Codewest 510 Pre-Course Study Guide May 2015

API 510 PRE-COURSE STUDY GUIDE
COPYRIGHT 2015 CODEWEST I DO NOT COPY OR DISTRIBUTE THIS DOCUMENT
Table of Contents
Topic Page
Course Location.. ...2

Effectivity Sheet...... ....3
Pre-Course Prep..... ....4
Checklist General Information....... ....5
API Documents... ....6
API 510 Quiz.. ....6
API RP 571 Quiz .........10
API RP 572 Quiz .....12
API RP 576 Quiz .....15
API RP 577 Quiz......17
ASME Code Section V... ..20
ASME Code Section VIII, Division1..... ..23
ASME Code Section IX . ..29
Answer Keys .32
Additional Section VIII Practice Questions............ ..44
Additional Questions: API 510, Sect. V... ..54
Additional Questions: API 510, Sect. VIII... ..67
PLEASE NOTE:
This information is based on the Edition, Addenda, and Supplement(s) of the API and ASME Codes and
Standards as required for the specific API examination that this text has been prepared for. CodeWest makes
no claims as to the accuracy of this information. Use for any other purpose than intended is forbidden and
holders of this document are subject to all of the Terms and Conditions of attendance at CodeWest courses as
stated on the CodeWest Registration Form. This includes criminal prosecution, civil prosecution, possible
prison sentences, and other possible legal actions that may be brought by CodeWest, the State of Texas, the
United States of America, or other countries and jurisdictions.
Copyright 2015
All rights reserved. No part of this book covered by the copyright hereon may be reproduced or used in any
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prison. Contact CodeWest for further information or permission to copy this document.
DO NOT COPY OR DISTRIBUTE THESE DOCUMENTS IN ANY FORMAT
COPYRIGHT 2015 CODEWEST I DO NOT COPY OR DISTRIBUTE THIS DOCUMENT I PR0315LL

1
CodeWest Course and Hotel Location:

The API 510 course will be presented in the Hilton hotel at:
Hilton Westchase
9999 Westheimer
Houston, Texas 77042
For reservations call hotel direct:
PH: 713 974 1000
Internet site:
www.westchase.hilton.com
MAKE RESERVATIONS AT LEAST

30 DAYS IN ADVANCE
DONT FORGET TO ASK FOR THE

CODEWEST DISCOUNT AT THE HILTON
COURSE SCHEDULE:
8 Day Class: May 9-16, 2015
Class will be held from 8 am. to 5 p.m. every day including Saturday and Sunday.
The API exam window is scheduled for May 15-29.
Introduction
The API 510 Examination format is based on a total of 150 multiple choice questions. The closed book portion of
the examination consists of about 90 -110 questions. Maximum three hour duration is allowed on the closed book
portion of the examination. Because no documents are permitted during the closed book portion of the
examination the information contained in these documents must be committed to memory. It is important to read
and understand the documents thoroughly. The open book portion of the examination consists of about 40 to 60
questions. All of the documents (both API and ASME) can be used to answer the open book questions. This
portion of the examination covers most of the math questions and all of the specific questions on the WPS/PQR
documents. This portion of the examination is for a maximum duration of four hours. The written questions that
have been used in this study guide have been taken directly from the text of the API publications and the ASME
Code Sections.
To obtain the most benefit from this study guide as a preparation to attending the CodeWest course it
is recommended that all assignments in this study guide be accomplished prior to the course:
Read the portions of the codes and standards referenced then complete the questions using the code
books without reference to the answer key.
Check your answers using the paragraphs listed in the answer key.
Restudy those areas where weaknesses exist.
Below are the editions and addenda of the codes used when the exam was made up and checked by the exam
construction committee and the ones specified by API for use during the exam. If you call us up to ask about using other
editions or addenda we will tell you that it is best to have these editions and addenda.
If you do not have these you will lower your chances of passing the exam.
To purchase the required publications (API 510 Exam Pack) contact:

Techstreet at PH: 800 699 9277 or www.techstreet.com
Order your Codes & Standards NOW if you do not have them.
Check your Codes & Standards NOW to be certain you have the correct Editions and Addenda.
DO NOT WAIT DO IT NOW!

2

**ReproducedwithpermissionfromAPI**

3

Precourse Preparation:
Students come from many backgrounds. We have inspectors who have picked up their knowledge and
experience over the years in the same class with recently graduated engineers who are just entering the
inspection field. All have strengths and weaknesses. Nondestructive examination is normally a strength for
inspectors and a weakness for engineers. Engineers are usually more familiar with the calculations than
inspectors. ASME Section IX welding requirements can be a weakness for both. In order to smooth over
some of the rough spots we are recommending the following activities as "homework" before you come to
class.
API 510 Body of Knowledge:

It is your responsibility to get a copy of the "API 510 Body of Knowledge". Why your responsibility? Because
API has no schedule for publishing changes or updates to the Bodies of Knowledge and because of this we
can not be certain of providing you with an up-to-date version in this guide. The "Body of Knowledge" is free
and you may obtain one by calling API at 202-682-8064 or downloading one at www.api.org/icp.
The "Body of Knowledge" for each certification specifically identifies the areas in the codes and standards
referenced that you should be familiar with. In some cases specific paragraphs are identified in or at the end
of "knowledge statements" in the documents. Read all the areas of the codes noted in the Body of Knowledge
at least once. The Bodies of Knowledge usually have a section on what NOT to study. Read this too so you
do not waste time studying information that you will not be tested on. The questions for the exam are written
by volunteers like you and, like all volunteer projects, are probably done the night before they are due. Read
the documents as though you are looking for some nice facts to make multiple choice questions out of and
highlight them. Memorize that information. Use the information in different contexts so you develop a
complete understanding.
ASME Section IX - Welding:

If Section IX is a weak area you need to be familiar with the basic welding processes that may be covered
on the exam. They are (in ASME terminology):
SMAW: Shielded Metal Arc Welding (commonly called "stick welding")

SAW: Submerged Arc Welding (commonly called "sub arc")
GTAW: Gas Tungsten Arc Welding (commonly called TIG)
GMAW: Gas Metal Arc Welding (commonly called MIG)
To become familiar with the processes you should actually witness welding and have the process explained by
an experienced welding engineer, inspector or welding technician. You will be expected to review Procedure
Qualification Records (PQR's) and Welding Procedure Specifications (WPS's). Section IX requires tensile and
bend tests to be performed to qualify WPS's. These results are documented on the PQR. Go to a welding
testing lab and get a good look at the coupons cut from test weldments and the testing process. You should
also witness the welding and of a weldment using these processes.
Get copies of a simple SMAW PQR & WPS and take a look at the information contained in them. Compare
that to the essential and nonessential variables required to be addressed by Section IX. We do have one
caution: Don't pay much attention to what you are told about ASME Section IX requirements as we have found
that they are universally misunderstood and proper compliance is rare.
ASME Section V - NDE - Nondestructive Examination:

If NDE is a weak area you will need to witness these basic methods:
RT - Radiography - ASME Section V, Article 2

UT - Ultrasonics - ASME Section V, SE-797 from Article 23 (Thickness measurement only)
PT - Penetrant Examination - ASME Section V, Article 6 (All methods)
MT - Magnetic Particle Examination - ASME Section V, Article 7 (Yoke & Prod Methods only)
Go out in the field and witness these methods being applied and witness the interpretation of the final results
of the examinations. Read the required contents for the NDE procedures in ASME Section V and compare a
procedure to the required information. Witness the actual application of the procedures to see if they are being
carried out correctly. Witness the interpretation of radiographs and be familiar with the required markings,
location markers, Image Quality Indicators (IQI's or what we did call penetrameters or "pennies"), and image
quality factors such as density and IQI image.

4
API CHECKLIST
Make travel arrangements:

____ Airline reservations
____ Hotel reservation (Hilton Westchase reservations should be made 30 days in advance.)
____ Rental car
_____Buy or check nonprogrammable calculator and extra batteries if needed
(NOTES)
_____Get study supplies highlighters, page tabs, scratch paper, pencils, etc.)
(NOTES)
_____Double check codes and standards to be certain you have the correct editions and addenda
(NOTES)
Important contact information:
Supplier for API & ASME Publications: Techstreet PH: 800 699 9277 or WWW.TECHSTREET.COM
Hotel and Houston Course location / Westchase Hilton:
Call 713 974 1000 for reservations or go to: www.westchase.hilton.com Call the hotel and ask for our
discounted room rates. Hilton Westchase reservations should be made 30 days in advance.
CodeWest: PH: 281-392-4540 - Fax: 281-392-7232 - WEBSITE: WWW.CODEWEST.COM
API ICP: PH: 202-682-8064 Fax: 202 682 8348 WEBSITE: WWW.API.ORG/ICP
General information:
Classroom assignments: We will post signs in the meeting room area at the east end of the hotel with a
map to the classrooms and which room each class will be presented in.
Please be sure to go to your assigned classroom. Class starts at 8AM the first day of class.
Dress code: Casual what youd wear to any casual business meeting is OK. You might want to bring a
light jacket as we can never make everyone happy at the same time as far as room temperature goes.
Electronic Devices in classroom: Cell phones must be turned off during class. Laptops, notebooks, etc, are
discouraged. If you insist, please note that we do not provide extra space or electrical cords and we will not
take class time to cover basic computer skills such as navigating a PDF file.
Meals and Breaks: CodeWest provides beverages throughout the daytime sessions. We also provide a
morning break around 9AM that varies but typically includes baked goods sometimes fruit, breakfast tacos or
Kolaches (bread with sausage and cheese or a similar filling baked inside). You are on your own for all
meals other than the morning break. Several restaurants and a large Kroger grocery store with a Deli are a
very short distance from the classroom location. The hotel has a restaurant and bar and often offers specials
for CodeWest students.
Local transportation: CodeWest does not provide any type of transportation. The Hilton is on the shuttle
route from both Hobby and George Bush airports. You can get by without a car during class. The courses are
presented in the Westchase Hilton Hotel: http://codewest.com/location.html
There are several restaurants just across the street as well as a large grocery store with a pharmacy and
some school supplies such as highlighters and page tabs.
CodeWest Security Policy: During recent courses some individuals were caught going through the
classrooms in the evening and picking up some of the class notes and code books that belonged to our
students. Others were confronted trying to enter the classrooms under false pretenses during breaks during
the day. In order to help us protect against this activity we are asking that you wear your CodeWest name
badge whenever you are in the classroom area. The name badges will be in the classrooms as you enter the
first day of class. The staff and security personnel will have a complete list of students and which classroom
they are scheduled to be in. You may be asked to produce identification if you do not have your name badge
on. Please cooperate. We regret any inconvenience this may cause but we believe this is a small price to
pay to protect your property and the investment you are making by attending the CodeWest course.

5
API DOCUMENTS
During the CodeWest course the five API documents will be reviewed. The following quizzes cover these
documents. You must be able to answer all the quiz questions without reference to any of the documents to be
considered to have an adequate knowledge of their content.
API 510 QUIZ
1. How would one calculate long term corrosion rate?
2. Name three types of pressure vessels and containers that are excluded from the requirements of API
510.
3. How is the MAWP determined for the continued use of a pressure vessel?
4. What is the minimum content of an Inspection Plan?
5. What is the difference between an alteration and a repair?
6. Is the addition of an unreinforced nozzle an alteration or a repair?
7. When is field inspection of a new vessel not required?
8. Above ground vessels shall be given a visual external inspection at what interval?
9. Name three types of surface preparation that may be needed?
10. What is the maximum test/inspection interval permitted for pressure-relieving devices?
11. Define on-stream inspection.
12. Name the four types of information that the owner/user records must maintain for each pressure
vessel?
13. Which of the following are considered to be repair organizations?
a. holder of an ASME "S" Certificate.

b. owner or user who repairs his own equipment.
c. a contractor whose qualifications are acceptable to the owner-user.
d. b, c above.
14. Define rerating.
15. How many years experience must a high school graduate have to qualify as an Owner-User Inspector
under API 510?
16. Name five modes of deterioration.
17. When new vessels are placed into service or the service conditions are changed what are the three
methods for determining the probable rate of corrosion?
18. What other examination methods may be used to supplement visual examinations?
19. Do you always have to remove insulation at the time of each external inspection?
20. When would removable internals need to be completely removed?

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21. When may in service inspection be substituted for internal inspection.
22. How far apart should the toes of fillet welds be placed for two fillet welded patches?
23. Define uniform corrosion?
24. Name and describe the five methods by which the minimum actual thickness and maximum corrosion
rate may be adjusted?
25. For a corroded area of considerable size in which circumferential stress governs the least thickness
along a critical element may be averaged over a length not exceeding?
26. Can large vessels with two or more zones of differing corrosion rates have each zone treated
independently regarding inspection intervals?
27. List five features that must be covered in the owner-user quality assurance manual for assessing
pressure vessel inspection systems.
28. What is the efficiency factor to be used when determining the MAWP for a corroded area in the solid
material area of a vessel?
29. How are the intervals between pressure-relieving device testing/inspection determined?
30. What is the maximum period between internal or on-stream inspections?
31. When an internal inspection is to be performed name at least five safety precautions that should be
taken before entering the vessel.
32. For buried vessels what is the basis for establishing the external inspection frequency?
33. Surfaces of shells and heads should be carefully examined for?
34. What three things must be done when the service conditions of a vessel are changed?
35. What repairs and alterations to pressure vessels are covered by API 510?
36. When both ownership and location of a vessel are changed what must be done?
37. Is a pressure test required after each periodic inspection?
38. May fillet welded patches be used for repairs? If so are these repairs permanent?
39. What are the minimum hydrostatic test temperatures recommended by API 510? Pneumatic?
40. When a pneumatic pressure test is to be performed what are the additional examinations required by
the ASME Code prior to the test being performed?
41. When the test pressure will exceed the settings of any safety relief valves or appurtenances what must
be done?
42. Repair organizations that repair pressure relief valves are required to have what kind of a written
program?
43. Name at least 9 topics that are part of a pressure relief valve repair organizations quality control
manual?

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44. In addition to the fifteen topics covered in the pressure relief valve repair organizations quality program
what additional requirement must be met?
45. What is the efficiency factor to be used when determining the MAWP for a corroded area in a weld?
46. What authorizations and approvals are required prior to the commencement of repairs. Alterations?
47. What ASME Code section are welding procedures and welders qualified in accordance with?
48. What is the welding technique that is used as an alternative to PWHT for P-1 and P-3 materials for
vessels not subject to impact testing?
49. When is a pressure test considered mandatory? Can this requirement be waived?
50. What must be done for a pressure vessel that has no nameplate and minimum or no design
documentation in order to place this vessel in the Owners 510 program ?
51. When local PWHT is substituted for full what four conditions must be adhered to?
52. Define a repair organization per API 510?
53. When fillet welded patches are used for repairs what design considerations must be made?
54. What are the requirements that must be met when a pressure vessel is rerated?
55. Sketch the basic nameplate or stamping that is used for a rerated vessel.
56. What alternative method may be used to determine acceptability of vessel walls when corrosion has
reduced the thickness below the minimum required wall thickness?
57. If a corroded area is found in the center portion of an ellipsoidal or torispherical head, what formula
may be used to calculate the minimum required thickness?
58. When the filler metal for a repair has a strength lower than that of the base metal, what is the minimum
number of weld passes required?
59. Who must review and approve the repair procedures used on stainless steel weld overlay and
cladding?
60. For the controlled deposition welding method using SMAW, the weld area shall be maintained at what
temperature and for what time after completion of the repair? Why?
61. The repair area on stainless steel weld overlay and clad vessels constructed of P-3, P-4 or P-5 base
materials should have the base materials examined for what type defects and by which NDE method?
62. When a pressure test is not performed following a major repair or alteration what is required as a
substitute, explain?
63. What minimum preheat temperature may be considered an alternative to PWHT for repairs or
alterations to P-1 materials of a vessel not required to meet notch toughness requirements?
64. What is the minimum number of thickness measurements that should be taken on each vessel to
satisfy the internal or on-stream requirements?
65. When may widely scattered pitting be ignored?

8
66. Who must be consulted prior to repairs of cracks at high stress concentrations?
67. When there is a conflict between requirements specified in the ASME Code and API 510, which
document governs?
68. In what instance do the requirements of API 510 not apply?
69. Materials for repairs or alterations shall conform to what requirements?
70. What are the important steps in a RBI assessment?
71. What are examples of degradation mechanisms?
72. What are other factors that should be considered in a RBI assessment?
73. Can the 10 year inspection limit be increased or decreased as a result of the RBI assessment?
74. What are the responsibilities of the inspector and pressure vessel engineer regarding RBI?
75. What are the requirements for preheat or controlled deposition welding methods as alternatives to
PWHT?
76. What mandatory NDE must be performed prior to and after weld repairs?
77. Can a vessel constructed in accordance with the ASME Code Section VIII prior to 1968 be rerated
using the latest Edition/Addenda of the Code?

9
API RP 571 QUIZ
1. What are typical affected units for when temper embrittlement is an issue?
2. What inspections and monitoring is done for temper embrittlement?
3. Brittle fracture primarily affects what units and equipment?
4. What are some methods applied for prevention of brittle fracture?
5. What is the definition of thermal fatigue?
6. What is the appearance or morphology for thermal fatigue?
7. What is the description of erosion/erosion-corrosion?
8. What are some units susceptible erosion/erosion-corrosion?
9. What are the critical factors of Mechanical Fatigue?
10. What is the signature mark of a mechanical fatigue failure?
11. Where is atmospheric corrosion most severe?
12. What are prevention methods for atmospheric corrosion?
13. What are some critical factors causing corrosion under insulation (CUI)?
14. What are the inspection/monitoring methods to detect CUI?
15. What are the critical factors of cooling water corrosion?
16. How can damage from cooling water corrosion be prevented?
17. What are affected materials for boiler water condensate corrosion?
18. What is the appearance of damage for boiler water condensate corrosion?
19. How can sulfidation be detected?
20. Above what temperature does sulfidation begin?
21. What is the appearance for chloride stress corrosion cracking?
22. How is chloride stress corrosion cracking inspected?
23. What are the critical factors for corrosion fatigue?
24. What is the appearance of corrosion fatigue?
25. What are the affected units for caustic stress corrosion cracking?
26. How can caustic stress corrosion cracking be prevented?
27. What are the descriptions of the four types of damage caused by wet H2S?
28. How can wet H2S damage be prevented?

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29. Hydrochloric acid (aqueous HCl) causes both ________________ and ______________:
30. Damage in refineries from hydrochloric acid is most often associated with dew point corrosion in which
vapors containing water and hydrogen chloride condense from the:
31. Hydrochloric acid corrosion affects what refinery materials?
32. Steel will corrode due to acidic sour water containing H2S between what pH values.
33. What material is the least resistant to sour water corrosion?
34. At a given pressure, the H2S concentration in the sour water _______ as temperature increases.
35. _______ ________ is a common term applied to the cracking of steels under the combined action of
tensil stress and corrosion in aqueous alkanolamine systems used to remove/absorb H2S and/or CO2
and their mixtures from various gas and liquid hydrocarbon streams.
36. Amine cracking is a form of ________ stress corrosion cracking.
37. What type materials are affected by amine stress corrosion cracking?

11
RP 572 QUIZ
1. What is the most common material used in the construction of pressure vessels?
2. Inspection of vessel parts while the unit is in service is called?
3. When should new vessels be inspected?
4. How would you check heavily corroded sections of metallic linings?
5. Name three types of heat exchangers? Shell & tube, air-cooled and _______.
6. What are two methods of providing corrosion resistant surfaces in pressure vessels?
7. List the safety precautions that must be taken prior to entering a pressure vessel?
8. What are the basic reasons for inspection a pressure vessel?
9. ________ can be used as an alternative method to establish inspection intervals.
10. How are metallic linings installed?
11. What is the purpose of a guy wire(s)?
12. The frequency with which a pressure vessel should be inspected depends on what factors?
13. The condition of most parts can be determined by _______ .
14. Name three opportunities when inspections are possible?
15. What should the Inspector do before starting the inspection of a pressure vessel, particularly one in
severe service?
16. Is it necessary to remove all surface deposits for an inspection? Give reasons.
17. Is it necessary to remove internals completely during an inspection? Why?
18. Most pressure vessels are built in accordance with ASME Code Section VIII, Division ___ .
19. What are two common materials used for tubes in heat exchangers?
20. What are the basic reasons for inspection?
21. List six of the tools used in the inspection of a pressure vessel?
22. When inspecting a pressure vessel externally what should the inspection start with?
23. Briefly describe the items to be checked when externally inspecting the following equipment:
a. foundations and supports

b. nozzles
c. steel supports
24. Upon what will the number of thickness readings taken depend?
25. Name the principal strip-lining methods used in refinery vessels?

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26. ___________ is one of the best methods of protecting steel structures from corrosion?
27. What two methods of inspection are used when all the tubes in a bundle are checked for defects?
28. What would be inspected by hammer testing?
29. Briefly describe how you would make a detailed internal inspection of a pressure vessel?
30. What are the three most important factors to consider when checking metallic linings?
31. What types of nonmetallic linings are commonly used?
32. What should be accomplished during the preliminary visual inspection?
33. Name three methods of measuring metal thickness?
34. When should hammer testing be used and when is it not recommended?
35. What inspection techniques are used to inspect nonmetallic linings?
36. To whom should general inspection reports be sent?
37. Describe briefly precautions to observe prior to hydrostatic test of a pressure vessel?
38. What test method would be used for testing a vacuum vessel for leaks?
39. What testing is customarily done to a heat exchanger before dismantling?
40. What testing is customarily done to a heat exchanger after reassembly?
41. When should a pressure test be applied after a repair?
42. How would you calculate minimum wall thickness for the shell of a vessel?
43. Copies of completed reports recommending repairs should be distributed to whom?
44. When would de-rating of a vessel be considered?
45. What data should each type of record contain?
46. What data should the general reports contain?
47. Cracks are more likely to occur where there are sharp changes in shape or size or near ______ .
48. What is the first step in inspecting a tube bundle?
49. How are thin spots in tubes determined?
50. How are scattered pits best repaired?
51. Some jurisdictions require the repair firm to possess what authorization to perform the repair?
52. Name three likely locations of corrosion on tubes in a tube bundle?
53. What would be checked during the visual inspection of an extended plate exchanger?
54. What must be done to the finned tubes of an air-cooled exchanger before starting the inspection?

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55. Where is erosion-corrosion of tubes most prevalent in an air-cooled exchanger?
56. Define a pressure vessel?
57. List four methods of construction used on pressure vessels.
58. What two NDE methods are most commonly used to measure thickness?
59. Where would you find ferri-ferrocyanide?

14
RP 576 QUIZ
1. Briefly describe the applications and limitations for the following safety relief devices:
a. safety valve
b. relief valve
c. conventional safety relief valve
d. pilot operated safety relief valve
e. balanced safety relief valve
f. rupture disk
2. What should be checked during a visual on-stream inspection of a relieving device?
3. List three applications for a rupture disk?
4. What is the principal reason for inspecting relieving devices?
5. What is the primary consideration in evaluating the inspection frequency to be established for relieving
devices?
6. There are four bases for establishing the inspection frequency. What is each and briefly describe?
7. What inspections and testing should be done on new relieving device installations?
8. If a valve fails to open within the set pressure tolerance, what should be done?
9. What is the ideal time to perform inspections of relieving devices?
10. What should be done after extended shutdowns with relieving devices left on a unit?
11. Following reassembly of the relieving device what tests should be done?
12. What identification data should be carried on a relieving device tag?
13. When repairing a relieving device in place what precautions should be observed?
14. What operating information should be contained in the operating history of a relieving device?
15. Flat metal rupture disks are usually limited to what percentage of the disks predetermined bursting
pressure?
16. What medium is generally used to test relieving devices on the shop test block?
17. Briefly describe the shop test block used for testing with air? Make a sketch.
18. What things should be done prior to the removal of the relief devices to the shop?
19. List at least six of the nine points that should be visually checked during the dismantling of a relieving
device?
20. Prior to the start of dismantling what test should be performed and why?
21. During the relieving device test after reassembly what two points are to be checked?
22. What basic information should the Specification Record contain?

15
23. What data should the Historical Record contain?
24. List six causes of improper performance in relieving devices?
25. What is the meaning of CDTP?
26. What should be done with connecting piping and block valves before disconnecting relief valves?
27. What should be done before relief lines are opened to the atmosphere?
28. What two things are tested for in the test block?
29. List the applications and limitations for each type of non-reclosable relieving device.

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RP 577 QUIZ
1. What is arc length?
2. What is a recordable indication?
3. What are the quality assurance tasks during welding?
4. What are the appearance and finish tasks upon completion of welding?
5. Who should non-conformances be reported to?
6. What best describes the SMAW process?
7. What are the advantages and limitations of the SMAW welding process?
8. What are the three filler metal transfer modes in the GMAW welding process?
9. What are at least six types of essential variables that must be shown on the WPS?
10. What must the manufacturer do on the PQR?
11. What are the three steps used when reviewing a WPS/PQR?
12. F-Nos are grouped according to? Why are F-Nos used?
13. The A-number applies to which type of filler metals?
14. Where can ASME guidelines be found for the storage and handling of filler metals?
15. Direct visual examination is conducted when access is sufficient to place the eye within?
16. Burn-thru and tungsten inclusions are detected by?
17. If a residual field is left in partially completed weld, what would happen?
18. What are four of the requirements that apply to the PT method?
19. Exposed radiographic film allows what percentage of light to pass through it?
20. What are the two common radioactive sources used for RT?
21. When using the double wall technique for RT how many exposures are required when both walls are
superimposed?
22. What are four prerequisites for certifying an interpreter of radiographs?
23. The temperature of the ultrasonic calibration standard shall be within what temperature range of the
part to be examined?
24. What is the purpose of the DAC?
25. What are three types of automated ultrasonic testing?
26. Welding processes are akin to what?
27. What is a common leak testing method that is used during hydrostatic testing?

17
28. What items of inspection results are to be reported in an inspection report?
29. What effect do trace elements of carbon, sulfur and phosphorus have in a cast structure?
30. What are other terms for the rapid heating or cooling of a wrought material within certain temperature
ranges?
31. What is the HAZ?
32. What makes aluminum difficult to weld?
33. What are metals with a high coefficient of thermal expansion susceptible to?
34. Stress in relation to a tensile test is defined as?
35. Ductility is usually expressed as a percentage of the elongation within a _____ gage length.
36. Name three common hardness testing methods?
37. What is the relevance of 55 HRC?
38. What is an example of an in-service degradation that is hardness related?
39. What are six reasons for performing pre-heating?
40. What is the name applied to a notched bar impact test?
41. What is the size of a standard notch impact specimen?
42. What is the primary reason for PWHT?
43. Brinell hardness limits for steels in refining services are?
44. How is hardenability determined?
45. What are the two types of material test reports?
46. What are factors related to weldability?
47. What is the primary factor affecting weldability of metals and alloys?
48. What do steels having a CE between 0.35 0.55 require when welding?
49. The simplest weldability tests are those that evaluate what?
50. The Lehigh Test evaluates what types of cracks?
51. What is the percentage range of nickel in austenitic stainless steels?
52. How can the loss of corrosion resistance due to chromium depletion be prevented?
53. Is it an advantage or disadvantage to apply preheating to nickel alloys when welding?
54. What type electrodes produce adverse effects when performing hot tap and in-service welds?
55. What is the required liquid flow rate in piping when in-service welding is performed?

18
56. To minimize burn-through the first weld pass should be made with what diameter electrode?
57. What are some inspection tasks typically associated with hot tapping or welding on in-service
equipment?
58. What is the limiting factor for base metal thickness when welding with the GMAW-S process?
59. What is the transfer mode for GMAW-S?
60. What are the five basic types of weld joints?
61. What do the first two XXs stand for on the SMAW electrode identification system?
62. Explain the identification system for GMAW/GTAW and FCAW electrodes?

19
ASME CODE SECTION V
The following articles fall within the scope of the examination and should be studied. All Mandatory and Non
Mandatory Appendices and Subsection B are excluded except as noted in the API 510 Body of Knowledge.
Article 1, General Requirements
Article 2, Radiographic Examination.
Article 23, SE-797 Standard Practice for Measuring by Manual Ultrasonic Pulse-Echo Contact Method
Article 6 Liquid Penetrant Examination
Article 7 Magnetic Particle Examination, only the prod and yoke methods apply.
In the day to day inspection activities nondestructive examinations are used and the API Inspector must have both
an understanding of the practical applications as well as the specific requirements.
It is not necessary for the API Inspector to have the in depth knowledge of an SNT-TC-IA Level II Examiner for the
nondestructive methods but should know where in the ASME Code to find the requirements.
ASME SECTION V QUIZ
1. Which NDE methods are required to have written procedures?
2. To what standard are NDE personnel to be qualified and certified for the RT method?
3. Describe how a check of backscattered radiation is performed?
4. What permanent identification must appear on the radiograph? How is this done?
5. How is density monitored?
6. What is the formula for thickness when measured by the pulse-echo ultrasonic method?
7. What are the thickness and hole sizes for a number 30 IQI?
8. What are the two radiographic exposure techniques permitted by the Code?
9. What are the two types of IQIs used per Article 2 of Section V?
10. What are requirements for calibrating densitometers?
11. What are requirements for calibrating step wedge comparison films?
12. Is geometric unsharpness an essential variable when radiographing welds in pressure vessels?
13. For single wall viewing source side markers shall be used on what components?
14. The IQI is normally placed on the
a. source side
b. film side
15. Where is the lead letter "F" placed when film side IQIs are used?
16. A circumferential seam is to be radiographed as a single exposure, what are the minimum number of
IQIs to be used?

20
17. Shims are acceptable on a radiograph when the image _____________?
18. When viewing single film radiographs made with an X-ray source what is the minimum and maximum
permitted density?
19. It is required to radiograph a steel plate with a weld. The plate thickness is 7/16 inch and the weld
reinforcement is 1/16 inch. What source side IQI is required and what is the essential hole
20. Are intensifying screens permitted by ASME Code Section VIII Division 1?
21. For which two NDE methods are there personnel qualification requirements in Section VIII?
22. What is the permitted density variation anywhere through the area of interest?
23. What minimum RT detail information must be provided to the Inspector along with the radiographic
film?
24. The PT written procedure shall contain what information?
25. What is the maximum temperature covered in SE-797?
26. For UT per SE-797, what type unit is recommended where reflecting surfaces are rough?
27. What is the UT rule of thumb regarding apparent readings obtained from steel walls having elevated
temperatures?
28. Is it necessary to measure thickness from both sides of a material when using UT?
29. Up to what maximum temperature can materials be measured for thickness using UT?
30. Which calibration Case applies where a high degree of accuracy is required for thick sections?
31. Where is a wire type IQI placed when radiographing a weld? A hole type?
32. When using penetrant materials on nickel base alloys, austenitic stainless steels and titanium what
certifications must be obtained?
33. How many items are to be considered for inclusion in the UT (SE-797) procedure?
34. How many items are to be included in the UT (SE-797) report?
35. When are shims required to be placed under hole type IQIs?
36. Liquid penetrant examinations detect discontinuities that are:
a. open to the surface

b. near surface
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
37. What are the essential variables that when changed in a PT procedure may require a new procedure
to be prepared?
38. List the two types of penetrants and the three basic penetrant processes?
39. Should thicknesses of calibration blocks be in round numbers or miscellaneous values?
40. What is the term penetrant materials meant to cover?

21
41. The acceptance tolerance for the units ammeter (MT) is that the reading shall not deviate by more
than ___% of full scale relative to the actual current value as shown by the test meter?
42. Describe briefly the basic steps in making a liquid penetrant examination?
43. What is considered to be the standard temperature range for liquid penetrant examination?
44. What is the retention time for radiographic film and reports for radiography performed on pressure
vessels?
45. To remove excess penetrant after the penetration time has elapsed for the solvent removable
penetrant method what is the preferred method to use?
46. The magnetic particle examination method can detect:
a. near surface discontinuities

b. surface discontinuities
c. both a and b above
47. Final interpretation of a PT examination shall be made within what time range after developer
application?
48. What are the two types of radiation sources used in radiography?
49. What are the acceptance standards for liquid penetrant examinations of welds in pressure vessels?
50. The written procedure for the magnetic particle examination shall contain what minimum information?
51. List the five techniques for magnetic particle examination?
52. Each piece of magnetizing equipment with an ammeter shall be calibrated at what frequency?
53. What is the acceptance criteria for the lifting power of yokes when they are checked annually?
54. What are the acceptance standards for magnetic particle examinations of welds in pressure vessels?
55. When using dual search UT (SE-797) units if a wide range of thicknesses is to be measured which
calibration Case is the most suitable?
56. What are the definitions of lipophilic and hydrophilic emulsifications?

22
ASME CODE SECTION VIII, DIV-1
The examination concentrates mainly on the math. While it is important to study the entire Code the emphasis
should be placed on a complete understanding of the various formulas and their application in solving the types of
math problems which may be on the exam.
A thorough study must be made of the following paragraphs:
1. UG-27 Thickness of Shells Under Internal Pressure.
2. UG-28 Thickness of Shells and Tubes Under External Pressure.
3. UG-32 Formed Heads and Sections, Pressure on the Concave Side.
4. UG-37 Reinforcement Required for Openings in Shells and Formed Heads.
5. UW-11 Radiographic and Ultrasonic Examination.
6. UW-12 Joint Efficiencies.
7. Appendix 1, 1-1 Thickness of Cylindrical and Spherical Shells.
When solving math problems whether for the examination or for actual work situations a few simple rules are
necessary.
1. Make a diagram of the problem.
2. List the given values.
3. Derive any values not given.
4. Show formula to be used including source designation.
5. Enter all factors into formula and make calculation.
6. Check calculation for errors.
The following are some typical math problems which cover the formulas that you will study.
QUESTION: 1
During the inspection of a horizontal pressure vessel a corroded area was found on the inside surface, the
thickness at the point was measured to be .906 inches thick. No corrosion allowance is specified. Checking the
ASME Data Report for the vessel it was found that the shell plate was 1-1/4 inch purchased thickness, 48 inch
inside diameter, of SA-516 Gr. 70 material, the shell was rolled and welded using a type 1 longitudinal seam with
full radiographic examination. No corrosion allowance was specified. The MAWP is 600 psig at 300 F. All openings
in the vessel are fully reinforced, welded connections. S is 20,000 psi. What is the maximum pressure permitted
for this thinned area?
a. 737 psi
b. 559 psi
c. 1025 psi
d. 445 psi

23
QUESTION: 2
A seamless 2:1 elliptical head on a horizontal pressure vessel is found by inspection to have a minimum thickness
of 7/8 inch. The nameplate shows a MAWP of 500 psi at 600 degrees. The vessel has not been radiographed and
the Data Report shows that UW-11(a)(5)(b) has not been applied. The inside length of the major axis is 42 inches.
The material is SA-516 Grade 60, S = 16,400 psi. What is the maximum permitted pressure on the head for the
conditions given?
a. 980 psi
b. 755 psi
c. 325 psi
d. 579 psi
QUESTION: 3
A pressure vessel shell with the following characteristics is to have a plate replaced using SA-515-70 material.
Actual thickness = 1.125"

Inside radius = 30"
E = 1.00
MAWP = 641 psig @ 300 F.
PWHT = Applied to original vessel but not mandatory
MDMT = -20 F.
S = 20,000 psi
Ratio of design stress to allowable tensile stress = 1.00
After all exemptions are taken what is the adjusted MDMT of the plate?
a. 45 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 75 degrees
d. 30 degrees
QUESTION: 4
The inner wall of a jacketed vessel is 0.635 inch, the cylinder is 45 inch outside diameter, the unsupported
length is 120 inches, and is made of SA-516 Gr. 70 material. Material chart CS-2 applies. What is the
maximum pressure permitted on the inner wall of the jacket with a temperature rating of 300 F if Factor B is
11,600?
a. 175 psi
b. 208 psi
c. 218 psi
d. 20.8 psi
QUESTION: 5
A vertical pressure vessel is to be hydrostatically tested for an MAWP of 125 psi. Two pressure gages will be
used to monitor pressure. One is placed at the top of the vessel at the 175 ft. The other is placed at the 25 ft.
level. Stress ratio is 1.0 for the materials. As the Inspector you are to read the test pressure gauge at the 25 ft
level. What pressure reading would you expect to observe?
a. 65 psi
b. 188 psi
c. 228 psi
d. 300 psi

24
QUESTION: 6
A welding procedure requires impact testing for a thickness range of 3/16 - 8. The specimen is 1-1/2 having
a 65 ksi yield strength. What is the minimum acceptable impact test values for the three specimens?
a. 38 - 23 - 44
b. 46 - 26 - 37
c. 49 - 25 - 52
d. 38 - 24 - 46
QUESTION: 7
A seamless hemispherical head has the following characteristics:
Thickness 0.875"
L 48"
S 20,000 psi
E 1.00
MAWP 350 psig
What is the maximum pressure permitted?
a. 703 psi
b. 412 psi
c. 659 psi
d. 750 psi
ASME SECTION VIII QUIZ QUESTIONS
The following general knowledge areas of Section VIII, Division 1 must be studied as a basis for answering the
quiz questions. These areas are:
1. U-1 through U-3, Introduction.
2. UG-4 through UG-46.
5. UW-1 through UW-60.
6. UCS-1 through UCS-115.
7. Appendices 1-1, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12.

25
ASME SECTION VIII DIVISION 1 QUIZ
1. The ASME Code used for the construction of pressure vessels is:
a. Section I
b. Section IV
c. Section VIII, Division 1
2. When designing pressure vessels containing cast material what corrections are required to be made to
the allowable stress values?
3. Material subject to stress due to pressure shall conform to:
a. ASTM standards
b. API-ASME specifications
c. ASME Section II, with specified limitations
4. Can material that is not identified with one of the permitted specifications in Section VIII be accepted
as meeting the requirements of a permitted specification?
5. Define minimum design metal temperature?
6. The design formulas in Section VIII address what loadings?
7. When calculating the required thickness or internal design pressure of a cylindrical shell the formula
most commonly used considers:
a. circumferential stress
b. longitudinal stress
c. both a and b
8. What is the minimum thickness permitted for shells and heads?
9. A hemispherical head on a vessel must be replaced, what formula would apply.
10. What are the two methods of calculating the MAWP for a convex head with the pressure on the
convex side?
11. A 2:1 ellipsoidal head on an in-service vessel has excess corrosion in the spherical portion of the
crown. What Section VIII formula applies to its replacement?
12. What product forms are required to have a material test report or certificate of compliance?
13. Must welding materials be provided with a Certified Test Report or a Certificate of Compliance?
14. What Code paragraph addresses Quick Actuating Closures?
15. Are openings in pressure vessels limited to only those of circular shape? If not, If no, what are the
permitted shapes?
16. What classes of vessels are not considered to be within the scope of Section VIII Division 1?
17. Certain openings that are not subject to rapid fluctuation do not require reinforcement other than that
inherent in the construction. What are the size limitations for these openings?
18. When calculating the required thickness of vessel and nozzle walls to determine the required
reinforcement what "E" factor is used?

26
19. On what theory is the reinforcement of openings based?
20. What are the limits of reinforcement measured parallel to and normal to the vessel wall?
21. Can credit be taken for reinforcement material having an allowable stress value higher than that of the
vessel wall?
22. UG-41(b) requires that strength calculations be made for certain welded nozzle configurations. Which
configurations are exempt from these strength calculations?
23. Nozzle necks other than those for access openings and openings for inspection require special
attention regarding their required thickness. Where are these requirements found and briefly explain
their application?
24. A replacement ellipsoidal head of P-No. 1, Group No. 1 material is required for a low alloy steel vessel.
The head thickness before forming is 1 inch and the knuckle radius is 3 inches. The head is to be
formed at 8000F. Does this head require heat treating after forming?
25. When nozzles are welded into a pressure vessel what must be done to the exposed inside edges?
26. What are the requirements for identification of material at the completion of a newly constructed
pressure vessel?
27. What is the maximum out of roundness permitted for any shell cross section?
28. Under what conditions may the out of roundness tolerance exceed the required value?
29. What are the shape tolerances that apply to torispherical and ellipsoidal heads?
30. What is the difference between RT 1 and RT 2?
31. Where do you find the extent of radiography on a vessel when the nameplate indicates RT 4?
32. When a pressure part is to be welded to a flat plate thicker than 1/2 inch to form a corner joint some
additional examinations must be made. Where are these requirements found?
33. Define Maximum Allowable Working Pressure for a completed vessel and a part of a vessel?
34. Must all pressure vessels for external pressure service have stiffener rings installed?
35. When determining the minimum required hydrostatic test pressure what correction factor must be
taken into account?
36. Non pressure parts that are welded to a vessel shall meet what criteria?
37. What is the minimum and maximum range permitted for dial indicating test gages?
38. When openings are to pass through welded joints what additional provisions apply?
39. Is there any upper limit on the hydrostatic test pressure that is applied to a vessel?
40. What is the maximum stress that bolting may be subjected to during hydro?
41. What markings must be applied to the stamping for vessels that have been RT or UT examined?
42. What is the minimum size of letters that can be stamped directly on a vessel?

27
43. You are reviewing the stamping on a vessel and note that the extent of radiography is RT 3. The
vessel was constructed in the year 2006. What "E" factor would you use when calculating the shell
and head thicknesses if type 1 joints were used?
44. What special service conditions are applicable in Section VIII and where are they found?
45. Where is the official certification mark found? What designator is applied below the certification
mark for a pressure vessel?
46. What is the mandatory minimum test temperature that shall be used during a hydrostatic or a
pneumatic pressure test?
47. Category defines:
a. location of joint
b. type of joint
48. A repair organization is welding a seamless ellipsoidal head to a seamless shell. To be able to allow
the full allowable stress value on the head what must be done to the weld joint?
49. Do butt welds in nozzles and communicating chambers that neither exceed NPS 10 nor 1-1/8 inch wall
thickness in a lethal vessel require any radiographic examination?
50. What is the difference between a Type 1 and Type 2 weld joint?
51. A nozzle neck is to be replaced. What are the requirements for determining the correct weld sizes for
partial penetration and/or fillet welds?
52. You are reviewing the stamping on a pressure vessel and find two nameplates, one of which is for a
part. What would you expect to find when you are reviewing the Manufacturer's Data Report for the
vessel?
53. What is the permitted alignment tolerance when joining an ellipsoidal head to a seamless shell with
both having a section thickness of 9/16 inch?
54. A finished Category B joint with a nominal thickness of 1-1/16 inch has a maximum reinforcement of
9/32 inch. Does this meet Code requirements?
55. You are replacing the head on a vessel constructed in 1994. The Data Report shows the material is
0.75 in. thick. What is the coincident ratio for this material considering that the required thickness times
E* equals the nominal thickness minus corrosion allowance?
56. May Ultrasonic volumetric examination be used in lieu of Radiography.
57. A reinforcing plate around a nozzle requires replacement. What is the requirement regarding the size
of the telltale hole?

28
ASME CODE SECTION IX
A good general knowledge of Section IX is required to evaluate the acceptability of a Welding Procedure
Specification (WPS) its qualifying Procedure Qualification Record (PQR) and the Welders Performance
Qualification Record (WPQ). The actual examination is limited to the welding portion of the Code only and to the
processes shielded metal arc welding (SMAW), gas tungsten arc welding (GTAW), gas metal arc welding
(GMAW) and submerged arc welding (SAW). No more than one process will be included on a WPS, PQR or
WPQ.
A technical knowledge of welding such as that held by a welding engineer or technician is not necessary to
perform the evaluation of a WPS, PQR and WPQ or to answer any of the quiz questions or those on the
examination.
Evaluating welding documents consists of three separate phases which are:
1. Are all of the essential, supplemental essential variables when applicable and nonessential variables
as required by the process addressed on the Welding Procedure Specification (WPS) and are there
any errors or incompatibilities?
2. Are all the essential and supplemental essential variables when applicable as required by the process
recorded on the Procedure Qualification Record (PQR) and are there any other errors or
incompatibilities?
Some examples of suspect data is as follows:
1. Base material specification and P-No. that are not compatible.

2. Welding material classification and F-No. that are not compatible.
3. Root gap and use of retainers is required to be addressed but is missing.
4. Tensile test specimen sizes, areas, ultimate unit stresses do not meet requirements.
5. Incorrect type or size of bend specimens.
A study of the following areas of Section IX is required:
1. Part QW
a. Article I - Welding General Requirements.
b. Article II - Welding Procedure Qualification:
c. Article III - Welding Performance Qualification.
d. Article IV - Welding Data:
The API 510 Body of Knowledge lists specific limitations that apply to the WPS/PQR documents. These
limitations are:
1. No more than one process per WPS/PQR.
2. The welding processes will be SMAW, GTAW, GMAW, and SAW
3. Each WPS will be supported by a single PQR.
4. The PQR shall be the supporting PQR for the WPS.
5. There will only be one filler metal per process.
6. Impact testing is not required so no supplemental essential variables need be listed on the WPS.
7. The base metals are limited to P-Nos 1, 3, 4, 5, and 8.
8. Dissimilar base metal joints and dissimilar thickness of base metals are excluded.

29
9. Special weld processes such as corrosion-resistant weld metal overlay, hard-facing overlay, and
dissimilar metal welds with buttering of ferritic member are excluded.
10. For P-No. 1, 3, 4, and 5 materials the lower transformation temperature is 13330F and the upper
transformation temperature is 16000F.
11. Supplemental filler metals and consumable inserts are excluded.
You will be given several sample WPSs and PQRs to review during the course. The following comprehensive
quiz on ASME Section IX will help you prepare for that portion of the presentation.
ASME CODE SECTION IX QUIZ
1. If a performance qualification is made on a groove weld in a pipe over 24" in the 5G test position for
what production position(s) is the welder qualified?
2. What is the purpose of the WPS and PQR combination?
3. The performance qualification of a welder/welding operator shall expire when no welding is performed
in the process for what period of time?
4. If a tension test specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or fusion zone what is the
acceptance criteria?
5. When corrosion resistant weld overlay cladding is not a factor would a 1/16" open defect be
acceptable for a guided bend specimen?
6. What is the purpose of a WPS?
7. Pipe diameter is or is not an essential variable for a welder under the GMAW process?
8. Under what conditions can a PQR be revised?
9. Procedure qualification on a 1-1/2" thick base metal will qualify the procedure to be used to repair
groove welds and to make weld buildups on base metal thicknesses not exceeding __ in.?
10. 1G and 6G are test positions for which a welder is qualified to weld. What production positions do
these represent?
11. Are groove design and retainers essential variables for the SMAW process?
12. Can a subcontractor supervise the welders making procedure and performance test coupons?
13. When are performance test coupons required to be visually examined?
14. Do the base metals and filler metals used during qualification have to be one or more of those listed in
the WPS?
15. Can an existing PQR be used to support a newly written WPS?
16. Can organizations with two or more companies having different names exchange WPS's and PQR's?
17. The WPS specifies a single V groove design. Can the PQR use a double V groove to qualify the
WPS?
18. For what processes and P-No.'s may welders be alternatively qualified by radiographic examination?

30
19. When an immediate retest is made following failure of the visual examination how many test coupons
are required for each position which failed?
20. If a welder/welding operator has left the employ of an organization and has not welded for a period of
five years what are the qualification renewal requirements if he is rehired by the same organization?
21. If QW-404.15 is shown as a variable can a welder who has welded F-No. 4 filler metal without backing
also weld F-No's 3, 2 and 1 without backing?
22. Multiple reduced section specimens can be used for tension tests on thicknesses not exceeding 1
inch?
23. If QW-406.1 is shown as a variable and the preheat temperature qualified was 3500F, would a preheat
of 4520F require requalification?
24. When are longitudinal bend specimens permitted to be used?
25. What is the minimum specified tensile strength of the following base metals:
a. SA-53 Type F
b. SA336 Type F3V
26. If a welder uses a P-No. 1 material for a qualification test coupon what base metals is he qualified to
weld?
27. Can a welder who has passed the required tests for groove welds make fillet in all thicknesses and
pipe diameters of any size?
28. What ASME Specification and F-No. is the filler metal E-6010?
29. What are the procedure qualification bend test requirements for a 3/8" test coupon?
30. Is the term N/A addressing an essential or nonessential variable acceptable?
31. How many tension test specimens are required to qualify a welder?
32. When a 2-7/16" OD test coupon is welded by a welder what is the minimum and maximum outside
diameters qualified?
33. If a filler metal is A-No. 1 what elements must be shown on the analysis?
34. What is the specimen width of a tension test reduced section - plate?
35. A tensile specimen has a width of 0.75, a thickness of 0.372 and an ultimate unit stress of 70,525
psi. What was the tensile machine ultimate total load in lbs.?
36. What is the minimum thickness of test coupon that qualifies a welder to weld the maximum thickness?

31
ANSWER KEYS
The references listed below are where the answers can be found.
API 510
1. 7.1.1.1 CR (Long term) = tinitial tactual / yrs between tinitial & tactual
2. Appendix A & Section VIII, U-1(c)
3. 7.3.1
4. 5.1.2
5. 3.2 & 3.53
6. 3.2
7. 6.2.1.2
8. 6.4.1
9. 5.7.1.1
10. 6.6.2.2
11. 3.43
12. 7.8.2
13. d, 3.54
14. 3.56
15. Appendix B
16. 5.4.1
17. 7.1.2
18. 5.7.1
19. 5.5.6.3
20. 5.5.2.3
21. 6.5.2.1
22. 8.1.5.1.2.3
23. 5.7.2.1
24. 7.4
25. 7.4.2.1
26. 6.5.3
27. 4.2.1
28. 7.4.5
29. 6.6.2
30. 6.5.1.1
31. 5.3.3
32. 5.5.4.2
33. 5.7.1
34. 6.2.2
35. 8.1
36. 6.2.2.2
37. 5.8.1.1
38. 8.5.1.2.1
39. 5.8.6.2
40. 5.8.5 & Section VIII UG-100
41. 5.8.3.2
42. 6.6.1
43. 6.6.1
44. 6.6.1.2
45. 7.4.5
46. 8.1.1 & 8.1.2
47. 8.1.6.2.1
48. 8.1.6.4.2.2
49. 5.8.1.1
50. 7.7
51. 8.1.6.4.1

32
52. 3.54
53. 8.1.5.1.2.2
54. 8.2
55. 8.2.2
56. 7.4.4
57. 7.4.1.6(b)
58. 8.5.3.1(d)
59. 8.1.5.4.1
60. 8.1.6.4.2.3(f)(8)
61. 8.1.5.4.4
62. 5.8.7.1
63. 8.1.6.4.2.2.2
64. 5.6.3.1
65. 7.4.3
66. 8.1.5.2.1
67. 1.1.1
68. 1.1.1
69. 8.1.4
70. 5.2
71. 5.2.1
72. 5.2.1
73. 6.3.1
74. Various throughout document
75. 8.1.6.4.2
76. 8.1.7
77. Figure 8-1
API RP 571
1. 4.2.3.4(b)
2. 4.2.3.7
3. 4.2.7.4
4. 4.2.7.6
5. 4.2.9.1
6. 4.2.9.5
7. 4.2.14.1(a)
8. 4.2.14.4(b)
9. 4.2.16.3(a)
10. 4.2.16.5
11. 4.3.2.1
12. 4.3.2.6
13. 4.3.3.3(d)
14. 4.3.3.7
15. 4.3.4.3
16. 4.3.4.6
17. 4.3.5.2
18. 4.3.5.5
19. 4.4.2.7(c)
20. 4.4.2.3((c)
21. 4.5.1.5(c)(d)
22. 4.5.1.7
23. 4.5.2.3
24. 4.5.2.5
25. 4.5.3.4(c)
26. 4.5.3.6(a)
27. 5.1.2.3.1
28. 5.1.2.3.6

33
29. 5.1.1.4.1 (a)

30. 5.1.1.4.1 (b)
31. 5.1.1.4.2
32. 5.1.1.10.1 (a)
33. 5.1.1.10.2 (a)(b)
34. 5.1.1.10.3 (c)
35. 5.1.2.2.1 (a)
36. 5.1.2.2.1 (b)
37. 5.1.2.2.2
RP 572
1. 4.3
2. 7.2(c)
3. 7.1
4. 9.4.7
5. A-10
6. 4.3
7. 8.1
8. 5.1
9. 6.4
10. 4.3
11. 9.3.8
12. 7.1
13. 9.3.2
14. 7.2
15. 9.1
16. 9.1
17. 9.1
18. 4.6
19. 4.3
20. 5.1
21. 8.2
22. 9.3.2
23. 9.3.3, 9.3.8, 9.3.6
24. 9.2
25. 4.3
26. 9.3.6
27. A.9.1
28. 9.7.1
29. 9.4.4
30. 9.4.7
31. 9.4.8
32. 9.4.3
33. 9.2.1
34. 9.7.1
35. 9.4.7
36. 11.1, 11.2
37. 9.7.2
38. 9.7.2
39. 9.7.3
40. 9.7.3
41. 9.7.2
42. 10.3(2)
43. 11.2
44. 10.1.1
45. 11.1, 11.2
46. 11.1, 11.2

34
47. A.9.2
48. A.9.1
49. A.9.1
50. 10.5.1.1
51. 10.5
52. A.9.2
53. A.11
54. A.12
55. A.12
56. 4.1
57. 4.2
58. 9.2
59. A.9.2
RP 576
1. 4.2.1, 4.2.2, 4.3.1, 4.3.2, 4.5.1, 4.5.2, 4.6.1, 4.6.2, 4.7.1, 4.7.2, 4.9.2, 4.9.3
2. 6.3
3. 4.9.2
4. 6.1
5. 6.4
6. 6.4.1.1 thru 6.4.1.3
7. 6.5.2
8. 6.5.3
9. 6.5.1
10. 6.5.4
11. 6.2.14, 6.2.15
12. 6.2.2
13. 6.2.17
14. 6.2.3
15. 4.9.3
16. Appendix B
17. Appendix B
18. 6.2.5, 6.2.6
19. 6.2.9
20. 6.2.8
21. 6.2.14, 6.2.15
22. 7.2
23. 7.2
24. 5.1 thru 5.10
25. 3.4.7
26. 6.2.4
27. 6.2.4
28. 6.2.14, 6.2.15
29. 4.9.2, 4.9.3
API RP 577
1. 3.4
2. 3.49
3. 4.3.1
4. 4.4.1
5. 4.5
6. 5.2
7. 5.2.2 & 5.2.3
8. 5.4.1, 5.4.2, 5.4.3
9. 6.2.1

35
10. 6.3
11. 6.4
12. 7.3
13. 7.5
14. 7.7
15. 9.3.1
16. Table 6
17. 9.4.3
18. 9.6.1
19. 9.8.9.3
20. 9.8.4
21. 9.8.8.3
22. 9.8.9.5
23. 9.9
24. 9.9.1.1
25. 9.9.6
26. 9.9.7.2
27. 9.11
28. 10.2
29. 10.2.1
30. 10.2.2
31. 10.2.3
32. 10.2.3
33. 10.3.4
34. 10.4.1
35. 10.4.2
36. 10.4.3
37. 10.4.3
38. 10.4.3
39. 10.5
40. 10.4.4
41. 10.4.4
42. 10.6
43. Table 11
44. 10.7
45. 10.8
46. 10.9
47. 10.9.1
48. 10.9.1
49. 10.9.2
50. Table 12
51. 10.10.1
52. 10.10.1
53. 10.10.2
54. 11.2.1
55. 11.2.2
56. 11.2.3
57. 11.2.4
58. 11.3
59. 11.3
60. Figure A-1
61. Figure A-6
62. Figure A-7 and Figure A-8

36
Section V
1. T-150
2. T-140
3. T-223
4. T-224
5. T-225
6. SE-797, Section 4
7. Table T-233.1
8. T-271
9. T-276 or T-233
10. T-262.1
11. T-262.2
12. T-285 & Section VIII, UW-51(a)(3)
13. T-275.1
14. T-277.1
15. T-277.1(b)
16. T-277.2(b)(1)
17. T-277.3
18. T-282.1
19. T-276.2(a) & Table T-276
20. T-232
21. Section VIII, Appendices 6 & 8
22. T-282.2
23. T-291, T-292 & Section VIII UW-51(a)(1)
24. T-621.1
31. T-277.1(c)
32. T-641
35. T-277.3
36. T-620
37. T-621.2
38. T-651
40. T-630
41. T-761.1(c)
42. T-642, T-643, T-670
43. T-652
44. Section VIII UW-51(a)(1)
45. T-673.3
46. T-720
47. T-676.1
48. T-272
49. Section VIII Appendix 8-4
50. T-721
51. T-751
52. T-761.1(a)
53. T-762(b) & (c)
54. Section VIII Appendix 6-4
56. T-673.2 (a) & (b)

37
Section VIII Written
1. (c),
2. UG-24
3. UG-4(a)
4. UG-10
5. UG-20(b)
6. UG-22 (Internal and external pressure only)
7. UG-27(c)(1)
8. UG-16(b)
9. UG-32(f)
10. UG-33(a)(1) & (2)
11. UG-32(d)
12. UG-93(a)(1)
13. UG-9
14. UG-35
15. UG-36(a)(1) & (2)
16. U-1(c)(1) thru (10)
17. UG-36(c)(3)(a)
18. UG-37(a)
19. Area replacement, UG-37
20. UG-40
21. UG-41(a)
22. UW-15(b)
23. UW-45
24. UCS-79(d)
25. UG-76(c)
26. UG-77(a)
27. UG-80(a)(1)
28. UG-80(a)(2)
29. UG-81(a)
30. UG-116(e)(1) & (2)
31. UG-116(e)
32. UG-93(d)(4)
33. UG-98(a) & (b)
34. UG-28
35. UG-99(b)
36. UW-5(b)
37. UG-102(b)
38. UG-36(d) & UW-14
39. UG-99(d)
40. 90% yield strength UG-99(b)
41. UG-116(e)
42. UG-118(b)
43. UG-116(e)(3) , Depends on extent of RT shown on Data Report
44. UG-116(c) & UW-2
45. Fig. UG-116; U designator, UG-116(a)(1)(a)
46. UW-99(h) & UG-100(c)
47. UW-3(a)
48. UW-11(a)(5)(b) & UW-52
49. UW-11(a)(2) & (4)
50. Type 1 has no backing strip while Type 2 does.
51. UW-16
52. UG-120
53. UW-33 & Table UW-33
54. UW-35
55. Figure UCS-66 +120

38
56. Yes (UW-51(a)(4)

57. UW-15(d)

39
Section VIII Math
QUESTION: 1
GIVEN:
Material SA-516-70 = 20,000 psi R = 24"

P = 600 psig
T = 300F
t = .906"
E = 1.00
ASSUMPTIONS:
No static head applies

Thinned area in solid plate not weld
No corrosion allowance specified
FORMULA: UG-27(c)(1)
Original thickness = 1.250"

Corroded thickness = 0.906"
Amount of corrosion = 0.344"
P= SEt
R + .6t
P= 20,000 x 1.00 x .906

24 + .6 x .906
P = 737 psi
QUESTION: 2
GIVEN:
P = 500
t = .875"
S = 16,400
D = 42
E = 0.85
ASSUMPTIONS:
The minimum thickness is occurring in the knuckle region.
FORMULA: UG-32(d) because head is a 2:1 ratio
P= 2SEt
D + 0.2t
P = 2 x 16,400 x 0.85 x 0.875

42 + 0.2 x 0.875
P = 579 psi

40
QUESTION: 3
GIVEN:
ta = 1.125"
R = 30 in.
P = 641 psi
S = 20,000 psi at design temperature
E = 1.00
Sd/Sa = 1.00
MDMT stamped on vessel nameplate = -20 F.
PWHT has been performed but not required by Code.
SA-515-70 material is a Curve A material per Fig. UCS-66 note (a).
ASSUMPTION:
Original plate was butt welded
Using Table UCS-66 or Figure UCS-66 the MDMT of the material is 75 F.
MDMT 75
Reduction per UCS-68(c) 30
+45 F
During the course we will cover what exemptions are available that can be considered in reducing the basic
MDMT of the base material.
QUESTION: 4
GIVEN:
Do = 45 Do/t = 45/.635 = 70.87

t = .635" Factor B = 11600
L = 120" L/Do = 120/45 = 2.67
Material Chart = CS-2 Temperature = 3000F
FORMULA: UG-28(c)(1)
A = .0008 B = 11,600
Pa = 4B
3(Do/t)
Pa = 4 x 11,600
3 x 70.87
Pa = 218 psi

41
QUESTION: 5
GIVEN:
MAWP = 125 psi Vessel height = 175'

Pressure gage location = 25'
FORMULA: UG-99
Pt = 1.5 x MAWP x St/Sd
Pt = 1.3 x 125 x 1.00
Pt = 162.5 psi
There is 150 feet from top of vessel to pressure gage.
150 x .433 = 65 psi of static head Test gage reading at 25' level = 162.5 + 65 = 228 psi
QUESTION: 6
GIVEN:
Thickest material of the range of base material qualified by the procedure is 8.
Minimum specified yield strength = 65 ksi.
Per UG-84(h)(2)(c) and Figure UG-84.1 the required average for the three specimens is 37 ft.-lbs.
One specimen may have a minimum value of 2/3 of 37 or 24.7 ft.-lb.
The values which meet the requirements are 49 - 25 - 52 because the average of the three values is 37 ft.-
lb, two of the three values are 37 and the third specimen is not below 24.7.
QUESTION: 7
GIVEN:
t = 0.875" S = 20,000
d = 48" P = 350 E = 1.0
FORMULA: UG-32(d)
P= 2SEt
d + 0.2t
P= 2 x 20,000 x 1.0 x 0.875

48 + 0.2 x 0.875
P = 703 psi

42
Section IX
1. QW-461.9
2. QW-100.1
3. QW-322.1
4. QW-153(d)
5. QW-163
6. QW-200.1(a)
7. QW-355
8. QW-200.2(c)
9. QW-202.3(b)
10. QW-120
11. QW-253
12. QW-201 & 300.2
13. QW-190
14. QW-211
15. QW-200.2(f)
16. QW-201
17. QW-212
18. QW-304
19. QW-321.1
20. QW-322.2(a)
21. QW-433
22. QW-151.1(a)
23. QW-406.1
24. QW-161.5
25. QW/QB-422
26. QW-423
27. QW-303.1
28. QW-432
29. QW-451.1
30. QW-401
31. QW-452.1
32. QW-452.3
33. QW-422
34. QW-462.1(a)
35. QW-152 (19,677 lbs.)
36. QW-452.1g

43
ADDITIONAL SECTION VIII PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. An item which can not be found on a mill test report for material is:
1. SA Specification number
2. Heat number
3. Allowable stress value
4. Chemical composition
2. What is the minimum thickness of plate that can be used in the shell or head of a pressure
vessel?
1. 1/4"
2. 3/16"
3. 1/16"
4. There is no minimum thickness
3. Surface defects in materials may be repaired when:
1. Accepted by the Inspector

2. Accepted by the engineering department
3. Approved by the pressure vessel engineer
4. Less than 2" in depth
4. Design and fabrication of power boilers is in accordance with which of the following:
1. ASME Section I
2. ASME Section VIII
3. Engineering Guides and General Specifications
4. API - Pressure Vessels
5. Which of the following types of heads will normally require the greatest wall thickness?
1. 2:1 Elliptical head

2. Torispherical
3. Hemispherical head
4. Flat head
6. Design and fabrication of pressure vessels shall be in accordance with which of the following:
1. ASME Section I
2. ASME Section VIII
3. Engineering Guides and General Specifications
4. API- Pressure Vessels Section IV

44
7. A nozzle was originally PWHT when the vessel was constructed because of lethal service
application. The material was SA- 516 Gr 70 with a thickness of 1/8 in. A full thickness repair is
made. The minimum holding time is _________ hours.
1. 1/2 hour
2. 1/4 hour
3. 1 hour
4. 4 hours.
8. The maximum deviation from the true circular form of a vessel shall not exceed?
1. 2% of the nominal outside diameter

2. 1% of the nominal inside diameter
3. 10% of the nominal inside diameter
4. 5% of the nominal outside diameter
9. When there are no calculation formulas shown in Section VIII, Div. 1 which of the
following could be used?
1. UG-27
2. UW-12
3. U-2(g)
4. UCS-66
10. A casting which was previously PWHT is being repaired, PWHT of the repaired casting is
required when:
1. Specified by the customer

2. Required by either the casting specification or Section VIII, Division 1
3. The thickness exceeds 1 in.
4. Required by the casting specification
11. Which of the following liquid penetrant indications would be acceptable?
1. Relevant linear indications

2. Relevant rounded indications greater than 3/4"
3. Four or more relevant rounded indications in a line separated by 3/16" or less
4. Cracks greater than in in length.
12. According to the ASME Code, Section VIII, the metal temperature during pneumatic test shall be at
least ______ above the minimum design metal temperature to minimize the risk of brittle fracture.
)
1. 200F
2. 300F
3. 400F
4. 500F

45
13. The maximum postweld heat treatment cooling rate required for a 1-1/2 inch, SA-516 Gr. 70
material, flush patch installed as part of a repair to a pressure vessel is:
1. 3330F/hr
2. 5000F/hr
3. 2670F/hr
4. 4000F/hr
14. Ultrasonic examination may be substituted for radiography when:
1. Radiographic equipment is not available

2. Final closure seam of a vessel does not permit interpretable radiographs
3. Required by the designer
4. Final closure seam exceeds 2 in. thickness
15. If a vessel is so large that it must be PWHT in more than one heat, what is the minimum overlap in
the furnace?
1. 5'
2. 10'
3. 15'
4. 50'
16. What documentation is required for a plate of SA-516 Gr. 70 material to be used in a repair
procedure?
1. A certified material test report

2. A material test report
3. A certificate of compliance
4. Either 2 or 3 above
17. A vessel nameplate is stamped RT 4 this indicates that:
1. Only part of the complete vessel has satisfied the radiographic requirements of UW-11(a)
2. The complete vessel satisfies the requirements of UW-11(a)(5) and the spot radiography
requirements of requirements of UW-11(a)(5)(b) have been applied
3. All butt welds have been 100% radiographed
4. All butt welds have been spot radiographed per UW-52
18. What is the maximum allowable working pressure of a vessel?
1. The vessel's design pressure

2. The vessel's design pressure plus the static head
3. The maximum gauge pressure permitted at the bottom of the vessel which includes
hydrostatic head
4. The maximum gauge pressure permitted at the top of the vessel
19. The symbol "HT" on a pressure vessel nameplate indicates:
1. Vessel was hammer tested

2. Whole vessel was Post Weld Heat Treated
3. Vessel is good for high temperature
4. Vessel was hydro tested

46
20. If an additional ASME Code nameplate (in addition to the original nameplate) is installed on the skirt,
jacket or other permanent attachment to the vessel, how should the nameplate be marked:
1. SAMPLE
2. DUPLICATE
3. ADDITIONAL
4. EXTRA
21. A welded carbon steel joint has an MDMT that is colder than 1200F. At what governing thickness
must impact tested materials always be used:
1. > 4 in.
2. < 2 in.
3. 6 in.
4. 3 in.
22. The Manufacturer's Data Report for a pressure vessel stamped with the UM symbol is:
1. U-1
2. U-1A
3. U-3
4. U-2
23. A 3/4 inch thick weld was fully radiographed and an isolated rounded indication is found. The
maximum acceptable size is:
1. 0.250 in.
2. 0.156 in.
3. 0.031 in.
4. 0.568 in.
24. What is the minimum size for a liquid pressure relief valve?
1. NPS 3/4
2. NPS 1/4
3. NPS 1/2
4. NPS 1-1/2
25. If a user signs a contract to build a pressure vessel on May 1, 2006, what edition and addenda of the
Code would be mandatory?
1. 2004 Edition, Addenda 2004

2. 2004 Edition, Addenda 2005
3. 2004 Edition, no Addenda
4. The date of the edition when the vessel is completed
26. Which of the following is not considered a piping component and therefore not exempt from the
scope of the Code.
1. Pipe
2. Fittings
3. Valves
4. Product storage vessel

47
27. Which of the following pressure vessel categories are exempt from inspection by an Authorized
Inspector during construction?
1. Those having a volume of 5 cu ft and design pressure of 250 psi

2. Those having a volume of 3 cu ft and design pressure of 400 psi
3. Those having a volume of 1.2 cu ft and design pressure of 900 psi
4. Those having a volume of 1.5 cu ft and design pressure of 605 psi
28. Pressure vessels with a volume of 1-1/2 cu ft and 600 psi design pressure can be exempted from
Authorized Inspection provided they are not required by the rules to be __________ .
1. Provided with quick actuating closures

2. Used for water service only
3. Used for steam service less than 4000F
4. Used for noncorrosive service
29. Who establishes the design requirements for a new pressure vessel?
1. Manufacturer
2. Design firm
3. The user or his designated agent
4. ASME
30. Which of the following is classified as a service restriction under Section VIII, Division 1?
1. Seamless vessels
2. Pressures above 3000 psi
3. Unfired steam boilers under 50 psi
4. Lethal
31. Vessels containing lethal substances are required to be postweld heat treated in what
thicknesses?
1. All
2. Above 5/8 in.
3. Above 1-1/4 in.
4. Above 1 in.
32. Butt welds in vessels that contain lethal substances are required to be _______ radiographed.
1. Spot
2. Fully
3. Partially
4. Not

48
33. Pressure vessels subject to direct firing do not permit what type weld joints for Category A and B
joints?
1. 3
2. 4
3. 1
4. 1 & 2 above
34. Longitudinal welded joints within the main shell or nozzles are Category _____ .
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. B
35. The temperature used when calculating the required thickness of a shell or head is known as the
____________ design temperature.
1. Marginal
2. Minimum
3. Maximum
4. Optimal
36. The acronym MDMT stands for ___________ .
1. Major Design Method Theory

2. Minimum Design Metal Temperature
3. Maximum Design Metal Temperature
4. Minimum Design Material Temperature
37. Which carbon low-alloy material listed below can be exempted from impact testing per UG-84.
1. P-No. 8 , 1/2 in.

2. P-No. 1, Group 3, Curve E, 1 in.
3. P-No. 1, Group 1 or 2, Curve C, not exceeding 2 in.
4. P-No. 1, Group 1 or 2, Curve D, not exceeding 1 in..
38. P-No. 1, Group 1 or 2 material listed on Curve A is exempted from impact testing if it does not
exceed __________ .
1. 1 in.
2. 2 in.
3. 1/2 in.
4. 9/16 in.
39. For the API 510 Exam the only loadings to be considered in designing a pressure vessel are:
1. Seismic
2. Wind
3. Snow
4. Internal and external pressure

49
40. If a steel casting has a weld seam with a joint efficiency of 0.70 and is examined in accordance
with the minimum requirements of the material specification what would be the appropriate E
value to use when calculating the required thickness of the casting?
1. 0.70
2. 1.00
3. 0.80
4. 1.00
41. Deleted
42. A full size Charpy impact test specimen has a dimension of _______________ .
1. 10 mm x 11 mm
2. 0.394 in. x 0.394 in.
3. 0.394 in. x 0.393 in.
4. 0.262 in. x 0.394 in.
43. What is done when full size impact test specimens cannot be obtained?
1. Estimate the ft-lbf that could be obtained

2. Refer to standard tables
3. Subsize specimens are to be used
4. Use a drop weight test as an alternative
44. You are to impact test a material which is 1 in. thick and has a minimum specified yield strength of 55
ksi. What is the required average for the 3 specimens?
1. 20 ft-lbf
2. 15 ft-lbf
3. 30 ft-lbf
4. 50 ft-lbf
45. For an RT 2 stamped vessel when full radiography is required of the Category A and D butt welds, the
Category B and C butt welds shall as a minimum meet the requirements for ______ .
1. Full radiography in accordance with UW-51

2. Spot radiography in accordance with UW-52
3. Partial radiography in accordance with UW-53
4. Spot radiography in accordance with UW-51
46. Ultrasonic examination in accordance with UW-53 may be substituted for radiography for what
condition:
1. It is never permitted
2. When radiographic equipment is not available
3. For the final closure seam if the construction does not permit interpretable radiographs
4. For longitudinal welded seams when they are in excess of 1-1/4 in.

50
47. Joint efficiencies for welded joints shall be in accordance with ____________ .
1. Subsection C
2. UW-11(a)(5)(b)
3. Paragraph UW-12(d)
4. Table UW-12
48. When a value of E is taken from column (a) of Table UW-12 what are the values for Type 1 and
Type 2 welded joints?
1. 1.00 & 0.90

2. 1.00 & 0.85
3. 0.85 & 0.70
4. 0.85 & 0.65
49. What is the final Code operation in the construction of a pressure vessel?
1. UT Volumetric examination of final closure seam

2. Hydrostatic test
3. Sign the Manufacturers Data Report (MDR)
4. Stamp the ASME Certification Mark on the nameplate
50. Material for pressure parts shall comply with the requirements for materials given in _____ .
1. UG-4 thru UG-15

2. UG-93
3. UW-15
4. UG-15 thru UG-27
51. Material for non-pressure parts which are welded to the vessel ___________________ prior to
being used in the vessel.
1. Must be tested using PT or MT

2. Must be proven of weldable quality
3. Must be ultrasonic thickness tested
4. Must be pressure tested
52. For material which is not identifiable in accordance with UG-10, UG-11, UG-15, or UG-93 proof of
weldable quality can be demonstrated by:
1. Using weld material which meets the requirements of an SFA specification

2. Preparing a butt joint test coupon from each piece of nonidentified material and making
guided bend tests
3. Satisfactory qualification of the welding procedure
4. Both 2 and 3 above

51
53. When adjacent abutting sections differ in thickness by more than the lesser of one-fourth the
thickness of the thinner section or 1/8 in. what must be done?
1. Provide a tapered transition of at least 3:1

2. Make a six inch radiograph
3. Nothing
4. Provide a tapered transition of at least 4:1
54. Longitudinal welded joints of adjacent courses shall be separated by at least ___________ to
avoid the radiographic requirement.
1. Five times the minimum thickness of the plate

2. Five times the thickness of the thicker plate
3. Six inches
4. Four times the thickness of the thicker plate
55. Full radiography is required for which of the following butt welds:
1. In shells and heads having a design temperature greater than 7000F.

2. In shells and heads of unfired steam boilers having design pressures less than 50 psi
3. In all vessels where the least nominal thickness exceeds 1 in.
4. In shells and heads of vessels containing lethal substances

52
ADDITIONAL ASME SECTION VIII QUESTIONS ANSWER KEY
1. (3) App. 3
2. (3) UG-16(b)
3. (1) UG-78
4. (1) Foreword
5. (4)
6. (2) U-1(a)
7. (2) Table UCS-56
8. (2) UG-80(a)
9. (3) U-2(g)
10. (2) UG-24(b)
11. (3) App 8-4
12. (2) UG-100(a)
13. (1) UCS-56(d)(5)
14. (2) UW-11(a)(7)
15. (1) UW-40(a)(1)
16. (4) UG-93(a)(1)
17. (1) UG-116(e)(4)
18. (4) UG-98(a)
19. (2) UG-116(f)(1)
20. (2) UG-119(f)
21. (1) UCS-66(a)(1)
22. (3) UG-120
23. (1) App 4 Table 4-1
24. (3) UG-128
25. (2) Foreword
26. (4) U-1(e)
27. (1) U-1(j)
28. (1) U-1(j)
29. (3) U-2(a)
30. (4) UW-2
31. (1) UW-2(a)
32. (2) UW-2(a)
33. (4) UW-2(d)(1)
34. (3) UW-3(a)(1)
35. (3) UG-20(a)
36. (2) Fig UCS 66
37. (4) UG-20(f)(1)(b)
38. (3) UG-20(f)(1)(a)
39. (4) UG-22
40. (1) UG-24(a)
41. (2) deleted
42. (2) UG-84(c)(2)
43. (3) UG-84(c)(3)
44. (1) Fig UG-84-1
45. (2) UW-11(a)(5)(b)
46. (3) UW-11(a)(7)
47. (4) UW-12
48. (1) Table UW-12
49. (4) UG-116(a)(1)(a)
50. (1) UW-5(a)
51. (2) UW-5(b)
52. (4) UW-5(b)(2)
53. (1) UW-9(c)
54. (2) UW-9(d)
55. (4) UW-11(a)(1)

53
Additional Sample Questions from API-510, Section V
1. Who should develop the Inspection Plan?
a. The owner/user.
b. The contractor or contractor representative.
c. The inspector or engineer.
d. The planner or field superintendent.
2. A corrosion specialist shall be consulted when developing the inspection plan for vessels that operate at
elevated temperature above:
a. 7500F
b. 6500F
c. 5500F
d. 4500F
3. When developing an inspection plan, equipment shall be evaluated based on _______ types of damage
mechanisms.
a. estimated or conjectural
b. present or possible
c. unspecified or assumed
d. suspected or supposed
4. Type of damage, rate of damage progression, tolerance of the equipment to the type of damage, probability
of the NDE method to identify the damage, and maximum intervals as defined in codes and standards are all
items that help determine the ______ that sets the time for equipment examinations.
a. planning
b. operation's schedules
c. manpower availability
d. interval
5, When variables that may impact damage mechanisms or deterioration rates are identified, the inspection
plan shall be reviewed:
a. and modified to fit the expected equipment downtime.

b. and amended as needed.
c. with maintenance planning to see if it will fit their schedule
d. and reported to operations for possible changes
6. An inspection plan contains inspection tasks and schedules required to monitor damage mechanisms. What
major function does this assure?
a. cooperation of maintenance and inspection.

b. on time completion of inspection and maintenance work.
c. the mechanical integrity of the equipment.
d. limited downtime of refinery equipment.

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7. Inspection plans may also contain other details to assist in understanding the reasons for establishing and
executing the plan. Pick the item listed below that could provide additional contents to an inspection plan.
a. List the Codes and Standards that the inspection is based upon.
b. Identify the nest inspection date for each inspection type.
c. Define any special access requirements.
d. Describe any required repairs.
8. An operations manager is looking for a way to keep from shutting a unit down for inspection. He calls in the
inspector and asks him if there is a safe way of extending the inspection interval for a year. The inspector
states:
a. We cannot extend the unit's inspection interval.

b. It is your unit; you can run it as long as you wish.
c. We can call in contractors for extra NDE work and use that to justify an extended interval.
d. We can run a risk-based inspection on the unit to see if we can extend the interval.
9. What other method (other than Codes or Standards) may be used to determine inspection intervals and the
type and extent of future inspection examinations?
a. Risk-based Inspection (RBI).

b. Operational directives.
c. Maintenance scheduling.
d. Manpower availability.
10. A RBI assessment determines risk by combining the _______ and the consequence of equipment failure.
a. certainty
b. probability
c. uncertainty
d. confidence
11. During a RBI, considering factors such as correct materials of construction, vessel design conditions
relative to operating conditions, design codes and standards utilized effectiveness of corrosion monitoring
programs, and quality of maintenance and inspection quality assurance/quality control programs, are part of a:
a. inspection opinion.
b. physical estimation.
c. condition appraisal.
d. probability assessment.
12. When conducting a RBI and you assess what happens when a process leak occurs, (an explosion, a fire,
or toxic fluid) is called a:
a. damage appraisal.
b. consequence assessment.
c. insurance estimation.
d. repair estimate.

55
13. It is essential that all RBI assessments be thoroughly ________ in accordance with API 580, Section 16.
a. documented
b. accepted
c. established
d. reputable
14. How often shall a RBI assessment be updated?
a. The assessment shall be updated after each vessel inspection and at each process or hardware change.
b. The assessment should be updated after each vessel inspection and at each process or hardware
change.
c. The assessment may be updated after each vessel inspection and at each process or hardware change.
d. The assessment can be updated after each vessel inspection and at each process or hardware change.
15. Why is it important to update a RBI assessment?
a. It is important to have proper paper work to show OSHA that you are safely extending the operating time.
b. Records must be kept up to date in order to have excellent records in the event of a failure.
c. Any process or hardware change could significantly affect damage rates or damage mechanisms
d. All jurisdictions require the paper work to be done.
16. Why are safety precautions important in pressure vessel inspection and maintenance activities?
a. Process fluids may be harmful to some workers.

b. Process fluids can cause rash on some workers
c. Process fluids are flammable.
d. Process fluids are harmful to human health.
17. Pick the best example of "other equipment" that is needed for inspection of pressure vessels.
a. Scrapers and hammers.

b. Rules and Levels
c. Scaffolding and ladders.
d. Ultrasonic testing devices.
18. During an inspection of pressure vessels, personal protective equipment ______ be worn when required
either by regulations, the owner/user or the repair organization.
a. may
b. shall
c. should
d. can
19. When individuals are working inside a vessel, they should:
a. rely on the job foreman to insure communications with workers inside the vessel is adequate.
b. be informed when any work is to be done on the outside of the vessel or near the vessel.
c. not be concerned with loud noises or disturbances outside the vessel.
d. let the entry attendant what type work they will be doing inside the vessel.

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20. Pick the item below that is not necessarily required prior to entering a vessel.
a. The vessel shall be isolated from all sources of liquids, gases, vapors, radiation, and electricity.
b. The vessel should be drained, purged, cleaned, ventilated, and gas free before it is entered.
c. The vessel's prior fabrication record shall be reviewed
d. Continuous safe ventilation should be ensured.
21. Before performing any of the required API 510 inspections,
a. inspectors shall familiarize themselves with prior history of the vessel they will inspect.
b. inspectors should familiarize themselves with prior history of the vessel they will inspect.
c. inspectors may familiarize themselves with prior history of the vessel they will inspect.
d. inspectors ought to familiarize themselves with prior history of the vessel they will inspect.
22. Pressure vessels are susceptible to various types of damage by several mechanisms. One type of damage
is General and local metal loss. Which of the problems listed below that is not considered general and local
metal loss?
a. Sulfidation.
b. Oxidation.
c. Fatigue cracking
d. Naphthenic acid corrosion.
23. Which of the damages listed below falls under the classification of subsurface cracking?
a. Fatigue cracking
b. Caustic stress corrosion cracking.
c. Sulfide stress corrosion cracking.
d. Hydrogen induced cracking.
24. Which of the damages listed below falls under the classification of microfissuring/microvoid formation?
a. Fatigue cracking.
b. Temper embrittlement.
c. Graphitization.
d. Creep.
25. Vessel material of construction, design, construction and operating conditions are all factors that help
determine
a. the effectiveness of it.

b. the efficiency of it.
c. the presence or potential of damage in it.
d. the necessity for careful monitoring.
26. Detailed information concerning common damage mechanisms (critical factors, appearance, and typical
inspection and monitoring techniques) in vessels is found in:
a. API 576
b. API 571
c. API 510
d. API 577

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27. Internal inspection, on-stream inspection, external inspection, thickness inspection, and CUI inspection are
all different types of inspections and examinations. They are all _________ depending on the circumstances
and the pressure vessel.
a. inappropriate
b. unsuitable
c. appropriate
d. required
28. A primary goal of the internal inspection is to find:
a. damage to trays and tray parts.

b. if the inspection plan is accurate.
c. internal pressure boundary surface damage.
d. damage that cannot be found by regular monitoring of external CMLs.
29. When vessels are equipped with removable internals, internals may need to be removed to allow
inspection of pressure boundary surfaces. The internals:
a. should be removed completely to assure that no damage is hidden by their presence.

b. must be left in place in order to prevent any changes to operational characteristics.
c. may be removed completely to assure that no damage is hidden by their presence.
d. need not be removed completely as long as damage is not hidden by their presence.
30. Inspectors ________ inspect the non-pressure internals and report current conditions to the appropriate
operation personnel.
a. shall
b. should
c. may
d. ought to
31. In order to insure the good condition and the reliability of pressure vessel internals (trays, bubble caps,
baffles, etc.) inspectors are often requested to check this equipment by:
a. inspection supervisors.
b. maintenance personnel.
c. operating personnel.
d. jurisdictional personnel.
32. An inspector finds evidence that coke or some type of deposit is behind a lining of a pressure vessel. Who
should the inspector consult with in determining if it is necessary to remove the linings and/or the deposits?
a. The pressure vessel engineer.

b. A corrosion specialist.
c. Operation supervisor.
d. The maintenance supervisor.

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33. If a deposit such as coke is permitted to remain on a vessel's internal surface, it is important to determine
whether these deposits protect the vessel or possibly cause deterioration of the vessel shell. What would
be the minimum way to determine the vessel's surface condition?
a. Thoroughly remove 30% of the deposits from the lower part of the vessel shell and check for corrosion.
b. Thoroughly remove all the deposits from the vessel surface and make a complete inspection of the
vessel.
c. Thoroughly remove the deposits at selected areas and spot examine the areas for corrosion.
d. Thoroughly remove 50% of the deposits from the vessel shell and check for corrosion.
34. Without removing a vessel's internal lining, how would an inspector check a vessel shell if he suspected
corrosion was taking place beneath the lining?
a. Lightly tap on the lining with a small hammer.

b. Use external NDE such as UT inspection.
c. Consult a corrosion specialist.
d. Drill an inspection hole in the external vessel shell.
35. Who authorizes and approves all on-stream inspection work performed by an examiner.
a. The authorized inspector.

b. Jurisdictional authorities.
c. The maintenance supervisor.
d. The operations supervisor.
36. Who conducts all on-stream inspections?
a. An inspector.
b. An inspector or an examiner.
c. An examiner.
d. An engineer.
37. When on-stream inspections of the pressure boundary of a pressure vessel are specified, they shall be:
a. designed to detect the wall thickness of the pressure vessel.

b. designed to detect the damage mechanisms identified in the inspection plan.
c. designed to detect all damage mechanisms identified by API 571.
d. designed to detect all damage mechanisms that have been identified in past inspections.
38. NDE techniques used in on-stream inspections are chosen for their ability to identify particular internal
damage mechanisms from the exterior and their capabilities to perform the on-stream conditions of the
pressure vessel. Which of the conditions listed below would be an example of a condition that would provide
some difficulty in the use of a NDE tech
a. availability of manpower.
b. availability of the correct equipment.
c. metal temperatures.
d. location of the vessel.
39. During an external inspection particular attention should be given to welds used to attach components and
clips for cracking or other defects. Which of the items listed below would the inspector be checking?
a. anchor bolts for ladders

b. platform handrails.
c. reinforcement plates, and clips.
d. anchor bolts for vertical vessel base plates.

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40. Normally, weep holes in reinforcing plates should remain open to provide visual evidence of leakage as
well as to:
a. provide operators a heads-up for possible on-stream leakage.

b. prevent pressure build-up behind the reinforcing plate.
c. provide a threaded hole where a pressure gage may be attached to see if there is pressure present.
d. prevent hydrogen build up from any internal corrosion occurring in the vessel.
41. An operator calls an inspector and reports that a vessel on his unit is bulging. What should the inspector
do?
a. The inspector should check the vessel records to see if there was a problem at the last vessel inspection.
b. The inspector should check the overall dimension of the vessel to determine the extent of the problem.
c. The inspector should tell the operator to notify the operating foreman or supervisor.
d. The inspector should suggest that the vessel should be taken out of service immediately.
42. Buried vessels shall be inspected to determine their external surface condition. This corrosion rate may be
arrived at in at least 4 different ways. From the list below, pick the correct way to obtain this corrosion rate.
a. Rely on reports from operating personnel.

b. Wait until maintenance has to excavate areas around the vessel.
c. Rely on metallurgical information from textbooks.
d. Inspect representative portions of the actual vessel by excavating.
43. Thickness measurements are taken to verify the thickness of vessels and their components. What is this
data used for?
a. The data is used to predict the operating capabilities of the vessel.

b. The data is used to provide busy work for the inspector or examiner.
c. The data is used to show OSHA that the company is monitoring the thickness of the vessel.
d. The data is used to determine the corrosion rates and remaining life of the vessel.
44. An inspector, while conducting an on-stream inspection of an operating pressure vessel, finds that the
short-term corrosion rate has accelerated from the identified rate. Who should he consult with?
a. A corrosion specialist.
b. An operating supervisor.
c. A maintenance supervisor.
d. A pressure vessel engineer.
45. Inspection for corrosion under insulation (CUI) shall be considered for:
a. external-insulated vessels and those that are in intermittent service.

b. any insulated vessel and that those that operate at temperatures above 4000 F.
c. austenitic stainless steel vessels operating between 4500 F and 5500 F
d. carbon and low alloy steels operating below 00 F
46. CUI on austenitic stainless steel vessels is usually in the form of:
a. dealloying.
b. graphitization.
c. stress corrosion cracking.
d. carburization.

60
47. Consideration for insulation removal includes several different conditions. Pick the correct one listed below.
a. Recommendation of an operating foreman.

b. The inspection plan governs the removal of insulation.
c. Visual condition of the external covering insulation.
d. Analysis of the repair organization.
48. A designated areas on pressure vessels where examinations are conducted to monitor the presence and
rate of damage is called:
5.6.1
a. A condition monitoring location.
b. A corrosion monitoring location.
c. A condensation monitoring location.
d. A concentration monitoring location.
49. Using CMLs what may be determined?
a. Operating conditions, temperature ranges, and the vessel limitations.

b. Corrosion rates, remaining life and the next inspection interval.
c. Possible repairs, extent of repairs, and the length of the I&T period.
d. Manpower requirements, vessel parameters, and cost of repairs.
50. Pressure vessels with high potential consequences if failure should occur, and those subject to high
corrosion rates, localized corrosion, and high rates of damage from other mechanisms, will normally have
a. less CMLs
b. more CMLs
c. no CMLs
d. average CMLs
51. When thickness measurements are required at CMLs, several different means may be used. Which of the
inspection techniques listed below is not used for thickness measurements?
a. Ultrasonic measurements.
b. Hammer testing.
c. Radiography.
d. Electromagnetic techniques.
52. When a thickness reading or readings are taken with in the area of an examination point, what is usually
recorded.
a. All readings taken shall be recorded.

b. Readings specified by the inspection engineer.
c. The thinnest reading or an average of several readings.
d. The thinnest reading found shall be recorded.
53. Repeating thickness readings at the same CMLs ________ accuracy of the calculated damage rate.
a. indemnifies
b. guarantees
c. insures
d. improves

61
54. CMLs should be distributed ________ over the vessel to provide adequate monitoring coverage of major
components and nozzles.
a. methodically
b. systematically
c. completely
d. appropriately
55. In circumstances where CMLs are substantially reduced in number or eliminated, a _________ should be
consulted.
a. witch doctor
b. inspection engineer
c. operations supervisor
d. corrosion specialist
56. An inspector suspects that he may find cracks or other elongated discontinuities that extend to the surface
of a carbon steel pressure vessel. What type of NDE should he consider using?
a. PT
b. UT
c. MT
d. RT
57. What type testing would reveal through-thickness defects efficiently?
a. Pressure testing.
b. Ultrasonic testing.
c. Magnetic particle testing.
d. Thermography.
58. An inspector is preparing to inspect a Hydro-cracker Reactor. The vessel wall is 7 inches thick. The
material is 2.25 % Chrome-0.5% Moly. What type of test would detect structurally significant defects in the
welds or structural parts of the heads or walls of this vessel?
a. RT
b. UT
c. AE
d. MT
59. What type of testing would you use for determining temperatures of the exterior of a pressure vessel.
a. Field metallographic replication.

b. Acoustic emission.
c. Thermography.
d. Ultrasonic testing.

62
60. The owner/user of a unit shall specify what type of UT shear wave examiners when the following is
required. Detection of interior surface (ID) breaking flaws when inspecting from the external surface (OD). or
where detection, characterization, and/or through-wall sizing is required of defects.
a. industry-qualified UT shear wave examiners.

b. jurisdictional-qualified UT shear wave examiners.
c. provisionally-qualified UT shear wave examiners.
d. conditionally-qualified UT shear wave examiners.
61. What is usually the most accurate means for obtaining thickness measurement of a vessel's pressure
containing parts?
a. PT
b. AE
c. UT
d. MT
62. What type thickness determining techniques are preferred where corrosion is localized or the remaining
thickness is approaching minimum?
a. Acoustic emission will determine areas approaching minimum thickness.

b. Ultrasonic shear wave scanning combined with thermography.
c. Ultrasonic scanning or radiographic profile.
d. Field metallographic replication.
63. When vessel metal temperatures are above ______ degrees F., corrective procedures should be utilized
to insure the accuracy of the thickness measurements obtained.
a. 1500
b. 1250
c. 1000
d. 750
64. When is a pressure test normally required?
a. It is required only at a scheduled inspection and test of a unit

b. It is required when operations requests it.
c. It is usually required after an alteration.
d. It is required before any pressure vessel may be placed back into service.
65. A pressure vessel is to be tested after an alteration. The vessel was designed, built and placed in service
2004. The design pressure of the vessel shell is 100 psi at 6000F. The design stress at 6000F is 19400 psi.
The vessel is to be tested at 800 F. The allowable stress of the vessel material at 800 F is 20000 psi.
a. 100 psi
b. 150 psi
c. 134 psi
d. 200 psi

63
66. Who sets the test pressure for a non-code vessel that has had a major alteration?
a. The owner/user determines the test pressure.

b. The jurisdiction determines the test pressure.
c. The inspector determines the test pressure.
d. The repair organization determines the test pressure.
67. A close visual inspection of pressure vessel components should not be performed until:
a. the vessel pressure is at 90% of the test pressure.

b. the vessel pressure is at full test pressure.
c. the vessel pressure is at or below the MAWP.
d. the vessel pressure is at 80 % of the test
68. What is the preferred thing to do with a pressure relieving device when a test pressure exceeds the set
pressure of the pressure relieving device?
a. The compression screw of the PRV should be tightened until the valve cannot pop.
b. The pressure relieving device should be reset to the maximum test pressure.
c. The pressure relieving device should be removed from the vessel
d. Nothing is required.
69. Why do you review supporting structures and foundation designs before applying a hydrostatic test?
a. They are reviewed to assure they are suitable for the hydrostatic load.
b. They are reviewed to assure that there is complete access to check the vessel for leaks.
c. They are reviewed to assure that the structure will carry the pumps, etc. for the pressure test.
d. They are reviewed to assure that the ladders and platforms would not be dangerous to the inspector.
70. An inspector has scheduled a hydrostatic test of a vessel fabricated from AISI Type 316 SS The inspectors
makes sure that the water or steam condensate has a chloride concentration of less than:
a. 100 ppm
b. 50 ppm.
c. 75 ppm
d. 80 ppm
71. To minimize the risk of brittle fracture during a pressure test, the metal temperature should be maintained
at least ______ above MDMT for vessels that are more than 2 inches thick.
a. 100F
b. 300F
c. 600F
d. 200F
72. To minimize the risk of brittle fracture during a pressure test, the metal temperature should be maintained
at least ______ above MDMT for vessels that are two inches thick or less.
a.
300F
b. 100F
c. 400F
d. 200F

64
73. Appropriate NDE shall be specified and conducted when a pressure test is not performed after a major
repair or alteration. Substituting NE procedures for a pressure test after an alteration may be done only after
the:
a. examiner and inspector have approved.

b. engineer and inspector have approved.
c. maintenance supervisor has approved.
d. owner/user has approved.
74. Before using a material for repairs or alterations of a pressure vessel the ________ shall verify that the
material is consistent with the specifications.
a. storehouse supervisor
b. owner/user
c. inspector
d. maintenance supervisor
75. Crack-like flaws and environmental cracking shall be assessed by:
a. a laboratory worker and/or an inspector.

b. the owner/user and the job superintendent.
c. the inspector and the maintenance supervisor.
d. an engineer and/or a corrosion specialist.
76. Accessible flange faces should be examined for distortion and to:
a. determine that the correct gasket is being used.

b. determine the condition of gasket-seating surfaces.
c. make sure that flange bolts are correct.
d. assure that the pressure rating of the flange is correct.
77. What constitutes complete engagement of a flange fastener (stud bolt)?
a. A fastener is considered acceptably engaged if the lack of complete engagement is not more than 4
threads.
b. A fastener is considered acceptably engaged if the lack of complete engagement is not more than 3
threads.
c. A fastener is considered acceptably engaged if the lack of complete engagement is not more than 1
thread.
d. A fastener is considered acceptably engaged if the lack of complete engagement is not more than 2
threads.

65
Answer Key for Additional Sample Questions from API-510, Section 5
1. c 5.1.1.1 51. b 5.6.2.3

2. a 5.1.1.1 52. c 5.6.2.4
3. b 5.1.1.2 53. d 5.6.2.5
4. d 5.1.1.2 54. d 5.6.3.1
5. b 5.1.1.3 55. d 5.6.3.2
6. c 5.1.2 56. c 5.7.1
7. c 5.1.3 57. a 5.7.1
8. d 5.2 58. c 5.7.1
9. a 5.2 59. c 5.7.1
10. b 5.2 60. a 5.7.1.2
11. b 5.2.1 61. c 5.7.2.1
12. d 5.2.2 62. c 5.7.2.2
13. a 5.2.3 63. a 5.7.2.3
14. a 5.2.4 64. c 5.8.1.1
15. c 5.2.4 65. c 5.8.2
16. d 5.3 66. a 5.8.2.2
17. c 5.3.1 67. c 5.8.3.1
18. b 5.3.1 68. c 5.8.3.2
19. b 5.3.2 69. a 5.8.4.1
20. c 5.3.3 70. b 5.8.4.2
21. a 5.3.4 71. b 5.8.6.1
22. c 5.4.1 72. b 5.8.6.2
23. d 5.4.1 73. b 5.8.6.2
24. d 5.4.1 74. c 5.9.1
25. c 5.4.2 75. d 5.10.3
26. b 5.4.3 76. b 5.11.2
27. c 5.5.1 77. c 5.11.4
28. d 5.5.2.1
29. d 5.5.2.2
30. c 5.5.2.2
31. c 5.5.2.2
32. b 5.5.2.3
33. c 5.5.2.3
34. b 5.5.2.3
35. a 5.5.3.1
36. b 5.5.3.1
37. b 5.5.3.1
38. c 5.5.3.2
39. c 5.5.4.1.2
40. b 5.5.4.1.2
41. b 5.5.4.1.3
42. d 5.5.4.2
43. d 5.5.5.1
44. a 5.5.5.1
45. a 5.5.6.1
46. c 5.5.6.2
47. c 5.5.6.3
48. a 5.6.1
49. b 5.6.2.1
50. b 5.6.2.2

66
Additional Questions from API-510, Section VIII
1. All repairs and alterations shall be performed by a repair organization in accordance with:
a. the applicable principles of the National Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code.
b. the applicable principles of the API Standard 510 latest edition.
c. the applicable principles of the ASME Code, or the applicable construction or repair code.
d. the applicable principles of the U.S. Department of Transportation CFR part 49.
2. Repairs to pressure-relieving devices should follow:
a. API 576
b. API 653
c. API 571
d. API 572
3. All repair and alteration work must be authorized by the ________ before the work is started by a repair
organization.
a. corrosion specialist
b. inspector
c. maintenance supervisor
d. operations manager
4. Authorization for alterations to pressure vessels that comply with ASME Section VIII, Divisions 1 and 2 and
for repairs to pressure vessels that comply with ASME Section VIII, Division 2, may not be given until
________ has also authorized the work.
a. a jurisdictional representative.
b. an examiner
c. a corrosion specialist
d. an engineer
5. All proposed methods of design, execution, materials, welding procedures, NDE, and testing must be
approved by the inspector. ___________ must approve an alteration.
a. The inspector
b. An engineer
c. A corrosion specialist
d. The jurisdiction
6. New vessel nozzles, connections, or replacement parts must meet the design requirements of the:
a. latest edition of National Boiler and Inspection Code.

b. latest edition of the ASME Code.
c. applicable construction code.
d. applicable ASTM specifications.

67
7. Carbon or alloy steel with carbon content over _______ shall not be welded.
a. 0.15%
b. 0.10%
c. 0.35%
d. 0.25%
8. Temporary repairs to a pressure vessel should be removed and replace with suitable permanent repairs:
a. at the next inspection and test of the vessel.

b. at the next available maintenance opportunity.
c. as soon as the vessel can be shut down and be okayed for hot work.
d. at the next scheduled downtime of the vessel.
9. Temporary repairs to a pressure vessel may remain in place for a longer period of time only if evaluated,
approved and documented by:
a. the corrosion specialist.

b. the inspector.
c. the engineer.
d. the engineer and inspector.
10. What is a fillet welded patch on a pressure vessel classified as?
a. A temporary repair.
b. A permanent repair.
c. Acceptable if approved by the jurisdiction.
d. Unacceptable in all cases.
11. What shall not be repaired using a fillet-welded patch?
a. damaged areas.
b. corroded areas.
c. eroded areas.
d. cracks.
12. What location is strictly excluded from the use of fillet-welded patches?
a. A fillet-welded patch shall not be installed on a conical head of a pressure vessel.

b. A fillet-welded patch shall not be installed on top of an existing fillet-welded patch.
c. A fillet-welded patch shall not be installed on the neck of a manway opening
d. A fillet-welded patch shall not be installed on a 2:1 ellipsoidal head.
13. A fillet-welded patch is installed adjacent to an existing fillet-welded patch. The vessel wall is 0.3125" thick.
The inside radius of the pressure vessel is 48". What distance must there be between the toes of the fillet
welds of the patches?
a. 15.5"
b. 3.9"
c. 21.9"
d. 12.6"

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14. A fillet-welded patch is installed adjacent to an existing fillet-welded patch. The vessel wall is 0.4375" thick.
This thickness includes a 0.125" corrosion allowance. The inside radius of the pressure vessel is 48". What
distance must there be between the toes of the fillet welds of the patches?
a. 15.5"
b. 18.3"
c. 10.5"
d. 21.2"
15. A full encirclement lap band is installed around a 48" inside diameter vessel. The circumferential fillet
welds attaching the band to the vessel shell must have what joint efficiency?
a. 0.70
b. 0.85
c. 0.45
d. 1.00
16. An inspector is considering full encirclement lap band to be installed around a 48" inside diameter vessel.
What condition would immediately prohibit the installation of the band?
a. The band may not be installed if there is external corrosion on the vessel shell.
b. The band may not be installed if there is pitting corrosion on the interior of the vessel shell.
c. The band may not be installed if it covers a crack.
d. The band may not be installed if there is erosion on the interior of the vessel shell.
17. A pipe cap is to installed over a thin spot in a pressure vessel shell. The inspector must satisfy the
requirement that the cap does not cover:
a. a longitudinal weld seam.

b. another small nozzle.
c. a circumferential weld seam.
d. a crack.
18. Permanently repairing a crack in a vessel where stress concentrations are high, e.g. a crack in a nozzle-to-
shell weld) should not be attempted without:
a. prior consultation with an engineer.

b. prior permission of the owner/user.
c. prior consultation with the jurisdiction.
d. prior discussion with a corrosion specialist.
19. All insert plates installed that do not extend to an existing longitudinal or horizontal weld shall have
rounded corners. The minimum radius of the corners shall be:
a. 4 inches
b. 2 inches.
c. 1 inch.
d. 3 inches

69
20. The thickness of a repair weld shall be increase by ration of minimum specified tensile strength of the base
metal and the minimum specified tensile strength of the filler metal for the repair. The repair wield is on a 48
inch inside radius vessel that operates at 100 psi. The wall thickness, including a 0.125" corrosion allowance,
is 0.4375 inches. The depth of the repair weld is 0.2 inches. The vessel is fabricated from A-516 Grade 70
carbon steel plate. The weld rod to be used is an E6010. What is the thickness of the filler metal?
a. 0.200"
b. 0.290"
c. 0.233"
d. 0.250"
21. When repairing overlays and existing welds using filler metal, the increased thickness of the repair shall
have rounded corners and shall be blended into the base metal using a ______ taper.
a. 4 to 1
b. 3 to 1
c. 6 to 1
d. 2 to 1
22. When repairing overlays and existing welds using filler metal, the repair shall be made with a:
a. one pass weld.

b. maximum of two passes.
c. minimum of two passes.
d. maximum of three passes.
23. The repair procedure(s) to restore, remove corroded, or missing clad or overlay areas shall be reviewed
and approved by:
a. the engineer and inspector before implementation.

b. the corrosion specialist before implementation.
c. the jurisdiction before implementation.
d. the welding specialist before implementation.
24. Consideration must be given to several important factors that may affect the plan to repair stainless steel
weld overlays and cladding. Which of the 4 factors listed below does not belong?
a. Stress level.
b. "F" number assignment.
c. "P" number of the base material.
d. Type of lining.
25. When repairing stainless steel weld overlay or cladding, equipment operating in hydrogen service at an
elevated temperature, the engineer must consider several factors when developing a repair plan. Which of the
items listed below does not belong?
a. Depth of base metal lost by corrosion.

b. Outgassing base metal
c. Hardening of base metal due to welding, arc gouging, or grinding.
d. Preheat and interpass temperature control during welding.

70
26. When repairing stainless steel weld overlay or cladding for vessels constructed with P-3, P-4, or P-5 base
materials, the base metal in the area of the repair should also be examined for cracking by UT. This inspection
is most appropriately accomplished following a delay of at least ______ after completion of repairs for alloys
that could be affected by delayed cracking.
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 36 hours
d. 48 hours
27. The repair organization shall use welders and welding procedures that are qualified in accordance with the
applicable requirements of the construction code e.g. ________
a. API Publication 2201.

b. ASNT SNT-TC-1A.
c. Section 5 of API 577.
d. Section IX of the ASME Code.
28. Concerning records of qualified welding procedures and WPQ's, these records shall be available to the
inspector _______ of welding.
a. after the start

b. before the start
c. during the time
d. after the completion
29. Who assures the minimum preheat temperature for making welding repairs is measured and maintained?
a. The engineer.
b. The welder.
c. The inspector.
d. The maintenance supervisor.
30. What may be substituted for 360-degree banding on local repairs to pressure vessels on all materials,
provided that precautions are taken as prescribed by API 510
a. Limited WPS.
b. Area LOF.
c. Positive PMI
d. Local PWHT.
31. When substituting local postweld heat treatment for 360 banding on local repairs, what preheat
temperature is maintained during welding"
a. 4000 F
b. 5000 F
c. 3000 F
d. 2000 F

71
32. A local post-weld heat treatment of a pressure vessel that has a diameter of 96 inches I.D. and a shell
thickness of 0.75 inches. What distance must the PWHT temperature be maintained from affected area?
a. 6 inches
b. 8.5 inches
c. 1.5 inches
d. 2.0 inches
33. What is the minimum number of thermocouples that must be used to monitor the preheat temperature for
local postweld heat treatment when it is substituted for 360-degree banding?
a. two
b. one
c. four
d. six
34. What method as an alternative may be used in lieu of PWHT where PWHT is inadvisable or mechanically
unnecessary?
a. Peening
b. Preheat and controlled deposition welding.
c. Use of Inco-weld A welding electrodes.
d. Use of Inconel 182 welding electrodes.
35. Preheating methods, when performed in lieu of PWHT is limited to certain materials.
a. P-No. 1, Group 1, 2, and 3, and to P-No. 3, Groups 1 and 2 (excluding Mn-Mo steels in Group 2).
b. P-No. 4, Group 1, and P-No. 5A, Group 1,
c. P-No. 3, Group 1 and 2
d. P-No. 8, Group 1 and 3 and to P-No. 6, Group 2 and 4.
36. The preheating method in lieu of PWHT shall be performed by maintaining a minimum temperature of 3000
F during welding. The maximum interpass temperature shall not exceed 6000 F. The 3000 F temperature
should be checked to assure that ______ of the material or ___ times the material thickness (whichever is
greater on each side of the groove is maintained at the minimum temperature during welding
a. 4 inches, 4
b. 2 inches, 2
c. 6 inches, 4
d. 8 inches, 6
37. What welding method when notch toughness testing is required, may be used in lieu of PWHT.
a. Controlled localized welding method.

b. Restricted preheat welding method.
c. Controlled-deposition welding method.
d. Back step welding method.

72
38. Using the Controlled-deposition welding method where notch testing is required, what would be maximum
carbon content allowed for the test material used?
a. 0.25%
b. 0.35%
c. 0.40%
d. 0.30%
39. When using the controlled-deposition method for repair (where notch testing is required), after the finished
repair weld has cooled to ambient temperature, the final temper bead reinforcement layer shall be:
a. removed enough to insure that 1/16 inch projects higher than the base metal.
b. checked to make sure the reinforcement bead is at least 1/16 inch higher than the base metal.
c. removed substantially flush with the surface of the base material.
d. checked for Bhn hardness of less than 200.
40. When welding methods are used as alternatives to PWHT, the thickness of the test coupon plate for a 0.75
inch thick base material that with a depth 0.5 inch test groove welded. The test coupon is 0.75 inches. What
thickness (T) is the welder qualified.
a. 0.5 inch.
b. less than 0.75 inches.
c. 1 inch maximum.
d. 2 inches to unlimited.
41. API 577 provides guidance on NDE of weld joints and weldments. Prior to welding, usually the area to be
welded is examined using either:
a. RT or ACFM
b. AE or UT
c. WFMT or ET.
d. MT or PT.
42. When it is not practical to perform radiography on welds on a vessel that was originally radiographed, the
non-radiographed new weld shall be fully examined using the most appropriate NDE technique to determine
that no defects exist. Who must approve the use of alternative NDE techniques?
a. The engineer and the inspector.

b. The welding specialist and the metallurgist.
c. The owner/user and the maintenance supervisor.
d. The jurisdictional representative or the NBIC inspector.
43. For vessels constructed of materials that may be subject to brittle fracture from either normal or abnormal
service, appropriate inspection should be considered after welded repairs or alterations. What method(s) does
API 510 suggest?
a. Radiographic Testing.
b. AE in conjunction with a Nitrogen test.
c. AE coupled with a hydrostatic test.
d. MT and other effective surface NDE methods.

73
44. Rerating a pressure vessel can be accomplished by changing several things. Which of the changes listed
below would not make necessary to rerate a vessel?
a. changing the vessels design temperature.

b. lowering its operating pressure.
c. changing its maximum allowable working pressure.
d. changing its minimum design metal temperature.
45. After a vessel has been rerated the vessel:
a. shall be pressure tested.

b. may be pressure tested.
c. should be pressure tested.
d. could be pressure tested.
46. A rerating of a pressure vessel will be considered complete:
a. when the inspector witnesses the final pressure test.

b. when the inspector witnesses the attachment of an additional nameplate.
c. when the engineer okays the vessel.
d. when the I&T is completed and the unit begins operation.

74
Answer Key for Additional Sample Questions from API-510, Section 8
1. c 8.1
2. a 8.1
3. b 8.1.1
4. d 8.1.1
5. b 8.2.1
6. c 8.1.3
7. c 8.1.4
8. b 8.1.5.1.1
9. d 8.1.5.1.1
10. a 8.1.5.1.2.1
11. d 8.1.5.1.2.1
12. b 8.1.5.1.2.3
13. a 8.1.5.1.2.3
14. b 8.1.5.1.2.3
15. c 8.1.5.1.3(e)
16. c 8.1.5.1.3(b)
17. d 8.1.5.1.4
18. a 8.1.5.2.1
19. c 8.1.5.2.2(c)
20. c 8.1.5.3.2(b)
21. b 8.1.5.3.2(c)
22. c 8.1.5.3.2(d)
23. a 8.1.5.4.1
24. b 8.1.5.4.2
25. a 8.1.5.4.3
26. a 8.1.5.4.4
27. d 8.1.6.2.1
28. b 8.1.6.2.2
29. c 8.1.6.3
30. d 8.1.6.4.1
31. c 8.1.6.4.1(c)
32. c 8.1.6.4.1(d)
33. a 8.1.6.4.1(d)
34. b 8.1.6.4.2.1.1
35. a 8.1.6.4.2.2.1(a)
36. a 8.1.6.4.2.2.2
37. c 8.1.6.4.2.3
38. b 8.1.6.4.2.3(d)
39. c 8.1.6.4.2.3(f)(9)
40. b Table 8-1
41. d 8.1.7.1
42. a 8.1.7.3
43. d 8.1.8
44. b 8.2.1
45. a 8.2.1(d)
46. b 8.2.2

75

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API 510 PRE-COURSE STUDY GUIDE

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API 510 Body of Knowledge:

ASME Section IX - Welding:

SMAW: Shielded Metal Arc Welding (commonly called "stick welding")

ASME Section V - NDE - Nondestructive Examination:

RT - Radiography - ASME Section V, Article 2

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Make travel arrangements:

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API 510 QUIZ

1. How would one calculate long term corrosion rate?

4. What is the minimum content of an Inspection Plan?

5. What is the difference between an alteration and a repair?

6. Is the addition of an unreinforced nozzle an alteration or a repair?

7. When is field inspection of a new vessel not required?

9. Name three types of surface preparation that may be needed?

11. Define on-stream inspection.

13. Which of the following are considered to be repair organizations?

a. holder of an ASME "S" Certificate.

14. Define rerating.

16. Name five modes of deterioration.

20. When would removable internals need to be completely removed?

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21. When may in service inspection be substituted for internal inspection.

23. Define uniform corrosion?

30. What is the maximum period between internal or on-stream inspections?

33. Surfaces of shells and heads should be carefully examined for?

37. Is a pressure test required after each periodic inspection?

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52. Define a repair organization per API 510?

65. When may widely scattered pitting be ignored?

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68. In what instance do the requirements of API 510 not apply?

69. Materials for repairs or alterations shall conform to what requirements?

70. What are the important steps in a RBI assessment?

71. What are examples of degradation mechanisms?

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API RP 571 QUIZ

2. What inspections and monitoring is done for temper embrittlement?

3. Brittle fracture primarily affects what units and equipment?

4. What are some methods applied for prevention of brittle fracture?

5. What is the definition of thermal fatigue?

6. What is the appearance or morphology for thermal fatigue?

7. What is the description of erosion/erosion-corrosion?

8. What are some units susceptible erosion/erosion-corrosion?

9. What are the critical factors of Mechanical Fatigue?

10. What is the signature mark of a mechanical fatigue failure?

11. Where is atmospheric corrosion most severe?

12. What are prevention methods for atmospheric corrosion?

14. What are the inspection/monitoring methods to detect CUI?

15. What are the critical factors of cooling water corrosion?

16. How can damage from cooling water corrosion be prevented?

19. How can sulfidation be detected?