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Exam: EMS-Science Club - NSB- In school - Earth Science - 1


1) In correct order from the center outward, Earth 6) The primary agent of contact metamorphism is
includes which units? ________.
A) core, crust, mantle, hydrosphere A) heat B) folding
B) core, inner mantle, outer mantle, crust C) strain D) stress
C) inner core, outer core, mantle, crust
D) inner core, crust, mantle, hydrosphere 7) Which of the following places is well known
for its intrusive igneous rocks that were
2) Major mountain belts on the earth are exposed by erosion?
________. A) Yosemite National Park
A) located around the Pacific Ocean B) Yellowstone National Park
B) over 10 km high C) Mount St. Helens Volcano
C) older than smaller mountain belts D) Hawaii
because they have had enough time to
grow large 8) What is the major distinction between internal
D) made of granite because it is low density and external Earth processes?
and allows for maximum growth A) Internal processes can only occur inside
the Earth, but external processes can
3) The ________ is the thinnest layer of the earth. occur inside or outside the Earth.
A) mantle B) crust B) Internal processes involve heat, and
C) inner core D) outer core external processes involve oxygen.
C) Internal and external processes can occur
4) Which of the following is not a criterion for inside and outside the Earth, but external
defining something as a mineral? processes must also include the oxidation
A) Generally inorganic of Earth materials.
B) Naturally occurring D) Internal processes are driven by things
C) Hard like Plate Tectonics, and external
D) Orderly crystalline structure processes are driven by the sun.

5) Quartz has a characteristic conchoidal fracture, 9) Of the following, which one would most likely
yet rock shops often sell quartz as elongate six be triggered by an earthquake?
sided objects with a pointed termination. What A) solifluction B) rock avalanche
causes this shape? C) slump D) soil creep
A) Quartz usually is amorphous, consistent
with its conchoidal fracture, but when it 10) The Mississippi River has an average
grows it grows against minerals with discharge of 17,300 cubic meters per second
planar faces, causing this shape. but the ________ River discharges 12 times
B) You should never buy a crystal like this more water than the Mississippi River.
because it is clearly fake, only artificial A) Amazon
crystals grow this way. B) Colorado
C) The rock shop cuts them that way with C) Nile
abrasives. The facets are cut to give the D) Yukon
crystals more "power" for the crystal E) Yangtze
D) The planar faces that form the object are
crystal faces that grow when the crystals
grew into a void.

11) Fracture zone associated with transform 17) Pillow lavas are ________.
boundaries are ________. A) andesitic bombs erupted from a cinder
A) active faults cone that accumulate as pillow-like
B) topographic markers of where Pangaea masses around the cone
originally broke apart B) basaltic magmas erupted on the seafloor
C) fractures in the seafloor that did not as magma blobs from an explosive,
become faults submarine eruption
D) inactive faults C) basaltic lava tubes erupted on the
seafloor in volcanic piles analogous to
12) Oceanic ridges represent ________ percent of toothpaste extruded from a tube
the earth's surface. D) rhyolite glasses that develop a banding
A) 5 B) 30 C) 10 D) 20 that resembles a pillow case with internal
snowflake obsidian that looks like
13) Why is the Moment magnitude scale favored
over the Richter magnitude scale?
A) The Moment magnitude measures the 18) The San Andreas Fault in California and the
total energy released by an earthquake. Alpine Fault in New Zealand are examples of
B) The Richter magnitude is based on older ________.
models of seismographs that are no A) normal faults
longer used to record earthquakes. B) strike-slip faults
C) The moment magnitude carries the C) thrust faults
calculated values out to more decimal D) oblique-slip normal faults
places so it is more precise.
D) The Richter magnitude always 19) You pick up a sandstone. In the rock sample
underestimates the amount of energy you see an impression of a sea shell in the rock.
released by an earthquake. This type of fossil is a ________.
A) cast
14) Modern seismographs rely on ________ to B) mold
record the ground motion from an earthquake. C) permineralized fossil
A) mass B) inertia D) pseudofossil
C) buoyancy D) density
20) The dominant life forms during the Cenozoic
15) The largest percentage of total magma Era were ________.
production on earth occurs at what plate A) mammals and angiosperms
tectonic setting? B) prokaryotes and eukaryotes
A) spreading ridges C) fish and amphibians
B) convergent plate margins D) reptiles and gymnosperms
C) transform plate margins
D) hot spots like Hawaii 21) Which of the following generally has the
lowest surface slope?
16) Which of the following is a tabular intrusive A) beach shoreface
body with subparallel intrusive contacts? B) continental rise
A) columnar joints B) laccolith C) continental shelf
C) stock D) dike D) continental slope

22) One disadvantage to living near the surface of 25) Why is ozone concentrated in a particular
the ocean is ________. range of levels in the atmosphere?
A) waves create difficulty in finding A) It is formed from air pollution that
abundant food reaches that level in sufficient quantities
B) too many other marine organisms live to form ozone.
near the surface so competition for food B) It requires a catalyst, an isolated oxygen
is difficult. atom, and an oxygen molecule, all of
C) strong currents bring rapid changes to which occur in sufficient quantities at
the environment that range of levels.
D) maneuvering in the water can be difficult C) It requires a unique temperature and
and make it a problem to avoid predators light level which occur at that range in
the atmosphere.
23) Why is productivity low in tropical regions? D) It reflects light back into space at that
A) because the deep waters are too warm to level, and the energy from that reaction
maintain a healthy biomass fuels the formation of ozone.
B) because the thermocline acts as a barrier
to the mixing of surface and deep waters 26) As you go up in elevation, the atmospheric
C) because there is too much sunlight pressure ________.
D) because the low density of the water A) increases
makes it hard for plankton to float near B) stays constant
the surface C) decreases
E) All of the above are problems. D) none of the above

24) In the Cretaceous period of earth history there 27) When air is unstable, the environmental lapse
is clear evidence that the climate was much rate is ________.
warmer than today. It was so warm that areas A) zero
near the pole had tropical vegetation like palm B) greater than both the wet and dry
trees, and there was almost certainly no sea ice adiabatic rates
and glaciers probably only existed at very high C) greater than the dry adiabatic rate
altitude. This produced widespread anoxia D) less than the wet adiabatic rate
(stagnant, no-oxygen condition) on the floor of
the oceans. From your knowledge of ocean 28) Which of the following is not a mechanism that
circulation, which of the following will cause air to rise?
explanations could account for the anoxia? A) convergence
A) The water got so warm it couldn't hold B) frontal Wedging
any oxygen, stagnating the water C) convective cooling
column. D) orographic lifting
B) The greenhouse affect made planktonic E) conduction cooling
algae grow so fast that they filled the
ocean with algae, stagnating the ocean.
C) The greenhouse affect led to so much
CO2 in the atmosphere that animals all
died from lack of oxygen, stagnating the
D) The lack of polar sea ice stopped any
thermohaline deep circulation in the
oceans, stratifying the water column to
produce anoxia in the deep sea.

29) You are on a boat in a fiord in Glacier Bay, 33) Humid middle-latitude climates with mild
Alaska. It is a clear sunny day with winters tend to have less precipitation in the
temperatures near 20C with no wind. Within summer than during the rest of the year
5 minutes the sky is still clear but the wind is because ________.
blowing at 30 knots down valley, the sea is A) oceanic subtropical highs migrate
filled with whitecaps, and the temperature poleward during the summer.
drops to 5C. What just happened? B) oceanic subtropical highs migrate toward
A) A storm front must have passed. the equator during the summer.
B) You experienced a valley wind, caused C) higher temperatures in those regions
by cold air spilling off an ice cap down result in more precipitation over the
the valley. oceans and less over the land.
C) You experienced a Chinook wind. D) higher temperatures in those regions
D) You experienced an afternoon sea breeze, carry the moist air higher into the
blowing cold air off the ocean. atmosphere.

30) A land breeze usually originates during the 34) Midlatitude deserts and steppes form because
________. ________.
A) evening and flows toward the land A) subsiding air masses are associated with
B) day and flows toward the water high pressure
C) day and flows toward the land B) they are in high mountains
D) evening and flows toward the water C) rising air masses are associated with low
31) The southeastern United States lies in the heart D) they are in the interiors of continents
of the "horse latitudes" where normally we E) they form at middle latitudes everywhere
would expect desert conditions. Why isn't this
area a desert? 35) The humid subtropical climate dominates the
A) Maritime polar air masses disturb the ________ United States.
pattern by driving pacific moisture across A) central
North America. B) southwestern
B) Continental polar air masses disturb the C) western
pattern by periodic influxes of cold air. D) northeastern
C) Continental tropical air masses derived E) southeastern
from Mexico disturb the pattern when
these air masses are drawn northward by 36) Planets appear to move ________ each night,
cyclonic storms. but occasionally they appear to stop and
D) Maritime tropical air masses derived reverse direction.
from the Gulf of Mexico disturb the A) southward
pattern when these air masses are drawn B) northward
northward by cyclonic storms. C) eastward
D) westward
32) After the center of a mature wave cyclone E) It varies significantly.
passes, you should expect ________.
A) barometric pressure to remain steady
B) barometric pressure to rise
C) barometric pressure to fall
D) warmer temperatures

37) Why do the planets "drift" east relative to the 40) The study of spectroscopy was begun by
stars and then move west for periods of time? ________.
A) They are moving in large elliptical orbits, A) Albert Einstein
so when observed from Earth, their B) Sir Isaac Newton
motion changes depending on whether C) Galileo
they are near or far from the sun at a D) Niels Bohr
given time. E) George Hale
B) They are moving in the same rotation
sense as the earth around the sun, but as
41) What does Einstein's formula e = mc2 have to
the earth moves faster (or slower,
do with the Sun?
depending on the planet) the motion
A) It determines the energy released when 4
appears to be backwards.
protons are fused to make a helium atom
C) They are moving in separate orbits
in the interior of the Sun.
around the sun as it goes around the
B) It determines the energy released as the
earth, producing the periodic
solar mass is converted to energy as
matter is intensely compressed in its
D) They don't move, they stay fixed relative
to the stars.
C) It relates to how much energy is carried
away from the Sun when mass is ejected
38) Compared to Earth's atmosphere, the from the Sun at the speed c.
atmosphere of Mars has surface pressures that D) The formula has nothing to do with the
are ________. Sun
A) 3 times those on Earth; major gases are
water vapor and carbon dioxide
42) Cepheid Variables are stars whose brightness
B) one-half those on Earth; main gases are
varies in a predictable manner so that the
methane and nitrogen
absolute magnitude of the star can be
C) 0.1 times those on Earth; major gases are
determined, and this allows the ________ of
water vapor and carbon dioxide
the star to be determined.
D) 1.5 times those on Earth; main gases are
A) velocity
methane and nitrogen
B) composition
C) size
39) Venus has dense clouds and thick atmosphere, D) distance from Earth
yet there is no evidence for water on the E) direction of motion
surface. Why?
A) Water could not survive as liquid water
43) The red color of emission nebulae comes from
on the surface because it is too hot.
the ________.
B) The water has all been taken up in
A) conversion of infrared light to visible
minerals on the surface due to weather
long ago because of high chemical
B) energy emission of oxygen
weathering rates.
C) energy emission of hydrogen
C) The water is bound up as sulfuric acids
D) conversion of ultraviolet light to visible
and other acids in the atmosphere.
D) It is hard to know because the clouds
E) energy emission of helium
obscure the surface and only a few
probes have survived landing.

44) Why do crystals in a magma stop growing
during cooling?
A) They become too dense to grow.
B) The pressure from rocks above becomes
too great and the magma stops growing
C) They run out of heat.
D) They run out of space.

45) Obsidian exhibits a ________ texture.

A) coarse-grained B) fine-grained
C) porphyritic D) glassy

46) Which of the following is an economically

important sedimentary rock?
A) coal B) calcite
C) marble D) pumice

47) Which magma type would generally have the

lowest viscosity?
A) andesite B) dacite
C) rhyolite D) basalt

48) ________ are usually the most abundant gases

emitted during basaltic volcanism.
A) Water and carbon dioxide
B) Chlorine and sodium
C) Oxygen and nitrogen
D) Neon and ammonia

49) Where are the most active volcanoes in the

A) Italy
B) Hawaii
C) Mexico
D) Washington State, in the United States

50) Paricutin is an example of a ________.

A) cinder cone
B) lava dome
C) composite volcano
D) shield volcano

Answer Key
Testname: NSB-ES-TEST 1

1) C
2) A
3) B
4) C
5) D
6) A
7) A
8) D
9) B
10) A
11) D
12) D
13) A
14) B
15) A
16) D
17) C
18) B
19) B
20) A
21) C
22) D
23) B
24) D
25) B
26) C
27) C
28) E
29) B
30) D
31) C
32) B
33) A
34) D
35) E
36) C
37) B
38) C
39) A
40) B
41) C
42) D
43) C
44) D
45) D
46) A
47) D
48) A
49) B
50) A