INFECTIOUS DISEASE TEST 1 9.

In a patient presenting with diarrhea due to vibrio

1. Which of the following is least likely to cause cholera, which of the following will be present:
infective endocarditis: (a) Abdominal pain
(a) Staphylococcus albus (b) Presence of leukocytes in stool
(b) Streptococcus facalis (c) Fever
(c) Salmonella typhi (d) Occurrence of many cases in the same
(d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa locality

2. Bacterial endocarditis is most commonly caused 10. In a patient presenting with diarrhea and pus
by: cells in stool, the causative organism can be:
(a) Beta- Hemolytic Streptococci (a) Non vibrio cholera
(b) Alpha- Hemolytic Streptococci (b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli
(c) Staphylococcus aureus (c) Enteroinvasive E. coli
(d) Cardiobacterium (d) Vibrio cholera

3. SBE is commonly caused by: 11. A group of students who attended a college
(a) Streptococcus viridans banquet reported vomiting, watery diarrhea in 6
hours. The most causative organism is:
(b) Strept-facalis
(a) Shigella
(c) Staphyloccus
(b) Clostridium botulinum
(d) Pneumococcus
(c) E. Coli
(d) Bacillus cerus
4. Infective endocarditis in drug abuse commonly
affects:
(a) Tricuspid valve 12. Poisoning of food by which of the organisms has
the shortest incubation period:
(b) Mitral valve
(a) S. aureus
(c) Aortic valve
(b) Salmonella
(d) Pulmonary valve
(c) Botulism
(d) Cl. perfringesn
5. Commonest complication of subacute bacterial
endocarditis:
(a) CCF 13. Treatment of travellers diarrhea is:
(b) Thromboembolism (a) Sulfaguandine
(c) Pulmonary edema (b) Diphenoxylate and atropine
(d) Renal failure (c) Loperamide and Quinolones
(d) Chloromycetic and streptomycin
6. In SABE test of most diagnostic significance:
(a) Serial blood culture 14. Drug of choice for pseudomembranous colitis:
(b) Anti DNAase (a) Penicillin
(c) ASLO (b) Metronidazole
(d) Anti streptolysin (c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Vancomycin
7. Commonest route of infection in acute pyogenic
abscess of liver is: 15. The parasite which is transmitted sexually:
(a) Ascending infection (a) Strongyloidesstercoralis
(b) Haematogenous (b) Necatoramericanus
(c) Lymphatic (c) Ankylostomaduodonale
(d) Trauma (d) None

8. MC cause of liver abscess:

(a) Streptococcus
(b) Staph aureus
(c) E. Coli
(d) Staph pyogenes
16. A 45 year old female complains of lower (d) Candida
abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. On
examination there is cervicitis along with a 23. Universal precaution is applicable to all,
mucopurulent discharge best approach to isolate EXCEPT:
the causative agent would be:
(a) Urine
(a) Culture chocolate agar supplemented with
(b) Semen
Haemin
(c) Feces
(b) Culture on McCoy cells
(d) Sputum
(c) Culture on a bilayer human blood agar
(d) Culture on vero cell lines
24. A patient of immunocompromised due to
transplantation is suffering from pyrexia and
17. The syndromic management of urethral neutropenia. Most likely cause is:
discharge includes treatment of:
(a) HSV
(a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes
(b) CMV
genitalis
(c) Gram ve organism
(b) Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes
genitalis (d) Gram +ve organism
(c) Neisseria gonorrhea and Chlamydia
trachomatis 25. Most common cause of death in renal transplant
(d) Syphilis and chancroid patient in India:
(a) Rejection
18. Painful lymphadenopathy is seen in: (b) Infection
(a) Donovanosis (c) Uremia
(b) Syphilis (d) Haemorrhage
(c) Chancroid
(d) Gonorrhea 26. Pneumococcal vaccination is indicated in all
except:
(a) Post splenectomy
19. In a post-operative intensive care unit, five
patients developed post-operative wound (b) Sickle cell anemia
infection on the same wound. The best method (c) HIV
to prevent cross infection occurring in other (d) After radiotherapy
patients in the same ward is to:
(a) Give antibiotics to all other patients in the 27. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central
ward venous line for the last one week. He is on
(b) Fumigate the ward ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of
(c) Disinfect the ward with sodium antibiotics he develops a spike of fever an his
hypochlorite blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci
(d) Practice proper hand washing in chains, which are catalase negative. Following
this, vancomycin was started but the culture
remained positive for the same organism even
20. Most common mode of transmission of after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely
nosocomial infections: organism causing infections is:
(a) Nasal droplets (a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) Catheters (b) Viridans streptococci
(c) Contact with hospital personal (c) Enterococcus faecalis
(d) Contaminated needles (d) Coagulase negative staphylococcus

21. Nosocomial pneumonia is most common due to: 28. Young female presents with myalgia, fever,
(a) Gram +ve bacilli headache, diarrhea and an erythematous rash
(b) Gram vecocci which first appeared in the groin. Most likely
(c) Gram +ve normal diagnosis is:
(d) Gram ve bacilli (a) Toxic epidermal necrolysis
(b) Staph. Scalded skin syndrome
22. Most common catheter induced blood infections (c) Toxic shock syndrome
is due to; (d) Epidermolysisbullosa
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) Coagulase negative staphylococci
(c) Gram negative bacilli
29. A patient in an ICU is on a CVP line. His blood (c) Clostridium welchii
culture shows growth of grain positive cocci (d) Pseudomonas
which are catalase positive and coagulase
negative. The most likely etiological agent is:
37. Best treatment to prevent gas gangrene:
(a) Staplycoccus aureus
(a) Thorough debridement
(b) Staplylococcus epidermidis
(b) Anti serum
(c) Streptococcus pyogenes
(c) Vaccination
(d) Enterococcus faecalis
(d) Antibiotics

30. The following drug is not useful for MRSA:

38. A 60 years old is diagnosed to be suffering from
(a) Cefaclor legionnaires disease after he returns home from
(b) Cotrimoxazole attending a convention. He could have acquired
(c) Ciprofloxacin it:
(d) Vancomycin (a) From a person suffering from the infection
while traveling in the aeroplane
31. All of the following are true regarding diphtheria, (b) From a chronic carrier in the convention
EXCEPT: center
(a) Tonsillar membrane can be easily wiped (c) From inhalation of the aerosol in the air
off conditioned room at convention centre
(b) There may be swelling of neck causing (d) By sharing an infected towel with a fellow
bull neck appearance delegate at the convention
(c) With high degree of immunity a membrane
may never appear 39. Pontiac fever is caused by:
(d) In laryngeal diphtheria, tracheostomy may (a) Marbug virus
be needed to relieve respiratory (b) Legionella
obstruction (c) Tuberculosis bacilli
(d) Sindbis virus
32. All are seen in diphtheric outcome, EXCEPT:
(a) Pseudomembrane formation 40. Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the
(b) Cardiomyopathy following microbial agents, EXCEPT:
(c) Endotoxemia (a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
(d) Polyneuropathy (b) Legionella
(c) Human Corona virus
33. Acute ascending paralysis is seen in all, (d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
EXCEPT:
(a) Diptheria 41. An elderly male patient presented with fever,
(b) Porphryia chest pain and dry cough, Sputum culture
(c) DM showed growth on Charcol Yeast Extract
(d) GBS Medium. The organism is:
(a) H. influenza
34. Tetanus is characterized by: (b) Moraxella cartarrhalis
(a) Can be cultured from wound (c) Legionella
(b) Spasm of masseter occurs first (d) Burkholderiacepacia
(c) Incubation period is 2-3 days
(d) Accompanied by loss of consciousness 42. All of the following are true regarding whooping
cough, EXCEPT:
35. Among the toxins produced by clostridium (a) Spread by droplet infection
botulinum the non-neurotoxic one is: (b) 90% of cases occur in children under 5
(a) A years of age
(b) B (c) The whoop stage is more infection than
catarrhal stage
(c) C1
(d) Blood count shows lymphocytosis
(d) C2

43. A 20 year old man presented with hemorrhagic

36. Crepitus in a wound is produced by:
colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in
(a) Staph aureus pure culture. The following serotype of E. coli is
(b) Clostridium tetani likely to be the causative agent:
 (a) 0 157:H 7
(b) 0 159:H 7 49. Actinomycosis is commonly seen in:
(c) 0 107:H 7 (a) Tibia
(d) 0 55:H 7 (b) Mandible
(c) Scapula
44. With reference to infections with E.coil the (d) Femur
following are true, EXCEPT:
(a) Enteroaggregative E. coli is associated 50. In actinomycosis of the spine, the abscess
with persistent diarrhoea usually erodes:
(b) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli can cause (a) Intervertebral disc
hemolytic uremic syndrome (b) Into the pleural cavity
(c) Enteroinvasive E. coli produces a disease (c) Into the reteroperitoneal space
similar to salmonellosis
(d) Towards the skin
(d) Enterotoxigenic E. coil is a common cause
of travellersdiarrhoea
51. Which of the following antituberculosis drug is
not given in pregnancy:
45. Infective endocarditis due to pseudomonas is
(a) Streptomycin
most commonly seen with:
(b) INH
(a) Intravenous drug abuse of pentazocin
(c) Ethamutol
(b) HIV patient
(d) Rifampicin
(c) Chronic steroid therapy
(d) Elderly with community acquired
penumonia 52. Tubercular nephritis is characterized by:
(a) Pus cells without organism in the acidic
urine
46. The blood culture from a patient of febrile
neutropenia has grown Pseudomonas (b) Pus cells with organism in the acidic urine
aeruginosa. It was found to be a producer of (c) Pus cells without organism in the alkaline
extended spectrum beta lactamase enzyme. The urine
beast choice of antimicrobial therapy should be: (d) Pus cells with organism in the alkaline
(a) Ceftazidime + Amikacin urine
(b) Azireonam + Amjkacin
(c) Cefkirome + Amikacin 53. A poverty stricken mother suffering from active
(d) Imipenem + Amikacin tuberculosis delivers a baby. Which one of the
following advices would be the most appropriate
in her case:
47. All are effective against pseudomonas,
(a) Breast feeding and BCG immunization
EXCEPT:
(b) Breast feeding and isoniazid
(a) Azithromycin
administration
(b) Imipenem
(c) Expressed breast milk and BCG
(c) Ceftazidine immunization
(d) Piperacillin (d) Stop feeds and isoniazid administration

47. A farmer rearing sheep, presented with 54. Nerve abscess in tuberculoid leprosy treatment
complaints of fever and weakness for the last 10 of choice:
days & hepatomegaly. Biopsy of liver showed
(a) Incission and drainage
non caseating granuloma. These are most likely
due to infection with: (b) High dose clofazimine
(a) Brucella melitensis (c) Steroids
(b) Brucella canis (d) Thalidomide
(c) Francisellatularensis
(d) Yersinia pestis 55. Single skin lesion is seen in which type of
Leprosy:
(a) LL
48. Which one of the following is effective in the
treatment of brucellosis: (b) TT
(a) Rifampicin (c) BL
(b) Amphotericin (d) BT
(c) Ketoconazole
(d) Pencillin 56. Leonine facies is seen in which disease:
 (a) Leprosy (a) Cervical region
(b) Syphilis (b) Thoracic region
(c) Jaws (c) Lumbar region
(d) Trypanosomiasis (d) Geniculate ganglion

64. Drug of choice in Herpes zoster:

57. In leprosy nerves commonly involved are: (a) Acyclovir
(a) High ulnar, low median (b) Vidarabine
(b) High median, low ulnar (c) Idoxuridine
(c) Triple nerve palsy (d) Actinoniycin
(d) High radial, low median
65. Most sensitive test for diagnosis of infectious
58. Treatment of lepra type II reaction are all, mononucleosis:
EXCEPT: (a) Monospot test
(a) Clofazimine (b) Paul Bunnel test
(b) Thalidomide (c) Lymphocytosis in peripheral smear
(c) Corticosteroids (d) Culture of the virus
(d) Cessation of antileprosy treatment
66. The drug of choice in cytomegalovirus retinitis in
59. Drug of choice with type I lepra reaction with AIDS patient is:
severe neuritis is: (a) Acyclovir
(a) Steroids systemic (b) Ribavarin
(b) Clofazimine (c) Ganciclovir
(c) Thalidomide (d) Vidarabine
(d) Chloroquine
67. Which of the following is true of molluscum
60. Thalidomide is useful in: contagiosum:
(a) Treatment of leprosy (a) Treatment is extirpation
(b) Treatment of lepra reaction type I (b) Is an STD
(c) Treatment of lepra reaction type II (c) Viral infection
(d) Treatment of pure neuritic leprosy (d) Central umbilication

68. Condyloma acuminate is caused by:

INFECTIOUS DISEASE TEST 2 (a) HPV
(b) HSV
61. Components of Innate immunity that are active (c) HIV
against viral cells include: (d) All
(a) NK cells
(b) Cytotoxic T cells 69. HTLV-II has been implicated in the etiology of:
(c) B cell (a) AIDS
(d) Memory B cell (b) Adult T cell lymphoma
(c) Zinc deficiency
62. A 65 years old man has painful rashes over his (d) Hairy cell leukemia
right upper eyelid and forehead for the last 48
hours. He underwent chemotherapy for Non
Hodgkins lymphoma one year age. His 70. AIDS was first diagnosed in patients suffering
o
temperature is 90 F, blood pressure 138/76 mm from:
Hg and pulse is 80/minute. Examination shows (a) Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis
no other abnormalities. Which of the following is (b) Pneumocystis carinii
the most likely diagnosis:, (c) Kaposi sarcoma
(a) Impetigo (d) Tuberculosis
(b) Herpes zoster
(c) Pyoderma gangrenosum 71. HIV selectively infects and destroys:
(d) Erysipelas (a) T4 cells
(b) T3 cells
63. Herpes zoster is commonly seen in a: (c) NK cells
 (d) T10 cells 79. In patients of acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome, the commonest cause of space
72. Most common mode of transmission of HIV occupying lesion is:
world wide is: (a) Non Hodgkins lymphoma
(a) Heterosexual (b) Cytomnegalovirus infection
(b) Homosexual (c) Cryptoccosis
(c) IV-drug abuse (d) Toxoplasmosis
(d) Contaminated blood products
80. A resident doctor sustained a needle stick injury
while sampling blood of a patient who is HIV
73. True about HIV: positive. A decision is taken to offer him post
exposure prophylaxis. Which of the following
(a) Not transmitted through semen would be the best recommendation?
(b) More chances of transmission during (a) Zidovudine + Lamivudine for 4 weeks
LSCS than normal labour (b) Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine for
(c) More infectious than hepatitis B 4 weeks
(d) Male to female transmission > Female to (c) Zidovudine + lamivudine + Indinavir for 4
male weeks
(d) Zidovudine + Stavudine + Nevirapine for 4
74. Antenatal maternal HIV diagnosis is of weeks
importance in:
(a) To prevent vertical transmission 81. The rash in Measles occurs first in the region:
(b) To terminate (a) Forehead
(c) To discharge (b) Post auricular
(d) To isolate the patient (c) Chest
(d) Neck
75. Which drug is given to prevent HIV transmission
from mother to child: 82. All of the following statements are true about
(a) Nevirapine Congenital Rubella, EXCEPT:
(b) Lamivudine (a) It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM
(c) Stavudine antibodies at birth
(d) Abacavir (b) It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies
persist from more than 6 months
(c) Most common congenital defects are
76. Kaposis sarcoma caused by:
deafness, cardiac malformations and
(a) HHV-5 cataract
(b) HHV-6 (d) Infection after 16 weeks of gestation
(c) HHV-7 results in major congenital defects
(d) HHV-8
83. The characteristic feature of rabies is:
77. A patient presenting with cervical (a) Brain stem encephalitis
lymphadenopathy gives a history of having sex 3 (b) Peripheral neuropathy
weeks back. He thinks that he has got AIDS.
(c) Pachymeningitis
Which of the following tests will clinch the
diagnosis: (d) Ventriculltis
(a) ELISA
(b) p24-antigenemia 84. Treatment of choice in cryptococcal meningitis
is:
(c) Western blot
(a) Amphotericin B
(d) Lymph node biopsy
(b) Flucytosine
(c) Ketoconazole
78. The most common organism amongst the
following that causes acute meningitis in an (d) Crystalline penicillin
AIDS patient is:
(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae 85. Fungal lung infection commonly seen in
(b) Streptococcus agalactiae diabetics is:
(c) Cryptococcus neoformans (a) Actiomycosis
(d) Listeria monocytogenes (b) Mucormycosis
(c) Aspergillosis
 (d) Coccidioidomycosis

86. In an AIDS patient presenting with fever cough a

diagnosis of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is
best established by:
(a) Transtracheal biopsy
(b) Broncho alveolar lavage
(c) Staining of intranuclear inclusion and silver
staining
(d) Aspiration and culture

87. Drug of choice in pneumocystis carinii

pneumonia:
(a) Ciprofloxacin
(b) Co-trimoxazole
(c) Zidovudine
(d) Pentamidine

88. Diagnostic test for amoebic hepatitis is:

(a) Indirect hemeagglutination test
(b) Isolation from pus
(c) Isolation from wall of cavity
(d) Cyst in stools

89. A patient present with lower gastrointestinqal

bleed. Sigmoidoscopy shows ulcers in the
sigmoid. Biopsy from this area shows flask
shaped ulcers. Which of the following is the most
appropriate treatment?
(a) Intravenous ceftriaxone
(b) Intravenous metronidazole
(c) Intravenous steroids and sulphasalazine
(d) Hydrocortisone enemas

90. Infectious stage of plasmodium is:

(a) Trophozoite
(b) Cryptozoite
(c) Sporozoite
(d) Merozoite

91. Kalazar is transmitted by:

(a) Droplet infection
(b) Sandfly
(c) Anopheles
(d) Black fly

92. Intestinal parasitic disease in

immunocompromised patient is:
(a) Strongyloides
(b) Ascaris
(c) Hookworm
(d) Trichuris