MCAT Science Worksook TABLE OF CONTENTS PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS .. BIOLOGY QUESTIONS AND PASSAGES ..... ‘SOLUTIONS .... ORGANIC CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS AND PASSAGES ..... we 223 ‘SOLUTIONS .... vo 269 PHYSICS QUESTIONS AND PASSAGES ..... +, 287, ‘SOLUTIONS .... GENERAL CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS AND PASSAGES ..... ee AIS, ‘SOLUTIONS ... Innpooucrionomer har renee Spear Tig Periodic Table of the Elements 1 2 H He 10 40 a | 4 s]|o6|7]s8]9 |] 10 Li | Be Bi c|N]/O]F | Ne 69 | 90 108 | 120] 140 160] 190 | 20.2 nf} 3] 1] 1s] 16] 17 | 18 Na | Mg al} si| P| s | ca] ar 230| 243 270 28.1 31.0] 32.1] 35.5 | 39.9 19 | 20] 21 | 22] 23 | 24] 25] 26] 27] 28] 29] 30] 31 | 32 | 33 | 34] 35 | 36 kK | ca] se| Tm] Vv | cr| Mn| Fe | Col Ni] Cu| zn | Ga| Ge | As | Se | Br | kr 39.1 40.1 | 45.0] 479] 50.9 | 52.0] 549] 55.8} 589] 58.7] 63.5| 654] 69.7] 726 | 749] 79.0] 79.9 | 83.8 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | so | si | 52 | 53 | 54 Rb | Sr | ¥ | ze Te | Ru | Rh | pa | ag | ca | in | So | sb | Te | 1 | Xe 855 87.6| 889] 91.2 68) | 101.1 102.9 ]106.4] 107-9 |112.4] 114.8] 118.7 ]121.8|127.6 126.9 | 131.3 3s | 56 | s7 | 72 | 73 | 74] 75 | 16 | 77 | 78] 79 | 80 | a1 | sz | 83 | 84 | 85 | 26 Cs | pa | ioe] He} Ta] W| Re| Os | tr | Pe | Au | He | TI] Pb | Bi | Po | At | Ro 132.9 ]137.3 138.9] 178.5] 180.9] 183.9] 186.2] 190.2 192.2] 195.1] 197.0]200.6] 204.4] 207.2 [209.0] 2099] @210)| (222)} a7 | 88 | 89 | 104] 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 Fr | Ra | Act | Ung| Unp | Unh | Uns | Uno| Une (223)| 226.0] 227.0] 261)| (262)} 263)] 2629] (265)] (267) 38 | 59 | 60 | o1 | 62 70 | 71 Ga | T | Dy | Ho | kr | Tm| yb | Lo Sm 140.1 }140.9] 144.2] (145) |150.4152.0]157.3 158.9 |162.5| 164.9 |167.3] 168.9] 173.0] 175.0 Fe a1 | 92 | 93 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 100 | 101 } 102 | 103, Cm | Bk | cr Fm | Ma | No | Lr Np. 232.0| (231)]238.0| (237) (244)| (243)| (247) 247)| 251)] (252)] (257)] (258)] (259)] (260)} ze 5 Be MCAT Science Worxeoox 4a BIOLOGY HyPerLeaRNING MEDICAL DIVISIONPassage 1 (Questions 1-9) Many membrane transport processes are not driven directly by the hydrolysis of ATP. Instead, they are coupled to the flow of an ion down its electrochemical gradient. For example, glucose is transported into some animal cells by the simultaneous entry of Na. Sodium ions and glucose bind to 4 specific transport protein and enter together. A protein responsible for the concerted movement of two such species is called a symport. An antiport carries two species in ‘opposite directions. The rate and extent of glucose transport depends on the Na* gradient across the plasma membrane. Sodium ions entering the cell in the company of glucose are pumped out again by the Na'/K* ATPase pump. A group of researchers wished to gain information about type of bacteria that was known to take in glucose across its cell membrane by use of a sodium-glucose cotransport ‘mechanism. The researchers conducted two experiments in which bacterial cells were placed in glucose-containing media that differed with respect to relative ion concentration and ATP content. Glycolysis was inhibited in the cells during these experiments. Experiment I: Bacterial cells with relatively low intracellular sodium concentration were placed in a glucose-rich medium that had a relatively high sodium concentration but no ATP. At regular time intervals, the medium was analyzed for glucose concentration and sodium concentration, See Figure 1. t Graph t t Graph I th Figure 1 Glucose and Na* concentrations in met (no ATP in medium) Experiment 2: Bacterial cells with relatively low intracellular sodium concentration were placed in a glucose-rich medium that had a relatively high sodium concentration and that was also rich in ATP. At regular time intervals, the medium was analyzed for glucose, sodium, and ATP concentration. See Figure 2. If radiolabeled ATP is used in this experiment, the majority of the radiolabel at the end of the experiment is found as ADP inside the cells. MCAT Science Workeook 1 Graph IIL ! Graph IV Hl HW Hu of | Graph V ell ime —— Figure 2 Glucose, Na*, and ATP concentrations in medium 1. Within animal cells, the transport of Na* out of the cell by the Na'/K+ ATPase pump involves: ‘A. symport. B. antiport. C. facilitated diffusion. D. active transport. 2, The results of Experiments 1 and 2 suggest that the cells take up glucose: A. in exchange for ATP, as long as extracellular sodium concentration remains constant. B. in exchange for sodium, as long as ATP concentration is zero, . together with sodium, as long as a favorable sodium concentration gradient is maintained. D. together with sodium, as long as extracellular ATP concentration is increasing. 3. On the basis of Experiments 1 and 2, a researcher hypothesized that all of the cells under study ultimately depend on energy to operate the sodium-glucose cotransport mechanism. Is this hypothesis reasonable? ‘A. No; Figure 1 indicates that glucose can cross the cell membrane indefinitely in the absence of exogenous energy. B. No; Figure 2 indicates that extracellular glucose and ATP concentrations are independent. C. Yes; Figure 1 indicates that a sodium gradient drives glucose transport, and Figure 2 indicates ‘that ATP maintains the sodium gradient. D. Yes; Figures 1 and 2 indicate that glucose crosses the cell membrane in exchange for phosphate.4. The results of Experiments 1 and 2 indicate that ATP promotes the cellular uptake of glucose by serving as a source of: ‘A. enzymes. B. metabolic energy. C. inorganic phosphate. D. carbohydrate. If, in Experiment 1, ATP had been added to the medium at time x, which of the following would represent the appearance of Graphs I and II? AL E Graph I Graph IT IS A z g Graph t 5 Graph It yom | C g i i D. 5 § Graph 1 § Graph It i : 2 é 6. A student postulated that the glucose transport protein must be located exclusively on the outer surface of the cell membrane. Is this hypothesis necessarily true? ‘A. Yes; transport proteins only occur on the outer surface of membranes. B. Yes; the hydrophobic tails of the lipid bilayer repel protein molecules. No; transport proteins are located exclusively on the inner surface of the lipid bilayer. D. No; transport proteins may span the entire width of the lipid bilayer. 7, According to Figure 1, as sodium concentration in the ‘medium approaches the same concentration found in the cells, glucose concentration in the medium would: ‘A. remain at its original level, because sodium concentration does not affect glucose concentration, B. increase, because less glucose is transported into the bacterial cells. C. leveloff, because a sodium gradient is not available to drive cotransport. D. approach zero, because glucose and sodium are transported together. 8. In Figure 1, if the initial Na concentration in the medium were doubled, which graph below would best depict the glucose concentration in the medium? A. c. i {| — i i {elucose]in medium {elucose] in medium Brovoay9. Based on the information in the passage, the first step in the transport of sodium and glucose into a cell is: A. binding of specific secreted proteins to sodium in the surrounding medium. B. direct hydrolysis of ATP in the cytoplasm by the sodium-glucose cotransporter. C. direct hydrolysis of ATP on the extracellular surface by the sodium-glucose cotransporter. D. binding of specific proteins in the membrane to sodium and glucose in the surrounding medium. MCAT Science Wonksoox Passage 2 (Questions 1-7) Protein synthesis occurs either on free ribosomes or ribosomes bound to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). According to the signal hypothesis, it is the growing polypeptide that cues the ribosomes to remain free or attach to the ER. Proteins targetted to the ER, Golgi, lysosomes, plasma membrane, or to be secreted contain a signal peptide of 15 or more continuous amino acids. These N-terminus signal peptides are responsible for the co-translational insertion of the growing polypeptide into the membrane of the ER. After the leading end of the protei the ER lumen, the signal peptide is cleaved by an enzyme. Proteins destined for the secretory pathway are packaged into vesicles that pinch off from the membrane of the ER and fuse with the cis end of the Golgi apparatus. Often the packaging of a protein into a transport vesicle requires the presence of a region on the protein that is recognized by a receptor in the Golgi membrane. The receptor will localize to a vesicle and help to target the vesicle to its destination. One of the best-characterized pathways of vesicular transport involves proteins destined to become lysosomal enzymes. These proteins carry a unique mannose-6-phosphate (MGP) marker that is recognized by the specific M6P receptor in the membrane of the Golgi apparatus. M6P receptors bind proteins and sequester them along one region of the Golgi membrane, facilitating their being packaged into vesicles. Once the vesicle has budded from the Golgi apparatus, it travels to the lysosome, where it fuses with the lysosomal membrane. The M6P receptor releases its bound protein when it encounters the acidic pH of the interior of the lysosome. The acidity of the lysosome also activates lysosomal enzymes. 1, Proteins that are to be secreted pass through what series, of organelles? ‘A, ER > Golgi + lysosomes — plasma membrane B. ER — Golgi ~ secretory vesicles C. cytoplasm — Golgi > ER > secretory vesicles D, ER — secretory vesicles > lysosomes 2, Where in the cell would the M6P receptor be transcribed? ‘A. Inthe nucleus B. In the cytoplasm C. In the rough ER D. Inthe Golgi3. The transport of proteins to the lysosomes requires which of the following? A. Acidic pH in the ER B. Vesicle movement from the rough ER to the Golgi C. Endocytosis D. Inhibition of signal peptidase 4. Which of the following enzymes would be expected to function well within an acidic environment? A. Signal peptidase B. Trypsin C. Pepsin D. Pancreatic lipase 5. Which of the following processes would be disrupted in acell that failed to label proteins with the MOP marker? A. Intracellular digestion of macromolecules B. Protein synthesis C. Oxidative phosphorylation D. Golgi formation 6. If a protein that is destined to become a lysosomal enzyme were synthesized without a signal peptide, in which of the following cellular regions would it ultimately reside? ‘A. The cytosol B. The cell surface C. The mitochondria D. The peroxisomes 7. The ER lumen corresponds to which of the following compartments? ‘A. The interior of the nucleus B. The cytoplasm C. The extracellular environment D. The intermembrane space in mitochondria Passage 3 (Questions 1-6) The circulation of a fetus differs in several important aspects from that of an infant after birth. First, unlike the infant’s anatomy, the fetal anatomy does not provide direct contact between the fetus and the external environment. The lungs of the fetus are collapsed and fluid- filled, and do not function in respiration. Gases are exchanged, nutritional materials are acquired, and excretion is achieved through the placenta. Within the placenta, maternal and fetal circulatory systems come into close apposition such that diffusion of materials can occur between them. Maternal blood, however, does not normally mix with fetal blood. Second, both sides of the fetal heart supply blood to the systemic circulation; hence, they work largely in parallel, rather than in series as in an infant. The pulmonary vascular resistance is higher than the systemic vascular resistance. Shunts between the left and right atria and between the great arteries permit most of the blood to bypass the lungs. Third, the fetus exists in hypoxic conditions relative to those that exist after birth. To reach the fetal blood, oxygen must diffuse through the placenta from the maternal blood which has already oxygenated a substantial portion of maternal body tissue. The blood that perfuses the fetus is about 67% saturated with oxygen. In the normal person, this is the approximate saturation of mixed venous blood returning to the lungs to be oxygenated. Blood that leaves the lungs of the normal adult is about 95% to 98% saturated with oxygen. The lowest oxygen saturation of blood in the fetal circulation ‘occurs in blood in the lower inferior vena cava. In the fetal lamb, which furnishes a good model for the study of human fetal circulation, oxygen saturation of blood in the lower inferior vena cava is 26%. Blood in the superior vena cava, which comes mostly from the head, is only 31% saturated in the human fetus The fetus has two adaptations for surviving relative hypoxia: its cellular enzymes can function at low oxygen tensions, and fetal hemoglobin can deliver oxygen to the tissues despite low levels of oxygen saturation. These special properties are lost within a few days after birth, when normal respiratory activities bes The brain of the human fetus is large relative to the rest of the body, and its supply of oxygen is very important. The fetal brain is perfused with highly-saturated blood from the left ventricle. The output of the right ventricle, which is less saturated, supplies the limbs and internal organs of the fetus. Biovoay1. At the placenta, CO, should normally: A. diffuse from the fetal side to the maternal side. B. diffuse from the maternal side to the fetal side. C._ be of equal concentration on both the maternal and fetal sides. D. be of higher concentration on the maternal side with no net diffusion between the maternal and fetal sides, 2, Some children persist in forming fetal hemoglobin for months or even years after birth. Such children would likely: ‘A. be able to withstand environments having low oxygen content. B. beable to shunt blood from the right to the left side of the heart. C. be unable to survive in the absence of an artificial oxygen supply. D. be unable to bear children, ‘A newborn infant is able to survive the loss of fetal hemoglobin within a few days after birth because the infant's: ‘A. blood continues to bypass the fluid-filled lungs. B. circulatory system is independent of the mother’ C. lungs have direct contact with oxygen in the environment. D, digestive and excretory systems become active. Ina pregnant woman with healthy lungs but impaired circulation, her fetus may be at risk of suffering birth defects because: ‘A. the placenta will show increased material perfusion. B. the fetus cannot tolerate any compromising of the blood supply to its internal organs. C. the maternal alveoli may be deficient in oxygen partial pressure, D. fetal oxygen supply depends on maternal circulation, MCAT Science Worka0ox 10 5. Blood delivered to the fetus has a lower oxygen concentration than does blood leaving the adult lung because, before it reaches the placenta, maternal blood: A, mixes with fetal blood of lower oxygen concentration, B. releases oxygen to the mother’s own tissues. C. gives up nutrients to the fetal circulation, D, must pass through the right atrium and ventricle. 6. Which of the following chambers of the fetal heart supply blood to the systemic circulatory system? ‘A. Right atrium and right ven B. Right atrium and left atrium C. Left ventricle and right ventricle D. Left ventricle and right atriumPassage 4 (Questions 1-6) ‘The selective permeability of cell membranes plays an important role in regulating the intracellular environment. Tons can be transported across cell membranes by passive, active, or facilitated processes. Tonophores are small hydrophobic molecules that dissolve in the lipid bilayer and increase its ion permeability. Most are synthesized by microorganisms, presumably as biological weapons, and some have been used as antibiotics. They have been widely employed by cell biologists to increase membrane permeability to specific ions in studies on synthetic bilayers, cells, and cell organelles. It is known that ionophores may be substance-specific. That is, a given ionophore may promote cell membrane permeability to one substance, but not to another. ‘An investigator sought to learn more about the charac of a particular ionophore termed Ionophore A. Experiment 1: Cells with relatively high internal calcium concentration and low internal magnesium concentration were placed in an ‘aqueous medium of relatively low calcium concentration and high magnesium concentration. After several seconds had elapsed, the cells’ internal ion concentrations were evaluated, and it was found that internal concentrations of calcium and magnesium had remained the Experiment 2: Experiment 2 was identical to Experiment 1 except that the cell medium was infused, also, with Ionophore A. ‘The cells’ internal ion concentrations were evaluated, and it was found that the internal concentration of calcium had remained the same but that the internal concentration of, magnesium had increased substantially. "1 1, Across which of the following cell types would the inward diffusion of water be most pronounced under normal conditions? A. Epithelial cells of the stomach B. Epithelial cells of the large intestine C. Endothelial cells of the alveolar capillaries D. Cornified cells of the skin 2, If, in Experiment I, the cells were placed in a hypotonic medium, and if the cells were petmeable to water and magnesium, then the cells would most likely have: ‘A. increased in calcium concentration to compensate for a deficit in positive charge. B. decreased in magnesium concentration by expelling magnesium ions. C, decreased in size by losing both calcium and ‘magnesium ions. D. decreased in size by losing water passively along a concentration gradient. 3. A graduate student suggested that a neuron at resting potential might be induced to undergo an action potential by exposure to a sodium-specific ionophore. Is this a reasonable hypothesis? ‘A. Yes, the ionophore would excite a threshold reaction in the neuron’s Schwann cells. Yes, an action potential occurs when threshold depolarization causes voltage-gated channels to open. C. No, an action potential requires a reduced permeability to sodium ions. D. No, an action potential is triggered by active transport of sodium along the myelin sheath. 4, If, in either Experiment 1 or Experiment 2, the cells had decreased their internal concentration of magnesium, it would indicate that they had undergone a process in which: A. ATP had been converted to ADP. B. Ca* entered the cell C. carbohydrates had been synthesized. D, voltage-gated ion channels had opened. Biowoay5. The results of Experiments 1 and 2 would most justify the researcher’s conclusion that: A. Ionophore A would not furnish a useful antibiotic. B. Ionophore A is specific to positively-charged ions, since it altered sodium permeability but not ‘magnesium permeability. C. ionophores facilitate movementonly in accordance with existing concentration gradients, D. in order to be effective, ionophores require the active assistance of the cell's sodium-potassium pump. IF a given cell were persistently engaged in active transport, its cytoplasm would most likely be rich in: A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum. B. lysosomes. C. centrioles. D. mitochondria, MCAT Science Wonks0ox 12 Questions 1 through 11 are NOT based on a descriptive passage. 4, The ri All of the following are key processes in the production of energy in the mitochondrion EXCEPT: A. glycolysis. B. the citric acid cycle. C. electron transport. D. oxidative phosphorylation. When it is time to breed, salmon travel from saltwater, in which they are hypotonic, to freshwater, in which they are hypertonic. They maintain solute balance by reversing their osmoregulatory machinery when moving between the two environments. Failure to reverse this, ‘machinery when moving to theirbreeding grounds would ‘most likely result in: ‘A, death, as cells became too concentrated to carry ‘out normal metabolism. B. death, as cells underwent lysis due to water influx. improved metabolic activity, as enzyme concentrations increased. D. no change, because movement from a hypertoni to a hypotonic medium does not present osmotic challenges. A hormone is discovered that rapidly accumulates inside renal cells in the absence of endocytosis when administered to mice intravenously. The hormone is most likely a: A. polypeptide. B. steroid, C. second messenger. D. neurotransmitter of guanine-cytosine (G-C) pairs to adenine~ thymine (A~T) pairs is useful in laboratory manipulation of double-stranded DNA. If a segment of DNA has a low G-C : A~T ratio, it would be reasonable to assume that this segment would: A. contain more guanine than cytosine. B. contain more adenine than thymine. C. require more energy to separate the two DNA strands than would a comparable segment of DNA. having a high G-C : A-T ratio. D. require less energy to separate the two DNA strands than would a comparable segment of DNA having a high G-C : A-T ratio.5. What organelle would be most closely associated with exocytosis of newly synthesized secretory protein? ‘A. Lysosomes B. Golgi apparatus C. Peroxisomes D. Ribosomes It is known that the developing frog embryo requires greater protein production than the adult organism. If cells from a developing frog embryo and from a mature frog were examined, would the investigator find the greater rate of translation in cells of the embryo or of the adult? A, Embryo, because a developing organism requires ‘a higher rate of translation than does an adult B, Embryo, because ribosomal production is not yet under regulatory control by DNA. C. Adult, because ribosomal production is more efficient in a mature organism D. Adult, because a mature organism has more complex metabolic requirements Colchicine is a compound which interferes with the formation of microtubules. Which of the following would be affected LEAST by the administration of colchicine? A. Mitotic spindles B, Flagellae C. Organelle movement D. Amoeboid motility of cells Clathrin,a substance that aggregates on the cytoplasmic side of cell membranes, is responsible for the coordinated pinching off of membrane in receptor- mediated endocytosis. A lipid-soluble toxin that inactivates clathrin would be associated with: A. reduced delivery of polypeptide hormones to endosomes. B. increased secretion of hormone into the extracellular fluid. C. increased protein production on the rough endoplasmic reticulum. D. an increase in ATP consumption. 13 9. In Kartagener’s syndrome, defective dynein is produced 10. ML. causing a paralysis of microtubule-based movement of flagellae and cilia. One could expect to find all of the following outcomes EXCEPT: male infertility. ectopic pregnancy in women. chronic lung infections. failure to ovulate in women. If erythrocytes are placed into a hypertonic solution, they hemolyze. remain the same. swell up. shrivel. ‘A.codon is a segment of an mRNA molecule that codes for one amino acid in a polypeptide chain formed during protein synthesis. Which of the following correctly describes the chain of events that occurs in the synthesis of a polypeptide? ‘A. Specific RNA codons cause amino acids to line up in a specific order; RNA anticodons attach to mRNA codons; rRNA codons cause protein molecules to cleave into specific amino acids. DNA generates mRNA in the nucleus; mRNA moves to the cytoplasm and attaches to a tRNA anticodon; an operon regulates the sequence of events that causes amino acids to line up in their appropriate order. C. DNA generates tRNA; the tRNA anticodon attaches to the mRNA codon in the cytoplasm; tRNA is carried by mRNA to the ribosomes, causing amino acids to join together in a specific order. D. DNA generates mRNA; mRNA moves to the ribosomes, where a tRNA anticodon binds to an mRNA codon, causing amino acids to join together in their appropriate order. BiowoeyPassage 5 (Questions 1-8) The pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) produces ribose- S-phosphate from glucose-6-phosphate, and generates NADPH, which is used by the cell in biosynthetic pathways (such as fatty acid biosynthesis) as a reducing agent. Ribose- S-phosphate is converted to 5-phosphoribosyl-1- pyrophosphate (PRPP) by the enzyme ribose phosphate Pyrophosphokinase. PRPP is an essential precursor in the biosynthesis of all nucleotides. Ribose phosphate pyrophosphokinase is inhibited by high levels of both purine or pyrimidine nucleotides. The committed step in purine nucleotide synthesis is catalyzed by the enzyme amidophosphoribosyl transferase, which uses glutamine and PRPP as substrates. This enzyme is inhibited by AMP and GMP and is activated by high concentrations of PRPP. An intermediate in purine biosynthesis is inosine monophosphate (IMP). The conversion of IMP to AMP is inhibited by AMP, and the conversion of IMP to GMP is inhibited by GMP. An essential precursor in pyrimidine biosynthesis is carbamoyl phopshate, which is generated by the enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthase. This enzyme is inhibited by UTP and activated by ATP and PRPP. The production of CTP from UTP is inhibited by CTP. De em pee mae aco opie one ap? | PoPbornhoknase ee eee A tesabe cee | some — ie 3b \ phosphate cr —S— ue — memes? MCAT Science Worxsook 14 1. The reaction of glucose-6-phosphate to ribulose-5- Phosphate is a(n): A. carboxylation of G6P. B. reduction of G6P. C. oxidation of GOP. D. isomerization of G6P. 2. Synthesis of which of the following are subject to end ‘A. ATP and GTP only B. UTP and CTP only C. ATP, GTP, and CTP only D. ATP, GTP, CTP, and UTP 3. The presence of high concentrations of ATP stimulates production of: A. ribose-5-phosphate. B. pyrimidines. C. purines. 4. Which of the following is the balanced equation for the conversion of 1 mole of glucose-6-phosphate (G6P) into PRPP? A, G6P + ATP —> PRPP + AMP B. G6P+H,0+2NADP > PRPP + CO, +2 NADPH +H C. G6P +H,0 + 2NADP + ATP > PRPP + CO, + AMP +2 NADPH +2 Ht G6P + H,O +2 NADP’ + ATP > PRPP + glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate + F6P + CO,+ AMP +2 NADPH +2 Ht 5. Which of the following result(s) from the pentose phosphate pathway? I. Production of NADPH II. Production of glycolytic intermediates Production of ribose-5-phosphate A. Tonly B. only C. Tand IM only D. 1,1, and IILAccording to the diagram, which of the following are reactants for the production of purines? AL B. c D. Glutamine and PRPP only Carbamoyl phosphate and PRPP only Glutamine, carbamoyl phosphate, and PRPP only Glutamine, CO,, ATP, and PREP only 7, Which of the following is/are true of the pentose phosphate pathway? I. It is more active in adipose tissue than muscle. Il. NADPH is produced and can be used to generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation. IIL. It is a series of isomerizations of six carbon sugars. A. Tonly B. [and Il only . Iand If only D. I, Mand ut 8 It can be inferred from the passage that TTP is made from: I, glutamine. II, carbamoyl phosphat ML, intermedi IV. intermedi Monly B. Land I only Land II only D. 1, I, and IV only 15 Passage 6 (Questions 1-7) ‘The cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells is composed of three elements: microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments. Microtubules are hollow tubes composed of tubulin af heterodimers and are the largest of the three cytoskeletal structures. They function in cell structure, ‘movement of cilia and flagella, transportation of organelles, and sister chromatid separation during mitosis. They are anchored to the microtubule organizing center, which contains the centrioles. Microfilaments are fibrous polymers of the globular protein actin which are essential for amoeboid motility, cell-cell adhesion, and contractile processes. The function of microtubules and microfilaments in the eukaryotic cell depends on a dynamic equilibrium between monomeric and polymerized forms of the proteins. Microtubules and microfilaments are constantly depolymerizing and repolymerizing, and it is thought that this is the mechanism whereby they mediate motility, for example in the extension of a pseudopod due to formation of long actin polymers. The following experiment was conducted to study the functions of microtubules and microfilaments in eukaryotic cells: Three groups of cultured cells were placed in media containing all necessary growth requirements. To Group A, nothing was added. To Groups B and C, the drugs cytochalasin and vinblastine, respectively, were added. Cells were observed over time for changes in morphology and function, The results are summarized below: Group | Drug Effect A | None ‘5% of cells in mitosis at any one time: ‘normal morphology/function B_ || Cytochalasin] Cells arested in cytokinesis; inhibition of amoeboid motility | Vinblastine | Cells arrested in metaphase of mitosis; no effect on amoeboid motility 1. If mitosis takes one hour, what is the total cell cycle time for these cells? A. Shours B. 10 hours CC. 20 hours D. 50 hours Biowoey2. The drug cytochalasin affects: microtubules. B. microfilaments. both microfilaments and microtubules. Cannot be determined from the information given 3. Which of the following accurately describes the role of 5, cytoskeletal proteins in mitosis? I. Microtubules known as polar fibers radiate from the centrioles to connect with kinetochore fibers, also composed of microtubules, emanating from the centromere. Ii. Contraction of microtubules is responsible for formation of the cleavage furrow during anaphase. IIL. After recombination between homologous chromosomes, homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles by microtubules. A. Lonly B. Land Il only €. Land I only D. 1,11, and Ir A researcher stains actin of cells in interphase with a fluorescent anti-actin antibody. As scen under the microscope, the fluorescence would be: seen as two star-shaped structures near the nucleus. B. uniformly dispersed throughout the cell, giving it an even color. concentrated in the cytoplasm. concentrated solely inside the nucleus. Arresearcher studies the effect of phalloidin, a chemical that prevents actin depolymerization. Which of the following is a likely effect of phalloidin? AL B. c D. Inhibition of organelle movement within the cell Inhibition of mitotic spindle formation Inhibition of protein synthe Cessation of amoeboid movement MCAT Science WorKs0ox 16 6. Which of the following is NOT true of eukaryotic flagella? ‘A. They are structurally identical to prokaryotic flagella, B. They are cytoplasmic extensions with a 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules. C. ATP hydrolysis is required for their movement. D. They are similar in structure to cilia. 7. Which of the following best describes the cells of Group C as viewed under the microscope? A B. A set of chromosomes can be seen at either end of the cells; no nuclear envelope is visible. Chromosomes are aligned in the middle of the cell; no nuclear envelope is visible. ‘The chromosomes are partially thickened, and the nuclear envelope is partially disintegrated. No chromosomes are visible, and the nuclear envelope is fully intact.Passage 7 (Questions 1-7) ing cukaryotic cells pass through a regular sequence of growth and division, known as the cell cyele. The cycle consists of four major phases: mitosis, G1, S, and G2. GI is a period of general growth and replication of cytoplasmi organelles and proteins. Inthe S phase, chromosomal material is replicated, and in the G2 phase the structures associated with mitosis are assembled. See Figure 1. Call Division cyoknesis o> Figure 1 ‘The duration of the cell cycle varies from one species to another, and from one cell type to another. The Gl phase varies the most. For example, embryonic cells can pass through the G1 phase so quickly that it hardly exists. On the other hand, differentiated skeletal muscle cells and nerve cells are arrested in the cell cycle and normally do not divide, Two experiments were conducted to determine the causes of Gland G2 arrest. Experiment 1 The nucleus of a cell in the S phase is removed, and the nucleus of a cell in Gl arrest is transplanted into the enucleated cell in S phase. The transplanted nucleus soon becomes activated itself and enters the S phase. Experiment 2 A cell in G2 arrest is fused with a mitotic cell. The nucleus originally in G2 arrest promptly shows signs of entering mitosis. ‘sped rom Billa Selence by Wiliam Keeton west, Gold 1946 by WW. 7 1. In Experiment 1, the substance in control of GI arrest must be present: ‘A. in the nucleus. B. someplace within the cell, but a more specific location cannot be determined from this experiment. C. outside the cell wall the cytoplasm. 2. In Experiment 2, the first sign of mitosis would be: A. the formation of nuclear membranes. B. the disappearance of the nuclear membrane. C. condensing of the chromosomes. D, splitting of the centromeres. 3. Mitosis occurs in which of the following human cell types? I, Primary spermatocyte II, Bone marrow cells TIL. Mature erythrocytes A. Ionly B. Land Il only C. [and IM only D. 1,11, and IIT 4, Interphase corresponds to which phase of the cell cycle? A. S phase B. Mitosis C. Gi plus S plus G2 D. Cytokinesis 5. Which of the following meiotic characteristics does mitosis share? ‘A. Crossing over occurs between paired homologues before they separate into two different nuclei. B. It occurs only in diploid cells. C. Each cell divides twice, produci cells. D. Replication of chromosomes occurs prior to prophase, 1g a total of four Biowoay6. Chloroplasts and mitochondria have their own chromo- somes. The genomes of chloroplasts and mitochondria must replicate during: A. the S phase. B. the G1 phase. C. mitosis. D. cytokinesis. 7. Which of the following gives the correct ordet of the phases of mitosis? A, Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase B. Prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase C. Anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase D. Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase MCAT Science Wonxaook 18Passage 8 (Questions 1-8) The Na‘/K* ATPase found in the plasma membrane of cells throughout the body pumps Ne out of cells and K* into cells, using the energy of ATP hydrolysis to drive the transport of these ions against concentration gradients. Hydrolysis of one ATP to ADP + P drives the transport of 3 Na‘ out of the cell and 2 K+ into the cell at the same time. ‘The Na‘/K* ATPase consists of a catalytic transmembrane subunit with a molecular weight of 100,000 daltons and an associated 45,000-dalton glycoprotein. ‘The ATP hydrolysis which fuels the pump can account for a significant fraction of a cell’s energy usage, as great as 70% of the energy needs of cells that transmit action potentials. The plasma membrane is impermeable to the passive diffusion of sodium and potassium ions. However, animal cells have potassium ion leak channels that allow potassium ions to diffuse down a concentration gradient out of the cell ‘The more potassium that diffuses out of the cell, the greater the negative charge remaining in the cellular interior. When the negative transmembrane potential becomes large enough to counterbalance the K* concentration gradient and halt the net flow of K* ions, the transmembrane electric potential is the resting membrane potenial The resting membrane potential plays a key role in propagating action potentials. During an action potential, the resting membrane potential helps to drive sodium movement into the cell and depolarize the membrane. After depolarization, the Na‘/K* ATPase and potassium leak channels help to re-establish the resting membrane potential. ‘The Na‘/K* ATPase is also important in other processes, such as balancing the osmotic pressure in the cell with the extracellular environment. The cell contains many ‘macromolecular ions such as nucleic acids and proteins. The net movement of ions out of the cell created by the Na'/K* ATPase ensures that the osmotic pressure within the cell created by these ions is not greater than the extracellular ‘osmotic pressure. The concentration gradient of sodium created by the Na‘/K* ATPase is also used to drive several different transmembrane transport processes. In the small intestine, for example, the absorption of glucose into the intestinal epithelium against a gradient is driven by cotransport of sodium down a concentration gradient 19 1, Treatment of cells with ouabain, an inhibitor of the Nat/K* ATPase, causes cells to swell and burst. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this? ‘A. Ovabain prevents proteins from leaving the cell. B. The movement of sodium ions out of the cell is decreased by ouabain, €. The movement of potassium ions into the cell is increased by ouabain, D, Ouabain also opens potassium leak channels. 2. A drug that blocks the passage of potassium ions through potassium leak channels would be most likely to have what effect on the electric potential across the plasma membrane? ‘A. The resting membrane potential would become more negative in the cellular interior relative to the extracellular environment. The resting membrane potential would become less negative in the cellular interior relative to the extracellular environment. C. The resting membrane potential would become positive in the cellular interior relative to the extracellular environment. D. The drug would have no effect on membrane potential 3. The membrane-spanning regions of the ATPase would most likely consist of amino acids with side groups that I. hydrophobic. Il. basic. IIT. nonpolar. ‘A. Monly B. [and II only . Land IIT only D. 1,10, and IL Biotoay4, In isolated membrane-bound vesicles composed of plasma membrane from human cells, the Na‘/K* ATPase can synthesize ATP if the concentration of ions is manipulated. Ifthe exterior vesicle surface is equivalent to the exterior surface of the plasma membrane, which of the following conditions will result in ATP production rather than ATP hydrolysis? ‘A. Increased ADP in the exterior and increased ATP in the interior of the vesicle, with high sodium and potassium both inside and outside of the vesicle Decreased ADP in the exterior and decreased ATP in the interior of the vesicle, with high sodium and potassium both inside and outside of the vesicle C. Increased K* in the exterior and increased Na in the interior of the vesicle, with ADP and P high both inside and outside of the vesicle D. Increased K: in the interior and increased Nat in the exterior of the vesicle, with ADP and P high both inside and outside of the vesicle 5. The membrane density of the ATPase complex can be measured experimentally by the binding of a radio- labeled compound. The largest signal would be expected to come from: A. bone marrow. B. nerve cells. C. epithelial celts. D, skin cells. 6 In the generation of the resting membrane potential, high concentrations of lithium, cesium, rubidium, or thallium can substitute for potassium outside the cell, but they cannot substitute for sodium inside the cell. This suggests which of the following concerning the Nat/K* ATPase? ‘A. Theinternal ion specific for sodium. B. The external ion binding site is specific for potassium. €. The Na*/K* ATPase is poisoned by those ions. D. The Na‘/K* ATPase performs @ transporting a wide variety of po: MCAT Science Wonksoox 20 7. Linking ATP hydrolysis to Na’ and K* transport affects ion transport in which of the following ways? A. The equilibrium and AG for Na’ and K+ transport, are altered. B. The equilibrium for Nat and Kt transport are not affected, but AG is made negative. C. The equilibrium for Nat and K+ transport are altered, but AG remains unchanged. D. Neither the equilibrium nor AG for Na‘ and K* transport is affected, 8. If a single Na‘/K* ATPase were inserted into an astificial membrane impermeable to all ions, with high concentrations of ATP, Na’, and K* on both sides of the ‘membrane, which of the following would result? L. Substantial ATP hydrolysis on both sides of the membrane I. Substantial ATP hydrolysis on only one side of the membrane, with accumulation of potassium on the opposite side TIL. Substantial ATP hydrolysis on only one side of the membrane, with accumulation of sodium on the opposite side A. Lonly B. Ionly C. Uonly D. and Il onlyPassage 9 (Questions 1-8) Lipid bilayer membranes are impermeable to passive diffusion by ions such as chloride (CI), sodium (Nat), and potassium (K+). To diffuse across the plasma membrane, ions travel through transmembrane proteins that act as ion channels. Each type of ion channel allows specifi diffuse through the membrane down a concentration, The frequency and duration of ion-channel opening are regulated in different receptors in several different ways. YVoltage-gated ion channels open and close in response to alterations in the electric potential across the plasma ‘membrane. Ligand-gated ion channels open in response to the binding of small molecules on the extracellular surface of, the protein. Mechanical stimuli can also trigger the opening of ion channels. For example, stretch-activated channels ‘open in response to stretching of the cell and plasma membrane. Other ion channels, such as potassium leak channels, are always open. ‘The net flux of ions across a plasma membrane is related to the concentration gradient of ion across the membrane and to the electrical gradient across the membrane. The net flux of ions is also related to a membrane permeability constant. ‘The permeability constant describes the ability of ions to traverse the membrane in a particular state of closing and ‘opening of ion channels. Fora given electrochemical gradient, the number of ions crossing a membrane through a single channel depends on how frequently the channel opens and how long the channel stays open each time. The surface area, of the membrane is also an important determinant in ion flux, but only when the membrane is significantly permeable to ‘The movement of ions across a plasma membrane can be analyzed by the placement of microelectrodes into the cytoplasm of cells to measure changes in voltage across the membrane. In an experiment, the voltage across a section of ‘membrane was measured either in the absence of drug (Figure 1A) of with the same section of membrane in the presence of Drug B (Figure 1B) or Drug C (Figure 1C). The increased movement of ions across the membrane in response to the ‘opening of ion channels is indicated by empty boxes, and the closing of ion channels is indicated by filled boxes. at A. Control Ml Closed 5 Open Bm a ‘Movement of ions —> Tie—$—_—_——> B. More frequent opening ‘Movement of ions > . Longer open interval = Movement of ions —= Time > Figure 1 1. The difference between Figure 1A and Figure 1B would best support which of the following conclusions? A, Net flux of ions is greater in Figure 1B than in Figure 1A. B. The transmembrane potential is more negative in the cytoplasm in Figure 1A than in Figure 1B. C. The membrane has more ion channels in Figure 1B. than in Figure 1A. D. The membrane has more inhibitory ion channels in Figure 1A than in Figure 1B. Biotosy2. The concentration of K* on one side of a membrane populated by potassium leak channels is 1 mM and 10 mM on the other side. Which of the following will increase net potassium ion flux across the membrane? L. Increasing the K* concentration on one side of the membrane from 10 mMf to 11 mM IL, Increasing the K* concentration on both sides of the membrane by 10 mM IIL, Increasing the density of potassium leak channels in the membrane A. Ilonly B. Tand Il only C. Land Il only D. Mand IM only 3. Most animal cells have approximately 27 times more chloride in the extracellular fluid than in the cytoplasm. If the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron is, populated with ligand-gated chloride ion channels which open in response to binding of GABA (aminobutyric acid), which of the following will occur upon release of GABA into the synaptic cleft? A. The CI concentration in the cytoplasm of the postsynaptic cell will decrease. B, Thenumber of GABA receptors in the postsynaptic ‘membrane will increase. C. The postsynaptic membrane will be hyperpolarized. D. Net ion flux across the presynaptic memrane will increase, 4, Due to the presence of protein channels, ions such as Na’, K*, CI", and Ca’ diffuse across plasma membranes, at rates that are much faster than would be predicted from: ‘A. the fact that they are nonpolar. B. concentration differences across the membrane. C. their very low solubility in lipids. D, net ion flux. 5. The flow of sodium ions down a concentration gradient across a lipid bilayer membrane is an indication of which of the following? ‘A. Simple diffusion B. Facilitated diffusion C. Osmosis D. Active transport MCAT Science WoaKs0ok 6. Which observation would be the best evidence that active transport was responsible for moving a particular substance into a cell? A. An inverse relationship between the amount of substance taken in and oxygen uptake B. A transmembrane protein is required for the substance to cross the plasma membrane. C. Equal concentrations inside and outside the cell D. Acorrelation between the amount of the substance taken in and ATP hydrolysis The following is a graph of the change in concentration over time of Substance X as it diffuses across the plasma membrane of a cel ~ ‘Concentration —e Intracellular ‘ime—~ This curve suggests that: A. the plasma membrane is permeable to this substance. B. this cell is regulating the influx of Substance X. C. efflux is slow at first, and increases over time. D. proteins required for Substance X transport are inactivated with increasing time. Neurons often possess acetylcholine-gated sodium channels. Ifthe flow of sodium across the membrane of ‘a neuron is not altered by the presence of acetylcholine, which of the following is the best explanation? ‘A, The neuron has a different lipid composition in its plasma membrane. B. The gene for the acetylcholine-gated ion channel contains a premature stop codon. C. The cytoplasm of the neuron contains acetyl- choline. D. Sodium is present at a higher concentration in the extracellular environment than in the neuron’s cytoplasm.Passage 10 (Questions 1-8) Cancer cells are recognized by their ability to escape normal regulation of cell division, proliferating out of control, and often invading local tissues or metastasizing to distant locations. Most cancers are thought to originate from a single cell which has undergone a change in its genetic sequence. However, many cancers require two genetic aberrations. In these cases a defect in the genome is thought to predispose the cell to malignant transformation, which then takes place only after further genetic disturbance. Tumor progression, whereby a benign tumor becomes a malignant ‘one, is accelerated by mutagenic agents (tumor initiators) and nonmutagenic agents (tumor promoters). Both types of agents affect gene expression, stimulate cell proliferation, and alter the balance of mutant and nonmutant cells. The following tables show the relative risks (RR) of tobacco and alcohol use for cancer of the endolarynx, epilarynx, and hypopharynx. A relative risk greater than 1.0 indicates increased risk relative to a control group. [eR or esr Tac Cred | Endure | Eaten | Hypertens Lo | wo [| w | a | as | a 5 as_| 67 | a ies | us| uo | 190 ase zo | sa] 200 on | w | 1 | 10 aia | oss | on? | 157 ago | 10 | uss | as 81-120 im | _510 559 tate 20 [10s 1s Tablet 23 Table 2: Combined Btfect of Alcohol & Tobacco on RR 8 Alcohol Number of Cigarettes per day perday | 07 | sas | 1625 | 26+ Endolarynx 10 zo | 9 | 150 28 83 tet | 187 43 289 63 425 pa | a7 | 9 ao | 339 | 344 six0 | 29 | sao | m6 | 76 121+ 4s2__| us3_| 168.2 | 1705 1. Based on the passage, tobacco and alcoho! would be classified as: A. tumor initiators. B. tumor promoters. CC. mutagens. D. Cannot be determined from the inform: ion given 2. The direct role of tumor initiators is to cause: ‘A. changes in the DNA sequence of a cell. B. noncancerous cells to become cancerous. C. changes in the metastatic potential of a cell. D. tumors to develop in normal tissue. 3, The likelihood of cancer in a person consuming 21-40 giday of alcohol, compared to the likelihood in a nondrinker, is: A, decreased for endolarynx, epilarynx, and hypopharynx. B. decreased for endolarynx and epilarynx, but increased for the hypopharynx. . decreased for endolarynx, but increased for epilarynx and hypopharynx. D. increased for endolarynx, epilarynx, and hypopharynx. Biotoay4. Upon which site does tobacco have the greatest adverse effect? A. Endolarynx B. Epilarynx C. Hypopharynx D, All three sites are equally affected. 5. Overall, the combined effects of tobacco and alcohol on the relative risk for cancer are: A. additive. B. multiplicative. C. independent of each other. D. mutually antagonistic because alcohol lowers the risk produced by tobacco consum| 6. Which of the following may be seen in cancerous cells? L nL. m1. Changes in the cell cycle Changes in gene expression Ability to respond to hormonal control Tand I only Tand If only Hand IIT only 1, 0, and M11 7, What is the relative risk for developing cancer of the epilarynx in an individual who smokes 8-15 cigarettes per day and drinks more than 121 g of alcohol per day (compared to a nonsmoking, nondrinker)? AD 67 B. 106 Cc. 18.7 D. 118.3 8. Each of the following could cause cancer EXCEPT: ‘A. a mutation in the gene coding for a cell surface receptor. a mutation in the gene coding for a steroid receptor. an error in translation of a cell-surface receptor. deletion of the gene coding for a receptor’s regulatory subunit. B. c D. MCAT Science Worxsoox 24 Passage 11 (Questions 1-7) The eggs of sea urchins and amphibians have two mechanisms that prevent polyspermy during fertilization, the fast block and the slow block. When the cell membranes of the egg and sperm fuse, sodium channels in the egg cell membrane open, and depolarization results. This depolarization prevents other sperm from entering. It is known as the fast block because it ‘occurs very rapidly and also because the depolarization lasts less than a minute. However, the effects of the depolarization have permanent results. These are due to ion fluxes that are caused by the initial depolarization. First, the depolarization leads to an influx of Ca™. This, in turn, causes the cortical granules to release proteolytic enzymes, which destroy bindin receptors in the vitelline layer. The bindin receptors are the cell surface proteins to which sperm attach, using the acrosomal protein bindin. Other proteins exocytosed by the cortical granules crosslink proteins in the vitelline layer, hardening it, and cause the vitelline layer to move away from the plasma membrane of the egg. These permanent changes prevent other sperm from entering the egg, and constitute the slow block to polyspermy. The second ion flux which results from the initial depolarization is an exit of protons. A N¢-H' exchanger in the plasma membrane exports one proton for each sodium ion it imports. Alkalinization of the egg cytoplasm results. The increase in pH is thought to be responsible for activation of, protein synthesis and initiation of DNA replication in the egg. Drugs known to interfere with translation block initial protein synthesis in fertilized eggs, but inhibitors of transcription do not. 1. Where are the bindin receptors located in sea urchin eggs? A, Vitelline layer B. Jelly coat C. Cortical granules D. Perivitelline space 2. Primary oocytes are found at what stage of meiosis? A. Interphase B. Meiotic prophase 1 C. Meiotic anaphase I D. Meiotic prophase IT3. Which of the following might result from fertilization 7. Which of the following hormones stimulate(s) in @ medium that had an abnormally low Nat spermatogenesis in humans? concentration? L LH I. Polyspermy IL FSH II. Failure of bindin receptors to be degraded ILL, Testosterone TIL. Alkalinization of the cytoplasm of the fertilized ovum A. Ilonly B. Tand IIf only A. Tonly C, and Il only B. Ilonly D. 1,11, and IT C. Tand I only D. Iland III only 4. What would be the effect of artificially depolarizing the plasma membrane of an unfertilized egg? A. Polyspermy B. Inhibition of fertilization C. Inhibition of postfertilization protein synthesis D. Adherence of the vitelline layer to the plasma membrane 5. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about postfertilization events in the sea urchin egg? ‘A. Messenger RNA coding for proteins which are normally made after fertilization is synthesized before fertilization occurs. B. Special ribosomes are used for initial post- fertilization protein synthesis. C, RNA polymerases are in place at the initiation sites for transcription of the mRNA for initial postfertilization proteins before fertilization ‘occurs, and immediately begin transcribing when the fertilized egg becomes alkalinized. D. Ribosomes are not used in the synthesis of i post-fertilization proteins. 6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the acrosomal reaction that occurs in sperm of sea urchins during fertilization? ‘A. Actin is polymerized to create an acrosomal process in the sperm. B. Hydrolytic enzymes are released that digest the jelly coat C. ‘Specific proteins are exposed that can bind receptors on the egg. D. Itis mediated by a decrease in intracellular pH and Ca* concentration 25 BiowosyPassage 12 (Questions 1-8) Bacterial glycolysis involves the oxidation of simple sugars, resulting in a net production of ATP. Aerobic bacteria generate further ATP in a process similar to that which ‘occurs on the electron transport chain along the mitochondrial membrane in animal cells. Anaerobic bacteria use some of the ATP derived from glycolysis to establish a transmembrane proton-motive force that drives a variety of cellular functions. Both systems are illustrated in Figure 1. (A) Aerobic conditions respiratory chain z ATP yntetse i Ap +(P) are | ees rine W Iyine rents Nat. far ca Mette (B) Anaerobic conditions Nar syntease Figure 1 MCAT Science WoaKsook 26 Vibrio alginolyticus is an alkali-tolerant marine bacterium with an internal salt concentration less than that of its normal surrounding medium. In studying the activity of various transport systems in V. alginolyticus, researchers devised the following experiment: One batch of V. alginolyticus was grown in a sodium-free environment, enriched with radiolabeled lysine, while another batch was exposed to both hypertonic sodium and radiolabeled lysine. ‘The bacteria were removed from the media and then analyzed for radioactivity. The researchers discovered that the uptake of basic amino acids by V. alginolyticus is dependent on the activity of the cation-driven transport mechanism shown in Figure 2. Only the bacteria grown in a sodium-enriched environment took up the labeled lysine, re Figure 2 1. Any conclusions derived from the experiment are justified only with the assumption that the radioactive labeling technique: A. increases the uptake of neutral amino acids. B. does not affect the transport mechanism. C. decreases the uptake of aspartate. D, increases the rate of acidic amino acid uptake. 2 None of the following in the passage EXCEPT: supported by the information ‘A. aerobes only import hydrogen ions, while strict anaerobes must import and export hydrogen ions. anaerobes have an ATP synthetase that is only active when bound to a phosphate group, whereas aerobic ATP synthetase is active when it loses a phosphate group. anaerobic ATP synthetase functions identically to aerobic ATP synthetase, but anaerobes lack a fully functioning respiratory chain. aerobes establish a proton gradient to generate ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate, while anaerobes hydrolyze ATP to generate a proton gradient. B.3. One of the necessary components of bacterial glycolysis. 7, For the aerobic bacteria depicted in Figure 1, which of is: the following will occur if the pH of the medium is lowered slightly by the addition of lactic acid? ‘A. molecular oxygen. B. lactic acid. A. ATP synthesis will decrease. C. NAD’ B. The bacteria will switch to anaerobic ATP D. sodium chloride. production. C. The rate of lactose import will increase D. Electron transport and ATP production will be uncoupled. 4, In Figure 1, the tertiary structure of the hydrophilic sodium-hydrogen transport channel would best accommodate which of the following substances? 8. A student transported specimens of V. alginolyricus A. Anions from their original habitat to a basin of fresh water. B. Cations With reference to their surrounding medium, they: C. Phosphoric acids D, Neutral compounds ‘A. changed from hypertonic to hypotonic. B. changed from hypotonic to hypertonic. C. changed from isotonic to hypotonic. 5, Inthe experiment, ifthe researchers had replaced sodium D. remained isotonic in both environments. with magnesium, they most probably would have found: ‘A. substantially decreased lysine uptake in the two samples of bacteria, B. substantially greater uptake of lysine in the sodium- free portion. C. enhanced flagellar movement in the magnesium- enriched sample. D. enhanced uptake of aspartate and glutamate. 6. If no radiolabel is found inside cells at the end of the experiment measuring lysine import in. alginolyticus, then which of the following can be concluded? ‘A.V. alginolyticus are aerobic bacteria. B. V. alginolyticus produce ATP strictly anaero- bically. €. ATPis required in the medium for lysine import. D. The Nat gradient is insufficient to drive lysine import. 27 BiotoayPassage 13 (Questions 1-8) The genus Chlamydomonas consists of unicellular green algae that undergo both sexual and asexual reproduction. In sexual reproduction, the diploid form divides to form haploid gametes, which can later fuse to form a diploid zygote. In asexual reproduction, a mature haploid cell divides to form two haploid cells. Chlamydomonas is sensitive to certain mutagens found in the natural environment. Experiment 1 Chlamydomonas colonies were treated with a mutagen, and then transferred by velveteen pad toeither arich-medium plate or a plate lacking either histidine or phenylalanine. The number of colonies was counted on all three plates. Figure 1 illustrates the results of using such a replica plating technique for mutagen-exposed Chlamydomonas. | (223) Master Pe 2S) (strain ,) Coe) (eit tn Active mutagen, Phenylalanine-lacking _Histidine-lacking ‘medium ‘medium Figure 1 MCAT Science Worksoox 28 Experiment 2 A zygote form of the original, unmutated organism was, induced to undergo meiosis, and the resulting haploid form ‘was fused with a haploid mutant that could not synthesize phenylalanine (Phe"). ‘The new zygote survived plating on 4 phenylalanine-lacking medium. Experiment 3 A Phe" haploid was mated with the haploid mutant that could not produce histidine (His). The resulting zygote survived plating on both a phenylalanine-lacking medium and ahistidine-lacking medium. The zygote was then induced to undergo meiosis and replated back onto the rich-medium plate. The resulting Phe” and His” haploids established colonies in a ratio of 44:56 (Phe: His"). 1. If the mutagen caused changes in the structure of DNA, which base would be LEAST useful in locating the mutation? A. Radiolabeled thymine B. Radiolabeled uracil C. Radiolabeled adenine D. Radiolabeled cytosine ‘The phenotypic effects of the mutations, illustrated in Figure 1, most likely resulted from the cessation of: DNA synthesis. FRNA synthesis. mRNA synthesis. protein synthesis. 3. Which reasoning supports the conclusion that colonies surviving the histidine-poor medium incurred different mutations than phenylalanine-deprived survivors? A. When haploid survivors from each plate fuse to form a zygote, this diploid thrives on both media. B, Phe” haploids grow ata similar rate to His haploids. When fused with unmutated haploids, haploid survivors fail to grow. His” haploids produce more colonies than haploids on rich agar.4 5. How can one determine whether unmutated Chlamy- domonas haploids can produce phenylalanine? A. By radiolabeling for FRNA B. By fusing with other unmutated Chlamydomonas haploids ._ By fusing with Phe" haploids on histidine-lacking medium D. By plating on phenylalanine-lacking nutrient agar From the experiment illustrated in Figure 1, a researcher concluded that normal-type Chlamydomonas is able to produce both phenylalanine and histidine. What assumption must be true to establish the validity of this conclusion? A. The control plate colonies produced greater quantities of both amino acids. B. The Chlamydomonas cells incurred no mutations prior to plating on the master plate. C. The colonies grown on different minimal media were roughly equal in number. D. The mutagen-affected colonies were lacking in cither phenylalanine or histidine. In Experiment 2, a new zygote was produced as a result of: A. sexual reproduction. B. asexual reproduction. C. fission D. budding. Which of the following observations would NOT identify sexual reproduction in Chlamydomonas? A. Analignment ofhomologous chromosome pairs on the spindle B. An intact centromere at anaphase C. A separation of homologous pairs of chromosomes D. DNA replication in a haploid cell 8. The growth of colonies on rich-medium plates indicates that: A mutated cells require both histidine and phenylalanine in their medium. mutated cells can synthesize all necessary amino acids. all cells are capable of growing if supplied with the necessary amino acids. cells grow more rapidly if supplied with rich medi BiovoayPassage 14 (Questions 1-9) Some bacteria are pathogens which synthesize toxic substances that give rise to a variety of disease symptoms. For example, certain strains of bacteria cause food poisoning. Acommon opportunistic organism is Staphylococcus aureus, a Gram-positive cocci. §. aureus differs from some other bacteria in that it causes illness by producing enterotoxins. ‘The symptoms associated with food poisoning are vomiting and diarrhea, To identify the organism a test was conducted using the laboratory procedure below: 1. Throat cultures are sampled with lab swabs. 2. Vessels of Robertson’s cooked-meat medium containing 7 to 10 mg NaCl were inoculated with the swab contents and incubated overnight. 3. The inoculate is plated on blood agar. 4, The plates are examined to determine if there was partial or complete decolorization of red corpuscles that would indicate red blood cell lysis. 1. The appearance of S. aureus can best be described as: A. spiral. B. rodlike. C. spherical. D. asymmetrical. 2. S. aureusbacteria generally possess the enzymes citrate synthase and pyruvate dehydrogenase. The organism can grow in the presence or absence of free oxygen. S. aureus can be classified as: I. an obligate aerobe. Ii. an obligate anaerobe. IIL. a facultative anaerobe. A. Tonly B. Ilonly C. Land III only D. and IM only 3. The symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea are mostly the results of: ‘A. the proliferation of bacterial growth, B. the action of the enterotoxin. C. cytoplasmic streaming. D. infection of the oral cavity. MCAT Science Workbook 30 4. When pathogens invade tissues, they trigger an inflammatory response which dilates blood vessels. This leads to: A. a decrease in body temperature. B. a decrease in the number of phagocytic cells. C. an increase in oxygen in the capillaries. D. an increase in fluids entering the tissues. 5. Based on the symptom of diarthea, the effect on the digestive system is most likely: A. oversecretion of water into the large and small imestine. B. lack of water resorption in the stomach. C. lack of pancreatic secretion. D. lack of parasympathetic stimulation. 6. The delay between ingestion of food and food poisoning ‘would most likely be the result of the time required for: A. the bacteria to produce significant levels of enterotoxin. B. the bacterial cell walls to lyse. C. digestion of the food D. Gram-positive bacteria to reach the stomach. Which of the following enzymes begins the digestion of the carbohydrates in contaminated food? A. Pepsin B. Trypsin C. Lipase D. Amylase 8. Which of the following assumptions could justify Steps 3 and 4 of the procedure in searching for. aureus? A. S. aureus requites blood agar for incubation B.S. aureus requires blood agar for reproduction. C. S. aureus produces an enterotoxin. D. S. aureus produces hemolysis.9. Which graph below would most likely depict the population growth of S. aureus cultured from individ- uals affected by food poisoning? AL 3 population —— poptlation —— ime population — population — me ‘ime 31 Passage 15 (Questions 1-6) Mammalian nerve cells have on their outer surface a subtype of glutamate receptors called the N-methyl-D- aspartate (NMDA) receptor. The NMDA receptor binds glutamate, an amino acid neurotransmitter, which ultimately results in the inward flow of calcium ions. ‘The NMDA receptor has been studied by exposing nerve cells to ischemic conditions (a diminished flow of blood) which result in localized brain damage. The affected neurons demonstrate depleted energy reserves with decreased internal stores of ATP. Energy-driven Na/K*-ATPase enzymes located in the cell membrane begin to fail. If the ischemic conditions continue, the neuronal cell membrane depolarizes, providing an excitatory stimulus for the release of excessive amounts of glutamate. Other nerve cells in close proximity experience sustained binding of glutamate to NMDA receptor sites, which can lead to further cell membrane depolarization. Experiment | Cultured nerve cells were stimulated to threshold depolarization while exposed to normal or decreased oxygen concentrations. Differing concentrations of extracellular calcium or glutamate antagonists were also established. Intracellular calcium levels were measured after five minutes. The results of this experiment are listed belo’ Extracellular environment Oxygen | Glutamate | Calcium | Intracellular antagonists calcium i - - N L - H 1 L + = N L + H N H S = N H 5 H N H + = N H + H N Key: L= low concentration, H = high concentration += present, ~ = absent N= normal, 1 = increase Table 1 Experiment 2: Several cultured neurons were bathed in a solution containing high concentrations of calcium, sodium, and chloride ions, but not oxygen. An action potential was evoked in the cells, and then internal ion levels were measured every five minutes. Intracellular levels of both calcium and sodium were elevated, and the cells experienced marked swelling, BiotoayBased on these two experiments, researchers have proposed that the initial effects of activation of the NMDA receptor can be modeled as follows: Net ca ms cet tipi $f Hf Giuamate Ff Gg 2 os oon | ah i \ ion “i SBS ita al ore 1. Flow of calcium into cells is essential to which of the following processes? A. Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels B. Propagation of action potentials in motor neuron axons Cardiac muscle contraction ATP hydrolysis, c D. . In the increased biosynthesis of neurotransmitter receptors, activity of the rough endoplasmic reticulum increases because: ‘A. the cell is undergoing the process of exocytosis. B. itis the primary site of complex lipid synthesis. C. itis the primary site of plasma membrane protein synthesis. D. the formation of transmembrane microtubules must precede ion transport. A student speculated that glutamate is responsible for excitatory stimulation of skeletal muscle at the neuromuscular junction. Is this hypothesis reasonable? No; the excitatory neurotransmitter at this junction s acetylcholine. B. No; glutamate receptors only occur on nerve cells and smooth muscle. C. Yes; the NMDA receptor allows inward movement of calcium which elicits microfilament cross- bridging. Yes; glutamate binding to its receptor can allow both Ca and Nat to enter the cell. MCAT Science Wonksook 32 4 5. That portion of the lipid bilayer cell membrane that lies nearest to the interior of a eukaryotic cell is best described as hydrophilic. hydrophobic. nonpolar. insoluble. Based on the results of Experiment 1, which neuronal cell component would be most immediately affected by calcium entrance? ‘A. The mitochondrion, which will show increased rates of oxidative phosphorylation in the presence of ischemia B. The lysosome, which is involved in endocytosis and the entry of foreign substances into the cell RNA polymerase, an enzyme involved in DNA replication which is degraded in the presence of high levels of calcium Calmodulin, a regulatory protein that increases the activity of cellular enzymes after binding calcium If glutamate is the only neurotransmitter that can bind to the NMDA receptor to increase inward flow of calcium, which of the following would account for the lack of calcium flow in the presence of ischemia, extracellular calcium and glutamate antagonists? ‘An excess of glutamate extracellular matrix, supplied in the B. Other glutamate receptor subtypes inhibit the flow of calcium into the cell. C. The antagonists prevent binding between glutamate and the receptor. D. Ischemic conditions increase exocytosis of the NMDA receptor.Passage 16 (Questions 1-7) In oxidative metabolism, mitochondria produce energy by using acetyl-CoA to ultimately fuel the conversion of ADPto ATP. The processes employed in cellular respiration are called the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. ‘The citric acid cycle, also known asthe Krebs cycle, generates high-energy electrons using acetyl-CoA which is derived from the end product of glycolysis. The citric acid cycle is presented in Figure 1. cons ga oD coe eT =a \ Pome ‘Re nao rao)? £01 mS cxkeuhaie ‘ fone co Sein TE Reaction step | Enzyme T ‘Cite synthetase 2 ‘Aconitase 3 ‘Acoritase a Teocitrate dehydrogenase 3 ‘a= Keogltaate dehydrogenase complex 6 ‘Succinyl-CoA synthetase 7 ‘Succinate dehydrogenase 8 Fumarase 3 Malate dehydrogenare Figure 1 A study was conducted to determine the nature of the enzyme attack on a symmetrical molecule in the citric acid cycle: + Radioactive labeling was applied to the carboxyl carbon more distant from the keto group of oxaloacetate. The labeled oxaloacetate was added to cell extract including the necessary enzymes and cofactors of the citric acid cycle. + The intermediates of the citric acid cycle were then isolated and examined for the presence of radioactive labeling Radioactive labeling persisted in citrate, isocitrate, and a-ketoglutarate but disappeared entirely in the formation of, succinate, as shown in Reaction 1: Reaction 1 The CO, molecule was discovered to be labeled with 100% of the “C. [Note: (*) represents radioactive carbon. 1. Based on Reaction 1, an important interpretation of the ‘experimental results is that th A. two symmetrical halves of the citrate molecule were acted upon equally by aconitase. - two symmetrical halves of the citrate molecule were not acted upon equally by aconitase. C. arketoglutarate decarboxylation was the rate- limiting step in the reaction a-ketoglutarate > succinate. D. a-ketoglutarate was acted upon by the asymmetrical enzyme succinate dehydrogenase. 2, With reference to Figure 1, what is the net reaction of the citric acid cycle per glucose? A. Acetyl-CoA + 3NAD* + FAD + GDP + P, + 2H,0 > 2CO, + 3NADH + FADE, + 2GTP + 2H + CoA. 2Acetyl-CoA + 6NAD* + 2FAD + 2GDP + 2P, + 4H,0 > 4CO, + 6NADH + 2FADH, + 2GTP + 4H +2CoA, €. Acetyl-CoA + 6NAD' + 2FAD + 2GDP+P,+H,0 CO, + 6NADH + 2FADH, + 2GTP +2H"+ CoA D. Acetyl-CoA + 3NAD" + FAD + GDP + P, + H,0 > 2CO, + 3NADH + FADH, + GTP + 3H" 3. If,inan aerobic organism, the Krebs cycle were suddenly arrested while glycolysis proceeded, the cell would most likely experience an increase in: A. energy consumption. B. number of cytochromes. C. quantity of lactic acid. D. quantity of ATP. Biovoay4, With reference to Figure 1, what types of reactions ‘occurred to yield a-Ketoglutarate from isocitrate? AL B. c. D. Substrate-level phosphorylation and hydration Decarboxylation and hydration of NADH Decarboxylation and oxidation of NADH Decarboxylation and reduction of NAD* 5. The fact that all of the radioactive carbon was found in the released CO, and none had remained in succinate was an important experimental finding. Given the symmetrical nature of the citrate metabolite, what alternative outcome might a scientist assume to find? ‘A. 75% of the labeling in the CO, and 25% of the labeling in the succinate B. 25% of the labeling in the CO, and 75% of the labeling in the succinate C. 100% of the labeling in the succinate D. 50% of the labeling in the CO, and 50% of the labeling in the succinate 6. In order to study the mechanism by which pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA, the enzyme responsible for the conversion had to be located. It would most likely bbe found in the: A. cytosol of the cell. B. plasma membrane. C, endoplasmic reticulum. D. matrix of the mitochondria. 7. Aconitase is able to approach citrate in a specific orientation which differentiates between citrate’s CH,COO™ groups. Which of the following is true concerning the citrate molecule? L. Itis symmetrical. Ii, It lacks a chiral center, IIL. Itis optically inactive. Tonly Tand I only T and III only 1,1, and IIT MCAT Science WoaKe00k 34 Passage 17 (Questions 1-5) clinician wished to determine the etiology of apatient’s urinary tract infection. To differentiate between the presence of the Gram-negative, facultative anaerobic bacill Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae, the following procedures can be used: 1, Add test organism to a 1% tryptophan broth containing sodium chloride and distilled water. 2. Incubate the culture at 35° C for 18 to 24 hours. 3. Apply 15 drops of Ehrlich’s reagent containing p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde to the walls of the test container. 4, The presence of a bright red color atthe interface of the reagent and broth indicates the presence of indole, a metabolite of tryptophan. An alternative method uses Kovac’s reagent instead of Ehrlich's reagent, but the results are similar since they contain the same active chem For rapid spot tests, filter paper strips impregnated with Kovac’s reagent can be used. 1. Both E. coli and K. pneumoniae are classified as prokaryotic organisms in part because of the lack of which of the following subcellular structures? A. Ribosome B, Flagellum C. Cell wall D. Nucleus 2. If E, coli is incubated under aerobic conditions, how many molecules of ATP would be produced upon the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose? A. B. Cc. D. 34 36 38 40