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25. A fifth band on some color-coded resistors indicates 38. What is the turns ratio of a transformer needed to
the resistors ______. match a 1 k source resistance to a 160 load?
Answer: reliability Answer: 0.4 : 1
26. A variable resistor that is used to control current is 39. The opposition to current changes in the coil or
______. Answer: rheostat inductor is called ______.
Answer: inductance
27. A basic electric circuits consists of ______.
Answer: source, load, and conducting path 40. At resonance, a parallel tuned circuit appears to
______. Answer: open circuit
28. Determine the power v(t)
delivered to a load 16 V 41. The time it takes for a specific point on an input
if the waveform is waveform to pass through the filter is called ______.
applied to a 500- 8V Answer: envelope/time-delay
resistor.
Answer: 0.304 W t 42. A static memory will store information ______.
Answer: as long as power is applied to the memory
29. The percentage voltage regulation of voltage supply
providing 100 V unloaded and 95 V at full load is 43. An SCR differs from the Shockley diode because
______. Answer: 5.3% ______. Answer: it has a gate terminal
30. Calculate the dc voltage across 2k load for an RC 44. A series LCR circuit is operated at a frequency
filter section (R = 50 , C = 20 F). The dc voltage different from its resonant frequency. The operating
across the initial filter capacitor is Vdc = 50 V. frequency is such that the current leads the supply
Answer: 48.78 V voltage. The magnitude of current is half the value at
resonance. If the values of L, C, and R are 1 H, 1 F,
31. A high pass T-connected symmetrical filter section has and 1 , respectively, the operating angular frequency
capacitances of 400 nF in each of its series arms and (in rad/s) is ______.
an inductance of 200 mH in its shunt arm. The cut-off Answer: = 0.45 rad/s
frequency of the filter is ______.
Answer: fc = 398 Hz 45. Identify the type of gate shown in the circuit:
+VDD
32. The ripple contents (a.k.a. ripple factor) of a bridge
rectifier ______.
Answer: 48.2%
Q1 Q2
33. The resistance of a wiring wire made up of copper is
25 at 30C. What is the resistance when it operates Q5
at a temperature of 75C? Assume temperature
Y
coefficient at 20C = 0.004.
Answer: 29.33 Q3 Q6
A
34. What is the flux density of a magnetic field whose flux
is 3000 Wb and cross-sectional area is 0.25 m2?
Answer: 12,000 T Q4
B
35. The crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to
______ of the crystal.
Answer: high Q (quality factor)
Answer: CMOS AND
36. The basic difference between a fuse and circuit
breaker is ______. 46. One of the most important specifications on magnetic
Answer: a circuit breaker is reusable media is the ______.
Answer: data transfer rate
47. What is the slew rate of an op-amp if the output a. The device is an open-collector AND gate and
voltages change from 2 V to 3 V in 0.2 ms? requires both inputs to be HIGH in order to turn
Answer: SR = 5 V/ms the LED off. (Answer)
b. The device is a Schottky AND gate and requires
48. What is the cut-off frequency of an op-amp if the unity- only one low input to turn the LED off.
gain frequency is 1.5 MHz and the open-loop gain is c. The device is an open-collector AND gate and
100,000? requires only one low input to turn the LED off.
Answer: 15 Hz d. The device is a Schottky open-collector AND gate
and requires a low on both inputs to turn the LED
49. Assume that a particular IC has a supply voltage (VCC) off.
equal to +5 V and ICCH = 10 mA and ICCL = 23 mA.
What is the power dissipation for the chip? 57. The most complex to produce and difficult to repair
Answer: 82.5 mW printed circuit boards are those made using which of
the following methods?
Q50-51: A small electric vehicle is powered by a 96 V Answer: layer (no choices provided)
batteryand uses a series wound motor. It has a step-
down chopper for forward drive and a step-up chopper for 58. For an op-amp having a slew rate SR = 5 V/ms, what
regenerative braking. The total armature resistance is 0.1 is the maximum closed-loop voltage gain that can be
and the armature voltage constant is 10 mV/A-rad/s. used when the input signal varies by 0.2 V in 10 ms?
Descending a hill in regenerative mode the motor speed Answer: 250
is 1000 rev/min and the armature current is a constant
average value of 80 A. 59. What is used to determine the direction of rotation of
the armature conductors in motor?
50. Calculate the value of duty cycle required. Answer: left-hand rule
Answer: 0.208
60. Who discovered electromagnetism?
51. Calculate the available braking power. Answer: Hans Christian Oersted
Answer: 6.08 kW
61. (211)x = (158)8, then the value of base x is ______.
52. The equivalent resistance of the series combination of Answer: x = 7
two resistors is p. When they are joined in parallel, the
equivalent resistance is q. If p = nq, find the minimum 62. The reduced form of the Boolean expansion of
possible value of n. Y = (AB) $ (AB)
Answer: n = 4 Answer: Y = B
53. A dc to dc chopper operates from a 48 V battery 63. What term describes the maximum expected error
source into a resistive load of 24 . The frequency of associated with a measurement or a sensor?
the chopper is set to 250 Hz. Determine the rms load a. precision c. range
current and load power values when chopper on-time b. resolution d. accuracy (Answer)
is 1 ms.
Answer: IL(rms) = 1 A; PL(rms) = 24 W 64. For a given line voltage, four heating coils will produce
maximum heat when connected ______.
54. What magnetic effect is at the heart of such a. all in parallel (Answer)
technologies as antilock brake sensors and some b. all in series
keyboards? c. with two parallel pairs in series
Answer: Hall effect d. one pair in parallel with the other two in series
55. A dc tachometer has the following specifications: 65. In a stepper motor, how is the speed of rotation
R = 0.03 m, B = 0.2 Wb/m2, N = 220, L = 0.15 m. determined?
Determine the output voltage of the tachometer Answer: by frequency
for a speed of 2500 rpm. (N = effective number of
conductors) 66. An amplifier has a voltage gain of 20, an input
Answer: 51.8 V resistance of 500 and an output resistance of 50 .
The amplifier is connected to a voltage source that
5V
56. Refer to the figure given. What type of produces an output voltage of 1 V and has an output
device is shown and what input levels resistance of 75 and to a load resistance of 800 ,
are required to turn the LED off? What will be the voltage across the load resistor?
RL Answer: 16.4
A 67. What signal corresponds to pin 3 of this operational
B
amplifier? 50 k
a. inverting input 1 5 150 k
b. non-inverting output 2 6 10 k
c. non-inverting input Vi 25 k
(Answer) 3 7
Vo
d. positive supply voltage 4 8
76. Once a DIAC is conducting, the only way to turn it off 84. PSSR is an op-amp parameter which defines the
is with ______. degree of dependence on variations in ______.
a. a positive gate voltage a. temperature
b. a negative gate voltage b. pressure
c. low-current dropout (Answer) c. power supply voltage (Answer)
d. breakover d. slew rate
77. In a circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage Vi = 85. A three bit pseudo random number generator is
0.2 V, then the output voltage is ______. shown. Initially the value of output Y = Y2Y1Y0 is set
to 111. The value of output Y after five clock cycles is
_____.
Y2 Y1 Y0 would be ______.
a. opaque to the visible light (Answer)
b. transparent to the visible light
D2 Q2 D1 Q1 D0 Q0 c. transparent to the ultraviolet radiation
d. None of the above
CLK
93. A semiconductor is formed by ______ bonds.
Answer: 101 Answer: covalent
86. Consider the signal s(t) = m(t)cos(2fct) + m(t) 94. A Zener diode is based on the principle of ______.
sin(2fct) where m(t) denotes the Hilbert transform of a. thermionic emission
m(t) and the bandwidth of m(t) is very small compared b. tunneling of charge carriers across the junction
to fc. The signal s(t) is a ______. (Answer)
a. high-pass signal c. diffusion of charge carriers across the junction
b. low-pass signal d. None of the above
c. band-pass signal (Answer)
d. double sideband suppressed carrier signal 95. No-load voltage of power supply is 100 V and full load
voltage is 80 V, the percent regulation is ______.
87. A dc separately excited motor has constant field Answer: 25%
current. The armature is fed from a single phase
supply through a full converter. When = 0, the 96. The typical value of parameter hfe is ______.
speed is 500 rpm. If = 45, the speed is likely to be Answer: 50
______. Answer: 125 rpm
97. Which of the following bipolar transistor has the
88. The acceptable voltage range of logic 0 for CMOS highest current gain bandwidth product (fr) for similar
operating at 5V: _____. geometry?
Answer: 01.5 V a. npn germanium transistor
b. npn silicon transistor (Answer)
89. The average power delivered to an impedance c. pnp germanium transistor
(4 j3) by a current 5 cos (100t + 100) A is d. pnp silion transistor
______. Answer: 50 W
98. Ebers-Moll model is valid for ______.
90. Following is the K-map of a Boolean function of five a. Bipolar junction transistors (Answer)
variables P, Q, R, S and X. The minimum sum-of- b. MOS transistor
product (SOP) expression for the function is c. Unipolar junction transistors
d. Junction field-effect transistors
PQ PQ
RS 00 01 11 10 RS 00 01 11 10
99. The base-to-emitter voltage in forward-biased
00 0 0 0 0 00 0 1 1 0 transistor decreases with the increase of temperature
at the following rate:
01 1 0 0 1 01 0 0 0 0
a. 2.5 mV/C (Answer)
11 1 0 0 1 11 0 0 0 0 b. 25 mV/C
c. 0.25 mV/C
10 0 0 0 0 10 0 1 1 0 d. 0.6 mV/C
X=0 X=1
100. Op-amp operates at ______.
a. PQSX + PQSX + QRSX + QRSX a. high voltage (~100 kV)
b. QSX + QSX (Answer) b. medium voltage (~220 V)
c. QSX + QSX c. low voltage (~12 V) (Answer)
d. QS + QS d. very high voltage (~10 mV)
5. A pseudo-noise (PN) sequence is generated using a 14. In a DSB full carrier AM transmitter system, if the
feedback shift register of length m = 4. The chip rate is modulation index is doubled, then the ratio of total
107 chips per second. The PN sequence length is sideband power to carrier power increases by a factor
a. 10 c. 15 of
b. 12 d. 18 a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
6. An analog signal is sampled at 36 kHz and quantized
into 256 levels. The time duration of a bit of the binary 15. The minimum hop rate for a frequency hopping spread
coded signal is spectrum (FHSS) that will prevent a jammer from
a. 5.78 s c. 6.43 ms operating five miles away from the receiver is
b. 3.47 s d. 7.86 ms a. 3.2 kHz c. 18.6 kHz
b. 3.2 MHz d. 18.6 MHz
7. If the oscillator output is modulated by audio
frequencies up to 10 kHz, the frequency range 16. A telephone subscriber line must have an SNR above
occupied by the sidebands will be 40 dB. What is the minimum number of bits required
a. 711.9 kHz712.1 kHz per sample?
b. 702 kHz722 kHz a. 6 c. 8
c. 692 kHz732 kHz b. 7 d. 9
d. 71.2 kHz72.2 kHz
17. A linear delta modulation is designed to operate on
8. A mixer stage has a noise figure of 20 dB. This mixer speech signals limited to 3.4 kHz. The sampling rate
stage is preceded by an amplifier. Which has a noise is 10 times the Nyquist rate of the speech signal. The
figure of 9 dB and an available power gain of 15 dB. step size is 100 mV. The modulator is tested with
The overall noise figure referred to the input is 1 kHz test signal. What is the maximum amplitude
a. 11.07 c. 18.23 of this 1 kHz test signal required to avoid slope
b. 56.48 d. 97.38 overload?
a. 2.04 V c. 4.08 V
9. In a code-division multiple access (CDMA) system b. 1.08 V d. 2.16 V
with N = 8 chips, the maximum number of users
who can be assigned mutually orthogonal signature 18. A diode detector has a load of 1 k shunted by
sequences is a 10000 pF capacitor. The diode has a forward
resistance of 1 . The maximum permissible depth 27. A speech signal is sampled at 8 kHz and encoded
of modulation, so as to avoid diagonal clipping, with into PCM format using 8 bits/sample. The PCM data
modulating signal frequency of 10 kHz will be is transmitted through a baseband channel via 4-level
a. 0.847 c. 0.628 PAM. The minimum bandwidth (in kHz) required for
b. 0.734 d. None of these transmission is
a. 4 kHz c. 16 kHz
19. A transmitted power of 5 W is increased by 20 dB. b. 8 kHz d. 24 kHz
The effective rated power (ERP) is
a. 5 W c. 25 W 28. A CDMA system consist of 15 equal power user that
b. 100 W d. 500 W transmit information at a rate of 10 kbps, each using
a direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) signal
20. A low-pass analog signal can be transmitted within operating at chip rate of 1 MHz. The modulation
a channel of bandwidth 4 kHz. If the signal is to be scheme is BPSK. The progressing gain is
digitized into 8 bits, what is the minimum bandwidth a. 0.01 c. 0.1
needed for the transmission? b. 100 d. 10
a. 4 kHz c. 24 kHz
b. 8 kHz d. 32 kHz 29. An electromagnetic wave from an under water source
with perpendicular polarization is incident on a water-
21. In a broadcast superheterodyne receiver having no RF air interfere at angle 20 with normal to surface. For
amplifier, the loaded Q of the antenna coupling circuit water, assume r = 81. The critical angle c is
is 100. If the intermediate frequency is 455 kHz. The a. 83.62 c. 42.6
image frequency at 1000 kHz will be b. 6.38 d. 12.74
a. 1 010 kHz c. 1 910 kHz
b. 1 455 kHz d. 545 kHz 30. A 2-cm by 3-cm rectangular waveguide is filled with
a dielectric material with r = 6. The waveguide is
22. Light from free space is incident at an angle i to the operating at 20 GHz with TM11 mode, the phase
normal of the facet of a step-index large core optical velocity is
fiber, the core and cladding refractive indices are n1 a. 1.24 108 m/s c. 1.54 108 m/s
= 1.5 and n2 = 1.4, respectively. The maximum value b. 3.05 108 m/s d. 7.48 108 m/s
of i (in degrees) for which the incident light will be
guided in the core of the fiber is 31. A transmitting antenna with a 300-MHz carrier
a. 2829 c. 3233 frequency produces 2 kW of power. If both antennas
b. 3031 d. 3435 has unity power gain, the power received by another
antenna at a distance of 1 km is
23. A communication channel with additive white,
a. 11.8 mW c. 18.4 W
Gaussian noise has a bandwidth of 4 kHz and SNR of
b. 18.4 mW d. 12.7 W
15. Its channel capacity is
a. 1.6 kbps c. 32 kbps
32. An ideal band-pass channel 500 Hz to 2000 Hz is
b. 16 kbps d. 256 kbps
deployed for communication. A modem is designed to
24. In a receiver the input signal is 100 V, while the transmit bits at the rate of 4800 bits/s using 16-QAM.
internal noise at the input is 10 V. With amplification The roll-off factor of a pulse with a raised cosine
the output signal is 2V, while the output noise is 0.4 V. spectrum that utilizes the entire frequency band is
The noise figure of receiver is a. 0.20 c. 0.30
a. 2 c. 5 b. 0.25 d. 0.35
b. 0.2 d. None of the above
33. A 20-m antenna gives a certain uplink gain at
25. A direct sequence spread BPSK system uses a frequencies of 4/6 GHz. For getting same gain in the
feedback shift register of length m = 19 for the 20/30 GHz band, antenna size required is
generation of PN sequence. The system is required a. 4 m c. 20 m
to have an average probability of symbol error due to b. 10 m d. 100 m
externally generated interfering signals that does not
exceed 105. The processing gain of the system is 34. A 10-km long line has a characteristic impedance of
a. 37 c. 57 400 ohms. If the length is 100 km, the characteristic
b. 43 d. 93 impedance is
a. 4000 c. 40
26. A pseudo-noise (PN) sequence is generated using a b. 400 d. 4
feedback shift register of length m = 4. The chip rate is
107 chips per second. The period of PN sequence is 35. The bit rate of a digital communication system is
a. 1.5 s c. 6.67 s R kbits/s. The modulation used is 32-QAM. The
b. 15 s d. 0.67 s minimum bandwidth require for ISI (Intersymbol
Interference) free transmission is a. ABC c. CBA
a. R/10 Hz c. R/5 Hz b. ACB d. BAC
b. R/10 kHz d. R/5 kHz
44. In an optical fiber, the refractive index of cladding
36. A coaxial cable with an inner diameter of 1 mm and material should be
outer diameter of 2.4 mm is filled with a dielectric of a. nearly 1 c. less than 1
r = 10.89, the characteristic impedance of the cable b. much greater than 1 d. None of the these
is
a. 330 c. 243.3 45. Which of the following is an error correcting order?
b. 15.9 d. 43.4 a. EBCDIC c. Hamming
b. Gray d. ASCII
37. What is the critical angle at the interference glass-
cladding of an optical fiber whose core has a refractive
index of 1.5 and cladding with a refractive index of
1.45?
a. 75 c. 86
b. 105 d. 83
2. Find the distance from the center of the Earth to the 8. Find the tension T1 in terms of
center of mass of the Earth-moon system. The mass the angle if a mass m, held
of the Earth = 5.98 1024 kg and the mass of the up by two strings, hangs from a T1 T2
moon = 7.36 1022 kg. The distance between them is ceiling as shown in the figure.
3.82 108 m, and the Earth's radius is RE = The strings form a right angle. m
6.37 106 m. a. mg sin c. mg cos
a. 4647 km c. 6474 km b. 2mg sin d. 2mg cos
b. 7464 km d. 4466 km
9. A neutron moving with velocity v0 collides head-one
3. The coefficient of performance (COP) of a reversible with carbon nucleus of mass number 12. Compute the
refrigeration operating between two thermal reservoirs fraction of neutron's kinetic energy transferred to the
is 4.0. The efficiency of a reversible heat engine carbon nucleus. Assume the collision is elastic.
operating between the same temperature limits is a. 45/157 c. 51/203
a. 15% c. 35% b. 48/169 d. 67/247
b. 25% d. 45%
10. A small object rests on top of a fixed frictionless
4. A 2-kg block located on a rough inclined plane is sphere. The object is given a tiny kick and slides
connected to a spring is unstretched, the block is downward. Compute the angle from the top of the
released from rest. The block slides down 20 cm sphere does the object lose contact with the sphere?
along the incline before coming to rest. Compare the a. 45.7 c. 52.6
coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and b. 48.2 d. 77.1
incline. Assume the spring has negligible mass with a
spring constant of 100 N/m. 11. A 50-g ball is struck by a racket. If a ball is initially
traveling at 5 m/s down after 0.1 s of contact, what is
k = 100 N/m the (average) force exerted by the racket on the ball?
What is the impulse?
a. 0.5 Ns c. 5 Ns
2.00 kg b. 1.5 Ns d. 0 Ns
gT2 gT2
b. h = 8 d. h = 2
19. The bulk modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its
modulus of rigidity. The Poisson's ratio of the material
is
a. 1/7 c. 2/7
b. 3/7 d. 4/7