(b) 1 (b) A B c D
1 2 4 3
{c) 1, 2 3 (c) A B c D
3 2 4 1
(d) 31'tt3
(d) A B c D
1 4 2 3
80. f'hRJ41"<1 qi't '10!1
83. f.:I101Rlfula i'i B <l>"r..-m ll;'h 4..4la6
v;oi m'a:roft llM qiJ <mil i?
(a) tWit (Foveaux) ''1<:161i<"lll:>i
(b) f<lfu-f<lfu
(b) <1m

{c) >NOR (c) W" '>1<"161l'<"'ll:>i

{d) (Baguio) (d) ifu!

Q-OEB!hJ-HB/24A 27 [P.T.O.
84. Consider the following statements : 86. What is the reason for India being a
major producer of different varieties
I. The earth's rotation axis is not
of fruits and vegetables?
at 90 to its orbital plane.

2. The earth's rotation axis is

inclined at 235. (a) Its large population size

Which of the statements given (b) Its large land area

above is/ are correct?

(c) Variation in its agro-climatic

(a) 1 only conditions

(b) 2 only
(d) Diversity in socio-cultural
(c) Both 1 and 2 phenomenon

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

85. Consider the following statements :

1. The difference between the

moisture-holding capacity of 87. Which one of the following is the
air and its actual humidity is correct order in which the gases
called saturation deficit. from the atmosphere disappear as
one moves away from the surface of.
2. The temperature to which air the earth?
has to be cooled in order to
reach saturation is called dew
point. (a) Carbon dioxide-Oxygen-
Which of the statements given
above is/ are correct?
(b) Oxygen-Nitrogen-Carbon
(a) 1 only

(c) Carbon dioxide-Nitrogen-

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and2

(d) Nitrogen-Oxygen-Carbon
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 dioxide

84. f.lqW!fula fcRm 86. 'ffi<l it; finfll1 it; 'l>ffi it;
::Si<tl<:ifi <m '!>RUl
1. <m 31!\1 q;&il>i WR''
it go 'I\ '!lff I
2. <m 31!\{ 23s"' 31RG 1

(a) 1


(c) l 3fu: 2 G'R1

85. fcRm : 87. it it <liR -m Blft :;m

1. <iii tffilJf l\{lffi'[ 3fu: "ff{f{ ftii
<'HWRiifi it; 3M!\ i'llpi 0scl it WI mm
""ffd1 I
2. oq; it; ftrn (a)
(llq oq; Wf<m f<l;m "ff{f{ m




(c) 1 3fu: 2 G'R1


29 ! P. T. 0.
88. Which of the following regarding 90. What is the process that tends to
Revised Macro Management of build up the land surface by
Agriculture Scheme (2008-2009) deposition of solid material in its
is/ are correct? lower areas, known as?
- I. Allocate funds to States and
Union Territories on a criterion (a) Abrasion
based on gross cropped area
and area under small and
marginal holdings. (b) Agglomeration
2. The assistance is provided
to the States and Union (c) Aggradation
Territories as 100% grant.

Select the correct answer using the (d) Attrition

code given below :


(a} 1 only 91. What is the sequential order of

vegetation types observed while
(b) 2 only moving from Assam Valley to
(c) Both 1 and 2 Rajasthan Plains?

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

{a) Tropical Wet Evergreen-
Tropical Moist Deciduous-
89. Consider the following statements Tropical Dry Deciduous-
related to stratification of Tropical Thorn Forest
atmospheric layers :
1. All storms and cloudiness are
(b) Tropical Thorn Forest-
restricted to stratosphere.
Tropical Dry Deciduous-
2. Cirrus clouds are formed on Tropical Moist Deciduous-
the top layers of troposphere. Tropical Wet Evergreen
3. Stratosphere is also an
(c) Tropical Moist Deciduous-
Which of the statements given Tropical Wet Evergreen-
above are correct? Tropical Dry Deciduous-
Tropical Thorn Forest
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) Tropical Dry Deciduous-

(c) 2 and 3 only
Tropical Thorn Forest-
Tropical Moist Deciduous-
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Tropical Wet Evergreen

Q-OEBlh.J-HB/24A 30
88. <i'tORT (1\<Hw$ 90. 't"'f!! om, a;w il irn 'fiT
:;Tiq; ((rrF"""' ffi<r), <m'fl om "l''l
2oos-2oo9 f.i"'l!BMo 1t it
1. 31tt 1$0 om (a}
0'41 1$0
311'QR 'R f.tfu<iT 'fiT f.FR q;rn I (b)
2. ;,fu mftrn 1$0 om 'lj'!

ti<@ 100% 1;"! lt <fr (c) ikil"iiH

(d) Rit<<fUI
fu; lJ1l; F 'fiT m <m "3'iR

'= 91. 3ffil'! mil it "1\Gr-f\ 't" 'llT'T

(a) 1 a:m -.:rr.u ilH<'!Ri'h 'fiT "l''l


(c) 1 31tt 2 <:HI (a) 3"'1<!>RA"'-il<< B<lquff

fdJ " m1 31tt " tt 2 3WI'hfl<i->tl<r 'Wf.
3WI'hfl<i-$r 'R
89. ili!J>IlU$<"fl'l 'lcil "{{RUT R"'liBMd
'R fcRrn : (b) 3WI'hfl<i->tl<r 'R-
1. 3fR il"ll'iij>idl "Widl'l- 3"'1<t>RJ.rtf'r.! 'W"
lJl!Gc'! d<li mfira I 3WI<t>RA->tl<r qofql<fi
3Wi<t>RJ.tfl'l <;lqoff
2. "1111"'1-it>:t 'lcil 'R
<r-ffi% I
(c) 3WI<t>fl<i-$r "1'!
JWI<t>fl<i-tfl'l B<;lqoff

il it 'li'R-it 3WI<t>flii1-$r 'Wf.

3WI<t>fliil<il'l 'R
(a) 1 3fR 2
(b) 1 31tt 3 (d) JWI<t>fliilrtf'r.! 'Wf. 'l"f<mft-
JWI'hfl<irtf'r.! 'R-
(c) 2 31tt 3
JWI<t>fl'l->tl<r :jll
(d) 1, 2 31tt 3 3Wi<t>fl<i-tfl<! 6<\140ff

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 31 [P.T. 0.
92. 94. What is the reason for the major hot
c deserts of the world lying in the
western part of the tropical
D latitude?

(a) They are influenced by trade

The above diagram is of a (b) They lie in the rain-shadow

mushroom rock. In which of the area of the mountains
points in the diagram is the
intensity of wind strongest? (c) They are influenced by
monsoon \vinds

(d) They are influenced by dry

(a) A

(b) B
95. Consider the following statements :
(c) C
1. International Date Line is
drawn zigzag to avoid
(d) D landmass.

2. International Date Line is

180" W as well as 180" E of
93. What does the imaginary line Greenwich.
passing through Lake Ontario, 3. A ship sailing westward from
Lake Erie, Lake Huron and Lake Greenwich when crossing
Superior represent? International Date Line would
put back the date by a day.
(a) The southern boundary of
Canada Which of the statements given
above is/ are correct?
(b) The northern limit of iron and
steel industry of USA
(a) 1 and 2 only

(c) The internal waterway route to (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) The internal waterway route to
Canada (d) 3 only

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 32
94. <FIT "'hR"l i f<l; fc!w iii 3&lJ
3"'1'hfliiltft<! 31a:rffi il; 'lf'ill'fi 'WI -q

:o;<R WIT lJ'IT ffi '('0 W<'l "" I ffi

il; fiR! -q 'ffif-<ftsrm cil iild4 t?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C
95. f.I14R>lfuld '1(

(d) D 1. 31'd([!)'l;q mi'h Wn <fit

Sll, TJ<fi it
2' 31 'd ti;!! :q K-ri"h Wn fuf.'R '11;
180' tTIWi 3fu: WI tl 180' t I

. 93. Wf> 31T'<:Iil:\ Wf> Wf> Wf> 3. fuf.'R it tTIWi <fit .aiR 'fiG <m1l
wtlft;q( it <nm 'hl'-"1f.i"h 'Wn <FIT "l'dU\{14 mi'h bm <fit m
"'hfli? 'fiG '1( fijf>l <fit '('0 W-f fr.l 'li1: <'rn I

(a) 1 3fu: 2
(b) 11,0 <fit "W!Id "3W!

(b) 1 3fu: 3

(c) 1, 2 3fu: 3


Q-OEBB--J-HB/24A 33 [P.T. 0.
96. The earth's crust is the thinnest 100. Which of the following plants is
referred to as a living fossil?
(a} under the mountain ranges
(a) Ephedra
(b) under continental masses
(b) Cycas
(c) at ocean bottoms
(c) Gingko
(d) at mid-oceanic ridges
(d) Adiantum

97. Which one of the following African

countries is not land-locked? 101. The major combustible component of
gobar (cow-dung) gas is
(a) Benin
(a) methane
(b) Chad
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) Lesotho
(c) hydrogen
(d) Mali
(d) propane

98. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass

102. Which one of the following vegetables
is not obtained from wild cabbage?
(a} Orissa
(a) Lettuce
(b) Tripura
(b) Broccoli
(c) Chhattisgarh
(c) Kale
(d) Rajasthan
(d) Kohlrabi

99. Which of the following crops would 103. Softening of mature ripe fruits is
be preferred for sowing in order to due to
enrich the soil with nitrogen?
(a) dissolution of middle lamella
(a) Wheat
(b) degradation of primary wall
(b) Mustard
(c) delignification
(c) Sunflower
(d) removal of suberin deposits in
(d) Gram the cell wall

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 34
96. 'Iii %'ITt? 1 00. f.l'"'l R1 fut ct 1:!Wi\ -it -B f<R:! ll.'li q;) oftf<rn
(a) '1<fu it



97. uti i1 -B <li'R-m ll.'li

"'t! t? 101. >il<R i\B 'liT -ey;;r 'l"l'!i <li'R -m
(a) *H (a) -qm

(b) (b)

(c) *itm (c)

(d) lffi'ft (d)

98. -B "'t! t? 102. 'lTT'!i1 -it -B <li'R-m 1% <P-T

-B >Ill! "'t! M

(b) fWr

(d) (1"1f<ll1
(d) <hl!i_<'!(oft

99. '2Gf q;) -B "6% 'l'lf.l it

f.l'"" R1 ffslct -it it f<R:! it <if.!

{a} qc:Rli!>t 'Iii
(b) 14 fil'li Nfu 'Iii 31"1&1'!

(c) 31-"ifif!ll'R (tlfcllllNi<li<H)
(d) <hlliltifil Nfu -it 'liT
(d) '<HI f.t&f> t<H

Q-OEBB-.J-HB /24A 35 ( P. T. 0.
104. Which part of saffron plant is used to 108. The Haffkine Institute, Mumbai, is
obtain the spice 'saffron? known for its work on the
production of
(a) Dry stigma

(b} Leaves (a) plague vaccine

(c) Fruits {b) leprosy vaccine

(d) Petals
(c) tetanus vaccine

105. Release of which one of the following (d) polio vaccine

chemicals is responsible for causing
fatigue after muscular activity in
human beings?
109. The weight of a body is 9 8 N at
{a) Glucuronic acid the place where g = 9 8 ms-2 . Its

(b) Uric acid mass is

(c) Pyruvic acid (a) zero

(d) Lactic acid

(b} 98 kg

106. Jaundice in human beings is the (c) 10 kg

result of
(d) 1 kg
{a) incomplete metabolism of

(b) complete metabolism of 110. If a light body and a heavy body have
biliverdin equal momentum, then

(c} incomplete metabolism of {a) the lighter body has greater

bilirubin kinetic energy than the heavier
(d) complete metabolism of body
(b) the lighter body has lesser
kinetic energy than the heavier
107. Which of the following regions/cells body
in the human body is involved in
controlling blood sugar level? (c) the kinetic energy of the lighter
(a) Pituitary gland body is equal to the kinetic
energy of the heavier body
(b) Islets of Langerhans

(c) Hypothalamus {d) the kinetic energy of both the

bodies are independent of
(d) Spleen momentum

104. <f,J qi'R-m 'WI lRlTill 108. :iklql,
>Ill! q;f.t :;m f<mT i? i\ 3i'f.l q;r<f ;;rRJ %?
(a) 'l!"'i <lfd<hl!l
(b) quf
(b) 100
(c) 'li<'!
(c) fft.rn 00
(d) . .


1 OS. it fso'lT G!TG l!l'!>R Rl4 Rlful {1

it it f<l;u v;<li mi<R it iRft i?
109. v;<li ii'iu6 <f,J >m: 3<1 <"l"R 'R 9 8 N i,
(a) ''i<f'{!:'if.i "h 311'<'1
g= 98ms- 2 i l 3fl<f,J J::C'l41'1

(b) 311'<'1 i?
(c) q I 311'<'1
(a} "!lp!
{b) g. 8 kg

106. qfl:oll4\li'4 itfT %? (c) 10 kg

{a) f.IR\Oi{'g'l <f,J 3414'Cl<i (d} 1 kg

(b) f.IR\q{'g'J <f,J 3414'Cl'l

(c) f.IRI<i<f.i'l <f,J 3414'Cl'l 110. <!fu mft ii'iu6 :.>itt mft >mt ii'iu6

(dJ RIRI<i<P-1'1 <f,J 3414'Cl'l

(a) ii'iu6 <liT TJfu;;r >ffil ii'iu6

107. 1lR<! mf{ it R14!flfula it it <liT TJfu;;r -.) t
1$1 l"h I " f.rzi?iUl ll
(b} <liT >mt

<liT TJfu;;r -.) '!ill i

{c) ii'iu6 <liT TJfu;;r >ffil ii'iu6
(b) <liT TJfu;;r 6lmR t
(cJ 31tlm
(d) fuat

Q-OEBB-.J-HB/24A 37 [P. T. 0.
111. An object of mass 5 kg
attached to 114. Kinetic viscosity of a given liquid is
the end of a rope. If the rope is the ratio of
pulled upward with an acceleration
of 0 30m s- 2 , what is the tension (a) the coefficient of viscosity to
the density
in the rope?
(b) the coefficient of viscosity to
(a) 30 5 N the surface tension

(b) 405 N (c) the density to the coefficient of

(c) 505N
(d) the surface tension to the
(d) 60 5 N coefficient of viscosity

112. When a mass m is hung on a spring, 115. When oil floats on water, the surface
the spring stretched by 6 em. If the tension of water
loaded spring is pulled downward a
(a) vanishes immediately
little and released, then the period
of vibration of the system will be
(b) decreases considerably

(a} 027 s (c) increases considerably

(b) 035 s (d) remains unaffected

(c) 049 s

116. Consider two hollow glass spheres,

(d) 064 s one containing water and the other
containing mercury. Each liquid
fills about one-tenth of the volume
113. A book is kept on the surface of a of the sphere. In zero gravity
table. If the gravitational pull of the environment
earth on the book is the force of
(a) water and mercury float freely
action, then the force of reaction is
inside the sphere
exerted by
(b) water forms a layer on the
(a) the book on the table glass, while mercury floats

(b) the book on the earth , (c) mercury forms a layer on the
glass, while water floats
(c) the table on the book
(d) water and mercury both form a
(d) the table on the earth layer on the glass

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 38
111. 5 u:m i!> .m
'1< <fm 1 '!fu -rnft 'li'! <M <Iii <R'!>
i!> i'OR"' il> Bl"'
<it <rn um if m f.l'"'l Rolf& a 1l -H 'fiR-m
(a) 305 N

(b) 40 5 N

(c) 505 N

(d) 60 5 N

112. :wR m 'li'l fu B <1''Ail41 'mGT

i, mfu 6 em ;;mf\ '!fu 'i1ful
fu 'li'l <Iii <R'!>
fu>n 'mGT i' <it <ffi f.loor:l <liT 'fiP'R-'fiR'!
(a) 027 s

(b) 035 s

(c) 0-49 s
116. m w.m
fiRil if 'IFfi affi
1l,'li if 'IT<G I
(d) 064 s Til! if 3ll<ffi'! if; WN'T <:WI
m=a <1'1> 'ffi i I lii:"" <lid l<l{UI if
113. f<Rfi *'r if; <R! '1< wfi lflfl i I
'!fu if; '!i'luT 'li'l tt
f.h41- "if<1 llH fu'l! orr<!, m Gli 1 "if<1
3M IRia irn {b) 'IFfi <r.m!T i,
'IT<G fmrr i

{c) 'IT<G 'RlQT t

'IFfi fmrr i
(c) *'r ;:m

(d) *" ;:m

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 39 [ P. T. 0.
117. In the relation a = j3t +A, a and A are 120. What is the telescope designed to
measured in metre (m) and t is search for earth-size planets in the
measured in second (s}. The SI unit nearby region of our galaxy, termed
of 13 must be as?
(a) Hubble telescope
(a) m
(b) Kepler telescope
(b) m s (c) Copemicus telescope
(d) Newton telescope
(c) s

(d) m s- 1 121.

118. An object is kept 5 em in front of a

concave mirror of focal length
15 em. What will be the nature of A current I in a lamp varies with
the image? voltage V as shown in the figure
given above. Which one of the
(a) Virtual, not magnified following is the variation of power P
with current I?
(b) Virtual, magnified

(c) Real, not magnified

(d) Real, magnified

119. The density of cast iron

(b) ;LL_
specific gravity 7 20 is

(a) 720 kgfm 3

(c) ;t_

(b) 720 kgfm 3

(c) 72 kg/m 3

(d) 7200 kgjm 3

Q-OEBB----1-HB /24A 40
117. a = +A. il a 3fu:). 'li'ftftG\ (m) i! 120. wftq ij
<!I'll t <@ (s) il '1l'!T '5ffil1 '!>f Sl 31l<iiR "iffi<l"{ <iii if;

(a) m

(b) m s
(c) <i\q(f.l<tie
(c) s

(d) m s- 1

118. M 'R1! <@ 15 3T<Til<'!

G'fuT 5 em US! rr<rr I Qf{tf.ik!
'!>[ <i<!T 1% il mu
q ftctfifu ;lim "3>lR m- w..r.n ij
(a} 3TI'ffift, rr<rr 1 R'"'lfflf&o il ffi-m 1% mu I
mffi P'!>f i?
(b) 3TI'ffift,

(c) '-llf<lfil<ii,

(d) Cllf<lfil<ii,

119. 7-20
<If<') '!>[

{a) 720 kg/m 3


(b) 720 kg/m 3


72 kgjm 3

7200 kg/m 3

41 [ P. T. 0.
122. Net charge in a current-carrying 125. An electric iron of resistance 20 .Q
conductor is takes a current of 5 A. The heat
developed in joules in 30 s is
(a) always positive
(a) 5 kJ

(b) always negative (b) 10 kJ

(c) 15 kJ
(c) zero
(d) 20 kJ
(d) either positive or negative

126. A house, served by a 220 V supply

line, is protected by a 9 A fuse.
123. The audible frequency range of a What is the ma.'<imum number of
human ear is 60 watt bulbs that can be turned on
in parallel?
(a) 20 hertz to 200 hertz
(a) 11

(b) 2 hertz to 20 hertz (b) 22

(c) 33
(c) 200 hertz to 2000 hertz
(d) 44
(d) 20 hertz to 20000 hertz

127. An object is placed at a distance of

12 em from a convex lens on its
124. Which one of the following is the principal axis and a virtual image of
resistance that must be placed certain size is formed. If the object
parallel with 12 Q resistance to is moved further 8 em away from
obtain a combined resistance of the lens, a real image of the same
4Q? size as that of the virtual image is
formed. Which one of the following
(a) 2Q is the focal length of the lens?

(a) 15 em
(b) 4 Q
(b) 16 em
(c) 6Q
(c) 18 em

(d) 8Q (d) 20 em

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 42

122. '<l1W!i if, tnu t 125. 20.Q oli\ oli\
'f1lT tnu <#! , 3o s if ;rnif Fcti!>rn d "3>Gl11
(0@ if) fifKr;fi mrtt?

(a) 5 kJ

(b) 10 kJ

(c) 15 kJ

(d) 20 kJ

126. 220 V it t[{ 9 A il;

6ow f<RR
<[('<! wri<R it 31f.!

{a) 20 $it 200 $ (a) 11

(b) 22

(c) 33
(c) 200 $ it 2000 $
(d) 44

(d) 20 $it 20000 $

<lit il; W9'< '>l&l '11:
12 em olil <@ '11: <:<m TF!T afu
124. 4 n "llfWq iii f.J"1Rlfuld if 3!l'ffi!'r 51Rlf.l'4 <ffiiT 1
it ma-aq <lit 12 .Q "llfWq il; it afu 8 ful(l'hl<ll
tll!RR .q <:<m m Offill t -m 3!T'ffifr iii ml!J1i
q ltd i<l'h 51RIRI'4 <ffiiT I R"1 Rlli'9 d

(a) 2 .Q
if it <l>'R-<fi olil <@

{a) 15 em
(b) 4 Q
(b) 16 em
(c) 6Q
(c) 18 em

(d) 8Q (d) 20 em

Q-OEBlhl-HB/24A 43 [P.T.O.
128. Different objects at different 131. Water flows out of the hole of a
distances are seen by the eye. The bucket and follows a parabolic
parameter that remains constant is path. If the bucket falls freely under
gravity, the water flow (ignoring air
(a} the focal length of the eye lens resistance)
(b) the object distance from the (a} follows a straight-line path
eye lens relative to the falling bucket

(c) the radii of curvature of the eye (b) follows a parabolic path
lens relative to the falling bucket
(c) stops
(d) the image distance from the
eye lens (d) decreases but continues to

129. A spring has length '!' and spring 132. 1 gm of ice at 0 oc is mixed with
constant 'k'. It is cut into two pieces 1 gm of steam at 100 "C. After
of lengths 11 and 12 such that thermal equilibrium, the temper-
11 =nl 2 . The force constant of the ature of the mixture is
spring of length 11 is
(a} o c (b) 50 "C
(a} k(l + n) (c) 80 ac (d) 100 "C
(b) k
133. Which one of the following elements
(c) k/(n+ l) exists in liquid state at room
(d) k[(n+l)/n]
(a) Mercury
(b) Lead
130. A vessel contains oil of density
08 gmfcm 3 over mercury of (c) Sodium
density 13. 6 gm/ em 3 . A homoge- (d) Calcium
neous sphere floats with half of its
volume immersed in mercury and 134. Aluminium is more reactive than
the other half in oil. The density of iron but aluminium is Jess easily
the material of the sphere in CGS corroded than iron, because
unit is
(a) oxygen forms a protective oxide
(a} 3 3 layer

(b) 6-4 (b) it is a noble metal

(c) iron undergoes reaction easily
(c) 7-2 with water
(d) 12 8 (d) iron forms ions

12s. M"" 'li't "' 131. ..R fuaT 'lf.ft 4\J"klPl iii 'l>l
WIt 1 "14R<ldf W-1 <m'IT t? <R"RRT t I 31tfR Wfi
fl'mft t, <it 'lf.ft i'j;l w.m: 'llfuir!:l
(a) <'m <lit <Nlffi

(a) fl'mft 'l>l i\
(b) fl'mft W'l<'1iTli!> 'l>l i\
(c) "ffil <lit

{d) "ffi! <lit

(d) 'i!>ll "lit <redT Wn

129. 'li'lT'ft <lit ']' :;itt 'li'lT'ft 132. o c 1 gm <rt 'li't 100 c 1 gm
'k' t I "3Wii't 11 3fu 12 it <9Uii >n<t WI fi:lf"Aif fol;<rr "ffi!T t I or:f\>1
i\ q;gr 'FIT 11 = n1 2 ; 11 <w: i'j;l 'dT4
'li'lT'ft i'j;l Gf<'! <I'll t?
(a) o c (b) so c
(a) k(1 + n) (c) 80 c fdJ 100 c
(b) k
133. f.l101 <1 m;:it i\ it -m 'ffii!FII 'dT4
(c) k/(n+ 1) "''Wi i\ t?
(d) k[(n + 1) /n] (a) 'lR'G

(b} m.n
(c) ..
130. <l<R i\ 136gm/cm 3 'lR'G
08gm/cm 3 i'j;l t1
wWft -.ffi:n 3l'f.l 3WR i'j;l :mm
134. Q;<:!f4f.t'11l '<'1'lt: it 3lfuq; ilm
fum 'lR'G it :;itt :mm fum i\
RllR>td fmrr t I CGS it
t llll '<'1'lt: <lit 'i!>ll
3lrnFfl it <l&nful ilm t,
-qzyf i'j;l <I'll t?
(a) :>iT<Rll'>H <:&fi "'ttm;s <m1 <AT
(a) 3 3

(b) 64 (b)
(c) 3lrnFfl it 'lf.ft liRi fs!;i:jj <R<IT
(c) 7 2
{d) 12.8 (d} 3n<R <R"RRT t

Q-OEBB-,J-HB/24A 45 [P.T. 0.
135. According to which one of the 138. Acid turns blue litmus red and base
following laws it is indicated that turns red litmus blue. A student
when two or more gases react with tested a liquid with a red litmus
one another, their volumes bear a paper which remained red with no
simple ratio? change. This shows that the liquid

(a} Law of mass action

(a) is not a base
(b) Law of multiple proportions
(b) is not an acid
(c) Law of reciprocal proportions

(d) Law of combining volumes (c) is neither an acid nor a base

(d) must be pure water

136. Equal quantities (50 ml) of the
following four samples of water are
placed in four beakers of 100 ml
capacity. Their boiling points are 139. Arrange the following bases in
determined accurately using the increasing order of their basic
same thermometer. Which sample strength :
of water will have the lowermost
boiling point as compared to other 1. Sodium hydroxide
three samples?
2. Magnesium hydroxide
(a) Distilled water
3. Aluminium hydroxide
(b) Bottled mineral water
4. Ammonium hydroxide
(c) Well water
Select the correct answer using the
(d) Seawater
code given below :

137. Dry ice is used for making cold-baths

in laboratories by mixing with Code:
volatile organic solvents. Identify
the form of dry ice from the
following (a) 4-2-1-3
(a) Gaseous carbon dioxide
(b) 4-l-2-3
(b) Liquid carbon dioxide
(c) 4-3-2-1
(c) Solid carbon dioxide

(d) Solid hydrogen oxide (d) 1-2-3-4

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 46
135. "it - f'm 1% oo 138. 311'<'! ;fu?! 'lilT i afR PiiW!i
awm: 'R 'ffl ma-r i fof> .n "Iff -;fu;rr 'lilT i I \% f<lwff
l\ii q;fi (!) \% s:.<f 'liT Wia.11'1 m-r'
3WR \% m<'! "it if<! m m '!1<111 'ffl i

(b) 00 (a) PiiW!i mi

(c) l!<"< 'liT 00
(bJ 311'<'! mi
(d) 3WR 'liT 00

136. W<R lffil1 mil il> Ol<'f RAR1Rla

"ffi l 00 ml tnfurr "ffi oflq;it if
sra 7!it 1 'liT \% dl41lt'l'l m
7J<rT I <ll'lil <fR
<fit <ti'R-i\ Ol<'f 'liT $<Hi<f>
139. RARlfu!d PiiW!i
Sf>ll if :

(a) 3l1Wf Ol<'f l. -

(b) oild\'1<1"<: Ol<'f 2.

(c) Ol<'f
4. :>i!i'tf.l<lll
(d) mrR Ol<'f

137. if -.r.rR %g
<f>lo!f.i<t> [ij \'114'1>1 it il>

'11 ....t 'liT 7J<rT I R"'lAR!!d if
it 'l1ort 11 Y6<ltR<!>
(a) 4-2-l-3
(a) i\W! <fiT'H
(b) 4-l-2-3
(bJ s:.q <f>T'H T<ru

(c) 4-3-2-1

(d) l-2-3-4

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 47 (P. T. 0.
140. Consider the following statements : 142. The concentration tof hydrochloric
1. Soap cannot be used in acidic acid in a given solution is 10-8 M.
water. What is the value of pH for this
2. Ionic part of a soap is
-eoo-.Na+. (a} 7
3. Soap dissolves in water faster
than detergent. (b} > 7 but not 14

Which of the statements given (c) <7

above is/ are correct?
(d) 14
{a} 1 and 2

(b} 2 and 3 143. Diamond is a

(c) 3 only
{a} good conductor and soft
(d) 1 only
(b} non-conductor and soft

141. Match List-I with List-IT and select (c) non-conductor and hard
the correct answer using the code
given below the Lists : (d) good conductor and hard
List-! List-If
(Material) (Important Ingredient) 144. Consider the following statements
A. Cement 1. Sodium salt of fatty acids regarding aluminium paint :
B. Glass 2. Carbon black 1. It is fairly good heat-resistant.
C. Ink 3. Silica in the form of
quartz 2. It possesses good electrical
D. Soap 4. Aluminates and silicates resistance.
of calcium 3. It cannot be used for hot water

(a) A B c D Which of the statements given

4 3 2 1 above is/ are correct?

(b) A B c D
(a) 1 and 3
1 2 3 4

(c) A B c D (b} 1 only

1 3 2 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) A B c D
4 2 3 1 {d) 2 and 3

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 48
140. f.'Pli=afum 'R Wrn: 142. '<'li it <iii
1. q;[ "1<'1 lj --rrff ""' 10-8 M i I -.:im q;r pH l1R <!<I! i?

2. q;r a:wr4t '1l'T -eoo-. Na + (a) 7
il (b) > 7 14 --rrff
3. 3'14'4i<k<ii (fu<'<<il2) <iii
h!RI W'CfT i I (c) <7

it <m-m/il im (d) 14
(a) 1 ->ill 2
(b} 2 :;i\1: 3
(c) m3 143. mai
fdJ m 1

141. <6\ B ->ffi

-:ft;); 'l1l: 'f' q;r ""'

(d) WJI<'I'h

A. m-m 1. 'HIT 3ll<.'i'l q;r "'I fu11 14

144. iR it <Jklf.?id f.lqf=afuld

B. 2.
1. <:; q;p:!ij ll!l'iG'l<t>
c. m 3. lj fef=a<t>l
2. >ffiRl'l m<rr i,
D. 4. ilifRWl fuf=ailil ->ill
3. Tflf TJFft 'm'! il; wiM

(a) A B c D
4 3 2 1 (a) 1 3fu: 3
(b) A B c D
1 2 3 4 (bJ m 1
(c) A B c D
1 3 2 4 (c) 1 ->ill 2
(d) A B c D
4 2 3 1 (d) 2 ->ill 3

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 49 { P. T. 0.
145. Following statements are made in Directions :
connection with carbon dioxide The following three (31 items consist
(C02 ) : of two statements, one labelled as
l. C0 2 is a poisonous gas. 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'.
You are to examine these two statements
2. C0 2 is an acidic oxide.
carefully and select the answers to these
3. C0 2 tums limewater milky. items using the code given below :
Which of the statements given Code:
above is/are correct? (a) Both A and R are individually
(a) 1 and 2 true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) 2 and 3 (b) Both A and R are individually
(c) 3 only true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(d) 1 and 3
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
146. Which of the following is the best
example of the law of conservation 148. Assertion {A) :
of mass? The Americans refused to pay
taxes imposed by the British
(a} . When 12 gm of carbon is Parliament during the American
heated in vacuum, there is no War of Independence.
change in mass
Reason (R) :
(b) Weight of platinum wire is the The Americans had no representa-
same before and after heating tion in the British Parliament.
149. Assertion {A) :
(c) A sample of air increases in
There was a country-wide agitation
volume when heated at
against the Simon Commission.
constant pressure but mass
remains unchanged Reason (R) :
The members of the Simon
(d) 12 gm of carbon combines with Commission discontinued their
32 gm of oxygen to give 44 gm work in face of the country-wide
of carbon dioxide agitation.
150. Assertion (A) :
147. Which one of the following is not a On a wet floor of a bathroom, a
mixture? small circular area around a pinch
of foam appears to be dry.
(a) Air
Reason (R) :
(b) Mercury Soap molecules reduce surface
(c) Milk tension and increase surface area
of the thin layer of water on the
(d) Cement wet floor ..

Q-OEBB..,J-HB/24A 50

145. (C0 2 )

f.i"'l Rt Rsio tft.f qmoq : (3) it <;) <liT
1. C0 2 l:\'1i fm i I ''lOI!R {A)' 'fit ''ffi'!l (R)' 'liOI 7J<!l i I
2. C0 2 l:\'1i i I ir.if q;r l<l'llil<tcfq; tRT1<f'Jl <g

3. C0 2 'I(Z <lit 81'1di :

(a) A am Rir.if <W't t am R, Aq;r
(aJ 1am2 <ffi\ f'li\ifi(Oj i
(bJ 2 am 3 (b) A am R ir.if <W't 'R"\! R, A 'liT

<ffi\ f'l eJq;(Oj "'tf i
(c) A <It\ i, 'R"\! R "!Tffi! i
fdJ 1 am 3 (d) A "!Tffi! i, 'R"\! R <It\ i

146. -q <lir.!-m mmr m1<f'Jl f.!<!'! 148. 'lOI!R (A) :

q;r ;rell i? mw< it; <ft\R Wl6fiWI
IDU q;U it; 'l'ffiFI
(a) 12 grn f.r<!fu W!fu it

(Ill f<mr it S::0!14H it
'ffi1ll (R) :

3!46fibi1 'liT f.lfuT
fbJ <m: q;r 'l"H OJ1R iii am 2!11
'lTG -q W!H i
149. 'lOI!R (A) :
(c) Wn: <:Iii -q m 'R 'liT it; 3!1-Gl<:H
3WR '>ffill i, M'l H !;[3lll
3jq W<ll i 'ffi1ll (R) :

(d) 12 grn 32 grn it; "!

mun'"A<! 44 grn 3ll..a<'H m 'liT4 OR <g

150. 'lOI!R {A) :

147. f.i"'lR!Rsio it it 'lir.!-m ftr"..VV om i? it; >fiTI 'R

it; '<lTii 3liT 'liT vf\'t '!Rfur iRrr
(a) il
(b) 1ffil 'ffi1ll {R) :
it; >fiTI 'R <lit '<<'ft
'Rd iii 'PI (Rjq 'fit 'l<J am 'lll
(d) <ftilc

Q-OEBB-.J-HB/24A 51 [ P. T. 0.

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 52

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 53 [P. T. 0.

Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 54

Q--OEBB-J-HB/24A 55 JS-1**33*
if.ift.lft. : Q-OEBB-J-HB
fll441 Pel til Hhti 'QU&lUf
9)M Cfi I A

1. "!ffim ="' m;r W"' <nG' a:rrq "lffillW! <lit 3f1lll'l ""' <'! fit f.lm '{Jq"f,
m WI s-m 'lW m1 t, m oil.m "lffi!\lUT <IG<'I
2. .m "lffi!\lUT B, C m D "1"11'!

3. "' ml!! 11 11 awm 31'FI1 1

3ijsMi<l> >rt\8ii"! 'R :JiR "'I L------------'
4. >rt\8ii"! 11150 w-lW (w.!) m11l'i!11 : 'lT'T-A am 'lT'T-BI 'lT'T-B
:JiR G);iT it lrn t I w-lW il '<lR (-:m) t I \t<!i <if "fl <'f, ffil
.m'l -:m-'lll'ii "' aWm! "<i><-IT t 1 awm 1l.m WI f'l; 't"' WI m:m <it aWm!
<!il .rr awm W11 -mm 1Wt 't"' lft 'F'fl 1
s. awm am 31WT '11< -:m-'lll'ii "' lft aWm! 1 -:m-'lll'ii 11 '11< 1
6. w.rml <ll!R

7. f'l; .m'l w.rr.m -:m -'lll'ii "' aWm! "<i><-IT W' <!>l, awm m
>fllllJf-'f:f "ffil!! il:f?rn 3ifR -:m'lll'ii 11 t I
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Note : English version of the instructions is printed on the front cover of this Booklet.