DEPARTMENT OF COMPTER SCIENCE

St. Josephs College (Autonomous)

Tiruchirappalli 620 002
Course MCA
Sem III Paper Code 14SCS3102 Units IV
Title of the
DATABASE SYSTEMS
Paper
Staff Name Dr. S. Albert Rabara

UNIT - I
1. Data is:

a) A piece of fact b) metadata

c) Information d) None of these
Answer: a)A piece of fact

2. Which of the following is none of the database element?

a) Data b) constrain and schema

c) Relationships d) object
Answer: d) object
3. The name of the system database that contains descriptions of data in
the database is:
a) Data dictionary b) Metadata
c) Table d) none of these
Answer: b) metadata
4. Relationships could be of the following type:
a) one to one relationships b) one to many relationships
 c) Many to many relationships d) all of these
Answer: d) all of these
5. IDS formed the basis for the:
a) Network model b) hierarchical model
c) Relational model d) all of these
Answer: a) Network model
6. DSDL is used to specify:
a) Internal schema b) external schema
c) Conceptual schema d) None of these
Answer: a) Internal schema
7. DDL stands for_________________

a) Data Document language b) Data Definition Language

c) Data Division Language d) none of these

Answer: b) Data Definition Language
8. DML stands for_________________
a) Document Model Language b) Data Model Language

c) Data Manipulation Language d) none of these

Answer: c) Data Manipulation Language

9. following is the type of metadata:

a) Operational b) EDW
c) Data mart d) all of these
Answer: c) Data mart
10. A file is a collection of related sequence of records:

a) Related records b) related fields

c) Related data items d) System Record
Answer: a) Related records
11. A collection of data designed to be used by different people is called:

a) Database b) RDBMS
c) DBMS d) None of the above
Answer: a) Database
12. Which of the following is a characteristic of the data in database?

a) processor b) memory
c) Independent d) all of these
Answer: c) Independent
13. Which of the following is the database management activity of
coordinating the actions of database manipulation process that operate
concurrently, access shared data and can potentially interfere with
each other?

a) Concurrency management b) database management

c) Transaction management d) information management
Answer: a) Concurrency management
14. An object-oriented DBMS is capable of holding:

a) Data and text b) picture and images

c) Voice and video d) Structure and components
 Answer: d) Structure and components

15. Which of the following is not an object oriented features?

a) Inheritance b) abstraction
c) Polymorphism d) network

Answer: d) network

16. A record-based data model are used to:

a) Specify over all logical b) describes data and its

structure of the database relationships
c) High level description of d) All of the above
storage structure and access
mechanism
Answer: a) Specify over all logical structure of the database
17. An object-oriented data models are used to:

a) Specify over all logical b) describes data and its

structure of the database relationships
c) High level description of d) all of these
storage structure and access
mechanism
Answer: b) describes data and its relationships
18. Relational data model was first introduced by:
 a) APARC b) E.F.Cord
c) ANSI d) chen.
Answer: b) E.F.Cord
19. The E-R data model was first by:

a) APARC b) E.F.Cord
c) ANSI d) chen.
Answer: d) chen.
20. What is the smallest unit of data in the relational model?

a) Data type b) Field

c) Data value d) None of these.
Answer: b) field
21. Which is the RDBMS terminology for the number of attributes in a
relation?

a) Data type b) Field

c) Data value d) none of these
Answer: a) Data type
22. What is a set of possible data values called?

a) Degree b) relationships
c) Domain d) Tuple.
Answer: c) Domain
23. What is the RDBMS terminology for a set of legal values that an
attribute can have?
 a) Tuple b) Relation
c) Attribute d) Domain
Answer: d) domain
24. What is the RDBMS terminology for a column?

a) Tuple b) Relation
c) Attribute d) Domain

Answer: c) Attribute

25. A table can have only one:

a) Primary key b) alternative key

c) Candidate key d) all of this

Answer: a) Primary key

26. What is the degree of a table with 5000 rows and 50 columns?

a) 50 b) 500
c) 5000 d) all of this

Answer: a) 50
27. The father of relational database is:
a) Pascal b) C.J Date
c) Dr.Edgar F. Cord d) none of these
Answer: c) Dr.Edgar F. Cord
28. Which of the following is not a relational database system?

a) Ingress b) DB2
c) IMS d) None of these
Answer: c) IMS
29. What is the RDBMS terminology for row?

a) Tuple b) Relation
c) Attribute d) domain
Answer: a) Tuple
30. What is the cardinality of a table with 5000 rows and 50 columns?

a) 10 b) 50
c) 500 d) 5000
Answer: d) 5000
UNIT II
31. Who developed SEQUEL?

a) Dr.E.F. Codd b) Chris Date

c) D.Chamberlain d) None of these
Answer: d) None of these.
32. System R was based on

a) Tuple b) Relation
c) Attribute d) A and B
Answer: d) A and B
33. Which of the following is a data query statement in QUEL?

a) GET b) RETRIEVE
c) SELECT d) None of these.
Answer: b) RETRIEVE
34. The first commercial RDBMS is:

a) INGRESS b) DB2
c) ORACLE d) None of these.
Answer: a) INGRESS
35. Which of the following is the result of a SELECT statement?

a) TRIGGER b) INDEX
c) TABLE d) None of these.
Answer: c) TABLE
36. Which of the following is a clause in SELECT statement?

a) GROUP BY and HAVING b) ORDER BY

c) WHERE d) All of these.
Answer: d) All of these.
37. Which is the following table is used to modify a table?

a) MODIFY TABLE b) UPDATE TABLE

c) ALTER TABLE d) All of these.
Answer: d) All of these.
38. ALTER operation of SQL is used for:
 a) Deleting tables from schema b) change of the definition of the
table

c) Both of these d) None of these

Answer: b) change of the definition of the table

39. Which of the following clause specifies the table or tables from where
the data has to be retrieved?

a) WHERE b) TABLE
c) FROM d) None of these
Answer: c) FROM
40. SELECT operation of SQL is a:

a) Data Query language b) data definition language

c) Data manipulation language d) data control language
Answer: a) Data Query language
41. How many tables can be joined to create a view?

a) 1 b) 2
c) Database dependent d) None of these.
Answer: d) None of these
42. Which of the following is used to get all the columns of a table?

a) * b) @
c) % d) #
Answer: a) *
43. REVOKE command of SQL is a:

a) Data Query language b) data definition language

c) Data manipulation language d) data control language

Answer: d) data control language

44. Which of the following is not a DDL statement?

a) ALTER b) DROP
c) CREATE d) SELECT
Answer: d) SELECT
45. Which of the following is not a DML statement?

a) UPDATE b) COMMIT
c) INSERT d) DELETE.
Answer: b) COMMIT
46. Codds formation rule states that:

a) A relational database b) Null values are systematically

management system must supported independent of data
manage the database entirely type.
through its relational
capabilities.
c) All information is d) None of these.
represented logically by
values in tables.
Answer: d) A relational database management system must manage
 the database entirely through its relational capabilities.
47. QBE was originally developed by

a) Dr. E. F. Codd b) M. M. Zloof

c) T. J. Watson d) None of these.
Answer: b) M. M. Zloof
48. Which of the following is a comparison operator used in SELECT
statement?

a) Like b) BETWEEN
c) IN d) Not equal to
Answer: d) Not equal to
49. GRANT command of SQL is a:

a) Data Query language b) data definition language

c) Data manipulation language d) data control language

Answer: d) data control language

50. COMMIT Statement of SQL TCS

a) Ends the transaction b) aborts the transaction

successfully
c) Both of these d) none of these
Answer: a) Ends the transaction successfully
51. ROLLBACK statement of SQL TCS

a) Ends the transaction b) aborts the transaction

 successfully
c) Both of these d) none of these
Answer: a) aborts the transaction

52. Which is the following statement used to create table?

a) CREATE TABLE b) MAKE TABLE

c) CONSTRUC TABLE d) none of these
Answer: a) CREATE TABLE
53. DROP operation of SQL is used for:

a) deleting the table from b) changing the definition of table

schema
c) Both of these d) none of these
Answer: a) deleting the table from schema
54. Which of the following is a not a data definition statement?

a) INDEX b) CREATE
c) MODIFY d) DELETE
Answer: a) INDEX
55. The SQL data definition language (DDL) provides comment for:
a) Definition b) deletion
c) Modifying relation schemas d) Updation
Answer: c) Modifying relation schemas
56. You can add a row using SQL in a database with which of the
following?
 a) ADD b) CREATE
c) INSERT d) MAKE
Answer: c) INSERT
57. The command to remove rows from a table 'CUSTOMER' is:

a) DELETE b) DROP FROM CUSTOMER...

c) REMOVE FROM d) USE CUSTOMER

CUSTOMER WHERE ...
Answer: b) DROP FROM CUSTOMER...
58. The SQL WHERE clause:

a) Limits the column data that b) Limits the row data are
are returned. returned.

c) Both A and B are correct. d) Neither A nor B are correct.

Answer: d) Limits the row data are returned.

59. Which of the following is the original purpose of SQL?

a) To specify the syntax and b) To specify the syntax and

semantics of SQL data semantics of SQL manipulation
definition language language
c) To define the data structures d) All of these
Answer: d) All of these
60. The wildcard in a WHERE clause is useful when?

a) An exact match is necessary b) An exact match is not possible

in a SELECT statement. in a SELECT statement.
 c) An exact match is necessary d) An exact match is not possible
in a CREATE statement. in a CREATE statement.
Answer: b) An exact match is not possible in a SELECT statement.
UNIT III
61. During the query processing ,the syntax of the query is checked by

a) Parser. b) Compiler
c) Syntax checker d) none of these
Answer: a) Parser.
62. The query is parsed, validated and optimized in the method called

a) Static query optimization b) recursive query optimization

c) Dynamic query optimization d) repetitive query optimization

Answer: c) Dynamic query optimization

63. In which phase of query processing is the query lexically and
syntactically analyzed using parameters to find out any syntax errors?

a) normalization b) semantic analysis

c) analysis d) all of these
Answer: c) analysis
64. Which of the following represents the result of a query in a query
tree?

a) Root node b) leaf node

c) intermediate node d) intermediate node
Answer: a) Root node
65. The objective of query simplifier is

a) Transformation b) detection
c) elimination d) all the three
Answer: d) all the three
66. Which of the following is not true

a) RUS=SUR. b) RS=SR
c) R-S=S-R d) All of these.
Answer: c) R-S=S-R
67. Which of the following query processing method is more efficient?

a) pipelining b) Materialization
c) Tunneling d) none of these
Answer: d) pipelining
68. The success of estimating size and cost of intermediate relational
algebra operations depends on the emphasis of cost minimization
depends on the

a) Amount of statistical data b) Accuracy of statistical data

information stored with the information stored with the
DBMS DBMS

c) both A and B d) All of these

Answer: d) both A and B
69. The emphasis of cost minimization depends on the
 a) Size of database applications b) Size of database applications
c) Both A and B d) None of these.
Answer: d) Both A and B
70. Usually, heuristic rules are used in the form of

a) Query tree b) query graph data structure

c) both A and B d) either A or B

Answer: d) either A or B
71. Which of the following is not an execution strategy?

a) Performing projection b) Performing selection operations

operations
c) Computing common d) Insertion and Deletion
expression

Answer: d) Insertion and Deletion

72. A query execution strategy is evaluated by

a) access or execution plan b) query tree

c) database catalog d) None of these.
Answer: c) access or execution plan
73. The first phase of query processing is

a) Decomposition b) Restructuring
c) Analysis d) None of these.
Answer: a) Decomposition
74. Normalization is a process of

a) Decomposing a set of b) Successive reduction of relation

relations. schema.

c) Deciding which attributes is d) All of these

a relation to be grouped
together

Answer: c) Condition stub

75. Row is synonymous with the term

a) Record. b) Relation.
c) Column. d) Field.
Answer: a) Record.
76. A relation is in this form if it is in BCNF and has no multivalued
dependencies:

a) Second normal form. b) Third normal form.

c) Fourth normal form. d) Domain/key normal form.
Answer: c) Fourth normal form.
77. The different classes of relations created by the technique for
preventing modification anomalies are called:

a) Normal forms. b) Referential integrity

constraints.
c) Functional dependencies. d) None of the above is correct.
 Answer: a) Normal forms.
78. Every time attribute A appears, it is matched with the same value of
attribute B, but not the same value of attribute C. Therefore, it is true
that:

a) A B. b) A C.
c) A (B, C). d) (B, C) A.
Answer: a) A B.
79. The primary key is selected from the:

a) Composite keys. b) Determinants.

c) Candidate keys. d) Foreign keys.
Answer: c) Candidate keys.
80. When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key
must exist in another set of one or more attributes in another table, we
have created a (n):
a) Transitive dependency. b) Insertion anomaly.
c) Referential integrity d) Normal form.
constraint.
Answer: c) Referential integrity constraint.
81. in 1NF,

a) All domains are simple b) In a simple domain, all

elements are atomic
c) Both A and B d) None of these
Answer: c) Both A and B
82. 2 NF is always in
 a) 1NF b) BCNF
c) MVD. d) none of these
Answer: a) 1NF
83. A relation R is said to be in 2NF

a) if it is in 1NF b) Every non primary key

attributes of R is fully
functionally dependent on each
relation key of R
c) if it is in BCNF d) Both A and B
Answer: d) Both A and B
84. A relation R is said to be in 3NF if the

a) Relation R is in 2NF b) Non-prime attributes are

manually independent.

c) functionally dependent on d) all of these

the primary key
Answer: d) all of these
85. The idea of multi valued dependency was introduced by

a) E. F. Codd b) R. F Boyce.
c) R. Fagin d) none of these
Answer: c) R. Fagin
86. The explanation of BCNF is

a) Boyd-Codd Normal Form b) Boyce-Ccromwell Normal

 Form

c) Boyce-Codd Normal Form d) none of these

Answer: c) Boyce-Codd Normal Form
87. The fourth normal form (4NF) is concerned with dependencies
between the elements of compound keys composed of

a) One attribute. b) Two attributes.

c) Three or more attributes d) none of these
Answer: c) Three or more attributes
88. A functional dependency is a relationship between or among:

a) Tables. b) Rows.
c) Relations. d) Attributes.
Answer: d) Attributes.
89. An attribute is a(n):

a) Column of a table. b) Two dimensional table.

c) Row of a table d) Key of a table.
Answer: b) column of a table.
90. A key:

a) Must always be composed of b) Can only be one column.

two or more columns.
c) Identifies a row. d) Identifies a column.
Answer: c) Identifies a row.
 UNIT IV
91. ........................ is a procedural extension of Oracle - SQL that offers
language constructs similar to those in imperative programming
languages.

a) SQL b) PL/SQL
c) Advanced SQL d) PQL
Answer: b) PL/SQL
92. ..................... combines the data manipulating power of SQL with the
data processing power of Procedural languages.

a) PL/SQL b) SQL
c) Advanced SQL d) PQL
Answer: a) PL/SQL
93. . ................... has made PL/SQL code run faster without requiring
any additional work on the part of the programmer.

a) SQL Server b) My SQL

c) Oracle d) SQL Lite
Answer: c) Oracle
94. A line of PL/SQL text contains groups of characters known
as.......................

a) Lexical Units b) Literals

c) Textual Units d) Identifiers
Answer: a) Lexical Units
95. We use ........................ name PL/SQL program objects and units.
 a) Lexical Units b) Literals
c) Delimiters d) Identifiers
Answer: d) Identifiers
96. A................... is an explicit numeric, character, string or Boolean
value not represented by an identifier.

a) Comments b) Literals
c) Delimiters d) Identifiers
Answer: b) Literals
97. If no header is specified, the block is said to be a......................
PL/SQL block.

a) Strong b) Weak
c) Empty d) Anonymous
Answer: d) Anonymous
98. ............. Is a sequence of zero or more characters enclosed by single
quotes?

a) Integers literal b) String literal

c) String units d) String label
Answer: b) String literal
99. In ........................, the management of the password for the account
can be handled outside of oracle such as operating system.

a) Database Authentication b) Operating System

Authentication
 c) Internal Authentication d) External Authentication
Answer: b) Operating System Authentication
100. In ............................ of Oracle, the database administrator creates a
user account in the database for each user who needs access.

a) Database Authentication b) Operating System

Authentication
c) Internal Authentication d) External Authentication
Answer: a) Database Authentication
101. ........................ are used to recreate if trigger already exists.

a) Cursor b) Trigger
c) Keywords d) Replace
Answer: d) Replace
102. .............................. is used to define code that is executed / fired when
certain actions or event occur.

a) Cursor b) Trigger
c) Keywords d) Replace
Answer: b) Trigger
103. . ................. provide a way for your program to select multiple rows of
data from the database and then process each row individually.

a) PL/SQL Cursors b) PL/SQL Trigger

c) PL/SQL Select d) PL/SQL Process
Answer: a) PL/SQL Cursors
104. ........................... cursors are declared by ORACLE for each
UPDATE, DELETE and INSERT SQL commands.

a) Implicit b) Explicit
c) Internal d) External
Answer: a) Implicit
105. ......................... cursors are declared and used by the user to process
multiple row, returned by SELECT statement.

a) Implicit b) Explicit
c) Internal d) External
Answer: b) Explicit
106. ....................... contain a pointer that keeps track of current row being
accessed, which enables your program to process the rows at a time.

a) Tracker b) Cursor
c) Accesser d) Trigger
Answer: b) Cursor
107. ....................... a cursor enables you to define the cursor and assign a
name to it.

a) Declearing b) Stating
c) Extracting d) Importing
Answer: a) Declearing
108. In ................... the cursor advances to the next row in the active set
each time the fetch command is executed.
 a) Recreating process b) redefining process
c) iterative process d) none of the above
Answer: c) Iterative process
109. A ......................... is a database object that groups logically related
PL/SQL types, objects and subprograms.

a) Module b) Package
c) Body d) Name
Answer: b) Package
110. In the PL/SQL, the package specification contains.......................
Declarations.

a) Public b) Private
c) Friend d) Protected
Answer: a) Public
111. What does a COMMIT statement do to a CURSOR

a) Open the Cursor b) Fetch the Cursor

c) Close the Cursor d) None of the above
Answer: d) None of the above
112. Which of the following is TRUE
1] Host variables are declared anywhere in the program
2] Host variables are declared in the DECLARE section

a) Only 1 is TRUE b) Only 2 is TRUE

c) Both 1 & 2are TRUE d) Both are FALSE
Answer: b) Both are FALSE
113. Which of the following is NOT VALID is PL/SQL

a) Bool boolean; b) NUM1, NUM2 number;

c) deptnamedept.dname%type; d) date1 date := sysdate
Answer: b) NUM1, NUM2 number;
114. Declare
fvarnumber := null; svar number := 5
Begin
goto<<fproc>>
if fvar is null then
<<fproc>>
svar := svar + 5
end if;
End;

What will be the value of svar after the execution ?

a) Error b) 10
c) 5 d) None of these
Answer: a) error
115. Which of the following is not correct about an Exception?

a) Raised automatically / b) An exception will be raised

Explicitly in response to an when an error occurs in that
ORACLE_ERROR block
c) Process terminates after d) A Procedure or Sequence of
completion of error statements may be processed.
sequence.
 Answer: c) Process terminates after completion of error sequence.
116. Which of the following is not correct about User_DefinedExceptions?

a) Must be declared b) Must be raised explicitly

c) Raised automatically in d) None of the above
response to an Oracle error
Answer: c) Raised automatically in response to an Oracle error
117. A Stored Procedure is a

a) Sequence of SQL or PL/SQL b) Stored in compiled form in the

statements to perform database
specific function
c) Can be called from all client d) All of the above
environments
Answer: d) All of the above
118. Which of the following statement is false

a) Any procedure can raise an b) Error number ranging from

error and return an user 20000 to 20999 are reserved for
message and error number user defined messages
c) Oracle checks Uniqueness of d) Raise_Application_error is
User defined errors used for raising an user defined
error.
Answer: c) Oracle checks Uniqueness of User defined errors
119. Is it possible to open a cursor which is in a Package in another
procedure?

a) Yes b) No
 c) None of these d) All of these
Answer: a) yes
120. Is it possible to use Transactional control statements in Database
Triggers?

a) Yes b) No
c) None of these d) All the above
Answer: b) no
UNIT V
121. The concurrency control has the following problem:

a) Lost updates b) read

c) write d) delete
Answer: a) Lost updates
122. Locking can take place at the following levels

a) Page level b) database level

c) Row level d) all the three

Answer: d) all the three

123. Which of the following is not transaction property?

a) Isolation b) Durability
c) Atomicity d) Scalability
Answer: d) Scalability.
124. Which of the following ensures the durability of a transaction?

a) Application programmer b) concurrency control

 c) Recovery management d) transaction management
Answer: c) Recovery management
125. In binary locking, there are

a) One state of locking b) two state of locking

c) Three state of locking d) None of these.
Answer: b) two state of locking
126. A transaction can include following basic database access operations:

a) Read_item(X) b) Write_item(X)
c) Both A and B d) None of these.
Answer: c) Both A and B
127. Which of the following is not a deadlock handling strategy?

a) Time out b) deadlock annihilation

c) Deadlock prevention d) Deadlock detection.
Answer: b) deadlock annihilation
128. In a growing phase, a transaction acquires all the required locks

a) By locking data b) without unlocking any data

c) With unlocking any data d) none of these
Answer: b) without unlocking any data
129. In optimistic methods, each transaction moves through the following
phase:

a) Update phase b) Validation phase

c) Delete phase d) Collection Phase.
 Answer: b) Validation phase.
130. The way to unto the effects of a committed transaction is?

a) Recovery b) compensating transaction

c) Rollback d) All the above
Answer: c) Rollback
131. Which of the following is not a recovery techniques?

a) Shadow paging b) deferred update

c) write-ahead logging d) immediate update
Answer: c) write-ahead logging
132. Which of the following failures are copies of physical database files?

a) Transaction log b) physical backup

c) Logical backup d) none of these
Answer: b) physical backup
133. Which of the following failures is caused by hardware failures?

a) Operations b) Design
c) Physical d) All the above
Answer: c) Physical
134. Which of the following is most dangerous type of failures?

a) Hardware b) Network
c) Media d) Software
Answer: a) Media
135. Hardware failure may include

a) Memory error b) disk crashes

c) Disk full errors. d) all of these.

Answer: a) all of these.
136. Which of the following is an example of a NO-UNDO/REDO
algorithms?

a) Shadow padding b) immediate update

c) Deferred update d) none of these
Answer: a) Adaptive
137. The database backup is stored in a secure place, usually

a) In a different building b) protected against danger such

as fire, theft, and flood.

c) Other potential calamities d) all of these.

Answer: d) all of these.
138. The failure may be the result of

a) A system crash due to b) A media failure such as head

hardware or software errors. crash
c) A software error in the d) all of these.
application such as a logical
error in the program that is
accessing the database
Answer: a) A system crash due to hardware or software errors.
139. Shadow paging technique maintains

a) Two page tables b) three page tables

c) Four page tables d) five page tables
Answer: a) Two page tables
140. Shadow paging was introduced by

a) Lorie b) Codd
c) IBM d) Boyce.
Answer: a) lorie
141. In which case is the query executed as a single large task?

a) parallel processing b) centralised processing

c) Sequential processing d) none of these
Answer: b) centralized processing
142. Which of the following is the explanation of DLM?

a) deadlock limiting manager b) Dynamic Lock Manager

c) Distributed Lock Manager d) None of these
Answer: d) none of these
143. Which of the following is a benefit of a parallel database system?

a) Improved Performance b) connectivity

c) Availability d) scalabilty
Answer: a) Improved Performance
144. Parallel database system has the disadvantage of
 a) Low cost. b) interference problem
c) skew problem d) All of these
Answer: b ) interference problem
145. In shared-nothing architecture, each CPU has its own copy of

a) Data b) DBMS
c) Operating system d) Software
Answer: b) DBMS
146. A global locking system is required in
a) shared-disk architecture b) shared- nothing architecture
c) Shared memory architecture d) none of these.
Answer: a) shared-disk architecture
147. Locking is the

a) Coordination of current b) Method of synchronizing

tasks. current task.
c) Both (a) and (b). d) none of these
Answer: a) Both (a) and (b).
148. Synchronization is the

a) Coordination of current b) Method of synchronizing

tasks. current task.
c) Both (a) and (b). d) None of these.
Answer: c) Both (a) and (b).
149. Speed up is a property in which the time taken for performing a task
 a) Decreases in proportion to b) Increase in proportion to the
the increase in the number of increase in the number of CPUs
CPU and disks in parallel. and disks in parallel.
c) Both A and B d) None of these
Answer: a) Decreases in proportion to the increase in the number of
CPU and disks in parallel.
150. in intra-operation parallelism,

a) The execution of a single b) Multiple transactions are

query is done in parallel on executed in parallel, one by
multiple CPUs using Shared each (CPU)
nothing parallel architecture
techniques
c) We parallelize the execution d) The different operations in
of each individual operation query expression are executed
of a task, such as sorting, in parallel.
projection, join and so on.
Answer: c) we parallelize the execution of each individual operation
of a task, such as sorting, projection, join and so on.

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