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1- The following indication/s of epinephrine is/ are entirely due to its effect:
A. Anaphylactic shock D. Epistaxis
B. Cardiac Arrest E. C and D
C. To prolong action of local Anesthetics
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Cross match (each sympathomimetic with its clinical use)
D9. Eye and Nasal Decongestant A. Salbutamol
A10. Threatened abortion B. NE
B11. Septic shock C. Epinephrine
C12. Gingival retraction cord D. Phenylephrine
Q14: Alpha Methyl dopa is associated with all of the following except:
A. Dry Mouth
B. Tolerance
C. Weight gain
D. Sexual dysfunction
E. Anxiety
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D. None of the above
Q26. The following difference/s between propranolol & other - blockers is/are True
A. Betaxolol has no membrane-stabilizing activity, thus preferred in glaucoma as it does not
induce corneal anesthesia
B. Carvedilol has vasodilator, useful in hypertension & in chronic heart failure.
C. Bisoprolol is cardioselective with less risk of Raynaud's phenomenon and less delay in
recovery from hypoglycemia.
D. All of the above
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Q29. Therapeutic uses of propranolol secondary to B2 Blockade
A. Hypertension
B. Vasospastic angina
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Essential tremor
E. Arrhythmias
Renal
Q3. In CHF with hyponatremia due to excess ADH, the most useful diuretic is:
A. Mannitol
B. Acetazolamide
C. Furosemide
D. Spironolactone.
Q6. In the management of severe hypercalcemia, the most useful therapy is:
A. Spironolactone plus saline infusion.
B. Mannitol plus saline infusion.
C. Furosemide plus saline infusion.
D. Hydrochlorothiazide plus saline infusion.
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Q7. Furosemide is useful for the treatment of the following conditions except:
A. Acute pulmonary edema C. Hypertensive encephalopathy
B. Acute renal failure D. Hypercalcuria
Cross Match each diuretic with its inhibitory effect on reabsorption & site of action
A10. Frusemide A. 2 Cl-/Na+/K+ / ascending limb of loop of Henle
C11. Thiazides B. Na+/K+/H+ exchange/ distal tubule
B12. Spironolactone C. NaCl / early part of distal tubule
Cross Match
C13. Frusemide A. Used in Ca stone due to hypercalcuria
A14. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Used in hypomagnesemia
B15. Amiloride C. Used in hypercalcemia
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E. None of the above
Angina
Q2. Long acting nitrate preparation with no 1st pass hepatic metabolism
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Isosorbide dinitrate
C. Isosorbide mononitrate
D. B or C
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Q3. Nitrate preparation used for termination of an acute attack of angina
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Isosorbide dinitrate
C. Isosorbide mononitrate
D. A or B
Q6. Nitrates & nifedipine share all the following adverse reactions except
A. Headache & flushing C. Reflex tachycardia
B. Hypotension D. Ankle edema
12. Hypotension, heart failure, bradycardia & heart block are adverse reactions of
A. Verapamil
B. Digoxin
C. Amlodipine
D. Nifidipine
13. Beta blockers & calcium channel blockers share all the following indications except
A. Angina
B. Hypertension
C. Supra ventricular arrhythmia
D. Peripheral vascular diseases
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C. Should be avoided in patient with Parkinsonism
D. Used cautiously with Beta blockers
For the following patients, chose the most suitable nitrate compounds:
18. Prophylactic therapy in patient with GIT troubles
19. Prophylactic therapy with oral preparation.
20. A patient with persistent chest pain and admitted to CCU
21. A patient with acute attack of angina
Select the most appropriate anti angina drug for each case (a drug can be chosen only
once)
A- Ivabradine B- Trimetazidine C- Diltiazem D- ISMN
27-A patient has Parkinson disease and his heart rate is 50-60 beats/minute (D)
28-A patient with vasospastic angina (C)
29-A patient with heart rate 75 beats/minute despite full dose of metoprolol (A)
Q31: 1st choice in long term prophylaxis in patient with vasospastic angina is
A- Beta Blockers
B- Trimetazidine
C- CCBs
D- None of the above
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Q32: 1st choice in maintenance therapy for chronic angina is
A- Ivabradine
B- Captopril
C- Beta Blocker
D- ISMN
Q33: 1st choice in maintenance therapy for patient with chronic angina and bronchial
asthma
A- Trimetazidine
B- CCBs
C- Beta Blockers
D- Ivabradine
Q34: Management of dental patient with myocardial ischemia, Choose the wrong
sentence
A- Appointment should be short, minimal stressful and at early afternoon
B- Persistent pain require hospitalization, oxygen and 325 mg Aspirin
C- Cardiac dose of epinephrine should not exceed 4 cartridges of 1:200.000
D- Avoid epinephrine in patient on Beta Blockers
E- None of the above
Hypertension
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Q3: Classes of drugs for initial montherapy include all of the following except:
A. Low dose thiazide
B. Long acting CCBs
C. ACEIs/ ARBs
D. Beta Blockers
Q4: Favorable indications for low dose thiazide include all of the following except
A. Isolated systolic HTN
B. HTN with osteoporosis and elderly
C. HTN with recurrent calcium stones
D. HTN with Hypercalcemia
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E. All of the above
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D. Captopril
Q26. The following is/are Not True concerning diuretics in congestive heart failure
A. Loop diuretics are of choice but thiazides are added in case of refractoriness to loop
diuretics
B. Spironolactone reduces mortality by 30%
C. Reduction in afterload is the main beneficial effect of diuretics.
D. Sulfonamide hypersensitivity occurs with thiazides but not with frusemide
E. C & D
Q27. In atrial fibrillation, the following control ventricular rate by blocking AVN:
A. Procainamide C. Digoxin E. All except A
B. -blockers D. Verapamil
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Cross match each hypertensive case to its most suitable drug therapy
A28. Hypertension during labor A. Labetalol
D29. Hypertension with peripheral vascular disease B. Nitroprusside
C30. First choice in isolated systolic hypertension C. Thiazides
B31. Hypertensive crisis with acute heart failure D. Amlodipine
Q36. A hypertensive patient with angina may be given all the following except
A. Pindolol C. Amlodipine
B. Bisoprolol D. Metoprolol
Q37. A hypertensive patient with heart failure may be given all the following except
A. Thiazides C. Candesartan
B. Lisinopril D. Verapamil
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DM Calcium Corticosteriods
12. The antistress effects of corticosteroids in bleeding, trauma, septic & anaphylactic
shock is due to
A. Increased vasoconstrictor effect of catecholamines.
B. Increased glucose level, providing energy to counteract stress.
C. Anabolic effect. .
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D. A and B.
17. Long acting antidiabetic that rapidly associates & dissociates from receptors resulting
in rapid decrease in blood sugar & low risk of hypoglycemia & CVS side effects.
A. Repaglinide. C. Acarbose.
B. Glimipride. D. Rosiglitazone .
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24. The following increase bone formation in osteoporosis except
A. Ca2+ & Vitamin D
B. Anabolic Steroids.
C. Teriparatide.
D. Cyclic Estrogen
27. Which of the following results on intermittent administration of low dose PTH
A. Impaired Ca absorption in gut.
B. Inhibition of 1-hydroxylase.
C. Net increase in bone formation.
D. Net increase in bone resorption.
29. A drug that decreases serum calcium level, used in osteoporosis & hypercalcemia
A. Calcitonin.
B. Estrogen.
C. Parathyroid hormone.
D. Prednisone.
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Fungi
1. All the following antifungals are correctly matched to their mechanisms EXCEPT:
A. Griseofulvin / inhibits mitosis.
B. Ketoconazole /inhibits cytochrome P450 dependent demethylase.
C. Terbinafine / induces pore formation disrupting cell membrane permeability.
D. Flucytosine / interferes with nucleic acid synthesis.
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D. Safe as it is used only topically in dermatophyte infections
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8. Pethidine differs from morphine in all the following Except :
A. It is preferred for long term treatment of chronic pain
B. It is less liable to cause asphyxia neonatorum
C. It is less liable to cause biliary colic
D. It has atropine like action.
13. Dentists avoid extraction in infection because of all the following Except:
A. Fear of spread of infection.
B. Infection decreases extracellular unionized form of local anesthetics.
C. Infection reduces crossing of local anesthetics inside nerve cell.
D. Infection increases extracellular unionized form of local anesthetics.
14. The following is not true concerning ester type local anesthetics:
A. Shorter acting than amides.
B. Less liable to induce allergy.
C. Less liable to systemic toxicity than amides.
D. Procaine is a member of this group.
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B. Acute toxicity may result in convulsions.
C. It is a potent vasodilator.
D. Chronic abuse results in psychosis.
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