BSMT 4A

1. In the year of 1932, he developed prontosil.

a) Gerhard Domagk b) Jules Bordet c) Paul Ehrlich d) Alexander Fleming

2. The number of major complement components that participate in the classical

activation pathway is:
a) 10 b) 9 c) 7 d) 8

3. It refers to the strength of an antibody hapten or antibody-epitope bond.

a) Avidity b) Specificity c) Affinity d) NOTA

4. It is a type of precipitation reaction where in Fahey and Mancini methods are

involved.
a) Double diffusion c) Countercurrent
immunoelectrophoresis
b) Immunoelectrophoresis d) Radial immunodiffusion

5. A syphilis that is acquired from the mother during fetal life.

a) Congenital syphilis b) Neurosyphilis c) Both A and B d) NOTA

6. It is a nonenveloped, isosahedral, single stranded RNA particle that belongs to

family Picornaviridae.
a) Hepatitis C b) Hepatitis A c) Hepatitis D d) Hepatitis B

7. What type of virus that is a major cause of NANB?

a) HAV b) HBV c) HCV d) HDV

8. It is a nonspecific trace constituent of serum and is commonly found in active

RA, viral infection and TB.
a) ASO b) Cold agglutinins c) Haptoglobin d) CRP

9. A type of HSV which is primarily isolated from the genital tract and skin lessions
below the waist.
a) HSV Type 1 b) HSV Type 2 c) HSV Type 3 d) NOTE
 10. A virus that is indistinguishable from Herpes simplex and Varicella in negative
staining electron microscopy.
a) Cytomegalovirus b) Epstein- Barr Virus

c) Varicella- Zoster Virus d) NOTA

B 1. Which immunoglobulin is a pentamer and is the 1st to appear after a primary

antigenic stimulus?

A. IgD B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE

A 2. Which of the following does not destroy complement in vitro?

A. Hemolysis B. Storage C. Heating D. Anticoagulants

C 3. Which hypersensitivity category includes the Arthus reaction?

A. Anaphylactic B. Cytotoxic C. Immune-Complex D. Cell-mediated

A 4. In which stage of syphilis do gummata appear?

A. Tertiary B. Late Latent C. Secondary D. Primary

D 5. Which of the following is NOT one of the modes of transmission of AIDS?

A. Sexual contact B. Blood Transfusion C. Transplacental routes D. Insects

A 6. What is the distinguishing symptom of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

A. Butterfly rash B. Diarrhea C. Hemophilia D. Infertility

D 7. Which of the following is an enzyme used as an indicator label?

A. Amylase B. Hyaluronidase C. Acid phosphatase D. Horseradish peroxidase

B 8. Which autoimmune disease theory postulates that certain antigens are hidden in
the circulation?

A. Forbidden clone B. Sequestered antigen C. Altered antigen D. Cross-reactive

antigen

C 9. What antigens do the fimbriae of S. pyogenes possess?

A. J and P B. Y and Z C. M and R D. L and T

D 10. In which stage of Lyme disease does erythema chronicum migrans occur?

A. Stage 4 B. Stage 3 C. Stage 2 D. Stage 1

1. Which of the following cell is thymus-dependent?

a. B cell
b. T cell
c. Plasma cell
d. Mast cell
2. Which immunoglobulin can pass through placenta?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE
3. Who discovered Phagocytosis?
a. Edward Jenner
b. Elie Metchnerkop
c. Elie metchnikoff
d. Susumo tunegawa
4. In Cardinal signs or symptoms after what is next after calor?
a. Tumor
b. Redness
c. Dolor
d. Heat
5. What type of immunity is associated with rubella immunization?
a. Passive immunity
b. B cell immunity
c. Active Immunity
d. Activated Immunity
6. What type of immunity is associated with neonatal syphilitic antibody titers?
a. Tcell immunity
b. IL2
c. Active immunity
d. Passive immunity
7. The cascade in complement requires what elements?
a. Calcium and potassium
b. Magnesium and thallium
c. Calcium and magnesium
d. Calcium and chloride
8. This immunoglobulin is a heat and acid labile.
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgD
d. IgA
9. In complement how many distinct serum protein present?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 14
d. 17
10. What is the incubation period of Hepatitis B?
a. 4 to 26 weeks
b. 2 to 25 weeks
c. 10 to 30 weeks
d. 1 to 5 weeks
1. A hapten is 2
a. Half of an immunoglobulin molecule
b. A carrier molecule for an antigen that is not antigenic alone
c. An immunoglobulin functional only in the presence of complement
d. A determinant capable of stimulating an immune response only when
bound to a carrier

2. Which of the following is characteristic of B cells? 3

a. Phagocytic
b. Participate in antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC) reactions
c. Contain surface immunoglobulin
d. Secrete the C5 component of complement

3. Cell mediated immunity is primarily mediated by 6

a. B cells
b. T helper cells
c. Plasma cells
d. Dendritic cells

4. HLA antigens are found on 8

a. All nucleated cells
b. Red blood cells only
c. Solid tissue only
d. White blood cells only

5. The major class of immunoglobulin found in adult human serum is 13

a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM
 6. Which class of immunoglobulin possesses delta heavy chains? 14
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG

7. Antibodies that bind to the same epitope are of the same 59

a. Allotype
b. Autotype
c. Idiotype
d. Isotype

8. Hashimoto disease is an autoimmune disease primarily involving the 83

a. Kidneys
b. Liver
c. Lungs
d. Thyroid gland

9. Cells that can act as antigen-presenting cells for exogenous antigens include 88
a. All nucleated cells
b. Endothelial cells
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes

10. The first serologic marker to appear in patients with acute hepatitis B virus
infection is 86
a. Anti-HB
b. Anti-HBc
c. Anti-HBe
d. HBsAg

1. Interferon-beta is also known as:

a. leukocyte interferon b. epithelial interferon c. immune interferon

d. NOTA

2. IgE:
a. was originally ragweed b. constitutes 10 to 20%of total IG c. has a
molecular weight of 190,000 d. crosses the human placenta

3. The order of activation of the first four components of complement in the classical
pathway is:

a. C1, C2,C3,C4 b. C1, C3, C4,C2 c. C1, C4,C3,C2 d. C1, C4, C2, C3

4. Specific antitreponemal antibodies in early or untreated early latent syphilis is

predominantly:

a. IgM b. IgA c. IgG d. IgE

5. The outer lipoprotein coat or envelope of hepatitis B virus is known as:

a. HBsAg b. HBcAg c. HBeAg d. HDV

6. The incubation period for HSV is:

a. 2 to 12 months b. 2 to 12 days c. 20 to 30 days d. 40-50 days

7. After infection with HIV, antibodies can usually be detected within:

a. 6 months b. 6 days to 12 months c. 2 weeks to 3 months d. 1 year

8. Which of the following diseases affects the nervous system?

a. Landrys paralysis b. Multiple sclerosis c.Gastric atrophy d. Pernicious

anemia

9. In which of the following fungal diseases in the fungus encountered in the lesions of
thrush:

a. North American blastomycosis b. Candidiasis c. Aspergillosis

d.Histoplasmosis

10. Aquired rubella has an incubation period of:

a. 10 to 21 days b. 2 to 3 days ` c. 40 to 50 days d. 10 to 21 days

1. The test used to confirm diagnosis of rickettsial infection.

a. Widal Agglutination Test c. Weil-Felix Agglutination Test
b. VDRL d. RPR Test

2. A virus that is also known as the kissing disease.

a. Cytomegalovirus c. Epstein Barr Virus
b. Adenovirus d. Influenza virus
3. It is the organism that causes the tropical disease known as yaws.
a. Treponema pallidum c. Treponema pertenue
b. Treponema carateum d. Congenital syphilis

4. The second and third membrane attack units.

a. C8 and C9 c. C6 and C7
b. C4 and C5 d. C3 and C4

5. An antibody that was originally called reagin.

a. IgA c. IgE
b. IgD d. IgM

6. One of the clinical symptoms of this autoimmune disorder includes the classic
butterfly rash that extends across the nose to the cheeks.
a. Graves disease c. SLE
b. Pernicious anemia d. Rheumatoid arthritis

7. A parasitic infection caused by Plasmodium spp.

a. Syphilis c. Malaria
b. EBV d. Hepatitis

8. Commonly called as German measles.

a. Rubeola c. Rubella
b. Varicella d. Zoster

9. Kopliks spots are associated with __________.

a. Varicella c. Rubeola
b. Zoster d. Mumps

10. An encapsulated yeast-like fungus found in pigeon roosts and in soil containing
pigeon or chicken droppings.
a. Candida albicans c. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Treponema carateum

1. The term immunogen is referred to:

A. The ability of a substance to combine with antibody

B. A substance that causes a detectable immune response
C. An antibody
D. A substance that is capable of cross-reactivity
2. A type of immunoglobulin produced in secondary (anamnestic) response
 A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgG
D. IgE
3. In heating the serum, what temperature and time completely activates C1 and
C2, but damages C4?

A. 56 C for 30 minutes
B. 37 C for 24 hours
C. 40 C for 30 minutes
D. None of the above

4. It is an immunoglobulin that is responsible for immune regulation of immuno

response.

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE
E. IgD

5. What histamine is being released in Type 1- Hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Eosinophil Cationic Protein

B. Major Basic Protein
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above

6. What stabilizes C3 convertase?

A. Calcium
B. Factor A
C. Factor D
D. Magnesium
E. Both C &D
7. This is a self-timing disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus.

A. Pneumonia
B. Hepatitis A
C. Infectious Mononucleosis
D. None of the abovE
8. A type of hepatitis that resembles HCV

A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis D
C. Hepatitis G
D. Hepatitis E
9. Stage in syphilis where lesions usually seen from 3 to 10 years after the primary
stage

A. Latent Stage
B. Tertiary Stage
C. Secondary Stage
D. Primary Stage

10. The disease affects females four times more frequently than males and occurs
primarily in young adults between ages 20 and 40 years

A. Rheumatoid Arthritis
B. Progressive Systemic Sclerosis
C. Sjgrens Syndrome
D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

1. Which of the following combinations of bands would represent a positive Western

blot for HIV antibody?
a. p24 and p55 c. gp41 and gp120
b. p24 and p31 d. p31 and p55

2. Which of the following genes is responsible for the coding of reverse

transcriptase?
a. Pol b. Env
 c. Gag d. Tat

3. Where does the major portion of antibody production occur?

a. Peripheral blood c. Thymus
b. Bone marrow d. Lymph nodes

4. Enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum protein

is called __________.
a. Chemotaxis c. Solubilization
b. Agglutination d. Opsonization

5. Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia represent
which type of immunity?
a. Natural c. Adaptive
b. Acquired d. Auto

6. Mannose-binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical

pathway component?
a. C3 c. C1q
b. C1rs d. C4

7. Which syphilis test detects specific treponemal antibodies?

a. RPR c. Agglutination
b. VDRL d. FTA-ABS

8. Which of the following tests is the most specific during the early phase of Lyme
disease?
a. IFA c. EIA
b. Immunoblotting d. Isolation of the spirochete

9. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is transmitted via fecal-oral route?

a. Hepatitis E b. Hepatitis C
 c. Hepatitis D d. Hepatitis B

10. Which of the following tests given below is the patient antigen determined by
measuring the number of nonagglutinating particles left after the reaction has
taken place?
a. Direct agglutinantion
b. Coagglutinantion
c. PACIA
d. Coombs testing
1. Humoral components of the adaptive immune system include:
a. T lymphocyte
b. B lymphocyte
c. Antibodies
d. Saliva
2. Synonym for an antigenic determinant is:
a. Immunogen
b. Epitope
c. Binding site
d. Polysaccharide
3. Genetically different individuals of the same species are referred to as:
a. Allogenic
b. Heterogenic
c. Autogenic
d. Isogenic
4. Antigenic substances can be composed of:
a. Large polysaccharide
b. Proteins
c. Glycoproteins
d. All of the above
5. The chemical composition of an antibody is:
a. Protein
b. Lipid
c. Carbohydrate
d. Any of the above
6. The principal type of leukocyte in the process of phagocytosis is the:
a. Eosinophil
b. Basophil
c. Monocyte
d. Neutrophil

7. The antistreptolysin O (ASO) slide test is read for the presence of:
a. Hemolysis
b. Precipitation
 c. Mucin clot
d. Agglutination
8. A streptococcal extracellular product that dissolves fibrin clots is:
a. Streptokinase
b. Group A carbohydrates
c. Streptodornase
d. Hyaluronidase
9. Which of the following is not a component of the membrane attack complex in
complement?
a. C3b
b. C6
c. C7
d. C8
10. Final steps (C8 & C9) in complement activation lead to:
a. Cell lysis
b. Phagocytosis
c. Immune opsonin adherence
d. Virus neutralization

1. IgA:

a. Exists only as a dimer

b. Is detected in cord serum

c. Is present in external secretions in higher concentration than IgG or IgM

d. Crosses the human placenta

2. These are considered minor MHC antigens.

a. class III antigens

b. class I antigens

c. class II antigens

d. complement

3. Antibody responsible for type I hypersensitivity

a. IgM

b. IgG

c. IgE
 d. IgA

4. Predominant immunoglobulin in secondary response

a. IgM

b. IgG

c. IgE

d. IgA

5. First immunoglobulin class to appear in primary response

a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgA

6. Bacterial toxin produced by virtually all strains of S.pyogenes.

a. Streptolysin O

b. Streptolysin S

c. Antistreptolysin O

d. Antistreptolysin S

7. Refers to the reaction of serum and cells at a temperature near 0C.

a. Agglutination

b. Titration

c. VDRL

d. Cold agglutinins

8. Primarily isolated from the genital tract and skin lesions below the waist.

a. HSV-2

b. HSV-1

c. Syphilis

d. Lyme disease
9. Autoimmune disease of the eye which affects the Lens

a. Sjogren syndrome

b. Phacogenic uveitis

c. Sympathetic ophthalmia

d. Bullous pemphigoid

10. Autoimmune disease of the eye, which affects uvea.

a. Sjogren syndrome
b. Phacogenic uveitis
c. Sympathetic ophthalmia
d. Bullous pemphigoid

1. B Lymphocytes can be identified by the following CD glycoproteins except:

a. CD19
b. CD20
c. CD21
d. CD22

2. Which acute phase plasma protein increases several hundred times its normal
concentration after the onset of injury?

a. C-Reactive Protein
b. Ceruloplasmin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Haptoglobin

3. Specific antitreponemal antibodies in early or untreated early latent syphilis are

predominantly:

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

4. Human syphilis is caused by what pathogenic organism?

 a. Treponema parridum
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Treponema pertenue
d. Treponema cuniculi

5. The primary targets of infection of human herpesvirus-6 are:

a. T Cells
b. B Cells
c. Both T and B cells
d. Platelets

6. This method was the first method in establishing the relationship of HBsAg to
type B hepatitis:

a. Ouchterlony Technique
b. Laurell Technique
c. Mancini Method
d. Fahey Method
7. Which of the following allergic response mediators causes vasodilation and
increased vascular permeability?

a. Eosinophil Chemotactic Factor of Anaphylaxis

b. Prostaglandin D2
c. Histamine
d. Leukotriene D4
8. This term refers to the overall bonding between multivalent antibodies and
antigens:

a. Specificity
b. Affinity
c. Avidity
d. Cross-Reactivity

9. What is the antigen used in the Wassermann Test?

 a. Reagin
b. Cardiolipin
c. HLA antigens
d. T. pallidum antigen

10. Polymyositis and Dermatomyositis are the most common expressions of what
autoimmune disorders?

a. Rheumatoid heart disease

b. Skeletal muscle disorders
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Both a and b
1. It is said to be thefirst component of complement, a macromolecule with a
molecular weight of approximately 600,000 and a sedimentation coefficient of 18.
a. C2 b. C1 c. C1q d. C4
2. Hybridomas are formed from:
a. Antibodies b. B lymphocytes c. T lymphocytes d.phagocytes
3. Interact with the surfaces of the bacteria, rendering them acceptable to the
phagocyte.
a. Opsonins b. Properdin c. betalysin d. interferon

4. VDRL antigen emulsion is stable for:

a. 24 hours b. 36 hours c. 12 hours d. 48 hours
5. The acute phase plasma protein that increases several hundred times its normal
concentration after the onset of injury is:
a. Ceruloplasmin b.C-reactive protein c. haptoglobin d. fibrinogen
6. Cells of phagocytic system.Except:
a. Polymorphonuclear cells b. monocytes c. both A and b d. NOTA
7. Immunoelectrophoresis is used to identify:
a. Lipids b.cholesterol c. Bence-Jones protein
d.chorionicgonadotrophin
8. Antibodies are primarily:
a. Alpha globulins b. beta globulins c.albumin d. gamma globulins
9. Complement deficiency described in patients presenting with failure to thrive,
diarrhea, seborrheic dermatitis and susceptibility to infection with bacterial
organisms.
a. C1q deficiency b. C2 deficiency c. C4 deficiency d. C5 deficiencye.
C3 deficiency
10. The prescence of C-reactive protein in patients serum indicates:
 a. Inflammation b.pneumococcal pneumonia c.Group A beta haemolytic
streptococcal infection d. typhoid fever

1. All of the following are secondary lymphoid tissues except

a. Lymph node
b. Thymus
c. MALT
d. Spleen
2. Cells that function as macrophages in the liver are called
a. Mononcytes
b. Hepatocytes
c. Macrophage
d. Kupffer cells

3. CD8+ T cells recognize antigenic fragments presented in association with class I

MHC.
a. True
b. False
4. It refers to the presence of identical sequences in both a pathogen in the host
a. Autoimmune deficiency
b. Molecular mimicry
c. Immunity
d. Mixed leukocyte reaction
5. The following are forms of Class I MHC molecules except
a. HLA-A
b. HLA-B
c. HLA-B7
d. HLA-DR
6. Which of the following alleles are inherited for those individuals who are at risk of
rheumatoid arthritis?
a. HLA-DR27
b. HLA-DR4
c. HLA-B7
d. HLA-A3
7. HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C proteins have many allelic forms. This is known as
a. Allelic
b. Polymorphic
c. Variant
d. Nonpolymorphic
8. The term variant is synonymous to
a. Allelic
b. Polymorphic
c. Variant
d. Nonpolymorphic
9. Individuals who are at risk for ankylosing spondylitis have inherited which of the
following alleles?
a. HLA-A3
b. HLA-B7
c. HLA-DR4
d. HLA-B27

10. Are instrument that measure the amount of light scatter caused by antigen-
antibody complexes in solution.
a. Turbidimetry
b. Radioactivity
c. Nephelometry
d. Fluorescence microscopy
1. Who showed or described serum sickness as part of their studies that it could
be caused by the bodys immunologic reaction to foreign body?
a. Von Pirquet and Schick b. von Pirquet and Shick
c. Richet and Portier d. Richett and Portier

2. What antibody is the last to leave senescence?

a. IgG1 b. IgA c. IgM d. IgG4

3. What is/ are the associated disease with the deficient component of C1s?
a. Leiners disease b. SLE-Like syndrome
c. Increased susceptibility with bacterial infections d. b and c

4. What is the most genetically diverse region of the genome?

a. HLA b. MHC d. Hinge Region d. Complement

5. Double diffusion is a type of precipitation reaction in which both antigen and

antibody diffuse.
Double diffusion is semi quantitative.
a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false
c. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
d. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
 6. What theory states that syphilis was present in Europe prior to the voyage of
Columbus?
a. Columbian Theory b. Pre-Columbian Theory
c. Post-Columbian Theory d. UnColumbian Theory

7. What antigen is now known to be unassembled viral coat (surface Antigen) and
is called HBsAg?
a. Treponeme Antigen b. Wasserrmann Antigen
c. Australia Antigen d. Far East Antigen

8. CRP is commonly found in active rheumatoid arthritis, viral infection and

tuberculosis.
a. I really cant say b. Maybe c. False d. True

9. What is the most striking laboratory observation found or seen in SLE?

a. Presence of antinuclear antibody b. LE cell phenomenon
c. LE factor d. Quantitative determination of IgM

10. What systemic autoimmune disease is a condition that is characterized by

degeneration and inflammation of skeletal muscle?
a. Dermatomyositis b. Polymyositis c. Spondylitis d. Vasculitis

11. Who showed or described serum sickness as part of their studies that it could be
caused by the bodys immunologic reaction to foreign body?
b. Von Pirquet and Schick b. von Pirquet and Shick
c. Richet and Portier d. Richett and Portier

12. What antibody is the last to leave senescence?

b. IgG1 b. IgA c. IgM d. IgG4

13. What is/ are the associated disease with the deficient component of C1s?
b. Leiners disease b. SLE-Like syndrome
c. Increased susceptibility with bacterial infections d. b and c

14. What is the most genetically diverse region of the genome?

b. HLA b. MHC d. Hinge Region d. Complement
15. Double diffusion is a type of precipitation reaction in which both antigen and antibody
diffuse.
Double diffusion is semi quantitative.
a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false
st nd
c. 1 statement is true, 2 statement is false
d. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true

16. What theory states that syphilis was present in Europe prior to the voyage of
Columbus?
b. Columbian Theory b. Pre-Columbian Theory
c. Post-Columbian Theory d. UnColumbian Theory

17. What antigen is now known to be unassembled viral coat (surface Antigen) and is
called HBsAg?
b. Treponeme Antigen b. Wasserrmann Antigen
c. Australia Antigen d. Far East Antigen

18. CRP is commonly found in active rheumatoid arthritis, viral infection and
tuberculosis.
b. I really cant say b. Maybe c. False d. True

19. What is the most striking laboratory observation found or seen in SLE?
a. Presence of antinuclear antibody b. LE cell phenomenon
c. LE factor d. Quantitative determination of IgM

20. What systemic autoimmune disease is a condition that is characterized by

degeneration and inflammation of skeletal muscle?
a. Dermatomyositis b. Polymyositis c. Spondylitis d. Vasculitis

. Acquired rubella has an incubation period of:

a. 5-10 days c. 40-50 days
b. 10-21 days d. 10-15 days

2. The Forssman antigen is found on the red cells of?

1. Sheep 2. Rats 3.Humans 4. Fowl 5. Rabbit
a. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 4 only
b. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 5 only

3. The incubation period of infectious mononucleosis is;

a. 1-10 days c. 5-10 weeks
b. 10-50 days d. 4-6 hours
4. The artificial transmission of antibodies, which provide temporary protection against
invading antigen, is known as;
a. Active immunity c. Passive immunity
b. Cell-Mediated immunity d. Nonspecific immunity

5. He discovers hypogammaglobulinemia, which leads to dissection of the immune

system into T- and B-cell systems;
a. Burton c. Bordet
b. Domagk d. Douglas

6. The HBcAg has been purified from;

a. Latex Particles
b. Liver of immunosuppressed chimpanzee
c. Fresh Rabbit Red Blood Cell
d. Plasma of immunosuppressed sheep

7. The ASO titer in children is;

a. Usually between 5 and 500 Todd Units
b. Usually below 5 Todd Units
c. Usually high
d. Usually between 5 and 125 Todd Units

8. After the onset of the disease, CRP usually appears in the serum within;
a. 1-3 hours c. 1-3 weeks
b. 14-26 weeks d. 14-26 hours

9. The method of choice for the confirmation of CMV infection is;

a. Complement Fixation
b. Passive Latex Agglutination
c. Viral Culture
d. Fluorescence Microscopy

10. The usual incubation period of chickenpox;

a. 14-17 days c. 14-17 hours
b. 10-21 days d. 10-21 hours
BSMT 4B
1.Which of the following does correlate with Lysozyme:

1. It is an enzyme
2. It has antiviricidal activity
3. It is found on tears
4. It is found on saliva
a. 2 only b. 1,2 & 4 c. 1,3&4 d. All of the above

2.The artificial transmission of antibodies, which provide temporary protection against

invading antigen is known as:

a. Cell-mediated response
b. Passive immunity
c. Active immunity
d. cross-immunity

3.Which of the following is associated with C1q deficiency

a. SLE-like syndrome
b. sex-linked agammaglobulinemia
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

4. During the late latent stage of syphilis:

a. The chancre is still present

b. Serologic test are usually negative
c. There are no clinical signs and symptoms
d. High fever and C3 deficiency

5. The outer lipoprotien coat of hepatitis B virus is known as:

a. HBcAg
b. HBeAg
C. HBsAg
D. HDV
6. The primary target of infection of human herpesvirus-6 are:

a.B cells
b. T cells
c. Both B and T cells equally
d. Platelets

7. Which of the following is a property of CRP:

A. Does not cross the human placenta

B. Crosses the human placenta
C. Thermo stable
D. Heat loving

8. The primary target of the human immunodeficiency virus are:

a. Peripheral blood monocytes

b. Helper inducer subset of T lymphocyte
c. Glial cells
d. B lymphocytes

9. LE cell is a polymorphonuclear leukocyte.

LE cell always engulfed by the phagocyte and fills the cytoplasm.

a. First statement true, second statement not true.

b. First statement not true, second statement true.
c. Both statement TRUE.
d. Both statement NOT TRUE.

10. Proposed the word compliment

A. Pffeifner
B. Elie metchinikoff
C. Paul Ehrlich
D. Robert hooke

1. The first detectable antibodies in primary infections are usually

a. IgA b. IgD c. IgG d. IgM
2. T cells are involved with
a. Humoral immunity c. Cell-mediated immunity
b. Wheal and Flare reaction d. Antibody protection
3. Antibodies are primarily
a. Alpha globulins b. Beta globulins c. Albumin d. Gamma globulins

4. Which immunoglobulin is predominant in body secretions?

a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM d. IgD

5. The binding strength of an antibody for an antigen is referred to as its

a. Specificity b. Affinity c. Avidity d. Titer

6. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) characteristically shows a deficiency in

a. Neutrophils b. T lymphocytes c. B lymphocytes d.
LE cells

7. TC cells are known as MHC class II restricted. TH cells are regulatory and therefore
need to recognize antigens.
a. First statement is True, second statement is False
b. First statement is False, second statement is True
c. Both statement is True
d. Both statement is False

8. A postzonal reaction is caused by

a. Too little antigen c. Too much antibody
b. Too much antigen d. Not by differing amounts of antigen and antibody

9. VDRL antigen emulsion is stable for

a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 7 days d. 30 days

10. HLA antigen are glycoprotein in nature.

a. True b. False

1. Where does differentiation of T cell occur?

a. Heart c. Thymus
b. Brain d. Bone marrow
2. The first detectable in primary infections are usually
a. IgA c. IgG
b. IgD d. IgM
3. Lymphokines, liberated by sensitized T cell, recruit
a. Neutrophils c. Macrophages
b. Monocytes d. All of the above
4. Interferon can be produced by which of the following
a. Macrophages d. All of the above
b. T lymphocytes
c. Virus-infected cells
5. Which of the following is a proteolytic enzyme that fragments an antibody?
a. Papain c. Properdin
b. Anaphylatoxin d. Zymosan
6. A postzonal reaction is caused by
a. Too little antigen c. Too much antibody
b. Too much antigen d. Zone of equivalence
7. The presence of C-reactive protein in a patients serum indicates
a. Inflammation d. Typhoid or paratyphoid
b. Pneumococcal pneumonia fever
c. Group A beta hemolytic
streptococcal infection
8. Which herpes simplex virus (HSV) can cause urogenital infection
1. Type 1 3. Type 3
2. Type 2 4. Type 4

a. 4 only c. Both 1 and 2

b. Both 3 and 4 d. All of the above
9. Which of the following is a good screening test for determining immunity to the
rubella virus?
1. direct agglutination 3. IgG antibody
2. complement fixation 4. IgM antibody
a. both 3 and 4
b. both 1 and 2
c. 3 only
d. 1 only

10. Antibodies are primarily

a. Alpha globulins
b. Beta globulins
c. Delta globulins
d. Gamma globulins

1. Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate latent syphilis?

A. Serum sample
B. Chancre fluid
C. CSF
D. Joint fluid

2. After an antibody has been fragmented , which term denotes the antigen binding
fragments?
 A. Fc
B. Disulfide bond
C. Fab
D. Carboxyl terminal

3. VDRL antigen emulsion is stable for

A. 24 hrs
B. 48 hrs
C. 42 hrs
D. 34 hrs
4. Antibodies are primarily
A. Alpha globulins
B. Beta globulins
C. Albumin
D. Gamma globulins
5.The optimal ratio , when most antibody is precipitated by the least amount of antigen is
referred to as
A. opsonization
B. Zone of equivalence
C. Zone of inhibition
D. widal formation
6.What is a hemolysin?
A. antibody that causes lysis of red blood cells
B. antibody that causes agglutination of red blood cells
C. antibody that lyses Tcells
D. antibody that sensitizes WBC
7. The binding strength of an antibody for antigen is referred to as its
A. Specificity
B. affinity
C.avidity
D. TIter

8. The ability of clinical test to be positive in the absence of its homologus antigen is
referred to as its
 A. Specificity
B. affinity
C.avidity
D. TIter
9.Which immunoglobulin(s) help(s) initiate the classical complement pathway?
A. IgA and IgD
B. IgG and IgM
C. IgM only
D. IgG only
10.Which complement components can be found in both classical and alternative
pathways?
A. C1
B. C2
C. Factor D
D. C3
1. The first detectable antibodies in primary inflections are usually.

a. IgA b. IgD c. IgG d. IgM

2. Antibodies are primarily.

a. alpha globulins b. Beta globulins c. albumin d. gamma globulins

3. Reactive sites on an antigen are known as

a. determinants b. Valence c. haptens d. Immunoglobulins

4. Which of the following cells ingest and destroy bacteria, damaged host cells, or
tumors?

a. macrophage b. T cells c. B cells d. Basophills

5. The binding strength of an antibody for an antigen is referred to as its

a. specificity b. Affinity c. avidity d. Titer

6. The ability of a clinical test to be positive in the absence of its homologcus antigen is
referred to as its

a. specificity b. Sensitivity c. affinity d. Titer

7. Immunoelectrophoresis is used to identify

a. lipids b. Cholesterol c. Bence-Jones protein d. Chorionic

gonadotropin

8. The basic immunoglobulin str4cture consist of

a. 1 light and 2 heavy chains

b. 2 light and 2 heavy chains

c. 2 light and 1 heavy chains

d. 1 light and 1 heavy chains

9. A postzonal reaction is caused by

a. too little antigen

b. too much antigen

c. too much antibody

d. not by differing amounts of antigen and antibody

10 . Effective phagocytosis occurs in the presence of

a. regain b. Anti-drug antibodies c. sensitivity d. opsonins

1.The first detectable antibodies in primary infections are usually

A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
2 . AIDS characteristically shows a deficiency in

A. Neutrophils
B. T lymphocyte
C. B lymphocyte
D. L.E. cells

3.AIDS shows a change in ratio of

A. T/B cells

B.T8/T4 cells

C.A/G cells

D. T4/T8 cells

4. Which of the following cells are thymus dependent?

A. B cells

B. T cells

C. Macrophage

D. Plasma cells

5. Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta?

A. IgA

B.IgG

C. IgM

D. IgE

6. Which immunoglobulin is predominantly in body secretion?

A. IgA

B.IgG

C. IgM

D. IgE
7. Which immunoglobulin plays a role in hypersensitivity?

A. IgA

B.IgG

C. IgM

D. IgE

8. The basic immunoglobulin structure consist of

A. 1 Light and 2 heavy chains

B. 2 Light and 2 heavy chains

C. 2 Light and 1 heavy chains

D. 1 Light and 1 heavy chains

9. In the structure of immunoglobulins, where is the antigen-binding site located?

A. Carboxyl terminal or constant region

B. disulfide bridge

C. amino terminal or variable region

D. any of the above

10. Which of the following is a proteolytic enzyme that fragments an antibody?

A. Papian

B. Papain

C. properdin

D. anaphylatoxin

1. What complement is deficient in Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

a. C1q
b. C3
c. C7
d. C9
2. Which of the following is/are not a characteristic of Histamine?
 i.causes contraction of the bronchioles
ii. causes erythema and wheal formation
iii.increases mucous gland secretion
iv. Has an activity duration of about 45 minutes

a. i , ii, iii b. i only c. ii and iv c. All are True

3. In Ouchterlony Technique, what type of reaction is revealed when the

precipitation lines merge with spur formation?

a. Identity
b. Non-Identity
c. Partial identity
d. Reaction of inhibition
4. Which of the following pairings is incorrect?

a. Lysozyme- Mucolytic properties

b. Betalysin- Heat-labile cationic substance
c. Properdin- Bactericidal and Viricidal
d. Defensins- Permeabilize cell walls of microorganisms
5. Natural Killer cells are MHC restricted

Cord serum has detectable amounts of IgA

a. First statement is True, Second statement is false.
b. First statement is False, Second statement is True.
c. Both statements are True.
d. Both statements are False.
6. The reciprocal of the serum dilution that completely neutralizes SLO is referred to
as:

a. ASO titer
b. Heterophil antibodies
c. Predictive Value Positive (PVP)
d. ANA Titer
7. This is the most frequently used test for CRP:

a. Complement Fixation test

b. Flourescent antibody test
c. Rapid latex Agglutination test
d. Precipitation
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic effect of CMV?

a. Increased suppressor T lymphocytes

b. Decreased helper T lymphocytes
 c. In primary infection, IgG is produced
d. IgG titer is increased in reactivation of latent infection
9. What antigen is used in the Wassermann test?
a. Reagin
b. Cardiolipin
c. Reiter treponemes
d. Suspension of T. pallidum (Nichols strain)

10. The positive Reaction of this test in detecting HBsAg is characterized by

agglutinated cells forming a carpet at the bottom of the weil:

a. Counterelectrophoresis
b. Rheophoresis
c. Ouchterlony Double diffusion
d. Reversed Passive Hemagglutination
BSMT 4C
______ 1. Where does differentiation of T cell occur?

a) Heart
b) Brain
c) Thymus
d) Bone marrow
______ 2. Humoral immune response is due to:

a) Macrophage activity
b) Suppresor T lymphocytes
c) Lymphokines
d) B lymphocytes that transform into plasma cells
______ 3. T cells are involved with:

a) Humoral immunity
b) Wheal and flare reaction
c) Cell mediated immunity
d) Antibody protection
______ 4. Fc is which fragment of the antibody molecule?

a) Heavy chains
b) Hinge
c) Crystallizable
d) Antingen - binding
______ 5. The antigen used in precipitation test is:

a) Soluble
b) Insoluble
c) Particulate
d) Cellular

______ 6. VDRL antigen emulsion is stable for:

a) 24 hrs
b) 48 hrs
c) 7 days
d) 30 days
______ 7. The organism Treponema pertenue causes the disease known as:

a) Yaws
b) Pinta
c) Bejel
d) Rabbit syphilis
______ 8. It is formerly known as serum hepatitis and post transfusion hepatitis:

a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Hepatitis D
______ 9. Refers to the reaction of serum and cells at a temperature near 00C:

a) Cold agglutinins
b) Melting point reaction
c) Hot and cold agglutinins
d) None of the above
______ 10. Which immunoglobulin is predominant in body secretions?

a) IgA
b) IgG
c) IyG
d) IgM

1) The first detectable antibodies in primary infection are usually

a. IgA b. IgE
c. IgG d. IgM

2) Which of the immunoglobulins is present in the greatest amount and rises later in an infection
?

a. IgA b. IgD
 c. IgG d. IgM

3) Which of the following cells are thymus-dependent

a. B cells b. T cells
c. macrophages d. plasma cells

4) The basic immunoglobulin structure is composed of

a. 1 light and 2 heavy chains b. 2 light and 2 heavy chains

c. 2 light and 1 heavy chains d. 1 light and 1 heavy chain

5) In the structure of immunoglobulins, where is the antigen-binding site located?

a. carboxyl terminal or constant region b. disulfide bridge

c. amino terminal or variable regioni d. kepong central region

6) The complement sequence activated by C Reactive Proteins is

a. alternative pathway b. summit pathway

c. common pathway d. classical pathway

7) Immunoelectrophoresis is used to identify

a. Tams MSA songbird protein b. cholesterol

c. Bence Jones protein d. Chorionic gonadotropin

8) Which laboratory test for syphilis uses plastic coated cards?

a. RPR b. VDRL
c. FTA-ABS d. MHA-TP
9) How would the following VDRL quantitative test be reported?
1:1 1:2 1:4 1:8 1:16 1:32 1:64 1:128
W W R R R R W N

a. Reactive 4 dils b. Reactive 32 dils

c. Reactive 64 dils d. syntax error

10) Which of the following serves as the absorbent in the FTA-ABS test?

a. Reiters treponeme b. Treponemamicrodentium

c. Treponema pallidum, Nichols strain d. Kepongs treponeme 0-157H:7

1. In the Fahey method, the diameter of the precipitin rings is measured at:
a. 2 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 50 to 72 hours
d. 3 days
2. Which of the following pathogenic organism is responsible for human syphilis?
a. Treponemaparridum
b. Treponemapertenue
c. Treponemapallidum
d. Treponemacuniculi
3. Which of the following are categorized as regain tests for syphilis?
i. VDRL slide test
ii. RPR (circle) card test
iii. TPHA test
iv. FTA-ABS test
a. i and ii b. i and iii c. ii and iv d. i, ii and iii
4. Hepatitis B may be transmitted through:
a. Transfusion of blood or blood samples
b. Unsterilized dental equipment
c. Sexual contact
d. All of the above
5. Ceruloplasmin depletion or absence is associated with what disease?
 a. Wilsons disease
b. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
c. Liver disease
d. Good Pastures Syndrome
6. The alternate complement activation pathway was originally described by:
a. White and Douglas
b. Portier
c. Pillemer
d. Burton
7. This is an enzyme found in many types of cells, as well as in tears and saliva, which has
antibacterial activity.
a. Lysozyme
b. Betalysin
c. Interferon
d. Interleukin-1
8. The etiologic agent of Lyme disease is:
a. Borreliadammini
b. Borreliaburgerfeniri
c. Borreliaricinus
d. None of the above
9. The majority of the patients with Lyme disease have:
a. Arthritis
b. Erythema chronicummigrans
c. Neurologic disorder
d. Cardiac disorder
10. This test for tuberculous infection is used mainly for children because it is painless.
a. Brucellergin Skin Test
b. Coccidioidin Skin Test
c. Vollmers Patch Test
d. Frei Test

1. Humoral immune response is due to:

a. Macrophage activity
 b. Suppressor T Lymphocytes
c. Lymphokines
d. B lymphocytes that transform into plasma cells

2. Which of the following cells are thymic dependent?

a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Macrophages
d. Plasma cells

3. Which immunoglobulin is able to cross placenta?

a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgD
d. IgE

4. Which immunoglobulin is predominant in body secretions?

a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgD
d. IgE

5. Which immunoglobulin plays a role in hypersensitivity?

a. IgE
b. IgM
c. IgD
d. IgG

6. The antigen used in precipitation test is

a. Soluble
b. Insoluble
 c. Particulate
d. Cellular

7. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

(AIDS)?
a. Skin test
b. Parasites found in stool
c. <200 CD4+ T-lymphocytes/L or a CD4+ T-lymphocyte percentage or total
lymphocyte of <14
d. Differential blood count

8. Which of the following is a proteolytic enzyme that fragments an antibody?

a. Papain
b. Zymosan
c. Properdin
d. Trypsin

9. Interferon can be produced by which of the following?

a. Macrophages
b. T lymphocytes
c. Virus-infected cells
d. All of the above

10. In the structure of immunoglobulins, where is the antigen-binding site located?

a. Carboxy terminal or cinstant region
b. Disulfide bridge
c. Amino terminal or variable region
d. All of the above

1. What is the most widely used screening test for HIV antibodies?
a) Western Blot Assay
b) Indirect Immunofluorescent Assay
 c) Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay
d) Filter Hybridization
2. It is characterized by inflammation of the synovial and spinal apophyseal joints, causing
back pain,
a) Ankylosing Spondylitis
b) Autoimmune hemolytic anemias
c) Sjogren Syndrome
d) Progressive Systemic Sclerosis
3. It is also known as heterogenetic antigens.
a) Heterologous antigen
b) Heterophil antigen
c) Autologous antigen
d) Homologous antigen
4. What technique uses recipient and donor lymphocyte to detect compatibility or
incompatibility with respect to HLA-D antigen?
a) Microcytotoxicity
b) Migration inhibition
c) Latex bead ingestion
d) Mixed lymphocyte culture
5. They provided evidence that the immune reaction could be damaging as well as
beneficial by showing anaphylaxis to be an immunologic reactions.
a) Richer and Portier
b) Richet and Porter
c) Richet and Portier
d) Richard and Robin
6. The following are cardinal signs of swelling except:
a) Redness
b) Palor
c) Swelling
d) Loss of function
7. The following are Not true about Syphilis except:
a) They respond to penicillin treatment
b) Serologic test for syphilis are nonreactive
c) Treponemes can be kept viable when heated (70) for years
 d) It is not transmitted through sexual contact
8. Cold agglutinins test are most commonly requested in cases of what?
a) Bronchial Asthma
b) Primary atypical pneumonia
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Cardiac arrest
9. It is an autoimmune disease of the skin that is characterized as a loss of intracellular
bridges,
a) Systemic lupus erythematosus
b) Bullous pemphigous
c) Dermatitis herpetiform
d) Remphigus vulgaris

10. The most promising drug for treatment of AIDS,

a) Penicillin
b) Zidovudine
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Cefaclor

1. The theory that have been proposed to explain the mechanisms that initiate autoimmune
diseases include:
1. Forbidden clone theory
2. The altered antigen theory
3. The altered antibody theory
4. The immunologic deficiency theory
a) 2 and 3 b) 1,2, and 3c) 1,2 and 4 d) 1 and 4

2. Which of the following represent Kochs postulates?

1. All the autoimmune diseases are either systemic or organ specific
2. The autoimmune response must be regularly associated with the disease
3. It must be possible to induce replica of the diseases in laboratory animals
4. The autoimmune-disease must play a central role in the cause
a) 2 and 3 b) 1 and 4 c) 1,2 and 3 d) 1,2,3 and 4
3. Autoimmune diseases of the skin include:
1. Pemphigus vulgaris
2. Bullous pemphigoid
3. Dermatitis herpetiformis
4. SLE
a) 1 only b) 1and 4 c) 2 and 3d) 1,2,3 and 4

4. The immune response gene is closely linked to the:.

a) MHC locus on Chromosome 4 b) MHC locus on Chromosome 6
c) ABO locus on Chromosome 9 d) RH locus on Chromosome 6

5. The incubation period for HSV is?

a) 2 to 12 months b) 2 to 12 days

c) 2 to 12 hours d) 2 to 12 years

6. The method of choice for the confirmation of CMV infection is?

a) Heterophil antibody test

b) Electron microscopy

c) Complement fixation

d) Viral culture

7. Cytomegalovirus:

a) AOTA

b) is a ubiquitous human viral pathogen

c) is indistinguishable in negative-staining electron microscope from herpes simplex and

varicella

d) causes an infection that has a long incubation period

8. The antigens that occur in cells infected with CMV:

a) early antigens b) immediate early antigensc) late antigens d) all of the above
9. The method of choice for the confirmation of CMV infection is:

a) complement fixation b) electron microscopy c) viral culture d) ELISA

10. The primary targets of infection of human herpesvirus-6 are:

a) platelets b) T cells c) B cells d) both B and T cells

1. The artificial transmission of antibodies, which provide temporary protection against

invading antigen is known as:
a. Active immunity c. Cell-mediated response
b. Passive immunity d. Cross-immunity
2. Alexander Flemming was the discover of:
a. Anaphylaxis c. Vaccination
b. Penicillin d. None of the above
3. The classic signs of inflammation are:
a. Redness c. Heat
b. Swelling d. Pain
4. The number of major complement components that participate in the classical activation
pathway is:
a. 6 c. 9
b. 14 d. 25
5. The quantitative tests that involve the primary antigen-antibody reaction include:
a. Direct agglutination c. Complement fixation
b. Hemagglutination d. Immunofluorescence
6. The primary chancre in human syphilis appear at the site of entrance of T. pallidum
within:
a. 10-60 days of contact c. 1 day of contact
b. 3 months of contact d. 90 days of contact
7. The outer lipoprotein coat (or envelope) of hepatitis B virus is known as:
a. HBsAG c. HBeAG
b. HBcAG d. HDV
8. After the onset of disease, CRP usually appears in the serum within:
a. 1-3 hours b. 14-26 hours
 c. 3-5 weeks d. 1-6 months
9. The production of streptolysin O in vivois inhibited by:
a. Sodium salicylate
b. Penicillin
c. Aureum salts
d. Cortison
10. The thermal maximum of cold agglutinins is:

a) 0C
b) 4C
c) 10C
d) Dependent upon the concentration and binding affinity of the cold agglutinin

1. He elucidated the roles of phagocytosis and cellular immunity.

A. Jenner B. Metchnikoff C. Pasteur D. Montagu

2. This is the sheep red blood cell receptor..

A. CD8 B. CD4 C. CD3 D. CD2

3. The First Membrane Attack Unit.

A. C1 B. C3 C. C5 D. C7

4.The technique that uses a labelled target cell to determine the ability of cytotoxic T cells to
lyse.

A. Phagocytosis B. ADDC C. Lympholysis D. Boyden Chamber

5. The organism that cause the tropical disease known as yaws.

A. Treponemapallidum B. Treponemacarateum
C.Treponemapertenue D. Treponemacuniculi

6. Also known as enterovirus 72.

A. HDV B. HBV C. HAV D. HCV

7. Transmission of the virus is usually non-venereal.

A. NOTA B. both C and D C. HSV-2 D. HSV-1

8. Infectious mononucleosis is a self-limiting disease caused by Epstein-Barr Virus.

 EBV is an enveloped, single-stranded DNA, and ubiquitous.
A. 1st sentence is correct
B. 2nd sentence is correct
C. Both sentences are correct
D. Both sentences are wrong

9. Clinical manifestations include the formation of a vascular pannus.

A. SLE B. AnkylosingSpodylitis C. Scleroderma D. Rheumatoid Arthritis

10. Skin lesion is ususually red rash across the nose and upper cheeks.

A. SLE B. Ankylosing Spodylitis C. Scleroderma D. Rheumatoid

Arthritis

1. The term immunogen refers to:

a. A substance capable of cross reactivity
b. An antibody
c. A substance that causes detectable immune response
d. The ability of the substance to combine with antibody
2. IgD:

a. Is heat and acid labile

b. Occurs in large quantities in serum
c. Has a molecular weight of 160,000
d. Is denatured at pH of 7

3. Under anaerobic conditions and in appropriate medium, T. pallidum can be kept viable
and motile at 35C for:

a. Up to 15 days
b. 4 hours
c. Up to 72 days
d. Up to 24 days

4. Speciificantitroponemal antibodies in early or untreated early latent syphilis are

predominantly:
 a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgM
d. IgG

5. Infectious hepatitis:
a. Is casused by hepatitis virus A
b. Is casused by hepatitis virus B
c. Is casused by hepatitis virus non-A non-B
d. Is casused by hepatitis virus E
6. The outer lipoprotein coat ( or envelop; of hepatitis B virus is known as:

a. HDV
b. HBsAg
c. HBeAg
d. HBcAg

7. CRP:

a. Cross the human placenta

b. Is thermolabile
c. Does not cross the human placenta
d. Isthermostable

8. After the onset of the disease, CRP usually appears in the serum within:

a. 1 to 3 hours
b. 14 to 26 hours
c. 3 to 5 weeks
d. 1 to 6 months

9. After infection with HIV, antibodies can usually be detected within:

a. 6 months
b. 6 days to two months
c. 2 weeks to three months
d. 1 year

10. Ceruloplasmin:
a. Appers to be the primary copper-transport protein for transferrin g
copper to cytochrome C oxidase
b. Is a glycoprotein
 c. When absent is associated with willsons disease
d. AOTA

1. The presence of C Reactive protein in a patients serum indicates

A. Inflammation
B. Pneumococcal pneumonia
C. Cancer
D. Group B strep infection

2. The antigen used to determine the antigenic grouping of enteric bacteria is

A. K
B. H
C. O
D. Vi

3. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrom (AIDS) is transmitted in a manner similar to

A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Hepatitis B
D. Tuberculosis

4. Which of the following cells are thymus dependent?

A. Plasma cells
B. Macrophages
C. T cells
D. B cells

5. Which immunoglobulin plays a role in hypersensitivity?

A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgG

6. Which of the following is a proteolytic enzyme that fragments an antibody?

A. Properdin
B. Anaphylatoxin
C. Papain
D. Prostaglandin

7. After an antibody has been fragmented, which term denotes the antigen binding
fragments?
A. Fc region
B. Disulfide bond
C. Amino terminal
 D. Fab

8. Reactive sites on an antigen are knows as

A. Haptens
B. Determinants
C. Valences
D. Consonants

9. Antibodies are primarily

A. Primarily globulins
B. Beta globulins
C. Gamma globulins
D. Delta globulins

10. Which laboratory test for syphilis uses plastic coated cards?
A. VDRL
B. FTA ABS
C. RPR
D. MHA TP

1. The Duffy receptors on the erythrocyte membrane are believed to be associated with the
susceptibility to:
A. Malaria C. hepatitis
B. Syphilis D. NOTA

2. The white cells involved in the cellular response of the inflammation process include:
A. Monocyte-macrophages C.Lymphocyte-plasma cells
B. Grabulocyte D. All of the above

3. Other purpose of the phagocytosis include:

A. The repairing of wounds
B. The disposal of viable cells
C. The removal of aging erythrocytes from the spleen
D. Hemostasis

4. The artificial transmission of antibodies, which provide temporary protection against

invading antigen, is known as:
A. Passive immunity C. Cell-mediated immunity
 B. Active immunity D. Cross-immunity

5. The order of activation of the first four components of complement in the classical
pathway is ;
A. C1, C2, C3,C4 C. C1,C3,C2,C4
B. C1,C4,C2,C3 D.C1,C4,C3,C2

6. The three subunits of C1 are called;

A. C1r,C1s,C1q C.C1q,C1r,C1s
B. C1a,C1b,C1c D. C1qr,C1rs,C1st

7. The most abundant complement component in serum is:

A. C1 C.C2
B. C3 D.C4

8. The following are forms of class II MHC molecules EXCEPT;

A.HLA-DR C.HLA-C
B.HLA-DP D.HLA-DQ

9. individuals who are at risk for ankylosing spondylitis have inherited which one of
the following alleles?
A. HLA-A3 C.HLA-B8
B. HLA-B7 D.HLA-B27

10. Individuals who are at risk for rheumatoid arthritis have inherited which one of the
following alleles?
A. HLA-A3 C.HLA-B8
B. HLA-DR4 D.HLA-B7

1. Which of the following is true of HLA (MHC) class I antigens?

A. They are recognized by T-helper cells
B. They are found on all nucleated cells
C. They combine with exogenous substances
D. They are coded for on chromosome 9

2. A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen and antibody are both soluble and
form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay was
described?
A. Precipitation C. Flocculation
B. Agglutination D. Neutralization

3. Reaction to poison ivy is which type of hypersensitivity?

A. Type I C. Type III
 B. Type II D. Type IV

4. Hepatitis B may be transmitted through:

1. Transfusion of blood or blood products
2. Unsterilized dental equipment
3. Sexual contact
4. Fecal-oral route
A. 1 and 3 B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

5. A chemical substance that enhances the immune response to an antigen is known as:
A. Hapten C. Adjuvant
B. Epitope D. Antibody

6. The incubation period for infectious mononucleosis is:

A. 1 to 10 days C. 5 to 10 weeks
B. 10 to 50 days D. 4 to 6 hours

7. Specific antitreponemal antibodies in early or untreated early latent syphilis are

predominantly:
A. IgG C. IgD
B. IgM D. IgA

8. In normal individuals, the ratio of CD4+ T-cells to CD8+ T-cells is approximately:

A. 4:1 C. 2:1
B. 10:1 D. 0.5:1

9. Reyes syndrome has been shown to occur in normal children who have ingested
salicylates during the course of:
A. Varicella C. Rubeola
B. Rubella D. Mumps

10. Which of the following autoimmune disorders is associated with high circulating
concentration of T3 and T4 but low concentration of TSH?
A. Pernicious anemia C. Graves Disease
B. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Hashimotos thyroiditis

1. Rubor means
a. Pain c. Redness
b. Heat d. Swelling
2. All are responsible for phagocytosis except:
a. T cell c. plasma cell
b. B cell d. A and B
3. The late latent stage of syphilis occur after how many year of infection?
a. 1 year c. 3 years
b. 2 years d. 4 years
4. HIV was formerly known as
a. Lymphadenopathy-associated virus
b. Human T-cell lymphotrophic virus type III
c. AIDS related virus
 d. All of the above
5. Most common form of thyroiditis occurring at any age.
a. Autoimmune Thyroiditis c. A and B
b. Hashimotos thyroiditis d. NOTA
6. The outer lipoprotein coat (or envelope) of hepatitis B virus is known as
a. HBsAg c. HBeAg
b. HBcAg d. HDV
7. This is the principal copper-transporting protein in human plasma
a. Ceruplasmin b. Fibrinogen
b. Alpha1-antitrypsin d. Alpha2macroglobulin
8. Streptolysin O possesses:
a. 2 active sites c. 3 active sites
b. 4 active sites d. 6 active sites
9. The thermal maximum of cold agglutinins is:
a. 0C
b. 4C
c. 10C
d. Dependent upon the concentration and binding affinity of the cold agglutinin
10. The incubation period for HSV is:
a. 2 to 12 days c. 30 to 40 days
b. 2 to 12 months d. NOTA

1. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows change in ratio of

a. T/B cells
b. B1/B2 cells
c. A/G
d. T4/T8 cells

2. Hybridomas are formed from

a. antibodies
b. B lymphocytes
c. T lymphocytes
d. Phagocytes

3. When preparing monoclonal antibodies

a. Inject an animal with an antigen
b. Remove the B lymphocytes
c. Fuse B lymphocytes with a malignant cells
d. All of the above

4. A hybridoma consist of a clone of fused cells of

a. Guinea pig kidney cells
b. Rat myeloma cells
c. Mouse lymphocytes
d. B and C
5. Monoclonal antibodies cannot be used in compliment fixation test because they
a. Cannot cross-link to form a precipitate
b. Cannot fix compliment
c. Can fix complement
d. Are homogeneous

6. What is the indicator in the compliment fixation test?

a. Sheep red blood cells
b. Human red blood cells
c. Latex antigen absorbed particles
d. Carbon particles

7. What is the purpose of anti-sheep hemolysin in a complement fixation test?

a. Sensitizes sheep red blood cells
b. Hemolzes sheep red blood cells
c. Agglutinates sheep red blood cells
d. Neutralizes patient antibody
8. What is the purpose of the hemolysin in a complement fixation test
a. To test the patients serum for the presence of antibodies
b. To act an indicator and provide a visible reaction
c. To test the red blood cells
d. To make certain that the serum is not anticomplementary

9. Which laboratory test for syphilis uses plastic cards?

a. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test
b. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)
c. Fluorescent-TreponemaAnitibody-Absorbed (FTA-ABS)
d. Microhemagglutination-Treponemapallidum

10. Forssman antibodies are absorbed by

a. Boil beef cells
b. Guinea pig kidney antigen
c. Neither beef cells nor guinea pig kidney antigen
d. Both A and B

1. The white cells involved in cellular response of the inflammatory process include:
a) Granulocyte c) Lymphocyte-plasma cells
b) Monocyte-macrophages d) All of the above

2. Other purpose of phagocytosis include:

a. The repairing of wounds
b. Hemostasis
c. The disposal of viable cell
d. The removal of aging erythrocytes from the spleen

3. In the screening test for phagocytic engulfment:

a. A false-negative result may be produced if the specimen is fresh
b. A false-positive result may be produced if the specimen is not fresh
c. A false-negative result may be produced if a coagulase-positive Staphylococcus
specimen is used
d. The failure of phagocytosis to engulf bacteria eliminates the diagnosis of neutrophilic
dysfunction

4. Interferon-beta is also known as:

a. Leukocyte interferon c. Immune interferon
b. Epithelial interferon d. NOTA

5. The acute phase plasma protein that increases several hundrd times its normal
concentration after the onset of injury is:
a. C-reactive protein c. Fibrinogen
b. Ceruloplasmin d. Haptoglobin

6. The artificial transmission of antibodies, which provide temporary protection against

invading antigen, is known as:
a. Active immunity c. Cell-mediated immunity
b. Passive immunity d. Cross-immunity

7. The treatment of igG with the enzyme pepsin:

a. Results in two F(ab1)2 fragments
b. Results in two Fab fragnments and one Fc fragment
c. Results in two Fab fragments and two Fc fragments
d. NOTA

8. The basic function of antibody is to:

a. Neutralize toxic substances
b. Facilitate phagocytosis c. Combine with antigen
d. All of the above
9. After an infection with HIV, antibodies can usually be detected within:
a. 6 months c. 2 weeks to 3 months
b. 6 days to 2 months d. 1 year

10. The most frequent malignancy observed in the final phase of HIV infection is:
a. Pneumocyctiscarinii pneumonia
b. Kaposis sarcoma
c. Burkitt-like lymphoma
d. NOTA
 1. In chemical nature of antigens, which of the following statements is not true?
a. Antigens are either proteins or large polysaccharides.
b. Lipids are strong antigens unless linked to proteins or polysaccharides.
c. Nucleic acids are poor antigens.
d. NOTA

2. What is the correct order of inflammatory process?

a. Cellular response, vascular response, cellular proliferation, repair
b. Vascular response, cellular proliferation, cellular response, repair
c. Cellular response, cellular proliferation, vascular response, repair
d. Vascular response, cellular response, cellular proliferation, repair

3. Which among the diseases that is a venereal infection?

b. Rabbit syphilis c. Bejel
a. Yaws d. Pinta

4. Also known as walking disease?

a. Primary atypical pneumonia c. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Burkitts lymphoma d. Adenocarcinoma

5. HAV causes what type of hepatitis?

a. Viral Hepatitis c. Infectious Hepatitis
b. Serum Hepatitis d. All of the above

6. The method of choice for the confirmation of CMV infection is:

a. Viral culture c. Complement fixation
b. Electron microscopy d. Either a or b

7. The incubation period of type A hepatitis is usually:

a. 2-7 days c. 2-7 weeks
b. 6-10 weeks d. 6-10 days

8. Acquired immunity is also known as:

a. Adaptive immunity c. Neither a and b
b. Specific immunity d. Both a and b

9. Also known as kissings disease?

a. Infectious Mononucleosis c. Shingles
b. Burkitts lymphoma d. Syphilis

10. A substance that appears in the sera of individuals in response to a variety of

inflammatory conditions?
a. C-Reactive protein c. Albumin
b. Alpha1-antitrypsin d. Ceruloplasmin

1. Which of the following pathogenic organisms is responsible for human syphilis?

a. T. pallidum
b. T. pertenue
c. T. cuniculi
d. T. pallidum endemicum

2. Specific anti-treponemal antibodies in early or untreated early latent syphilis are

predominantly:
a. IgG b. IgM c. IgE d. IgA
3. what is the kind of hepatitis that is transmitted via fecal-oral route?
a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D

4.The outer lipoprotein coat of hepatitis B virus is known as?

a. HBsAg b. HBcAg c. HBeAg d. HDV

5.the ASO tites in children is?

a. usually high
b. usually below 5 todd units
c. 5 to 125 todd units
d. usually between 300 to 500 todd units

6. is an oxygen labile toxin

a. Streptolysin S b. Streptolysin O c. M protein d. H antigen

7.the method of choice for confirmation of cytomegalovirus is?

a. electron microscopy
b. immunoassays
c. viral culture
d. heterophil antibody test

8. the primary targets of infection of human herpes virus-6 are?

a. T cells b. B cells c. platelets d. rbc

9. what is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis?

a. HIV b. retrovirus c. paramyxovirus d. Epstein-barr virus

10. the primary target of HIV is?

a. CD8+T cells b. CD4+Tcells c. WBC d. lymphocytes

1. Is a general term that refers to many laboratory techniques performed in the clinical
laboratory.
a. Ligand
b. Immunoassay
c. Technique
d. RIA
2. This is also known as Australia antigen.
a. HBeAg
b. HBcAg
c. HBsAg
d. Anti-HBV
3. Also known as Kissing disease
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Hepatitis
c. AIDS
d. Infectious mononucleosis
4. This is a chronic inflammatory disease affecting primarily the joints and periartecular
tissues.
a. Sjogren syndrome
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
 c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Necrotizing Angitis
5. Another term for Immunologic Tolerance
a. Immune stasis
b. Immunologic responsiveness
c. Immune paralysis
d. Immune coma
6. Believed to be the most common cause of congenital infections in humans.
a. EBV
b. AIDS
c. CMV
d. ZV
7. Immunoglobulin that is commonly found in secretions.
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
8. Incubation period of Varicella
a. 5-8 days
b. 6-10 days
c. 14-17 days
d. 1-3 days
9. What is the positive result in complement fixation test?
a. Agglutination
b. Hemolysis
c. No agglutination
d. No hemolysis
10. What is the etiologic agent of Rocky mountain spotted fever?
a. Ricketssia ricketsii
b. Coxniella Burnetii
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyogenes