Question Papers

ExamCode: ECE1_15_B1 Version No : 1

1.

2. What determines if resistor connections are in series, parallel or seriesparallel?

1) The voltage source 2) The power source
3) Resistance 4) Current flow

3. Which resistive component is designed to be temperature sensitive?

1) Thermistor 2) Rheostat
3) Potentiometer 4) Photoconductive Cell

4. Superposition theorem is NOT applicable to networks containing-

1) Nonlinear elements 2) Dependent voltage sources
3) Dependent current sources 4) Transformers
5.

6. A triangular-wave oscillator can consist of an op-amp comparator, followed by a(n)-

1) Differentiator 2) Amplifier
3) Integrator 4) Multivibrator

7.

8. For a base current of 10 A, what is the value of collector current in common emitter if dc = 100?

1) 10 A 2) 100 A
3) 1 mA 4) 10 mA
9.

10. The phenomenon known as Early Effect in a bipolar transistor refers to a reduction of the effective base-width caused by-
1) Electron-hole recombination at the base 2) The reverse biasing of the base-collector junction

3) The forward biasing of emitter-base junction 4) The early removal of stored base charge during saturation to
cutoff switching

11. A Wheatstone bridge can be used to determine an unknown-

1) Current 2) Resistance
3) Power 4) Voltage

12. A series RLC circuit has a resonance frequency of 1 kHz and a quality factor Q = 100. If each R, L and C is doubled from its original
value, the new Q of the circuit is:
1) 25 2) 50
3) 100 4) 200

13. The ratio of diffusion constant to mobility of carriers-

1) Depends on temperature 2) Depends on type of semiconductor
3) Varies with lifetime 4) Universal constant
14. Acceptor in semiconductor is:
1) An impurity which increases hole concentration 2) An impurity which increases electron concentration

3) An extra energy level which increases electron energy 4) None of these

15. An example of heterojunction diode is:

1) Zener diode 2) LED
3) Injection laser 4) Both (B) and (C)

16. The leakage current of transistor are ICB0=3A and ICE0=0.3mA, IB=30A.The value of is:

1) 79 2) 81
3) 99 4) 56

17. In Tunnel Diode characteristics, the peak in the characteristic curve is due to-
1) Large biasing 2) Tunneling phenomenon
3) Increase in impurity concentration 4) Impact Ionization

18. The drift velocity of electrons is:

1) Very small as compared to speed of light 2) Equal to speed of light
3) Almost equal to speed of light 4) Half the speed of light

19. If 1, 2, 3, 4 are the mobility constants of electron and holes of Ge& Si respectively at T=27 C, then-

1) 1>2>3>4 2) 1>3 >2>4

3) 4>2>3>1 4) 1>3 >4>2

20. Find out the percentage increase in the reverse saturation current of the diode if the temperature is increased from 25C to 50C.

1) 56.57% 2) 565.7%
3) 5.657% 4) No change in reverse saturation current
21. If the mobility of holes in a silicon material is doubled then the mobility of electrons will be-

1) Double 2) Half
3) Remains same 4) Four times

22. In a n-type semiconductor, as temperature T increases, the Fermi level-

1) Moves towards conduction band 2) Moves towards middle of forbidden energy
3) Does not shift 4) Shifting depends on concentration of donor atoms

23. An increase in collector base voltage-

1) Increases collector base depletion width 2) Decreases effective width of base
3) Increases emitter base depletion width 4) Both (A) and (B)

24. In p-type Ge of a MOS transistor, the impurity doping concentration is Na=1016cm-3. At T=300K, the maximum space charge width is:

1) 0.235 m 2) 2.35 m
3) 23.5 m 4) None of these

25. In a transistor amplifier, the reverse saturation current Ico :

1) Doubles for every 10C rise in temperature 2) Doubles for every 1C rise in temperature
3) Increases linearly with temperature 4) Doubles for every 50C rise in temperature

26. If the unit step response of a system is (1 - e)-2t, then its unit impulse response is _____.

1) 2e-2t 2) 12e-2t

3) 1+e-2t 4) 1-12e-2t

27. A Hilbert transformer is a ______ system.

1) Low pass 2) Time-varying
3) Non-casual 4) Non-linear
28. Let x[n] defined in the interval 3 n 5 and h(n), defined for 2 n 6 be two finite length sequence. The range of interval for which
x[n] * h[n] is defined is _____.
1) 7 n 9 2) 3 n 9
3) 2 n < 3 4) 5 n 6

29. For a dipole antenna-

1) The radiation intensity is maximum along the normal to the dipole axis 2) The current distribution along its length is uniform irrespective
of the length
3) The effective length equals its physical length 4) The input impedance is independent of the location of the feed
point.

30.

31. A TE10 rectangular waveguide is to be designed for operation over 25-35 GHz and the band centre is 1.5 times the cut-off frequency.
What should be the dimensions of the broad side?

1) 15 mm 2) 10 mm
3) 9 mm 4) 7.5 mm

32. A (75 j40) load connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 at 6 MHz. The load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-

1) A short-circuited stub at the load 2) An inductance at the load

3) A shortcircuited stub at a specific distance from the load 4) A capacitance at a specific distance from the load
33. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance
will be-
1) 25 2) 50
3) 100 4) 150

34. A circular air filled waveguide of radius 5 cm is operated in the TH01 mode. The waveguide is then completely filled with a dielectric
of relative permittivity 2.25 and relative permeability 1.0. The cut-off wavelength for the TH01 mode is 0.082m when the waveguide is
air-filled. When the waveguide is filled with the dielectric, the cut-off frequency will become nearly:

1) 1.06 GHz 2) 2.44 GHz

3) 3.66 GHz 4) 4.00 GHz

35.

36. For TM waves in a parallel plate waveguide, the minimum attenuation arising from imperfect conductors would occur at a frequency
of : (c is the cut-off frequency)

1) 3c 2) 3c
3) 2c 4) 2c

37. A 60 coaxial cable feeds a 75 + j25 dipole antenna. The voltage reflection coefficient and standing wave ratios are respectively:

1) 0.212 48.55, 1.538 2) 0.486 68.4, 2.628

3) 0.48641.45, 2.682 4) 0.212 68.4, 1.538
38.

39. A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity vp = 2 x 108m/s and length = 1m is terminated by a
load Z1(30 j40) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be:

1) (30+j40) ohms 2) (30-j40) ohms

3) (50+j40) ohms 4) (50-j40) ohms

40. When electromagnetic waves are reflected at an angle from a wall, their wave length along the wall is

1) Same as in the free space 2) Same as the wavelength perpendicular to the wall

3) Shortened because of the Doppler effect 4) Greater than in the actual direction of propagation

41. The electric field at a point from a transmitter radiating a certain power is 2.5 mV/m. If transmitter power is doubled, then yield
strength at that point will be about:
1) 2.5 mV/m 2) 3.5 mV/m
3) 5 mV/m 4) 10 mV/m

42. If in an air line, adjacent maxima are found at 12.5 cm and 37.5 cm, then operating frequency is-
1) 1.5 GHz 2) 600 MHz
3) 300 MHz 4) 1.2 GHz
43. A circular waveguide carries TE11 mode whose radial electricfield is given by Er = E01, J1 (r) sin V / m where r is radial distance in
cm from the waveguide axis. Cutoff wavelength of the mode is:

1) 10 cm 2) 3 cm
3) 2 cm 4) 8 cm

44.

45.
46.

47.

48.
49. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of-
1) Reference input and output 2) Output
3) Reference input 4) Reference input and error signal

50. The steady state error of a feedback control system with an acceleration input becomes finite in a:

1) Type 0 system 2) Type 1 system

3) Type 2 system 4) Type 3 system

51.

52. Signal flow graph is used to obtain the-

1) Stability of a system 2) Transfer function of a system
3) Controllability of a system 4) Observability of a system

53. The intersection point of the asymptotes for G(S) H(S) = K/S (S + 5) (S+10) is:
1) 0 2) -5
3) -10 4) -
54.

55.

56.
57. The speed of conversion is maximum in -
1) Successive-approximation A/D converter 2) Parallel-comparative A/D converter
3) Counter ramp A/D converter 4) Dual-slope A/D converter

58. How many 3-line-to-8-line decoders are required for a 1-of-32 decoder?
1) 1 2) 2
3) 4 4) 8

59. The terms "low speed" and "high speed," applied to logic circuits, refer to the ________.

1) Rise time 2) Fall time

3) Propagation delay time 4) Clock speed

60. The MSI chip 7474 is:

1) Dual edge triggered JK flip-flop (TTL) 2) Dual edge triggered D-flip-flop (CMOS)
3) Dual edge triggered D-flip-flop (TTL) 4) Dual edge triggered JK flip-flop (CMOS)

61. The excess 3 code of decimal number 26 is:

1) 0100 1001 2) 01011001
3) 1000 1001 4) 01001101

62. A four bit ripple counter consisting of flip-flops that each has a propagation delay of 12ns from clock to Q output. For the counter to
recycle from 1111 to 0000, it takes a total of:
1) 12ns 2) 24ns
3) 48ns 4) 26ns

63. How many select lines will a 16 to 1 multiplexer have?

1) 4 2) 3
3) 5 4) 1

64. While obtaining minimal sum of products expression-

1) All dont cares are ignored 2) Only such dont cares that aid minimization are treated as
logic ones
3) All dont cares are treated as logic ones 4) All dont cares are treated as logic zeros
65. Which of the following are known as universal gates?
1) NAND & NOR 2) AND & OR
3) XOR & OR 4) XOR & XNOR

66. If the input to T-flip-flop is 100 Hz signal, the final output of the three T-flip-flops in cascade is:

1) 1000 Hz 2) 500 Hz
3) 333 Hz 4) 12.5 Hz

67. Which of the following is NOT generally associated with flip-flops?

1) Hold time 2) Propagation delay time
3) Interval time 4) Set up time

68.

69. When the frequency of applied voltage in a series RL circuit is increased what happens to the inductive reactance?

1) Decreases 2) Remains the same

3) Increases 4) Becomes zero
70.

71. The r.m.s. value of pure cosine function is:

1) 0.5 of peak value 2) 0.707 of peak value
3) Same as peak value 4) Zero

72.

73. What is the voltage of a battery that uses 800J of energy to move 40C of charge through a resistor?
1) 800V 2) 40V
3) 25V 4) 20V

74. If a network contains B branches and N nodes, then the number of mesh current equations would be-

1) B-(N-1) 2) N-(B-1)
3) B-N-1 4) (B+N)-1
75.

76. For a certain load, the true power is 100 W and the reactive power is 100 VAR. What is the apparent power?
1) 200 VA 2) 100 VA
3) 141.4 VA 4) 120 VA

77.

78. A two element series circuit with an instantaneous current I=4.24sin(5000t+45) A, has a power of 180 watts and a power factor of 0.8
lagging. The inductance of the circuit must have the value :
1) 3H 2) 0.3 H
3) 3 mH 4) 0.3 mH
79. Apparent power is expressed in-
1) Volt-amperes 2) Watts
3) Volt-amperes or watts 4) VAR

80.

81.
82.

83. A 200 Hz sinusoid is sampled at 450 Hz. How many full periods of x(t) are required to obtain one period of the sampled signal?

1) 9 2) 4
3) 8 4) 2

84.
85.

86.

87.
88. Which of the following system is linear? i) y(t) = tx(t) ii) y(t) = tx(t) iii) y(t) = tx(2t)

1) (i) only 2) (i) & (ii)

3) (iii) only 4) (i) & (iii)

89. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by sine wave with modulation indices of 30% and 40% respectively. The overall modulation
index will be-
1) 50 % 2) 70%
3) 100 % 4) Indefinite as modulation by two waves simultaneously is
not possible

90. V(t)=5(cos(106t)-sin(103t) sin(106t) represents :

1) DSB suppressed carrier signal 2) AM signal
3) SSB upper sideband signal 4) Narrow band F.M. signal

91. Which of the following demodulator(s) can be used for demodulating the signal s(t)=5(1+2 cos 2000t)cos 2000t?

1) Envelope demodulator 2) Square law demodulator

3) Synchronous demodulator 4) All of these

92. PAM signals can be demodulated by using a-

1) Low pass filter alone (LPF) 2) A Schmitt trigger followed by LPF
3) A differentiator followed by LPF 4) A clipper circuit followed by LPF

93. The baud rate is:

1) Always equal to the bit transfer rate 2) Equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel

3) Not equal to the signaling rate. 4) Equal to one-half the bandwidth of ideal channel.
94.

95. A signal m1(t) is band limited to 3.6 KHz and three other signals m2(t), m3(t) and m4(t) are band limited to 1.2 KHz each and these signals
are transmitted by means of TDM. Then, what will be the transmission bandwidth of the channel?

1) 7.2KHz 2) 14.4KHz
3) 3.6KHz 4) 2.4KHz

96. In a digital communication system employing FSK, the 0 and 1 bit are represented by sine waves of 10 kHz and 25 kHz respectively.
These waveforms will be orthogonal for a bit interval of :

1) 45 sec 2) 200 sec

3) 50 sec 4) 250 sec

97. A comparison of frequency division and time division multiplexing systems shows that-
1) FDM requires a lower bandwidth, but TDM has greater noise immunity 2) FDM has greater noise immunity and requires lower bandwidth
than TDM
3) FDM requires channel synchronization, while TDM has greater noise 4) FDM requires more multiplexing while TDM requires band pass
immunity. filter

98. The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal g(t) = 10cos(50 t)cos2(150 t) when t is in seconds is:

1) 150 samples/second 2) 200 samples/second

3) 300 samples/second 4) 350 samples/second
99. In a modulation system, on doubling the modulation frequency, the modulation index gets halved while the modulating voltage
needed remains unaltered. The modulation system is :

1) AM 2) FM
3) PM 4) All of these

100. The envelope detector is a/an-

1) Synchronous detector 2) Asynchronous detector
3) Product demodulator 4) Coherent detector