Neet - Combined Test - 2 (P, C, B) - 09.07.2017

NEET | 09.07.
2017
COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

Time: 3 hrs
Part A (Physics)
1. When two bodies move uniformly towards each other the distance between them
decreases by 8 ms 1. If both bodies move in the same direction with
different speeds, the distance between them increases by 2 ms -1. The speeds of
two bodies will be
(1) 4 ms-1 and 3 ms-1 (2) 4 ms-1 and 2 ms-1 (3) 5 ms-1 and 3 ms-1 (4) 7
-1 -1
ms and 3 ms
2. The velocity-time plot for a particle moving on a straight line is as shown, then
(1) The particle has a constant acceleration

(2) The particle has never turned around
(3) The average speed in the interval 0 to 10s is the same as the average speed in
the interval 10 s to 20 s
(4) Both a and c are correct
3. A stone falls freely from rest and the total distance covered by it in the last second
of its motion equals the distance covered by it in the first three seconds of its
motion. The stone remains in the air for
(1) 6 s (2) 5 s (3) 7 s (4) 4 s
4. A boy sitting on the top most berth in the compartment of a train which is just
going to stop on a railway station, drops an apple among at the open hand of his
brother sitting vertically below his hands at a distance of about 2 m. The apple will
fall.
(1) Precisely in the hand of his brother
(2) Slightly away from the hand of his brother in the direction opposite to the
direction of motion of the train
(3) None of the above
5. The velocity-time graph of a body is shown in the figure. It implies that at point B.
(1) The force is zero (2) There is a force acting towards

the motion
(3) There is a force which opposes the motion(4) There is only a gravitational force
6. A point moves with a uniform acceleration and v 1, v2, v3 denote the average
velocities in three successive intervals of time t 1, t2, t3. Which of the following
relations is correct?
(1) (v1 v2): (v2 v3) = (t1 t2) : (t2 + t3) (2) (v1 v2): (v2 v3) = (t1 + t2) : (t2 + t3)
(3) (v1 v2): (v2 v3) = (t1 t2) : (t1 t3) (4) (v1 v2): (v2 v3) = (t1 t2) : (t2 t3)
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7. Four persons K, L, M and N are initially at the corners of a square of side of length
d. If every person starts moving with the same speed v such that K is always
headed towards L, L towards M, M is headed directly towards N and N towards K,
then the four persons will meet after
d d d d
s 2 s s s
(1) v (2) v (3) 2v (4) 2v
8. From the top of a tower of height 50 m, a ball is thrown vertically upwards with a
certain velocity. It hits the ground 10 s after it is thrown up. How much time does it
take to cover a distance AB where A and B are two points 20 m and 40 m below
the edge of the tower? (g=10 ms-1)
(1) 2.0 s (2) 1 s (3) 0.5 s (4) 0.4 s
9. Statement 1: A particle moving with a constant velocity, changes its direction
uniformly.
Statement 2: In a uniform motion, the acceleration is zero.
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is correct
explanation for statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is NOT a correct
(3) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
(4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.
10. Statement 1: The average speed of the particle in a uniform motion is the
same as its average velocity, if the particle moves in a straight line.
Statement 2: The average velocity is the rate of change of position of a particle
moving along a straight path, per unit time.
11. A ball is thrown from the ground with a velocity of 20 3 ms-1 making an
angle of 600 with the horizontal. The ball will be at a height of 40 m from the
ground after a time t equal to (g=10 ms -2)
(1) 2s (2) 3s (3) 2 s (4) 3 s
12. A car is travelling with a velocity of 10 kmh-1 on a straight road. The driver
1
of the car throws a parcel with a velocity of 10 2kmh when the car is passing by a
man standing on the side of the road. If the parcel is to reach the man, the
direction of throw makes the following angle with the direction of the car.
1
(1) 1350 (2) 450 (3)
tan 1 ( 2) (4)
tan
2
13. A cannon ball has the same range R on a horizontal plane for two angles of
projection. If h1 and h2 are the greatest heights in the two paths for which this is
possible, then
R = (h1h2 )1/ 4 R = 3 h1h2 R = 4 h1h2 R = h1h2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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14. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45 0 with the horizontal. Elevation angle of

the projectile at its highest point as seen from the point of projection is
3 1
tan 1
2
tan 1
(1) 600 (2) (3) 2
(4) 450
15. A swimmer crosses a flowing stream of width d to and fro in time t1. The
time taken to cover the same distance up and down the stream is t 2. Then the
time the swimmer would take to swim across a distance 2d in still water is
t12 t22
t
(1) 2
t
(2) 1 (3) 1 2 (4) 1 2
tt (t +t )
16. A ship A is moving westwards with a speed of 10 kmh -1 and a ship B, 100
km south of A is moving northwards with a speed of 10 kmh -1. The time after
which the distance between them is shortest and the shortest distance between
them are
(1) 0 h, 100 km (2) 5 h, 50 2 km (3) 5 2 h, 50 km (4) 10 2 h, 50 2 km
17. If a stone is to hit at a point which is at a distance d away and at a height h
above the point from where the stone starts, then what is the value of initial speed
u if stone is launched at an angle ?
g d d g
(1)
cos q 2( d tan q h) (2)
cos q 2(d tan q h)
gd 2 gd 2
(3) h cos 2 q (4)
( d h)
18. A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If T 1
and T2 be the time of flight in the two cases, then the product of the two time of
flight is directly proportional to
(1) R (2) 1/R (3) 1/R2 (4) R2
19. Statement 1: For the projection angle tan-1 (4), the horizontal and
maximum height of a projectile are equal.
Statement 2: The maximum range of a projectile is directly proportional to the
square of velocity and inversely proportional to the acceleration due to gravity.
20. Statement 1: In order to hit a target, a man should point his rifle in the
same direction as the target.
Statement 2: The horizontal range of bullet is dependent on the angle of
projection with the horizontal.
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NEET | 09.07.2017

21. Statement 1: The trajectory of projectile is quadratic in x and linear in y.
Statement 2: y-component of the trajectory is independent of the x-component .
22. Statement 1: In a javelin, throw the athlete throws the projectile at an
angle slightly more than 450 .
Statement 2: The maximum range does not depend upon the angle of
projection.
23. Statement 1: Two forces acting at a point will have the resultant force
directed outwards from the point at which the forces are acting.
Statement 2: The resultant of two forces, acts along the diagonal formed by the
parallelograph with the sides being the given forces .
r
24. For a particle in uniform circular motion, the acceleration a at a point P(R, q)
on the circle of radius R is (Here q is measured from the x-axis)
v2 v2 v2 v2
cos q i + sin q j sin q i + cos q j
(1) R R (2) R R
v2 v2 v2 v2
cos q i sin q j i+ j
R R (4) R R
(3)
25. A particle P is projected from a point on the surface of smooth inclined plane (see figure).
Simultaneously another particle Q is released on the smooth inclined plane from the same position. P
and Q collide on the inclined plane after t = 4 second. The speed of projection of P is

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(1) 5m/s (2) 10m/s (3) 15m/s (4) 20m/s

26. A stone projected at an angle q with horizontal from the roof of a tall building falls on the
ground after three second. Two second after the projection it was again at the level of projection. Then
the height of the building is
(1) 15m (2) 5m (3) 25m (4) 20m
27. Two particles A and B separated by a distance 2R are moving counter clockwise along the same
circular path of radius R each with uniform speed v. At time t = 0, A is given a tangential acceleration of
72v 2
magnitude a = 25p R .
6p R
(1) the time lapse for the two bodies to collide is 5v
(2) the angle covered by A is 11p/6
11v
(3) angular velocity of A is 5R
(4) radial acceleration of A is 289v2/5R
28. A particle is projected at an angle of elevation and after t seconds it appears to have an angle
of elevation as seen from point of projection. The initial velocity will be
gt gt cos sin( ) 2sin( )
(1) 2sin( ) (2) 2sin( ) (3) 2gt (4) gt
29. It was calculated that a shell when fired from a gun with a certain velocity and at an angle of
elevation 5p/36 rad should strike a given target. In actual practice, it was found that a hill just prevented
the trajectory. At what angle of elevation should the gun be fired to hit the target
5p 11p 7p 13p
rad rad rad rad
(1) 36 (2) 36 (3) 36 (4) 36
30. A particle is projected at angle 37o with the incline plane in upward direction with speed 10 m/s.
The angle of incline plane is given 53o. Then the maximum height attained by the particle from the
incline plane will be
(1) 3m (2) 4m (3) 5m (4) zero
31. For a stone thrown from a lower of unknown height, the maximum range for a projection speed
of 10m/s is obtained for a projection angle of 30o. The corresponding distance between the foot of the
lower and the point of landing of the stone is
(1) 10m (2) 20m (3)

( )
20 3 m
(4)
( )
10 3 m
32. A swimmer can swim in still water with a speed of 5 m/s. While crossing a river his average
speed is 3m/s. If he crosses the river in the shortest possible time, what is the speed of flow of water?
(A) 2m/s (B) 4m/s (C) 6 m/s (D) 8m/s
33. A particle starts from rest and moves with an acceleration of a = {2 + | t 2|} m/s 2, the velocity
of the particle at t = 4 sec is
(A) 2m/s (B) 4 m/s (C) zero (D) 12m/s

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NEET | 09.07.2017
34. A car accelerates from rest with a constant acceleration on a straight road. After gaining a
velocity v1 the car moves with the same velocity for some-time. Then the car decelerated to rest with a
retardation . If the total distance covered by the car is equal to S, the total time taken for its motion is
S v 1 1 S v v v v S v v v
+ + + + + +
(1) v 2 (2) v (3) (4) v 2
35. A person throws vertically n balls per second with the same velocity. He throws a ball whenever
the previous one is at its highest point. The height to which the balls rise is
(1) g/n2 (2) 2gn (3) g/2n2 (4) 2gn2
36. A point moves in x-y plane according to the law x = 3 cos 4t and y = 3 (1 sin 4t). The distance
travelled by the particle in 2 sec is (where x and y are in meters)
(1) 48m (2) 24m (3) 48 2 m (4) 24 2 m
37. If a particle is projected with speed u from ground at an angle with horizontal then radius of
curvature of a point where velocity vector is perpendicular to initial velocity vector is given by
u 2 cos 2 q u 2 cot 2 q u2 u 2 tan 2 q
(1) g (2) g sin q (3) g (4) g cos q
38. A particle starts sliding down a frictionless inclined plane. If S n is the distance travelled by it
from time t = n = 1 sec to t = n sec, the ration Sn/Sn+1 is
2n 1 2n + 1 2n 2n + 1
(1) 2n + 1 (2) 2n (3) 2n + 1 (4) 2n 1
39. A stone is projected from a horizontal plane. It attains maximum height H & strikes a
stationary smooth wall & falls on the ground vertically below the maximum height. Assume the
collision to be elastic, the height of the point on the wall where ball will strike is
H H 3H
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 4 (4) None of these
40. A particle is projected from a tower as shown in the figure. Then the distance from the foot of
the tower where it will strike the ground will be: (take g = 10 m/s 2)
(1) 400/3 m (2) 5000/3 m (3) 2000 m (4) 3000m

41. Distance between a frog and an insect on a horizontal plane is 10 m. Frog can jump with a
maximum
speed of 10m/s. g = 10 m/s2. Minimum number of jumps required by the frog to catch the insect is:
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 50
42. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a velocity u from a point O. when it returns to
the point of projection:
(1) Its average velocity is zero (2) Its displacement is zero
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(3) Its average speed is u/2 (4) Its average speed is u.

43. Consider a boy on a trolley who throws a ball with speed 20 m/s at an angle 37 with respect to
trolley in direction of motion of trolley which moves horizontally with speed 10 m/s then what will be
maximum distance travelled by ball parallel to road:
(1) 20.2 m (2) 12 m (3) 31.2 m (4) 62.4 m
44. A particle is projected up the inclined such that its component of velocity along the incline is
10 m/s. Time of flight is 2 sec and maximum height above the incline is 5 m. Then velocity of
projection will be:
(1) 10 m/s (2) 10 2 m/s (3) 5 5 m/s (4) none
45. Two men A and B, A standing on the extended floor near by a building and B is standing on the
roof of the building. Both throw a stone each towards each other. Then which of the following will be
correct.
(1) Stone will hit A, but not B (2) Stone will hit B, but not A
(3) Stone will not hit either of them, but will collide with each other
(4) None of these
Part B (Chemistry)
46. Of the following, which of the statement(s) regarding Bohr Theory is wrong?
(1) Kinetic energy of an electron is half of the magnitude of its potential energy
(2) Kinetic energy of an electron is negative of total energy of electron
(3) Energy of electron decreases with increase in the value of the principal quantum number
(4) The ionization energy of H atom in the first excited state is negative of one fourth of the
energy of an electron in the ground state.
47. If E1, E2 and E3 represent respectively the kinetic energies of an electron, an alpha
particle and a proton respectively each having same de Broglie wavelength then:
(1)E1>E3>E2 (2) E2>E3>E1 (3) E1>E2>E3 (4) E1=E2=E3
48. When the frequency of light incident on a metallic plate is doubled, the KE of the
emitted photoelectrons will be:
(1)Doubled (2)Halved
(3)Increased but more than doubled of the previous KE (4)Unchanged
49. An increasing order (lowest first) for the values of e/m for electron (e), proton (p),
neutron (n) and () particle is:
(1)e, p, n, (2)n, , p, e (3)n, p, e, (4)n, p, , e
50. Photoelectric emission is observed from a surface for frequencies v 1 and v2 of
the incident radiation (v1>v2). If the maximum kinetic energies of the photoelectrons in the two
cases are in the ratio 1:k then the threshold frequencies v0 is given by:
v2 v1 kv1 v2 kv2 v1 v2 v1
(1) k 1 (2) k 1 (3) k 1 (4) k
51. The ratio of the difference in energy of electron between the first and second
Bohrs orbits to that between second and third Bohrs orbits is:
1 27 9 4
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 9

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52. If the series limit of wavelength of the Lyman series for the hydrogen atoms is
912 , then the series limit of wavelength for the Balmer series of the hydrogen atom is:
(1)912 (2) 9122 (3) 9124 (4) 912/2
53. The difference in angular momentum associated with the electron in two successive
orbits of hydrogen atom is:
h h h ( n 1) h
(1) p (2) 2p (3) 2 (4) 2p
-1
54. The shortest for the Lyman series is (Given RH=109678 cm ):
(1)911 (2) 700 (3)600 (4)811
55. The longest for the Lyman series is ..(Given, RH=109678 cm-1):
(1)1215 (2)1315 (3)1415 (4)1515
56. The electronic transition from n=2 to n=1 will produce shortest wavelength in:
(1)H-atom (2)D-atom (3) He+ ion (4)Li2+ ion
57. The first emission line of Balmer series in H spectrum has the wave number equal to:
9 RH 9 RH 3RH 5 RH
cm 1 cm1 cm 1 cm 1
(1) 400 (2) 144 (3) 4 (4) 36
58. The maximum sum of the number of neutrons and protons in an isotope of hydrogen is:
(1)6 (2)5 (3)4 (4)3
59. If the speed of electron in the Bohrs first orbit of hydrogen atom is x, the speed of the
electron in the third Bohrs orbit is:
x x
(1) 9 (2) 3 (3) 3x (4) 9x
2+
60. The electronic configuration of a dipositive ion M is 2,8,14 and its mass number is 56.
The number of neutrons present is
(1)32 (2)42 (3)30 (4)34
61. Which transition in the hydrogen atomic spectrum will have the same wavelength as the
transition, n=4 to n=2 of He+ spectrum?
(1)n=4 to n=3 (2)n=3 to n=2 (3)n=4 to n=2 (4) n=2 to n=1
62. The radius of the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.529 . The radius of the third
orbit of H+ will be
(1) 8.46 (2) 0.705 (3) 1.59 (4) 4.79
63. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. What will be the ionization energy
of He+?
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 54.4 eV (3) 122.4 eV (4) Zero
64. A particle having a mass of 1.0 mg has a velocity of 3600 km/h. Calculate the
wavelength of the particle. (h=6.62610-27 erg-s)
(1) 6.62610-28 cm (2) 6.62610-29 cm (3) 6.62610-30 cm (4) 6.62610-31 cm
-31
65. Uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass = 9.110 kg) moving with a velocity
300 ms , accurate upon 0.001% will be (h=6.6310-34 Js)
-1
(1) 19.210-2 m (2) 5.7610-2 m (3) 1.9210-2 m (4) 3.8410-2 m

66. Which of the following is Heisenberg uncertainty principle?
h h h h
Dx.Dp Dx.Dp = Dx.Dp Dx.Dp <
(1) 4p (2) 4p (3) 4p (4) 4p
67. According to aufbau principle, the correct order of energy of 3d,4s and 4p orbitals is
(1) 4p<3d<4s (2)4s<4p<3d (3) 4s<3d<4p (4)3d<4s<4p
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68. Aufbau principle does not give the correct arrangement of filling up of atomic orbitals
in
(1)Cu and Zn (2)Co and Zn (3)Mn and Cr (4)Cu and Cr
69. Which of the following set of variables give a straight line with a negative slope when plotted?
(p= Vapour pressure, T=temperature in K)
y-axis x-axis y-axis x-axis
(1) p T (2) log10 p T
(3) log10 p 1/T (4) log10 p log10 1/T
70. In which one of the following does the given amount of chlorine exert the least pressure in a
vessel of capacity 1 dm3 at 273 K?
(1)0.0355 g (2)0.071
21
(3)6.02310 molecules (4)0.02 moles
71. 0.5 mole of each of H2, SO2 and CH4 are kept in a container. A hole was made in the container.
After 3h, the order of partial pressures in the container will be
(1)pSO2>pH2>pCH4 (2) pSO2>pCH4>pH2
(3) pH2>pSO2>pCH4 (4) pH2>pCH4>pSO2
72. Diffusion of helium gas is four times faster than
(1)CO2 (2)SO2 (3)NO2 (4)O2
73. In order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%, the pressure of the gas should be
(1)increased by 10% (2)increased by 1%
(3)decreased by 10% (4)decreased by 1%
-3
74. The density of a gas is 1.964 g dm at 273 K and 76 cm Hg. The gas is
(1)CH4 (2)C2H6 (3)CO2 (4)Xe
75. The density of O2 is 16 at NTP. At what temperature its density will be 14? Consider that the
pressure remains constant, at
(1)500C (2)390C (3)570C (4)430C
76. Daltons law of partial pressure is applicable to which one of the following systems?
(1)NH3+HCl (2)NO+O2 (3)H2+Cl2 (4)CO+H2
77. A bubble of volume V1 is in the bottom of a pond at 15 0C and 1.5 atm pressure when its comes
V2
at the surface it observes a pressure of 1 atm at 250C and have volume V2, give V1
(1) 15.5 (2)0.155 (3)155.0 (4)1.55
78. Daltons law of partial pressure is not applicable to
(1)O2+O3 (2)CO+CO2 (3)NH3+HCl (4)I+O2
79. 10 g each of CH4 and O2 are kept in cylinders of same volume under same temperatures, give
the pressure ratio of two gases
(1)2:1 (2)1:4 (3)2:3 (4)3:4
80. Calculate the total pressure in a 10.0 L cylinder which contains 0.4 g helium, 1.6 g oxygen and
1.4 g nitrogen at 270C.
(1)0.492 atm (2)49.2 atm (3)4.92 atm (4)0.0492 atm
81. A gaseous mixture contains 56 g of N 2, 44 g of CO2 and 16 g of CH4. The total pressure of
mixture is 720 mm of Hg. The partial pressure of methane is
(1)75 atm (2)160 atm (3)180 atm (4)215 atm
82. If both oxygen and helium gases are at the same temperature, the rate of diffusion of O 2 is very
close to
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(1) 4 times that of He (2)2 times that of He

(3)0.35 times that of He (4)8 times that of He
83. Correct gas equation is:
p1T1 p2T2 V1T2 V2T1 p1V1 T1 V1V2
= = = = p1 p2
(1) V1 V2 (2) p1 p2 (3) p2V2 T2 (4) T1T2
84. Charles law is represented mathematically as
KV0 273 t
Vt = Vt = V0 (1 + ) Vt = V0 (1 + )
(1)Vt=KV0t (2) t (3) t (4) 273
85. If the temperature of 500 mL of air increases from 27 0C to 420C under constant pressure, then
the increases in volume shall be
(1)15 mL (2)20 mL (3)25 mL (4)30 mL
86. Based on kinetic theory of gases following laws can be proved
(1)Boyles law (2)Charles law (3)Avogadros law (4)All of these
87. Hydrogen diffuses six times faster than gas A. The molar mass of gas A is
(1)72 (2)6 (3)24 (4)36
88. Slope between pV and p at constant temperature is
1 4 1
(1)Zero (2)1 (3) 2 1 (4) 2
89. At NTP, the density of a gas, whose molecular weight is 45, is
(1)44.8 g/L (2)11.4 g/L (3)2 g/L (4)3 g/L
90. It two moles of an ideal gas at 546 K occupy volume 44.8 L, then pressure must be
(1)2 atm (2)3 atm (3)4 atm (4)1 atm
Part C (Biology)
91. The enzymes responsible for the digestiion of starch in food of man is present in
(1) The salivary and gastric secretions (2) The salivary and pancreatic secretions
(3) The gastric and pancreatic secretions (4) The gastric and duodenal secretions
92. Which of the following shows correct pairing for salivary glands in man
(1) Parotid Whartons duct ; submaxillary duct of Stensen ; sublingual duct of Revinus
(2) Parotid duct of Revinus ; submaxillary duct of Stensen ; sublingual Whartons duct
(3) Parotid duct of Revinus ; submaxillary Whartons duct ; sublingual duct of
Stensen
(4) Parotid duct of Stensen ; submaxillary Whartons duct ; sublingual duct of
Revinus
93. In man, the bile juice secreted on average per day is
(1) 700 ml (2) 1200 ml (3) 400 ml (4) 1500 ml
94. The bile secreted by the liver cells passes into the gall bladder through
(1) Hepato-pancreatic duct (2) Cystic duct
(3) Hepatic duct (4) Hepato-gall duct
95. The functional unit for the absorption of digested food is
(1) Crysts of Lieberkuhn (2) Peyers patches
(3) Villi (4) Brunners gland
96. Which one of the following is the correct matching set of gland and its secretion
(1) Pituitary gland - Thyroxin (2) Salivary gland - Amylase
(3) Adrenal cortex - Vasopressin (4) Islets of Langerhans - Secretin
97. Gastric juice contains
(1) Pepsin, rennin, lipase (2) Pepsin, amylase, rennin
(3) Pepsin, amylase, trypsin (4) Lipase, rennin, trypsin
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98. Deamination occurs in liver to

(1) Get rid of urea from blood (2) Synthesis amino acids
(3) Make use of excess amino acid (4) Convert proteins to urea and uric acid
99. Succus entericus is secreted by
(1) Islets of Langerhans (2) Gastric gland
(3) Uterine crypt and endometrium (4) Crypts of Leiberkuhn and Brunners gland
100. Which word best describes the action of bile on fats
(1) Neutralisation (2) Digests (3) Emulsification (4) Absorbs
101. Surgical removal of gall bladder in human beings would lead to
(1) Impairment of the digestion of fat
(2) Increased acidity in the intestine
(3) Jaundice
(4) None of the above
102. Ammonia is formed during digestion in
(1) Liver (2) Small intestine (3) Large intestine (4) Stomach
103. Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells and their secretion of correctly matched
(1) Oxyntic cells - A secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0
(2) Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans - Secretion that decreases blood sugar level
(3) Kupffer cells - A digestive enzyme that hydrolyses nucleic acids
(4) Sebaceous glands - A secretion that evaporates for cooling
104. Liver is called the reticular gland because
(1) The shape is reticular
(2) It contains reticular tissue
(3) Lobules branches and anastomose with one another to form a network
(4) Hepatic duct and cystic duct unite to form the bile duct
105. Kupffer cells are present in
(1) Liver (2) Lungs (3) Spleen (4) Gall bladder
106. Duct of Wirsung is a duct of
(1) Liver (2) Pancreas (3) Gall bladder (4) Duodenum
107. Match the type of cells listed under column I with the secretions given under column II.
Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns
Column I Column II
(Type of cells) (Secretions)
(A) Beta cells (p) Lysozyme
(B) Mast cells (q) Histamine
(C) Paneth cells (r) Insulin
(D) Acinar cells (s) Pancreatic enzymes
(1) A = r ; B = s ; C = p ; D = q (2) A = s ; B = q ; C = p ; D = r
(3) A = r ; B = q ; C = p ; D = s (4) A = q ; B = r , C = p , D = s
108. Lysozymes are found in -
(1) Saliva (2) Tears (3) Saliva and tears both (4) Mitochondria
109. The amount of gastric juice secreted per day from mans stomach is about
(1) 5000 ml to 10000 ml (2) 2000 ml to 3000 ml
(3) 100 ml to 500 ml (4) 10 ml to 15 ml
110. Kupffer cells of liver are
(1) Loose connective tissue (2) Phagocytic cell
(3) Mast cell (4) Fat cell
111. The largest gland in the human body is
(1) Liver (2) Brain (3) Pancreas (4) Thyroid
112. Lactase is found in
(1) Saliva (2) Bile (3) Pancreatic juice (4) Intestinal juice
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NEET | 09.07.2017
113. Bilirubin and biliverdin are found in

(1) Blood (2) Bile (3) Pancreatic juice (4) Saliva
114. Trysinogen is an inactive enzyme secreted by the pancreas. It is activated by
(1) Pepsin of stomach (2) Chymotrypsin (3) Bile (4) Enterokinase
115. If pancreas is removed, the compound which remain undigested is
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Fats (3) Proteins (4) All of these
116. Chylomicrons are -
(1) Undigested proteins (2) Undigested carbohydrates
(3) Fat droplets coated with glycerol and protein (4) Fat droplets coated with phospholipids
117. The process by which digested food of the alimentary canal passes through its mucous
membrane into circulatory system -
(1) Absorption (2) Assimilation (3) Hydrolysis (4) Defecation
118. Trypsin is a digestive enzyme which occurs in mammals and digests
(1) Starch in buccal cavity in an alkaline medium
(2) Protein in stomach in an acidic medium
(3) Protein in duodenum in an acidic medium
(4) Protein in duodenum in an alkaline medium
119. Which one of the following statements about glycogen is correct
(1) It is a disaccharide stored in the liver and takes part in the formation of bile and lipase,
besides being a source of energy
(2) It is synthesised in the liver and takes part in the formation of bile and lipase, besides
being a source of energy
(3) It is a polysaccharide which is synthesised and stored in liver cells
(4) It is synthesised in blood and stored in liver and muscles to provide glucose in times of
need
120. During digestion the lymphatics of the intestine become filled with fat globules which give
white colour to the lymph. This lymph is known as
(1) Chyle (2) Haemoconia (3) Fluids plasma (4) Bilirubin
121. Digestion is -
(1) Absorption of water (2) Absorption of food
(3) Conversion of non-diffusable food particle in diffusable food particle
(4) None of these
122. Most digestion and absorption of food takes place in
(1) Stomach (2) Small intestine (3) Large intestine (4) Caecum
123. Emulsification of fats is brought about by -
(1) Bile pigments (2) bile salts (3) Pancreatic juice (4) HCl
124. The end product of fat digestion is
(1) Amino acids (2) Starch (3) Fatty acids (4) Glucose
125. Some proteolytic enzymes are
(1) Trypsin, peptidase, pepsin (2) Amylopsin, steapsin, ptyalin
(3) Amylopsin, lipase, zymase (4) Urease, zymase, dehydrogenase
126. Pepsin acts on
(1) Fats (2) Proteins (3) Carbohydrates (4) Glucose
127. Digestion of starch takes place in
(1) Stomach and duodenum (2) Buccal cavity and duodenum
(3) Buccal cavity and oesophagus (4) Duodenum only
128. The food that enters intestine from stomach is called -
(1) Chyle (2) Chyme (3) Fundus (4) None of these
129. Which one of the following is the matching pair of digestive enzyme and substrate
(1) Rennin - Protein (2) Amylase-Lactose (3) Trypsin-Starch (4) Invertase-Maltose
130. Digestion of which component of the food is likely to be most adversely affected if the pH of
stomach is made neutral (7)
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NEET | 09.07.2017
(1) Sucrose (2) Starch (3) Protein (4) Fat

131. Milk protein is acted upon by a gastric enzyme
(1) Casein (2) Rennin (3) Pepsin (4) Caseinogen
132. Digestion of protein is necessary due to
(1) Proteins are not absorbed as such (2) Proteins are large molecules
(3) Proteins have complex structure (4) Proteins are made up of amino acids
133. Bile salt are poured into the alimentary canal where they are necessary for the absorption of
(1) Na+ and Ca++ (2) Fat soluble vitamin
(3) Amino acids and monosaccharides (4) All the nutrients contained in chyme
134. The pH of success entericus is or In intenstine, pH value is
(1) 7.6 (2) 6.6 (3) 5.6 (4) 2.0
135. The amount of bile released in proportion to the amount of
(1) Fat in meal (2) Protein in meal
(3) Carbohydrate in meal (4) All of these
136. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor
(1) In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active
enzyme pepsin.
(2) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not
converted to trypsin
(3) Gastric juice will be dificient in chymosin
(4) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen
137. Salivary amylase, a digestive enzyme begins digestion of
(1) Proteins (2) Fats (3) Carbohydrates (4) All of these
138. Math list I with list II and choose the correct option
List I List II
(A) Salivary amylase (p) Proteins
(B) Bile salts (q) Milk proteins
(C) Rennin (r) Starch
(D) Pepsin (s) Lipids
(E) Steapsin (t) Emulsification of fats
(1) A - (t) ; (B) - (s) ; (C) - (p) ; (D) - (q) ; (E) - (r)
(2) A - (q) ; (B) - (r) ; (C) - (s) ; (D) - (t) ; (E) - (p)
(3) A - (q) ; (B) - (s) ; (C) - (r) ; (D) - (p) ; (E) - (t)
(4) A - (r) ; (B) - (t) ; (C) - (q) ; (D) - (p) ; (E) - (s)
139. Which of the following statement is correct
(1) Though secretin is an enzyme, it is not involved in digestion
(2) Secretin in an enzyme and so it helps digestion
(3) Secretin is a hormone but it plays a role in digestion
(4) Secretin is a hormone and hence it does not play any role in digestion
140. Zymogen cells or chief cells secrete
(1) Hydrochloric acid (2) Mucous (3) Pepsin (4) Trypsin
141. Which one of the following four secretions is correctly matched with its source, target and
nature of action
Secretion Source Target Action
(1) Gastrin Internal lining of stomach Oxyntic cells Production of HCl
(2) Inhibin Sertoli cells Hypothalamus Inhibition of

secretion gonadotropin releasing
hormone

13
NEET | 09.07.2017
(3) Enterokinase Duodenum Gall bladder Release of bile juice
(4) Atrial Sinu atrial Juxta- Inhibition of release of renin

Natriuretic Factor (ANF) node (SAN) M-cells glomerular
of Atria apparatus
(JGA)
142. Pepsin is produced by
(1) Salivary glands (2) Stomach (3) Duodenum (4) Small intestine
143. Glucagon secreted by the alpha-cells of the islets of Langerhans does this function
(1) Glucagon converts glucose into glycogen and increases the concentration of blood sugar
(2) Glucagon converts glycogen into glucose and increases the concentration of blood sugar
(3) Glucagon converts glucose into glycogen (4) None of these
144. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given
Column I Column II
(A) Ptyalin (i) Lipids
(B) Pepsin (ii) Starch
(C) Steapsin (iii) DNA
(D) Nuclease (iv) Proteins
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv (2) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii (4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-i
145. Which of the following hormone stimulates the secretion of gastric juice
(1) Secretin (2) Gastron (3) Cholecystokinin (4) Gastrin
146. Cholecystokinin is a secretion of
(1) Stomach which stimulates pancreas to release the pancreatic juice
(2) Liver synthesised from cholesterol and controls secondary sexual characters
(3) Duodenum and makes the gall bladder to contract and release bile
(4) Goblet cells of ileum and stimulates the secretion of succus entericus
147. Secretin
(1) Stimulates enzyme secretion by pancreas, inhibits acid secretion in stomach, stimulates
gall bladder
(2) Stimulates bicarbonate secretion by pancreas, inhibits acid secretion in stomach,
stimulates bicarbonate secretion by liver
(3) Stimulates acid secretion in stomach, potentiates action of CCK, inhibits intestinal
movement
(4) Stimulates gall bladder, inhibits acid secretion in stomach, stimulates bicarbonate secretion
by pancreas.
148. The hormone 'secretin' stimulates secretion of
(1) Pancreatic juice (2) Bile juice (3) Salivary juice (4) Gastric juice
149. Enterokinase is in
(1) Bile juice (2) Intestinal juice (3) Pancreatic juice (4) Pancreatic hormone
150. Identify the correct set which shows the name of the enzymes from where it is secreted &
substrate upon which it acts
(1) Pepsin-stomach wall- casein (2) Ptyalin- intestine-maltose
(3) Chymotrypsin- salivary gland-lactose (4) Ptyalin - pancreas-lipid CoA
151. Which of the following digest proteins into peptides
(1) Erepsin (2) Rennin (3) Pepsin (4) Lipase
152. Which of the following process will be affected by the absence of enterokinase
(1) Lipid Fatty acid + glycerol (2) Dipeptides Amino acid
(3) Proteoses Dipeptide (4) Amylase Maltose
153. Prorennin is secreted by
(1) Zymogen cells (2) Islet of langerhans (3) Sertoli cells (4) Hepatocytes
14
NEET | 09.07.2017
154. When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food, low in proteins and calories; the infants
below the age of one year are likely to suffer from
(1) Marasmus (2) Rickets (3) Kwashiorkor (4) Pellagra
155. Statements
(A) The element which is very important for the production of thyroxine is iodine
(B) Vitamin B6 is otherwise known as niacin or nicotinic acid
(C) Fructose is a monosaccharide and is a hexose sugar
(D) Globulin is an example for a conjugated protein
Which option is true -
(1) A, B and C are correct but D is wrong
(2) A and C are correct but B and D are wrong
(3) A and B are correct but C and D are wrong
(4) A is correct while B, C and D are wrong
156. Starch and cellulose are compounds of many units of
(1) Amino acids (2) Glycerol (3) Simple sugars (4) Fatty acids
157. Glucose, galactose and fructose all have the same molecular size and composition and their
absorption through the mucosal cells takes place
(1) At the same rate (2) Glucose is absorbed most rapidly
(3) Fructose is absorbed most rapidly (4) Galactose is absorbed most rapidly
158. During prolonged fasting
(1) The first to be used up are carbohydrates, next fat is withdrawn and proteins are
metabolised at the last
(2) The first to be used up are the fats, next carbohydrates are withdrawn from stored
glycogen in the liver and muscles and proteins are withdrawn at the last
(3) First lipids are used up, then proteins and finally carbohydrate
(4) None of these
159. Milk protein is -
(1) Rennin (2) Casein (3) Galactose (4) Glycine
160. Digestion of protein takes place in
(1) Duodenum and stomach (2) Stomach and oesophagus
(3) Small and large intestine (4) Intestine and rectum
161. Vitamin D is synthesised by one of the following with the help of sunlight
(1) Skin (2) Gall bladder (3) Brain (4) Pancreas
162. Deficiency of vitamin C causes
(1) Anaemia (2) Rickets (3) Scurvy (4) Xerophthalmia
163. Which of the following are required in minimum amount by
(1) Iron, iodine, carbon, manganese, copper, O2
(2) Iron, iodine, manganese, copper, zinc, fluorine
(3) Iron, iodine, manganese, zinc, hydrogen
(4) Nitrogen, oxygen, zinc, fluorine
164. Which of the following vitamin is needed for the coagulation of blood
OR
Necessary vitamin for blood clotting is -
(1) B (2) C (3) K (4) E
165. Fat soluble vitamins are
(1) Vitamin A, B and C (2) Vitamin A, B and D
(3) Vitamin A,D ,E and K (4) Vitamin C and D
15
NEET | 09.07.2017
166. Vitamin C is
(1) Ascorbic acid (2) Nicotinic acid (3) Lipoic acid (4) Aspartic acid
167. Calciferol is
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin D2
168. Term "vitamin" was given by
(1) James Lind (2) Sterling (3) Funk (4) J.e. Drummond
169. The disease anaemia is caused by the deficiency of one of the following vitamin
(1) Biotin (2) Folic acid (3) Ascorbic acid (4) Niacin
170. Which reserve food a starving man first consumes
(1) Fat (2) Protein (3) Glycogen (4) Vitamin
171. Vitamin E helps in
(1) Maintaining the lipid membrane healthy (2) Maintaining the steroid hormone level in blood
(3) The prevention of skin disorders (4) The prevention of bleeding disease
172. Deficiency of it, causes loss of appetite, mental weekness, fatigue and muscle depreciation
(1) Vitamin - K (2) Vitamin - C (3) Thiamine (4) Riboflavin
173. In beri-beri
(1) The coagulation time increases
(2) Dermatitis in organs exposed to sun rays
(3) The depigmentation of skin and hair starts
(4) The affect over peripheral nervous system, gastrointestinal tract and cardiovascular is
pronounced
174. Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature,
nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the
following is likely to alleviate his symptoms
(1) Riboflavin (2) Iron compounds
(3) Thiamine (4) Folic acid and cobalamine
175. A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine even when he is kept on a
carbohydrate free diet. The most likely reason for that is
(1) Amino acids are catabolised in the liver to form sugar
(2) Amino acids are discharged in the blood stream from the liver
(3) Fats are catabolised to form glucose
(4) None of these
176. Rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults is caused by the deficiency of
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D
177. Tonics made out of the liver are very effective in curing haematopoiesis or anaemia because
(1) They contain proteins (2) They contain RBCs
(3) They contain bile juice (4) They contain vitamin B12
178. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of
(1) Thiamine (2) Ascorbic acid (3) Niacin (B5) (4) Calciferol
179. Iodine deficiency causes
(1) Kwashiorkor (2) Anaemia (3) Marasmus (4) Goitre
180. Which group of three of the following five statement (1 - 5) contain is all three correct
statements regarding beri-beri
(A) A crippling disease prevalent among the native population of sub-Saharan Africa
(B) A deficiency disease caused by lack of thiamine (vitamin B1)
16
NEET | 09.07.2017
(C) A nutritional disorder in infants and young children when the diet is persistently deficient in
essential protein
(D) Occurs in those countries where the staple diet is polished rice
(E) The symptoms are pain from neuritis, paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive oedema
mental deterioration and finally heart failure.
(1) B,D and E (2) A, B and D (3) A, C and E (4) B, C and E
ANSWER KEY 09.07.2017

PART A (PHYSICS)
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans 3 4 2 2 3 2 1 4 4 1
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 3 2 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 4
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 3 4 4 3
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans
Q.No 41 42 43 44 45
Ans
PART B (CHEMISTRY)
Q.No 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 1
Q.No 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
Ans 4 4 4 2 3 4 4 2 2 3
Q.No 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 1 3 4 3 1 2 2 3 3 2
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
Ans 4 4 3 1 1 3 3 3 4 3
Q.No 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 4 1 1 3 1
PART C (BIOLOGY)
Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 2 4 1 3 3 2 1 3 4 3
Q.No 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans 1 1 1 3 1 2 3 3 2 2
17
NEET | 09.07.2017
Q.No 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 1 4 2 4 4 3 1 4 3 1
Q.No 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 128 130
Ans 3 2 2 3 1 2 2 2 1 3
Q.No 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 2 1 2 1 1 1 3 4 3 3
Q.No 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans 4 2 2 3 4 3 4 1 2 1
Q.No 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 1 2 1
Q.No 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans 1 3 2 3 3 1 3 3 2 3
Q.No 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 3 4 4 3 4 4 3 4 1

18

Neet - Combined Test - 2 (P, C, B) - 09.07.2017

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NEET | 09.07.

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

(1) The particle has a constant acceleration

(1) The force is zero (2) There is a force acting towards

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

14. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45 0 with the horizontal. Elevation angle of

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is correct

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

(1) 5m/s (2) 10m/s (3) 15m/s (4) 20m/s

(1) 10m (2) 20m (3)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

(1) 400/3 m (2) 5000/3 m (3) 2000 m (4) 3000m

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

(3) Its average speed is u/2 (4) Its average speed is u.

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

(1) 19.210-2 m (2) 5.7610-2 m (3) 1.9210-2 m (4) 3.8410-2 m

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

(1) 4 times that of He (2)2 times that of He

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

98. Deamination occurs in liver to

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

113. Bilirubin and biliverdin are found in

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

(1) Sucrose (2) Starch (3) Protein (4) Fat

(2) Inhibin Sertoli cells Hypothalamus Inhibition of

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

(3) Enterokinase Duodenum Gall bladder Release of bile juice

(4) Atrial Sinu atrial Juxta- Inhibition of release of renin

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

ANSWER KEY 09.07.2017

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

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