ELEX (IMCOMPLETE CHOICES)

1. Answer: QAQB = 10 phase angle somewhere between ______.

Answer: 090
2. Answer: 3,600 C
16. Find the drift velocity of the free electrons in a copper
3. Answer: 1333.33 s or 22.2 min wire whose cross-sectional area is A = 1 mm2 when
the wire carries a current of 1.0 A. Assume that each
4. Answer: CMOS uses less power over TTL. copper atom contributes one electron to the electron
gas. (Assume number of electrons per unit volume as
5. Answer: 15.95 A n = 8.5 1028 electrons/m3)
Answer: 7.34 104 m/s
6. Maximum received solar power is about 1 kW/m2.
If solar panels, which convert solar energy to electric 17. A coil of 300 turns is wound uniformly on a ring
energy are 13% efficiency, how many square meters of non-magnetic material. The ring has a mean
of the solar panels to supply 1600 W? circumference of 40 cm and a uniform cross-sectional
Answer: 12.3 m2 area of 4 cm2. If the current in the coil is 5 A, calculate
the total magnetic flux in the ring.
7. An incremental encoder (optical tachometer) has Answer: = 1.885 Wb
2000 pulses per shaft revolution. Determine the
count for a shaft speed of 1200 rpm if the timer count 18. Which of the following ac bridges can be used to
interval is 5 ms. measure inductance?
Answer: 200 a. De Sauty bridge
b. Schering bridge
8. The internal circuitry of a 555 consists of ______, c. Wien bridge
an R-S flip-flop, a transistor switch, an output butter d. Heaviside bridge (Answer)
amplifier, and a voltage divider.
Answer: two comparators 19. A moving coil gives a full-scale deflection (FSD) when
the current... (missing)
9. A classification of ICs with 12 - 99 gates: ______. Answer: Rs = 20 m
Answer: MSI (Medium-scale integration)
20. A high-pass -connected symmetrical filter section
10. A full-wave fully controlled bridge has a highly has a capacitance of 5000 pF in its series arm and
inductive load with a resistance of 55 , and a supply inductance of 500 H in each of its shunt arms. The
of 110 V at 50 Hz. Calculate the converter power cut-off frequency of the filter is ______.
factor for a firing angle of delay = 75. Answer: fc = 71.18 kHz
Answer: pf = 0.233
21. Convert (1AB.C8)16 to decimal.
11. Which of the following is the best conductor of Answer: 427.78125
electricity?
a. Silver (Answer) c. Gold 22. What type of resistor is used for low-medium power
b. Aluminum d. Copper application?
Answer: Carbon composition
12. The h-parameter of a transistor in CE configuration
23. +VDD
are hfe = 300, hie = 4.5 k, hre = 2 104, and hoe
= 3 104 mho. If the load resistance is 5 k and
the internal resistance of signal source is 40 k, the
calculate the value of input impedance. A B C +VDD
Answer: Zi = 4.21 k (closest to hie)
A B C
13. Which is the resistivity of a good conductor?
Answer: 108 m-mho (This refers to a standard Y
scientific notation)
A A
14. Determine the resistance of an AWG #16, copper wire
at 20C if the wire has a diameter of 0.0508 in and a
length of 400 ft. B B
(Use: = 10.36 CM-ohm/ft)
(Use: = 1.724 108 m-ohm)
Answer: R = 1.61 C C
Answer:
15. In a series RL circuit the circuit current will have a Y = ABC + A + B + C
24. What maximum dissipation will be allowed for a 70-W
silicon transistor (rated at 25C) if derating is above
25C by a derating factor of 0.6 W/C at a case
temperature of 100C?
Answer: 25C
25. A fifth band on some color-coded resistors indicates
the resistors ______.
Answer: reliability
26. A variable resistor that is used to control current is
______. Answer: rheostat
27. A basic electric circuits consists of ______.
Answer: source, load, and conducting path
28. Determine the power v(t)
delivered to a load 16 V
if the waveform is
applied to a 500- 8V
resistor.
Answer: 0.304 W
29. The percentage voltage regulation of voltage supply
providing 100 V unloaded and 95 V at full load is
______. Answer: 5.3%
30. Calculate the dc voltage across 2k load for an RC
filter section (R = 50 , C = 20 F). The dc voltage
across the initial filter capacitor is Vdc = 50 V.
Answer: 48.78 V
31. A high pass T-connected symmetrical filter section has
capacitances of 400 nF in each of its series arms and
an inductance of 200 mH in its shunt arm. The cut-off
frequency of the filter is ______.
Answer: fc = 398 Hz
32. The ripple contents (a.k.a. ripple factor) of a bridge
rectifier ______.
Answer: 48.2%
33. The resistance of a wiring wire made up of copper is
25 at 30C. What is the resistance when it operates
at a temperature of 75C? Assume temperature
coefficient at 20C = 0.004.
Answer: 29.33
34. What is the flux density of a magnetic field whose flux
is 3000 Wb and cross-sectional area is 0.25 m2?
Answer: 12,000 T
35. The crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to
______ of the crystal.
Answer: high Q (quality factor)
36. The basic difference between a fuse and circuit
breaker is ______.
Answer: a circuit breaker is reusable
37. The coefficient of coupling between two coils is 0.45.
The first coil has an inductance of 75 mH and the
second coil has an inductance of 105 mH. What is the
mutual inductance between two coils.
Answer: M = 39.9 mH
38. What is the turns ratio of a transformer needed to
match a 1 k source resistance to a 160 load?
Answer: 0.4 : 1
39. The opposition to current changes in the coil or
inductor is called ______.
Answer: inductance
40. At resonance, a parallel tuned circuit appears to
______. Answer: open circuit
41. The time it takes for a specific point on an input
waveform to pass through the filter is called ______.
Answer: envelope/time-delay
t 42. A static memory will store information ______.
Answer: as long as power is applied to the memory
43. An SCR differs from the Shockley diode because
______. Answer: it has a gate terminal
44. A series LCR circuit is operated at a frequency
different from its resonant frequency. The operating
frequency is such that the current leads the supply
voltage. The magnitude of current is half the value at
resonance. If the values of L, C, and R are 1 H, 1 F,
and 1 , respectively, the operating angular frequency
(in rad/s) is ______.
Answer: = 0.45 rad/s
45. Identify the type of gate shown in the circuit:
+VDD
Q1 Q2
Q5
Y
Q3 Q6
A
Q4
B
Answer: CMOS AND
46. One of the most important specifications on magnetic
media is the ______.
Answer: data transfer rate
47. What is the slew rate of an op-amp if the output
voltages change from 2 V to 3 V in 0.2 ms?
Answer: SR = 5 V/ms
48. What is the cut-off frequency of an op-amp if the unity-
gain frequency is 1.5 MHz and the open-loop gain is
100,000?
Answer: 15 Hz
49. Assume that a particular IC has a supply voltage (VCC)
equal to +5 V and ICCH = 10 mA and ICCL = 23 mA.
What is the power dissipation for the chip?
Answer: 82.5 mW
Q50-51: A small electric vehicle is powered by a 96 V
batteryand uses a series wound motor. It has a step-
down chopper for forward drive and a step-up chopper for
regenerative braking. The total armature resistance is 0.1
and the armature voltage constant is 10 mV/A-rad/s.
Descending a hill in regenerative mode the motor speed
is 1000 rev/min and the armature current is a constant
average value of 80 A.
50. Calculate the value of duty cycle required.
Answer: 0.208
51. Calculate the available braking power.
Answer: 6.08 kW
52. The equivalent resistance of the series combination of
two resistors is p. When they are joined in parallel, the
equivalent resistance is q. If p = nq, find the minimum
possible value of n.
Answer: n = 4
53. A dc to dc chopper operates from a 48 V battery
source into a resistive load of 24 . The frequency of
the chopper is set to 250 Hz. Determine the rms load
current and load power values when chopper on-time
is 1 ms.
Answer: IL(rms) = 1 A; PL(rms) = 24 W
54. What magnetic effect is at the heart of such
technologies as antilock brake sensors and some
keyboards?
Answer: Hall effect
55. A dc tachometer has the following specifications:
R = 0.03 m, B = 0.2 Wb/m2, N = 220, L = 0.15 m.
Determine the output voltage of the tachometer
for a speed of 2500 rpm. (N = effective number of
conductors)
Answer: 51.8 V
5V
56. Refer to the figure given. What type of
device is shown and what input levels
are required to turn the LED off?
RL
A 67. What signal corresponds to pin 3 of this operational
B
a. The device is an open-collector AND gate and
requires both inputs to be HIGH in order to turn
the LED off. (Answer)
b. The device is a Schottky AND gate and requires
only one low input to turn the LED off.
c. The device is an open-collector AND gate and
requires only one low input to turn the LED off.
d. The device is a Schottky open-collector AND gate
and requires a low on both inputs to turn the LED
off.
57. The most complex to produce and difficult to repair
printed circuit boards are those made using which of
the following methods?
Answer: layer (no choices provided)
58. For an op-amp having a slew rate SR = 5 V/ms, what
is the maximum closed-loop voltage gain that can be
used when the input signal varies by 0.2 V in 10 ms?
Answer: 250
59. What is used to determine the direction of rotation of
the armature conductors in motor?
Answer: left-hand rule
60. Who discovered electromagnetism?
Answer: Hans Christian Oersted
61. (211)x = (158)8, then the value of base x is ______.
Answer: x = 7
62. The reduced form of the Boolean expansion of
Y = (AB) $ (AB)
Answer: Y = B
63. What term describes the maximum expected error
associated with a measurement or a sensor?
a. precision c. range
b. resolution d. accuracy (Answer)
64. For a given line voltage, four heating coils will produce
maximum heat when connected ______.
a. all in parallel (Answer)
b. all in series
c. with two parallel pairs in series
d. one pair in parallel with the other two in series
65. In a stepper motor, how is the speed of rotation
determined?
Answer: by frequency
66. An amplifier has a voltage gain of 20, an input
resistance of 500 and an output resistance of 50 .
The amplifier is connected to a voltage source that
produces an output voltage of 1 V and has an output
resistance of 75 and to a load resistance of 800 ,
What will be the voltage across the load resistor?
Answer: 16.4
 amplifier? 50 k
a. inverting input 1 5 150 k
b. non-inverting output 2 6 10 k
c. non-inverting input Vi 25 k
(Answer) 3 7
Vo
d. positive supply voltage 4 8

68. The negative resistance characteristics of tetrode is

due to ______. Answer: 6 V
Answer: secondary emission
78. How many BCD code bits and how many straight
69. The plate efficiency of class A amplifier is about binary bits would be required to represent the decimal
______. Answer: 25% number 643?
a. 12 BCD, 12 binary
70. If a transistor is operated in such a way that output b. 12 BCD, 10 binary (Answer)
current flows for 160 of the input signal, then it is a c. 12 BCD, 9 binary
______ operation. d. 16 BCD, 9 binary
Answer: Class C
79. Generally, the voltage measured at an unused TTL
71. The kWh meter can be classified as a/an ______ input would typically be measured between ______.
instrument. a. 1.4 to 1.8 V (Answer)
a. deflecting c. recording (Answer) b. 0 to 5 V
b. digital d. indicating c. 0 to 1.8 V
d. 0.8 to 5 V
72. The hot-wire ammeter can measure ______.
a. only ac 80. Which among the following serves as an input stage
b. only dc to most of the op-amp due to its compatibility with IC
c. both ac and ac (Answer) technology?
d. neither ac nor dc a. Differential amplifier (Answer)
b. Cascode amplifier
73. IC 741 is packed using ______. c. Operational transconductance amplifiers (OTAs)
Answer: DIP (dual in-line package) d. Voltage operational amplifier

81. The power consumption of static CMOS gate varies

74. A silicon PN junction at a temperature of 20C has
with the _____ power supply voltage.
a reverse saturation current of 10 picoamperes (pA).
Answer: square
The reverse saturation current at 40C for the same
bias is approximately ______. 82. Maze routing is also known as ______.
Answer: 40 pA a. Viterbi's algorithm
b. Lee/Moore algorithm (Answer)
75. An SCR is triggered at 40 in the positive half cycle c. Prim's algorithm
only. The average anode current is 50 A. If the firing d. Quine-McCluskey algorithm
angle is changed to 80, the average anode current is
likely to be ______. 83. Which among the following types of ADCs require/s
a. 50 A the shortest conversion time?
b. 25 A a. Flash type (Answer)
c. less than 50 A but more than 25 A (Answer: b. Successive Approximation
specifically, 33.23 A) c. Dual Slope
d. less than 25 A d. All of the above

76. Once a DIAC is conducting, the only way to turn it off 84. PSSR is an op-amp parameter which defines the
is with ______. degree of dependence on variations in ______.
a. a positive gate voltage a. temperature
b. a negative gate voltage b. pressure
c. low-current dropout (Answer) c. power supply voltage (Answer)
d. breakover d. slew rate

77. In a circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage Vi = 85. A three bit pseudo random number generator is
0.2 V, then the output voltage is ______. shown. Initially the value of output Y = Y2Y1Y0 is set
to 111. The value of output Y after five clock cycles is
_____.
 Y2 Y1 Y0 would be ______.
a. opaque to the visible light (Answer)
b. transparent to the visible light
D2 Q2 D1 Q1 D0 Q0 c. transparent to the ultraviolet radiation
d. None of the above
CLK
93. A semiconductor is formed by ______ bonds.
Answer: 101 Answer: covalent

86. Consider the signal s(t) = m(t)cos(2fct) + m(t) 94. A Zener diode is based on the principle of ______.
sin(2fct) where m(t) denotes the Hilbert transform of a. thermionic emission
m(t) and the bandwidth of m(t) is very small compared b. tunneling of charge carriers across the junction
to fc. The signal s(t) is a ______. (Answer)
a. high-pass signal c. diffusion of charge carriers across the junction
b. low-pass signal d. None of the above
c. band-pass signal (Answer)
d. double sideband suppressed carrier signal 95. No-load voltage of power supply is 100 V and full load
voltage is 80 V, the percent regulation is ______.
87. A dc separately excited motor has constant field Answer: 25%
current. The armature is fed from a single phase
supply through a full converter. When = 0, the 96. The typical value of parameter hfe is ______.
speed is 500 rpm. If = 45, the speed is likely to be Answer: 50
______. Answer: 125 rpm
97. Which of the following bipolar transistor has the
88. The acceptable voltage range of logic 0 for CMOS highest current gain bandwidth product (fr) for similar
operating at 5V: _____. geometry?
Answer: 01.5 V a. npn germanium transistor
b. npn silicon transistor (Answer)
89. The average power delivered to an impedance c. pnp germanium transistor
(4 j3) by a current 5 cos (100t + 100) A is d. pnp silion transistor
______. Answer: 50 W
98. Ebers-Moll model is valid for ______.
90. Following is the K-map of a Boolean function of five a. Bipolar junction transistors (Answer)
variables P, Q, R, S and X. The minimum sum-of- b. MOS transistor
product (SOP) expression for the function is c. Unipolar junction transistors
d. Junction field-effect transistors
PQ PQ
RS 00 01 11 10 RS 00 01 11 10
99. The base-to-emitter voltage in forward-biased
00 0 0 0 0 00 0 1 1 0 transistor decreases with the increase of temperature
at the following rate:
01 1 0 0 1 01 0 0 0 0
a. 2.5 mV/C (Answer)
11 1 0 0 1 11 0 0 0 0 b. 25 mV/C
c. 0.25 mV/C
10 0 0 0 0 10 0 1 1 0 d. 0.6 mV/C
X=0 X=1
100. Op-amp operates at ______.
a. PQSX + PQSX + QRSX + QRSX a. high voltage (~100 kV)
b. QSX + QSX (Answer) b. medium voltage (~220 V)
c. QSX + QSX c. low voltage (~12 V) (Answer)
d. QS + QS d. very high voltage (~10 mV)

91. Measurement of Hall coefficient enables the

determination of ______.
a. mobility of charge carriers
b. type of conductivity and concentration of charge
carriers (Answer)
c. temperature coefficient and thermal conductivity
d. None of the above

92. If the energy gap of a semiconductor is 1.1 eV, it

EST (PARTIAL)
1. An AM signal is detected using an envelope detector, a. 7.99 c. 8.05
the carrier frequency and modulating signal frequency b. 7.74 d. 8.10
are 1 MHz and 2 kHz, respectively. An appropriate
value for the time constant of the envelope detector is 10. A PCM system uses a uniform quantizer followed by
a. 500 s c. 0.2 s an 8-bit encoder. The bit rate of the system is equal
b. 20 s d. 1 s to 108 bits/s. The maximum message bandwidth for
which system operate satisfactorily is
2. A 100 + j150 load is connected to a 75- lossless a. 25 MHz c. 12.5 MHz
line. Find the input impedance at 0.4 from the load. b. 6.25 MHz d. 50 MHz
a. 22.5 c. 54.41
b. 47.25 d. 65.25 11. A system is using NRZ-I to transfer 10-Mbps data.
What is the average signal rate of the system?
3. A single sideband signal is generated by modulating a. 5 Mbaud c. 20 Mbaud
signal of 900-kHz carrier by the signal m(t) = cos b. 10 Mbaud d. 50 Mbaud
2000t + 2 sin 2000t. The amplitude of the carrier is
Ac = 100. The lower sideband of the SSM AM signal is 12. For a rectangular waveguide of internal dimension a
a. 100 cos [2(fc 1000)t] + 200 sin [2(fc 1000)t] b (a > b), the cut-off frequency for the TE11 mode is
b. 100 cos [2(fc 1000)t] 200 sin [2(fc 1000)t] the arithmetic mean of the cut-off frequencies for TE10
c. 100 cos [2(fc 1000)t] 200 sin [2(fc 1000)t] mode and TE20 mode. If a = 5 cm, the value of b (in
d. 100 cos [2(fc 1000)t] + 200 sin [2(fc 1000)t] cm) is
a. 2 c. 4
4. Twelve signals each band-limited to 5 kHz are to b. 3 d. 5
be transmitted over a single channel by frequency
division multiplexing. If AM-SSB modulation guard 13. The radiation resistance of an antenna is 63 and
band of 1 kHz is used, then the bandwidth of the loss resistance 7 . If antenna has power gain of 16,
multiplexed signal will be then directivity is
a. 51 kHz c. 71 kHz a. 48.26 dB c. 38.96 dB
b. 61 kHz d. 81 kHz b. 12.5 dB d. 24.7 dB

5. A pseudo-noise (PN) sequence is generated using a 14. In a DSB full carrier AM transmitter system, if the
feedback shift register of length m = 4. The chip rate is modulation index is doubled, then the ratio of total
107 chips per second. The PN sequence length is sideband power to carrier power increases by a factor
a. 10 c. 15 of
b. 12 d. 18 a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
6. An analog signal is sampled at 36 kHz and quantized
into 256 levels. The time duration of a bit of the binary 15. The minimum hop rate for a frequency hopping spread
coded signal is spectrum (FHSS) that will prevent a jammer from
a. 5.78 s c. 6.43 ms operating five miles away from the receiver is
b. 3.47 s d. 7.86 ms a. 3.2 kHz c. 18.6 kHz
b. 3.2 MHz d. 18.6 MHz
7. If the oscillator output is modulated by audio
frequencies up to 10 kHz, the frequency range 16. A telephone subscriber line must have an SNR above
occupied by the sidebands will be 40 dB. What is the minimum number of bits required
a. 711.9 kHz712.1 kHz per sample?
b. 702 kHz722 kHz a. 6 c. 8
c. 692 kHz732 kHz b. 7 d. 9
d. 71.2 kHz72.2 kHz
17. A linear delta modulation is designed to operate on
8. A mixer stage has a noise figure of 20 dB. This mixer speech signals limited to 3.4 kHz. The sampling rate
stage is preceded by an amplifier. Which has a noise is 10 times the Nyquist rate of the speech signal. The
figure of 9 dB and an available power gain of 15 dB. step size is 100 mV. The modulator is tested with
The overall noise figure referred to the input is 1 kHz test signal. What is the maximum amplitude
a. 11.07 c. 18.23 of this 1 kHz test signal required to avoid slope
b. 56.48 d. 97.38 overload?
a. 2.04 V c. 4.08 V
9. In a code-division multiple access (CDMA) system b. 1.08 V d. 2.16 V
with N = 8 chips, the maximum number of users
who can be assigned mutually orthogonal signature 18. A diode detector has a load of 1 k shunted by
sequences is a 10000 pF capacitor. The diode has a forward
 resistance of 1 . The maximum permissible depth 27. A speech signal is sampled at 8 kHz and encoded
of modulation, so as to avoid diagonal clipping, with into PCM format using 8 bits/sample. The PCM data
modulating signal frequency of 10 kHz will be is transmitted through a baseband channel via 4-level
a. 0.847 c. 0.628 PAM. The minimum bandwidth (in kHz) required for
b. 0.734 d. None of these transmission is
a. 4 kHz c. 16 kHz
19. A transmitted power of 5 W is increased by 20 dB. b. 8 kHz d. 24 kHz
The effective rated power (ERP) is
a. 5 W c. 25 W 28. A CDMA system consist of 15 equal power user that
b. 100 W d. 500 W transmit information at a rate of 10 kbps, each using
a direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) signal
20. A low-pass analog signal can be transmitted within operating at chip rate of 1 MHz. The modulation
a channel of bandwidth 4 kHz. If the signal is to be scheme is BPSK. The progressing gain is
digitized into 8 bits, what is the minimum bandwidth a. 0.01 c. 0.1
needed for the transmission? b. 100 d. 10
a. 4 kHz c. 24 kHz
b. 8 kHz d. 32 kHz 29. An electromagnetic wave from an under water source
with perpendicular polarization is incident on a water-
21. In a broadcast superheterodyne receiver having no RF air interfere at angle 20 with normal to surface. For
amplifier, the loaded Q of the antenna coupling circuit water, assume r = 81. The critical angle c is
is 100. If the intermediate frequency is 455 kHz. The a. 83.62 c. 42.6
image frequency at 1000 kHz will be b. 6.38 d. 12.74
a. 1 010 kHz c. 1 910 kHz
b. 1 455 kHz d. 545 kHz 30. A 2-cm by 3-cm rectangular waveguide is filled with
a dielectric material with r = 6. The waveguide is
22. Light from free space is incident at an angle i to the operating at 20 GHz with TM11 mode, the phase
normal of the facet of a step-index large core optical velocity is
fiber, the core and cladding refractive indices are n1 a. 1.24 108 m/s c. 1.54 108 m/s
= 1.5 and n2 = 1.4, respectively. The maximum value b. 3.05 108 m/s d. 7.48 108 m/s
of i (in degrees) for which the incident light will be
guided in the core of the fiber is 31. A transmitting antenna with a 300-MHz carrier
a. 2829 c. 3233 frequency produces 2 kW of power. If both antennas
b. 3031 d. 3435 has unity power gain, the power received by another
antenna at a distance of 1 km is
23. A communication channel with additive white,
a. 11.8 mW c. 18.4 W
Gaussian noise has a bandwidth of 4 kHz and SNR of
b. 18.4 mW d. 12.7 W
15. Its channel capacity is
a. 1.6 kbps c. 32 kbps
32. An ideal band-pass channel 500 Hz to 2000 Hz is
b. 16 kbps d. 256 kbps
deployed for communication. A modem is designed to
24. In a receiver the input signal is 100 V, while the transmit bits at the rate of 4800 bits/s using 16-QAM.
internal noise at the input is 10 V. With amplification The roll-off factor of a pulse with a raised cosine
the output signal is 2V, while the output noise is 0.4 V. spectrum that utilizes the entire frequency band is
The noise figure of receiver is a. 0.20 c. 0.30
a. 2 c. 5 b. 0.25 d. 0.35
b. 0.2 d. None of the above
33. A 20-m antenna gives a certain uplink gain at
25. A direct sequence spread BPSK system uses a frequencies of 4/6 GHz. For getting same gain in the
feedback shift register of length m = 19 for the 20/30 GHz band, antenna size required is
generation of PN sequence. The system is required a. 4 m c. 20 m
to have an average probability of symbol error due to b. 10 m d. 100 m
externally generated interfering signals that does not
exceed 105. The processing gain of the system is 34. A 10-km long line has a characteristic impedance of
a. 37 c. 57 400 ohms. If the length is 100 km, the characteristic
b. 43 d. 93 impedance is
a. 4000 c. 40
26. A pseudo-noise (PN) sequence is generated using a b. 400 d. 4
feedback shift register of length m = 4. The chip rate is
107 chips per second. The period of PN sequence is 35. The bit rate of a digital communication system is
a. 1.5 s c. 6.67 s R kbits/s. The modulation used is 32-QAM. The
b. 15 s d. 0.67 s minimum bandwidth require for ISI (Intersymbol
 Interference) free transmission is a. ABC c. CBA
a. R/10 Hz c. R/5 Hz b. ACB d. BAC
b. R/10 kHz d. R/5 kHz
44. In an optical fiber, the refractive index of cladding
36. A coaxial cable with an inner diameter of 1 mm and material should be
outer diameter of 2.4 mm is filled with a dielectric of a. nearly 1 c. less than 1
r = 10.89, the characteristic impedance of the cable b. much greater than 1 d. None of the these
is
a. 330 c. 243.3 45. Which of the following is an error correcting order?
b. 15.9 d. 43.4 a. EBCDIC c. Hamming
b. Gray d. ASCII
37. What is the critical angle at the interference glass-
cladding of an optical fiber whose core has a refractive
index of 1.5 and cladding with a refractive index of
1.45?
a. 75 c. 86
b. 105 d. 83

38. An optical fiber is made up of a core of refractive index

= 1.6 and a cladding of refractive index = 1.5. What
is the maximum angle that the light rays can make
with the axis of the optical fiber so that light is totally
reflected inside the optical fiber?
a. 10 c. 20
b. 15 d. 90

39. A light-of-sight radio link operating at a frequency of

6 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas.
An obstacle in the path is located 10 km from the
transmitting antenna. By how much must beam clear
the obstacle?
a. 10.5 m c. 8.9 m
b. 11.6 m d. 14.3 m

40. It is found that in a telephone system 60 subscribers

initiate calls during a 30-minute interval and the total
duration of all the class is 100 minutes. The load is
a. 2 erlang c. 3.333 erlang
b. 3 erlang d. 0.333 erlang

41. The numerical aperture of a fiber optic cable is 0.29.

What is the acceptance angle?
a. 16.86 c. 16.36
b. 17.5 d. 17.25

42. What is the audio carrier of Channel 13?

a. 210 MHz c. 214.5 MHz
b. 211.25 MHz d. 215.75 MHz

43. Three amplifier that may be connected in any order in

a cascade are defined as follows:
Effective Input Available Power
Amplifier
Noise Temperature Gain
A 110 K 4
B 120 K 6
C 150 K 12
The sequence of connection that will the lowest
overall effective input noise temperature for the
cascade is
GEAS (PARTIAL)
1. A ball of mass m moving with speed v on a smooth
horizontal plane surface collides directly with a second
ball which is initially at rest, of the same size but of
half the mass. Find the total kinetic energy after the
collision if the coefficient of restitution is e.
a. (mv2/3)(2 + e) c. (mv2/3)(2 + e2)
b. (mv2/6)(2 + e) d. (mv2/6)(2 + e2)
consists of an oxygen atom with two hydrogen atoms
bound to it. The angle between the two bonds is 106
and the bonds are 0.100 nm long.
a. 0.00673 nm from the oxygen nucleus
b. 0.00736 nm from the oxygen nucleus
c. 0.00763 nm from the oxygen nucleus
d. 0.00367 nm from the oxygen nucleus

2. Find the distance from the center of the Earth to the 8. Find the tension T1 in terms of
center of mass of the Earth-moon system. The mass the angle if a mass m, held
of the Earth = 5.98 1024 kg and the mass of the up by two strings, hangs from a T1 T2
moon = 7.36 1022 kg. The distance between them is ceiling as shown in the figure.
3.82 108 m, and the Earth's radius is RE = The strings form a right angle. m
6.37 106 m. a. mg sin c. mg cos
a. 4647 km c. 6474 km b. 2mg sin d. 2mg cos
b. 7464 km d. 4466 km
9. A neutron moving with velocity v0 collides head-one
3. The coefficient of performance (COP) of a reversible with carbon nucleus of mass number 12. Compute the
refrigeration operating between two thermal reservoirs fraction of neutron's kinetic energy transferred to the
is 4.0. The efficiency of a reversible heat engine carbon nucleus. Assume the collision is elastic.
operating between the same temperature limits is a. 45/157 c. 51/203
a. 15% c. 35% b. 48/169 d. 67/247
b. 25% d. 45%
10. A small object rests on top of a fixed frictionless
4. A 2-kg block located on a rough inclined plane is sphere. The object is given a tiny kick and slides
connected to a spring is unstretched, the block is downward. Compute the angle from the top of the
released from rest. The block slides down 20 cm sphere does the object lose contact with the sphere?
along the incline before coming to rest. Compare the a. 45.7 c. 52.6
coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and b. 48.2 d. 77.1
incline. Assume the spring has negligible mass with a
spring constant of 100 N/m. 11. A 50-g ball is struck by a racket. If a ball is initially
traveling at 5 m/s down after 0.1 s of contact, what is
k = 100 N/m the (average) force exerted by the racket on the ball?
What is the impulse?
a. 0.5 Ns c. 5 Ns
2.00 kg b. 1.5 Ns d. 0 Ns

12. A shell is shot with an initial velocity 20 m/s, at angle

of 0 = 60 with the horizontal. At the top of the
trajectory, the shell explodes into two fragments of
37 equal mass. One fragment, whose speed immediately
after the explosion is zero, falls vertically. How far from
a. 0.211 c. 0.115 the gun does the other fragment land, assuming that
b. 0.321 d. 0.221 the terrain is level and that air drag is negligible?
a. 23 m c. 63 m
5. A ball is dropped from a height h onto a fixed b. 53 m d. 83 m
horizontal plane. Compute the total distance traveled
by the ball before it comes to rest, if the coefficient of 13. A stone is thrown up from the foot of tower 50 m high
restitution is e. with a velocity of 25 m/s and at the same time another
a. h(1 + e2)/(1 e2) c. h(1 e2)/(1 + e2) stone is dropped from the top of tower, the two stones
b. h(1 + e)/(1 e) d. h(1 e)/(1 + e) will cross each other after
a. 2 s c. 3 s
6. A ladder leans against a frictionless wall. What is the b. 4 s d. 4.5 s
smallest angle the ladder can make with the ground
without slipping? Assume the coefficient of friction with 14. A particle starts from rest and moves in a straight line
the ground is . whose equation of motion is given by S = 2t3 t2 1 m.
a. = tan1 (1/) c. = tan1 (1/ 2 ) The acceleration of the particle after 1 second will be
1
b. = tan (1/2) d. = tan1 (1/ 3 ) a. 4 m/s2 c. 6 m/s2
b. 8 m/s2 d. 10 m/s2
7. Find the center of mass of the water molecule which
15. A 4.5 kg dog stands on an 18 kg boat at distance D steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm-diameter
= 6.1 m from the shore. It walks 2.4 m along the boat wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is
toward shore and then stops. Assuming no friction supporting a load of 2 kN.
between boat and the water, find how far the dog is a. 110.6 MPa c. 115.6 MPa
then from the shore? b. 120.6 MPa d. 125.6 MPa
a. 2.4 m c. 0.42 m
b. 0.24 m d. 4.2 m 23. A man jumps 2 meters on the surface of the earth.
How high he will jump on a plant whose radius is
16. From the figure, determine the minimum value of F 64 km and mean density same as that of the earth?
that keeps the block up. a. 400 m c. 4 m
mg b. 20 m d. 200 m
a. F =
1+ 2
24. An electron moves in a circle of radius 1.9 m in a
2mg
b. F = M magnetic field of 3 105 T. Calculate the speed of
1+ 2 the electron.
mg F a. 105 m/s c. 107 m/s
c. F = 2
1 b. 106 m/s d. 108 m/s
mg
d. F =
2 1+ 2 25. The temperature of equal masses of three different
liquids A, B, and C is 12, 18 and 28C respectively.
17. From the figure, determine the common acceleration When A and B are mixed, the temperature is 16C.
of the blocks. When B and C are mixed, it is 23C. What would be
the temperature when A and C are mixed?
T1 T2 a. 17C c. 23C
m1 m2 m3 F
b. 21C d. 26C

26. A piston cylinder device initially contains 0.8 m3 of air

2F F T T2
a. a = m + m m c. a = m + m1 m at 110 kPa and 80C. The air is now compressed to
1 2 3 1 2 3
0.2 m3 in such a way that the temperature inside the
2F F cylinder remains constant. Determine the work done
b. a = m m m d. a = m + m + m
1 2 3 1 2 3 during the process.
a. 325 kJ c. 122 kJ
18. For a given time of flight T, determine the maximum
b. 325 kJ d. 122 kJ
height of a projectile.
gT3 gT
a. h = 8 c. h = 4

gT2 gT2
b. h = 8 d. h = 2
19. The bulk modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its
modulus of rigidity. The Poisson's ratio of the material
is
a. 1/7 c. 2/7
b. 3/7 d. 4/7

20. A simply supported 6 m long steel beam with a 5 cm

5 cm cross section has a load of 2,500 N at the
midpoint. What is the maximum deflection in cm? E =
210 GPa.
a. 3.01 c. 10.3
b. 1.03 d. 0.31

21. A double convex lens has faces of radii 21 and 23 cm.

When an object is 25 cm from the lens, a real image
is formed 40 cm from the lens. What is refractive index
of the lens material?
a. 1.61 c. 1.81
b. 1.71 d. 1.51

22. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical