Medical-Surgical Nursing Assessment and Management of Clinical Problems 9e Chapter 42

Chapter 42: Nursing Management: Upper Gastrointestinal Problems
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A 53-year-old male patient with deep partial-thickness burns from a chemical spill in the
workplace experiences severe pain followed by nausea during dressing changes. Which action
will be most useful in decreasing the patients nausea?
a. Keep the patient NPO for 2 hours before and after dressing changes.
b. Avoid performing dressing changes close to the patients mealtimes.
c. Administer the prescribed morphine sulfate before dressing changes.
d. Give the ordered prochlorperazine (Compazine) before dressing changes.
ANS: C
Because the patients nausea is associated with severe pain, it is likely that it is precipitated by
stress and pain. The best treatment will be to provide adequate pain medication before
dressing changes. The nurse should avoid doing painful procedures close to mealtimes, but
nausea/vomiting that occur at other times also should be addressed. Keeping the patient NPO
does not address the reason for the nausea and vomiting and will have an adverse effect on the
patients nutrition. Administration of antiemetics is not the best choice for a patient with
nausea caused by pain.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 927

TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
2. Which item should the nurse offer to the patient who is to restart oral intake after being NPO
due to nausea and vomiting?
a. Glass of orange juice
b. Dish of lemon gelatin
c. Cup of coffee with cream
d. Bowl of hot chicken broth
ANS: B
Clear cool liquids are usually the first foods started after a patient has been nauseated. Acidic
foods such as orange juice, very hot foods, and coffee are poorly tolerated when patients have
been nauseated.

3. A 38-year old woman receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer develops a Candida albicans
oral infection. The nurse will anticipate the need for
a. hydrogen peroxide rinses.
b. the use of antiviral agents.
c. administration of nystatin (Mycostatin) tablets.
d. referral to a dentist for professional tooth cleaning.
ANS: C
Candida albicans is treated with an antifungal such as nystatin. Oral saltwater rinses may be
used but will not cure the infection. Antiviral agents are used for viral infections such as
herpes simplex. Referral to a dentist is indicated for gingivitis but not for Candida infection.

TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
4. Which finding in the mouth of a patient who uses smokeless tobacco is suggestive of oral
cancer?
a. Bleeding during tooth brushing
b. Painful blisters at the lip border
c. Red, velvety patches on the buccal mucosa
d. White, curdlike plaques on the posterior tongue
ANS: C
A red, velvety patch suggests erythroplasia, which has a high incidence (greater than 50%) of
progression to squamous cell carcinoma. The other lesions are suggestive of acute processes
(e.g., gingivitis, oral candidiasis, herpes simplex).
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 929

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
5. Which information will the nurse include when teaching adults to decrease the risk for cancers
of the tongue and buccal mucosa?
a. Avoid use of cigarettes and smokeless tobacco.
b. Use sunscreen when outside even on cloudy days.
c. Complete antibiotic courses used to treat throat infections.
d. Use antivirals to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections.
ANS: A
Tobacco use greatly increases the risk for oral cancer. Acute throat infections do not increase
the risk for oral cancer, although chronic irritation of the oral mucosa does increase risk. Sun
exposure does not increase the risk for cancers of the buccal mucosa. Human papillomavirus
(HPV) infection is associated with an increased risk, but HSV infection is not a risk factor for
oral cancer.

TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
6. A 46-year-old female with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is experiencing increasing

discomfort. Which patient statement indicates that additional teaching about GERD is needed?
a. I take antacids between meals and at bedtime each night.
b. I sleep with the head of the bed elevated on 4-inch blocks.
c. I eat small meals during the day and have a bedtime snack.
d. I quit smoking several years ago, but I still chew a lot of gum.
ANS: C
GERD is exacerbated by eating late at night, and the nurse should plan to teach the patient to
avoid eating at bedtime. The other patient actions are appropriate to control symptoms of
GERD.

TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
7. A 68-year-old male patient with a stroke is unconscious and unresponsive to stimuli. After
learning that the patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), the nurse
will plan to do frequent assessments of the patients
a. apical pulse.
b. bowel sounds.
c. breath sounds.
d. abdominal girth.
ANS: C
Because GERD may cause aspiration, the unconscious patient is at risk for developing
aspiration pneumonia. Bowel sounds, abdominal girth, and apical pulse will not be affected by
the patients stroke or GERD and do not require more frequent monitoring than the routine.

8. The nurse explaining esomeprazole (Nexium) to a patient with recurring heartburn describes
that the medication
a. reduces gastroesophageal reflux by increasing the rate of gastric emptying.
b. neutralizes stomach acid and provides relief of symptoms in a few minutes.
c. coats and protects the lining of the stomach and esophagus from gastric acid.
d. treats gastroesophageal reflux disease by decreasing stomach acid production.
ANS: D
The proton pump inhibitors decrease the rate of gastric acid secretion. Promotility drugs such
as metoclopramide (Reglan) increase the rate of gastric emptying. Cryoprotective medications
such as sucralfate (Carafate) protect the stomach. Antacids neutralize stomach acid and work
rapidly.

9. Which patient choice for a snack 2 hours before bedtime indicates that the nurses teaching
about gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been effective?
a. Chocolate pudding
b. Glass of low-fat milk
c. Cherry gelatin with fruit
d. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
ANS: C
Gelatin and fruit are low fat and will not decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure.
Foods such as chocolate are avoided because they lower LES pressure. Milk products increase
gastric acid secretion. High-fat foods such as peanut butter decrease both gastric emptying and
LES pressure.

10. The nurse will anticipate teaching a patient experiencing frequent heartburn about
a. a barium swallow.
b. radionuclide tests.
c. endoscopy procedures.
d. proton pump inhibitors.
ANS: D
Because diagnostic testing for heartburn that is probably caused by gastroesophageal reflux
disease (GERD) is expensive and uncomfortable, proton pump inhibitors are frequently used
for a short period as the first step in the diagnosis of GERD. The other tests may be used but
are not usually the first step in diagnosis.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 932-933

11. A 58-year-old woman who recently has been diagnosed with esophageal cancer tells the nurse,
I do not feel ready to die yet. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. You may have quite a few years still left to live.
b. Thinking about dying will only make you feel worse.
c. Having this new diagnosis must be very hard for you.
d. It is important that you be realistic about your prognosis.
ANS: C
This response is open-ended and will encourage the patient to further discuss feelings of
anxiety or sadness about the diagnosis. Patients with esophageal cancer have only a low
survival rate, so the response You may have quite a few years still left to live is misleading.
The response beginning, Thinking about dying indicates that the nurse is not open to
discussing the patients fears of dying. The response beginning, It is important that you be
realistic, discourages the patient from feeling hopeful, which is important to patients with
any life-threatening diagnosis.

TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
12. Which information will the nurse include for a patient with newly diagnosed gastroesophageal
reflux disease (GERD)?
a. Peppermint tea may reduce your symptoms.
b. Keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks.
c. You should avoid eating between meals to reduce acid secretion.
d. Vigorous physical activities may increase the incidence of reflux.
ANS: B
Elevating the head of the bed will reduce the incidence of reflux while the patient is sleeping.
Peppermint will decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure and increase the chance
for reflux. Small, frequent meals are recommended to avoid abdominal distention. There is no
need to make changes in physical activities because of GERD.

13. Which nursing action should be included in the postoperative plan of care for a patient after a
laparoscopic esophagectomy?
a. Notify the doctor about bloody nasogastric (NG) drainage.
b. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees.
c. Reposition the NG tube if drainage stops.
d. Start oral fluids when the patient has active bowel sounds.
ANS: B
Elevation of the head of the bed decreases the risk for reflux and aspiration of gastric
secretions. The NG tube should not be repositioned without consulting with the health care
provider. Bloody NG drainage is expected for the first 8 to 12 hours. A swallowing study is
needed before oral fluids are started.

14. When a 72-year-old patient is diagnosed with achalasia, the nurse will teach the patient that
a. lying down after meals is recommended.
b. a liquid or blenderized diet will be necessary.
c. drinking fluids with meals should be avoided.
d. treatment may include endoscopic procedures.
ANS: D
Endoscopic and laparoscopic procedures are the most effective therapy for improving
symptoms caused by achalasia. Keeping the head elevated after eating will improve
esophageal emptying. A semisoft diet is recommended to improve esophageal emptying.
Patients are advised to drink fluid with meals.

15. A 50-year-old man vomiting blood-streaked fluid is admitted to the hospital with acute
gastritis. To determine possible risk factors for gastritis, the nurse will ask the patient about
a. the amount of saturated fat in the diet.
b. any family history of gastric or colon cancer.
c. a history of a large recent weight gain or loss.
d. use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
ANS: D
Use of an NSAID is associated with damage to the gastric mucosa, which can result in acute
gastritis. Family history, recent weight gain or loss, and fatty foods are not risk factors for
acute gastritis.

16. The nurse determines that teaching regarding cobalamin injections has been effective when
the patient with chronic atrophic gastritis states which of the following?
a. The cobalamin injections will prevent gastric inflammation.
b. The cobalamin injections will prevent me from becoming anemic.
c. These injections will increase the hydrochloric acid in my stomach.
d. These injections will decrease my risk for developing stomach cancer.
ANS: B
Cobalamin supplementation prevents the development of pernicious anemia. Chronic gastritis
may cause achlorhydria, but cobalamin does not correct this. The loss of intrinsic factor
secretion with chronic gastritis is permanent, and the patient will need lifelong
supplementation with cobalamin. The incidence of stomach cancer is higher in patients with
chronic gastritis, but cobalamin does not reduce the risk for stomach cancer.

17. Which medications will the nurse teach the patient about whose peptic ulcer disease is
associated with Helicobacter pylori?
a. Sucralfate (Carafate), nystatin (Mycostatin), and bismuth (Pepto-Bismol)
b. Amoxicillin (Amoxil), clarithromycin (Biaxin), and omeprazole (Prilosec)
c. Famotidine (Pepcid), magnesium hydroxide (Mylanta), and pantoprazole
(Protonix)
d. Metoclopramide (Reglan), bethanechol (Urecholine), and promethazine
(Phenergan)
ANS: B
The drugs used in triple drug therapy include a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole and
the antibiotics amoxicillin and clarithromycin. The other combinations listed are not included
in the protocol for H. pylori infection.

18. Which action should the nurse in the emergency department anticipate for a 23-year-old
patient who has had several episodes of bloody diarrhea?
a. Obtain a stool specimen for culture.
b. Administer antidiarrheal medication.
c. Provide teaching about antibiotic therapy.
d. Teach about adverse effects of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
ANS: A
Patients with bloody diarrhea should have a stool culture for E. coli O157:H7. Antidiarrheal
medications are usually avoided for possible infectious diarrhea to avoid prolonging the
infection. Antibiotic therapy in the treatment of infectious diarrhea is controversial because it
may precipitate kidney complications. Acetaminophen does not cause bloody diarrhea.

19. The nurse will anticipate preparing a 71-year-old female patient who is vomiting coffee-
ground emesis for
a. endoscopy.
b. angiography.
c. barium studies.
d. gastric analysis.
ANS: A
Endoscopy is the primary tool for visualization and diagnosis of upper gastrointestinal (GI)
bleeding. Angiography is used only when endoscopy cannot be done because it is more
invasive and has more possible complications. Barium studies are helpful in determining the
presence of gastric lesions, but not whether the lesions are actively bleeding. Gastric analysis
testing may help with determining the cause of gastric irritation, but it is not used for acute GI
bleeding.

20. A 57-year-old man with Escherichia coli O157:H7 food poisoning is admitted to the hospital
with bloody diarrhea and dehydration. Which order will the nurse question?
a. Infuse lactated Ringers solution at 250 mL/hr.
b. Monitor blood urea nitrogen and creatinine daily.
c. Administer loperamide (Imodium) after each stool.
d. Provide a clear liquid diet and progress diet as tolerated.
ANS: C
Use of antidiarrheal agents is avoided with this type of food poisoning. The other orders are
appropriate.

21. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with peptic ulcer disease
about the effect of ranitidine (Zantac)?
a. Ranitidine absorbs the gastric acid.
b. Ranitidine decreases gastric acid secretion.
c. Ranitidine constricts the blood vessels near the ulcer.
d. Ranitidine covers the ulcer with a protective material.
ANS: B
Ranitidine is a histamine-2 (H2) receptor blocker, which decreases the secretion of gastric
acid. The response beginning, Ranitidine constricts the blood vessels describes the effect of
vasopressin. The response Ranitidine absorbs the gastric acid describes the effect of
antacids. The response beginning Ranitidine covers the ulcer describes the action of
sucralfate (Carafate).

22. A family member of a 28-year-old patient who has suffered massive abdominal trauma in an
automobile accident asks the nurse why the patient is receiving famotidine (Pepcid). The
nurse will explain that the medication will
a. decrease nausea and vomiting.
b. inhibit development of stress ulcers.
c. lower the risk for H. pylori infection.
d. prevent aspiration of gastric contents.
ANS: B
Famotidine is administered to prevent the development of physiologic stress ulcers, which are
associated with a major physiologic insult such as massive trauma. Famotidine does not
decrease nausea or vomiting, prevent aspiration, or prevent H. pylori infection.

23. A 68-year-old patient with a bleeding duodenal ulcer has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place, and
the health care provider orders 30 mL of aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide
(Maalox) to be instilled through the tube every hour. To evaluate the effectiveness of this
treatment, the nurse
a. monitors arterial blood gas values daily.
b. periodically aspirates and tests gastric pH.
c. checks each stool for the presence of occult blood.
d. measures the volume of residual stomach contents.
ANS: B
The purpose for antacids is to increase gastric pH. Checking gastric pH is the most direct way
of evaluating the effectiveness of the medication. Arterial blood gases may change slightly,
but this does not directly reflect the effect of antacids on gastric pH. Because the patient has
upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding, occult blood in the stools will appear even after the acute
bleeding has stopped. The amount of residual stomach contents is not a reflection of
resolution of bleeding or of gastric pH.

24. A 44-year-old man admitted with a peptic ulcer has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. When
the patient develops sudden, severe upper abdominal pain, diaphoresis, and a firm abdomen,
which action should the nurse take?
a. Irrigate the NG tube.
b. Check the vital signs.
c. Give the ordered antacid.
d. Elevate the foot of the bed.
ANS: B
The patients symptoms suggest acute perforation, and the nurse should assess for signs of
hypovolemic shock. Irrigation of the NG tube, administration of antacids, or both would be
contraindicated because any material in the stomach will increase the spillage into the
peritoneal cavity. Elevating the foot of the bed may increase abdominal pressure and
discomfort, as well as making it more difficult for the patient to breathe.

25. A 50-year-old patient who underwent a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I) earlier today

complains of increasing abdominal pain. The patient has no bowel sounds and 200 mL of
bright red nasogastric (NG) drainage in the last hour. The highest priority action by the nurse
is to
a. contact the surgeon.
b. irrigate the NG tube.
c. monitor the NG drainage.
d. administer the prescribed morphine.
ANS: A
Increased pain and 200 mL of bright red NG drainage 12 hours after surgery indicate possible
postoperative hemorrhage, and immediate actions such as blood transfusion and/or return to
surgery are needed. Because the NG is draining, there is no indication that irrigation is
needed. Continuing to monitor the NG drainage is not an adequate response. The patient may
need morphine, but this is not the highest priority action.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
26. Which patient statement indicates that the nurses teaching following a gastroduodenostomy
has been effective?
a. Vitamin supplements may prevent anemia.
b. Persistent heartburn is common after surgery.
c. I will try to drink more liquids with my meals.
d. I will need to choose high carbohydrate foods.
ANS: A
Cobalamin deficiency may occur after partial gastrectomy, and the patient may need to receive
cobalamin via injections or nasal spray. Although peptic ulcer disease may recur, persistent
heartburn is not expected after surgery and the patient should call the health care provider if
this occurs. Ingestion of liquids with meals is avoided to prevent dumping syndrome. Foods
that have moderate fat and low carbohydrate should be chosen to prevent dumping syndrome.

27. At his first postoperative checkup appointment after a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II), a
patient reports that dizziness, weakness, and palpitations occur about 20 minutes after each
meal. The nurse will teach the patient to
a. increase the amount of fluid with meals.
b. eat foods that are higher in carbohydrates.
c. lie down for about 30 minutes after eating.
d. drink sugared fluids or eat candy after meals.
ANS: C
The patient is experiencing symptoms of dumping syndrome, which may be reduced by lying
down after eating. Increasing fluid intake and choosing high carbohydrate foods will increase
the risk for dumping syndrome. Having a sweet drink or hard candy will correct the
hypoglycemia that is associated with dumping syndrome but will not prevent dumping
syndrome.

28. A 62-year-old man patient who requires daily use of a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug
(NSAID) for the management of severe rheumatoid arthritis has recently developed melena.
The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about
a. substitution of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the NSAID.
b. use of enteric-coated NSAIDs to reduce gastric irritation.
c. reasons for using corticosteroids to treat the rheumatoid arthritis.
d. misoprostol (Cytotec) to protect the gastrointestinal (GI) mucosa.
ANS: D
Misoprostol, a prostaglandin analog, reduces acid secretion and the incidence of upper GI
bleeding associated with NSAID use. Enteric coating of NSAIDs does not reduce the risk for
GI bleeding. Corticosteroids increase the risk for ulcer development, and will not be
substituted for NSAIDs for this patient. Acetaminophen will not be effective in treating the
patients rheumatoid arthritis.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 954 | 956

29. The health care provider prescribes antacids and sucralfate (Carafate) for treatment of a
patients peptic ulcer. The nurse will teach the patient to take
a. sucralfate at bedtime and antacids before each meal.
b. sucralfate and antacids together 30 minutes before meals.
c. antacids 30 minutes before each dose of sucralfate is taken.
d. antacids after meals and sucralfate 30 minutes before meals.
ANS: D
Sucralfate is most effective when the pH is low and should not be given with or soon after
antacids. Antacids are most effective when taken after eating. Administration of sucralfate 30
minutes before eating and antacids just after eating will ensure that both drugs can be most
effective. The other regimens will decrease the effectiveness of the medications.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 934 | 947

30. Which information about dietary management should the nurse include when teaching a
patient with peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?
a. You will need to remain on a bland diet.
b. Avoid foods that cause pain after you eat them.
c. High-protein foods are least likely to cause you pain.
d. You should avoid eating any raw fruits and vegetables.
ANS: B
The best information is that each individual should choose foods that are not associated with
postprandial discomfort. Raw fruits and vegetables may irritate the gastric mucosa, but
chewing well seems to decrease this problem and some patients may tolerate these foods well.
High-protein foods help neutralize acid, but they also stimulate hydrochloric (HCl) acid
secretion and may increase discomfort for some patients. Bland diets may be recommended
during an acute exacerbation of PUD, but there is little scientific evidence to support their use.

31. A 73-year-old patient is diagnosed with stomach cancer after an unintended 20-pound weight
loss. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
a. Refer the patient for hospice services.
b. Infuse IV fluids through a central line.
c. Teach the patient about antiemetic therapy.
d. Offer supplemental feedings between meals.
ANS: D
The patient data indicate a poor nutritional state and improvement in nutrition will be helpful
in improving the response to therapies such as surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation. Nausea
and vomiting are not common clinical manifestations of stomach cancer. There is no
indication that the patient requires hospice or IV fluid infusions.

32. A 26-year-old patient with a family history of stomach cancer asks the nurse about ways to
decrease the risk for developing stomach cancer. The nurse will teach the patient to avoid
a. emotionally stressful situations.
b. smoked foods such as ham and bacon.
c. foods that cause distention or bloating.
d. chronic use of H2 blocking medications.
ANS: B
Smoked foods such as bacon, ham, and smoked sausage increase the risk for stomach cancer.
Stressful situations, abdominal distention, and use of H2 blockers are not associated with an
increased incidence of stomach cancer.

33. The nurse is assessing a patient who had a total gastrectomy 8 hours ago. What information is
most important to report to the health care provider?
a.Absent bowel sounds
b.Complaints of incisional pain
c.Temperature 102.1 F (38.9 C)
d.Scant nasogastric (NG) tube drainage
ANS: C
An elevation in temperature may indicate leakage at the anastomosis, which may require
return to surgery or keeping the patient NPO. The other findings are expected in the
immediate postoperative period for patients who have this surgery.

34. A 58-year-old patient has just been admitted to the emergency department with nausea and
vomiting. Which information requires the most rapid intervention by the nurse?
a.The patient has been vomiting for 4 days.
b.The patient takes antacids 8 to 10 times a day.
c.The patient is lethargic and difficult to arouse.
d.The patient has undergone a small intestinal resection.
ANS: C
A lethargic patient is at risk for aspiration, and the nurse will need to position the patient to
decrease aspiration risk. The other information is also important to collect, but it does not
require as quick action as the risk for aspiration.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
35. A 26-year-old woman has been admitted to the emergency department with nausea and
vomiting. Which action could the RN delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
a.Auscultate the bowel sounds.
b.Assess for signs of dehydration.
c.Assist the patient with oral care.
d.Ask the patient about the nausea.
ANS: C
Oral care is included in UAP education and scope of practice. The other actions are all
assessments that require more education and a higher scope of nursing practice.

OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
36. A 49-year-old man has been admitted with hypotension and dehydration after 3 days of nausea
and vomiting. Which order from the health care provider will the nurse implement first?
a. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube.
b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr.
c. Administer IV ondansetron (Zofran).
d. Provide oral care with moistened swabs.
ANS: B
Because the patient has severe dehydration, rehydration with IV fluids is the priority. The
other orders should be accomplished as quickly as possible after the IV fluids are initiated.

37. Which patient should the nurse assess first after receiving change-of-shift report?
a. A patient with nausea who has a dose of metoclopramide (Reglan) due
b. A patient who is crying after receiving a diagnosis of esophageal cancer
c. A patient with esophageal varices who has a blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg
d. A patient admitted yesterday with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding who has melena
ANS: C
The patients history and blood pressure indicate possible hemodynamic instability caused by
GI bleeding. The data about the other patients do not indicate acutely life-threatening
complications.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization; Multiple Patients
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
38. A patient returned from a laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication for hiatal hernia 4 hours ago.
Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to address immediately?
a.The patient is experiencing intermittent waves of nausea.
b.The patient complains of 7/10 (0 to 10 scale) abdominal pain.
c.The patient has absent breath sounds in the left anterior chest.
d.The patient has hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
ANS: C
Decreased breath sounds on one side may indicate a pneumothorax, which requires rapid
diagnosis and treatment. The nausea and abdominal pain should also be addressed but they are
not as high priority as the patients respiratory status. The patients decreased bowel sounds
are expected after surgery and require ongoing monitoring but no other action.

39. Which assessment should the nurse perform first for a patient who just vomited bright red
blood?
a. Measuring the quantity of emesis
b. Palpating the abdomen for distention
c. Auscultating the chest for breath sounds
d. Taking the blood pressure (BP) and pulse
ANS: D
The nurse is concerned about blood loss and possible hypovolemic shock in a patient with
acute gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. BP and pulse are the best indicators of these
complications. The other information is important to obtain, but BP and pulse rate are the best
indicators for assessing intravascular volume.

40. Which order from the health care provider will the nurse implement first for a patient who has
vomited 1200 mL of blood?
a.Give an IV H2 receptor antagonist.
b.Draw blood for typing and crossmatching.
c.Administer 1000 mL of lactated Ringers solution.
d.Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube and connect to suction.
ANS: C
Because the patient has vomited a large amount of blood, correction of hypovolemia and
prevention of hypovolemic shock are the priorities. The other actions also are important to
implement quickly but are not the highest priorities.

41. The nurse is administering IV fluid boluses and nasogastric irrigation to a patient with acute
gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to
communicate to the health care provider?
a. The bowel sounds are hyperactive in all four quadrants.
b. The patients lungs have crackles audible to the midchest.
c. The nasogastric (NG) suction is returning coffee-ground material.
d. The patients blood pressure (BP) has increased to 142/84 mm Hg.
ANS: B
The patients lung sounds indicate that pulmonary edema may be developing as a result of the
rapid infusion of IV fluid and that the fluid infusion rate should be slowed. The return of
coffee-ground material in an NG tube is expected for a patient with upper GI bleeding. The
BP is slightly elevated but would not be an indication to contact the health care provider
immediately. Hyperactive bowel sounds are common when a patient has GI bleeding.

42. After the nurse has completed teaching a patient with newly diagnosed eosinophilic
esophagitis about the management of the disease, which patient action indicates that the
teaching has been effective?
a. Patient orders nonfat milk for each meal.
b. Patient uses the prescribed corticosteroid inhaler.
c. Patient schedules an appointment for allergy testing.
d. Patient takes ibuprofen (Advil) to control throat pain.
ANS: C
Eosinophilic esophagitis is frequently associated with environmental allergens, so allergy
testing is used to determine possible triggers. Corticosteroid therapy may be prescribed, but
the medication will be swallowed, not inhaled. Milk is a frequent trigger for attacks. NSAIDs
are not used for eosinophilic esophagitis.

43. An 80-year-old who is hospitalized with peptic ulcer disease develops new-onset auditory
hallucinations. Which prescribed medication will the nurse discuss with the health care
provider before administration?
a. Sucralfate (Carafate)
b. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
c. Metoclopramide (Reglan)
d. Aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel)
ANS: C
Metoclopramide can cause central nervous system (CNS) side effects ranging from anxiety to
hallucinations. Hallucinations are not a side effect of proton-pump inhibitors, mucosal
protectants, or antacids.

44. The nurse and a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) are working together to care
for a patient who had an esophagectomy 2 days ago. Which action by the LPN/LVN requires
that the nurse intervene?
a. The LPN/LVN uses soft swabs to provide for oral care.
b. The LPN/LVN positions the head of the bed in the flat position.
c. The LPN/LVN encourages the patient to use pain medications before coughing.
d. The LPN/LVN includes the enteral feeding volume when calculating intake and
output.
ANS: B
The patients bed should be in Fowlers position to prevent reflux and aspiration of gastric
contents. The other actions by the LPN/LVN are appropriate.

OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation
45. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
a. 42-year-old who has acute gastritis and ongoing epigastric pain
b. 70-year-old with a hiatal hernia who experiences frequent heartburn
c. 53-year-old who has dumping syndrome after a recent partial gastrectomy
d. 60-year-old with nausea and vomiting who has dry oral mucosa and lethargy
ANS: D
This older patient is at high risk for problems such as aspiration, dehydration, and fluid and
electrolyte disturbances. The other patients will also need to be assessed, but the information
about them indicates symptoms that are typical for their diagnoses and are not life threatening.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization; Multiple Patients
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
SHORT ANSWER
1. Vasopressin (Pitressin) 0.2 units/min infusion is prescribed for a patient with acute arterial
gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. The vasopressin label states vasopressin 100 units/250 mL
normal saline. How many mL/hr will the nurse infuse?
ANS:
30
There are 0.4 units/1 mL. An infusion of 30 mL/hr will result in the patient receiving 0.2
units/min as prescribed.
REF: 955
OTHER
1. In which order will the nurse take the following actions when caring for a patient who
develops watery diarrhea and a fever after prolonged omeprazole (Prilosec) therapy? (Put a
comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].)
a. Contact the health care provider.
b. Assess blood pressure and heart rate.
c. Give the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol).
d. Place the patient on contact precautions.
ANS:
D, B, A, C
Proton pump inhibitors including omeprazole (Prilosec) may increase the risk of Clostridium
difficileassociated colitis. Because the patients history and symptoms are consistent with C.
difficile infection, the initial action should be initiation of infection control measures to protect
other patients. Assessment of blood pressure and pulse is needed to determine whether the
patient has symptoms of hypovolemia and/or shock. The health care provider should be
notified so that actions such as obtaining stool specimens and antibiotic therapy can be started.
Tylenol may be administered, but is the lowest priority of the actions.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 933 | 934


Medical-Surgical Nursing Assessment and Management of Clinical Problems 9e Chapter 42

Загружено:

Сведения о документе

Исходное описание:

Авторское право

Доступные форматы

Поделиться этим документом

Поделиться или встроить документ

Параметры публикации

Этот документ был вам полезен?

Это неприемлемый материал?

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

Medical-Surgical Nursing Assessment and Management of Clinical Problems 9e Chapter 42

Загружено:

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

Chapter 42: Nursing Management: Upper Gastrointestinal Problems

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 927

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 928

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 928

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 929

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 929

6. A 46-year-old female with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is experiencing increasing

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 933

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 932

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 934

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 933

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 932-933

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 939

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 935

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 939

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 940

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 941

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 941-942

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 946

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 957

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 954

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 958

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 934

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 934

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 946

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 948

25. A 50-year-old patient who underwent a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I) earlier today

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 946

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 952-953

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 949-950

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 954 | 956

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 934 | 947

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 947

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 953

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 951

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 953

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 927

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 15-16

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 927

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 956

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 935

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 925 | 956

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 947 | 955

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 957

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 939

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 934

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 939

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 928

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 933 | 934

Вам также может понравиться