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7 Unit 7:
We are going to give you some suggestions in this section on how to deal with portions of Unit-7. We
would be focusing on the following questions which generally one has in his/her mind when one thinks
about the easiest way to prepare for Unit-7.
Topic-wise suggestion:
Another huge Unit of the CSIR-NET exam. But no need to stress out for this. This Unit includes
the basics of all physiological phenomenon in Animals. You can expect around 4-5 questions
every year in Part-C from this Section. Part-B questions from this Unit are basically rare, but 1-
2 questions can be expected.
All the topics from this Unit are independent and can be followed up as individual chapters. But
it is recommended to start with the topics related to Nervous System or Endocrine System. This
way you can get a better understanding of the overall working mechanisms of all the organs and
organ systems. This would make it easier to go through the rest of the topics and sub-topics of
this Unit.
Which books to follow?
You can follow any standard Book for this Unit. For Additional reference, I will suggest the following
books:
The Unit contains topics which are very familiar to us. Thus even after being exhaustive, this Unit
can be dealt with if you spend an hour each day for the next 60 days.
All the chapters in this Unit can be dealt separately as individual sections. But for a better
understanding, you can start with Nervous system or Endocrine System portions.
Suggestions:
For this Unit, you need to go through all the sections thoroughly.
Not much of specific suggestions are required to do the same in this Unit.
Topic-wise suggestion:
Blood and circulation:
In this section, the most important topics you can expect questions from are the major
pathways of cells, intrinsic and extrinsic factors involved during Blood Clotting.
Composition of the different types of cells in the Circulatory System is also very important.
Cardiovascular System:
Significant topics of this section include different volume capacities and
mechanism of heart beat and action.
Respiratory system:
I would suggest you to put a little stress on the topics related to the lung volumes and
physiology of the Respiratory System.
Nervous system:
Thorough knowledge of Action Potential of neurons is very important to score from
this section. You should also go through the topics and sub topics involving types of
neurons and neurotransmitters.
Sense organs:
Most of the topics in this section are fact-based and direct questions can be expected
from this part. So just go through thoroughly and answer specifically.
Excretory system:
Questions from this section are to be dealt carefully. Mostly questions appear from the
portions involving the topics of Net filtration rate, Glomerular filtration rate.
Thermoregulation:
Commonly questions from this section are very rare. Mostly in part-C you can expect.
Going through the topics of this section is enough to crack any question from the same.
Stress and adaptation:
Go through in general these topics.
Digestive system:
This is a very basic topic. Thorough knowledge regarding the different enzymes involved
and their region of action along with production is recommended
BLOOD AND CIRCULATION
1. Increased blood flow to muscles during exercise is due to arteriolar vasodilation caused by:
a. local factors: decreased PO2 , Increased PCO2 , decreased pH, K+, adenosine
b. activation of parasympathetic cholinergic fibers
c. activation of alpha 1 adrenergic receptors
d. activation of beta 1 adrenergic receptors
e. activation of sympathetic cholinergic fibers
7. Action of plasmin is
a. to remove calcium
b. antithrombin action
c. to stimulate heparin
d. to degenerate fibrin
18. Which of the following conducting systems has the slowest conducting velocity
a. Sino Atrial Node
b. atrial muscle
c. purkinje fibres
d. Atrioventricular node.
19. In heart, within physiological limits the force of contraction is directly proportional to the
a. pacemaker activity
b. a-v nodal delay
c. initial length of the cardiac muscle.
d. respiratory rate.
24. Which of the following takes longest time to return to normal after 1L of blood is removed
from a normal individual
a. number of RBC's in peripheral blood
b. plasma volume
c. renin secretion
d. Blood pressure.
30. The 'T' wave in ECG is above the isoelectric line because of
a. depolarisation of ventricles
b. depolarisation of bundle of His
c. change in the direction of repolarisation from the wave of depolarization of the ventricles
d. repolarisation of purkinje fibres
32. Which of the following will require the smallest increase in oxygen consumption by the heart?
a. Generating an increase in left ventricular pressure.
b. Severe hypertension.
c. Generating an increase in stroke volume
d. Aortic stenosis.
33. Which of the following vessels has the largest effect on total peripheral resistance?
a. Arteries.
b. Arterioles.
c. Veins.
d. Venules.
e. Capillaries.
34. If you decrease a blood vessel's radius in half, by what fraction does the blood flow change?
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 1/8
d. 1/16
e. 1/32
36. Which of the following blood vessels has the greatest compliance?
a. Arteries.
b. Veins.
c. Arterioles.
d. Capillaries.
47. Each haemoglobin molecule can combine with how many molecules of Oxygen.
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
48. In health, the albumin globin (A/G) ratio is about
a. 0.5
b. 1.2
c. 1.7
d. 2.3
53. Which of the following vitamin is essential for rapid wound healing
a. Vit. A
b. Vit. C
c. Vit. E
d. Vit. D
57. In which situation does the person described first have a higher blood volume?
a. a person with 30% body fat or a person with 10% body fat if they are the same size
b. a person weighing 200 lb. or a person weighing 100 lb., if both have the same % body fat
c. a dehydrated person or a person with normal body water content, assuming they have
the same weight and % body fat
d. a female or a male, assuming same body weight and percent body fat
58. Each body function on the left is correctly matched with the corresponding function of the
blood on the right EXCEPT
a. respiration - transports oxygen and carbon dioxide
b. immune defense - platelet factors initiate clotting
c. acid-base balance - buffers acids and bases
d. thermoregulation - allows heat to escape from the body at the skin
65. If you have some blood from which the formed elements have been removed, how can you
tell if it is plasma or serum?
a. plasma contains hemoglobin; serum does not
b. serum is yellow; plasma has no color
c. serum contains antibodies; plasma does not
d. plasma contains clotting proteins; serum does not
67. In which choice are the major groups of plasma proteins listed in order from highest to lowest
percent?
a. fibrinogen, globulins, albumins
b. globulins, fibrinogen, albumins
c. albumins, globulins, fibrinogen
d. albumins, fibrinogen, globulins
68. In which choice is the plasma protein correctly matched with one of its functions?
a. albumin - antibodies involved in immune response
b. fibrinogen - attacks and destroys pathogens
c. globulins - transport minerals, lipids, hormones and vitamins
d. globulins - colloid osmotic pressure
69. The benefit of the biconcave shape of red blood cells is that it
a. decreases the distance between the cell membrane and hemoglobin molecules,
facilitating oxygen uptake
b. allows the cells to hold more hemoglobin
c. gives more room for the nucleus and organelles
d. keeps them from leaking out through the walls of capillaries
70. Blood cells all develop from a common stem cell in bone marrow, but early in development
they split into separate lineages. Which three of these cells develop from the myeloblast
lineage?
a. basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil
b. lymphocyte, monocyte, erythrocyte
c. thrombocyte, erythrocyte, lymphocyte
d. monocyte, erythrocyte, neutrophil
71. Blood test results for an adult male are returned and the total red blood cell count is 2,500,000
cells per mm3. This person
a. has a normal total red blood cell count
b. has an abnormally low total red blood cell count
c. has an abnormally high total red blood cell count
d. shows that he has been exercising more than usual or has spent some time at high
altitudes
73. Damaged red blood cells are phagocytized by macrophages in the spleen or liver and their
components are recycled, EXCEPT for the
a. iron atom from the heme group, which is excreted in bile
b. globin peptide chains, which are sent to the kidneys for excretion
c. globin peptide chains, which are converted into bilirubin
d. heme group (minus the iron atom), which is converted into a green pigment called
biliverdin
74. What would you suspect to find if someone has high blood erythropoietin levels?
a. blood oxygen deficiency
b. high blood oxygen levels
c. a high red blood cell count
d. a high hemoglobin level
77. The lower the total amount of iron stored in the body,
a. the higher the rate of red blood cell formation.
b. the higher the absorption of ingested iron in the intestine.
c. the lower the level of transferrin in the blood.
d. the higher the level of ferritin in the liver.
78. Which blood component is NOT correctly matched with its function?
a. erythrocytes - transport oxygen
b. leukocytes - protect against disease
c. platelets - phagocytize bacteria
d. plasma proteins - maintain blood osmotic pressure; involved in clotting
79. In which choice are the formed elements arranged in order of increasing size?
a. red blood cell, neutrophil, platelet
b. platelet, red blood cell, neutrophil
c. neutrophil, platelet, red blood cell
d. platelet, neutrophil, red blood cell
81. In adults, red blood cells are made in one place, spend most of their lifespan in another, and
most are finally destroyed in yet another place. Which choice lists these locations in
chronological order?
a. bone marrow; blood vessels; spleen
b. bone marrow; spleen; blood vessels
c. spleen; blood vessels; spleen
d. blood vessels; spleen; bone marrow
85. The carrier protein that transports absorbed iron through the blood is
a. thrombopoietin
b. hemoglobin
c. erythropoietin
d. transferrin
86. Joe had to have both of his kidneys removed and is now kept alive only by dialysis machines
that remove waste molecules from his blood and adjust electrolyte levels. Because Joe has no
remaining kidney tissue, he may also need
a. clotting proteins
b. vitamin B12 to stimulate RBC production
c. erythropoietin to stimulate RBC production
d. a bone marrow transplant
88. What is the role of the nitric oxide (NO) carried by hemoglobin?
a. NO stimulates the formation of more red blood cells
b. NO relaxes blood vessels and decreases blood pressure
c. NO helps the hemoglobin bind to oxygen
d. NO prevents the hemoglobin from picking up carbon monoxide
94. Immature erythrocytes that contain a network of endoplasmic reticulum and normally make
up about 1 - 3% of circulating blood are called
a. granulocytes
b. basophilic erythroblasts
c. proerythroblasts
d. reticulocytes
95. Several proteins are involved in the absorption, transport and storage of iron. Each protein is
correctly matched with its function EXCEPT
a. apoferritin - a storage protein in the liver
b. ferritin - an iron-containing protein found in the erythrocytes
c. gastroferritin - binds to iron in the stomach and transports it to the small intestine
d. transferrin - transports iron through the blood
97. In which choice are the leukocytes correctly arranged in order from most common to least
common?
a. monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
b. lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils
c. neutrophils, monocytes, lymphocytes, basophils, eosinophils
d. neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils
98. Once released from the bone marrow into the circulation, the average life span of a red blood
cell is about
a. 72 hours
b. one week
c. 4 months
d. 2 years
102. Red blood cells do not use any of the oxygen that they carry, because
a. oxygen is bound to heme and cannot be removed
b. they lack mitochondria to use oxygen for aerobic respiration
c. they do not need ATP
d. they use carbon dioxide instead of oxygen for energy production
103. In which choice are the proteins listed in the order in which they are activated?
a. prothrombin activator, thrombin, fibrin
b. fibrin, thrombin, prothrombin activator
c. thrombin, fibrin, prothrombin activator
d. thrombin, prothrombin activator, fibrin
104. Platelet plug formation is initiated when platelets come into contact with
a. undamaged endothelial cells
b. fibrinogen
c. collagen fibers in the connective tissue beneath the endothelium
d. antithrombin
107. After preliminary testing, a man who had had a stroke was given tissue plasminogen
activator (tPA) at the hospital. The reason for this treatment is that tPA
a. activates an enzyme that dissolves clots
b. prevents the formation of clots by removing calcium from the blood
c. prevents the formation of thrombin
d. initiates repair in damaged blood vessels
108. A blood clot that forms in an undamaged vessel is called a(n) _______, and if it breaks
loose and travels through the bloodstream it is called a(n) __________.
a. hematoma; thrombosis
b. thrombus; hematoma
c. thrombus; embolus
d. embolus; thrombus
109. A pulmonary embolism is a blood clot that blocks blood flow in a vessel
a. supplying part of a lung
b. in the heart
c. in the brain
d. in the kidney
114. During platelet plug formation, platelets release these substances, which cause more
platelets to adhere to the plug.
a. prostacyclin and NO
b. erythropoietin and bilirubin
c. heparin and plasmin
d. ADP and thromboxanes
120. A patient lacks fat absorbing mechanism in the intestines. This person is most likely going
to suffer severe bleeding problems because
a. fat droplets help to keep platelets together during clotting
b. vitamin K will not be absorbed and this will lead to deficiency of clotting factors
c. fatty acids are essential for the synthesis of tissue factors
d. Vitamin C will not be absorbed, which is essential for synthesis of clotting factors.
122. What kind of risk exists when a woman who is Rh+ carries an Rh- fetus?
a. There is usually no risk during the first pregnancy, but it can harm the fetus during a
subsequent pregnancy if the mother is not treated
b. It always poses a serious risk to the fetus, even in the first pregnancy
c. Only in rare cases is there a risk to the fetus during the first pregnancy
d. There is never a risk to the fetus in any pregnancy
127. Agglutination, which occurs during transfusion reactions, is caused by binding between
a. hemoglobin and the kidney tubule cells
b. clotting proteins and the enzymes that activate them
c. platelets and endothelial cells
d. RBC membrane antigens and plasma antibodies
130. Which of the following is true for an individual's with type A blood?
a. The person can donate blood to type O
b. The individuals plasma contains anti-A antibodie
c. The individual can donate blood to type AB
d. The individual must be Rh+
131. Which of the following is true for an individual with anti-A antibodies in the plasma?
a. The individual is blood type A
b. The individual is blood type B
c. The individual is blood type AB
d. The individual can be either blood type B or AB
135. For a person whose hematocrit is 45%, in which choice below are the components of
blood correctly ranked in order of decreasing percent of total volume?
a. white blood cells, plasma, red blood cells
b. red blood cells, white blood cells, plasma
c. plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells
d. plasma, white blood cells, red blood cells
136. Which of these diseases involves a problem with the red blood cells?
a. Leukocytosis
b. Hemophilia
c. Leukemia
d. sickle-cell anemia
137. A person with a vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency would probably also have
a. Anemia
b. Polycythemia
c. Leukemia
d. leukocytosis
140. The percentage of whole blood volume occupied by the red blood cells is the
a. specific gravity
b. differential cell count
c. hematocrit
d. viscosity
141. Based on lab results that show a person has a total white blood cell count of 7,000 WBC
/ mm3 blood, you would conclude that this person
a. has hemophilia
b. exhibits leucopenia
c. has leukocytosis
d. has a normal white blood cell count
142. Based on the results of a differential WBC count shown in the table, this person has
Basophils 1%
Eosinophils 10%
Neutrophils 56%
Lymphocytes 25%
Monocytes 8%
a. mononucleosis
b. leucopenia
c. allergies or a parasitic worm infection
d. an acute bacterial infection
143. The buffy coat, a layer that appears when blood is centrifuged for determining the
hematocrit, is made of
a. plasma only
b. plasma proteins only
c. plasma proteins and red blood cells
d. white blood cells and platelets
144. Which of these conditions would most likely cause an increase in the number of
reticulocytes in the blood?
a. blood loss
b. bacterial infection
c. dehydration
d. hemophilia
147. Blood disorder characterized by the rupture of red blood cells on infection by protozoa is
a. Septicemia
b. Malaria
c. infectious mononucleosis
d. AIDS
152. Osmotic pressure in plasma is usually 1.6 mosmol/L more than ISF. This is because of
a. Plasma Proteins
b. Plasma Oxygen Tension
c. Plasma creatinine
153. Arterial gases including pH 7.46 bicarbonate 31mmol/l PCO2 46mmHg indicate:
a. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis with compensation
d. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
e. Mixed metabolic and respiratory alkalosis
154. Which of the following decrease platelet aggregation & cause vasodilatation?
a. PGE2
b. PGF2alpha
c. TBXA2
d. PGD2
e. PGI2
157. In a patient receiving 24 units of blood over 2 hours, the complication most likely to be
seen would be:
a. Hypercalcaemia
b. Increased oxygen uptake in the lungs
c. Coagulopathy
d. Hypokalaemia
159. The effect which is LEAST likely to occur shortly after transfusion of 25U of whole blood
a. Hypocalcaemia
b. Dilutional coagulopathy
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Increased affinity of Hb for O2
e. Hyperkalaemia
160. Which immunoglobulin (?MW 69,000) would exist as a monomer in tears, saliva & mucus
secretions?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE
e. IgD
162. Erythropoietin:
a. Red cell maturation 24 to 72 hours
b. Inactivated by Kupffer cells
c. Metabolised in liver
d. Half-life is 5 ?mins/hours
165. Desmopressin:
a. Increases factor 8 levels/activity
b. Anti-heparin effect
c. Has pressor activity
166. Post-translational modification occurs with:
a. Factor V
b. Von Willebrand factor
c. Factor XII
d. Protein C
179. Lymphocytes
a. Dont remain in the lymph system
b. Are formed in the bone marrow in adults
c. Formed from neonatal precursor cells
d. Produced by tissues derived from foetal bone marrow
183. ABG's (Arterial blood gas)in healthy young man with pneumothorax:
a. pO2=50, pCO2=25
b. pO2=50, pCO2=46
c. pO2=90, pCO2=25
d. pO2=90, pCO2=46
186. ABGs: pH 7.35, pCO2 60 mmHg, pO2 40 mmHg. These blood gas results are consistent
with:
a. Atelectasis
b. Morphine induced respiratory depression (OR: Acute morphine overdose)
c. Diabetic ketoacidosis
d. . Patient with COAD
188. Phosphate buffer system is an effective buffer intracellularly and in renal tubules because:
a. Its pKa is close to the operating pH
b. High concentration in distal tubule
c. High concentration intracellularly
d. All of the above
189. Arterial gases including pH 7.46 bicarbonate 31mmol/l PCO2 46mmHg indicate:
a. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis with compensation
d. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
e. Mixed metabolic and respiratory alkalosis.
PART-C
191. During the Spanish conquest of the Inca Empire at the high altitude in Peru, many soldiers
fell sick. It was found that the sickness was due to low partial pressure of O2 in the atmosphere
at that altitude. To determine the reason, blood was collected from those patients. The
circulating erythropoietin (EPO) level were estimated and the O2-dissociation curve of
haemoglobin were drawn and compared with the same in native people as depicted below
192. Which of the following are not required for clot formation? (1) vitamin K, (2) calcium, (3)
prostacyclin, (4) plasmin, (5) fibrinogen.
a. 1, 2, and 5
b. 3, 4, and 5
c. 4 and 5
d. 1, 2, and 3
e. 3 and 4
193. A person with type A Rh- blood can receive a blood transfusion from which of the
following types? (1) A Rh+, (2) B Rh-, (3) AB Rh-, (4) O Rh-, (5) A Rh-.
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 4 only
d. 4 and 5
e. 1 and 5
194. A person with type B positive blood receives a transfusion of type AB positive blood. What
will happen?
a. The recipients antibodies will react with the donors red blood cells.
b. The donors antigens will destroy the recipients antibodies.
c. The donors antibodies will react with and destroy all of the recipients red blood cells.
d. The recipients blood type will change from Rh_ to Rh_.
e. These blood types are compatible, and the transfusion will be accepted.
195. Blood platelets assist in arresting bleeding by all of the following except.
A. Releasing factors promoting blood clotting.
B. Adhering together to form plugs when exposed to collagen.
C. Liberating high concentrations of calcium.
D. Releasing factors causing vasoconstriction.
E. Inhibiting fibrinolysis by blocking the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin.
a. E only,
b. B and C,
c. D and E
d. C and E
196. A person who was recently been on broad spectrum antibiotics for a recurrent urinary
bladder infection. While slicing vegetables, he cuts himself and had difficulty stopping the
bleeding. How could the antibiotics have played a role in her bleeding?
a. Antibiotics have removed the normal flora of large intestine which were producing
vitamin K.
b. Antibiotics do not allow the absorption of vitamin K.
c. Antibiotics for complex with Vitamin K therefore unavailable for clotting.
d. Antibiotics are directly inhibiting the clotting factor.
1.a
2.c
3.c
4.a
5.b
6.c
7.d
8.a
9.c
10.d
11.b
12.c
13.c
14.a
15.d
16.b
17.c
18.c
19.c
20.c
21.c
22.c
23.b
24.a
25.c
26.b
27.c
28.b
29.b
30.c
31.a
32.c
33.b
34.e
35.e
36.b
37.c
38.b
39.b
40.b
41.c
42.c
43.c
44.a
45.c
46.c
47.a
48.c
49.b
50.d
51.b
52.c
53.b
54.a
55.a
56.d
57.b
58.b
59.d
60.c
61.c
62.c
63.b
64.c
65.d
66.b
67.b
68.c
69.a
70.a
71.b
72.b
73.d
74.a
75.d
76.b
77.b
78.c
79.b
80.c
81.a
82.d
83.a
84.b
85.d
86.c
87.c
88.b
89.a
90.c
91.b
92.c
93.b
94.d
95.b
96.b
97.d
98.c
99.a
100.b
101.d
102.b
103.a
104.c
105.b
106.b
107.a
108.c
109.a
110.a
111.d
112.a
113.b
114.d
115.c
116.a
117.d
118.a
119.d
120.b
121.d
122.d
123.b
124.a
125.a
126.b
127.d
128.c
129.a
130.c
131.b
132.b
133.d
134.d
135.c
136.d
137.a
138.c
139.c
140.c
141.d
142.c
143.d
144.a
145.b
146.b
147.b
148.a
149.e
150.e
151.d
152.a
153.a
154.e
155.b
156.a
157.c
158.b
159.c
160.a
161.e
162.c
163.e
164.e
165.a
166.d
167.b
168.b
169.a
170.c
171.c
172.b
173.a
174.e
175.c
176.d
177.b
178.e
179.c
180.d
181.c
182.d
183.a
184.f
185.b
186.d
187.b
188.d
189.a
190.c
Part C
191.b
192.e
193.d
194.a
195.d
196.a
197.a
198.c
199.e
200.a
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
1. The increased cardiac output during exercise is caused by all of the following, except:
a. stimulation of beta 1-adrenergic receptors
b. increase in venous return
c. increased blood pressure
d. increased stroke volume and heart rate
e. inhibition of the parasympathetic tone
2. Based on experimental observations, the only factor(s) in arterial blood that could account for
increased ventilation at or near VO2max is(are):
a. PO2
b. PCO2
c. pH
d. all of the above
e. (b) and (c) only
3. Which of the following is NOT a part of the specialized conduction system of the heart?
a. Cells of the SA node.
b. Cells of the AV node.
c. Working myocardial cells.
d. His bundle.
e. Purkinje fibers.
14. Which of the following is usually the dominant pacemaker and fires the fastest?
a. SA node.
b. AV node
c. His bundle.
d. Purkinje fibers
16. Which of the following is the property of a cardiac cell to initiate and fire an action potential on its
own without external stimulation?
a. Selectivity
b. Spontaneity.
c. Automaticity.
d. Conductance.
17. Which of the following does NOT show rapid initial depolarization at the start of an action potential?
a. SA node.
b. Atrial muscle.
c. Purkinje fibers.
d. Ventricular muscle.
e. Bundle of His.
18. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning diastolic depolarization at the SA node?
a. It results from a decrease in IK.
b. Results from the activation of If carried mainly by Na ions.
c. Its rate is decreased by sympathetic stimulation.
d. Activating IKACh decreases its rate.
e. Its rate is decreased by decreasing ICa
19. If the heart rate increases, which of the following would be a result?
a. ERP would increase while APD would decrease.
b. ERP would decrease while APD would increase.
c. Both ERP and APD would increase.
d. Both ERP and APD would decrease.
20. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning local circuit flow in the heart?
a. It flows from regions with high membrane potential to regions with low potential.
b. The cell with the more negative potential is called the current source, while the one with the more
positive potential is called the current sink.
c. The circuit flows from the current source to the current sink.
d. The circuit flows from the active cell to the resting cells in its vicinity.
21. Which of the following will increase the length constant involved in the local circuit current flow of
the heart?
a. Increase in membrane resistance.
b. Increase in extracellular resistance.
c. Increase in intracellular resistance.
d. None of the above.
22. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the safety factor in the heart?
a. It is how much the depolarizing local circuit current exceeds what is required to elicit a propagated
action potential.
b. It depends on the characteristics of the current source and current sink.
c. It is higher in cells activated by I Na
d. It is higher in cells activated by I Ca
23. Which of the following would result in an increase in conduction velocity of an impulse through the
heart?
a. Increase Cm
b. Decrease cell diameter
c. Increase the threshold voltage (i.e. make it less negative)
d. Decrease the extracellular resistance
24. Which of the following will decrease the Vmax and sodium current in a myocardial cell?
a. A premature heart beat.
b. Late membrane depolarization.
c. Low extracellular potassium levels.
d. More than normal activated Na channels
25. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the slow conduction found in the SA and AV nodes?
a. Low AP height.
b. Small cell size.
c. High Vmax.
d. Few nexal connection between cells
26. Which of the following is NOT a method of Ca removal following contraction of heart muscle?
a. Na-Ca exchange transports Ca out of the cell.
b. ATP-dependent sarcolemmal Ca pumps remove Ca from the cell.
c. Ca passively diffuses out of the cell.
d. ATP-dependent SR Ca pumps move Ca from the cytoplasm into the SR.
27. Which of the following agents helps to increase the Ca storage capacity of the SR in the heart?
a. dihydropyridines
b. ryanodine
c. calsequestrin.
d. acetylcholine
28. In which of the following does EADs (early afterdepolarizations ) occur more frequently because of
their long action potential duration?
a. Atrial fibers.
b. SA node
c. AV node
d. Purkinje fibers.
29. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the regulation of heart muscle performance?
a. Recruiting more numbers of motor units will increase the strength of contraction.
b. Increases in end-diastolic volume will generate a larger stroke volume during systole.
c. The amount and duration of Ca released from the SR can alter contractility.
d. Positive inotropic agents will increase contractility.
31. Which of the following pairs in INCORRECT concerning the Einthoven triangle?
a. Lead I: RA/LA
b. Lead II: RA/LL
c. Lead III: LA/LL
d. All of the pairs are correct.
32. Which of the following is NOT affected by the preload in the heart muscle?
a. End systolic volume
b. End diastolic volume
c. Stroke Volume
d. Ejection fraction.
e. Cardiac output.
33. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning isotonic contraction in the heart?
a. One occurs during the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle.
b. Is typically the first step in heart muscle contraction followed by an isometric contraction.
c. It involves a change in muscle length against a constant load.
d. An increased afterload will slow the velocity of muscle shortening.
34. Which of the following is NOT an effect of a positive inotropic agent on the heart?
a. It increases stroke volume.
b. It increases the initial velocity of muscle shortening at all loads.
c. It increases the rate of blood ejection from the heart.
d. It decreases the rate of rise in ventricular blood pressure during systole.
35. Which of the following will NOT increase aortic systolic blood pressure?
a. Decrease in arterial compliance
b. Decrease in aortic distensibility.
c. Increase in stroke volume.
d. Decrease in ejection velocity.
37. Which of the following is a correct formula for the mean arterial blood pressure?
a. MAP = CO X SV
b. MAP = CO X HR
c. MAP = SV X HR X TPR
d. MAP = HR X TPR
39. Which pair is INCORRECT concerning the microcirculation at the capillary level?
a. Tight junctions: brain
b. Gaps large enough to exchange plasma proteins: kidneys
c. Intercellular junctions / pores: exchange of water and lipid-insoluble substances.
d. Pinocytosis: cytoplasmic vesicles exchanging fluid and solutes.
e. Intracellular fenestrations: exchange of large molecules.
40. If a patient is suffering from swollen hands, feet, and face, all of the following could be a cause,
except?
a. Large decrease in arterial blood pressure.
b. Lymphatic blockage.
c. A decrease in plasma proteins.
d. Increase in capillary permeability to proteins.
e. Vasodilation.
41. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism to promote venous return and reduce blood pooling?
a. One way venous valves.
b. Parasympathetic stimulation.
c. Skeletal muscle pump.
d. Thoraco-abdominal pump
e. Pumping of the heart.
42. Which of the following in INCORRECT concerning a patient with ventricular tachycardia?
a. It occurs when the heart rate drops to dangerously low levels.
b. Cardiac output can falls to dangerous levels.
c. Arterial blood pressure falls to dangerous levels.
d. It involves impaired ventricular filling.
43. Which of the following would NOT occur following a major blood loss?
a. Vagal tone to the SA node would be decreased which would then increase the heart rate.
b. An increase in sympathetic output in arterioles would increase the total peripheral resistance,
except in the brain and heart.
c. Sympathetic output to the atria and ventricles would increase resulting in an increase in stroke
volume.
d. Sympathetic output to the veins would increase, resulting in increased venous pressure, venous
return, and cardiac output.
e. Stroke volume would increase while heart rate decreased. Together this would increase the
cardiac output.
45. Hypokalaemia:
a. Hyperpolarises membrane
b. Peaked T waves
c. Prolonged QT
d. VEBs
e. ST elevation
46. Hypokalaemia:
a. Hyperpolarizes the membrane
b. Shortens the QRS
c. Shortens the PR interval
d. Depresses the ST segment
e. Prolongs the QT interval
47. Hypokalemia
a. ST segment changes
b. P wave flattening
c. shortened QT
d. No Q wave
48. For two solutions separated by a semi-permeable membrane (Solution A: saline solution AND solution
B: H2O): Which of the following statements is true?
a. A hydrostatic pressure applied to A will stop osmotic pressure
b. There will be bulk flow from A to B
c. The fluid level in B will go up
d. No change
50. Hyperkalaemia:
a. Causes a prolonged QT interval
b. Prolongs the QRS duration
c. Causes ST segment elevation
d. Potentiates digoxin toxicity
53. If individual has Heart rate of 60, Stroke rate of 150ml Cardiac output is
a. 900ml
b. 9000ml
c. 2.5ml
d. 25ml
55. Which ONE of the following statements about intravenous crystalloid solutions is TRUE?
a. Rapid infusion of (?one litre) Hartmann's may cause lactic acidosis
b. Hartmann's 300-308 mosm/kg
c. Hartmann's pH 7.35-7.45
d. N/saline osmol 300-308 mosm/kg
e. 0.9% sodium chloride has a pH 6.5-7.5
f. One litre of Hartmanns solution contains 150 mmol of Na+
65. In exercising muscle, the major increase in blood flow is due to:
a. Sympathetic vasodilatation
b. Metabolic vasodilatation
c. Muscle pumping
70. In a 70 kg man 2 metres tall with right atrial pressure of 2 mmHg & aortic root pressure 100 mmHg,
the pressure in the dorsum of the foot is:
a. 0 mmHg
b. 2 mmHg
c. 5 mmHg
d. 30 mmHg
e. >50 mmHg
74. The hepatic artery : portal vein blood flow ratio is:
a. 1 : 10
b. 3:1
c. 2:1
d. 1:6
e. 1:3
80. In running 100 metres, the increased oxygen requirements of tissues is met by:
a. Increased cardiac output
b. Increased 2,3DPG
c. Increased erythropoietin
d. Rise in CO2 partial pressure, activating peripheral chemoreceptors No the main benefit is right
shift of the ODC
e. Increased oxygen tension
93. The effects on plasma volume of 500 ml blood loss are neutralized within:
a. 1-2 hours
b. 8-10 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 1 week
e. 1 month
96. Compensatory mechanisms in a patient with coarctation of the (descending) thoracic aorta:
a. Lower sympathetic tone in the lower half of the body
b. Decreased total peripheral resistance
c. Increased BP in upper body
97. During a cardiac cycle, the first part of the ventricles to contract is:
a. Apex of left ventricle
b. Base of left ventricle
c. Septum
d. Epicardium at base of left ventricle
e. Right ventricle
99. When the aortic valve closes, the pressure in the right ventricle is:
a. 0 mmHg
b. 15 mmHg
c. 30 mmHg
d. 50 mmHg
e. 120 mmHg
102. If CO constant & ODC unchanged& O2 consumption constant, Mixed venous oxygen tension
decreased with:
a. Cyanide toxicity
b. Anaemia
c. Decreased temperature
d. Increased CO2
105. In an average, healthy 70kg male with standing erect with mean arterial BP of 100mmHg:
a. Cerebral venous pressure is approximately 10mmHg
b. Mean arterial pressure at head level is 70mmHg
c. Venous pressure in foot is approximately ?70/?100mmHg
d. Cerebral perfusion pressure 70mmHg
113. During exercise in an untrained person, increased cardiac output is mainly due to:
a. Increased heart rate
b. Increased stroke volume
c. Increased venous return
115. Peak left ventricular (LV) volume corresponds with (or correlates best with):
a. a wave
b. v wave
c. c wave
d. x descent
e. y descent
PART-C
120. Which letter indicates the point in the cardiac cycle that the mitral valve opens?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. F
121. Which letter in the image represents the pressure reaction in the left atrium as the mitral valve
bulges during ventricular contraction followed by the stretching of the atrium due to tension of the
AV ring?
a. L
b. K
c. F
d. D
122. Which letter in the image represents the isovolumetric contraction of the left ventricle in the
heart?
a. F
b. B
c. H
d. D
123. Which of the following is a CORRECT order of blood flow through the heart?
1 - Right atrium
2 - Left atrium
3 - Right ventricle
4 - Left ventricle
5 - Vena cava
6 - Pulmonary artery
7 - Pulmonary vein
8 - Tricuspid AV valve
9 - Bicuspid (mitral) AV valve
10 - Pulmonary valve
11 - Aortic valve
12 - Aorta
a. 5, 1, 9, 3, 10, 6, 7, 2, 8, 4, 11, 12
b. 5, 1, 8, 3, 10, 7, 6, 2, 9, 4, 11, 12
c. 5, 1, 8, 3, 10, 6, 7, 2, 9, 4, 11, 12
d. 5, 1, 8, 3, 11, 6, 7, 2, 9, 4, 10, 12
124. For a normal heart, the time taken for arterial systole and diastole are As and Ad seconds,
respectively, while the same for ventricular systole and diastole are Vs and Vd. Which one of the
following equations is correct?
a. As+Ad=Vs+Vd
b. As+Ad >Vs+Vd
c. As+Ad-Vs+vd <0
d. As+Ad < Vs+Vd
125. An isolated carotid sinus was prepared so that the pressure may be regulated by a pump and the
resulting discharge in single carotid sinus nerve fibre could be recorded. The following are the possible
observations.
A. No discharge when carotid sinus perfusion pressure was below 30 mm Hg.
B. Linear increase in discharge frequency when carotid sinus perfusion pressure was gradually
increased from 70 to 110mm Hg.
C. Increase in discharge frequency was more prominent in greater pulsatile changes of carotid sinus
pressure keeping the mean pressure identical in all cases.
D. Increase in discharge was more prominent in the falling phase of pulsatile change of carotid sinus
pressure than in the rising phase.
Which one of the following is correct?
a. A, B and C
b. A and C
c. B and D
d. D only.
126. An organism having heart for circulation excretes through green glands. It has several ganglia and
tactile organs on its body and its larval form is very different than its adult form. This organism is most
likely to respire by:
A) Exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide through an extensive tracheal system.
B) Gaseous exchange over thinner areas of cuticle or by gills
C) An efficient tracheal system that delivers oxygen directly to the tissues
D) A double transport system, where the circulating fluid contains a dissolved respiratory pigment.
Choose the correct option.
a. A and C
b. Only D
c. Only B
d. B and D
127. Suppose you measure the diameter of the major arteries in a number of species and find that
more active animals have wider aortas. A colleague suggests to you that this would significantly
decrease vascular resistance, thus there will be greater blood flow and oxygen delivery. In reality, it
wouldnt change the resistance of the circulatory system much. The reason would be:
a. Resistance increases drastically as the radius gets smaller. Because arteries are so much wider,
they contribute very little to the total resistance of the system.
b. Resistance increases as the radius gets wider. Because arteries are narrower, they contribute
very little to the total resistance of the system.
c. Resistance to blood flow is not related to the diameter of the arteries. This would contribute
very least to the circulatory system.
d. In reality the the radius of all the arteries are the same. Therefore it will not change the
resistance to the circulatory system.
128. Which of the following are true concerning action potentials and contraction in the myocardium?
(1) The refractory period in a cardiac muscle fiber is very brief.
(2) The binding of Ca2_ to troponin allows the interaction of actin and myosin filaments, resulting
in contraction.
(3) Repolarization occurs when the voltage-gated K_ channels open and calcium channels are
closing.
(4) Opening of voltage-gated fast Na_ channels results in depolarization.
(5) Opening of voltagegated slow Ca2_ channels results in a period of maintained depolarization,
known as the plateau.
a. 1, 3, and 5
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 2 and 5
d. 3, 4, and 5
e. 2, 3, 4, and 5
129. Michael was brought into the emergency room suffering from a gunshot wound. He is bleeding
profusely and exhibits the following: systolic blood pressure is 40 mmHg; weak pulse of 200 beats per
minute; cool, pale, and clammy skin. Michael is not producing urine but is asking for water. He is
confused and disoriented. What is his diagnosis and why is he not urinating?
a. Hypovolemic shock and there is increase secretion of aldosterone and ADH.
b. Hypervolemic shock and there is increased secretion of aldosterone and ADH
c. Hypovolemic shock and decreased secretion of aldosterone and ADH
d. Hypervolemic shock and decreased secretion of aldosterone and ADH
ANSWER KEYS:
1.c
2.c
3.c
4.c
5.d
6.c
7.a
8.c
9.a
10.c
11.a
12.a
13.e
14.a
15.a
16.c
17.a
18.c
19.d
20.b
21.a
22.d
23.d
24.a
25.c
26.c
27.c
28.d
29.a
30.d
31.d
32.a
33.b
34.d
35.d
36.a
37.c
38.b
39.b
40.a
41.b
42.a
43.e
44.a
45.a
46.a
47.a
48.a
49.b
50.b
51.c
52.a
53.b
54.b
55.d
56.a
57.c
58.a
59.b
60.e
61.c
62.c
63.a
64.b
65.b
66.d
67.c
68.c
69.c
70.d
71.f
72.e
73.b
74.e
75.f
76.c
77.c
78.b
79.a
80.a
81.a
82.b
83.b
84.a
85.b
86.d
87.a
88.b
89.c
90.c
91.e
92.c
93.c
94.b
95.c
96.c
97.c
98.b
99.b
100.b
101.e
102.b
103.d
104.a
105.d
106.d
107.d
108.c
109.b
110.b
111.b
112.b
113.c
114.c
115.c
116.b
117.b
118.c
119.b
Part C
120.d
121.b
122.a
123.c
124.a
125.a
126.c
127.a
128.e
129.a
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
2. PIP > PA
a. during a normal expiration
b. during a forced expiration
c. during a normal inspiration
d. during a forced inspiration
e. never
5. During a severe asthmatic attack, Joes airways have been reduced to their normal radius. By
how much will Joe have to increase the pressure gradient in order to achieve a normal amount of
air flow?
a. 2 times
b. 4 times
c. 8 times
d. 16 times
e. No change it is not possible to change the pressure gradient
6. A man fills his lungs as much as he can, then exhales until his functional residual capacity remains.
Which of the following is true as he exhales?
a. the flow rate of air increases with increased effort
b. the flow rate becomes independent of effort
c. the flow rate is independent of the radius of the airway
d. the typical volume expelled will be 1.2 L
e. abdominal muscle contraction is required to expel this air
7. Which of the following will be true of a previously normal person whose alveolar wall thickens to
twice the normal thickness?
a. PAO2 decreases to half its normal value
b. Oxygenation of blood at rest becomes diffusion-limited
c. Oxygenation of blood during intense exercise becomes diffusion-limited
d. The diffusion rate of CO2 from the blood to the lungs will decrease to half its normal value
e. Both (c) and (d)
8. Jill hikes to the top of a mountain, where Patm = 650 mm Hg. At this location, what will be the PO2 in
her bronchi at the end of a tidal inspiration?
a. 136.5 mm Hg
b. 126.6 mm Hg
c. 89.5 mm Hg
d. 86.6 mm Hg
e. 47.6 mm Hg
9. A man has a tidal volume of 0.5 L and a respiration rate of 10 breaths/minute. He starts breathing
through a 200 ml snorkel. What should be his total minute ventilation in order to maintain the same
alveolar PO2 ?
a. 5 L/min
b. 5.5 L/min
c. 6 L/min
d. 6.5 L/min
e. 7 L/min
10. Which of the following decreases from the top to the bottom of the lung in a person standing
upright?
a. ventilation
b. perfusion
c. V/Q
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
12. Under which of the following conditions is the Hb-O2 dissociation curve shifted to the left?
a. increased temperature
b. presence of 2,3DPG
c. anemia
d. fetal hemoglobin
e. decreased pH
13. At PO2 = 40 mm Hg, normal pH and temperature, Hb is _______ saturated with O2.
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 98%
15. In an anesthetized animal, a cut in the brainstem, above the pons, will result in:
a. a normal breathing rhythm, but irregular depth of breathing
b. deep, prolonged inspirations
c. short, shallow inspirations
d. normal breathing
e. no breathing
17. The main stimulus (stimuli) for erythropoietin secretion by the kidneys is (are):
a. decreased blood pH
b. increased arterial PCO2
c. decreased arterial PO2
d. (a) and (c)
e. (b) and (c)
20. A wounded soldier is in circulatory shock because of bleeding. He is treated with intravenous
plasma, until his blood pressure is stabilized, but his hematocrit is 20%. Which of the following
laboratory findings do you expect after the plasma transfusion:
a. decreased arterial PO2
b. decreased venous PO2
c. decreased arterial oxygen content
d. (b) and (c) only
e. (a), (b), and (c)
21. An increase in PCO2 and a decrease in PO2 in the lungs will cause:
a. Bronchodilation and Vasodilation
b. Bronchodilation and Vasoconstriction
c. Bronchoconstriction and Vasoconstriction.
d. Bronchoconstriction and Vasodilation
e. None of the above.
22. Which of the values below would you expect to find in a sample of air from the trachea of a normal
subject at sea level at functional residual capacity (FRC)?
a. PCO2 = 40, PO2 = 100 mm Hg
b. PCO2 = 0, PO2 = 150 mm Hg
c. PCO2 = 40, PO2 = 40 mm Hg
d. PCO2 = 46, PO2 = 40 mm Hg
e. PCO2 = 47, PO2 = 160 mm Hg
23. The alveolar PO2 calculated with the alveolar gas equation in a normal subject with normal
metabolism will be lowest when the main substrates for energy production are:
a. carbohydrates
b. proteins
c. fats
d. the calculated PAO2 will be the same regardless of energy source
e. only(b) and (c)
24. All of the following histamine effects are mediated by H2- receptors EXCEPT:
a. Vasodilatation
b. Bronchoconstriction
c. Gastric acid secretion
d. Tachycardia
29. As one ascends to higher than 3000meters above sea level changes in alveolar pO2 and pCO2 are
as follows
a. decrease in pO2, increase in pCO2
b. decrease in pO2, decrease in pCO2
c. increase in both pO2 and pCO2
d. Increase in pO2, decrease in pCO2.
31. Which of the following effects is not observed during prolonged stay is space
a. decrease in blood volume
b. decrease in muscle strength
c. increase in red cell mass
d. loss of bone mass
.
32. Which of the following discharge spontaneously during quiet breathing
a. stretch receptors in lung
b. motor neurons in respiratory muscles
c. dorsal respiratory group of neurons
d. ventral respiratory group of neurons
38. Total vital capacity is decreased but timed vital capacity is normal in
a. bronchial asthama
b. scoliosis
c. chronic bronchitis
d. all the above.
42. Which of the following is in the correct path of CO2 from the tissue to the atmosphere?
a. Reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, dissociation to H+ and HCO3-, H+ combines with imidazole
side chain of hemoglobin, carried back to lungs as HHb+ and HCO3-, reverse reaction forms
CO2.
b. O2 is metabolized to CO2, reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, H2CO3 combines with imidazole
side chain of hemoglobin, H2CO3, Hb+ is carried back to the lungs, reverse reaction forms CO2.
c. Reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, dissociation to H+ and HCO3-, HCO3- combines with
imidazole side chain of hemoglobin, carried back to the lungs as HCO3-Hb+ and H+, reverse
reaction forms CO2.
d. O2 is metabolized to CO2, reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, dissociation to H+ and HCO3-,
carried back to lungs in this form, reverse reaction forms CO2.
44. Which of the following is the first branching of the bronchial tree that has gas exchanging
capabilities?
a. Terminal bronchioles.
b. Respiratory bronchioles.
c. Alveoli
d. Segmental bronchi
e. Alveolar ducts.
46. If you increased the left atrial pressure from 5 mmHg to 15 mmHg, what effect would that have on
pulmonary circulation?
a. It would force blood the opposite direction.
b. It would increase the speed at which blood moves through the pulmonary circulation.
c. No change.
d. Blood flow would almost or completely stop.
47. Which of the following concerning average lung volumes and capacities of a person at rest is TRUE?
a. TLC>VC>TV>FRC
b. TLC>FRC>VC>TV
c. TLC>VC>FRC>TV
d. TLC>FRC>TV>VC
48. Which of the following is NOT a normal occurance with increasing age?
a. Vital capacity of the lung decreases.
b. Residual volume increases.
c. Functional residual capacity increases.
d. Inspiratory capacity decreases.
e. Expiratory reserve volume increases.
49. Which of the following spirometry measurements has the greatest sensitivity for detecting early air
flow obstruction?
a. FVC
b. FEV1
c. FFE
d. FEF25-75.
51. During inspiration, how does alveolar pressure compare to atmospheric pressure?
a. Alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric.
b. Alveolar pressure is less than atmospheric.
c. Alveolar pressure is the same as atmospheric.
d. Alveolar pressure is one of the few pressures where the reference pressure is not atmospheric.
52. Which of the following represents the pressure difference that acts to distend the lungs?
a. Alveolar pressure
b. Airway opening pressure
c. Transthoracic pressure
d. Transpulmonary pressure
e. Esophageal pressure.
53. If a patient had a progressive lung disease that required an ever increasing pressure to fill the same
volume of lung, how would the lung's compliance be affected?
a. It would increase it.
b. It would stay the same.
c. It would decrease it.
d. These variables do not affect lung compliance.
54. An asthma sufferer finds she has to breathe at twice her normal rate. How does that affect her
dynamic compliance?
a. It stays the same.
b. It decreases.
c. It increases.
d. Static compliance, not dynamic, is the variable affected by asthma.
55. According to the Law of Laplace, air should flow from the smaller alveoli to the larger, collapsing
them. In the lungs, several factors counter that tendency, and stabilize the alveolar structures. Which
of the following is NOT one of them?
a. Surfactant lowers surface tension to a greater degree when it is on a smaller surface area, allowing
the smaller alveoli to stay open.
b. Mechanical stability is given by surrounding alveoli.
c. Transpulmonary pressure is lower for smaller alveoli, allowing them to stabilize in comparison to
the bigger ones.
d. Surface tension at the gas-liquid interface increases as alveolar surface area increases.
56. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the production and role of lung surfactant?
a. It is part of a lipoprotein called dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl-choline.
b. It is synthesized by alveolar type II cells.
c. As the alveolar surface area decreases during the compression curve, the surfactant decreases
the surface tension at a constant rate.
d. When surfactant density is decreased during expansion, surface tension initially rises rapidly, then
slows down until it reaches the starting point.
57. Which of the following is NOT true concerning respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants?
a. Their ability to synthesize DPPC is limited.
b. Higher pressures are required to ventilate the lungs.
c. Lung compliance is low.
d. Positive pressure respirators are often used to assist them in breathing.
e. Alveoli tend to over expand and sometimes burst at the end of inspiration.
59. If the lung were punctured, which of the following would happen?
a. The lung would collapse on the side of the puncture.
b. Both the lung and the chest wall would collapse on the side of the puncture.
c. The relaxation pressure of the chest wall would increase until it surpassed the atmospheric.
d. The relaxation pressure of the chest wall would increase, but stop before it reached atmospheric
pressure.
60. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the airflow in the lungs?
a. During inspiration and expiration, the flow in the trachea and larger bronchi is turbulent.
b. Towards the middle of the bronchial tree, the flow is turbulent at the branches and laminar in
between.
c. Near the end of the bronchial tree, the flow is laminar.
d. The acini have very small radii which significantly increases the total air flow resistance of the
bronchial tree.
63. If the equal pressure point during expiration is in the lobar bronchi, which of the following is TRUE?
a. Expiratory flow would be effort dependent.
b. Expiratory flow would be effort independent.
c. The bronchi beyond the equal pressure point would compress.
d. This situation would only occur during medium and low lung volumes.
64. Which of the following does NOT apply to the alveoli at the base of the lungs?
a. They are less elastic than the alveoli at the apex.
b. The pleural pressure is lower.
c. At FRC they are less inflated than the alveoli at the apex.
d. They are closed at RV.
e. They have a greater volume change than alveoli at the apex during inspiration from FRC.
65. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the closing volume for the lung?
a. Comes between Phase 3 and Phase 4 on the single breath N2 washout curve.
b. Marks the point where the alveoli at the apex close.
c. Marks a sudden increase in nitrogen concentration in the expelled breath.
d. Marks when the overinflated, poorly ventilated alveoli at the apex expel their air with high N2
concentrations.
66. Which of the following is TRUE if a patient breathes slower than normal with increased tidal volumes?
a. More resistive work is done.
b. The total work done decreases.
c. More elastic work is done.
d. Compliance is decreased.
67. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning the efficiency of breathing and the oxygen
consumption of the respiratory muscles?
a. Efficiency is defined as the ratio of mechanical work done to move air to the amount of
metabolic energy used by the respiratory muscles.
b. The respiratory system uses less than 3% of the body's total oxygen consumption at rest.
c. Respiratory muscles are more efficient than large muscle groups.
d. Emphysema increases the oxygen requirement for respiratory muscles.
e. Hyperventilation can increase the oxygen consumption of respiratory muscles to 30%.
68. If the FIO2 is .21, the FEO2 is .16, the VT is 0.5 L, and the frequency of breathing is 12. What is the
VO2? The equations are VO2=VI * (FIO2 - FEO2) and VI = VT * f.
a. 3.0 L/min
b. 0.75 L/min
c. -0.75 L/min.
d. 0.3 L/min.
69. In what situation would the gas exchange ratio be decreased compared to the respiratory quotient?
a. During slowed breathing.
b. Holding your breath.
c. During hyperventilation.
d. The two are always equivalent.
70. A 140 lb woman would have approximately how much dead space in her lungs?
a. 140 ml.
b. 70 ml.
c. 280 ml.
d. 35 ml.
71. How do you calculate how much inspired air actually ventilates the alveoli during one minute?
a. Subtract the volume of dead space from the tidal volume.
b. Subtract both the dead space volume that was already in the lungs plus the dead space of the
inspired air that won't reach the alveoli from the tidal volume.
c. Subtract the volume of dead space from the tidal volume and multiply it by the number of
breaths per minute.
d. It is equal to the tidal volume times the frequency of breathing.
73. Calculate pO2 for a person at sea level for R = 0.82 and pCO2 = 40 Torr.
a. 110 Torr.
b. 95 Torr
c. 80 Torr
d. 101 Torr.
75. If a patient's blood carries 10 grams of Hb per deciliter, what is the O2 carrying capacity of his blood?
a. 18 milliliters per deciliter.
b. 20 milliliters per deciliter.
c. 10 milliliters per deciliter.
d. 13 millliliters per deciliter.
78. Which of the following is NOT a form by which CO2 can be transported in the blood?
a. As bicarbonate
b. Dissolved in the blood.
c. Bound to the amino end groups in proteins.
d. Bound to the imidazole ring of glutamate.
80. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning the O2 / CO2 movement and processing through the
lungs and tissues?
a. Binding of O2 to Hb changes its configuration so that CO2 and H+ ions are more likely to
dissociate.
b. When CO2 diffused into the alveoli, the PaCO2 is lowered.
c. Carbonic acid is an intermediate in the reaction combining H+ with HCO3- to form H2O and CO2.
d. Arterial blood flows to the tissues where H+ ions combine with HCO3- to form H2O and CO2.
82. If you block the blood supply to an alveolus, which of the following would NOT occur as a result?
a. The ventilation perfusion ratio would be 0.
b. The pO2 would be greater than normal.
c. The pCO2 would be 0.
d. All of the above are true.
83. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the ventilation and perfusion of different regions of the
lung?
a. Alveoli at the top of the lung have a smaller dynamic compliance.
b. The Hb moving through the base of the lung is less saturated than that at the apex of the lung.
c. pO2 at the apex of the lung is higher than that at the base of the lung.
d. Regional variation in ventilation-perfusion is more efficient for oxygenating blood than is uniform
ventilation-perfusion.
e. Variation of the ventilation/perfusion ratio in the lungs only becomes significant when lung
function begins to degrade.
84. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the relationships of the variables in diffusion of O2 across
a membrane?
a. Doubling the thickness of the membrane would cut the total flow of O2 in half.
b. Doubling the area of the membrane would double the total flow of O2 .
c. If you increased the alveolar concentration of O2, you would increase the total flow of O2 across
the alveolar membrane.
d. The lower the diffusion coefficient, the higher the total flow.
e. Increasing the arterial concentration of O2 would decrease the total flow of O2.
85. If the blood moved slower than normal through the alveolar capillaries, which of the following would
have an increased uptake?
a. Carbon dioxide.
b. Carbon monoxide.
c. Oxygen
d. None of the above.
87. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT concerning central nervous systems and a factor they
respond to by affecting respiration?
a. Cerebellum: Mechanoreceptor input
b. Limbic system: emotional states
c. Cerebral cortex: voluntary control
d. Cerebral motor cortex: exercise.
88. Which of the following will NOT increase the minute ventilation?
a. An increase in arterial pH.
b. An increase in arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide.
c. Increase in alveolar pressure of carbon dioxide.
d. Exercise.
e. Hypoxia.
89. Which of the following is the primary regulating variable of the central chemoreceptors?
a. pO2.
b. pCO2
c. arterial pH
d. Input from stretch receptors.
91. Which of the following is FALSE concerning chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers
a. CSF is a poor buffer and a drop in pCO2 produces a large change in pH initiating a change in
respiration.
b. The body can adjust to chronic hypercapnea by using an active HCO3- transport process in the
choroid plexus.
c. The carotid and aortic bodies detect increases in pCO2 and pH, and decreases in pO2
d. 75% of ventilatory response is regulated by chemoreceptors in the CSF and 25% by the carotid
and aortic bodies.
e. Central chemoreceptors tend to respond slowly over time, while carotid bodies react quickly to
immediate needs.
92. Which of the following pairs is NOT a pulmonary mechanoreceptor paired to a possible stimulus?
a. Stretch receptor: inflation
b. Irritant receptor: inhaled dust
c. Juxtacapillary receptors: decreases interstitial fluid volume in alveolar walls.
d. Bronchial C receptors: large inflations
b. 4900ml,
c. 1000ml,
d. 2700ml.
94. When Spinal cord is secured at the level of brainstem, the effect on respiration will be
a. Caeses,
b. Normal,
c. Irregular,
d. Apneic
97. A young man collapses one lung. His ABGs on room air would be:
a. pO2 80, pCO2 50 mmHg
b. pO2 50, pCO2 80 mmHg
c. pO2 50, pCO2 50 mmHg
d. None of these is ideal
98. The ABGs in a healthy young 70kg male with one collapsed lung are:
a. paO2 50 mmHg, pCO2 25 mmHg
b. paO2 95 mmHg, pCO2 40 mmHg
c. paO2 60 mmHg, pCO2 45 mmHg
d. paO2 60 mmHg, pCO2 25 mmHg
101. The greatest increase in (physiological) dead space would be expected with:
a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Atelectasis (or: collapse of one lung)
c. Pneumothorax
d. Bronchoconstriction
e. Obesity
102. As we go from the top of the erect lung to the bottom:
a. Water vapour pressure remains constant
b. pN2 remains constant
c. pCO2 at apex is higher than at the base
d. pO2 at base is lower than at the apex
e. Difference in V/Q ?
f. Ventilation goes up as go up lung
g. Compliance is more at base than apex
107. If dead space is one third of the tidal volume and arterial pCO2 is 45 mmHg, what is the mixed
expired pCO2?
a. 20 mmHg
b. 25 mmHg
c. 30 mmHg
d. 45 mmHg
108. With constant FIO2, CO and VO2, an increase in mixed venous O2 content would be seen with:
a. Hypothermia
b. Increased paCO2
c. Decreased 2,3 DPG
d. Alkalosis
e. None of the above
115. Surfactant:
a. Causes hysteresis (Or: Is the ONLY cause of hysteresis)
b. Is produced by type 1 pneumocytes
c. Is commonly deficient in term neonates
d. Acts like detergent in water
e. Reduces the amount of negative intrapleural pressure
f. Production is slow
g. Increases pulmonary compliance
116. In quiet breathing, exhalation is:
a. Passive due to elastic tissue alone
b. Passive due to surface tension in the alveoli and elastic tissue recoil
c. Active due to intercostal contraction
119. Contribution to the increase in CO2 carriage as blood passes from artery into vein:
Carbamino HCO3 Dissolved
a. 5% 90% 5%
b. 30% 60% 10%
130. PEEP:
a. Has a variable effect on FRC
b. Reduced lung compliance
c. Reduces lung water
d. Reduces airway resistance
131. At an atmospheric pressure of 247 mmHg, what is the moist inspired p02?
a. 200 mmHg
b. 2 mmHg
c. 40 mmHg
d. 50 mmHg
135. For a normal Hb-O2 dissociation curve, the most correct relationship is:
a. PaO2 340mmHg, SaO2 99%
b. PaO2 132mmHg, SaO2 98%
c. PaO2 68mmHg SaO2
d. PaO2 60mmHg, SaO2 91%
e. None of the above
136. Oxygen toxicity:
a. Is caused by superoxide dismutase (OR: Increased by increased SOD)
b. Causes CNS toxicity at over 100kPa
c. Is caused by absorption atelectasis
d. Is due to formation of superoxide radicals
e. Prolonged ventilation at 50kPa causes pulmonary toxicity
f. Causes lipid peroxidation
143. The effect of decreasing airway diameter has the following effect on airway resistance:
a. 1/8
b.
c.
d. 4 times
e. 16 times
a. 20.98 O.4
b. 20.98 0.4
c. 21 0.04
d. 20.98 0.04 78.58 0.42
e. 20.98 0.04 78.2 0.98
150. In earth worms and leeches, gaseous exchange takes place through
a. Nostrils
b. Skin
c. Gills
d. Lungs
e. Air tubes
PART-C
151. Which of the following would cause oxygen to dissociate more readily from hemoglobin? (1) low
PO2, (2) an increase in H_ in blood, (3) hypercapnia, (4) hypothermia, (5) low levels of BPG (2,3-
bisphosphoglycerate).
a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 1, 2, 3, and 5
d. 1, 3, and 5
e. 1, 2, and 3
152. Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Normal exhalation during quiet breathing is an
active process involving intensive muscle contraction. (2) Passive exhalation results from elastic recoil
of the chest wall and lungs. (3) Air flow during breathing is due to a pressure gradient between the
lungs and the atmospheric air. (4) During normal breathing, the pressure between the two pleural
layers (intrapleural pressure) is always subatmospheric. (5) Surface tension of alveolar fluid facilitates
inhalation.
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 3, 4, and 5
d. 1, 3, and 5
e. 2, 3, and 5
153. Which of the following factors affect the rate of external respiration? (1) partial pressure
differences of the gases, (2) surface area for gas exchange, (3) diffusion distance, (4) solubility and
molecular weight of the gases, (5) presence of bisphosphoglycerate (BPG).
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 2, 4, and 5
c. 1, 2, 4, and 5
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
e. 2, 3, 4, and 5
154. A 1-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because he is having difficulty
breathing after drinking water that contains nitrate. He is cyanotic. Blood drawn for laboratory studies
is chocolate-colored. His hemoglobin most likely has which of the following properties?
a. Decreased glycosylation
b. Increased binding of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
c. Increased proportion of Fe3+
d. Presence of Beta subunits only
e. Sickle cell mutation
155. The figure shows the oxygen binding curves for hemoglobin (Hb) and Myoglobin(Mb)
a. P: Mb; Q:Hb
b. Q:Mb; P:Hb
c. R:Mb; Q:Hb
d. S:Mb; R:Hb
156. A 10-month-old boy with hemoglobin SS disease is brought to the emergency department by his
parents because of severe pain in his feet for 2 hours. He appears acutely ill and is crying. Vital signs
are normal except for a pulse of 160/min. Physical examination shows splenomegaly and edematous,
tender feet. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 7 g/dL and a reticulocyte count
of 12%. A peripheral blood smear shows target cells, poikilocytes, and sickled erythrocytes. Which of
the following processes most likely caused the sickled erythrocytes in this patient?
a. Decreased interaction of hemoglobin S with spectrin upon deoxygenation
b. Inability of abnormal beta-chains to form tetramers upon deoxygenation
c. Inability of abnormal beta-chains to form tetramers upon oxygenation.
d. Increased interaction of hemoglobin S with spectrin upon oxygenation
e. Spontaneous polymerization of hemoglobin S upon deoxygenation
f. Spontaneous polymerization of hemoglobin S upon oxygenation
destroy
157. When we sprint, pumping air in and out of our lungs can become a substantial energy cost. For
fish, moving water across their gills when they are sprinting and is no more difficult. The possible
reason would be
a. Fishes have unidirectional flow.
b. Gills are not as developed as lungs, they have simple anatomy.
c. Fishes use the dissolved air.
d. Fishes are small in size than human, therefore volume of air required is very less.
158. Even after air has been in our lungs for a while, it never becomes fully deoxygenated. In fact, the
oxygen pressure doesnt drop much below 100mmHg. How come the blood cannot extract all the
oxygen. Why?
a. The structural change in the hemoglobin do not allow the complete extraction of oxygen
b. Alveoli of the lungs use some amount of oxygen.
c. The plasma oxygen tension reaches equilibrium with the oxygen tension of air.
d. Oxygen is used for cellular respiration by the lungs, so blood plasma cannot utilize the oxygen.
A. increase 2,3-BPG
B. Increase CO2
C. Decrease pH
D. Increased temperature
a. Only A
b. Only C
c. A, B and D
d. B and D only
ANSWER KEYS:
1.e
2.e
3.c
4.c
5.d
6.a
7.e
8.b
9.e
10.c
11.e
12.d
13.d
14.a
15.d
16.a
17.c
18.c
19.b
20.d
21.b
22.a
23.c
24.b
25.b
26.c
27.d
28.d
29.b
30.a
31.c
32.c
33.a
34.a
35.a
36.b
37.b
38.b
39.a
40.d
41.e
42.a
43.d
44.c
45.c
46.d
47.c
48.e
49.d
50.b
51.b
52.d
53.c
54.b
55.c
56.c
57.e
58.a
59.d
60.d
61.c
62.c
63.a
64.a
65.b
66.c
67.c
68.d
69.c
70.a
71.c
72.a
73.d
74.b
75.d
76.d
77.b
78.d
79.d
80.d
81.b
82.a
83.d
84.d
85.b
86.d
87.a
88.a
89.b
90.c
91.c
92.c
93.a
94.d
95.c
96.e
97.d
98.d
99.a
100.e
101.a
102.a
103.d
104.a
105.a
106.b
107.c
108.e
109.a
110.e
111.c
112.a
113.c
114.a
115.g
116.b
117.b
118.a
119.b
120.a
121.g
122.b
123.e
124.b
125.d
126.d
127.b
128.a
129.d
130.d
131.c
132.d
133.b
134.c
135.d
136.d
137.b
138.b
139.a
140.c
141.e
142.b
143.e
144.e
145.a
146.a
147.d
148.b
149.c
150.b
PART C
151.e
152.b
153.d
154.c
155.a
156.e
157.a
158.c
159.a
160.c
NERVOUS SYSTEM
1. The substance that contributes maximally to the osmolality inside the cell is
a. Protein.
b. Phosphate
c. Urea
d. Potassium.
14. The likely mechanism through which neostigmine acts in improving muscular weakness is
a. It blocks action of acetylcholine
b. it interferes with action of mono-amine oxidase
c. it enhances the action of catecholamines
d. it blocks the action of acetylcholine esterase.
28. REM is
a. characterised by delta waves on ECG
b. a sound and dreamless sleep
c. characterised by total lack of muscular activity
d. referred to as paradoxical sleep
32. The naked nerve endings are responsible for the sensation of
a. Pain
b. Touch
c. hearing
d. vision
33. When a normally innervated skeletal muscle is stretched the initial response is contraction, with
increase in the stretch sudden relaxation occurs because of
a. decrease in gamma efferent discharge
b. inhibition of the discharge from annulospiral endings of afferent nerve fibres
c. decreased activity of afferent nerve fibres from golgi tendon organs
d. increased activity of afferent nerve fibres from golgi tendon organs
36. In a health adult sitting with eyes closed the EEG rhythm observed with electrodes on occipital
lobes
a. Alpha
b. Theta
c. Delta
d. Beta
38. Interruption of motor pathways in the internal capsule on one side causes
a. spastic paralysis on the same side
b. spastic paralysis on the opposite side
c. flaccid paralysis on the same side
d. flaccid paralysis on the opposite side
41. Lesions of which of the following hypothalamic nuclei cause loss of circadian rhythm
a. Ventromedial
b. Dorsomedial
c. Suprachiasmatic
d. Supraoptic
48. If the resting membrane potential is 100mV and the sodium equilibrium potential is +40mV then
what is the value of the electrochemical gradient (ie, total driving force) acting on sodium ions?
Choose one correct answer.
a. +60 mV
b. 60 mV
c. 140 mV
d. None are correct.
56. Which of the following is NOT true of the parasympathetic control of the heart?
a. It affects muscarinic receptors.
b. It decreases heart rate via the SA node.
c. It decreases conduction velocity via the AV node.
d. It can be blocked by beta blockers, e.g. propranolol.
57. Sodium enters the cell during the upstroke of the action potential. What is the major mechanism
for removing Na from the cell?
a. It passively diffuses out of the cell.
b. It is extruded via an ATP-dependent Na-K pump.
c. It is extruded via an ATP-dependent Na-Ca pump.
d. It is extruded via an ATP-independent Na-K pump.
e. It is extruded via an ATP-independent Na-Ca pump.
58. If sodium channels are open, membrane potential is +110 mV, and the equilibrium potential is
+68 mV, how will sodium ions respond?
a. They will move into the cell.
b. They will move out of the cell.
c. They will not move.
d. The conductance will drop to zero.
70. which cranial nerve is not responsible for eye ball muscles movement
a. Occulomotor
b. Optic
c. Trochlear
d. Abducen
76. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning the voltage clamp technique?
a. The voltage clamp technique is used to record action potentials from heart cells
b. It is useful to measure effects of antiarrhythmic agents on specific ion channels.
c. The voltage clamp can be used to set the Vm either for a segment of the cell membrane
or the entire cell.
d. It allows the investigator to measure both the magnitude and time course of the ionic
current generated by ions moving through channels.
78. If you reduced the outward current in a heart cell, what would be the result?
a. Increase the rate of repolarization.
b. Prolong the action potential.
c. Increase the rate of depolarization.
d. decrease the rate of depolarization
79. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting local circuit current in the heart?
a. Ri
b. Rmyo
c. Ro
d. Cm
e. Rk
80. Synaptic transmission in auto nomic ganglia is due to
a. a.Cholinergic,
b. b. Nicotinic,
c. c. Muscarine,
d. Dopaminergic
90. The setpoint in temperature regulation control the body's response to changes in temperature.
Location of sensory receptor which regulates the setpoint?
a. Anterior hypothalamus
b. Posterior hypothalamus
c. Spinal cord
d. Skin
e. Great veins
93. Assertion: The imbalance in concentration of Na+, K+ and proteins generates resting potential.
Reason: To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+ and K+, the neurons use electrical energy.
a. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
b. Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of
Assertion.
c. Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and Reason are false.
94. If vagus nerve in man is damaged, which of the following will not be affected?
a. pancreatic secretion
b. gastrointestinal movements
c. tongue movements
d. cardiac movements
96. When you have a toothache, you feel pain because _______________.
a. there is a cavity in your tooth
b. tiny bits of food are left between your teeth
c. bacteria digest the food left between your teeth and produce an acid
d. the cavity reaches the nerves and the nerves send a message to the brain
99. The cerebrum is the largest part of your brain and is composed of two hemispheres (right and
left). It controls your _______________.
a. voluntary movement, speech, hearing, vision, memory, reasoning
b. breathing, heart rate, blood pressure
c. balance and coordination
d. involuntary control of respiration
100. The brain stem is the base of the brain that connects the brain to the spinal cord. It
controls your _______________.
a. voluntary movement, speech, hearing, vision, memory, reasoning
b. balance and coordination
c. breathing, heart rate, blood pressure
d. state of consciousness
101. Which of the following best describes a fast EPSP synaptic event?
a. The depolarization persists several seconds to minutes after the termination of the
presynaptic transmitter release.
b. Acetylcholine activation of nicotinic cholinergic post-synaptic receptors results in a
depolarization lasting less than 50 msec.
c. reguires K+ channel closure
d. requires K+ channel opening
102. A researcher wanted to study the nerve impulse conduction in cat. He takes the neuron
from cat and incubates in a Ca2+ free culture medium. To his surprise he did not find any nerve
impulse that is conducting. What could be the reason for this observation?
a. The neurotransmitters are not released.
b. The calcium pump is not expressed.
c. The secretary vesicles are not formed in the axon terminal.
d. The cat requires calcium for synthesis of neuron
PART-C
104. A man falls into deep sleep with one arm under his head. After awakening the arm is
paralyzed but tingling sensation and pain sensation persists. This loss of motor function without
the loss of sensory function is due to
a. A fibres are more susceptible to hypoxia that B
b. A fibres are more sensitive to pressure than C
c. C fibres are more sensitive to pressure than A
d. Sensory nerves are nearer bone and hence affected by pressure.
105. After falling down from a staircase a young woman is found to have partial loss of
voluntary movement on the right side of the body and loss of pain and temperature sensation on
the left side below the mid-thoracic region. The probable site of lesion is
a. transection of the right half of the spinal cord in the upper thoracic region
b. transection of the left side of the spinal cord in the upper thoracic region
c. transection of sensory and motor pathways on the right side of the pons
d. transection of the left half of the spinal cord in the lumbar region
108. Place the following events in a chemical synapse in the correct order:
(1) release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft,
(2) arrival of nerve impulse at the presynaptic neurons synaptic end bulb (or varicosity),
(3) either depolarization or hyperpolarization of postsynaptic membrane,
(4) inward flow of Ca2+ through activated voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the synaptic end bulb
membrane,
(5) exocytosis of synaptic vesicles,
(6) opening of ligand-gated channels on the postsynaptic plasma membrane,
(7) binding of neurotransmitters to receptors in the postsynaptic neurons plasma membrane.
a. 2, 1, 5, 4, 7, 6, 3
b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 6, 3
c. 2, 4, 5, 1, 7, 6, 3
d. 4, 5, 1, 7, 6, 3, 2
e. 2, 5, 1, 4, 6, 7, 3
1. temporal
A. composed primarily of myelinated axons
summation
114. Which one of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans?
A. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold
B. Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eyes
C. Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food
D. Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot
a. A only
b. A and B
c. C only
d. B and D
117. An experimenter was wanted to study the role of Ion channels in nerve impulse
conduction. The induce a mutation in the Voltage-gated K+ channels of a neuron so that they
opened at the same time as the Na+ channels. What effect could an experiment find?
a. The nerve would not depolarize at all.
b. The nerve will depolarize highly
c. The nerve will hyperpolarize
d. The nerve will slightly depolarize
119. Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse through nerve fibre is due to the fact that:
A. nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary sheath
B. sodium pump starts operating only at the cyton and then continues into the nerve fibre
C. neurotransmitters are released by dendrites and not by axon endings
D. neurotransmitters are released by the axon endings and not by dendrites
a. A and B
b. B only
c. D only
d. B and C
121. Consider a normal neuron at rest. Suppose there is slightly more Cl- outside than inside.
Under what circumstances, if any, would Cl- not diffuse across the membrane, even if many Cl-
channels were open and there was a gradient?
a. If the electrical potential was negative inside and equal in energy to the concentration
gradient driving Cl- in.
b. If the electrical potential was positive inside and equal in energy to the concentration gradient
driving Cl- in.
c. If the electrical potential was negative inside and the energy is less than the concentration
gradient driving Cl- in.
d. If the electrical potential was positive inside and the energy is less than the concentration
gradient driving Cl- in.
123. If you have ever been driving and nod for a brief moment or two and then pull your
head back up, you can probably thank your ______ for its role in arousal and preparing the
forebrain for sensory input.
a. brainstem
b. occipital lobe
c. hypothalamus
d. reticular formation
129. The buzzing of the alarm clock woke Carrie. She stretched, yawned, and started to
salivate as she smelled the brewing coffee. She could feel her stomach rumble. List the divisions
of the nervous system that are involved in each of these actions.
a. Smelling the coffee and hearing the alarm are somatic sensory, stretching and yawning
are somatic motor, salivating is autonomic (parasympathetic) motor, stomach rumble is
enteric motor.
b. Smelling the coffee and hearing the alarm are enteric motor, stretching and yawning are
somatic motor, salivating is autonomic (parasympathetic) motor, stomach rumble is
enteric motor
c. Smelling the coffee and hearing the alarm are autonomic (parasympathetic) motor,
stretching and yawning are somatic motor, salivating is somatic sensory, stomach
rumble is enteric motor
d. Smelling the coffee and hearing the alarm are relay neurons, stretching and yawning are
somatic motor, salivating is autonomic (sympathetic) motor, stomach rumble is enteric
motor.
130. Baby Ming is learning to crawl. He also likes to pull himself onto window sills, gnawing on
the painted wood of his century-old home as he looks out the windows. Lately his mother, an
anatomy and physiology student, has noticed some odd behavior and took Ming to the
pediatrician. Blood work determined that Ming had a high level of lead in his blood, ingested from
the old leaded paint on the window sill. The doctor indicated that lead poisoning is a type of
demyelination disorder. What could be the reason for odd behaviour?
a. loss of motor control and coordinated body movement.
b. Hyperactivation of neurons which cause restlessness.
c. Lead poisoning interferes with neurotransmitters.
d. Motor neuron failure.
131. As a torture procedure for his enemies, mad scientist Dr. Moro is trying to develop a drug
that will enhance the effects of substance P. What cellular mechanism is assigned to substance P?
a. It is bodys natural pain killer.
b. Substance P causes the sensory neurons numb.
c. Motor neurons are affected by substance P
d. It increases the pain perception
132. A nerve impulse or action potential is generated from transient changes in the
permeability of the axon membrane to Na+ and K+ ions. The depolarization of the membrane
beyond the threshold level leads to Na+ flowing into the cell and a change in membrane potential
to a positive value. The K+ channel then opens allowing K+ to flow outwards ultimately restoring
membrane potential to the resting value. The Na+ and K+ channels operate in opposite directions
because
a. There is an electro chemical gradient growth generated by proton transfer.
b. There is a difference in Na+ and K+ concentrations on either side of the membrane
c. Na+ is a voltage-gated channel, whereas K+ is ligand-gated
d. Na+ is dependent on ATP whereas K+ is not.
133. A monkey undergoes cerebellectomy. After the post-operative recovery, the monkey was
given a task to press a bar. The possible observations are:
A. Its hand would overshoot the target while reaching the bar.
B. It would be unable to move forelimbs.
C. It would show intention tremor while trying to press the bar.
D. It would press the bar with mouth instead of hand.
Which one of the following is correct?
a. A and C
b. B only
c. D only
d. B and D
134. Spinal cord of an animal was transected at C1/C2 level. The respiration of the animal
stopped and it needed artificial respiration. However, the heart continued to beat although at a
slower rate. Some of the explanations given were:
A) respiration regulatory centre is located in the medulla.
B) respiration regulatory centre is located above the C1/C2 cut.
C) heart regulatory centre is above the C1/C2 cut.
D) heart has autoregulation.
Which one of the following is most appropriate?
a. A only.
b. B and C only.
c. A, B and D only
d. B, C and D only.
ANSWER KEYS:
1.c
2.a
3.b
4.d
5.b
6.b
7.c
8.d
9.d
10.a
11.c
12.b
13.a
14.d
15.a
16.c
17.d
18.c
19.a
20.a
21.a
22.b
23.c
24.
25.a
26.a
27.b
28.d
29.a
30.d
31.c
32.a
33.d
34.d
35.c
36.a
37.c
38.b
39.d
40.d
41.c
42.c
43.c
44.b
45.c
46.d
47.b
48.c
49.b
50.d
51.b
52.d
53.a
54.b
55.d
56.d
57.b
58.b
59.c
60.c
61.a
62.c
63.d
64.a
65.d
66.d
67.d
68.b
69.c
70.c
71.c
72.b
73.a
74.a
75.d
76.a
77.c
78.b
79.e
80.b
81.c
82.a
83.a
84.a
85.a
86.c
87.c
88.a
89.d
90.b
91.d
92.c
93.c
94.c
95.b
96.d
97.c
98.a
99.a
100.c
101.b
102.a
PART C
103.b
104.b
105.a
106.c
107.d
108.c
109.b
110.e
111.d
112.d
113.e
114.a
115.c
116.a
117.d
118.b
119.c
120.c
121.a
122.a
123.d
124.c
125.a
126.b
127.c
128.d
129.a
130.a
131.d
132.b
133.a
134.d
SENSE ORGAN
3. In order to perceive a sensation, the following conditions are necessary, with the exception of
_______________.
a. a strong enough stimulus to initiate a response
b. a receptor to convert the stimulus to an impulse
c. the interpretation of the impulse in the brain
d. a motor impulse to an effector organ or muscle
5. Of this list of cutaneous receptors, the _____________ are located in the lower dermis and detect
deep pressure and stretch.
a. organs of Ruffini
b. bulbs of Krause
c. free nerve endings
d. root hair plexuses
7. Taste buds are found only in the _______________ and _____________ papillae.
a. vallate; fungiform
b. vallate; filiform
c. fungiform; filiform
d. posterior; filiform
8. Within the eye, the _________________ contains sebaceous and sudoriferous glands that produce
the "sleepers" or "sleep dust" at night.
a. palpebral fissure
b. medial commissure
c. lateral commissure
d. lacrimal caruncle
9. Modified sweat glands, also called ___________________, are located within the eyelids.
a. sebaceous glands
b. tarsal glands
c. ciliary glands
d. conjunctiva
10. Of the intrinsic (smooth) muscles within the eye, the ________________ causes the pupil to become
larger.
a. ciliary muscle
b. pupillary dilator muscle
c. pupillary constrictor muscle
d. medial rectus muscle
11. The choroid of the eye carries out each of these functions, with the exception of
________________.
a. houses blood vessels to carry nutrients and remove wastes
b. having a dark pigment to keep light rays from bouncing within the eye
c. housing the photoreceptors
d. All of these are functions of the choroid.
12. The area of keenest vision, where there is a high concentration of cone cells, is called the
_______________.
a. fovea centralis
b. macula lutea
c. blind spot
d. optic disc
13. The tectal system, which is responsible for body-eye coordination, is comprised of the
_________________ and the motor pathways they activate.
a. optic chiasma
b. geniculostriate system
c. striate cortex
d. superior colliculi
14. Between the scala vestibuli and scala tympani of the cochlea is the ______________, a triangular
middle chamber filled with endolymph and housing the spiral organ.
a. membranous ampulla
b. cochlear duct
c. semicircular canal
d. cupula
15. ______________ afflicts the inner ear and may cause both hearing loss and equilibrium disturbance
as the autonomic nervous system constricts vessels in the inner ear.
a. acute purulent otitis media
b. otosclerosis
c. Meniere's disease
d. Strabismus
18. The taste that most people sense on the back of the tongue is
a. sweet
b. bitter
c. salty
d. sour
19. Whether a hair cell depolarizes or hyperpolarizes depends on whether it bends toward or away from
a. kinocilium
b. ampullae
c. statocysts
d. otolith
21. The amount of light entering the eye is determined by the size of the
a. retina
b. cornea
c. fovea
d. optic nerve
22. The cells responsible for color vision in vertebrates are called
a. rod cells
b. cone cells
c. bipolar cells
d. cupula cells
e. ampullae
23. Which of the following substances is involved in the electromagnetic and chemical events of vision?
a. rhodopsin
b. G proteins
c. phosphodiesterase
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
25. Nerve impulses are carried from the eye to the brain by the
a. optic nerve
b. cornea
c. bipolar cells
d. rod and cone cells
e. vestibular apparatus
26. The membrane that separates the outer ear from the middle ear of mammals is called the
a. foveal membrane
b. basilar membrane
c. oval window
d. tectorial membrane
e. tympanic membrane
27. Which of the following is not one of the four taste classes that taste buds respond to?
a. bitter
b. salty
c. spicy
d. sweet
31. Which of the following sensory systems of vertebrates did not evolve first in an aquatic
environment?
a. infrared vision
b. regular vision
c. electric organs
d. taste
35. Which of the following sensory receptors function via hyperpolarization rather than depolarization?
a. rod and cone cells
b. organs of Corti
c. proprioceptors
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
40. Receptors that report your arm position and tension are:
a. electroreceptors.
b. exteroceptors.
c. interoceptors.
d. proprioceptors.
e. thermoreceptors.
42. In which of the following animals would you expect to find the protein opsin?
a. fruit fly
b. alligator
c. bird
d. human
e. all of the above
46. The sclera of the eye contains a dark pigment that absorbs light, preventing internally reflected light
from blurring the visual image.
a. True
b. False
49. The human inner ear is where sound waves are amplified by means of the vibrations of tiny bones.
a. True
b. False
PART-C
50. A 1 meter tall object was placed 10meter in front of a normal eye. The size of the image on the
retina will be (consider distance between lens and retina 1.7cms)
a. 0.17mm
b. 1.7mm
c. 3.4mm
d. 170mm
51. The stereocilia of auditory hair cells are arranged in rows but the heights of stereocilia are not the
same in all the rows. Though the height of stereocilia is the same within a particular row, the heights
increase in subsequent rows. When the stereocilia of shorter rows are mechanically pushed towards
the taller rows, the hair cells are depolarized but a push on opposite direction hyperpolarizes them.
The significance of this graded height of stereocilia is:
A. Each row of stereocilia may be displaced independent of other rows in physiological
conditions.
B. The tip of the taller stereocilia will show greater displacement as compared to shorter ones
when all the rows are moving in the same axis.
C. The hair cells will be depolarized or hyperpolarized in different grades when the axis of
displacement is changed.
D. The taller stereocilia are involved with depolarization and shorter ones are responsible for
hyperpolarization.
Which one of the following is correct?
a. A only
b. B only
c. B and C only
d. A and D
52. A person has been suffering from night blindness. On consultation, the doctor advised the person to
eat carrots and /or cod fish oil. After some time having seen no improvement, the doctor gave the
person Vitamin A injection. Still no marked improvement was seen. The doctor mooted several
suggestions indicating lack of the following enzymes for the failure of treatment:
A. Retinol dehydrogenase
B. Retinal reductase
C. Retinal isomerase
D. Retinal synthase
Which one of the following is correct?
a. A only
b. B only
c. B and C
d. C and D
55. When viewing an object close to your eyes, which of the following are required for proper image
formation on the retina?
1. increased curvature of the lens,
2. contraction of the ciliary muscle,
3. divergence of the eyeballs,
4. refraction of light at the anterior and posterior surfaces of the cornea,
5. constriction of the pupil by contraction of the extrinsic eye muscles.
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 1, 2, 3, and 4
d. 2, 4, and 5
e. 2, 3, and 4
57. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the auditory pathway?
1. external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, oval window,
cochlea and spiral organ
2. tympanic membrane, external auditory canal, auditory ossicles, cochlea and spiral
organ, round window
3. auditory ossicles, tympanic membrane, cochlea and spiral organ, round window,
oval window, external auditory canal
4. auricle, tympanic membrane, round window, cochlea and spiral organ, oval window
5. external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, internal auditory
canal, spiral organ, oval window
a. A and E
b. B and C
c. D only
d. A only
58. Which one of the following is the correct sequence for the passage of a nerve
impulse?
1. Primary visual cortex
2. Optic tract
3. Optic nerve
4. Optic chiasma
5. Visual association area
a. 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
d. 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
e. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1
59. The four refracting media of the eye, listed in the sequence through which light
passes, are:
1. Vitreous body
2. Lens
3. Aqueous humor
4. Cornea
a. 1,2, 3, 4
b. 4, 1, 2, 3
c. 4, 3, 2, 1
d. 2, 3, 4, 1
e. 3, 2, 1, 4
60. A 5-year-old boy who recently emigrated from West Africa is brought to the physician by his
mother for treatment of recurrent follicular conjunctivitis. His father and uncle have had similar
symptoms and are now blind. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
a. Adenovirus
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Herpes simplex virus
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
e. Streptococcus pneumonia.
ANSWER KEYS
1.A
2.A
3.D
4.C
5.A
6.C
7.A
8.D
9.C
10.B
11.C
12.A
13.D
14.B
15.C
16.D
17.B
18.C
19.A
20.C
21.C
22.B
23.D
24.E
25.A
26.E
27.C
28.B
29.C
30.C
31.A
32.B
33.D
34.E
35.A
36.D
37.C
38.D
39.D
40.D
41.A
42.E
43.E
44.A
45.A
46.B
47.B
48.A
49.B
PART C
50.B
51.A
52.A
53.D
54.A
55.B
56.D
57.D
58.A
59.C
60.B
EXCRETORY SYSTEM
1. A toxicant transported to the kidney via the blood will have the highest delivery to the renal
a. Medulla
b. Cortex
c. Papilla
d. None of the above
17. Which ONE of the following is not involved in the regulation of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
a. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
b. Arterial pressure
c. Efferent arteriolar tone
d. Na content in distal tubule
e. Afferent arteriolar tone
37. The clearance (or 'renal regulation') of which ONE of the following is NOT regulated by a hormone:
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Phosphate
e. Sulphate
PART-C
39. As the renal artery approaches the kidney, it branches to supply the renal glomeruli. Place the
following in the correct sequence starting from the renal artery.
1. arcuate artery
2. interlobular vein
3. interlobar artery
4. afferent arteriole
a. 2,1,3,4
b. 2,3, 1,4
c. 1,3,4,2
d. 4,3,1,2
e. 3,1,2,4
40. A substance is freely filtered and actively secreted. Which of the following represent the changes
in concentration of the substance along the nephron?
{A graph of clearance vs plasma concentration with various labelled curves labelled A, B, C, D}
a. Curve A-B
b. Curve A-C
c. Curve A-D
d. Curve A-E
e. None of the above
42. Which of the following hormones affect Na_, Cl_, Ca2_, and water reabsorption and K_ secretion
by the renal tubules?
1. Angiotensin II
2. Aldosterone
3. ADH
4. atrial natriuretic peptide
5. thyroid hormone
6. parathyroid hormone.
a. 1, 3, and 5
b. 2, 3, and 6
c. 2, 4, and 5
d. 1, 2, 4, and 5
e. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 6
43. Which of the following are features of the renal corpuscle that enhance its filtering capacity?
1. large glomerular capillary surface area
2. thick, selectively permeable filtration membrane
3. High capsular hydrostatic pressure
4. high glomerular capillary pressure,
5. mesangial cells regulating the filtering surface area.
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 2, 4, and 5
c. 1, 4, and 5
d. 2, 3, and 4
e. 2, 3, and 5
46. Cystatin C is a 13 kD, non-glycosylated, basic protein that is produced by all nucleated cells. It is
freely filtered by the glomerulus and then reabsorbed and catabolized by the tubular epithelial
cells, with only small amounts excreted in the urine. Its urinary clearance cannot be measured,
which makes it difficult to study factors affecting its clearance and generation. The generation of
cystatin C appears to be less variable and less affected by age and sex than serum creatinine;
however, some studies have reported increased cystatin level. Which among the following is the
cause of increased cystatin level?
A. Increased level of C-reactive protein or BMI
B. Steroid use
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hypothyroidism
a. A, B and C
b. A and B only
c. B and D
d. B and C only
48. All are true for Renal angiography and venography, except
a. the main indication of renal angiography is the diagnosis of renal artery stenosis and renal
hemorrhage
b. therapeutic intervention may be undertaken at the same time of doing renal angiography
like dilatation and stenting of renal artery stenosis and occluding and AV fistula
c. unlike IVU, there is a risk of cholesterol athero-embolisation
d. when compared to IVU, the risk is contrast nephropathy is lower
e. renal venography mainly used in the diagnosis of renal vein thrombosis and renal cell
carcinoma extension
ANSWER KEYS:
1.b
2.c
3.a
4.b
5.d
6.c
7.d
8.d
9.b
10.d
11.b
12.a
13.a
14.c
15.c
16.a
17.b
18.a
19.a
20.a
21.b
22.c
23.d
24.b
25.b
26.a
27.a
28.d
29.a
30.a
31.d
32.c
33.a
34.b
35.c
36.c
37.e
38.a
Part C
39.d
40.d
41.d
42.e
43.c
44.e
45.a
46.a
47.d
48.d
STRESS ADAPTATION & THERMOREGULATION
4. Normal G.F.R. is
a. 100-110 ml/mt.
b. 120-125 ml/mt.
c. 140-160 ml/mt.
d. 160-180 ml/mt.
10. The phosphocreatine stores are able to sustain a maximum contraction of a muscle for:
a. 10 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 1 minute
d. 30 minutes
e. hours
13. Acute onset (4 hours) diabetes insipidus in an otherwise healthy person produces these biochemical
changes?
a. Na 130, K 3.0, Osm 260
b. Na 130, K 4.0, Osm 300
c. Na 150, K 3.0, Osm 260
d. Na 150, K 3.5, Osm 320
e. Na 160, K 3.0, Osm 320
18. The fight-or-flight reaction occurs at which stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
a. alarm
b. resistance
c. recovery
d. exhaustion
19. Which of the following describes a state in which blood pressure, heart rate and other vital
functions are maintained within a narrow range of normal?
a. general adaptation syndrome
b. resistance
c. homeostasis
d. stress response
20. During a stress response, which of the following physiological responses occur?
a. heart rate increases
b. blood pressure decreases
c. digestive system activity increases
d. bronchi contract
21. The action of the endocrine system is activated by which of the following systems?
a. central nervous system
b. parasympathetic nervous system
c. sympathetic nervous system
d. none of the above
22. The long-term wear and tear of the stress response is referred to as:
a. fight-or-flight reaction
b. allostatic load
c. general adaptation syndrome
d. psychoneuroimmunology
23. Long term overexposure to which of the following hormones, released during stress, has been linked
to health problems such as increased risk of heart disease and depression?
a. cortisol
b. epinephrine
c. norepinephrine
d. none of the above
29. stress as a response can be measured using physical and physiological indices, such as:
a. Galvanic skin response
b. Height and weight
c. Body mass index
d. Anxiety and depression levels
30. Declines or alterations in immune function have frequently been associated with the experience of
stressful events. Which cell types have been linked to the subjective experience of stress?
a. B cells and O cells
b. NK cells, B cells, and T cells
c. T cells and B cells
d. NK cells, B cells, T cells, and O cells
31. Which physiological process/processes/systems are involved in heightening the arousal that
facilitates the 'fight or flight' response?
a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Noradrenaline and adrenaline
c. Catecholamines
d. All of the above
32. Why it is that high level of stress during examinations is detrimental to performance?
a. It is not detrimental, stress is good in exam conditions
b. Because stress can impair memory and attention
c. Because too much arousal impairs performance
d. Both B and C
33. Which of the following adaptations will be apt to increase the work capacity at high altitude?
a. Increasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise
b. Increasing workload, increasing duration off exercise
c. Decreasing workload, increasing duration of exercise
d. Decreasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise
34. Hypothermia is
a. Is determined as a core body temperature below 32 degree Celcius.
b. Is characterized by shivering
c. May be caused by benzodiazepines
d. Is due to hypothyroidism in 30% of cases.
e. Causes a delta wave on the ECG.
38. As a compensatory process, uninjured renal cells following nephrotoxic exposure can undergo all of
the following except
a. Hypertrophy
b. Apoptosis
c. Adaptation
d. Proliferation
39. Cellular adaptation responses to toxicant-induced renal injury include the induction of all the
following except:
a. Metallothionein
b. Heat shock proteins
c. Glucose-regulated proteins
d. BRCA-1
40. Following toxic damage to the kidney, casts obstructing the tubular lumen are composed primarily
of
a. Neutrophils and macrophages
b. Red cells and white cells
c. Basophils and plasma cells
d. Necrotic and viable tubular cells
PART-C
43. When a person dives deep under water and resurfaces rapidly, which one of the following sequencs
of events causes decompression sickness?
a. Increase in pressure -> N2 dissolves in blood -> rapid fall in pressure -> N2 bubbles in blood
b. Increase in pressure -> pressure on ear ossicles -> Loss of orientation -> imbalance
c. Fall in pressure -> Loss of O2 from blood -> deoxygenation -> fatigue
d. Increased pressure enhanced blood pressure -> headache -> Loss of memory
46. In thermoregulation
A. Respiratory heat loss is insignificant under normal conditions
B. Brown fat is an important source of heat production in neonates
C. Shivering is due to impulses conducted via autonomic efferents
D. Peripheral vasoconstriction increases heat production
E. Sweating is mediated by sympathetic cholinergic neurons
Which of the above statement are correct
a. A, B, C
b. A, B and E
c. B and D
d. C and E
48. Which of the following statements is false? Heat loss mechanism is done
a. By increasing conduction and radiation from the skin
b. By increasing sweating rate
c. Through increasing blood flow near the skin surface
d. Through counter current exchange.
e. By Reducing the metabolism
49. For an astronaut working outside a spaceship, the greatest loss of heat would occur by means of
Choose one answer.
a. conduction.
b. convection
c. conduction and convection.
d. radiation.
e. None of the above
50. If core body temperature rises above normal, which of the following would occur to cool the body?
(1) dilation of vessels in the skin, (2) increased radiation and conduction of heat to the environment,
(3) increased metabolic rate, (4) evaporation of perspiration, (5) increased secretion of thyroid
hormones.
a. 3, 4, and 5
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 1, 2, and 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
e. 1, 2, 4, and 5
51. Which among the following hormone is involved in thermoregulation?
A. TRH and TSH
B. GHRH and TSH
C. CRH and ACTH
D. CRH and GHRH
a. A only
b. B only
c. And B
d. B and C
ANSWER KEYS:
1.c
2.c
3.c
4.b
5.e
6.e
7.a
8.b
9.c
10.a
11.b
12.d
13.e
14.e
15.a
16.c
17.b
18.a
19.c
20.a
21.c
22.b
23.a
24.d
25.b
26.d
27.a
28.d
29.a
30.b
31.d
32.d
33.c
34.c
35.a
36.e
37.b
38.c
39.d
40.d
PART C
41.b
42.a
43.a
44.a
45.a
46.b
47.e
48.d
49.d
50.b
51.a
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
1. During infusion of an acidic solution (HCl infusion) , which contributes most to buffering?
a. Phosphate buffer
b. Bicarbonate buffer
c. Intracellular buffers
d. Proteins (intracellular proteins)
e. None of the above
8. The muscularis layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains only circular and longitudinal fibers,
except in the :
a. stomach
b. duodenum
c. jejunum
d. ileum
e. colon
10. When Adipocytes increase in size, due to increased fat storage, they increase the production of:
a. leptin
b. resistin
c. free fatty acids
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
11. The cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator allows Cl- diffusion across:
a. The basolateral membrane of gastric parietal cells.
b. The basolateral membrane of pancreatic duct cells.
c. The luminal membrane of pancreatic duct cells.
d. The luminal membrane of gastric parietal cells.
e. (c) and (d).
12. Which of the following reflex(es) is(are) likely to occur during the gastric phase of digestion:
a. ileogastric
b. gastrocolic
c. gastroileal
d. gastroesophageal
e. only (b) and (c)
14. Aminoacids, di and tripeptides enter the intestinal brush border via
a. facilitated diffusion
b. Na+-cotransport
c. H+-cotransport
d. Endocytosis
e. Both (b) and (c)
15. Which of the following is(are) true about insulin effects in hepatocytes:
a. stimulates exocytosis of vesicles containing glucose transporters (glut4)
b. increases glucose-6-phosphatase activity
c. increases glycogen phosphorylase activity
d. increases hexokinase activity
e. all of the above
17. Glucose stimulation of insulin secretion by pancreatic beta cells is mediated by:
a. ATP-gated K+ - channels that close when ATP increases
b. ATP-gated K+ - channels that open when ATP increases
c. ATP-gated Na+ - channels that open when ATP increases
d. ATP-gated Na+ - channels that close when ATP increases
e. none of the above
19. The surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine is increased by:
a. plicae circularis
b. intestinal crypts
c. villi
d. microvilli
e. only (a), (c), and (d)
20. lacteals:
a. are in the villi
b. carry lymph
c. secrete milk
d. transport chylomicrons
e. only (a), (b), and (d)
25. The first step in the conversion of pancreatic zymogens to active enzymes is:
a. hydrolysis of trypsinogen to trypsin by acid pH
b. hydrolysis of trypsinogen to trypsin by pepsin
c. hydrolysis of trypsinogen to trypsin by enteropeptidase
d. hydrolysis of trypsinogen to trypsin by trypsin
e. none of the above
27. Which of the following types of GI motility only occurs during fasting periods?
a. Mass movements
b. Moving motor complexes
c. Segmentation
d. Peristalsis
e. Haustration
I. Leptin. II. Grhrelin. III. Insulin. IV. CCK. V. Neuropeptide Y. VI. CART
34. In infants, defecation often follows a meal. The cause of colonic contractions in this situation is
a. gastro-ileal reflex
b. increased circulating levels of CCK
c. gastrocolic reflex
d. enterogastric reflex
46. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the myenteric ganglia of the enteric nervous
system?
a. Also known as Auerbach's plexus
b. Contains most of the motor neurons to circular and longitudinal muscles of the intestinal
tract
c. It is smaller than the submucousal ganglia and most prominent in the small and large
intestine
d. It is interconnected with the submucosal ganglia.
e. Contains both excitatory and inhibitory motor nerves to the smooth muscle fibers.
47. The enteric or intrinsic nervous system includes all of the following except:
a. The same number of neurons as the spinal cord.
b. Motor programs and reflex circuits.
c. Sensory neurons capable of detecting chemical, mechanical and thermal conditions in the
GI tract.
d. Vagus innervation to the esophagus, stomach, and pancreas.
48. Which of the following statements correctly describes a function of the parasympathetic
innervation of the GI tract?
a. Norepinephrine is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter.
b. Excessive parasympathetic activity can lead to a pathological state called paralytic ileas.
c. Inhibitory efferent Vagal innervation causes sphincters to contract.
d. Afferent sensory input is received in the nucleus of the solitary tract and processed in the
dorsal motor nucleus of the medulla oblongata.
e. Glucose concentration, pH, osmolality, movement of material past mechanoreceptors,
and level of contractile strength or stretch are monitored by efferent parasympathetic
fibers.
49. Muscles in the propulsive and receiving segments of the GI tract respond differently to food
movement through the gut. Which of the following statements correctly describes activity in the
propulsive segment?
a. The circular and longitudinal muscles are contracted.
b. The longitudinal muscles are contracted and the circular muscles are relaxed.
c. Both the longitudinal muscles and circular muscles are relaxed.
d. The circular muscles are contracted and the longitudinal muscles are relaxed.
51. Which of the following is characteristic of the segmenting movements in the small intestine?
a. It decreases particle size, which increases the surface area for digestion.
b. It brings the products of digestion to the mucosal surface for absorption.
c. It results in the mixing of the luminal contents in front of the propulsive segments (i.e. in
the receiving segments)
d. All of the above.
52. Which of the following sphincters does NOT prevent reflux of material?
a. Lower esophageal sphincter
b. Gastroduodenal sphincter.
c. Ileocolonic sphincter
d. Internal anal sphincter.
54. Which of the following swallowing disorders results from the failure of organized peristaltic
behavior, or the simultaneous contraction all along the smooth muscle?
a. Diffuse spasm.
b. Dysphasia
c. Achalasia.
d. Myelphasia.
e. Trachiasia.
55. Choose the correct listing of the anatomical divisions of the stomach in the direction food
normally passes.
a. Corpus, fundus, antrum.
b. Fundus, antrum, corpus.
c. Antrum, corpus, fundus.
d. Fundus, corpus, antrum.
e. Corpus, antrum, fundus.
56. Which of the following is true of smooth muscle in the proximal stomach?
a. It has no action potentials.
b. It contracts phasically.
c. Its main purpose is to grind and mix food prior to propelling it to the gastroduodenal
junction.
d. Receptive relaxation is controlled by decreasing activity of excitatory vagal neurons.
57. Many factors influence the gastric action potential of the stomach. Which of the following is false?
a. Acetylcholine, gastrin, and cholecystokinin increase amplitude of the plateau phase.
b. Gastrin increases AP frequency.
c. The initial contraction coincides with the plateau phase while the trailing contraction
coincides with the rising phase of the AP.
d. Epinephrine and VIP decrease the amplitude of the plateau phase.
e. It is a single action potential originating in the orad boundary of the distal stomach.
58. Emptying gastric contents into the small intestine is strictly controlled. Which of the following is
most acurately represents this concept?
a. High caloric meals empty faster.
b. Liquid and solid meals empty at the same rate.
c. Higher acidity in the stomach results in a slower rate of emptying.
d. Tonicity of the gastric solution doesn't affect the rate of emptying.
60. What is the difference between normal peristalsis of the SI and giant migrating contractions?
a. Normal peristalsis only propagates a short distance.
b. Because of the distance giant migrating contractions travel, they contribute significantly
to mixing chyme.
c. Normal peristalsis can be initiated by vinegar on the mucosa, parasites, enterotoxins, and
ionizing radiation.
d. Normal peristalsis helps strip lumen clean as it travels.
e. Normal peristalsis is sometimes associated with abdominal cramping and diarrhea.
62. Power propulsion is controlled by many factors in the large intestine. Which of the following is
NOT one of them?
a. Castor oil acts on mucosal receptors to initiate it.
b. May be triggered by ileal chyme delivery to the ascending colon.
c. Can be triggered by parasites, enterotoxins, and food antigens.
d. Normally starts in middle of transverse colon after the relaxation of circular muscles and
downstream disappearance of haustral contractions.
e. The influx of material will stimulate a mass movement 6-7 times daily.
65. If you increase the rate of salivary secretion which of the following changes in ionic composition
results?
a. Sodium concentration increases.
b. Bicarbonate concentration decreases.
c. Chloride decreases.
d. Potassium increases.
e. Osmolarity decreases.
66. Which of the following salivary components continues to be active in the acidic environment of
the stomach?
a. Alpha-amylase
b. Lingual lipase.
c. Parotid-amylase
d. Beta-amylase
67. Which of the following best describes type of saliva produced when parasympathetic stimulation
increases the rate of salivary secretion?
a. Copius, protein-poor, electrolyte-rich.
b. Scant, transient protein-rich (mucin), electrolyte poor.
c. Scant, protein-poor, electrolyte-poor.
d. Copius, protein-rich (mucin), electrolyte-rich.
68. Which pair is correct concerning secretory glands/cells in the stomach and their products?
a. Cardiac glands -- hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor.
b. Parietal cells -- pepsinogen
c. Chief cells -- mucus
d. G cells -- protease
e. F cells -- somatostatin.
69. Which of the following does NOT contribute to hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach?
a. A basolateral bicarbonate/chloride exchanger to maintain intracellular chloride ions also
resulting in an alkaline tide in the bloodstream.
b. Passive flow of chloride and potassium ions through apical channels.
c. Hydrogen ions supplied by a basolateral hydrogen/sodium pump.
d. Water passively follows acid into gut to maintain osmotic balance.
e. The primary contributor to hydrochloric acid secretion is a hydrogen/potassium ATPase
that pumps out hydrogen in exchange for extracellular potassium.
70. Which of the following does NOT regulate gastric acid secretion?
a. Vagus nerve stimulation.
b. Cholecystokinin.
c. Histamine
d. Gastrin
e. Acetylcholine.
71. Which of the following combinations will result in the most acid secretion through potentiation?
a. Vagal input, histamine, gastrin
b. Vagal input, histamine, secretin
c. Histamine, gastrin, secretin.
d. Gastrin, vagal input, secretin
e. Gastrin, vagal input, cholecystokinin.
72. A condition that results in too much acid in the stomach could be attributed to which of the
following?
a. Lack of taste buds or damage to olfactory nerves.
b. Defect resulting in release of too much secretin.
c. Defective G cells.
d. Defect in D cells in the antrum.
e. Loss of elasticity of small intestine making distension more difficult.
73. If you follow the path that food normally takes through the digestive system, which of the
following is in the correct order?
a. Upper esophageal sphincter, epiglottis, lower esophageal sphincter, pyloric canal, duct of
Santorini, duct of Wirsung.
b. Pharynx, epiglottis, lower esophageal sphincter, pyloric canal, duct of Wirsung, duct of
Santorini.
c. Pharynx, epiglottis, lower esophageal sphincter, pyloric canal, duct of Santorini, duct of
Wirsung.
d. Pharynx, upper esophageal sphincter, pyloric canal, lower esophageal sphincter, duct of
Wirsung, duct of Santorini.
74. Pancreatic secretions have many of the same ions that plasma does, only the concentrations and
their rate of secretion are different. Which of the following is true?
a. A higher rate of pancreatic secretion results in increased bicarbonate and sodium ion.
Plasma has less bicarbonate and more sodium.
b. A higher rate of pancreatic secretion results in increased bicarbonate and decreased
chloride ion. Plasma has less bicarbonate and more chloride.
c. A higher rate of pancreatic secretion increases its osmolarity and pH. Plasma has a lower
osmolarity as pancreatic secretions.
d. A higher rate of pancreatic secretion results in increased bicarbonate and potassium ion.
Plasma has lower levels of both ions.
75. If duodenal mucosal release of CCK was not working properly, which phase of pancreatic secretion
would be interfered with?
a. Cephalic phase.
b. Gastric phase.
c. Intestinal phase.
d. Duodenal phase.
76. Which of the following has little effect on pancreatic secretion or it's components?
a. Acetylcholine.
b. Sympathetic stimulation.
c. Secretin
d. Cholecystokinin
e. VIP
78. Since bile acids are highly lipophilic, they would be rapidly absorbed through the small intestine
wall before they could facilitate lipid digestion. Which of the following prevents that from
happening?
a. Addition of hydroxyl and carboxyl acid groups to steroid nucleus of cholesterol.
b. Bile acids combine with phospholipids to become less easily absorbed.
c. Bile acids are conjugated to glycine or taurine so they ionize readily.
d. Cholesterol binds to the bile acids to keep them from being absorbed.
79. If a patient has inadequate bile secretion, which of the following could contribute to the
condition?
a. Excessive release of cholecystokinin
b. Excessive release of motilin
c. Excessive release of secretin
d. Excessive steroid hormones.
e. Excessive parasympathetic stimulation.
80. Components of the intestinal mucosa combine to increase the surface area to 600 times that of a
cylinder. Which component makes the greatest contribution to increasing the surface area?
a. The folds
b. The villi
c. The microvilli
d. The cilia
81. Sodium ions play an important role in carbohydrate absorption. All of the following processes
require it EXCEPT:
a. Sugars leaving the intestinal cell to enter the portal blood system.
b. Glucose absorption from gut lumen by second active transport.
c. Process that brings potassium into the instestinal cell.
d. Galactose absorption from the gut lumen.
85. Which of the following pass through the thoracic duct before passing through the liver?
a. Lecithin.
b. Micelles
c. VLDLs
d. Chylomicrons.
e. Small and medium chain fatty acids.
86. Theoretically, which of the following deficiencies would make pepsin's role of protein digestion in
the stomach more crucial?
a. Lipase deficiency.
b. A defect in the amino acid intestinal transport mechanism.
c. Enterokinase deficiency.
d. Cholecystokinin deficiency.
87. Of the following water soluble vitamins, which one CANNOT be absorbed by passive diffusion if
the concentration is high enough?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Niacin.
c. Vitamin B12
d. Biotin.
89. Which of the following is absorbed primarily by passive diffusion powered by a concentration
gradient?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Zinc
e. Iron.
90. Of the approximately 9 liters of water that go through the GI tract daily, how much makes it out
in the feces?
a. 100 ml
b. 1000 ml
c. 2000 ml
d. 1500 ml
e. 500 ml.
91. Transport of fatty acids across the inner mitochondrial membrane is carried out by
a. Carnitine,
b. Epinephrine,
c. Pyruvate Kinase,
d. NADPH
112. Anorexia, Nausia, Vomitting, Swelling, bleeding ete. are the symptoms of
hypervitaminosis of
a. Vit A
b. Vit D
c. Vit E
d. Vit B6
132. Release of which ONE of the following increases the pH of duodenal contents?
a. Secretin
b. Gastrin
c. Intrinsic factor
d. Cholecystokinin
e. Gastrin releasing peptide
PART-C
140. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the myenteric ganglia of the enteric
nervous system?
a. Also known as Auerbach's plexus
b. Contains most of the motor neurons to circular and longitudinal muscles of the
intestinal tract
c. It is smaller than the submucousal ganglia and most prominent in the small and large
intestine
d. It is interconnected with the submucosal ganglia.
e. Contains both excitatory and inhibitory motor nerves to the smooth muscle fibers.
141. Many factors influence the gastric action potential of the stomach. Which of the
following is false?
142. If you increase the rate of salivary secretion which of the following changes in ionic
composition results?
a. Sodium concentration increases.
b. Bicarbonate concentration decreases.
c. Chloride decreases.
d. Potassium increases.
e. Osmolarity decreases.
143. Which of the following does NOT regulate gastric acid secretion?
A. Vagus nerve stimulation.
B. Cholecystokinin.
C. Histamine
D. Gastrin
E. Acetylcholine
a. Only A
b. Only B
c. C and D only
d. E only
144. Pancreatic secretions have many of the same ions that plasma does, only the
concentrations and their rate of secretion are different. Which of the following is true?
a. A higher rate of pancreatic secretion results in increased bicarbonate and sodium ion.
Plasma has less bicarbonate and more sodium.
b. A higher rate of pancreatic secretion results in increased bicarbonate and decreased
chloride ion. Plasma has less bicarbonate and more chloride.
c. A higher rate of pancreatic secretion increases its osmolarity and pH. Plasma has a
lower osmolarity as pancreatic secretions.
d. A higher rate of pancreatic secretion results in increased bicarbonate and potassium
ion. Plasma has lower levels of both ions.
145. If duodenal mucosal release of CCK was not working properly, which phase of pancreatic
secretion would be interfered with?
a. Cephalic phase.
b. Gastric phase.
c. Intestinal phase.
d. Duodenal phase.
146. Since bile acids are highly lipophilic, they would be rapidly absorbed through the small
intestine wall before they could facilitate lipid digestion. Which of the following prevents that
from happening?
a. Addition of hydroxyl and carboxyl acid groups to steroid nucleus of cholesterol.
b. Bile acids combine with phospholipids to become less easily absorbed.
c. Bile acids are conjugated to glycine or taurine so they ionize readily.
d. Cholesterol binds to the bile acids to keep them from being absorbed.
147. If a patient has inadequate bile secretion, which of the following could contribute to the
condition?
a. Excessive release of cholecystokinin
b. Excessive release of motilin
c. Excessive release of secretin
d. Excessive steroid hormones.
e. Excessive parasympathetic stimulation.
148. Theoretically, which of the following deficiencies would make pepsin's role of protein
digestion in the stomach more crucial?
a. Lipase deficiency.
b. A defect in the amino acid intestinal transport mechanism.
c. Enterokinase deficiency.
d. Cholecystokinin deficiency.
149. Sodium ions play an important role in carbohydrate absorption. All of the following
processes require it EXCEPT:
a. Sugars leaving the intestinal cell to enter the portal blood system.
b. Glucose absorption from gut lumen by second active transport.
c. Process that brings potassium into the instestinal cell.
d. Galactose absorption from the gut lumen.
ANSWER KEYS:
1.b
2.b
3.b
4.c
5.c
6.b
7.b
8.a
9.a
10.d
11.c
12.e
13.d
14.e
15.d
16.c
17.a
18.b
19.e
20.e
21.d
22.d
23.e
24.b
25.c
26.c
27.b
28.a
29.d
30.e
31.b
32.d
33.b
34.c
35.b
36.c
37.d
38.a
39.b
40.b
41.a
42.c
43.b
44.b
45.c
46.c
47.d
48.d
49.d
50.a
51.d
52.d
53.a
54.a
55.d
56.a
57.c
58.c
59.a
60.a
61.b
62.e
63.b
64.c
65.a
66.b
67.a
68.e
69.c
70.b
71.a
72.d
73.c
74.b
75.c
76.b
77.a
78.c
79.d
80.c
81.a
82.c
83.c
84.a
85.d
86.c
87.c
88.d
89.b
90.a
91.a
92.d
93.d
94.b
95.d
96.a
97.d
98.d
99.a
100.b
101.d
102.c
103.a
104.c
105.c
106.c
107.a
108.a
109.d
110.c
111.c
112.a
113.a
114.d
115.a
116.d
117.c
118.c
119.a
120.d
121.c
122.d
123.d
124.a
125.c
126.c
127.e
128.c
129.b
130.b
131.a
132.a
133.b
134.b
135.b
136.a
137.b
138.e
PART C
139.a
140.c
141.c
142.a
143.b
144.b
145.c
146.c
147.d
148.c
149.a
ENDOCRINOLOGY AND REPRODUCTION
9. Which of the following cells require the enzyme aromatase for proper function:
a. Granulosa
b. Theca
c. Sertoli
d. Leydig
e. Both (a) and (c)
10. Which of the following cells has(ve) FSH receptors and secrete(s) inhibin?
a. Granulosa
b. Theca
c. Sertoli
d. Leydig
e. Both (a) and (c)
13. Which of the phases of intercourse will be most affected by sympathetic impairment:
a. Arousal
b. Plateau
c. Orgasmic
d. Resolution
e. All of the above
12. Which of the following does not contain erectile tissue?
a. clitoris
b. glans penis
c. nipples
d. penile shaft
e. prepuce
15. A meal rich in proteins but low in carbohydrates does not cause hypoglycaemia because
a. glucagon secretion is stimulated by meals
b. the meal causes compensatory increase in T4 secretion
c. cortisol in circulation prevents glucose from entering the muscles
d. the amino acids in the meal are converted to glucose
17. After intravenous administration of a large dose of insulin, the return of a low blood sugar level
to normal is delayed by
a. thyrotoxicosis
b. glucagon deficiency
c. diabetes
d. parathormone deficiency
23. A decrease in extracellular volume is expected to cause increased secretion of all except
a. Vasopressin
b. Rennin
c. Thyroxin
d. ACTH
24. A patient with parathyroid deficiency 10 days after thyroidectomy will show
a. a low plasma phosphate and Ca++ levels and tetanus
b. a low plasma Ca++ levels, increased muscular excitability and Trousseaus sign
c. high plasma phosphate and Ca++ and bone demineralization
d. increased muscular excitability, high plasma Ca++ and bone demineralization
25. Which of the following is not involved in regulation of plasma Ca++ levels
a. Kidneys
b. Skin
c. lungs
d. intestine
33. Erythropoietin
a. contains iron
b. has no effect on WBC count
c. stimulates renin secretion
d. increases half life of RBC
34. Somatostatin
a. inhibits insulin and glucagoon release
b. stimulates insulin and glucagon release
c. stimulator of glucagon release
d. acts as obesity hormone
41. The metabolic rate is least affected by an increase in the plasma levels of
a. TSH
b. TRH
c. TBG
d. none of the above
42. The coupling of mono iodotyrosine and di-iodotyrosine and the iodination of thyroglobin is
blocked by
a. TSH
b. TRH
c. Iodine
d. thiocarbamides such as propylthiouracil
43. Parathyroid hormone
a. decreases Ca++ mobilization of bone
b. increases Ca++ mobilization from bone
c. decreases circulating levels of free Ca++
d. increases urinary excretion of Ca++
44. Thyrocalcitonin
a. is secreted by thyroid.
b. is secreted by hypothalamus
c. is secreted by parathyroid
d. increases Ca++ absorption by stomach.
46. Temporary methods of birth control which are best suited to prevent transmission of disease are
a. IUD
b. Spermatocides
c. Condom
d. Ru 486
49. All of the following are produced by the corpus leuteum except
a. Estrogens
b. Progesterone
c. relaxin
d. F.S.H.
50. The testis is kept at a temperature of 2-3 degrees C below core temperature due to
a. contraction of cremasteric muscle
b. contraction of dartos muscle
c. contraction of internal oblique muscle
d. relaxation of cremasteric muscle and due to position of the testis outside the pelvic cavity
51. Early detection of pregnancy depends on detection of
a. FSH
b. Progesterone
c. LH
d. hCG
52. Secondary amenorrhoea can most commonly be caused in the following conditions EXCEPT
a. age above 60 years
b. stress
c. pregnancy
d. competitive athletes
53. In the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, placental function is best assessed by urinary
a. Pregnanediol
b. Pregnanetriol
c. chorionic gonadotropin
d. estriol
67. Which one of the hormone is not secreated by adenohypophysis part of pitutary gland?
a. MSH
b. STH
c. ADH
d. TSH
74. From which month onwards intrauterine life, the erythropoiesis starts in red bone marrow
a. 4th
b. 5th
c. 3th
d. 7th
75. The pregnant women are especially susceptible to deficiency of which Vitamin
a. B6
b. B12
c. Folic acid
d. B12 & Folic acid
77. Which cells of the testis are a source of estrogen in the adult healthy male
a. Interstitial cells
b. Leyding cells
c. Sertoli cells
d. All
88. Life expectancy of Spermatozoa after ejaculation in the female reproductive tract is
a. 24 hours
b. 36 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
92. Which hormone causes increased BSL, increased protein anabolism & increased plasma FFA?
a. Cortisol
b. Parathyroid hormone
c. Growth hormone
d. Insulin
93. Which hormone causes increased BSL, increased protein catabolism & increased plasma FFA?
a. Cortisol
b. Parathyroid hormone
c. Growth hormone
d. Insulin
99. How many hours after a meal is Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) measured?
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 12 hours
e. 18 hours
109. Endothelins:
a. Produced by damaged vascular endothelium
b. Vasoactive
c. Found in brain & intestine
d. All of the above
111. Phosphorylase:
a. Is found in all human cells
b. Present in liver & muscle
c. Something about glucagon & the liver
d. Something about cAMP/adrenergic transmission
114. Glucocorticoids
a. Increases RBC
b. Increases lymphocytes
c. They also increase neutrophils
123. Which of the following is immediately due to onset of ventilation in the newly born?
a. Increased left atrial pressure
b. Closure of ductus venosus
c. Decreased RV pressure.
d. Opening of ductus venosus.
124. Which effect is due to spontaneous ventilation in neonate? (Or: The first breath in a
neonate has a predominant role in:)
a. Decreasing RV outflow pressure
b. Closure of ductus venosus
c. Closure of foramen ovale
d. Increased systemic vascular resistance
e. Increased LV pressure
PART-C
129. When a pheochromocytoma suddenly discharges a large amount of epinephrine into the
circulation the patients heart rate would be expected to
a. increase because epinephrine has a direct chronotropic effect on the heart
b. increase because of increased parasympathetic discharge to the heart
c. decrease because the increase in blood pressure stimulates the carotid and aortic
baroreceptors
d. decrease because of increased tonic parasympathetic discharge to heart.
130. A person comes to you with an elevated serum free calcium but the parathyroid hormone
level (PTH) is in the normal range . What is the best conclusion?
a. The PTH is normal, therefore the problem does not lie in the parathyroid gland.
b. The person must have excessive sensitivity to PTH, since normal levels are stimulating
excessive calcium mobilization from bone.
c. The PTH should be low if the parathyroid were functioning normally, thus the problem
does lie in the parathyroid gland.
d. You cannot be sure what is going on; you need to perform a parathyroid scan.
131. A mother comes to see you because two of her seven children are morbidly obese. She
and her husband think they may have some relatives in common, and both parents are dark-
haired. She brings one of her children with her. The boy is 13 years old, and weighs 230 lb; his BMI
is 52. At birth, he was found to have adrenal insufficiency and has been treated with appropriate
doses of glucocorticoids. On exam he is an obese, but otherwise normal red-haired kid. What
would be the best treatment, assuming that the phenotype is due to a single genetic lesion, and
that the treatment options listed were available?
a. Leptin injections.
b. A melanocortin 4 receptor (one of the MSH receptors) agonist.
c. An NPY antagonist.
d. Four weeks in a summer camp for obese kids.
e. Thyroid hormone replacement.
132. You have a brother who has type 1 diabetes. He has had severe hypoglycemia in the past,
without warning. Therefore, you have 1 mg of glucagon available for injection in this situation.
When you give the glucagon, which of the following will happen?Glycogenolysis and
gluconeogenesis will promptly increase.
a. The glucose transporter GLUT4 will translocate to the plasma membrane, causing brain
glucose uptake to increase.
b. The tyrosine kinase activity of the glucagon receptor will be turned on.
c. Lipolysis will be suppressed.
d. Nothing, because you have to give some form of glucose along with the glucagon in order
for it to work.
133. Which of the following statements is true regarding thyroid hormone receptors (TRs):
a. The three beta isoforms of the thyroid hormone receptor (TR-b1, b2, b3) are the products
of three distinct genes
b. The predominant TR isoform in the liver is TR-a1
c. TR-b2 is the major mediator of the negative regulation of the TSH and TRH genes in the
pituitary and paraventricular hypothalamus respectively.
d. Uncoupling protein-1 (UCP-1) is an important thyroid hormone target in white adipose
tissue that is involved in thyroid hormone induced thermogenesis
e. Increased cholesterol levels that occur in hypothyroidism are the result of upregulation
of LDL receptor expression in hepatocytes.
134. Which of the following statements regarding thyroid hormone synthesis is correct?
a. Thyroid hormone is actively transported from the thyrocyte (thyroid follicular epithelial
cell) to the circulation by a specific transport protein.
b. The predominant hormone made by thyrocytes is tri-iodothyronine (T3)
c. The synthesis of thyroxine (T4) occurs within the thyrocyte.
d. Thyroid hormone is proteolytically cleaved from thyroglobulin by enzymes acting within
the lumen of the thyroid follicle. The released hormone then diffuses from through the
thyrocyte and into the circulation.
e. Iodine that is released from proteolytic cleavage of thyroglobulin can be recycled from
mono and diiodotyrosines by the action of type I deiodinase enzyme residing in thyroid
follicular cells.
135. A 51-year old woman seeks attention because she has not had a menstrual period for 4
months. She is not pregnant, and her follicle stimulating hormone level returns at 112 uIU/dL
(normal < 14). She is menopausal and is deficient in estrogen and:
a. Activin
b. Inhibin
c. GnRH
d. Corticosterone
136. In parathyroid cells, calcium regulates expression and release of parathyroid hormone
(PTH) by binding to:
a. A nuclear receptor in the supergene family that includes steroid hormone receptors, the
thyroid hormone receptor, and a number of "orphan" receptors.
b. A transmembrane protein receptor that activates a G-protein-mediated signal cascade.
c. The golgi bodies where PTH is stored, and stimulating their fusion with exocytotic vesicles.
d. A calcium-binding domain in the extracellular matrix, inducing a structural change in the
matrix.
e. A glycoprotein in the gap junction between parathyroid cells, mediating transcytotic
calcium flux.
137. Which of the following would cause the change from curve A to curve B in heart
contractility?
a. Norepinephrine
b. Acetylcholine
c. Intracellular acidosis
d. Ca channel blockers
138. With respect to the extra embryonic structures formed in the mammals, the possible
functional attributes have been designated:
A. A allantoin stores urinary waste and helps mediate gas exchange. It is derived from
splanchnopleure at caudal end of the primitive streak.
B. Amnion is a water sac and protects the embryo and its surrounding amniotic fluid. This
epithelium is derived from somatopleure.
C. Chorion is essential for gas exchange in amniotic embryos. It is generated from the
splanchnopleure.
D. Yolk sac is the last embryonic membrane to form and is derived from somatopleure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. A and B
b. A and C
c. B and C
d. A and D
139. Insulin and other growth factors stimulate a pathway involving a protein kinase mTOR,
which in turn augments protein synthesis. mTOR essentially modifies protein(s) which in their
unmodified form act as inhibitors of protein synthesis. The following proteins are possible
candidates:
A. eEF-1
B. eEIF-4E-BP1
C. eIF-4E
D. PHAS-1
Which of the following set is correct:
a. A and B
b. B and D
c. A and C
d. B and C
140. The graph represents relative plasma concentration of hormones (A and B) during
reproductive cycle in a normal female. Which one of the following combinations is correct?
141. In an animal experiment; Electrical stimulation of an area in the brain (A) increased a
function (F) which was prevented by systemic injection of adrenergic antagonistic, prazosin.
Injection of carbachol (Cholinerigc agonist) into A also increased function F which was, however,
not prevented by systemic injection of adrenergic antagonistic, prazoin. The results are likely to
be due to the stimulation of
a. Nonadrenergic and cholinoceptive neurons
b. Cholinergic and Non-adrenoceptive neurons
c. Adrenergic terminals in A
d. Both neurons and fibres passing through A.
143. In a stressful condition, ACTH secretion was increased and as a result glucocorticoid
concentration was elevated in blood. One or a combination of the following changes most likely
taking place in this condition:
A. Decreased circulating eosinophils and basophils.
B. Reduced IL2 release.
C. Potentiated inflammatory response to tissue injury.
D. Increased mitotic activity of lymphocytes in lymph nodes.
The correct answer is
a. B and C.
b. A and B.
c. B and D.
d. C and D.
144. In one study, a group of 5 day rat pups were fed for 3 weeks a diet A and the pups gained
weight by 300%. In a second study, when the same diet fed for 3 weeks to rats of 350 gms, they
did not gain weight significantly. In a third study, a diet B was fed to 250-350 gms rats and it was
observed that they delivered normal pups after five weeks. Based on these observations which of
the following statements are correct?
a. Diet A facilitates weight gain than diet B.
b. Diet B facilitates pregnancy and child-bearing.
c. More control experiments are to be conducted for definitive conclusion.
d. Diet A is more energy containing that diet 'B'. Hence, its quantity should be reduced.
145. Which of the following graph represents normal sexual cycle in a normal human female?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
146. Level of FSH during infancy and adulthood is the same but spermatogenesis is seen only
during adulthood. mRNA levels coding for FSH receptor are also found to be the same in testis of
both age groups. Which of the following investigations will clarify this paradox a little more?
a. Culture testicular cells and add LH to see testosterone production.
b. Culture testicular cells and add testosterone to see comparative rise in FSH mRNA from
both age groups.
c. Culture testicular cells and add FSH to see comparative rise in cAMP production by both
age groups
d. Add both LH and FSH to testicular cells and evaluate cAMP production.
147. In an experiment, sperm removed from epidydimis of a male mouse was added in a dish
containing appropriate media and oocyte. No fertilization was seen. However, when sperm from
epididymis were directly placed in uterus of an ovulated female, she became pregnant. These
observations suggest that:
a. The sperm needs to travel some distance to attain fertilizing ability.
b. The oocyte secretes some biochemicals or factors which help sperm to fertilize.
c. The hormone in body helps sperm to attain fertilizing ability.
d. The contents of female reproductive tract interact with sperm and activate it for
fertilization.
148. GnRH is secreted during infancy (0-6 months) and puberty onwards (4 years and above)
in monkeys. However, i. v injection of GnRH during pre-pubertal period (about 2years of age) led
to elevated LH and FSH in blood compared to untreated 2years old monkey. This suggests that:
A. Hypothalamus is active during pre-pubertal period.
B. GnRH action on pituitary is age dependent.
C. Pituitary matures during adulthood.
D. Pituitary is active in all the stages of development in monkey.
Which one of the following is true?
a. A and B
b. B and C
c. C only
d. D only
149. A person suffering from thryotoxicosis has extremely high level of thyroid hormone in
blood. There is a failure of feed back regulation in hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis. The
detailed blood investigation exhibited high level of the following
a. Thyroid stimulation hormone
b. Thyroid stimulation immunoglobulin
c. Thyrotropin releasing hormone
d. Parathyroid hormone.
ANSWER KEYS
1.d
2.c
3.a
4.b
5.b
6.a
7.e
8.e
9.a
10.e
11.d
12.a
13.c
14.b
15.a
16.b
17.b
18.d
19.d
20.b
21.c
22.d
23.c
24.b
25.c
26.a
27.b
28.c
29.c
30.a
31.a
32.c
33.b
34.a
35.c
36.d
37.b
38.a
39.b
40.a
41.c
42.d
43.b
44.a
45.d
46.c
47.d
48.c
49.d
50.d
51.d
52.a
53.c
54.c
55.a
56.b
57.a
58.a
59.c
60.a
61.a
62.a
63.a
64.b
65.c
66.a
67.c
68.c
69.b
70.c
71.d
72.c
73.d
74.c
75.d
76.c
77.c
78.b
79.a
80.a
81.b
82.b
83.b
84.c
85.c
86.d
87.c
88.c
89.a
90.b
91.a
92.c
93.a
94.d
95.c
96.c
97.e
98.c
99.d
100.b
101.c
102.b
103.b
104.a
105.a
106.b
107.a
108.a
109.d
110.b
111.b
112.c
113.e
114.a
115.e
116.b
117.a
118.c
119.d
120.b
121.c
122.a
123.c
124.a
125.c
126.a
127.c
128.c
PART C
129.a
130.c
131.b
132.a
133.c
134.e
135.a
136.b
137.a
138.a
139.b
140.b
141.a
142.a
143.b
144.c
145.c
146.b
147.d
148.b
149.b