BLAKE ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 22. The hotter a component gets, the more noise it will generate.

23. "Shot" noise creates a "noise current" in an electronic device such as a

transistor. T
Chapter 1: Introduction to Communication Systems
24. "Flicker" noise is worst at radio frequencies. F

TRUE/FALSE 25. Signal-to-noise ratio is more important than noise power. T

1. The first electronic communications device was the telephone. F
2. Transatlantic radio communication started in 1901. T
3. A communication system may or may not include a channel. F
26. With cascaded stages in a communication system, the noise from the first stage
is the least important. F
27. Due to the frequency, a radio signal requires a "real-time" analyzer to look at the
spectrum. F

4. "Baseband" refers to the basic carrier frequency band. F

MULTIPLE CHOICE
5. Putting an information signal onto a carrier is called "modulation". T
1. The theory of radio waves was originated by:
6. The carrier frequency is higher than the highest baseband frequency. T a. Marconi c. Maxwell
b. Bell d .Hertz
7. A modulated carrier occupies a band of frequencies. T
2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic Ocean was:
8. "Detection" is another term for demodulation. T a. Marconi c. Maxwell
b. Bell d. Hertz
9. The amount of information per second that can be sent is independent of
bandwidth. F 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by:
a. Marconi c. Maxwell
10. It is possible to combine FDM and TDM in the same system. T b. Bell d. Hertz

11. For radio signals, longer wavelength means higher frequency. F 4. Radians per second is equal to:
f
a. 2 c. the phase angle
12. Noise is easily removed from an analog signal by using filters. F b f 2 d. none of the above

13. As long as a one can be distinguished from a zero, a digital signal corrupted by
noise can be restored to its original form. T
14. Audio signals are in the time-domain, but radio signals are in the frequency
domain. F
5. A complete communication system must include:
a. a transmitter and receiver
b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel
c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer
d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel

15. Any periodic AC signal contains an infinite series of harmonic frequencies. T 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on:
a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio
16. Every term in a Fourier series must be used in calculations. F b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range

17. All noise in a system can be eliminated by using good grounding and shielding. F 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called:
a. sub-channeling c. SINAD
18. The sparking brushes of a DC motor can cause radio frequency noise. T b. signal switching d. multiplexing

19. Signals with fast rise and fall times can cause radio frequency noise. T 8. TDM stands for:
a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Time Domain Measurement
20. Digital systems such as computers are not affected by noise. F b. Two-level Digital Modulation d. none of the above

21. Every component in an electronic system generates noise. T

9. FDM stands for: 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as:
a. Fast Digital Modulation c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
b. Frequency Domain Measurement d. none of the above b. signal power divided by noise power
c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise
10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: power
a. equal to f c c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. none of the above
b. equal to c d. how far the signal can travel without distortion
23. SINAD is calculated as:
11. Distortion is caused by: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. signal power divided by noise power
b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise
c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies power
d. all of the above d. none of the above

12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called 24. Noise Figure is a measure of:
its: a. how much noise is in a communications system
a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. how much noise is in the channel
b. Fourier series d. all of the above c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal
d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB
13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is:
a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz 25. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are:
b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above a. its amplitude
b. its amplitude and frequency
14. Noise in a communication system originates in: c. its amplitude, frequency, and direction
a. the sender c. the channel d. its amplitude, frequency, and phase angle
b. the receiver d. all of the above

15. "Man-made" noise can come from: COMPLETION

a. equipment that sparks c. static
b. temperature d. all of the above 1. The telephone was invented in the year ______.
ANS: 1863
16. Thermal noise is generated in:
a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire
b. resistors d. all of the above 2. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year _______.
ANS: 1901
17. Shot noise is generated in:
a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire 3. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ______ band.
b. resistors d. none of the above ANS: base

18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: 4. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the _______.
a. the same at all frequencies c. greater at low frequencies ANS: channel
b. greater at high frequencies d. the same as "white" noise
5. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is _______.
19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: ANS: zero
a. random noise c. white noise
b. pink noise d. partition noise 6. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for _______.
ANS: bandwidth
20. "Pink" noise has:
a. equal power per Hertz c. constant power 7. In _______, you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry
b. equal power per octave d. none of the above multiple signals.
ANS: FDM
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is:
a. VT = sqrt(V1 x V1 + V2 x V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 x V2) 8. In _______, multiple signal streams take turns using the channel.
b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 d. VT = V1 + V2 ANS: TDM
9. VHF stands for the _______ frequency band. 5. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Find its noise figure.
ANS: very high ANS: 1.5

10. The more information per second you send, the ________ the bandwidth 6. Suppose there is 30 V from one noise source that is combined with 40 V from
required. another noise source. Calculate the total noise voltage.
ANS: greater, larger, wider ANS: 50 V

11. The VHF band starts at _______ MHz. 7. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise, both across the same 100-ohm
ANS: 30 load, what is the signal-to-noise ratio in dB?
ANS: 20 dB
12. The UHF band starts at ______ MHz.
ANS: 300 8. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output
signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. Find NF, both in dB and as a ratio.
13. A radio signal's ________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. ANS: 20 dB, NF = 100
ANS: wavelength
9. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. Find the
14. In free space, radio signals travel at approximately _________ meters per total NF for the pair.
second. ANS: 5.4
ANS: 300 million
10. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to
15. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the ________. that of pure thermal noise. How would you control the amount of noise generated?
ANS: spectrum analyzer ANS: When current flows through a diode, it generates shot noise that can be
represented as a current source, the output of which is a noise current.
16. Mathematically, a spectrum is represented by a _______ series. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for
ANS: Fourier thermal noise voltage. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional
to the diode current, controlling the diode current controls the noise
17. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ________. power.
ANS: noise blanking or blanking

18. For satellite communications, ________ noise can be a serious problem.

ANS: solar Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits

19. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ________ in a conductor.

ANS: electrons TRUE/FALSE

1. In general, components behave the same at 20 MHz as they do at 1 kHz. F

SHORT ANSWER
2. Stray capacitance is important in high-frequency amplifiers. T
1. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system.
ANS: Source, Transmitter, Channel, Receiver, Destination 3. Microwave-frequency circuits look much different from circuits designed for 1
MHz. T
2. Name five types of internal noise.
ANS: Thermal, Shot, Partition, 1/f, transit-time 4. All electronic devices have both capacitive and inductive properties. T

3. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? 5. As frequency increases, capacitive effects decrease. F
ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible
frequencies. Likewise, thermal noise has equal power density over a wide 6. At some frequency, a capacitor will self-resonate with the inductance of its leads.
range of frequencies. T

4. What is "pink noise"? 7. An "unstable" amplifier is one that oscillates, or is close to oscillating. T
ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors, and red
is at the low end of the visible spectrum. Likewise, pink noise has higher 8. Base-to-emitter capacitance can cause a common-emitter amplifier to oscillate. F
power density at lower frequencies.
9. "Distributed Constants" refers to a mathematical operation to calculate gain. F
 4. A resonant circuit is:
10. "Shielding" prevents RF signals from coupling between components in a system. a. a simple form of bandpass filter c. both a and b
T b. used in narrowband RF amplifiers d. none of the above

11. A "ground-plane" is a type of shielding. T 5. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will:

a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit c. "multiply" the Q
12. A "gimmick" is a type of shielding. F b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit d. have no effect on Q

13. Removing any RF signals off the Vcc lines is an example of "decoupling". T 6. The "Miller Effect" can:
a. cause an amplifier to oscillate
14. Decoupling usually involves a "bypass" capacitor. T b. cause an amplifier to lose gain
c. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier
15. Basically, radio-frequency amplifiers can not be distinguished from other d. all of the above
amplifiers. F
7. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to:
16. Resonant circuits are common in RF amplifiers. T a. inductance of collector lead c. base-to-emitter capacitance
17. Increasing the load on a tuned amplifier increases its Q. F b. collector-to-emitter capacitance d. base-to-collector capacitance

18. In a common-emitter amplifier, the collector-base capacitance "looks" bigger 8. The Miller Effect can be avoided by:
than it is. T a. using a common-emitter amplifier
b. using a common-base amplifier
19. The Miller Effect only occurs in common-base amplifiers. F c. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit
d. it cannot be avoided
20. The Miller Effect can reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier. T
9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with:
21. The Miller Effect can be reduced using neutralization. T a. RC coupling c. direct coupling
b. transformer coupling d. lumped reactance
22. A piezoelectric crystal behaves like a very low-Q tuned circuit. F
10. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by:
23. The frequency of a crystal oscillator is much more stable than an LC oscillator. T a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback
b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane
24. Mixers must be nonlinear in order to work. T c. decoupling it
d. none of the above
25. A mixer will produce "sum and difference" frequencies. T
11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires:
a. a nonlinear circuit
MULTIPLE CHOICE b. a linear amplifier
c. a signal containing harmonics
1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is d. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency
called:
a. base time c. charge time 12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires:
b. transit time d.Miller time a. loop gain equal to unity
b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees
2. A real capacitor actually contains: c. both a and b, but at just one frequency
a. capacitance and resistance only d. none of the above
b. capacitance and inductance only
c. capacitance, inductance, and resistance 13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called:
d. reactance only a. the loop-gain criteria c. the Bode criteria
b. the Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen criteria
3. Bypass capacitors are used to:
a. remove RF from non-RF circuits c. neutralize amplifiers 14. The Hartley oscillator uses:
b. couple RF around an amplifier d. reduce the Miller effect a. a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant
b. a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal
15. The Colpitts VFO uses: 4. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ________
a. a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant between them.
b. a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal ANS: shielding

16. The Clapp oscillator is: 5. A ________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus.
a. a modified Hartley oscillator c. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator ANS: decoupling
b. a modified Colpitts oscillator d. only built with FETs 6. In high-frequency RF circuits, the placement of wires and _________ can be
critical.
17. A varactor is: ANS: components
a. a voltage-controlled capacitor c. used in tuner circuits
b. a diode d. all of the above 7. A ________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground.
ANS: bypass
18. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are:
a. used for a precise frequency 8. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ________ of the
b. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) tuned circuit.
c. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions ANS: Q
d. all of the above
9. A value of ________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit
19. If two signals, Va = sin(at) and Vb = sin(bt), are fed to a mixer, the output: equations to be valid.
a. will contain 1 = a + b and 2 = a b ANS: 10
b. will contain 1 = a / b and 2 = b / a
c. will contain = (a + b ) / 2 10. In a class C RF amplifier, the ________ extracts one frequency from all the
d. none of the above harmonics contained in the device current (e.g. collector current).
ANS: tuned circuit
20. In a balanced mixer, the output:
a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies 11. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called
b. contains the input frequencies __________.
c. does not contain the input frequencies ANS: neutralization
d. is a linear mixture of the input signals
12. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ________ voltage divider to provide feedback.
21. "VFO" stands for: ANS: capacitive
a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator c. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator
b. Variable-Frequency Oscillator d. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator 13. Electrically, a piezoelectric crystal has both a _________ and a _______
resonant frequency.
22. A "frequency synthesizer" is: ANS: series, parallel
a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency
b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency 14. To produce sum and difference frequencies, a mixer must be a non-________
c. a fixed-frequency RF generator circuit.
d. same as a mixer ANS: linear
15. At some bias point, a diode or a transistor can act as a _________-law mixer.
COMPLETION ANS: square

1. Generally, conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ________.

ANS: short SHORT ANSWER
1. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit
2. At UHF frequencies and above, elements must be considered as ________ for 10 MHz?
instead of as being "lumped". ANS: 5.4 H
ANS: distributed
2. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of
3. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground, it is called a 100 kHz?
________. ANS: 100
ANS: ground-plane
3. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. 11. Overmodulation produces "splatter". T
What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria?
ANS: 0.1 12. Modulation index can be derived from a time-domain view of the AM signal. T
4. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? 13. Modulation index can be derived from a frequency-domain view of the AM
ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large signal. T
value capacitors in the feedback divider.
14. In AM, the lower baseband frequencies are in the LSB and the higher baseband
5. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts, what will be the capacitance frequencies are in the USB. F
at 4 volts?
ANS: 30 pF 15. The upper sideband contains the same information as the lower sideband. T

6. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20C, and a tempco of +10 ppm per 16. In AM, most of the power is in the sidebands. F
degree Celsius. What will be the shift in frequency at 70C? What percentage is
that? 17. In plain AM, the job of the carrier is to allow simple demodulation. T
ANS: 50 kHz, 0.05%
18. The upper sideband has twice the power of the lower sideband. F
7. Two sinusoidal signals, V1 and V2, are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. V1 is a 20-
MHz signal; V2 is a 5-MHz signal. What frequencies would you expect at the output 19. In AM, only one information signal can be sent on any given frequency. F
of the mixer?
ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz 20. It is possible to transmit stereo audio signals using AM. T
8. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.39 has a 21. SSBSC is derived from DSBSC. T
reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. What should be
the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? 22. SSB AM requires twice the bandwidth of plain AM. F
ANS: 12
23. SSB AM is much more efficient than plain AM. T
24. To see an envelope in SSB AM, at least two modulating audio tones are
Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation required. T

25. AM has inherently worse fidelity than FM. F

TRUE/FALSE
1. It is easy to modulate and demodulate a carrier using AM. T MULTIPLE CHOICE

2. AM makes efficient use of transmitter power. F 1. AM stands for:

a. Audio Modulation c. Angle Modulation
3. AM signals are affected by relatively low levels of electrical noise. T b. Amplitude Modulation d. Antenna Modulation
4. The "envelope" of an AM signal resembles the modulating signal. T 2. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to:
a. the baseband signal c. the amplitude signal
5. AM works by varying the carrier power. F b. the carrier signal d. none of the above

6. Modulation is not a linear process. T 3. If the audio Va sin(at) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ct), then the modulation
index, m, is:
7. In AM, the amplitude of the carrier changes in step with the modulation. F a. m = a / c c. m = (Va / Vc)2
b. m = Va / Vc d. m = Va / a
8. Mathematically, AM involves multiplication of the carrier by the information
signal. T 4. The equation for full-carrier AM is:
a. v(t) = (Ec + Em) sin(ct)
9. Sideband power is a linear function of the modulation index. F b. v(t) = (Ec + Em) sin(mt) + sin(ct)
c. v(t) = (Ec Em) sin(mt) sin(ct)
10. The modulation index should be greater than 1 for best efficiency. F d. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(mt)) sin(
ct)
5. Overmodulation causes: 16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will it
a. distortion c. both a and b radiate with no modulation?
b. splatter d. none of the above a. 1000 watts c. 250 watts
b. 500 watts d. 0 watts
6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index,
m, is: 17. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because:
a. m = Emin / Emax c. m = (Emax Emin) / (Emax + Emin) a. AM is susceptible to noise
b. m = Emax / Emin d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax Emin) b. commercial AM stations use low power
c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth
7. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is: d. all of the above
a. equal to the carrier power c. half the carrier power
b. twice the carrier power d. 1.414 x carrier power 18. The type of information that can be sent using AM is:
a. audio b. video c. digital data d. all of the above
8. If Va sin(at)) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ct), it will produce the
frequencies: 19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation index of m1
a. c + a and c a c. c + a and 2c + 2a and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. The total modulation index is:
b. (c + a)/2 and (c a)/2 d. none of the above a. m1 + m2 c. sqrt(m1 x m2 + m2 x m1)
b. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. sqrt(m1 x m1 + m2 x m2)
9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will
be: 20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the receiver must:
a. 5 kHz c. 1.005 MHz a. be set to USB mode c. both a and b
b. 10 kHz d. none of the above b. reinsert the carrier d. none of the above

10. The modulation index can be derived from:

a. the time-domain signal c. both a and b COMPLETION
b. the frequency-domain signal d. none of the above
1. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ________.
11. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect: ANS: simple
a. the audio to get louder at the receiver
b. the received RF signal to increase 2. A disadvantage of AM is its ________ use of power.
c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase ANS: inefficient
d. all of the above
3. The ________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal.
12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: ANS: envelope
a. requires too much bandwidth
b. requires too much power 4. In AM, modulating with a single audio tone produces ________ sidebands.
c. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios ANS: two
d. all of the above
5. Compared to the USB, the information in the LSB is ________.
13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM: ANS: the same
a. is more efficient
b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit 6. Compared to the USB, the power in the LSB is _________.
c. requires less bandwidth ANS: the same
d. all of the above
7. In AM, total sideband power is always ________ than the carrier power.
14. The SC in SSB SC stands for: ANS: less
a. single-carrier c. sideband-carrier
b. suppressed-carrier d. none of the above 8. In AM, as the modulation index increases, the carrier power _________.
ANS: remains constant
15. PEP stands for:
a. Peak Envelope Power c. Peak Envelope Product 9. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ________.
b. Peak Efficiency Power d. none of the above ANS: one
10. In AM, a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of 7. A carrier can be frequency modulated with audio at the same time it is phase
_________. modulated with data. F
ANS: 6000 Hz
8. Mathematically, an FM signal has an infinite number of sidebands. T
11. With a 1-MHz carrier, if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz, then the USB will
extend up to _________. 9. At certain modulation frequencies, the power in the carrier frequency of an FM
ANS: 1010 kHz signal can go to zero. T

12. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation, it will put out 10. In FM, the modulation index depends on the frequency deviation. T
_________ watts with 100% modulation.
ANS: 150 11. In FM, the modulation index depends on the frequency of the modulating
signal. T

SHORT ANSWER 12. In FM, as in AM, the modulation index cannot exceed one. F

1. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. How much power 13. In PM, the phase shift is proportional to the instantaneous amplitude of the
will it generate with 20% modulation? modulating signal. T
ANS: 102 watts
14. A PM signal can be converted into an FM signal. T
2. If the carrier power is 1000 watts, what is the power in the USB at 70.7%
modulation? 15. Unlike AM, a single modulating tone can produce many sidebands. T
ANS: 125 watts
16. In FM, more sidebands means more power. F
3. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the modulation indexes for the
tones are 0.3, 0.4, and 0.5, then what is the total modulation index? 17. FM is sometimes called a constant-bandwidth communications mode. T
ANS: 0.707
18. An FM signal is best looked at with a spectrum analyzer. T
4. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is
100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the modulation index? 19. An oscilloscope display will reveal much detail about an FM signal. F
ANS: 0.6
20. There is no such thing as narrowband FM. F
5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output voltage
of the transmitter is 20 volts, what is the PEP? 21. In FM, the signal-to-noise ratio of a receiver's output can be better than that at
ANS: 4 watts the receiver's input. T

22. In the presence of noise, an FM system exhibits an abrupt transition called

Chapter 4: Angle Modulation "threshold effect". T

23. Stereo FM signals produce a better signal-to-noise ratio at the receiver than
TRUE/FALSE mono does. F

1. PM is another term for FM. F

2. In FM, the frequency of the modulated signal varies with the instantaneous
amplitude of the modulating signal. T
3. Unlike AM, the amplitude of an FM signal does not change with modulation. T
4. Similar to AM, the power of an FM signal changes with modulation. F
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The FM modulation index:
a. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency
b. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency
c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency
d. is equal to twice the deviation

5. Class C amplifier stages can be used throughout an FM transmitter. T 2. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies
is called:
6. PM is often used to send digital data. T a. the capture effect c. the "two-station" effect
b. the threshold effect d. none of the above
3. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: COMPLETION
a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands
b. it is equal to the frequency deviation 1. FM and PM are two forms of ________ modulation.
c. it is band-limited at the receiver ANS: angle
d. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible

4. Mathematically, the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: 2. PM is extensively used in ________ communication.
a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. Taylor series ANS: data
b. Bessel functions d. fractals
3. Compared to AM, the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually _________.
5. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: ANS: better
a. Armstrong's Rule c. Carson's Rule
b. Bessel's Rule d. none of the above 4. Compared to AM, the bandwidth of FM is usually ________.
ANS: wider, greater
6. NBFM stands for:
a. National Broadcast FM c. Near Band FM 5. FM transmitters can use Class ________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is
b. Non-Broadcast FM d. Narrowband FM not important.
ANS: C
7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise, it is called:
a. the capture effect c. the noise effect 6. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ________ as modulation is
b. the threshold effect d. the limit effect applied.
ANS: stay constant
8. One way to derive FM from PM is:
a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator 7. In FM, the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous _________ of
b. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator the modulating signal.
c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator ANS: amplitude
d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator
8. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the _________
9. Pre-emphasis is used to: of the modulating signal.
a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies ANS: frequency
b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies
c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies 9. Mathematically, the number of sidebands in an FM signal is __________.
d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: infinite

10. FM stereo: 10. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency, their power _________.
a. uses DSBSC AM modulation c. has a higher S/N than mono FM ANS: decreases
b. is implemented using an SCA signal d. is not compatible with mono FM
11. Mathematically, the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as
11. A pre-emphasis of 75s refers to: ________.
a. the time it takes for the circuit to work ANS: any number
b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs
c. the time delay between the L and R channels 12. In FM, as the modulating frequency decreases, the modulation index
d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used _________.
ANS: increases
12. An SCA signal:
a. can use amplitude modulation c. is monaural 13. In FM, as the frequency deviation decreases, the modulation index _________.
b. can use FM modulation d. all of the above ANS: decreases

13. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: 14. As the FM modulation index increases, the number of significant sidebands
a. using measurements at points where J0 equals one _________.
b. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero ANS: increases
c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero
d. only by using Bessel functions 15. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using _________ rule.
ANS: Carson's
15. For certain values of mf, such as 2.4, the amplitude of the carrier frequency 9. Using Carson's rule, what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a
___________. modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal?
ANS: disappears, goes to zero ANS: 30 kHz
17. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using _________ functions. 10. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.1, what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with
ANS: Bessel a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands
containing less than 1% of the total power?
18. The ________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment. ANS: 30 kHz
ANS: threshold
19. The _______ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals
that are close to each other in frequency. Chapter 5: Transmitters
ANS: capture

20. Rest frequency is another name for an FM _________ frequency. TRUE/FALSE

ANS: carrier
1. All transmitters produce spurious signals. T

SHORT ANSWER 2. Any amplifier will produce harmonic distortion. T

1. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz 3. There is a simple correlation between supply power and output power for
deviation in carrier frequency, what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? transmitters. F
ANS: 5 kHz / volt
4. Transmitters designed for two-way voice communications must be rated for
2. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz, what is the continuous operation at full power. F
modulation index?
ANS: 2 5. Baseband spectrum often must be restricted to keep transmitted bandwidth
within legal limits. T
3. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3?
ANS: 9 kHz 6. Compression is used to restrict baseband spectrum. F

4. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V, what will be the 7. The opposite of compression is expansion. T
modulation index caused by a 1-volt, 1-kHz audio signal?
ANS: 2 8. In a transmitter, the ALC circuit prevents overmodulation. T

5. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM 9. In a transmitter, the ALC circuit causes compression. T
transmitter?
ANS: 48.4 watts 10. Compression is commonly used in commercial broadcast transmitters. T

6. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 11. In full-carrier AM, modulation is typically done before the RF power amplifier. F
1000-watt FM transmitter?
ANS: 673 watts 12. If the RF stages are all Class C, then AM must be done with low-level
modulation. F
7. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a
1000-watt FM transmitter? 13. Commercial broadcast AM stations typically use high-level modulation. T
ANS: 200 mW (0.2 watt)
14. Low-level AM modulation requires linear RF amplifiers. T
8.How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2.4,
5.5, etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? 15. For good frequency stability, a crystal oscillator is generally required. T
ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. Using a
spectrum analyzer, adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude 16. A variable-frequency oscillator cannot be crystal-controlled. F
vanishes. Record the audio frequency. Then do the calculation: = fm
mf where mf will have one of the known values. For example, if fm is 17. Vacuum tubes are still used in high-power transmitters, even new ones. T
measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5.5, then is 11 kHz.
18. In a commercial broadcast AM transmitter, all the power in the sidebands came 4. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power
from the audio amplifier. T coming out:
a. is a measure of efficiency c. may require water cooling
19. Typically, some kind of matching circuit is required between a transmitter's b. heats the transmitter d. all of the above
output stage and the antenna. T
5. Baseband compression produces:
20. For testing purposes, the output of a transmitter should be disconnected from a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high
the antenna and left with an open-circuit load. F b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud
c. a smaller number of signals
21. In a transceiver, the same audio circuits are used by both the transmitter and d. none of the above
the receiver. T
6. With high-level AM:
22. In solid-state transmitters, it is common to modulate both the driver and the a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear
power RF stage. T b. minimum modulation power is required
c. minimum RF power is required
23. Mixing and amplitude modulation are essentially the same process. T d. all of the above

24. DSBSC is never done at low level. F 7. With high-level AM:

a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class
25. To generate SSB from DSBSC, a mechanical filter can be used. T b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B
c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C
26. To generate SSB from DSBSC, a crystal filter can be used. T d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB

27. It is possible that the LSB and the USB can become swapped during a mixing 8. With low-level AM:
process. T a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A
b. the RF amplifiers must be Class B
28. The RF power amplifiers in a SSB transmitter are Class C for better efficiency. F c. the RF amplifiers must be linear
d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power
29. In FM, a frequency multiplier will also multiply the deviation. T
9. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that:
30. Frequency doublers are usually Class B. F a. is complex c. has variable frequency
b. has variable amplitude d. all of the above
31. Mixing can lower a carrier frequency as well as raise it. T
10. In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to:
32. Indirect FM uses a phase modulator. T a. the power level of the carrier
b. the power level of the modulation
33. Even low-power transmitters can cause an RF burn to the skin. T c. the power level of the final RF amplifier
d. none of the above

MULTIPLE CHOICE 11. In high-level AM, the power in the sidebands comes from:
a. the modulating amplifier c. the driver stage
1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is b. the RF amplifier d. the carrier
called:
a. agility c. VFO 12. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage
b. expansion d. spread-spectrum will be:
a. approximately half the DC supply voltage
2. ALC stands for: b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage
a. Amplitude Level Control c. Accurate Level Control c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage
b. Automatic Level Control d. none of the above d. none of the above

3. In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to: 13. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of:
a. keep the modulation close to 100% c. maximize transmitted power a. 50 ohms resistive c. 300 ohms resistive
b. keep the modulation below 100% d. all of the above b. 75 ohms resistive d. 600 ohms resistive
14. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? 25. Frequency multipliers are:
a. pi network c. both a and b a. essentially balanced modulators c. essentially mixers
b. T network d. a bridge circuit b. essentially Class C amplifiers d. none of the above

15. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor

is called: COMPLETION
a. a heavy load c. a temporary load
b. a dummy load d. a test load 1. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ________
oscillator.
16. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor ANS: carrier
must be:
a. wire-wound c. 1% tolerance or better
b. non-inductive d. all of the above
2. In the USA, the __________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a
17. A Class D amplifier is: transmitter's frequency.
a. very efficient ANS: FCC
b. essentially pulse-width modulation
c. essentially pulse-duration modulation 3. In Canada, _________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a
d. all of the above transmitter's frequency.
ANS: Industry Canada
18. To generate a SSB signal:
a. start with full-carrier AM c. start with a quadrature signal 4. Frequency __________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without
b. start with DSBSC d. all of the above a lot of retuning.
ANS: agility
19. The carrier is suppressed in:
a. a balanced modulator c. a frequency multiplier 5. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by _________.
b. a mixer d. none of the above ANS: PEP

20. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: 6. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called _________.
a. a mechanical filter c. both a and b ANS: compression
b. a crystal filter d. none of the above
7. The opposite of compression is called _________.
21. A direct FM modulator: ANS: expansion
a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator c. both a and b
b. integrates the modulating signal d. none of the above 8. ALC is a form of ________.
ANS: compression
22. An indirect FM modulator:
a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator 9. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more _________.
b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator ANS: efficiently
c. both a and b
d. none of the above 10. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be __________.
ANS: linear
23. AFC stands for:
a. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion c. Automatic Frequency Control 11. To isolate the oscillator from load changes, a ________ stage is used.
b. Automatic Frequency Centering d. Audio Frequency Control ANS: buffer

24. With mixing: 12. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ________ than the DC
a. the carrier frequency can be raised supply voltage.
b. the carrier frequency can be lowered ANS: higher
c. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value
d. the deviation is altered 13. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____-ohm load.
ANS: 50
14. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ________ network 3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power
for impedance matching. supply with no modulation. Assuming high-level modulation, how much power does
ANS: T the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation?
ANS: 50 watts
15. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ________ levels.
ANS: harmonic 4. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what is
the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation?
16. Severe impedance _________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage. ANS: 400 volts
ANS: mismatch
5. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz.
The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To pass the USB, what
17. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ________ into one "box". should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter?
ANS: receiver ANS: 10.005 MHz

18. To allow a high modulation percentage, it is common to modulate the ________ 6. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of
as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators. 10 MHz. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that
ANS: driver the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz?
ANS: 40 MHz
19. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-_________ modulation.
ANS: duration 7. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz
deviation. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz,
20. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class _________ amplifiers. what will be the new carrier frequency?
ANS: D ANS: 4 MHz

21. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed, ________ is used to 8. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a
operate at more than one frequency. 12-volt car battery?
ANS: mixing ANS: 75.8%

22. To generate a SSB signal, it is common to start with a _________ signal.

ANS: DSBSC
Chapter 6: Receivers
23. Indirect FM is derived from ________ modulation.
ANS: phase
TRUE/FALSE
24. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ________ modulator.
ANS: reactance 1. The first radio receiver was built in 1918. F

25. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a 2. Almost all modern receivers use the superheterodyne design. T
____________________ loop.
ANS: phase-locked 3. A tuned circuit at the input increases receiver sensitivity. F

4. Since both fo and Q increase with frequency, the bandwidth of a resonant LC

SHORT ANSWER circuit remains constant as it is tuned to higher frequencies. F

1. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0.001%, what is the range of possible
frequencies?
ANS: 50 MHz 500 hertz
2 .Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz.
Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20
kHz.
ANS: First, put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier
with a 20-kHz deviation. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to
generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation.
5. The resistance of a coil is a function of frequency. T
6. The superhet was invented by Heinrich Hertz. F
7. In a receiver, the first RF amplifier is largely responsible for overall noise
performance. T
8. In a superhet, the local oscillator must be set to the transmitter's carrier
frequency. F
9. In a superhet, the output of the mixer is the IF. T
10. In a superhet, most of the gain comes from the IF amplifiers. T
11. In a superhet, most of the selectivity comes from the IF amplifiers. T
12. All superhets use a separate local oscillator. F
13. In high-side injection, the incoming RF is at a higher frequency than the local
oscillator. F
34. If the BFO in a SSB receiver is 100 hertz low, what comes out of the speaker may
sound like Donald Duck, but it will be understandable. T
35. DSBSC transmitters often use a pilot carrier to allow coherent detection. T
36. FM receivers are similar to AM receivers in basic design. T
37. There is no way to demodulate an FM signal with an AM receiver. F

14. The mixer and the local oscillator can use the same transistor. T 38. Modern FM receivers commonly use Foster-Seeley discriminators. F

15. The IF frequency is constant as a receiver is tuned to various frequencies. T 39. Both PLLs and quadrature detectors can be used to demodulate FM. T

16. There can be only one mixer and one IF in a superhet receiver. F 40. Quadrature detectors are sensitive to variations in carrier amplitude. T

17. In AM receivers, the antenna and the inductor of the tuner circuit can be the 41. Squelch is the same as muting. T
same thing. T
42. A bipolar transistor can be used as a mixer, but a FET cannot. F
18. Bandwidth and signal-to-noise-ratio are not related in a superhet. F

19. Shape-factor is a measure of selectivity. T MULTIPLE CHOICE

20. Phase distortion should be minimized for reliable voice communications. F 1. The two basic specifications for a receiver are:
a. the sensitivity and the selectivity
21. A receiver's response to weak signals is limited by the noise generated inside b. the number of converters and the number of IFs
the receiver. T c. the spurious response and the tracking
d. the signal and the noise
22. The AGC in a receiver can cause "blocking". T
2. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by:
23. Careful design can eliminate all spurious responses. F a. Foster c. Armstrong
b. Seeley d. Hertz
24. Image frequencies are eliminated by the IF. F
3. Trimmers and padders are:
25. "Software radios" use a DSP to replace all hardware up to and including the a. two types of adjusting tools c. small adjustable inductors
detector. F b. small adjustable resistors d. small adjustable capacitors

26. It is possible that a transmitter on one frequency can appear at two spots on a 4. "Skin effect" refers to:
receiver's dial. T a. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface
b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal
27. A detector is the same as a demodulator. T c. the increase of wire resistance with frequency
d. none of the above
28. Envelope detectors are typically used in FM receivers. F
5. The "front end" of a receiver can include:
29. Envelope detectors are complicated, but extremely linear. F a. the tuner c. the mixer
b. the RF amplifier d. all of the above
30. There is a way to use a diode to demodulate a SSB signal. T
6. "IF" stands for:
31. A SSB signal requires a ratio detector. F a. intermediate frequency c. indeterminate frequency
b. intermodulation frequency d. image frequency
32. In a SSB receiver, the BFO injects the carrier into the detector. T
7. AGC stands for:
33. In a SSB receiver, it is relatively easy for the injected carrier to match the a. Audio Gain Control c. Active Gain Control
frequency and phase of the transmitter's carrier. F b. Automatic Gain Control d. Active Gain Conversion
8 . When comparing values for shape factor: 18. Image frequencies occur when two signals:
a. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal c. a value of 1.0 is ideal a. are transmitted on the same frequency
b. a value of 0.707 is ideal d. there is no ideal value b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF
frequency
9. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: c. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a
a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses difference equal to IF
b. it increases sensitivity d. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal to
c. it increases selectivity twice the IF
d. it is cheaper
19. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:
10. Basically, sensitivity measures: a. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer
c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. none of the above
d. none of the above
20. A common AM detector is the:
11. Basically, selectivity measures: a. PLL c. ratio detector
a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. envelope detector d. all of the above
b. with two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive one and
reject the other 21. An FM detector is the:
c. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator a. PLL c. quadrature detector
d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer b. ratio detector d. all of the above

12. The frequency of the local oscillator: 22. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because:
a. is above the RF frequency a. they are faster than silicon diodes
b. is below the RF frequency b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes
c. can be either above of below the RF frequency c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity
d. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz. d. all of the above

13. When comparing values for shape factor: 23. A common SSB detector is:
a. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 a. a PLL c. a BFO
b. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 b. a diode d. a product detector
c. both values are basically equivalent
d. none of the above 24. BFO stands for:
a. Beat Frequency Oscillator c. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator
14. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: b. Barrier Frequency Oscillator d. Bistable Frequency Oscillator
a. the mixer c. the IF amplifiers
b. the detector d. all of the above 25. Which would be best for DSBSC:
a. carrier detection c. envelope detection
15. Phase distortion is important in: b. coherent detection d. ratio detection
a. voice communications systems c. monochrome video receivers
b. color video receivers d. all of the above 26. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to:
a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator
16. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: b. reinject the carrier
a. the AGC c. use double conversion
b. noise generated in the receiver d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC
c. the dynamic range of the receiver
d. the type of detector circuit being used 27. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is:
a. Foster-Seeley detector c. a PLL detector
17. An image must be rejected: b. a quadrature detector d. all of the above
a. prior to mixing c. prior to detection
b. prior to IF amplification d. images cannot be rejected 28. The function of a limiter is:
a. to remove amplitude variations c. to limit dynamic range
b. to limit spurious responses d. to limit noise response
29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: 2. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year _______.
a. AGC c. AFC ANS: 1887
b. squelch d. limiting
3. When two tuned circuits __________ each other, it means that when the
30. LNA stands for: frequency of one is adjusted, the other changes with it.
a. Limited-Noise Amplifier c. Low-Noise Audio ANS: track
b. Low-Noise Amplifier d. Logarithmic Noise Amplification
4. The ________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency.
31. AFC stands for: ANS: skin
a. Audio Frequency Compensator
b. Autodyne Frequency Compensation 5. The superhet was invented in the year ________.
c. Automatic Frequency Control ANS: 1918
d. Autonomous Frequency Control
6. In a receiver, the _________ refers to the input filter and RF stage.
32. The function of AFC is: ANS: front end
a. maintain a constant IF frequency
b. match the local oscillator to the received signal 7. In a superhet, the output of the ________ goes to the IF amplifiers.
c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency ANS: mixer
d. none of the above
8. In a superhet, the _________ frequency is the difference between the local
33. SAW stands for: oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency.
a. Symmetrical Audio Wave c. Silicon-Activated Wafer ANS: intermediate, IF
b. Surface Acoustic Wave d. Software-Activated Wave
9. The _________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal
34. The important property of a SAW is: strength.
a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver c. it is a stable bandpass filter ANS: AGC
b. it allows software radios to be built d. none of the above
10. An __________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator
35. The main function of the AGC is to: and the mixer.
a. keep the gain of the receiver constant ANS: autodyne
b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant
c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude 11. In low-side injection, the local oscillator is _________ than the received signal
d. all of the above frequency.
ANS: lower
36. DSP stands for:
a. Dynamic Signal Properties c. Distorted Signal Packet 12. _________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to
b. Direct Signal Phase d. Digital Signal Processor each other in frequency.
ANS: Selectivity
37. SINAD stands for:
a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion 13. _________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a
b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion very weak signal.
c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio ANS: Sensitivity
d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio
14. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-_________
38. TRF stands for: receiver.
a. Tuned Radio Frequency c. Transmitted Radio Frequency ANS: conversion
b. Tracking Radio Frequency d. Tuned Receiver Function
15. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of _________
frequencies.
COMPLETION ANS: image
1. Almost all modern receivers use the _________ principle. 16. A demodulator is also called a _________.
ANS: superheterodyne ANS: detector
17. An ________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal. 33. An _____-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications
ANS: envelope receivers.
ANS: S
18. A _______ detector is used for SSB signals.
ANS: product 34. The effectiveness of FM _________ is measured by a receivers quieting
sensitivity.
19. A BFO produces a locally generated _________. ANS: limiting
ANS: carrier
35. A ________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector.
20. A DSBSC signal requires a ________ detection circuit. ANS: discriminator
ANS: coherent
SHORT ANSWER
21. FM detectors have a characteristic _________-shaped curve.
ANS: S 1. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. Approximately what
bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz?
22. While still commonly found, the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ANS: 20 kHz
__________.
ANS: obsolescent 2. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF, what is the frequency of the local
oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz?
23. Unlike the PLL detector, the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ANS: 6 MHz
_________ of the input signal.
ANS: amplitude 3. An IF filter has a 60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a 6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz.
What is the shape factor value?
24. A dual-_________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. ANS: 1.25
ANS: gate
4. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. Assuming high-side injection, what
25. Diode mixers are too _______ to be practical in most applications. would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz?
ANS: noisy ANS: 60 MHz

26. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ______. 5. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.5 MHz. What would
ANS: A be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband
shift is 100 hertz?
27. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually _________ coupled for the response to ANS: 1.5 MHz 100 hertz
have a flat top and steep sides.
ANS: over 6. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary
and secondary. What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling?
28. Multiple IF stages can be _________-tuned to increase the bandwidth. ANS: 0.06
ANS: stagger
7. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier
28. Compared to tuned circuits, ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz?
__________. ANS: 0.01
ANS: adjustment

30. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ___________ frequency than
the incoming signal. Chapter 7: Digital Communications
ANS: higher
TRUE/FALSE
31. In a block converter, the frequency of the first local oscillator is __________.
ANS: fixed, constant 1. Analog signals cannot be sent using digital techniques. F
32. Typically, AGC reduces the gain of the ________ amplifiers. 2. Digitizing a signal can reduce distortion. T
ANS: IF
3. Digitizing a signal can improve the signal-to-noise ratio. T
4. Morse code is an example of a binary digital transmission system. F
5. Digital signals can be modulated onto an analog carrier. T
6. Digitization removes noise and distortion from analog signals. F
7. A digital signal can be changed from a 1 to a 0 by noise. T
8. A regenerative repeater converts a degraded pulse into a new pulse. T
9. TDM is easy to implement with digital signals. T
10. Unlike analog, digital communications is not band-limited. F
11. The amount of digital data that can be sent is limited by the channel capacity
(C). F
12. The digital data rate is limited by the bandwidth of the channel. T
13. The digital data rate is limited by the SNR of the channel. T
14. The digital data rate is limited by the number of levels transmitted. T
15. The Shannon-Hartley theorem describes how to obtain the Shannon limit for
transmission. F
16. Digital data can be sent through a channel no matter how low the SNR is, as
long as it is not zero. T
17. Analog signals must be sampled before they can be sent in digital form. T
18. Mathematically, it is not possible to completely reconstruct a band-limited
signal from only samples of the signal. F
19. The Nyquist Rate is equal to half the highest frequency component of the analog
signal. F
20. Natural sampling is also called "flat-top" sampling. F
21. Flat-top sampling requires a sample-and-hold circuit. T
22. Aliasing occurs when the sampling rate is too high. F
23. Foldover distortion occurs when the sampling rate is too low. T
24. Sampling is actually a form of modulation. T
25. The output of a sampler is a PDM signal. F
26. The most commonly used digital modulation scheme is PCM. T
27. In PCM, the number of levels is the same as the number of bits. F
28. Quantizing is converting a sample of an analog signal to a binary number. T
29. Quantizing always introduces some error. T
30. Quantizing always introduces some "noise". T
31. The significance of quantizing noise increases as the number of bits per sample
increases. F
32. The dynamic range of a digital transmission system depends on the number of
bits per sample. T
33. The bandwidth required by a digital transmission system depends on the
number of bits per sample. T
34. Companding allows improved dynamic range for a given bandwidth. T
35. The companding system used in America is known as "A-Law" companding. F
36. Companding is basically a linear process. F
37. Companding can be done with analog circuitry. T
38. Digital companding is used by most modern telephone systems. T
39. With delta modulation, only one bit is transmitted per cycle. T
40. Delta modulation is particularly well suited to rapidly changing analog signals. F
41. Delta modulation is prone to "granular noise". T
42. Adaptive delta modulation reduces the occurrence of "slope-overload". T
43. A disadvantage of adaptive delta modulation is that it requires a higher bit rate
than PCM. F
44. Digital data is put onto a cable using a line code. T
45. Unipolar line coding requires DC continuity. T
46. Bipolar RZ coding generates DC and low-frequency AC components. F
47. The Manchester line code provides strong timing information. T
48. The basic DS-1 signal consists of 12 voice channels. F
49. In DS-1, each analog voice channel is sampled 8000 times per second. T
50. In DS-1, the bit rate for each voice channel is 56 kbits per second. F
51. A T-1 frame contains 193 bits. T
52. T-1 uses AMI. T
53. A T-1 cable can be twisted-pair copper wires. T 10. Foldover distortion is caused by:
a. noise c. too few samples per second
54. A T-1 line runs at 1.544 Mbits per second. T b. too many samples per second d. all of the above

55. In DS-1, bits are sometimes "stolen" from the voice channel to be used for 11. The immediate result of sampling is:
signaling. T a. a sample alias b. PAM c. PCM d. PDM

56. "Lossy" compression involves transmitting all the data in the original signal, but 12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique:
with fewer bits. F a. PDM b. PWM c. PPM d. PPS

57. "Lossless" compression schemes look for redundancies in the data. T 13. Quantizing noise (quantization noise):
a. decreases as the sample rate increases
58. "Run-Length" encoding is a type of lossless compression. T b. decreases as the sample rate decreases
c. decreases as the bits per sample increases
d. decreases as the bits per sample decreases
MULTIPLE CHOICE
14. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of:
1. The first digital code was the: a. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal
a. ASCII code c. Morse code b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion
b. Baudot code d. none of the above c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample
d. none of the above
2. In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using:
a. an amplifier c. a regenerative repeater 15. Companding is used to:
b. a filter d. all of the above a. compress the range of base-band frequencies
b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates
3. TDM stands for: c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low
a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Ten-Digital Manchester d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission
b. Time-Domain Multiplexing d. Ten Dual-Manchester
16. In North America, companding uses:
4. Hartley's Law is: a. the Logarithmic Law c. the Law (alpha law)
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. the A Law d. the Law (mu law)
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax
17. In Europe, companding uses:
5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. the Logarithmic Law c. the Law (alpha law)
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. the A Law d. the Law (mu law)
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax
18. Codec stands for:
6. The Shannon Limit is given by: a. Coder-Decoder c. Code-Compression
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. Coded-Carrier d. none of the above
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax
19. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives:
7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. 4-bit numbers c. 12-bit numbers
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. 8-bit numbers d. 16-bit numbers
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax
20. Compared to PCM, delta modulation:
8. Natural Sampling does not use: a. transmits fewer bits per sample c. can suffer slope overload
a. a sample-and-hold circuit c. a fixed sample rate b. requires a much higher sampling rate d. all of the above
b. true binary numbers d. an analog-to-digital converter9.
21. In delta modulation, "granular noise" is produced when:
9. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. the signal changes too rapidly c. the bit rate is too high
a. They are two types of sampling error. b. the signal does not change d. the sample is too large
b. You can have one or the other, but not both.
c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. 22. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is:
d. They are the same thing. a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8
23. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: 37. A vocoder implements compression by:
a. AMI c. unipolar NRZ a. constructing a model of the transmission medium
b. Manchester d. bipolar RZ b. constructing a model of the human vocal system
c. finding redundancies in the digitized data
24. Manchester coding: d. using lossless techniques
a. is a biphase code
b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period
c. provides strong timing information COMPLETION
d. all of the above
1. Digitizing a signal often results in ________ transmission quality.
25. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: ANS: improved, better
a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality
b. with a lower bit rate but the same quality 2. To send it over an analog channel, a digital signal must be _________ onto a
c. only over shorter distances carrier.
d. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: modulated

26. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: 3. To send it over a digital channel, an analog signal must first be ________.
a. detect errors c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver ANS: digitized
b. carry signaling d. all of the above
4. In analog channels, the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually
27. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: ________ as the length of the channel increases.
a. detect errors c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver ANS: decreases, gets worse
b. carry signaling d. all of the above
5. The ________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital
28. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: channel.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 ANS: binary

29. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: 6. A ________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable.
a. 8 k b. 56 k c. 64 k d. 1.544 x 106 ANS: regenerative

30. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: 7. There are techniques to detect and _________ some errors in digital
a. 1.544 Mb/s b. 64 kb/s c. 56 kb/s d. 8 kb/s transmission.
ANS: correct
31. In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at:
a. 1.544 Mb/s b. 64 kb/s c. 56 kb/s d. 8 kb/s 8. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of _________ in
digital transmission systems.
32. A T-1 cable uses: ANS: error, noise
a. Manchester coding c. NRZ coding
b. bipolar RZ AMI coding d. pulse-width coding 9. ________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission.
ANS: Time
33. The number of frames in a superframe is:
a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 48 10. All practical communications channels are band-_________.
ANS: limited
34. A typical T-1 line uses:
a. twisted-pair wire c. fiber-optic cable 11. ________ Law gives the relationship between time, information capacity, and
b. coaxial cable d. microwave bandwidth.
ANS: Hartley's
35. "Signaling" is used to indicate:
a. on-hook/off-hook condition c. ringing 12. Ignoring noise, the _________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data
b. busy signal d. all of the above transmission for a given bandwidth.
ANS: Shannon-Hartley
36. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a vocoder is:
a. much better c. about the same 13. ________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit.
b. somewhat better d. not as good ANS: Natural
14. The _________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given 29. In delta modulation, ________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes
bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio. too fast.
ANS: Shannon ANS: slope
15. The ________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals
to digital format. 30. The ________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation.
ANS: Nyquist ANS: step

16. ________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate. 31. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ________
ANS: Foldover the bit rate of PCM.
ANS: half
17. ________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter
"assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent 32. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ________
digitally. continuity.
ANS: Aliasing ANS: DC
18. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-__________ modulated 33. In AMI, binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ________.
signal. ANS: polarity
ANS: amplitude
34. Long strings of _________ should be avoided in AMI.
19. ________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ANS: zeros
ANS: Pulse-code
35. Manchester code has a level _________ in the center of each bit period.
20. _________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into ANS: transition
digital format.
ANS: Quantizing 36. Manchester coding provides _________ information regardless of the pattern of
ones and zeros.
21. ________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth. ANS: timing
ANS: Companding
37. There are _________ channels in a DS-1 frame.
22. In North America, compression is done using the ________-law equation. ANS: 24
ANS: , mu
38. DS-1 uses a ________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver.
23. In Europe, compression is done using the _____-law equation. ANS: framing
ANS: A
39. In DS-1, each channel is sampled ______ times per second.
24. A _______ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa. ANS: 8000
ANS: codec
40. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of _______ bits per second.
25. In a PCM system, the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ANS: 1.544 106
________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits.
ANS: 12 41. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a _________.
ANS: superframe
26. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ________.
ANS: 1, one 42. From a group of twelve frames, signaling bits are "stolen" from every ________
frame.
27. Delta modulation requires a _______ sampling rate than PCM for the same ANS: sixth
quality of reproduction.
ANS: higher 43. ________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses
fewer bits to do it.
28. _______ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't ANS: Lossless
change.
ANS: Granular
SHORT ANSWER 7. The telephone switching hierarchy is being replaced by a "flat" network topology.
T
1. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100,000 bits over
a channel with a bandwidth of 2,000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. 8. A "twisted-pair" is twisted to minimize "crosstalk". T
ANS: 5 seconds
9. The wires in a local loop are called TIP and GND. F
2. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12,000
bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8. 10. In a local loop, the red wire is positive. F
ANS: 2000 hertz
11. In a local loop, the TIP wire is positive. T
3.What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a
signal-to-noise ratio of 15? 12. Local loops can carry voice signals in only one direction at a time. F
ANS: 16 kbps
13. Local loops carry DC current. T
4. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an
analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? 14. Local loops carry signaling information. T
ANS: 6600 samples/second
15. Loading coils allow high-speed data loads to be carried on a local loop. F
5. What is the approximate dynamic range, in dB, of a linear PCM system that uses
12 bits per sample? 16. Typically, when a phone is on hook, a voltage of 48 volts appears across it. T
ANS: 74 dB
6. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and 17. When a telephone is off hook, the DC voltage across it can drop substantially
running at 8000 samples per second? from its on-hook value. T
ANS: 64 kbps
18. The DC resistance of a telephone is about 2000 ohms. F
7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame, what would the useable data-rate be
for each channel in the frame? 19. When a telephone is on hook, the DC current through it is in the range of 20 to
ANS: 56 kbps 80 mA. F

8. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt, what is the output 20. Touch-Tone is a registered trademark of AT&T. T
voltage of a -law compressor if the input voltage is 0.388 volt?
ANS: 0.833 volt 21. DTMF is the same as Touch-Tone. T

22. DTMF uses sets of 3 tones. F

Chapter 8: The Telephone System 23. The technology to "dial" telephone numbers was invented in 1893. T
24. A crosspoint switch allows any incoming line to be connected to any outgoing
TRUE/FALSE line. T

1. A telephone from 1930 could not work on today's public switched telephone
network. F
2. The public switched telephone network is changing from an all analog to a mostly
digital system. T
25. The central office uses 24 volts AC at 20 hertz to cause a telephone to ring. F
26. The local-loop is full-duplex. T
27. Telephones usually contain a hybrid coil or an equivalent circuit. T

3. A LATA is a local calling area. T 28. To allow for "sidetone", a hybrid coil should be slightly unbalanced. T

4. A feature of the public switched telephone system is that calls cannot be 29. The signal levels in analog telephone systems have increased substantially over
"blocked". F the past 100 years. F

5. Telephones connect to the central office via trunk lines. F 30. The signal levels in modern analog telephone systems are still based on 19th-
century technology. T
6. Most local loops still use copper wire. T
31. To allow multiplexing, the bandwidth of voice-grade telephone signals is 2. PSTN stands for:
deliberately restricted. T a. Public Switched Telephone Network
b. Private Switched Telephone Network
32. The net gain of a telephone system must be greater than 0 dB for an acceptable c. Primary Service Telephone Network
signal level. F d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers

33. Too much gain in a telephone system causes "singing". T 3. POTS stands for:
a. Private Office Telephone System
34. Echo suppressors prevent oscillations on long-distance telephone circuits. T b. Primary Office Telephone Service
c. Primary Operational Test System
35. Echo suppressors can be switched off by a subscriber's equipment. T d. Plain Old Telephone Service

36. C-message weighting increases the bandwidth of a local loop. F 4. LATA stands for:
a. Local Access and Transport Area c. Local Area Telephone Access
37. The reference level for measuring noise in a telephone system is 1012 Watts. T b. Local Access Telephone Area d. Local Area Transport Access

38. In a telephone system, signal strength is given relative to the zero transmission 5. A LATA is a:
loss point. T a. a local calling area c. a way of accessing a tandem office
b. a type of digital local network d. a way of accessing a central office
39. TDM is being replaced by the newer FDM technology in telephone systems. F
6. Central offices are connected by:
40. DS-1 can be used to carry digital data that did not originate as a voice signal. T a. local loops c. both a and b
b. trunk lines d. none of the above
41. When using DS-1 to carry data, it is common to use each channel to carry 64
kbps. F 7. Local loops terminate at:
a. a tandem office c. a central office
42. Digital carriers up to T3 can use copper wires. F b. a toll station d. an interexchange office

43. A DS-1C signal carries twice as many channels as a DS-1 signal. T
44. A DS-1C signal uses twice the bit rate of a DS-1 signal. F
45. "Stuff" bits are used to compensate for differences in clock rates. T
8. Call blocking:
a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded

46. Every "in-channel" signal is also an "in-band" signal. F 9. In telephony, POP stands for:
a. Post Office Protocol c. Power-On Protocol
47. Common-channel signaling is being replaced by the more modern MF signaling. b. Point Of Presence d. none of the above
F
10. The cable used for local loops is mainly:
48. Common-channel signaling reduces opportunities for stealing telephone service. a. twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable
T b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire d. fiber-optic

49. ADSL is faster than ISDN. T 11. FITL stands for:

a. Framing Information for Toll Loops c. Framing In The Loop
50. B-ISDN is a slower version of standard ISDN. F b. Fiber In the Toll Loop d. Fiber-In-The-Loop
12. DC current flows through a telephone:
MULTIPLE CHOICE a. when it is on hook c. as long as it is attached to a local loop
b. when it is off hook d. only when it is ringing
1. DTMF stands for:
a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency 13. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is:
b. Dial Tone Master Frequency a. 20 A to 80 A c. 2 mA to 8 mA
c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency b. 200 A to 800 A d. 20 mA to 80 mA
d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency
14. Loading coils were used to: 27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to:
a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data a. provide synchronization c. cancel echoes
b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals b. carry signaling d. check for errors
c. reduce crosstalk
d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop 28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called:
a. compensation c. justification
15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: b. rectification d. frame alignment
a. step-by-step switching control c. common control
b. crossbar control d. ESS 29. ISDN stands for:
a. Integrated Services Digital Network
16. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: b. Information Services Digital Network
a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC c. Integrated Services Data Network
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC d. Information Systems Digital Network

17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: 30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because:
a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC a. it took to long to develop
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC b. it is too slow
c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies
18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in d. all of the above
order to:
a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. allow signals to be multiplexed 31. ADSL stands for:
b. prevent "singing" d. all of the above a. All-Digital Subscriber Line c. Allocated Digital Service Line
b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line d. Access to Data Services Line
19. VNL stands for:
a. voltage net loss c. via net loss 32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically:
b. volume net loss d. voice noise level a. much faster c. much more expensive
b. about the same speed d. none of the above
20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to:
a. eliminate reflections c. improve signal-to-noise ratio
b. prevent oscillation d. reduce power consumption COMPLETION

21. The reference noise level for telephony is: 1. A _________ is a local calling area.
a. 1 mW b. 0 dBm c. 1 pW d. 0 dBr ANS: LATA

22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: 2. Central offices are connected together by _________ lines.
a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 60 ANS: trunk

23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: 3. One central office can be connected to another through a _________ office.
a. supergroups c. jumbogroups ANS: tandem
b. mastergroups d. all of the above
4. With 7-digit phone numbers, _________ thousand telephones can connect to a
24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using: central office.
a. SSB b. DSBSC c. PDM d. PCM ANS: ten

25. PABX stands for: 5. Call _________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due
a. Power Amplification Before Transmission to an overload of lines being used.
b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange ANS: blocking
c. Public Automated Branch Exchange
d. Public Access Branch Exchange 6. New _________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals.
ANS: digital
26. SLIC stands for:
a. Single-Line Interface Circuit c. Subscriber Line Interface Card 7. Most local loops still use _________ copper wire.
b. Standard Line Interface Card d. Standard Local Interface Circuit ANS: twisted-pair
8. As compared to a hierarchical network, a _________ network never needs more 24. In FDM telephony, _________ bands separate the channels in a group.
than one intermediate switch. ANS: guard
ANS: flat
25. Because of "bit robbing", a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only _________ kbps
9. _________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies. when used to send digital data.
ANS: Loading ANS: 56

10. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the red wire is called _________ 26. A _________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth
ANS: ring and twelfth frames.
ANS: superframe
11. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the green wire is called _________.
ANS: tip 27. In DS-1C, _________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock
rates.
12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the _________ wire is positive with respect ANS: stuff
to the other.
ANS: green 28. Busy and dial tone are referred to as _________signals because they use the
same pair of wires as the voice signal.
13. A telephone is said to have _________ the line when the central office sends it ANS: in-channel
dial tone.
ANS: seized 29. SS7 is the current version of _________ signaling.
ANS: common-channel
14. The _________ functions are provided by a SLIC.
ANS: BORSCHT 30. SS7 is a _________-switched data network.
ANS: packet
15. A _________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while
allowing full-duplex operation over a single pair of wires. 31. In ISDN, the _________ channel is used for common-channel signaling.
ANS: hybrid ANS: D

16. In a crosspoint switch, not all _________ can be in use at the same time. 32. In ISDN, the _________ channels are used for voice or data.
ANS: lines ANS: B

17. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively _________ signal voltage. 33. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated _________
ANS: large equipment.
ANS: TE1
18. The generic term for Touch-Tone signaling is _________.
ANS: DTMF 34. The A in ADSL stands for _________.
ANS: asymmetrical
19. A ________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line.
ANS: conditioned 35. In ADSL, the speed from the network to the subscriber is _________ than the
speed in the opposite direction.
20. In the telephone system, amplifiers are called _________. ANS: greater, faster
ANS: repeaters
21. An echo _________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex SHORT ANSWER
operation.
ANS: suppressor 1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If
the loop current is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop?
22. _________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the ANS: 1000 ohms
response of a typical telephone receiver.
ANS: C-message 2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If
the loop current is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone?
23. In FDM telephony, the modulation is usually _________. ANS: 200 ohms
ANS: SSB, SSBSC
3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.) 16. In synchronous transmission, control characters in the data require special
ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz handling, but flag sequences in the data do not. F

4. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay. 17. HDLC is very similar to SDLC. T
ANS: 1 dB
18. HDLC is a bit-oriented protocol. T
5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn?
ANS: 90 dBrn 19. When receiving digital data, it is possible to detect errors, but not to correct
them. F
6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB
TLP. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? 20. In digital data transmission, bad frames are usually retransmitted. T
ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP
21. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting burst errors. T

22. Hamming codes allow errors to be corrected without requiring retransmission. T

Chapter 9: Data Transmission
23. All schemes to detect errors require adding extra bits to the data being
transmitted. T
TRUE/FALSE
24. Huffman codes are as good as CRC codes at detecting errors, but are faster. F
1. Data can be sent either in serial format or in parallel format. T
25. Run-length encoding is a data-compression technique. T
2. For practical reasons, virtually all data communications is done in serial format. T
26. A "cipher" is, essentially, a secret code. T
3. The first binary code was invented in 1914. F
27. Both "private-key" and "public-key" encryption always require the addition of
4. A character code is the same as a data code. T extra bits to the data. T

5. The old Baudot code is no longer used. F 28. An advantage of public-key encryption is that it is not "computation-intensive",
meaning a computer doesn't have to do many numerical calculations to unencrypt
6. How fast data can be transferred is independent of the character code used. F (decrypt) the data. F

7. Both synchronous and asynchronous transmission require bit timing. T 29. A "digital signature" does not require the use of encryption. F

8. There is no "framing" in asynchronous transmission. F

MULTIPLE CHOICE
9. A "mark" is the same as a binary 1. T
1. In practical terms, parallel data transmission is sent:
10. Digital modulation is sometimes called "keying". T a. over short distances only c. over any distance
b. usually over long distances d. usually over a coaxial cable
11. Due to the "bursty" nature of most channel noise, simple parity is more or less
useless. T 2. The five-level teletype code was invented by:
a. the Morkum Company c. Western Union
12. An advantage of using a UART is that "buffer overflow" cannot happen. F b. the Teletype Company d. Emile Baudot

13. Synchronous transmission is much more efficient than asynchronous 3. Data codes are also called:
transmission. T a. character codes c. they do not have any other name
b. character sets d. both a and b
14. In synchronous transmission, the data stream is used to "lock" the receiver's
clock onto the transmitter's clock. T 4. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called:
a. FIGS data c. numerical data
15. Bit-oriented protocols are being replaced by the newer character-oriented b. binary data d. all of the above
protocols. F
5. Character codes include: 16. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission:
a. alphanumeric characters c. graphic control characters a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed
b. data link control characters d. all of the above b. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization
c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted
6. ASCII stands for: d. the channel must be noise-free
a. American Standard Character-set 2
b. American Standard Code for Information Interchange 17. HDLC:
c. American Standard Code 2 a. is an IBM product c. is identical to SDLC
d. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange b. is a bit-oriented protocol d. all of the above

7. BS, FF, and CR are examples of: 18. The use of flags in SDLC requires:
a. nonstandard character codes c. control characters a. "bit-stuffing" c. FEC
b. escape characters d. none of the above b. different flags at either end of a frame d. ARQ

8. LF stands for: 19. The initials ARQ are used to designate:

a. Line Feed c. Line Forward a. automatic request for resynchronization
b. Link Feed d. Link Forward b. automatic request for retransmission
c. automatic receiver queue
9. UART stands for: d. automatic request for queue
a. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter
b. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter 20. ARQ is used to:
c. Unaltered Received Text a. correct bit errors
d. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text b. correct synchronization problems
c. put data into a temporary buffer
10. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and receiver are: d. none of the above
a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits
b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock 21. FEC stands for:
c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits a. Fixed Error Control c. Forward Error Correction
d. not synchronized at all, hence the name "asynchronous" b. Forward Error Control d. False Error Condition

11. In asynchronous transmission, the time between consecutive frames is: 22. VRC is another name for:
a. equal to zero c. equal to the start and stop bit-times a. FEC b. ARQ c. LRC d. parity
b. equal to one bit-time d. not a set length
23. CRC stands for:
12. In synchronous transmission, the frames are: a. Control Receiver Code c. Cyclic Redundancy Check
a. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. Correct Received Character d. Cycle Repeat Character
b. much longer than asynchronous frames
c. 128 bytes long 24. Huffman codes:
d. 1024 bytes long a. allow errors to be detected but not corrected
b. allow errors to be detected and corrected
13. Synchronous transmission is used because: c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected
a. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed
b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required
c. it is easier to implement than asynchronous 25. Run-length encoding is used to:
d. all of the above a. encrypt data c. correct data
b. compress data d. none of the above
14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by
using: 26. Public-key encryption:
a. the clock bits c. the CRC bits a. allows the use of digital signatures
b. the data bits d. a separate clock line b. is used to convey symmetric keys
c. avoids the "password problem"
15. BISYNC: d. all of the above
a. is an IBM product c. requires the use of DLE
b. is a character-oriented protocol d. all of the above
27. SDLC stands for: 13. Clock sync is derived from the stream of _________ bits in synchronous
a. Synchronous Data Link Control c. Synchronous Data Link Character transmission.
b. Synchronous Data Line Control d. Synchronous Data Line Character ANS: data

28. HDLC is: 14. In the _________ protocol, each frame begins with at least two SYN characters.
a. a bit-oriented protocol c. an ISO standard ANS: BISYNC
b. based on SDLC d. all of the above
15. In HDLC, each frame starts with an 8-bit _________.
ANS: flag
COMPLETION
16. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are _________.
1. Parallel transmission can be used only for _________ distances. ANS: 01111110
ANS: short
17. BCC stands for _________ check character.
2. The term "baud" was named after Emil _________. ANS: block
ANS: Baudot
18. DLE stands for data link _________.
3. Data codes are also called _________ codes. ANS: escape
ANS: character
19. HDLC uses bit-_________ to prevent accidental flags.
4. The _________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between ANS: stuffing
personal computers.
ANS: ASCII 20. _________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad.
ANS: Burst
5. The two letters _________ designate the code character used to advance a
printer to the next page. 21. FEC stands for _________error correction.
ANS: FF ANS: forward

6. An asynchronous frame begins with the _________ bit. 22. An _________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad
ANS: start blocks.
ANS: ARQ
7. An asynchronous frame ends with the _________bit.
ANS: stop 23. Parity fails when an _________ number of bits are in error.
ANS: even
8. At the end of an asynchronous frame, the line will be at the _________ level.
ANS: mark, binary 1 24. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting _________ errors.
ANS: burst
9. An integrated circuit called a _________ is used in an asynchronous
communication system to convert between parallel and serial data. 25. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data _________.
ANS: UART ANS: compression

10. When receiving digital data, _________ are used to hold data until they can be 26. A _________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data.
read. ANS: cipher
ANS: buffers
27. A _________is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to
11. Synchronous communication is more _________ than asynchronous since there remember.
are fewer "overhead" bits. ANS: password
ANS: efficient
28. If the key is _________ enough, private-key encryption can be quite secure.
12. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 _________ to maintain synchronization in ANS: long
synchronous transmission.
ANS: transitions 29. Messages cannot be _________ using a public key.
ANS: decrypted
30. Because it is _________-intensive, public-key encryption can be slow. 9. Token passing can be implemented as a ring or as a bus. T
ANS: computation
10. A token is used to control access to the network. T

SHORT ANSWER 11. A token is generated by a node wishing to access the network. F

1. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? 12. On a bus network, all traffic shares a common channel. T
ANS: 64
13. CSMA networks must deal with "contention". T
2. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them
as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? 14. Token-passing networks must deal with "collisions" between two tokens. F
ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal)
15. On a CSMA/CD network, several nodes can try to access the channel
3. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? simultaneously. T
ANS: 30H to 39H
16. A "collision" will take a CSMA network down. F
4. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8
bits), what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a 17. Token rings never have collisions. T
frame is 1 msec long?
ANS: 10 seconds 18. CSMA works best when traffic is relatively light. T

5. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data, a parity bit, and two stop 19. A token-ring network can be implemented with a bus topology. T
bits (it could happen). Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.
ANS: 66.7% 20. A MAU will disconnect a defective node from a CSMA network. F

6. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit 21. Token-ring networks usually operate at 100 megabits per second. F
BCC at the end. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Calculate the efficiency
of the communication system. 22. Most LANs are based on the Ethernet type of network. T
ANS: 97.0%
23. Ethernet was originated by Microsoft with participation by Intel. F
24. IEEE 802.3 is a protocol based on Ethernet. T
Chapter 10: Local Area Networks
25. Ethernet-type networks are limited to a maximum speed of 100 Mbits per
second. F
TRUE/FALSE
26. Classic Ethernet is no longer used for new networks. T
1. The maximum extent of a local area network is one building. F
27. Originally, Ethernet used 10Base2 coaxial cable. F
2. An organization could have several local area networks in the same room. T
28. 100BaseT cable could be used in a new LAN installation. T
3. LANs can allow several people to access the same file at the same time. T
29. The "100" in 100BaseT designates the supported bit rate. T
4. LANs often use "dumb" terminals as workstations. F
30. The "Base" in 100BaseT indicates the cable carries an unmodulated signal. T
5. On a circuit-switched network, a data stream has a channel all to itself for the
duration of the connection. T 31. The "T" in 100BaseT indicates the cable is Thick coax. F

6. A "node" is a workstation or PC connected to a network. T 32. Ethernet uses CSMA/CD. T

7. In a star network, if one node fails, the entire network goes down. F 33. Ethernet type LANs use token passing. F

8. Hubs are, by definition, passive. F 34. In CSMA, a node must "listen" to the channel before trying to use it. T
35. 10BaseT cable usually uses RJ-45 connectors. T 2. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for:
a. Carrier Detection c. Collision Detection
36. 100BaseT cable requires a BNC connector. F b. Carrier Delay d. Collision Delay

37. Ethernet cannot use fiber-optic cables. F 3. The Internet is:

a. a network of networks c. a very large CSMA/CD network
38. Packets on a CSMA/CD network must be equal to or longer than some minimum b. a very large client-server network d. not really a network at all
size. T
4. Most LANs:
39. On a CSMA/CD network, there will be fewer collisions if longer packets are used. a. are based on Ethernet c. use UTP cable
T b. use CSMA/CD d. all of the above

40. Longer packets means more bits must be retransmitted after a collision. T 5. Dumb terminals are still used:
a. in token-passing networks
41. On a CSMA/CD network, only one node actually needs to "hear" a collision. F b. in networks requiring central monitoring
c. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring
42. A NIC gives a unique address to a node on a network. T d. none of the above

43. If coax is used, the ends must be left open to avoid reflections. F 6. In a circuit-switched network:
a. communication is half-duplex only
44. Typically, a NIC requires a 4-wire cable to connect to a hub. T b. each channel carries only one data stream
c. connection is usually done using a bus topology
45. CAT-5 UTP is actually the same as ordinary twisted-pair telephone wire. F d. all of the above

46. Standard Manchester line encoding can be used up to 100 Mbits per second. F 7. Each computer on a network is called a:
a. hub b. token c. node d. circuit
47. If 10BaseT cabling is used in a multinode LAN, then a hub cannot be used. F
8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems, token-passing rings are:
48. Compared to a hub, a switch reduces the chances for a collision. T a. slower c. not as widely used
b. more expensive d. all of the above
49. "Jabber" is failure mode for a NIC. T
9. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected
50. "Stacking" is a failure mode for a hub. F to:
a. a central ring c. a node
51. Network software is generally independent of the network topology. T b. a central bus d. none of the above

52. The same network software can be used on a token-passing network and on an 10. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:
Ethernet LAN. T a. packets c. carriers
b. nodes d. tokens
53. To a user on the network, a hard drive on the server looks like it is on the
workstation. T 11. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same
time, it is called:
54. In a client-server network, each node takes a turn at being the server. F a. a collision c. excess traffic
b. contention d. multiple access
55. Software that runs a client-server network must have true multitasking ability. T
12. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time, it is
called:
MULTIPLE CHOICE a. a collision c. excess traffic
b. contention d. multiple access
1. CSMA stands for:
a. Client-Server Multi-Access c. Carrier Server Master Application 13. One type of network that never has a collision is:
b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access d. none of the above a. CSMA c. token-passing
b. Ethernet d. all networks have collisions
14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch can be used to reduce the number of: 26. UTP stands for:
a. nodes c. packets a.Untwisted-Pair copper wire
b. users d. collisions b. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire
c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet
15. The effect of too many collisions is: d. Unicode Text Packet
a. the network goes down c. the cable overheats
b. the network slows down d. data is lost 27. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables, CAT-5 cables:
a. are cheaper c. allow faster bit rates
16. MAU stands for: b. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. all of the above
a. Multistation Access Unit c. Multiple Auxiliary Units
b. Multiple Access Unit d. none of the above 28. A hub:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
17. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
a. EIA 232 c. IEEE 802.3 c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
b. IEEE 488.1 d. CCITT ITU-E d. are more common in token-passing networks

18. Ethernet was invented by: 29. A switch:

a. IBM c. Xerox a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
b. INTEL d. Digital Equipment Corporation b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
19. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: d. are more common in token-passing networks
a. Manchester encoding c. NRZ encoding
b. Three-Level encoding d. AMI encoding 30. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:
a. it is cheaper when used in large networks
20. A 100BaseT cable uses: b. it is faster when used in large networks
a. fiber-optic cable c. RG-58U coaxial cable c. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks
b. twisted-pair copper wires d. 50-ohm coaxial cable d. all of the above

21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: 31. Broadband LANs:

a. the cable carries baseband signals a. modulate the data onto a carrier
b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps b. use coaxial cables
c. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system c. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access
d. none of the above d. all of the above

22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: 32. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in:
a. to increase the data rate a. peer-to-peer networks c. both a and b
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission b. client-server networks d. none of the above
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
d. all of the above 33. Record locking is used to:
a. store records securely on a server
23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: b. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously
a. to increase the data rate c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission d. none of the above
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
d. all of the above 34. The software that runs a client-server network must be:
a. UNIX-based c. multitasking
24. NIC stands for: b. WINDOWS-based d. Novell certified
a. Network Interface Card c. Network Interface Code
b. Network Interface Cable d. Network Internal Code 35. A "thin" client is:
a. basically, a PC with no disk drives c. same as a "dumb" terminal
25. 10BaseT cable typically uses: b. a node that rarely sends data d. all of the above
a. a BNC connector c. an RJ45 connector
b. a T connector d. an RS11 connector
COMPLETION
17. A 100BaseTX cable is a_________cable.
1. A LAN is a _________ Area Network. ANS: fiber-optic
ANS: Local
18. Hubs can be _________ to form, in effect, one big hub.
2. The Internet is a network of _________. ANS: stacked
ANS: networks
19. A switch looks at the _________ of each incoming packet.
3. In a _________ network, all nodes are connected to a central computer. ANS: address
ANS: star
20. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce _________
4. In a _________-switched network, users have a dedicated channel for the ANS: contention
duration of communications.
ANS: circuit
SHORT ANSWER
5. The _________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together.
ANS: topology 1. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring.
ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a
6. Ring networks often use _________-passing. prescribed order. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is
ANS: token made. It still works like a token-passing ring.

7. A _________ is a short section of a message in digital form. 2. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch?
ANS: packet ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. A switch
sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet.
8. _________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time.
ANS: Contention 3. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network?
ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails, the entire network is
9. A _________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same inoperative. If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network, it can be disconnected
baseband cable. and the network still functions.
ANS: collision
4. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit?
10. In CSMA/CD networks, all collisions must be _________. ANS: If a packet is too short, nodes at either end of a cable could get on, send a
ANS: detected packet, and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. The
collision would not be detected.
11. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be _________ before
using it. 5. What is a NIC address, and why is it unique?
ANS: quiet, free, unused, available
ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip
12. A "_________" cable links clusters of computers together. at the factory. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers, so the
ANS: backbone chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is
extremely small.
13. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to _________ bits per second.
ANS: 100 mega

14. In CSMA/CD, packets must have a _________ length to ensure that collisions are Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet
detected.
ANS: minimum
TRUE/FALSE
15. In CSMA/CD, the _________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are
detected. 1. Leased lines are the least expensive way to connect a WAN. F
ANS: length
2. A WAN can be implemented using circuit switching. T
16. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its _________.
ANS: NIC 3. A WAN can be implemented using packet switching. T
4. A WAN can be implemented using analog lines. T 30. Most WANs are set up to work as extensions of the LANs they interconnect. T

5. A WAN can be implemented using digital lines. T 31. There are only two ways to set up a WAN. F

6. Packet switching uses the shortest route. F 32. The term "bridge" is another name for a repeater. F

7. With packet switching, you never get a "busy signal". T 33. Bridges must examine the address field of each packet they see. T

8. With packet switching, you always get a "real-time" connection. F 34. Bridges function at the data-link level. T

9. Packets may not arrive at the destination in the same order they were sent. T 35. Routers operate at the network level. T

10. Packets are often blocked by channels that are too full or are disconnected. F 36. TCP/IP predates ISO OSI. T

11. Packets received out of order is a failure mode in packet switching. F 37. TCP/IP contains additional levels beyond the seven described by ISO OSI. F

12. In digital communications, errors within frames are detected and corrected at 38. The task of IP is to get packets to their intended destination. F
the data-link layer of a protocol stack. T
39. IP is simple but very "robust". T
13. Protocols are the various pieces of hardware used to transmit and receive digital
data. F 40. A problem with IP is that packets can get stuck traveling the network in an
endless loop. F
14. The ISO OSI is a protocol. F
41. IP continues to function even if parts of the network are destroyed. T
15. The network layer sets up the path through the network. T
42. One task of TCP is to detect lost packets. T
16. X.25 is a protocol. T
43. One task of TCP is to reorder received packets into their correct sequence. T
17. An X.25 frame is similar to an HDLC frame. T
44. UDP is a more sophisticated version of TCP. F
18. Each frame contains a virtual circuit. F
45. The Internet is a large network of other networks running the TCP/IP protocols.
19. Some packets only carry control bits. T T

20. X.25 gives reliable service even over relatively poor cables. T 46. The current 32-bit address scheme used on the Internet is highly efficient. F

21. Frame relay uses more error detection and correction than does X.25. F
22. Frame relay requires better quality cables than does X.25. T
23. Frame relay is faster than X.25. T
47. A domain-name server stores the address of every computer attached to the
Internet. F
48. An intranet is essentially a private Internet. T

24. Variable-length frames allow faster data rates than do fixed-length frames. F MULTIPLE CHOICE

25. Frame relay allows for variable-length packets. T 1. MAN stands for:
a. Manchester Access Network c. Metropolitan-Area Network
26. ATM is faster than frame relay. T b. Multiple-Area Network d. Multiple Access Network

27. ATM uses relatively large fixed-length frames. F 2. Packet switching is based on:
a. store-and-forward c. real-time delivery
28. ATM is designed to carry real-time information such as video. T b. switched circuits d. all of the above

29. ATM is best suited to fiber-optic cables. T 3. The number of layers in ISO OSI is:
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8
4. SNA stands for: 16. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network:
a. Standard Network Access c. Standard Network Architecture a. is essentially forever
b. Small Network Access d. Systems Network Architecture b. depends on elapsed time since transmission
c. depends on number of "hops" between nodes
5. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: d. is approximately 200 milliseconds
a. physical layer c. cable layer
b. link layer d. transport layer 17. HTTP stands for:
a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure
6. Bad frames are usually detected by the: b. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure
a. frame layer c. error-check layer c. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure
b. physical layer d. link layer d. Hypertext Transport Protocol

7. A virtual circuit is set up by the: 18. HTTP allows the use of:
a. user c. network a. dumb terminals c. browsers
b. link layer d. frame b. file transport d. none of the above

8. Frame Relay: 19. HTML stands for:

a. is faster than X.25 a. Hypertext Markup Language c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer
b. does less error checking than X.25 b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level d.High-speed Transfer-Mode Language
c. allows for variable length packets
d. all of the above 20. HTML allows:
a. telneting c. web page layout
9. ATM stands for: b. high-speed file transfer d. all of the above
a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode
b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode 21. FTP stands for:
c. Asynchronous Transmission Model a. File Transfer Protocol c. File Test Procedure
d. Automatic Test Mode b. File Transport Protocol d. Fast Transport Packet

10. A bridge: 22. FTP is used to:

a. separates a network into "collision domains" a. transfer files between a server on the network and a user
b. looks at the address of each packet b. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted"
c. operate at the data-link level c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network
d. all of the above d. none of the above

11. IP stands for: 23. SMTP stands for:

a. Internet Process c. Interconnect Protocol a. Short Message Transport Protocol
b. Internet Protocol d. Interconnect Procedure b. Simple Message Transport Protocol
c. Simple Mail Transport Protocol
12. TCP stands for: d. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure
a. Transmission Control Process c. Transfer Connection Protocol
b. Transmission Control Protocol d. none of the above 24. ISP stands for:
a. Internet Service Protocol c. Internet Service Procedure
13. Together, TCP/IP consists of: b. Internet Service Provider d. none of the above
a. 5 layers c. an application and a process
b. 7 layers d. datagrams 25. The standard Internet address (or URL) is:
a. a 32-bit binary number c.running out of available values
14. IP is a: b. four groups of base-ten numbers d. all of the above
a. connection-oriented protocol c. connectionless protocol
b. virtual circuit d. non-robust protocol 26. A DNS:
a. has become obsolete on the Internet
15. UDP stands for: b. translates words to numbers
a. User Datagram Protocol c. User Data Packet c. stores all domain addresses
b. User Data Protocol d. Universal Data Packet d. describes the Internet address-naming procedure
27. DNS stands for: 14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ________ rates.
a. Domain Name Server c. Domain Numbering System ANS: bit-error
b. Domain Name System d. Domain Naming System
15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ________ error checking.
28. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: ANS: less
a. a DNS c. a "firewall"
b. a "brick wall" d. the use of "spoofing" protocols 16. All ATM frames contain just ________ bytes.
ANS: 53
29. OSI stands for:
a. Open Systems Interconnection c. Open Systems Internet 17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ________-time
b. Open Standard Interconnection d. none of the above communications.
ANS: real

COMPLETION 18. ________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network.

ANS: Repeaters
1. A ________-Area Network would extend typically across a city.
ANS: Metropolitan 19. ________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to
retransmit it.
2. A ________-Area Network could extend across a nation. ANS: Bridges
ANS: Wide
20. ________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet.
3. A dedicated telephone line can be ________on a monthly basis. ANS: Routers
ANS: leased
21. TCP/IP goes back to the ________ of the 1970s.
4. The use of digital circuit-________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines. ANS: ARPANET, DARPANET
ANS: switched
22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ________was used first.
5. Packet switching is done on a store-and-________network. ANS: TCP/IP
ANS: forward
23. A ________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent.
6. A ________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital ANS: connectionless
communications.
ANS: protocol 24. HTTP allows the use of ________ that jump to other pages on the web.
ANS: hyperlinks
7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ________ layer.
ANS: physical 25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ________ cables.
ANS: fiber-optic
8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ________ layer.
ANS: data-link 26. A ________translates words in an Internet address to numbers.
ANS: DNS
9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ________ layer.
ANS: network 27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ________ for security.
ANS: firewall
10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ________.
ANS: CCITT 28. Voice over ________ is telephony done over the Internet.
ANS: IP
11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ________ layer.
ANS: frame 29. "________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet.
ANS: Streaming
12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ________ layer.
ANS: packet 30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ________.
ANS: ISP
13. The physical route of a ________ circuit changes each time it is used.
ANS: virtual
SHORT ANSWER
6. "Baud rate" is the same as bits per second. F
1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet.
ANS: Network number, Subnet number, Host number 7. A "mark" is a binary one. T

2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit?
ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the
network have messages for each other. The actual physical path can
change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like direct
circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit.
8. "Space" is another term for bandwidth. F
9. FSK is slow, but "robust". T
10. FSK makes efficient use of available bandwidth. F

3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable 11. FSK is used extensively in high-frequency radioteletype transmission. T
size?
ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths 12. PSK is typically faster than FSK. T
is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. More
processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets 13. "Dibit" is another term for PSK. F
per second through the network.
14. PSK is typically DPSK. T
4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a
protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all? 15. QPSK is typically DQPSK. T
ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big
layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of 16. Digital amplitude modulation is called QAM. F
independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program.
17. QAM uses PSK. T
5. What is a "hop"?
ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node 18. A "constellation diagram" shows the "symbols" used in QAM. T
in the network, it is considered to be one "hop".
19. CCITT is now ITU-T. T
6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops?
ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of 20. Equalization compensates for phase and frequency distortions in a channel. T
allowed hops. At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets
to zero, the packet is deleted from the network. 21. Signal complexity compensates for low S/N during transmission. F

7. Why should packets have a lifetime? 22. Receiver equalization requires a "training sequence" be sent at startup. T
ANS: If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the
network would continuously increase. At some point, there would be no 23. 54 kbps is about the maximum speed you can get from a telephone line modem.
bandwidth left to carry real traffic. T

24. High-speed modems cannot do data compression. F

Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems 25. High-speed modems cannot do error correction. F

26. MNP4 is an error-correction protocol. T

TRUE/FALSE
27. V.42 is a data-compression scheme. F
1. Little data communication is carried over voice-grade telephone lines. F
28. A computer is a DTE. T
2. The word "keying" is still used to denote digital modulation schemes. T
29. A MODEM is a DCE. T
3. ASK is rarely used for data communications. T
30. EIA-232D is the same as RS-232C. T
4. Information capacity is proportional to bandwidth. T
31. RS-232 describes a parallel port protocol. F
5. Information capacity is independent of noise. F
32. The response to RTS is DSR. F 4. In the equation I = ktB, I is measured in:
a. amperes c. bits
33. RTS and CTS provide a "handshake" between a DTE and a DCE. T b. amperes per second d. bits per second

34. +10 volts on an RS-232 control line is a HIGH or TRUE level. T 5. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the:
a. margin of noise c. number of possible states per symbol
35. +12 volts on an RS-232 signal line is a binary ONE. F b. modulation index d. maximum number of symbols per second

36. A line is active when it is "asserted". T 6. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when:
a. the eye is maximally open c. the eye is half open
37. "Smart" MODEMS are initialized with a string of "AT" commands. T b. the eye is maximally closed d. the eye alternately opens and closes

38. Twisted-pair telephone wire is not capable of more than about 4 kHz of 7. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of:
bandwidth. F a. too many bits high c. intermodulation distortion
b. too many bits low d. intersymbol interference
39. DSL carries high-speed data over twisted-pair telephone wire. T
8. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use:
40. CATV cables only carry signals one way: from the head-end to the subscriber. F a. FSK b. AFSK c. PSK d. QAM

41. Fiber-optic CATV cables carry analog signals. T 9. Instead of a single bit, a QPSK symbol contains:
a. a byte b. 4 bits c. a dibit d. a Q-bit
42. Typically, a NIC is required to interface a PC to a cable modem. T
10. To reduce the need for linearity, /4 DQPSK uses:
43. A cable modem is always on. T a. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees
b. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees
44. A DSL connection is always on. T c. angles of /4, 2/4, 3/4, and 4/4
d. double phase-shift angles
45. A cable modem shares the channel with other users. T
11. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" shows:
46. A DSL connection shares the loop with other subscribers. F a. location of symbols in "symbol space"
b. separation of symbols in "symbol space"
47. ADSL Lite is faster than standard ADSL. F c. effects of noise on symbols
d. all of the above
48. ADSL Lite requires a splitter at the subscriber end. F
12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are:
49. In practice, both ADSL Lite and a cable modem have comparable data rates. T a. amplitude and frequency c. frequency and phase angle
b. amplitude and phase angle d. I-bits and Q-bits

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. FSK stands for:
a. Full-Shift Keying
b. Frequency-Shift Keying
2.PSK stands for:
a. Pulse-Signal Keying
b. Pulse-Shift Keying
c. Full-Signal Keying
d. none of the above
c. Phase-Signal Keying
d. Phase-Shift Keying
13. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were:
a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK
b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK
14. ITU is an abbreviation for:
a. International Telephony Unit
b. International Telephony Union
c. International Telecommunications Union
d. International Telecommunications Units

3. QAM stands for: 15. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for:
a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation a. noise and interference
b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking b. uneven phase and frequency response
c. Quadrature Amplitude Marking c. low SNR
d. none of the above d. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel
16. The ITU is under the auspices of: 32. ADSL stands for:
a. CCITT b. the U.N. c. IEEE d. ANSI a. Asynchronous DSL c. Analog DSL
b. Asymmetrical DSL d. All DSL
17. The bits sent to allow equalization are called:
a. Gaussian bits c. a training sequence 33. In a CATV system, HFC stands for:
b. random bits d. a random sequence a. Head Frequency Control c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax
b. Hybrid Frequency Control d. Hybrid Fiber Control
18. The V.90 standard is issued by:
a. the EIA b. the TIA c. the ITU d. the ISO 34. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for:
a. Cable Modem Terminal Server
19. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all: b. Cable Modem Transmission System
a. data-compression schemes c. both a and b c. Cable Modem Terminal System
b. error-correction protocols d. none of the above d. Cable Modem Transmission Server

20. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both: 35. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for:
a. data-compression schemes c. both a and b a. Any DSL scheme c. ADSL Lite
b. error-correction protocols d. none of the above b. ADSL d. none of the above

21. In RS-232, flow control is done using:

a. RTS/CTS handshake c. both a and b COMPLETION
b. XON/XOFF characters d. none of the above
1. RTS means Request To _________.
22. The official name for RS-232C is: ANS: Send
a. RS-232C b. EIA-232D c. ISO-232C/D d. ANSI-232C
2. The response to RTS is _________.
23. In RS-232, a modem would be: ANS: CTS
a. a DTR b. a DSR c. a DCE d. a DTE
3. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift _________.
24. In RS-232, a personal computer would be: ANS: Keying
a. a DTR b. a DSR c. a DCE d. a DTE
4. DSR stands for _________ Set Ready.
25. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin: ANS: Data
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7
5. QAM stands for _________ Amplitude Modulation.
26. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin: ANS: Quadrature
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7
6. The number of symbols per second is called the _________ rate.
27. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: ANS: baud
a. TD and RD c. TD, RD, DSR, and signal ground
b. TD, RD, and signal ground d. TD, RD, RTS, CTS, and signal ground 7. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a _________.
ANS: dibit
28. Hardware flow control uses:
a. XON and XOFF b. TD and RD c. RTS and CT d. DSR and DCD 8. QPSK uses _________ different phase angles.
ANS: four
29. Software flow control uses:
a. XON and XOFF b. TD and RD c. RTS and CT d. DSR and DCD 9. DPSK stands for _________ PSK.
ANS: Delta
30. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin:
a. +15 volts b. +12 volts c. +9 volts d. all of the above 10. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a _________ diagram.
ANS: constellation
31. DSL stands for:
a. Data Signal Line c. Digital Subscriber Line 11. ITU stands for International _________ Union.
b. Digital Signal Line d. Double-Speed Loop ANS: Telecommunications
12. In QAM modems, _________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on 27. A DSLAM is a DSL Access _________.
a noisy line. ANS: Multiplexer
ANS: Trellis
13. _________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency SHORT ANSWER
and phase response on a line.
ANS: Equalization 1. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per
second with 16 possible states per symbol.
14. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about _________ ANS: 4000
bps.
ANS: 54k 2. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8
phase angles and 2 amplitude levels?
15. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is _________ bps. ANS: 16
ANS: 20k
3. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a
16. In RS-232, the _________line is asserted when the analog carrier from another data rate of 36 Mbps. If half the modems are active at any given time, what bit rate
modem is being received. can a customer expect?
ANS: CD, DCD, RLSD ANS: 720 kbps

17. Between hardware flow control and software flow control, _________ flow 4. A DMT system uses 4.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. Approximately how many bins
control is preferred. are there?
ANS: hardware ANS: 230

18. A voltage higher than _________ volts should be considered a high on an RS- 5. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second, how many possible states
232 receiver. must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps?
ANS: 3 ANS: 8

19. A _________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports.
ANS: null
Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques
20. ADSL stands for _________ DSL.
ANS: Asymmetrical
TRUE/FALSE
21. A typical CATV system is organized as a _________ network.
ANS: tree 1. Most communications systems require the sharing of channels. T

22. In a CATV system using cable modems, a _________ is used to put several 2. Multiple-access is the same as multiplexing. F
channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone.
ANS: CMTS 3. There are three basic ways to share media. T

23. _________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems 4. In FDM, each transmission has a frequency band all to itself. T
to a CMTS.
ANS: Ranging 5. TDM and FDM cannot be used simultaneously. F

24. _________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line 6. FDM cannot be used on fiber-optic cables. F
with dial-up service.
ANS: ADSL 7. DS-1 uses TDM. T

25. The _________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end. 8. In one out of every six DS-1 frames, the LSBs are used for signaling. T
ANS: lite
9. DS-3 is three times as fast as DS-1. F
26. _________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands
called tones or bins for ADSL. 10. A "time switch" is used to increase or decrease the bit rate. F
ANS: DMT
11. A "space switch" is used to change the time slot of the samples on a bus. F 5. A DS-1 signal contains:
a. 12 channels b. 24 channels c. 32 channels d. 64 channels
12. A space switch is used only with analog signals. F
6. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is:
13. The bus of a time switch is often called a "highway". T a. 64 kbps b. 256 kbps c. 1.536 Mbps d. 1.544 Mbps

14. Spread-spectrum is used on radio channels to overcome interference. T 7. Besides data bits, a DS-1 frame contains a:
a. timing bit b. T-bit c. signaling bit d. framing bit
15. A problem with spread-spectrum is that it is easily "blocked". F
8. In DS-1, a bit is "stolen" out of each channel:
16. With spread-spectrum, the signal-to-noise ratio can be less than one. T a. every frame c. every sixth frame
b. every other frame d. every twelfth frame
17. Spread-spectrum is affected less by Rayleigh fading than standard RF
technology. T 9. Moving signals from one line to another is called:
a. time switching c. line switching
18. "Frequency-hopping" is the only practical way to implement spread-spectrum. F b. space switching d. cross-point switching

19. Direct-sequence spread-spectrum adds "pseudo-random" bits to the data bits. T 10. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called:
a. time switching c. signal switching
20. In direct-sequence spread-spectrum, the number of added bits cannot exceed b. space switching d. crosspoint switching
the number of data bits. F
11. A digital space switch is a:
21. Both frequency-hopping and direct-sequence require synchronization of a. multiplexer c. computerized Strowger switch
receiver to transmitter. T b. TDM switch d. crosspoint switch

22. CDMA uses spread-spectrum. T 12. Spread-spectrum can be done by using:

a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c. direct-sequence method
23. With CDMA, all stations can be transmitting on the same band at the same time. b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above
T
13. The term "chip rate" is used in describing:
a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c. direct-sequence method
MULTIPLE CHOICE b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above

1. TDMA stands for: 14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence systems, compared to standard RF
a. Time Domain Multiple Access c. Tone Division Multiple Access systems, use:
b. Time-Division Multiple Access d. none of the above a. about the same bandwidth c. much less bandwidth
b. much more bandwidth d. approximately double the bandwidth
2. CDMA stands for:
a. Code-Division Multiple Access 15. "Processing gain" is another term for:
b. Carrier Division Multiple Access a. RF gain c. spreading gain
c. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement b. computer speed d. improved signal-to-noise ratio
d. none of the above
16. To calculate processing gain, divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by:
3. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. the digital data bit rate c. the S/N ratio
a. all the signals come from the same source b. bandwidth of original baseband d. the chip size
b. the signals come from different sources
c. TDM is used in RF communications 17. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be:
d. they mean the same thing a. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver
b. a wideband receiver d. a CDMA receiver
4. When calculating the maximum number of users, a limiting factor in FDM is:
a. the type of media used c. the bandwidth of each signal 18. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be:
b. the length of the channel d. all of the above a. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver
b. a wideband receiver d. a chiprate receiver
19. CDMA:
a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum 15. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called _________
b. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum switching.
c. cannot be used on an RF channel ANS: time
d. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously
16. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called
20. For optimal performance, CDMA requires the use of: _________ fading.
a. orthogonal PN sequences c. true-random PN sequences ANS: Rayleigh
b. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. none of the above
17. A PN sequence is a _________-random noise sequence.
ANS: pseudo
COMPLETION
18. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency _________.
1. Multiplexing allows many signals to _________ a channel. ANS: hopping
ANS: share
19. It is _________ to jam a spread-spectrum signal.
2. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA, TDMA, and _________. ANS: difficult
ANS: CDMA
20. It is _________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal.
3. In FDM, each signal uses part of the bandwidth _________ of the time. ANS: difficult
ANS: all
21. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called
4. In TDM, each signal uses all of the bandwidth _________ of the time. _________.
ANS: part ANS: chips

5. Using CDMA on a radio channel, all signals can transmit _________ of the time. 22. A chipping-rate of at least _________ times the bit rate of the data is common.
ANS: all ANS: ten

6. DS-1 is an example of _________-division multiplexing. 23. The 'C' in CDMA stands for _________.
ANS: time ANS: code

7. The AM radio band is an example of _________-division multiplexing. 24. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system, when no two transmitters use the same
ANS: frequency frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be _________.
ANS: orthogonal
8. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of _________ channels.
ANS: 24
SHORT ANSWER
9. T1 uses the _________line code.
ANS: AMI 1. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and
bandwidth for digital transmission?
10. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of _________ bits. ANS: The more bandwidth, the less time it takes to send a given amount of
ANS: 193 information. So the more bandwidth available, the higher the possible bit
rate.
11. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of _________ bits per second.
ANS: 1.544 Meg 2. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100
kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz?
12. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains _________ bits. ANS: 9
ANS: 8
3. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal?
13. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a _________. ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same
ANS: superframe part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. Because a spread-
spectrum signal is, by definition, spread out over a very wide bandwidth,
14. Switching signals from one line to another is called _________switching. jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal.
ANS: space
4. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal?
ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission, the signal power at any given
frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from
noise. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. And
without knowing the exact sequence being used, it is virtually impossible
to "de-spread" the signal.
5. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals?
ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when
the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one, as it is in spread-spectrum.
6. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA?
ANS: During transmission, the PN sequences determine which parts of the
available bandwidth the spread-spectrum signal will occupy. Assume you
have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. At some point in time, suppose
PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11, f12, f13, and
so forth. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy
frequencies f21, f22, f23, and so forth. If the two sets of frequencies, (f11,
f12, f13, ...) and (f21, f22, f23, ...), have no frequencies in common, then
the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal.
Chapter 14: Transmission Lines
TRUE/FALSE
1. A transmission line is a metallic cable. T
2. Coaxial cables are referred to as "unbalanced". T
3. "Balanced" means that both conductors are the same size. F
4. Twisted-pair telephone wire is a kind of transmission line. T
5. Cable resistance does not depend on frequency. F
6. Losses occur in the plastic dielectric of a transmission line. T
7. Basically, a transmission line looks like an inductor in series with a small resistor.
F
8. Distributed parameters (inductance and capacitance) are characteristic of
transmission lines. T
9. Transmission lines are often considered to be "lossless" at higher frequencies. T
10. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends mostly on the resistance of the
wires. F
11. The value of the load at the end of a transmission line must be equal to or less
than Z0. F
12. For coaxial cables, there are only a few standard values in common use. T
13. RF signals travel slower on a transmission line than they would through free
space. T
14. Energy can "reflect" from a load at the end of a cable and travel back to the
source. T
15. A "mismatched" line will cause reflections. T
16. The typical load on a cable, such as an antenna, has the same value at any
frequency. F
17. A mismatched line between a transmitter and an antenna could actually
damage the transmitter. T
18. A matched transmission line will exhibit "standing" waves. F
19. The optimum value for SWR is one. T
20. "Ghost" images on a cable TV indicate an impedance mismatch. T
21 If a cable is shorter than 1/16 of the signal's wavelength, it does not really
behave as a transmission line. T
22. Shorted stubs radiate more energy than open stubs do. F
23. It is often better to measure SWR at the load rather than the source. T
24. The only limit to the power that a transmission line can carry is the heat from
I2R losses. F
25. A length of transmission line can be used to match impedances at very high
frequencies. T
26. A circular graph called a "Jones" chart is commonly used to analyze transmission
lines. F
27. There is no practical way to connect a balanced line to an unbalanced line. F
28. A 1/4 wavelength transmission line can be used as a transformer. T
29. When used, stubs are usually inserted in series with a transmission line. F
30. Slotted-lines are only useful at lower frequencies. F
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. SWR stands for:
a. Shorted Wave Radiation c. Shorted Wire Region
b. Sine Wave Response d. none of the above
2. TDR stands for: 14. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its
a. Total Distance of Reflection c. Time-Domain Response characteristic impedance:
b. Time-Domain Reflectometer d. Transmission Delay Ratio a. would reflect as a positive pulse
b. would reflect as a negative pulse
3. An example of an unbalanced line is: c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
a. a coaxial cable c. an open-wire-line cable d. would not reflect at all
b. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable d. all of the above
15. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-
4. When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are circuit:
considered to be: a. would reflect as a positive pulse
a. lumped c. equal reactances b. would reflect as a negative pulse
b. distributed d. ideal elements c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
d. would not reflect at all
5. As frequency increases, the resistance of a wire:
a. increases c. stays the same 16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause:
b. decreases d. changes periodically a. standing waves c. higher voltage peaks on cable
b. loss of power to load d. all of the above
6. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called:
a. I2R loss c. the skin effect 17. VSWR stands for:
b. the Ohmic effect d. there is no such effect a. variable SWR c. voltage SWR
b. vacuum SWR d. none of the above
7. As frequency increases, the loss in a cable's dielectric:
a. increases c. stays the same 18. The impedance "looking into" a matched line:
b. decreases d. there is no loss in a dielectric a. is infinite c. is the characteristic impedance
b. is zero d. 50 ohms
8. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on:
a. the resistance per foot of the wire used 19. A Smith Chart is used to calculate:
b. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot a. transmission line impedances
c. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot b. propagation velocity
d. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot c. optimum length of a transmission line
d. transmission line losses
9. For best matching, the load on a cable should be:
a. lower than Z0 c. equal to Z0 20. Compared to a 300-ohm line, the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same
b. higher than Z0 d. 50 ohms power:
a. would be less c. would be the same
10. The characteristic impedance of a cable: b. would be more d. cannot be compared
a. increases with length c. increases with voltage
b. increases with frequency d. none of the above 21. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable:
a. directly c. by using a "balun"
11. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: b. by using a filter d. cannot be connected
a. the wire resistance c. the inductance per foot
b. the dielectric constant d. all of the above 22. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the impedance by:
a. assuming it to be zero c. multiplying it by 2
12. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short- b. dividing it by 2 d. dividing it by Z0
circuit:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse 23. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents:
b. would reflect as a negative pulse a. the voltage c. the impedance
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse b. the current d. none of the above
d. would not reflect at all
24. The center of the Smith Chart always represents:
13. The optimum value for SWR is: a. zero c. the characteristic impedance
a. zero c. as large as possible b. one d. none of the above
b. one d. there is no optimum value
25. A TDR is commonly used to: 14. SWR stands for ________-wave ratio.
a. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable ANS: standing
b. find the position of a defect in a cable
c. replace a slotted-line 15. The ideal value for SWR is ________.
d. all of the above ANS: one

16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ________ chart.

COMPLETION ANS: Smith

1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ________. 17. Short transmission-line sections called ________ can be used as capacitors or
ANS: unbalanced inductors.
ANS: stubs
2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ________ lines since both wires are
symmetrical with respect to ground. 18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ________ energy.
ANS: balanced ANS: absorb

3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ________ 19. A ________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load.
impedance. ANS: 3
ANS: characteristic
20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ________ end of a cable.
4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively ________ frequencies. ANS: load
ANS: low
21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ________
5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ________ parameters voltage of its dielectric.
instead of lumped ones. ANS: breakdown
ANS: distributed
22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ________.
6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ________ effect. ANS: Z0
ANS: skin
23.The ________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance.
7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ________ field ANS: center
inside the wire.
ANS: magnetic 24. A ________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer.
ANS: one-quarter
8. Dielectrics become more ________ as the frequency increases.
ANS: lossy 25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ________ domain.
ANS: frequency
9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ________.
ANS: length
SHORT ANSWER
10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ________ impedance.
ANS: surge 1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance
per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance.
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ________ ANS: Z0 = 200 ohms
line.
ANS: matched 2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is
.04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic impedance.
12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ANS: 386 ohms
________ polarity.
ANS: opposite 3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant r = 2.6 , what
is the velocity factor for the cable?
13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ANS: 0.62
________ wave.
ANS: standing
4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 10. Radio waves, like all other waves, must travel through some sort of medium. F
3000 kilometers along the cable?
ANS: 12.5 ms 11. An isotropic radiator radiates in one direction only. F

5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90 12. A "point source" would be an isotropic radiator. T
phase shift at 100 MHz?
ANS: 0.6 meters 13. The wavefront of a point source radiator would be a sphere. T

6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, 14. Beyond some distance from the source, we can approximate a wavefront by
what is the maximum voltage along the cable? assuming it is flat. T
ANS: 200 volts
15. The polarization of a plane wave is the direction of its magnetic field. F
7. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms, but is terminated with
a 75-ohm resistive load. What SWR do you expect to measure? 16. Polarization is either vertical or horizontal. F
ANS: 1.5
17. For best results, the transmitting and receiving antennas should have opposite
8. If a cable has an SWR of 1.5, what will be the absolute value of its voltage polarizations. F
coefficient of reflection?
ANS: 0.2 18. As radio waves travel outward, they are effectively attenuated by the
"spreading out" of the wavefront. T
9. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.2
transmits 100 watts into the line. How much power is actually absorbed by the 19. A power density of 100 10-9 W/m2 would be a strong radio signal. T
load?
ANS: 96 watts 20. An antenna is a passive device. T

10. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable, what would be the normalized 21. An antenna can have a gain specification greater than one. T
value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms?
ANS: 4 + j1 22. The power absorbed by a receiving antenna depends on its shape, not its size. F

23. Reflection of plane waves off a smooth surface is called "specular" reflection. T

Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation 24. Radio waves can be reflected, but not diffracted. F

25. Space waves work on a "line-of-sight" basis. T

TRUE/FALSE
26. Ground waves can follow the curvature of the earth to travel over the horizon. T
1. James Clerk Maxwell predicted radio waves in 1865 based on a set of equations
he derived. T 27. Ground waves are not reliable because they are affected by bad weather. F

2. Marconi demonstrated the existence of radio-waves in 1887. F
3. Electromagnetic radiation is in the form of TEM waves. T
4. Electromagnetic radiation is in the form of particles called photons. T
5. X rays are not electromagnetic radiation. F
6. Gamma rays are not electromagnetic radiation. F
7. Radio waves are electromagnetic radiation. T
8. Like light rays, Radio waves can be reflected. T
9. Free, empty space has a characteristic impedance of 377 ohms. T
28. Because of refraction in ionized layers of air, sky waves appear to "bounce" off
the sky and come back down to earth far from the source. T
29. Because of diffraction, radio waves can sometimes "bend" around a corner. T
30. At gigahertz frequencies, radio waves are absorbed by the ionosphere. F
31. Transmission of high-frequency (HF) radio waves is affected by "spots" on the
surface of the sun. T
32. It's possible for a radio signal to be detected 1000 miles from the transmitter
but not detected 500 miles from the transmitter. T
33. There is no effective way to compensate for fading. F
34. Communication by "bouncing" radio signals off the ionization trails of meteors is 14. EIRP stands for:
routinely done by some organizations. T a. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power
b. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
MULTIPLE CHOICE c. the Effective Internal Reflected Power
d. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power
1. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by:
a. Armstrong b. Hertz c. Maxwell d. Marconi 15. The "attenuation of free space" is due to:
a. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space
2. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: b. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere
a. Armstrong b. Hertz c. Maxwell d. Marconi c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the
wavefront
3. The technology that made cell phones practical was: d. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the
a. the microprocessor chip c. high-power microwave transmitters wavefront
b. the miniature cell-site d. all of the above

4. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: 16. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off:
a. high power levels c. reuse of frequencies a. a flat insulating surface of the right size
b. high antennas d. all of the above b. a flat dielectric surface of the right size
c. a flat metallic surface of the right size
5. Which of the following are electromagnetic: d. a flat body of water
a. radio waves c. gamma waves
b. light d. all of the above 17. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of:
a. reflection b. diffusion c. refraction d. diffraction
6. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are:
a. perpendicular to each other c. both a and b 18. Space waves are:
b. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. none of the above a. line-of-sight
b. reflected off the ionosphere
7. TEM stands for: c. same as sky waves
a. Transverse Electromagnetic c. True Electromagnetic d. radio waves used for satellite communications
b. Transmitted Electromagnetic d. none of the above
19. Sky waves:
8. In free space, radio waves travel at a speed of: a. are line-of-sight
a. 3 106 meters per second c. 3 10 miles per second
6
b. "bounce" off the ionosphere
b. 300 106 meters per second d. 300 106 miles per second c. are same as space waves
d. are radio waves used for satellite communications
9. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave:
a. vertical b. horizontal c. circular d. all of the above 20. Sky waves cannot be "heard":
a. close to the transmitter c. in the "silent" zone
10. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized b. far from the transmitter d. in the "skip" zone
antenna:
a. vertical b. horizontal c. circular d. all of the above 21. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called:
a. fading c. frequency diversity
b. diffraction d. spatial diversity
11. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. many 22. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of:
a. fading c. multipath distortion
12. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: b. diffraction d. cancellation due to reflection
a. an isotropic radiator c. a ground-wave antenna
b. a vertically polarized radiator d. none of the above 23. A "repeater" is used to:
a. send a message multiple times over a channel
13. Ground waves are most effective: b. send a message over multiple channels at the same time
a. below about 2 MHz c. at microwave frequencies c. extend the range of a radio communications system
b. above about 20 MHz d. when using horizontally polarized waves d. cancel the effects of fading
24. Cellular phone systems rely on: 9. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ________
a. high power c. the radio horizon ANS: sphere
b. repeaters d. the reuse of frequencies
10. At a far distance from the source, a radio wavefront looks like a flat ________-
25. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: wave.
a. the cell area is increased c. the power levels are increased ANS: plane
b. the cell area is split d. the number of channels is reduced
11. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ________ field.
26. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: ANS: electric
a. a "handoff" process occurs c. both cells will handle the call
b. a "sectoring" process occurs d. nothing occurs 12. The electric field of a radio wave is ________ to its magnetic field.
ANS: perpendicular
27. To receive several data streams at once, a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses:
a. a "funnel" receiver c. multiple receivers 13. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ________ to its
b. a "rake" receiver d. none of the above propagation direction.
ANS: perpendicular
28. The troposphere is the:
a. highest layer of the atmosphere 14. With ________ polarization, the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates
b. middle layer of the atmosphere as it travels through space.
c. lowest layer of the atmosphere ANS: circular
d. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere
15. An antenna is said to have ________ in a certain direction if it radiates more
29. Meteor-trail propagation is: power in that direction than in other directions.
a. used for radio telephony c. also called "ducting" ANS: gain
b. used to send data by radio d. not possible
16. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ________ as the wave-front moves
through space.
COMPLETION ANS: decrease

1. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by ________. 17. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ________ reflection.
ANS: Maxwell ANS: specular

2. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ________. 18. ________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary
ANS: Hertz between two different dielectrics.
ANS: Refraction
3. Radio waves are ________ electromagnetic waves.
ANS: transverse 19. The process of ________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner".
ANS: diffraction
4. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ________ m/sec.
ANS: 300 106 20. ________waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion.
ANS: Space
5. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called
________. 21.________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's
ANS: photons surface.
ANS: Ground
6. Unlike sound or water waves, radio waves do not need a ________ to travel
through. 22. ________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to
ANS: medium refraction.
ANS: Sky
7. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ________ volts per meter.
ANS: 3 106 23. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ________ waves
interfering with direct waves.
8. Waves from an ________source radiate equally in all directions. ANS: reflected
ANS: isotropic
24. The ________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received. Chapter 16: Antenna
ANS: skip

25. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ________ distortion. TRUE/FALSE

ANS: multipath
1. Antennas are considered to be active devices. F
26. Cell phones typically operate at a ________ power level.
ANS: low 2. Any antenna can transmit a signal as well as receive one. T

27. The ________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a 3. A half-wave dipole is an isotropic radiator. F
geographical area.
ANS: reuse 4. The "gain" of an antenna is often given as its performance relative to a half-wave
dipole. T
28. ________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas, each covering a
third of the cell area, to reduce interference. 5. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called a "Hertz" antenna. T
ANS: Sectoring
6. A "Hertzian Dipole" is a theoretical concept and not a real antenna. T
29. The use of ________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology.
ANS: microprocessor 7. A half-wave dipole is actually 5% longer than half a wavelength. F

8. A half-wave dipole radiates uniformly in all directions. F

SHORT ANSWER
9. The horizontal radiation pattern of a half-wave dipole is symmetrical front and
1. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6. 3 1010 F/m and the same permeability back. T
as free space. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric?
ANS: 45 ohms 10. Compared to a point-source radiator, a half-wave dipole has gain. T

2. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt, what is the power density 11. A half-wave dipole does not have directivity. F
10,000 meters from the source?
ANS: 796 pW/ m2 12. In general, the near-field radiation pattern of an antenna is not the same as its
far-field radiation pattern. T
3. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power
density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 W/ m2? 13. The front-to-back ratio of a dipole is 0 dB. T
ANS: 113 watts
14. Antenna gain given in dBd is gain relative to a half-wave dipole. T
4. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/ m2 of power density to function, how far away
from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work? 15. The input impedance of an antenna at resonance is infinity. F
ANS: 8.9 km
16. A center-fed dipole antenna is a balanced load. T
5. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km
apart. What, approximately, is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the 17. The input impedance of a center-fed dipole increases as the separation between
towers are the same? the cable connections is increased. T
ANS: 37 meters
18. The polarization of a dipole antenna is always horizontal. F
6. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of
reflecting structures. If the car is traveling 36 km/hour, what is the expected time 19. A folded dipole has a wider bandwidth than a simple dipole. T
between fades?
ANS: 15 msec 20. A folded dipole has a higher input impedance than a simple dipole. T
21. There is actually no such thing as a "monopole" antenna. F

22. Vertical antennas typically need a ground plane. T

23. The earth itself can be a ground plane. T

24. The sheet-metal body of a car can be a ground plane. T 2. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:
a. a Marconi antenna c. a Yagi antenna
25. A helical antenna cannot receive vertically polarized radio waves. F b. a Hertz antenna d. none of the above

26. A helical antenna cannot receive horizontally polarized radio waves. F 3. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually:
a. one wavelength c. slightly longer than a half-wavelength
27. A typical helical antenna can receive either clockwise or counterclockwise b. one half-wavelength d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength
circularly polarized waves, but not both. T
4. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the:
28. An antenna must be resonant at the frequency it is transmitting or receiving. F a. standing wave pattern around the antenna
b. SWR along the feed cable
29. A nonresonant antenna can cause a high SWR in the transmission line c. radiation resistance of the antenna
connected to it. T d. I2R loss of the antenna

30. Any antenna will transmit radio waves as long as an RF current is flowing in it. T 5. Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave
dipole antenna is strongest:
31. A "loading coil" is used to make an antenna appear longer to a signal than its a. in one direction c. in all directions
physical length. T b. in two directions d. depends on the number of elements

32. Antennas cannot be made to appear shorter to a signal than their actual 6. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other
physical length. F directions is called:
a. directivity c. active antenna
33. A phased array is a driven array. T b. selectivity d. resonance

34. A Yagi array is a "parasitic" array. T 7. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to:
a. the radiated signal c. the SWR
35. A Yagi array is unidirectional. T b. the reflected signal d. all of the above

36. A Log-Periodic Dipole array is a "parasitic" array. F 8. An antenna's beamwidth is measured:

a. from +90 to 90 c. between half-power points
37. A Log-Periodic Dipole array is unidirectional. T b. from front to back d. between the minor side-lobes

38. A Turnstile array is unidirectional. F 9. ERP stands for:

a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern c. Equivalent Radiated Power
39. Stacked Yagis form a phased array. T b. Effective Radiation Pattern d. Effective Radiated Power

40. A parabolic "dish" can be a reflector. T 10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused
by:
41. A flat piece of metal can be a reflector. T a. radio signals reflecting off the ground
b. buildings and other structures on the ground
42. A piece of sheet metal bent at a 90 angle can be a reflector. T c. fading
d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground
43. A piece of thin metal tubing can be a reflector. T
11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be:
44. Only certain types of antennas, such as "horns", can be used with a parabolic a. mounted vertically c. at least one half-wavelength long
reflector. F b. mounted horizontally d. at least one wavelength long

45. An anechoic chamber requires highly reflective surfaces.F 12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a:
a. dipole c. ferrite "loop-stick"
b. folded dipole d. none of the above
MULTIPLE CHOICE
13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by:
1. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. gamma rays c. helical rotation
a. 0 dB b. 3 dB c. 10 dB d. infinite b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled
14. A nonresonant antenna: 4. The ________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to
a. will not transmit c. will cause SWR on the feed cable transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna.
b. will not receive d. all of the above ANS: radiation

15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: 5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about
a. resistive b. inductive c. capacitive d. infinite ________ .
ANS: 70
16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using:
a. a shorted stub c. an LC network 6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about
b. a loading coil d. all of the above ________ .
ANS: 280 300
17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased:
a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases 7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ________.
b. the number of nodes decreases d. none of the above ANS: elevation

18. Arrays can be: 8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ________
a. phased b. driven c. parasitic d. all of the above coordinates.
ANS: polar
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is
called a: 9. As compared to a ________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi.
a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole
b. Yagi d. stacked array ANS: point, isotropic

20. LPDA stands for: 10. Antenna gain measured in ________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole.
a. Low-Power Dipole Array c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array ANS: dBd
b. Low-Power Directed Array d. Log Power Dipole Array
11. ________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna.
21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: ANS: Directivity
a. collimated b. phased c. dispersed d. none of the above
12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ________ dB.
22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: ANS: 0
a. center b. edges c. focus d. horn
13. The ________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power
23. Antennas are often tested in: points.
a. an echo chamber c. a vacuum chamber ANS: beamwidth
b. an anechoic chamber d. an RF reflective chamber
14. ERP stands for ________ radiated power.
24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: ANS: effective
a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter
b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter 15. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ________.
ANS: gain

COMPLETION 16. A ________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole

antenna.
1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ________. ANS: balun
ANS: space
17. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ________ polarization.
2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ________. ANS: horizontal
ANS: dipole
18. A folded dipole has ________ bandwidth than a standard dipole.
3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ________% of a half-wave in free space. ANS: wider, greater, more
ANS: 95
19. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ________ direction.
ANS: vertical
 5. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt?
20. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ________ wavelength. ANS: 10 watts
ANS: one-quarter, 1/4
6. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100
21. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ________ plane. watts. What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the antenna?
ANS: ground ANS: 100 volts

22. A vertical antenna has an ________ radiation pattern for ground-based

receivers.
ANS: omnidirectional Chapter 17: Microwave Devices

23. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ________.

ANS: one TRUE/FALSE

24. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ________ element. 1. By convention, microwave frequencies are 1 GHz and above. T
ANS: parasitic
2. Transmission line losses decrease at microwave frequencies. F
25. An LPDA is a ________ dipole array.
ANS: log-periodic 3. Semiconductor transit time can be ignored at microwave frequencies. F

26. If an LPDA had five elements, the number of driven elements it had would be 4. Leads on semiconductor devices have significant inductance at microwave
________. frequencies. T
ANS: five
5. Waveguides are essentially pipes through which electromagnetic fields
27. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ________. propagate. T
ANS: focus
6. Waveguides act as low-pass frequency filters for microwaves. F
28. A ________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other.
ANS: collimated 7. Waveguides often have significant radiation loss. F

29. A microwave ________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide. 8. Waveguides do not have significant dielectric losses. T
ANS: horn
9. Multimode propagation causes dispersion of a pulse as it travels through a
30. An ________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas. waveguide. T
ANS: anechoic
10. Usually, a waveguide should use only one mode of propagation. T

SHORT ANSWER 11. Single-mode propagation causes some dispersion of a pulse as it travels through
a waveguide. T
1. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz.
ANS: 475 millimeters 12. Typically, waveguides carry TEM waves. F

2. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts? 13. In a rectangular waveguide, TE10 is the dominant mode. T
ANS: 95 watts
14. Circular waveguides are possible, but are not used in practice. F
3. If an antenna has 10.14 dB of gain compared to a point source, how much gain
does it have compared to a half-wave dipole? 15. The cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide depends on the longer
ANS: 8 dB dimension of its cross section. T
4. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 16. Group velocity is how fast a signal travels through a waveguide. T
watts. What is the RMS current in the antenna?
ANS: 1 ampere 17. Group velocity is significantly less than the speed of light. T

18. Phase velocity is another term for group velocity. F

19. Group velocity increases as the signal frequency increases. T 45. A parabolic dish is commonly used with a "horn". T

20. Guide wavelength is calculated using the phase velocity. T 46. A horn is a type of impedance matcher. T

21. Guide wavelength is always shorter than free-space wavelength. F 47. A horn is a type of antenna. T

22. Phase velocity in a waveguide is always greater than the speed of light. T 48. A piece of Teflon in front of a horn can act as a lens. T

23. Waveguide impedance is a function of frequency. T 49. All radar devices rely on the Doppler effect. F

24. Waveguide impedance is always equal to or less than 377 ohms. F 50. Radar has a maximum range, but no minimum range. F

25. Impedance matching on a waveguide can be done with a brass screw. T
26. At microwave frequencies, a cavity in a piece of metal acts like an LC circuit. T
27. Resonant cavities cannot be tuned.F
51. Radar can discriminate between two targets that are in the same "line-of-sight".
T
52. Absorption and scattering by a target can reduce the effectiveness of radar. T

28. An isolator uses multiple ports to separate signals. F MULTIPLE CHOICE

29. Circulators rely on the magnetic properties of ferrites. T 1. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at:
a. 100 MHz b. 1 GHz c. 10 GHz d. 100 GHz
30. A Gunn device contains a P-N junction. F
2. The UHF range is:
31. A Gunn device uses its transit time to produce microwave oscillations. T a. below the microwave range c. above the microwave range
b. inside the microwave range d. same as the microwave range
32. A Gunn device uses "negative resistance" to produce microwave oscillations. T
3. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on:
33. An IMPATT diode is often a 4-layer device. T a. the shape of the waveguide c. the point of signal injection
b. the power level of the signal d. none of the above
34. The frequency of oscillation of an IMPATT diode depends on its physical
dimensions. T 4. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is:
a. TE01 b. TM 01 c. TE10 d. TM10
35. The frequency of oscillation of an IMPATT diode depends on the resonant cavity
it is in. T 5. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is:
a. TE 01 b. TM 01 c. TE11 d. TM11
36. A YIG oscillator cannot be tuned. F
6. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because:
37. A magnetron is actually a type of vacuum tube. T a. it is dominant c. it is the only mode possible
b. of its circular symmetry d. it is more efficient
38. A magnetron is a high-power fixed-frequency oscillator. T
7. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:
39. A magnetron is easily tuned. F a. is fixed
b. depends on the frequency it carries
40. A klystron is a vacuum tube device used for high-stability amplification of c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section
microwave signals. T d. both b and c

41. Klystrons can produce power in the megawatt range. T 8. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide:
a. with a magnetic field probe c. through a hole in the waveguide
42. Traveling-wave tubes can oscillate, but not amplify. F b. with an electric field probe d. all of the above

43. Traveling-wave tubes are distinguished by their wide bandwidths. T 9. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by:
a. their insertion loss c. their directivity
44. A parabolic dish, like a dipole, is a type of antenna. F b. their coupling specification d. all of the above
10. Striplines and microstrips are used to: 22. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the:
a. couple sections of waveguide a. TWT b. klystron c. magnetron d. YIG
b. couple waveguides to antennas
c. couple components on a circuit board 23. A microwave phased array is often made using:
d. none of the above a. slots b. Yagis c. Fresnel lenses d. all of the above

11. A resonant cavity is a type of: 24. RADAR stands for:

a. tuned circuit c. antenna a. radio ranging c. radio detection and ranging
b. defect in a waveguide d. none of the above b. radio depth and ranging d. remote detection and ranging

12. A TEE connector used with waveguides is: 25. RADAR uses:
a. an H-plane TEE c. a "magic" TEE a. pulsed transmission c. the Doppler effect
b. an E-plane TEE d. all of the above b. continuous transmission d. all of the above

13. TWT stands for: 26. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar:
a. Transverse Wave Transmission c. Traveling-Wave Tube a. increases with increasing repetition rate
b. Transverse-Wave Tube d. Traveling-Wave Transmission b. decreases with increasing repetition rate
c. decreases with increasing pulse period
14. An "isolator" is a device that: d. none of the above
a. isolates frequencies in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only 27. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar:
c. separates signals among various ports a. increases with increasing pulse duration
d. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide b. decreases with increasing pulse duration
c. is always a tenth of the maximum range
15. A "circulator" is a device that: d. none of the above
a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c. separates signals among various ports COMPLETION
d. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide
1. ________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a
waveguide.
16. GaAs stands for: ANS: Dispersion
a. gallium arsenide c. gallium astenite
b. gallium assembly d. none of the above 2. The electric field is ________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide.
ANS: zero
17. IMPATT stands for:
a. impact avalanche and transit time 3. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ________ mode.
b. induced mobility at transmission time ANS: dominant
c. implied power at transmission terminal
d. none of the above 4. In TE10 mode, the ________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross
section.
18. YIG stands for: ANS: electric
a. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium d. none of the above 5. In TE20 mode, the electric field has ________ peaks in the waveguide cross
section.
19. A YIG can be tuned by applying: ANS: two
a. an electric field c. mechanical pressure
b. a magnetic field d. an "exciter" signal 6. In a circular waveguide, ________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry.
ANS: TM01
20. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the:
a. TWT b. klystron c. magnetron d. YIG 7. A waveguide acts as a ________-pass filter.
ANS: high
21. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the:
a. TWT b. klystron c. magnetron d. YIG
8. In a waveguide, group velocity is always ________ than the speed of light. 4. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its
ANS: slower cutoff frequency.
ANS: 346 106 meters per second
9. In a waveguide, phase velocity is always ________than the speed of light.
ANS: faster 5. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff
frequency.
10. In a waveguide, impedance ________ as frequency increases. ANS: 173 millimeters
ANS: decreases

11. A ________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES. 6. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per
ANS: hybrid second.
ANS: 15 km
12. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ________ compared to lumped LC circuits.
ANS: high 7. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-sec
duration pulses.
13. A wavemeter is a resonant ________ with an adjustable plunger. ANS: 300 meters
ANS: cavity

14. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ________.

ANS: resistance Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems

15. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ________ tubes.

ANS: wave TRUE/FALSE

16. Both klystrons and TWTs are ________-beam tubes. 1. Microwave links are still used to carry telephone signals. T
ANS: linear
2. Microwave links carry analog data only. F
17. A ________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it.
ANS: slot 3. Microwave links carry video signals for television. T

18. A ________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a 4. Microwave links are point-to-point. T
ground plane on the other side.
ANS: patch 5. Microwave links are always "multi-hop". F
19. The radar cross section of a target is typically ________ than its actual size. 6. Microwave links are line-of-sight. T
ANS: smaller
7. Because of reliability, microwave links typically suffer about one hour of
20. The frequency of the returned signal will be ________ than the transmitted "downtime" a month. F
signal if the target is moving toward the radar antenna.
ANS: higher 8. Microwave systems should use as few repeaters as possible. T

9. In analog microwave systems, additional links add to the noise level. T

SHORT ANSWER
10. In digital microwave systems, additional links have no negative affects. F
1. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer
dimension of its cross section is 5 cm. 11. Microwave links typically use power levels under 10 watts. T
ANS: 3 GHz
12. The "line-of-sight" distance for microwaves is about a third longer than it is for
2. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its visible light. T
cutoff frequency.
ANS: 260 106 meters per second 13. Diffraction is not an issue with microwave links. F

3. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH = 60 mm. 14. Antenna height for microwave links must be below the "Fresnel zone". F
ANS: 14.8
15. For analog microwave systems, the carrier-to-noise ratio must exceed a certain 8. Too much antenna gain causes:
minimum. T a. a very narrow microwave beam c. excessive noise
b. a very wide microwave beam d. jitter
16. For microwave links, it is more convenient to use noise temperature than noise
figure. T 9. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least:
a. 60% of the Faraday zone c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower
17. For digital microwave links, energy per bit is a key parameter. T b. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. 60% of the highest obstacle height

18. An Eb / N0 ratio of about 3 dB is sufficient for most digital microwave links. F
19. Above 10 GHz, fading due to rain is not a problem. F
20. One cause of fading in a microwave system is "ducting". T
10. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as:
a. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value
b. an ERP level that exceeds a given value
c. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value
d. none of the above

21. Compensation for fading due to multipath reception is usually done using
"diversity". T
22. Diversity can be achieved by mounting two antennas on a tower, one above the
other. T
11. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a:
a. low level of transmitted power
b. high level of ERP
c. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio
d. good energy per bit per noise density ratio

23. Diversity can be achieved by using two microwave frequencies. T 12. Fading is caused by:
a. multipath reception c. ducting
24. Repeaters typically receive a signal and retransmit it on the same frequency. F b. attenuation due to weather d. all of the above

25. Analog microwave repeaters can be either "baseband" or "IF" repeaters. T 13. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using:
a. diversity b. power c. high-gain antennas d. all of the above
26. MMDS systems are bidirectional. F
14. Repeaters are used in a microwave system:
27. LMDS systems are bidirectional. T a. always c. above 10 GHz
b. when distance exceeds line-of-sight d. below 10 GHz

MULTIPLE CHOICE 15. Microwave repeaters can be:

a. IF type c. regenerative type
1. Another term for a single microwave link is a: b. baseband type d. all of the above
a. section b. hop c. skip d. jump
16. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is:
2. Microwave systems use: a. less bandwidth is required c. it requires less power
a. FM b. SSB c. QAM d. all of the above b. accumulation of noise is reduced d. all of the above

3. The typical reliability of a microwave system is: 17. MMDS stands for:
a. 90% b. 99% c. 99.9% d. 99.99% a. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System
b. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System
4. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: c. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System
a. 2 watts b. 20 watts c. 200 watts d. none of the above d. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems

5. In analog microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the: 18. LMDS stands for:
a. reliability b. noise level c. jitter d. all of the above a. Local Microwave Distribution System
b. Local Multipoint Distribution System
6. In digital microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the: c. Local Multichannel Distribution System
a. reliability b. noise level c. jitter d. all of the above d. Low-power Microwave Distribution System

7. LOS stands for: 19. LMDS is:

a. Loss Of Skip c. Line-Of-Sight a. bidirectional c. multidirectional
b. Loss Of Signal d. Line-Of-Signal b. unidirectional d. none of the above
COMPLETION SHORT ANSWER

1. One microwave link is called a _________. 1. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km, what would it be,
ANS: hop approximately, for a microwave beam?
ANS: 16 km
2. STL stands for _________-to-transmitter links.
ANS: studio 2. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km
between antennas. An obstacle in the path is located midway between the two
3. A typical microwave system has about one hour per _________ or less of antennas. By how much must the beam clear the obstacle?
downtime. ANS: 16.4 meters
ANS: year
3. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. How many
4. Adding more links causes _________ in a digital microwave system. dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt, and both the
ANS: jitter sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi?
ANS: 42.4 dBm
5. In microwave systems, it is more convenient to use noise _________ than noise
figure in calculations. 4. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of
ANS: temperature 150 K. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced
to the receiver input.
6. In digital microwave systems, the energy per bit per _________ is a key ANS: 201 K
parameter.
ANS: noise density 5. A microwave receiver receives 60 dBm of signal. The noise power is 100 dBm.
What is the carrier-to-noise power ratio?
7. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of _________. ANS: 40 dB
ANS: fading

8. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of

_________ diversity in a microwave system. Chapter 19: Television
ANS: space

9. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of _________. TRUE/FALSE

ANS: diversity
1. Video systems form pictures by a scanning process. T
10. Microwave systems generally use less than _________ watts of power.
ANS: ten 2. The NTSC system is used in North America. T

11. _________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line- 3. The NTSC system is used in Europe. F
of-sight distance.
ANS: Repeaters 4. The NTSC system is used in Japan. T

12. Analog microwave systems use both IF and _________ repeaters. 5. The PAL system is no longer used in much of the world. F
ANS: baseband
6. The SECAM system is used in Europe. T
13. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of _________ as a
signal goes from link to link. 7. In North America, TV uses 60 frames a second. F
ANS: noise
8. NTSC systems use an interlaced scan. T
14. MMDS is unidirectional, but _________ is bidirectional.
ANS: LMDS 9. The standard TV aspect ratio is 5:3. F

10. The electron beam in a TV CRT is blanked during horizontal retrace. T

11. The electron beam in a TV CRT is blanked during vertical retrace. T
12. The standard analog TV signal is called composite video. T
13. A few commercial TV stations broadcast RGB video. F
14. Most color monitors for personal computers use RGB video. T
15. The luminance signal controls the brightness of a scan line. T
16. The standard synchronization for TV is called positive sync. F
17. The sync pulses are said to be "blacker than black". T
18. The negative peak of a video signal occurs during a sync pulse.T
19. The peak video signal occurs at the blanking level. F
20. The duration of the vertical blanking pulse identifies which picture field is
present. F
21. Closed-caption signals can be sent during the vertical blanking time. T
22. Horizontal and vertical resolution in a TV system are determined in the same
way. F
23. The resolution seen by a viewer depends to a certain extent on the TV receiver.
T 48. "Ultor" is a color phosphor. F
24. Horizontal resolution is equal to the number of visible scan lines. F
25. Resolution is proportional to bandwidth. T
26. Because of the way people perceive color, any color can be made with red,
green, and blue. T
27. NTSC color television is not compatible with NTSC monochrome television. F
28. In an NTSC color TV system, luminance is derived from the RGB signals. T
29. Horizontal resolution for color in NTSC is much less than it is for luminance. T
30. NTSC uses a suppressed-carrier system to add color information to the video
signal. T
31. NTSC uses a type of amplitude modulation for the video signal. T
32. A standard video broadcast channel is about 4.5 MHz wide. F
33. The audio signal in NTSC video uses FM. T
34. Color NTSC receivers use a "color-burst" oscillator to create the color signals. F
35. A standard broadcast video signal reaches zero level twice per frame. F
36. An analog television receiver uses a type of superheterodyne circuit. T
37. The accelerating voltage applied to the CRT in a TV receiver is several thousand
volts. T
38. Color TVs use a higher accelerating voltage than do monochrome receivers. T
39. The CRTs commonly used in TV receivers use electrostatic deflection. F
40. The "yoke" is part of the deflection circuit. T
41. Color TV receivers do not have a "raster". F
42. There is very high voltage at the flyback transformer in a TV receiver. T
43. Most of the supply voltages in a TV receiver come from the horizontal output
transformer. T
44. A typical color CRT contains three electron guns. T
45. A typical monochrome CRT contains a "shadow mask". F
46. In a color CRT, "purity" means each electron beam hits the correct color
phosphor. T
47. "Aquadag" is a color phosphor. F
49. In a CATV system, the main antenna is at the "head end". T
50. Like a PSTN central office, the typical CATV system is configured as a star
network. F
51. Noninterlaced scanning is called "progressive" scanning. T
52. HDTV uses the same aspect ratio as standard NTSC. F
53. An HDTV signal cannot fit into the bandwidth of a standard broadcast TV
channel. F
54. Digital encoding and compression play a significant role in HDTV. T
55. The FCC has set the phase-out of analog TV broadcasting for the year 2006. T
56. Color CRTs emit X rays. T
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. NTSC stands for:
a. National Television Systems Commission
b. National Television Systems Committee
c. National Television Systems Council
d. Nippon Television Systems Commission
2. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: 17. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to:
a. FCC b. IRE c. EIA d. IEEE a. luminance signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color
component
3. RGB stands for: b. composite color signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase
a. Red-Green Burst c. Red-Green Bandwidth color component
b. Red-Green Brightness d. Red-Green-Blue c. composite video signal, in-phase video component, quadrature video
color component
4. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: d. a method of demodulating stereo sound
a. 525 b. 625 c. 1024 d. 1250
18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
5. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
a. 25 b. 30 c. 50 d. 60 b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM

6. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: 19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver
a. 25 b. 30 c. 50 d. 60 is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
7. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
a. 3 : 4 b. 4 : 3 c. 525 : 625 d. 625 : 525
20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver
8. Luminance refers to: is:
a. brightness b. contrast c. chroma d. raster a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
9. Luminance is measured in:
a. foot-candles b. lumins c. IRE units d. NTSC units 21. The function of the "color burst" is to:
a. detect the presence of a color video signal
10. The maximum luminance level is called: b. regenerate the color sub-carrier
a. max white c. all white c. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line
b. peak white d. whiter than white d. all of the above

11. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: 22. SAP stands for:
a. white c. whiter than white a. separate audio program c. sync amplitude pulse
b. black d. blacker than black b. separate audio pulse d. sync audio pulse

12. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: 23. The horizontal output transformer is also called:
a. white c. whiter than white a. the isolation transformer c. the flyback transformer
b. black d. blacker than black b. the video transformer d. the yoke

13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: 24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is:
a. maintain horizontal sync c. equalize the DC level a. about the same c. much lower
b. maintain vertical sync d. all of the above b. much higher d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration

14. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution:
a. is greater than vertical resolution
b. is about the same as vertical resolution
c. is less than vertical resolution
d. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines
25. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done:
a. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal
b. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal
c. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal
d. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal

15. The smallest picture element is called a: 26. AFPC stands for:
a. dot b. pic c. pixel d. none of the above a. allowed full picture chroma
b. automatic frequency and phase control
16. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color is: c. automatic frequency and picture control
a. much greater c. much less d. none of the above
b. about the same d. resolution does not apply to color
COMPLETION 18. SAP stands for ________ audio program.
ANS: separate
1. ________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a
TV. 19. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ________.
ANS: Aquadag ANS: ultor

2. The ________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953. 20. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ________ kV.
ANS: NTSC ANS: 20 to 30

3. Video systems form pictures by a ________ process. 21. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ________ to generate the picture.
ANS: scanning ANS: phosphor

4. During the horizontal blanking interval, the electron beam ________ from right 22. The horizontal output transformer is called the ________ transformer.
to left. ANS: flyback
ANS: retraces
23. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ________ filter.
5. The NTSC specifies a ________ video signal. ANS: comb
ANS: composite
24. The color ________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a
6. The ________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height. monochrome signal.
ANS: aspect ANS: killer

7. Brightness information is called ________. 25. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ________.
ANS: luma, luminance ANS: dBmV

8. Color information is called ________. 26. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ________ end.
ANS: chroma, chrominance ANS: head

9. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ________. 27. A ________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases.
ANS: porch ANS: vectorscope

10. Odd and even fields are identified by the ________of the vertical sync pulse. 28. Color intensity is called ________.
ANS: position ANS: saturation

11. Each horizontal scan line takes ________ microseconds, not including blanking. 29. The ________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue.
ANS: 62.5 ANS: phase

12. Horizontal blanking lasts ________ microseconds. 30. The ________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the
ANS: 10 correct color phosphor dots.
ANS: purity
13. Vertical blanking lasts about ________ milliseconds.
ANS: 1.3 31. The ________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the
correct triad of phosphor dots.
14. Picture elements are called ________. ANS: convergence
ANS: pixels
15. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ________.
ANS: 525 Chapter 20: Satellite Communications

16. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ________.

ANS: green TRUE/FALSE

17. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ________ MHz. 1. Communications satellites could be just passive reflectors. T
ANS: 3.58
2. A typical communications satellite can cover half of the earth's surface. F
3. Most communications satellites are in a geosynchronous orbit. T
4. Most communications satellites are in a geostationary orbit. T
5. "Geostationary" means the same thing as "geosynchronous". F
25. Conventional analog satellite transponders cannot be used with digital data
signals. F
26. It is possible to transmit signals from one satellite to another. T
27. In practice, the beamwidth of a parabolic reflector is independent of its
diameter. F

6. A geosynchronous orbit is about 3,600 km above the equator. F
7. Signals from satellites in a geosynchronous orbit suffer a great deal of free-space
attenuation. T
8. It is easier to reach a geosynchronous satellite from higher northern latitudes. F
9. At the frequencies satellites use, the ionosphere has negligible effect. T
28. Communications satellites are particularly well suited to long-distance
telephony. F
29. With TDMA, more than one hundred earth stations can use the same satellite
transponder. T
30. LEO communications satellite systems have been a great commercial success. F

10. The closer a satellite is to earth, the faster the velocity it needs to stay in orbit. T MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. In the Northern Hemisphere, an antenna must face south to reach a satellite. T 1. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about:
a. 3,578 km c. 357,800 km
12. You cannot communicate with a geosynchronous satellite from the Southern b. 35,780 km d. depends on satellite velocity
Hemisphere. F
2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,:
13. You cannot communicate with a geosynchronous satellite from the South Pole. a. apogee and perigee c. uplink and downlink
T b. perigee and apogee d. downlink and uplink

14. Typically, ground antennas must be movable to "track" a geosynchronous 3. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its:
satellite. F a. earth station c. footprint
b. downlink d. plate
15. The azimuth and elevation needed for an antenna to "see" a certain satellite
depend on the location of the antenna on the ground. T 4. The velocity required to stay in orbit:
a. is constant
16. The power in the uplink signal to a typical communications satellite is in the b. is zero (freefall)
range of 50 to 240 watts. F c. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth
d. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth
17. The power in the downlink signal from a typical communications satellite is in
the range of 10 to 250 watts per transponder. T 5. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called:
a. azimuth and elevation c. declination and elevation
18. The EIRP of a satellite depends on the gain of its antenna. T b. azimuth and declination d. apogee and perigee

19. The EIRP of a satellite is the same anywhere reception is possible. F 6. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range:
a. 5 to 25 watts c. 500 to 2500 watts
20. It takes over half a second for a signal to go from point A to point B and back b. 50 to 250 watts d. depends on its orbit
again via geostationary satellite. T
7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
21. The useful life of a communications satellite is over when it runs out of fuel. T a. 101 watts b. 102 watts c. 103 watts d. 104 watts

22. The maximum useful life of a communications satellite is about three years. F 8. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of:
a. transponders b. batteries c. solar cells d. all of the above
23. Using the C band for satellites may conflict with terrestrial microwave
communications. T 9. "Station-keeping" refers to:
a. antenna maintenance c. orbital adjustments
24. Ku-band antennas can be smaller than C-band antennas. T b. power-level adjustments d. none of the above
10. DBS stands for:
a. decibels of signal c. direct-broadcast system 3. The _________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite.
b. down-beam signal d. direct-broadcast satellite ANS: uplink

11. LNA stands for: 4. The _________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station.
a. low-noise amplifier c. low-noise amplitude ANS: downlink
b. low north angle d. low-noise array
5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called _________satellites.
12. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: ANS: orbital
a. backdown b. backoff c. power-down d. EIRP drop
6. A geosynchronous orbit is about _________ km above the earth.
13. TVRO stands for: ANS: 35,780
a. television receive only c. television remote origin
b. television repeater only d. none of the above 7. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes _________ hours to complete one orbit.
ANS: 24
14. TDMA stands for:
a. transponder-directed multiple antennas 8. All satellite orbits are _________ in shape.
b. television distribution master antenna ANS: elliptical
c. time-division multiple access
d. transmit delay minimum aperture 9. The _________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth.
ANS: perigee
15. VSAT stands for:
a. video satellite c. very small antenna terminal 10. The _________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth.
b. video signal antenna terminal d. very small aperture terminal ANS: apogee

16. On the uplink from a terminal, a VSAT system uses: 11. An antenna's _________ is its angular direction between east and west.
a. high power to a small antenna c. low power to a large antenna ANS: azimuth
b. low power to a small antenna d. LEO satellites
12. An antenna's _________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface.
17. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: ANS: elevation
a. star b. mesh c. ring d. repeater
13. An antenna's _________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis.
18. LEO stands for: ANS: declination
a. long elliptic orbit c. lateral earth orbit
b. low-earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit 14. Satellites using the _________ band operate on 12 GHz.
ANS: Ku
19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require:
a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power 15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about _________
b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above milliseconds.
ANS: 500
20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are:
a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz 16. A _________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites.
b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above ANS: transponder

17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its _________.
COMPLETION ANS: diameter

1. A _________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite 18. VSAT systems commonly use a _________ network configuration.
broadcasts to. ANS: star
ANS: footprint
19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial _________.
2. A satellite in a _________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the ANS: failure
equator.
ANS: geostationary
20. C-band antennas are _________ than Ku-band antennas. 14. In AMPS, some control functions are done over the voice channels. T
ANS: larger
15. Paging signals are sent over voice channels in AMPS. F

SHORT ANSWER 16. For efficient handoff, an optimum cell-site radius is a bit less than 0.5 km. F

1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise 17. With AMPS, a cell phone can receive a voice channel and a control channel
temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of simultaneously. F
the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T.
ANS: 25 dB 18. "Blank-and-burst" control signaling is done over the voice channel. T

2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature. 19. There is no encryption in AMPS. T
ANS: 139 K.
20. The MIN represents the 10-digit phone-number of the cell phone. T
3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite
38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a 21. The MIN is stored in the NAM. T
gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz.
Calculate the C/N at the receiver. 22. If used, the ESN must be keyed in by the cell phone user. F
ANS: 38 dB
23. Both the ESN and the MIN are required for proper billing. T

24. The power a cell phone transmits is controlled by the land station. T
Chapter 21: Cellular Radio
25. It is possible to have a "collision" when two cell phones try to use the same
control channel at the same time. T
TRUE/FALSE
26. The DCC is used to tell a cell phone it is "roaming". F
1. AMPS was the original mobile phone system in America. F
27. With AMPS, handoffs always involve a change in the voice channel. T
2. AMPS is an analog system. T
28. With AMPS, handoffs result in a 100-msec interruption of the voice signal. T
3. AMPS is a circuit-switched system. T
29. The AMPS system was designed to ensure privacy. F
4. Originally, only one carrier was allowed to operate an AMPS system in any given
region. F 30. It is relatively easy to "clone" an AMPS cell phone. T

5. High path loss makes it easier to reduce interference in a cellular system. T 31. The AMPS system is full-duplex. T

6. Adjacent cell sites usually have some overlap. T 32. Analog cell phones require linear RF amplifiers. F

7. Portable handheld cell phones have a maximum ERP of 4 watts. F 33. The optimum size of a cell depends on the amount of traffic. T

8. All cell sites in a region are connected to a central office. T 34. Calls can never be blocked on a cell phone. F

9. AMPS provides for direct cell phone-to-cell phone connection. F 35. Calls can be "dropped" when a cell phone moves into another cell. T

10. AMPS reuses frequencies over a relatively short distance. T 36. Capacity can be increased by using fewer cells. F

11. AMPS uses narrowband FM. T 37. Digital data cannot be sent over an AMPS system. F

12. With AMPS, each individual cell uses all available voice channels. F 38. Digital cellular systems actually use less bandwidth than analog systems. T

13. Besides voice channels, AMPS uses a set of control channels. T 39. Digital cellular systems in North America use the same frequencies, power
levels, and channels as AMPS. T
40. Privacy using the digital cellular system is much better than using AMPS. T
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. AMPS stand for:
a. American Mobile Phone System
b. Analog Mobile Phone Service
2. PCS stands for:
a. Personal Communications Service
b. Personal Communications Systems
c. Personal Cell phone Service
d. Portable Communications Systems
3. RCC stands for:
a. Radio Common Carrier
b. Radio Cellular Carrier
4. MSC stands for:
a. Mobile Switching Center
b. Mobile Service Cellular
5. MTSO stands for:
a. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output
b. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output
c. Mobile Telephone Switching Office
d. Mobile Transmission Time-Out
6. MIN stands for:
a. Manual Identification Number
b. Mobile Identification Number
7. NAM stands for:
a. Numerical Access Mode
b. Numerical Assignment Mode
8. ESN stands for:
a. Electronic Serial Number
b. Emitted Signal Number
9. SCM stands for:
a. Service Class Mark
b. Station Class Mark
10. SCM identifies the:
a. code number of a cell phone
b. base-station class
11. SID stands for:
a. Sequential Interrupt Demand
b. Standard Identification Number
12. The SID is used by a cell phone to:
a. identify the type of system (analog or digital)
b. recognize an AMPS system
c. set its transmitted power level
d. recognize that it is "roaming"
c. Advanced Mobile Phone System 13. DCC stands for:
d.Advanced Mobile Phone Service a. Digital Color Code c. Digital Communications Carrier
b. Digital Communications Code d. Direct Channel Code
14. SAT stands for:
a. Station Antenna Tower c. Supervisory Access Tone
b. Supervisory Audio Tone d. none of the above
15. CMAC stands for:
a. Control Mobile Attenuation Code c. Central Mobile Access Control
c. Regional Cellular Carrier b. Control Mobile Access Code d. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control
d. none of the above
16. The CMAC is used to:
a. control access to the cell site
c. Maximum Signal Carrier b. set the access code of the cell phone
d. Minimum Signal Carrier c. set the transmit power of the cell phone
d. select the transmit channel for the cell phone
17. In an AMPS system, voice is sent using:
a. AM b. FM c. FSK d. CDMA
18. In an AMPS system, control-channel signals are sent using:
a. AM b. FM c. FSK d. CDMA
c. Maximum In-band Noise 19. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is:
d. Minimum In-band Noise a. less than 600 W. c. between 1 and 2 watts
b. less than 600 mW. d. 4 watts
c. Number Access Module 20. BSC stands for:
d. Number Assignment Module a. Base Station Controller c. Basic Service Contract
b. Base Signal Controller d. Basic Service Code
c. Emission Strength Number 21. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is
d. none of the above called the:
a. BSC b. MTSO c. RF interface d. air interface
c. Signal Class Mark 22. The optimum cell-site radius is:
d. Serial-Code Mode a. 2 km b. 0.5 km c. as small as possible d. none of the above
c. signal classification (analog or digital) 23. Phone traffic is measured in:
d. maximum power level of a cell phone a. calls b. erlangs c. number of user d. number of blocked calls
24. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is:
c. System Identification Number a. increase the number of cells c. increase the ERP
d. Signal Intensity Descriptor b. decrease the number of cells d. decrease the ERP
25. CDPD stands for: 16. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a
a. Code-Division Packet Data c. Coded Digital Packet Data _________ call.
b. Cellular Digital Packet Data d. Cellular Digital Pulse Data ANS: dropped
17. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell _________.
COMPLETION ANS: splitting

1. AMPS uses the _________-MHz band. 18. A _________site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole.
ANS: 800 ANS: microcell

2. _________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America. 19. Very small cells called _________ are used for reliable indoor reception.
ANS: AMPS ANS: picocells

3. Frequency _________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex. 20. Compared with AMPS, digital cellular phones require _________ bandwidth.
ANS: reuse
ANS: less
4. A _________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to
another.
ANS: handoff SHORT ANSWER

5. If a cell-site radius drops below _________ km, handoffs will occur too 1. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell
frequently. phone systems.
ANS: 0.5
ANS: 1. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format.
6. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is _________. 2. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted.
ANS: three
2. If a 28.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone, how many words of text
7. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class _________. would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter
ANS: I, one and 5 letters per word?
ANS: 57.6
8. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is _________.
ANS: 600 mW 3. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. The probability that a given cell
phone is being used is 15%. What is the traffic in erlangs?
9. A portable, handheld cell phone would be ERP class _________. ANS: 30
ANS: III, three
4. What is "trunking gain"?
10. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the _________.
ANS: land station ANS: For a given probability of being blocked, the maximum allowable traffic
per channel increases as the number of channels increases.
11. A MAC is a mobile _________ code.
ANS: attenuation

12. For security, you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems
_________.
ANS: public
TRUE/FALSE
13. A mobile switching center is also called an _________.
ANS: MTSO 1. There are three competing, and incompatible, PCS systems in North America. T

14. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of _________. 2. The current PCS systems are "true" personal communications systems in their
ANS: traffic performance. F

15. Telephone call traffic is measured in _________. 3. Current PCS systems are referred to as "third-generation", with AMPS and digital
ANS: erlangs cell phones being the first and second generations. F
4. Europe has basically one PCS system based on GSM technology. T 30. The Walsh code is used for error detection in CDMA systems. F

5. GSM is used in North America. T

MULTIPLE CHOICE
6. One reason for developing PCS was that the 800-MHz band was too crowded. T
1. Current PCS systems are referred to as:
7. The North American PCS band is 1.9 GHz. T a. first-generation c. third-generation
b. second-generation d. digital-generation
8. PCS cells are typically smaller than AMPS cells. T
2. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is:
9. All first generation cellular systems are analog. T a. 800 MHz b. 900 MHz c. 1.9 GHz d. 12 GHz

10. Current digital technology is not as efficient as analog FM in its use of 3. The "forward" PCS channel is:
bandwidth. F a. from the base to the mobile c. from mobile to mobile
b. from the mobile to the base d. same as the uplink
11. Today, roaming is easier with PCS than it is with AMPS. F
4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cell sites are:
12. IS-136 PCS is usually just called TDMA PCS. T a. bigger b. smaller c. distributed d. higher-power

13. In TDMA PCS, control frames are mixed in with frames carrying voice. T 5. AMPS was designed for:
a. POTS c. use built into an automobile
14. GSM is a TDMA system. T b. voice d. all of the above

15. GSM is not as sophisticated as IS-136. F 6. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is:
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. many
16. In GSM PCS, control frames are mixed in with frames carrying voice. T
7. CDMA technology was invented by:
17. GSM uses extensive frequency hopping for spread-spectrum. F a. AT&T b. Lucent c. Bell Labs d. Qualcomm

18. Frequency hopping lessens the impact of multipath fading. T 8. GSM is used in:
a. Asia b. Europe c. North America d. all of the above
19. The SIM used in a GSM phone helps prevent unauthorized use. T
9. In GSM, voice channels are called:
20. GSM security is not as good as it is in IS-136. F a. traffic channels c. bearer channels
b. voice channels d. talking channels
21. IS-95 PCS uses CDMA technology. T
10. AMPS uses:
22. IS-95 allows a "soft" handoff. T a. CDMA b. TDMA c. spread-spectrum d. none of the above

23. A "soft" handoff is done without interrupting service. T 11. Other things being equal, battery life in a GSM phone should be:
a. less than in a TDMA phone c. greater than in a TDMA phone
24. IS-95 can achieve space diversity by using antennas in separate cell-sites. T b. no better than in an AMPS phone d. no better than a TDMA phone

25. One drawback of IS-95 is its lack of frequency diversity. F 12. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in:
a. no PCS system c. TDMA only
26. Security with CDMA is not as good as it is in GSM. F b. GSM only d. both GSM and TDMA

27. Unlike AMPS, CDMA PCS does not require the cell phone to adjust its ERP. F 13. GSM uses:
a. frequency hopping c. CDMA
28. Potentially, CDMA makes the best use of available bandwidth. T b. direct-sequence modulation d. all of the above

29. In CDMA it is common for the signal power in the receiver to be less than the 14. In GSM, SIM stands for:
noise power. T a. Short Inbound Message c. Subscriber ID Module
b. Subscriber-Initiated Message d. Subscriber ID Method
15. IMSI stands for: 9. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a __________ code.
a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification ANS: Walsh
b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification
c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification 10. Unlike other systems, in CDMA __________ frequencies are used in all cells.
d. Intermodulation System Interference ANS: all

16. IS-95 uses: 11. PN stands for Pseudo-__________ Noise.

a. frequency hopping c. CDMA ANS: random
b. TDMA d. all of the above
12. __________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system.
17. IS-136 uses: ANS: Frequency
a. frequency hopping c. CDMA
b. TDMA d. all of the above 13. RF channel S/N ratios __________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems.
ANS: less
18. In CDMA:
a. all frequencies are used in all cells 14. CDMA uses a __________-rate vocoder.
b. each cell uses half the available frequencies ANS: variable
c. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base
d. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone 15. A phone user typically talks less than __________% of the time during a
conversation.
19. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: ANS: 50
a. common b. unique c. rotating d. orthogonal
16. CDMA requires __________-loop power control to work properly.
20. The next generation of PCS is expected to have: ANS: closed
a. faster data rates c. wider roaming area
b. Internet access d. all of the above 17. GPRS stands for General __________ Radio Service.
ANS: Packet

COMPLETION 18. IMT stands for International __________ Telecommunications.

ANS: Mobile
1. PCS stands for __________ Communications System.
ANS: Personal 19. UPT stands for __________ Personal Telecommunications.
ANS: Universal
2. Current PCS systems are called __________-generation systems.
ANS: second 20. UWT stands for Universal __________Telecommunications.
ANS: Wireless
3. In North America, PCS is assigned the __________-MHz band.
ANS: 1900 21. W-CDMA stands for __________ CDMA.
ANS: Wideband
4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cells are __________ in size.
ANS: smaller
SHORT ANSWER
5. Besides TDMA and CDMA, __________ is also used in North America for PCS.
ANS: GSM 1. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff?
ANS: No calls are dropped.
6. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is __________.
ANS: CDMA, direct sequence 2. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time, how do they pick a specific
frequency?
7. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is __________.
ANS: frequency hopping ANS: Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence.
To demodulate, the receiver uses the PN sequence specific to the channel
8. Unlike AMPS, CDMA allows for a __________ handoff. it wants.
ANS: soft
3. What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA? 12. The IEEE 802.33 covers wireless LANs. F
ANS: It increases the background noise level, but CDMA can tolerate a lot of
such noise. 13. Few companies actually use the IEEE 802 wireless LAN specifications. F

4. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity?
ANS: It uses limited frequency hopping.
5. Why was PCS assigned to 1.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS?
ANS: The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded.
6. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in
a TDMA phone?
ANS: A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. A GSM
phone is active during one out of every eight.
7. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK?
ANS: With standard QPSK, the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero.
With offset QPSK, it never goes to zero. Linearity requirements are less
strict for offset QPSK transmitters.
8. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA, and what causes it?
ANS: A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is
near. This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not
well controlled by the base.
14. Wireless LANs typically use a spread-spectrum modulation. T
15. IEEE 802 allows up to 1 watt of transmitter power. T
16. The typical range of a wireless LAN in an office environment is about 10 meters.
F
17. The range of a Bluetooth system in an office environment is about 0.01 meters
to 10 meters. T
18. Any Bluetooth device should be able to communicate with any other Bluetooth
device. T
19. Bluetooth has a channel bit rate of 100 Mbps. F
20. Bluetooth devices communicate automatically once they are in range of each
other. T
21. Bluetooth uses spread-spectrum modulation. T
22. Bluetooth uses frequency hopping. T

23. Bluetooth is designed for audio as well as data. T

Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking
24. Currently, no wireless LAN uses light-wave transmission. F

TRUE/FALSE 25. A wireless LAN based on light waves would need direct line of sight for
connections. F
1. Traditional paging systems use low-power transmitters. F
2. Traditional paging systems use widely spaced transmitters. T MULTIPLE CHOICE

3. Pagers use the VHF band. T 1. Pagers use:

a. the VHF band only
4. Pagers use the UHF band. T b. the UHF band only
c. both the VHF and UHF bands
5. Pager messages typically require a lot of bandwidth. F d. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band

6. Each pager has a unique address. T 2. ISM stands for:

a. IEEE Standard Message c. Industrial, Scientific, and Messaging
7. Typically, pager systems keep track of each pager's location. F b. IEEE Secure Message d. Industrial, Scientific, and Medical

8. Satellite systems are used by pagers. T 3. CAPCODE is:

a. an encryption scheme used for pagers
9. All pagers are one-way only. F b. an addressing scheme used for pagers
c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers
10. Wireless LANs are typically slower than wired LANs. T d. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers

11. Wireless LANs are typically more expensive than wired LANs. T 4. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is:
a. 802.10 b. 802.11 c. 802.12 d. 802.13
5. In a one-way pager system: 19. Infrared networks:
a. all pages are sent from all transmitters a. cannot penetrate walls c. can use reflected infrared beams
b. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area b. can use diffused infrared beams d. all of the above
c. transmitters use relatively high power
d. all of the above 20. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is:
a. 1 meter c. several hundred meters
6. POCSAG stands for: b. several meters d. several thousand meters
a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group
b. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group
c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group COMPLETION
d. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group
1. Each pager has a unique address called a _________.
7. A typical pager system does not: ANS: capcode
a. require "handoffs" c. require error detection
b. allow "roaming" d. all of the above 2. Many pagers can share a frequency using _________.
ANS: TDMA

8. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: 3. The POCSAG was devised by the British _________ Office.
a. VHF band b. UHF band c. ISM band d. infrared band ANS: Post

9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: 4. A POCSAG message uses a _________-bit error correction code.
a. CSMA/CA b. CSMA/CD c. CDMA d. all of the above ANS: 10

10. BSS stands for: 5. IEEE _________ covers wireless LANs.

a. Basic Service Set c. Bluetooth Service System ANS: 802.11
b. Basic Service System d. none of the above
6. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of _________ for wireless LANs.
11. Bluetooth uses: ANS: 1 watt
a. CDMA b.frequency hopping c. QPSK d. all of the above
7. Bluetooth uses the _________ band.
12. Bluetooth uses the: ANS: ISM
a. VHF band c. ISM band
b. UHF band d. infrared band 8. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a _________.
ANS: piconet
13. TDD stands for:
a. Time-Division Duplex c. Time Delay Difference 9. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more _________.
b. Time-Delayed Duplex d. Total Distance Delay ANS: piconets

14. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: 10. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of _________.
a. 2 nodes b. 2 to 4 nodes c. 2 to 8 nodes d. 2 to 16 nodes ANS: 1 meter

15. Two or more connected piconets forms a:

a. micronet b. multinet c. TDD net d. scatternet
Chapter 24: Fiber Optics
16. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is:
a. 10 cm to 1 meter c. 10 cm to 100 meters
b. 10 cm to 10 meters d. within 10 feet TRUE/FALSE

17. IRDA stands for: 1. An optical fiber is a waveguide for light. T

a. Infrared Data Association c. Infrared Restricted Data Area
b. Infrared Digital Association d. Infrared Roaming Data Area 2. Fiber has greater bandwidth than copper cable. T

18. The range of an IRDA system is: 3. Optical fiber has greater loss per kilometer than copper cable. F
a. 1 meter b. 10 meters c. 1 foot d. 10 feet
4. Fiber is immune to crosstalk. T 30. A LASER diode can be turned on and off at a rate of 10 GHz. T

5. Optical fiber carries a very small amount of current. F

MULTIPLE CHOICE
6. Optical fiber is easy to "tap". F
1. Compared to the core, the index of refraction of the cladding must be:
7. Optical fiber is easy to splice. F a. the same c. less
b. greater d. doesn't have an index of refraction
8. Optical fiber can be used safely in an atmosphere of explosive gas. T
2. Fiber-optic cables do not:
9. Optical fiber can be used to connect a radio transmitter to an antenna. F a. carry current c. generate EMI
b. cause crosstalk d. all of the above
10. The core has a higher index of refraction than does the cladding. T
3. Single-mode fiber is made from:
11. Single-mode fiber causes less dispersion than does multimode fiber. T a. glass c. both a and b
b. plastic d. none of the above
12. Single-mode fiber is always made from glass. T
4. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used:
13. The core of a single mode fiber is on the order of 1000 m. F a. in an explosive environment
b. to connect a transmitter to an antenna
14. Single-mode fiber is free of all dispersion effects. F c. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard
d. none of the above
15. Dispersion can be expressed in units of time. T
5. A single-mode cable does not suffer from:
16. The terms "linewidth" and "bandwidth" are equivalent for fiber. T a. modal dispersion c. waveguide dispersion
b. chromatic dispersion d. all of the above
17. Dispersion increases with cable length. T
6. Scattering causes:
18. Glass fiber-optic cables have a loss of about 3dB per km. F a. loss c. intersymbol interference
b. dispersion d. all of the above
19. Plastic fiber-optic cables have a loss of several hundred dB per km. T
7. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about:
20. The losses due to splicing can be greater than the losses due to the cable itself. a. 40 dB per km b. 4 db per km c. 0.4 dB per km d. zero loss
T
8. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about:
21. The purpose of the cladding is to add strength to the fiber-optic cable. F a. 0.02 dB b. 0.2 db c. 1 dB d. 3 dB
22. The terms "splice" and "connector" are equivalent for fiber. F 9. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about:
a. 0.02 dB b. 0.2 db c. 1 dB d. 3 dB
23. A typical splice has a loss of 0.2 dB or less. T
10. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector:
24. Unlike copper cables, it is not possible to make an optical power splitter. F a. ST b. SC c. SMA d. all of the above
25. Like copper cables, it is possible to make an optical directional coupler. T 11. The quantum of light is called:
a. an erg b. an e-v c. a photon d. a phonon
26. It is possible to make an optical switch. T
12. LASER stands for:
27. Energy can be expressed in electron-volts. T a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation
b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
28. LEDs are commonly used to drive single-mode fiber cables in communications c. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays
systems. F d. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays
29. PIN diodes are used as receivers on single-mode fiber cables in communications
systems. T
13. APD stands for: 14. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a _________ cable.
a. Avalanche Photodiode c. Avalanche Photo Detector ANS: tight-buffer
b. Advanced Photodiode d. Advanced Photo Detector
15. A _________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the
14. In a PIN diode, leakage current in the absence of light is called: source.
a. baseline current c. dark current ANS: pigtail
b. zero-point current d. E-H current
16. Good connections are more critical with _________-mode fiber.
15. For a light detector, responsivity is measured in: ANS: single
a. amps per watt c. mA per joule
b. W per amp d. sec per W 17. A _________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable.
ANS: laser

COMPLETION 18. The quantum of light is called the _________.

ANS: photon
1. In the core, the angle of incidence equals the angle of _________.
ANS: reflection 19. A _________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable.
ANS: PIN
2. The core is surrounded by the _________.
ANS: cladding 20. For safety, you should never _________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you
know it is not connected to a light source.
3. The _________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection. ANS: look
ANS: critical

4. An electron-volt is a measure of _________.

ANS: energy Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems

5. The numerical aperture is the _________ of the angle of acceptance.

ANS: sine TRUE/FALSE

6. Optical fiber relies on total _________ reflection. 1. Most new telephone trunk cables are fiber-optic. T
ANS: internal
2. Cable TV systems use fiber-optic cable. T
7. Chromatic dispersion is also called _________ dispersion.
ANS: intramodal 3. Many data network cables are fiber-optic. T

8. With optical fiber, _________ light is more common than visible light. 4. Fiber-optic cable is not practical for telephone trunk cables. F
ANS: infrared
5. CATV uses analog modulation on fiber-optic cables. T
9. In multimode fiber, _________ index has less dispersion than step index.
ANS: graded 6. Usually, splicing losses can be disregarded in loss-budget calculations. F

10. For laser diodes, the term _________ is used instead of bandwidth. 7. The rise time of a transmitter limits its bandwidth. T
ANS: linewidth
8. RZ encoding allows twice as much pulse spreading as NRZ. F
11. Dispersion can be expressed in units of _________ rather than bandwidth.
ANS: time 9. The product of bandwidth times distance describes dispersion in a multimode
fiber-optic cable. T
12. _________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse.
ANS: Intersymbol 10. Regenerative repeaters for fiber-optic cables typically convert the light signal to
an electrical signal, and then back to light. T
13. The optical fiber is free to move around in a _________ cable.
ANS: loose-tube 11. Optical amplifiers are not suitable for digital signals. F
12. Dispersion effects accumulate when optical amplifiers are used. T 9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to:
a. 1000 miles b. 100 miles c. 100 km d. 10 km
13. Most fiber-optic systems use TDM. T
10. In SONET, OC-1 stands for:
14. Fiber-optic cables shorter than 100 km typically do not require repeaters. T a. Optical Carrier level one c. Optical Channel one
b. Optical Coupler unidirectional d. Optical Cable type 1
15. SONET operates at a base speed of 25 Mbps. F
11. In SONET, STS stands for:
16. SONET solves many of the timing problems in synchronizing digital signals. T a. Synchronous Transport Signal c. Synchronous Transmission Signal
b. Synchronous Transport System d. Synchronous Transmission System
17. SONET is typically used on LANs. F
12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is:
18. FDDI can be used on a LAN. T a. FDDI c. gigabit Ethernet
b. high-speed Ethernet d. all of the above
19. Soliton pulses can travel down a fiber-optic cable with no dispersion. T
13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is:
20. TDR cannot be used on fiber-optic cables. F a. common b. experimental c. obsolete d. not possible

14. OTDR stands for:

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. FDDI stands for:
a. Fiber Digital Data Interface
b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface
2. FITL stands for:
a. Fiber In The Loop
b. Fiber Input Timing Loss
a. Optical Time-Delay Response
b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement
c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer
c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. Optical Time-Division Relay
d. Frequency-Division Data Interface
15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the
subscriber's phone is called:
c. Frequency Input to The Loop a. FDDI b. FTTC c. FITL d. SONET
d. Fiber Input Timing Loop

3. FTTC stands for: COMPLETION

a. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint
b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee 1. FTTC stands for Fiber To The _________.
c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable ANS: Curb
d. Fiber To The Curb
2. FITL stands for Fiber In The _________.
4. SONET stands for: ANS: Loop
a. Simple Optical Network c. Synchronous Optical Network
b. Standard Optical Network d. none of the above 3. SDH stands for Synchronous Data _________.
ANS: Hierarchy
5. DWDM stands for:
a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation 4. WDM stands for _________-division multiplexing.
b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation ANS: Wavelength
c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation
d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing 5. SONET stands for _________ Optical Network.
ANS: Synchronous
6. A Soliton is a:
a. defect in the glass c. type of pulse 6. FDDI stands for Fiber _________ Data Interface.
b. type of particle d. type of optical network ANS: Distributed

7. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: 7. Optical amplifiers use _________-doped glass.
a. bit stuffing b. bit-synch c. SDH d. WDM ANS: erbium

8. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: 8. Optical amplifiers use a _________ laser.
a. gain margin b. system margin c. excess gain d. overdrive ANS: pump
9. Dense _________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. SHORT ANSWER
ANS: WDM
1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds?
10. The OC-1 line rate is _________ Mbps. ANS: 1 MHz
ANS: 51.84
2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter, receiver,
11. SONET does not use bit _________ to synchronize two digital signals. and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds.
ANS: stuffing ANS: 86.6 nanoseconds

12. SONET uses a _________ to denote the starting position of an information

frame.
ANS: pointer
13. FDDI systems use two _________ rings to carry signals.
ANS: token

14. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in _________ directions.
ANS: opposite

15. Each _________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater.

ANS: node

16. FDDI uses _________ mode cables.

ANS: multi

17. The data rate of an FDDI system is _________ bps.

ANS: 100 M
18. SONET frames have considerably more _________ than do DS frames for
information about signal routing and setup.
ANS: overhead

19. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is _________.

ANS: 810

20. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is _________.

ANS: 774

21. The number of rows in a SONET frame is _________.

ANS: 9

22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is _________.
ANS: 4

23. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is _________.
ANS: 1

24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and _________ overhead.
ANS: transport

25. In SONET, SPE stands for synchronous payload _________.

ANS: envelope