DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE

St. Josephs College (Autonomous)

Tiruchirappalli 620 002
Course B.Sc Computer Science
Sem V Paper Code 14UCS530214 Units IV
Title of the
Database Systems
Paper
Dr. S.Albert Rabara, Prof. J.Rex, Prof. K.Maheswaran, Prof. B. Rex
Staff Name
Cyril
UNIT I
1. A _______ is one that can be dispersed or replicated among different
point in a nature.
a) Record b) Data
c) Distributed database d) Table
c) Distributed database
2. A _______ file consist of only one file or table with each entry
containing all the required data defined with in it.
a) Data b) Binary
c) Flat d) Float
c) Flat
3. ________ database is like a cabinit several folders each containing
olny one type of data.
a) Float b) Realtional
c) Distributed d) All of these
b) Realtional
4. ________ system is computer based system which aims at regording
and maintaining information.
 a) Data b) Distributed
c) Database d) Software
c) Database
5. A database system involves ________ components.
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
c)4
6. Which of the following is not a role of DBA?
a) Defining the content of b) Cordanating with users
database
c) Laydown policy for backup d) None of these
and recovery
d) None of these
7. SSO stands for ________
a) System security officer b) System security object
c) Security system object d) Serever system officer
a) System security officer
8. ________ is a data in the data directory.
a) User data b) Admin data
c) Raw data d) Meta data
d) Meta data
9. ________ is a method employed to structure of data.
a) User model b) Meta model
c) Data model d) Direct model
 c) Data model
10. _________ hides differences and emphasizes similarities.
a) Generalization b) Aggregation
c) Relationship c) E R model
a) Generalization
11. E R stands for _______
a) Entity Relationship b) Entire Relationship
c) Entity c) Entire
a)Entity Relationship
12. DBA stands for ________
a) Database Administator b) Database Access
c) Database Advisor d) Database Application
a) Database Administator
13. Which of the following is not a type of users?
a) Application programmer b) End user
c) Physical user d) DBA
c) Physical user
14. ________ writes programs that use database.
a) DBA b) Application programmer
c) End user d) All of the above
b) Application programmer
15. Database is an _______ different from input data and output data.
a) Operational data b) User data
 c) Information d) Processing data
a) Operational data
16. ________ is one , which comes into the system from outside world.
a) Input data b) Output data
c) User data d) Program data
a)Input data
17. A ________ is the collection of stored optional data used by
application system.
a) Database b) DBMS
c) Relational data d) Distributed data
a) Database
18. Which of the following is not an advantage of database?
a) Redundancy can be b) Inconsistency can be
maximized minimized
c) The data can be shared d) Security can be enforced
a) Redundancy can be maximized
19. Which of the following user level view?
a) External schema b) Conceptual view
c) Internal view d) All of these
a)External Schema
20. Which of the following is administrator level view?
a) External view b) Conceptual view
c) Internal view d) None of these
b)Conceptual View
21. Internal view is ____________ representation of entire database.
a) Low level b) High level
c) Medium level d) Admin level
a)low level
22. Which of the following is not a component of database systems?
a) User b) Data
c) Hardware d) Network
d) Network
23. _________ are sub divided into one or more databases.
a) Table b) Record
c) Data d) Information
c) Data
24. ________ is a repositers or storage of the data.
a) Database b) Computer
c) Information d) All of these
a)Database
25. DBMS stands for ________
a) Database maintain system b) Database mailing system
c) Distributed maintained d) Database management system
system
d) Database management system
26. ________ lies between the physical database and users of the system.
a) Data b) Table
c) Database d) DBMS
 d) DBMS
27. Access return to coming from usres or handled by ________.
a) Computer b) Internet
c) DBMS d) Server
c) DBMS
28. DBMS lies between ________ database and ________ of the system.
a) Physical, users b) Internal, users
c) Conceptnal, usres d) Conceptnal, physical
a) Physical, users
29. In ER-diagram rectangle symbol represent______
a) Entity b) Attribute
c) Relationship d) Both A and B
a) Entity
30. A/An _______ is represented by a set of attribute
a) Relationship b) Key
c) Entity d) Attribute
c) Entity
UNIT - II
31. The _______ are addresses which contain the actual stored records.
a) Hashing technique b) Datablocks
c) Dynamic hashing d) Direcriory depth

32. SAR stands for____________

 a) Stored record Archive b) System record Archive
c) Stored record Address d) System record Address
c)Stored Record Address
33. The radio of the space acutally required by the records of a file to the
actual space allocated for the file is know as __________.
a) Hashing b) Loading
c) Read factor d) identity
c) Read Factor
34. A data block contain ________ records.
a) Single b) Multiple
c) a or b d) Unique
b) Multiple
35. Dynamic hashing technique has _________ parts.
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
b) 2
36. Which one of the following is a part of dynamic hashing technique?
a) Directory path b) Directory length
c) Directory depth d) Directory block
c) Directory depth
37. How many ways to physically organized files on storage device?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
c) 3
38. ______ is a method used in direct file organisation
a) Hashing b) sequential
c) Interface d) indexing
a) Hashing
39. _______ organization allows only direct method to store and access
records on the disk.
a) Direct b) Indirect
c) Indexed d) Sequential
a) Direct
40. An index file has a record that contains a ___________ and ________
a) Data value,file b) Pointer,file
c) Data value pointer d) File,index
c) datavalue, Pointer
41. _____ structure index was indexed by bayer
a) B-Tree b) B+Tree
c) Indexing d) Dynamic
a) B- tree
42. The indexing technique suggested by kunth has _____________parts
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
b) Two
43. A/An ____can be create on one or more fields
a) Index b) Hashing
c) Clustering d) Data Block
 a) Index
44. _______ is a method of storing tables which are selected and often
accessed together.
a) Hashing b) Clustering
c) Tree d) Indexing
b) clustering
45. Clusters are used to improve_________
a) Size b) Data
c) Performance d) Table
c) Performance
46. A combination of index set and sequence set is known as__________
a) B-Tree b) B+Tree
c) Hashing d) Indexing
b) B+ tree
47. The ______method was formally introduced by B.F.Codd
a) Relational b) Hireachical
c) Network d) Entity
a) Relational
48. A relational datebase is a collection of ________dimensional table
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) None of these
b) Two
49. The organization of data into relational tables is known as the____ of
the database
 a) Load view b) Logical view
c) Relational view d) Strucuture
b) Logical view
50. Each row of the table is called a _____ of a relation
a) Internal view b) Tuple
c) Cartisian Product d) Domain
b) tuple
51. A ________ is similar to the mechanism used in dictonary.
a) Hashing b) Entity
c) Domain d) Clustered index
d) Clustered index
52. A ______ is an association between two or more tables
a) Primary key b) Relationship
c) Entity d) Data
b) relationship
53. A ______ block contain multiple records
a) Data b) Table
c) File d) All of these
a) Data
54. _________ are used to improve performance
a) Indexing b) Clustering
c) Merging d) Joining
b) Clustering
55. Non-clustered type of index is similer to the index of a _____
a) Record b) Book
c) Data d) Value
b) Book
56. B- tree has _____ parts
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
b) Two
57. The data blocks are ________
a) Tables b) Entities
c) Addresses d) All of these
c) Addresses
58. Relational tables have ______ properties
a) Two b) Four
c) Six d) Eight
c) Six
59. Relational tables values are _________
a) Automic b) True
c) Unique d) Simple
a) Atomic
60. Each column in relational tables must have a unique ______
a) Records b) Name
c) Value d) Data
 b) Name
UNIT III
61. FD stands for:
a) Functional dependency b) Facilitate dependency
c) Functional data d) Facilitate data

Answer: a) Functional dependency

62. The database design prevents some data from being represented due to
_______
a) Deletion anomalies b) Insertion anomalies
c) Update anomaly d) None of these
Answer: b) Insertion anomalies
63. Who developed the normalization process?
a) E.F. Codd b) F.F. Codd
c) E.E. Codd d) None of these
Answer: a) E.F. Codd
64. The different classes of relations created by the technique for
preventing modification anomalies are called
a) normal forms b) referential integrity constraints
c) functional dependencies. d) None of these

Answer: a) normal forms

65. Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that design by
examining the relationship between attributes?
a) Functional dependency b) Database modeling
c) Normalization d) Decomposition
 Answer: c) Normalization
66. Which is the process of breaking a relation into multiple relations?
a) Functional dependency b) Database modeling
c) Normalization d) Decomposition
Answer: d) Decomposition
67. In decomposition technique of splitting a relation into_____ relation
a) ONE or MORE b) TWO or MORE
c) THREE or MORE d) FOUR or MORE
Answer: b) TWO or MORE
68. Code suggested how many forms in normalization process:
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
Answer: c) 3
69. Consequently R.Boyce-Codd jointly launched powerful definition for
the third normal form called______
a) Boyce-Codd normal form b) First normal form
c) Second normal form d) All of these
Answer: a) Boyce-Codd normal form
70. Which forms simplifies and ensures that there is minimal data
aggregates and repetitive groups?
a) 1NF b) 2NF
c) 3NF d) 4NF
Answer: a) INF
71. Which forms every non-prime attribute is fully dependent functionally
 on the candidate key of a relational schema?
a) 1NF b) 2NF
c) 3NF d) 5NF
Answer: b) 2NF
72. Which forms is required when although NF is present more
normalization is required?
a) 1NF b) 2NF
c) 3NF d) 5NF
Answer: c)3NF
73. Which form has a relation that possesses data about an individual
entity?
a) 1NF b) 2NF
c) 3NF d) 4NF
Answer: d) 4NF
74. PJNF stands form
a) Practicallyjoin normal form b) Project Join Normal Form
c) Pages Join Normal Form d) Programming Join Normal
Form
Answer: b) Project Join Normal Form
75. A table has fields F1, F2 , F3 , F4, F5 with the following functional
dependencies
F1>F3,
F2>F4
(FI,F2)>F5
In terms of normalization, this table is in
 a) 1NF b) 2NF
c) 3NF d) All of the Above
Answer: a) 1NF
76. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
a) Any relation with two b) A relation in which every key
attributes is in BCNF has only one attributes is in
2NF
c) A prime attribute can be d) A prime attribute can be
transitively dependent on a transitively dependent on a key
key in 3 NF relation in a BCNF relation
Answer: d) A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in
a BCNF relation
77. Fifth Normal form is concerned with
a) Functional dependency b) Multivalued dependency
c) Join dependency d) Domain key
Answer: c) Join dependency
78. A table is in the _____ if only candidate keys are the determinants.
a) functional dependency b) transitive dependency
c) 4 NF d) BCNF
Answer: d) BCNF
79. In 2NF
a) No functional dependencies b) No multivalued dependencies
exist. exist.
c) No partial functional d) No partial multivalued
dependencies exist dependencies exist.
 Answer: c) No partial functional dependencies exist
80. Which normal form is considered adequate for normal relational
database design?
a) 2NF b) 3NF
c) 5NF d) 1NF
Answer: b) 3NF
81. Whenever two independent one-to-many relationships are mixed in
the same relation, a_______ arises.
a) Functional dependency b) Multi-valued dependency
c) Transitive dependency d) Partial dependency
Answer: b) Multi-valued dependency
82. Relations produced from an E-R model will always be
a) 1NF b) 2NF
c) 3NF d) 4NF
Answer: a) INF
83. A functional dependency is a relationship between or among
a) Tables b) Rows
c) Relations d) attributes
Answer: d) attributes
84. Normalization is a process of restructuring a relation to
a) minimize duplication of data b) maximize duplication of data to
in a database ensure reliability
c) make it of uniform size d) allow addition of data
Answer: a) minimize duplication of data in a database
85. The process of normalization
a) is automatic using a b) requires one to understand
computer program dependency between attributes
c) is manual and requires d) is finding the key of a relation
semantic information
Answer: b) requires one to understand dependency between attributes
86. A relation is said to be in 1NF if
a) there is no duplication of b) there are no composite
data attributes in the relation
c) there are only a few d) all attributes are of uniform
composite attributes type
Answer: b) there are no composite attributes in the relation
87. BCNF is needed because
a) otherwise tuples may be b) when a data is deleted tuples
duplicated may be lost
c) updating is otherwise d) when there is dependent
difficult attributes in two possible
composite keys one of the
attributes is unnecessarily
duplicated in the tuples
Answer: d) when there is dependent attributes in two possible
composite keys one of the attributes is unnecessarily duplicated in the
tuples.
88. A 3NF relation is converted to BCNF by
a) removing composite keys b) removing multivalued
dependencies
 c) dependent attributes of d) dependent non-key attributes
overlapping composite keys are put in a separate table
are put in a separate
relation
Answer: c) dependent attributes of overlapping composite keys are put
in a separate relation
89. Consider the following:
S1: Foreign key allows null values.
S2: Every binary tables is in BCNF.
Which of the following is true ?
a) Both S1 and S2 are true b) S1 is true
c) S2 is true d) All of the Above
Answer: b) S1 is true
90. The relation scheme student performance (name, courseNo, rollNo,
grade) has the following functional dependencies:
name, curseNo --> grade
Rol INo, courseNo > grade
name > rollNo
rollNo > name
The highest normal form of this relation scheme is:
a) 2NF b) 3NF
c) 4NF d) BCNF
Answer: b) 3NF
UNIT - IV
91. If two relations R and S are joined, then the non matching tuples of
both R and S are ignored in
a) left outer join b) right outer join
c) full outer join d) inner join
 Answer: d) inner join
92. DROP is a ______________ statement in SQL.
a) Query b) Embedded SQL
c) DDL d) DCL
Answer: c) DDL
93. Union operator is a
a) Unary operator b) Ternary operator
c) Binary operator d) Not an operator
Answer: c) Binary operator
94. The clause alter table in SQL can be used to
a) Add an attribute b) Delete an attribute
c) Alter the default values of an d) All of the above
attribute
Answer: d) All of the above
95. A table can have only one
a) Secondary key b) Alternate key
c) Unique key d) Primary key
Answer: d) Primary key
96. An advantage of views is
a) Data security b) Derived columns
c) Hiding of complex queries d) All of the above
Answer: a) Data security
97. Which of the following aggregate functions does not ignore NULLs in
its results?
 a) COUNT b) COUNT(*)
c) MAX d) MIN
Answer: b) COUNT(*)
98. The _______ command is used to take away a privilege that was
granted.

a) Revoke b) grant
c) Rollback d) drop
Answer: a) Revoke
99. Count function in SQL returns the number of
a) Values b) distinct values
c) Groups d) columns
Answer: a) values
100. Composite key is made up of
a) One column b) One super key
c) One foreign key d) Two or more columns
Answer: d) Two or more columns
101. __________ is the full form of SQL.
a) Structure Query Language b) Structure Query List
c) Simple Query Language d) Simple Query List
Answer: a) Structure Query Language
102. In SQL, which of the following is a Data Definition Language
command?
a) Rename b) Revoke
c) Update d) Grant
 Answer: a) Rename
103. __________ SQL group function is used to retrieve a maximum value.
a) Top b) High
c) Upper d) Max
Answer: d) Max
104. Which of the following SQL command is used to retrieve data?
a) Delete b) Select
c) Join d) Alter
Answer: b) Select
105. ________ clause in SQL is used to sort the result-set.
a) Sort by b) Asc by
c) Order by d) order
Answer: c) Order by
106. Which of following command makes the updates performed by the
transaction permanent in the database?
a) Rollback b) Commit
c) Grant d) None of the these
Answer: b) Commit
107. The SQL keyword BETWEEN is used ____________
a) to limit the columns b) For ranges
displayed
c) As a wildcard d) None of these
Answer: b) For ranges
108. ___________ is the SQL command is used to add data into a database
 table.
a) Add b) Append
c) Insert d) Alter
Answer: c) Insert
109. Which of the following is a SQL aggregate function?
a) LEFT b) JOIN
c) LEN d) AVG
Answer: d) AVG
110. Which of the following SQL statement is correct?
a) select username and b) select username, password from
password from users users
c) select username, password d) None of these.
where username=Raj
Answer: b) select username, password from users
111. Which of the following is not a grouping function
a) SUM b) AVG
c) DISTINCT d) COUNT
Answer: c) DISTINCT
112. All aggregate function ignores NULLs except for
a) Distinct b) Count(*)
c) Average() d) None of these
Answer: b) Count(*)
113. The __________ constraint uniquely identifies each record in a
database table and null values are not allowed.
 a) Primary key b) Foreign key
c) Non-key d) Unique key
Answer: a) Primary key
114. The ______________ constraint is used to prevent actions that would
destroy links between tables.
a) Foreign key b) Primary key
c) Alternate key d) Super key
Answer: a) Foreign key
115. The _________ operator allows you to specify multiple values in a
WHERE clause.
a) IN b) BETWEEN
c) LIKE d) OUT
Answer: a) IN
116. The _________ return all rows from the left table even if there are no
matches in the right table.
a) JOIN b) LEFT JOIN
c) RIGHT JOIN d) FULL JOIN
Answer: b) LEFT JOIN
117. What operator performs pattern matching?
a) IS NULL operator b) ASSIGNMENT operator
c) LIKE operator d) NOT operator
Answer: c) LIKE operator
118. _____ single row function returns numeric position of a character or a
string in a given string.
a) INSTR b) SUBSTR
 c) REVERSE d) LENGTH
Answer: a) INSTR
119. Which of the following is a single row function in SQL.
a) SUM() b) AVG()
c) COUNT() d) LENGTH()
Answer: d) LENGTH()
120. A ________ is a query within another SQL query and embedded
within the WHERE clause.
a) Sub query b) Inner query
c) Nested query d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
UNIT - V
121. PL/SQL stands for
a) Programming b) Procedural Language/SQL
Language/SQL
c) Portable Language/SQL d) None of the above
Answer: b) Procedural Language/SQL
122. Which of the following provides a way for your program to select
multiple rows of data from the database and then process each row
individually?
a) PL/SQL Cursors b) PL/SQL Trigger
c) PL/SQL Select d) PL/SQL Process
Answer: a) PL/SQL Cursors
123. PL/SQL Exception message consists of
 a) Type of Exception b) An Error Code
c) A message d) All mentioned above
Answer: d) All mentioned above
124. Which is a simple or compound symbol that has a special meaning to
PL/SQL?

a) Delimiters b) Identifiers
c) Literals d) Comments
Answer: a) Delimiters
125. Which structure executes a sequence of statements repeatedly as long
as a condition holds true?

a) Selection structure b) Iteration structure

c) Sequence structure d) None of the above
Answer: b) Iteration structure
126. Which statement chooses from a sequence of conditions and executes
a corresponding statement?
a) CASE Statement b) CLOSE Statement
c) COMMIT Statement d) None of the above
Answer: a) CASE Statement
127. PL/SQL has two types of subprograms, procedures and functions.
Which subprogram is used to compute a value?
a) Procedure b) Function
c) Both A & B d) None of the these
Answer: b) Function
128. ___________a cursor enables you to define the cursor and assign a name
 to it.

a) Declaring b) Stating
c) Extracting d) Importing
Answer: a) Declaring
129. _________ are used to recreate if trigger already exists.
a) Cursor b) Trigger
c) Keywords d) Replace
Answer: d) Replace
130. ____________ is used to define code that is executed or fired when
certain actions or event occur.
a) Cursor b) Trigger
c) Keywords d) Replace
Answer: b) Trigger
131. What does a COMMIT statement do to a CURSOR ?
a) Open the cursor b) Fetch the cursor
c) Close the cursor d) None of these
Answer: d) None of these
132. __________ cursor are declared by ORACLE for each UPDATE,
DELETE and INSERT SQL commands.
a) Implicit b) Explicit
c) Internal d) External
Answer: a) Implicit
133. __________ cursors are declared and used by the user to process
multiple row, returned by SELECT statement.
 a) Implicit b) Explicit
c) Internal d) External
Answer: b) Explicit
134. A ________ is a database object that groups logically related PL/SQL
types, objects and subprograms.
a) Module b) Package
c) Body d) Name
Answer: b) Package
135. In the PL/SQL, the package specification contains _____ declarations.
a) Public b) Private
c) Friend d) Protected
Answer: a) Public
136. What happens when rows are found using a FETCH statement
a) It causes the cursor to close b) It causes the cursor to open
c) It loads the current row d) It creates the variables to hold
values into variable the current row values

Answer: b) It causes the cursor to open

137. List the correct sequence of commands to process a set of records
when using explicit cursors.
a) initialize, get, close b) cursor, get, fetch, close
c) open, fetch, close d) cursor, fetch, close
Answer: c) open, fetch, close
138. Where do you declare an explicit cursor in the PL/SQL language?
a) In the PL/SQL working b) In the PL/SQL declaration
 storage section section

c) In the PL/SQL body section d) In the PL/SQL exception

section
Answer: b) In the PL/SQL declaration section

139. Which attribute is an invalid attribute of an explicit cursor?

a) %NOTFOUND b) %FOUND
c) %ROWCOUNT d) None of these
Answer: d) None of these
140. Find the ODD one out of the following
a) OPEN b) CLOSE
c) INSERT d) FETCH
Answer: c) INSERT
141. Which of the following is TRUE
1) Host variables are declared anywhere in the program.
2) Host variables are declared in the DECLARE section.
a) Only 1 is TRUE b) Only 2 is TRUE
c) Both 1 & 2 are TRUE d) Both are FALSE
Answer: b) Only 2 is TRUE
142. Which of the following is NOT VALID in PL/SQL?
a) Bool boolean; b) NUM1, NUM2 number;

c) deptname dept.dname%type; d) date1 date := sysdate;

Answer: b) NUM1, NUM2 number;
143. Which of the following is not correct about User_Defined Exceptions?
 a) Must be declared b) Must be raised explicitly
c) Raised automatically in d) None of the these
response to an Oracle error
Answer: c) Raised automatically in response to an Oracle error
144. When creating a function, in which section will you typically find a
return keyword?
a) Header only b) Declarative
c) Executable and Header d) Executable and exception
handling
Answer: c) Executable and Header
145. Which of the following can be used as argument for a procedure
parameter?
a) The name of a variable b) A literal value
c) An expression d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
146. The PL/SQL supports _________.
a) Single-line comment b) Multi-line comments
c) Both a) & b) d) Neither a) nor b)
Answer: c) Both a) & b)
147. What are the three parameter modes for a procedure?
a) IN, OUT, IN OUT b) READ, WRITE, APPEND
c) CONST, VAR, DEF d) COPY, NOCOPY, REF
Answer: a) IN, OUT, IN OUT
148. Which statement execute a sequence of statements multiple times?
 a) EXIT b) LOOP
c) Both a) & b) d) None of the above
Answer: b) LOOP
149. Which statements are used to control a cursor variable?
a) OPEN-FOR b) FETCH
c) CLOSE d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
150. A Stored Procedure is a
a) Sequence of SQL or PL/SQL b) Stored in compiled form in the
statements to perform database
specific function
c) can be called from all client d) All of these
environments
Answer: d) All of these

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