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MCQ on Carbohydrates
4. Carbohydrates are
a) polyhydroxy aldehydes and phenols
b) polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones
c) polyhydroxy ketones and phenols
d) polyhydroxy phenols and alcohols
8. Carbohydrates accounts
a) 30% in plants and 20% in animals
b) 30% in plants and 10% in animals
c) 30% in plants and 1% in animals
d) 50% in plants and 50% in animals
13. Sucrose is a
a) monosaccharide
b) disaccharide
c) polysaccharide
d) triose
a) -1-4 linkage
b) -1-2 linkage
c) -1-4 linkage
d) -1-2 linkage
Answers
1-d
2-c
3-a
4-b
5-a
6-a
7-a
8-c
9-d
10-a
11-a
12-c
13-b
14-b
15-d
16-c
17-a
18-a
19-c
20-b
MCQ on Biochemistry - Lipids
Answers:
1- a
2-d
3-d
4-c
5-a
6-d
7-b
8-c
9-a
10-a
11-d
12-d
13-d
14-a
15-d
4. Peptide bond is
a) rigid with partial double bond character
b) planar, covalent
c) covalent
d) all of the above
5. Enzymes are
a) proteins
b) carbohydrates
c) nucleic acids
d) DNA molecule
7. A dipeptide has
a) 2 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
b) 2 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
c) 2 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
d) 2 amino acids and 4 peptide bonds
9. Myoglobin is a
a) protein with primary structure
b) protein with secondary structure
c) protein with tertiary structure
d) protein with quaternery structure
10. Fibrous protein such as silk fibroin consists of polypeptide chains arranged in
a) -helix
b) -pleated sheet
c) -helix
d) none of these
a) primary structure
b) secondary structure
c) tertiary structure
d) quaternery structure
Answers
1-b
2-a
3-a
4-d
5-a
6-c
7-a
8-a
9-c
10-b
11-b
12-d
13-d
14-a
15-c
4. In hemoglobin, the transition from T state to R state (low to high affinity) is triggered by:
a) Fe2+ binding.
b) heme binding.
c) oxygen binding.
d) subunit association.
5. Which of the following is not correct concerning cooperative binding of a ligand to a protein?
a) It is usually a form of allosteric interaction.
b) It is usually associated with proteins with multiple subunits.
c) It rarely occurs in enzymes.
d) It results in a nonlinear Hill Plot.
6. The fundamental cause of sickle-cell disease is a change in the structure of:
a) blood.
b) capillaries.
c) hemoglobin.
d) red cells.
7. The proteins of the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) bind and display:
a) antigen fragments.
b) B cell fragments.
c) immunoglobin fragments.
d) macrophage fragments.
8. A monoclonal antibody differs from a polyclonal antibody in that monoclonal antibodies:
a) are labeled with chemicals that can be visualized.
b) are produced by cells from the same organism that produced the antigen.
c) are synthesized by a population of identical, or cloned, cells.
d) are synthesized only in living organisms.
Learn more:
Multiple Choice Questions on Proteins
Multiple Choice Questions on Protein Purification Methods
Multiple Choice Questions on Protein Structure
Answers
1. d) permanently associated with the protein.
2. A) hyperbolic.
3. d) very similar tertiary structures, but different primary structures
4. c) oxygen binding.
5. c) It rarely occurs in enzymes.
6. c) hemoglobin.
7. a) antigen fragments.
8. c) are synthesized by a population of identical, or cloned, cells.
9. b) an a helix.
10. B) conformation of myosin.
3. The strongest evidence that DNA is the genetic material comes from
a) The finding DNA is not present in the cytoplasm
b) The fact that chromosome are made of DNA
c) Studies of Bacterial transformation
d) The knowledge that DNA is present in the nucleus
4. Who among the following scientists developed cytochemical technique for the detection of
DNA?
a) Feulgen and Rossenbeck
b) Watson and Crick
c) Beadle and Tatum
d) Knoll and Ruska
5. Which of the following scientists demonstrated that DNA A=T and G=C?
a) Griffth
b) Meselson and Stahl
c) Hershey and Chase
d) Chargaff
a) Light microscope
b) Electron microscope
c) X-Ray crystallography
d) Ultracentrifuge
Answers
1. d) Altmann
5. d) Chargaff
6. a) A+G / T+C
7. b) Basic Fuchsin
8. d) both b and c
9. c) 3
1. A nucleoside is composed of
a) a base+ a sugar
b) a base+ a sugar+ phosphate
c) a base+ a phosphate
d) none of these
2. Genetic mutation occurs in
a) Protein
b) RNA
c) DNA
d) Nucleus
3. DNA is present in
a) nucleus only
b) nucleus, mitochondria and ER
c) nucleus, mitochondria and choloroplast
d) nucleus, mitochondria and RER
6. Chromatin is composed of
a) nucleic acids and protein
b) nucleic acids only
c) proteins only
d) none of these
Nucleotide in DNA
a) triose
b) tetrose
c) pentose
d) hexose
15. A short length of DNA molecule has 80 thymine and 80 guanine bases. The total number of
nucleotide in the DNA fragment is
a) 160
b) 40
c) 320
d) 640
Answers
1-a
2-c
3-c
4-d
5-b
6-a
7-b
8-b
9-b
10-c
11-c
12-d
13-c
14-b
15-c
2. RNA is
RNA
a) Single stranded
b) Double stranded
c) Triple stranded
d) Both a and b
7. Which of the following RNA serves as adaptor molecule during protein synthesis
a) rRNA
b) mRNA
c) tRNA
d) hnRNA
8. rRNA is synthesised in
a) nucleus
b) Cytoplasm
c) RER
d) Nucleolus
9. cDNA is
a) complementary to mRNA
b) complementary to rRNA
c) complementary to tRNA
d) complementary to hnRNA
14. Which of the virus has double stranded RNA as genetic material?
a) Tobacco mosaic virus
b) Influenza virus
c) Rous Sarcoma virus
d) Reoviruses
Answers
1-d
2-a
3-b
4-a
5-d
6-a
7-c
8-d
9-a
10-a
11-b
12-b
13-a
14-d
15-b
MCQ on Enzymes
1. Enzymes are
a) Carbohydrate
b) RNA
c) Proteins
d) Fats
2. The term enzymes are coined by
a) Pasteur
b) Buchner
c) Urey Miller
d) Kuhne
3. The fastest enzymes is
a) Pepsin
b) Carbonic unhydrase
c) DNA gyrase
d) DNA polymerase
4. Fat is hydrolysed by the enzyme known as
a) Trypsin
b) Lipase
c) pepsin
d) Amylase
5. The term apoenzyme is applicable to
a) Simple enzyme
b) Protein part of conjugate enzyme
c) Organic cofactor of a conjugate enzyme
d) Inorganic cofactor of a conjugate enzyme
6. Enzymes
a) Do not require activation energy
b) Do not change requirement of activation energy
c) Increase requirement of activation energy
d) Lowest requirement of activation energy
7. Zymogen is
a) Enzyme poison
b) Enzyme modulator
c) Enzyme precursor
d) Enzyme inhibitor
a) Fischer
b) Koshland
c) Kuhne
d) Arrhenius
13. Trypsin are active in
a) Acidic
b) Alkaline
c) neutral
d) None of these
14. Koshlands theory of enzyme action is known as
a) holoenzymes
b)apoenzymes
c) isoenzymes
d) coenzymes
18. Which factor is responsible for inhibition enzymatic process during feed back?
a) Enzymes
b) End product
c) Temperature
d) Substrate
19. Which one of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?
a) Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to a
inhibitor protein
b) Non Competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
c) Non competitive efficiency inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
d) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site
on the enzyme
20. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the
a) Formation of the product
b) Km value
c) Molecular size of the enzymes
d) pH of optimum value
21. The nuclease enzyme, which begins its attack from free of a polynucleotide, is
a) Polymerase
b) kinase
c) exonclease
d) endonuclease
22. The enzymes enterokinase helps in the conversion of
a) Caseinogens into casein
b) Trypsinogen into trypsin
c) Pepsigenogen into pepsin
d) proteins into polypeptides
23. Which of the following is a typical example feedback inhibition?
a) Cyanide and cytochrome reaction
b) Sulpha drugs and folic acid synthesizer bacteria
c) allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose- 6 -phosphate
d) Reaction between succinic dehydrogenase and succinic acid
24. Some of the enzymes, which are associated in converting fats into carbohydrates, are present
in
a) liposomes
b) golgi bodies
c) glyoxysomes
d) microsomes
25. In which one of the following enzymes, is copper necessarily associated as an activator?
a) tyrosinase
b) Lactic dehydrogenase
c) Carbonic unhydrase
d) Trypsinase
Learn more
MCQ on Enzymes
Multiple Choice Question on Enzyme inhibition
Answers
16. a) Bromelin and Papain
17. c) isoenzymes
18. b) End product
19. d) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active
site on the enzyme
20. b) Km value
21. c) exonclease
22. b) Trypsinogen into trypsin
23. c) allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose- 6 -phosphate
24. c) glyoxysomes
25. d) Trypsinase
27. Any molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to lower its catalytic rate is called
a) Regulator
b) Repressor
c) Inhibitor
d) Moderator
28. Which of the following statements are true regarding enzyme inhibition?
a) It may be reversible or irreversible
b) Reversible can be competitive or non-competitive
c) both a and b
d) it is always reversible
29. Succinate is the substrate for succinate dehydrogenase that converts succinate to fumarate. In
the presence of reversible competitive inhibitor like malonate in place of succinate, the enzymes
31. A reversible non-competitive inhibitor binds reversibly at a site other than the active site. This
binding lead to
Learn More:
Multiple Choice Question on Enzymes
Multiple Choice Question on Enzymes
Multiple Choice Question on Protein Function
Multiple Choice Question on Protein Purification
Answers:
26. d) all of these
27. c) Inhibitor
28. c) both a and b
29. a) Km increases and Vmax remains the same
30. d) Ser or Cys residues at or near the active site
31. c) decrease in Vmax and Km remains constant
32. d) all of these
33. b) increasing the substrate concentration
34. c) reversible non-competitive inhibition
35. c) Proteins and rarely ribonucleic acids
a) G1 phase
b) G2 phase
c) Metaphase
d) S phase
3. Amitosis is the usual process of cell division in
a) Meristematic cells
b) Prokaryotic cells
c) Eukaryotic cells
d) Spore mother cells
4. During synapsis the number of thread (Chromonemata) in each chromosome is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) Many
5. Homologous chromosomes are
a) Cancer
b) New organ
c) Zygote
d) Gastrula
7. Synapsis is characteristic of
a) Leptotene
b) Diplotene
c) Zygotene
d) Pachytene
8. The mechanism ensuring genetic continuity in mitosis is
a) Having of chromosome number between the two new cells
b) Formation of cells with 8 chromosomes
c) Formation of two daughter cells
d) Formation of two cells with identical kind of DNA
9. During meiosis crossing over occurs at
a) Diplotene
b) leptotene
c) Pachytene
d) Diakinesis
10. How many generations of mitotic division must occur in a cell of root tip to form 256 cells?
a) 8
b) 32
c) 64
d) 128
Answers:
b) Only in diploid individuals
d) S phase
b) Prokaryotic cells
a) 2
c) Those which pair during synapsis
a) Cancer
c) Zygotene
d) Formation of two cells with identical kind of DNA
a) Diplotene
a) 8
Learn more: MCQ on Cell Cycle
a) vegetative cells
b) meristematic cells
c) conductive cells
d) reproductive cells
3. Meiosis I is reductional division. Meiosis II is equational division due to
a) Crossing over
b) Separation of chromatids
c) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
d) Disjunction of homologous chromosomes
4. Meiosis II performs
a) Separation of sex chromosomes
b) Synthesis of DNA and centromere
c) Separation of homologous chromosomes
d) Separation of chromatids
5. Segregation of Mendelian factor (Aa) occurs during
a) Diplotene
b) Zygotene/ Pachytene
c) Anaphase I
d) Anaphase II
6. Synapsis occurs between
a) mRNA and ribosomes
b) Spindle fibres and cetromere
c) a male and a female gamete
d) Two homologous chromosomes
7. In Meiosis, the daughter cells differ from parent cell as well as amongst themselves due to
a) Segregation, independent assortment and crossing over
b) Segregation and crossing over
c) Independent assortment and crossing over
d) Segregation and independent assortment
8. During which stage of prophase I of the crossing over takes place ?
a) Leptotene
b) Pachytene
c) Zygotene
d) Diplotene
9. Continuous variations are attributed to
a) Polyploidy
b) Mutation
c) Crossing over
d) Chromosomal aberrations
10. When parental and maternal chromosomes change their materials with each other in cell
division this event called
a) synapsis
b) Crossing over
c) Dyad forming
d) Bivalent forming
Learn more
MCQ on Cell Cycle
Practice Test on Cell Cycle, Mitosis and Meiosis (Set 1)
Practice Test on Cell Cycle, Mitosis and Meiosis (Set 2)
Answers
1. d) Genetic recombination are possible from generation to generation
2. d) reproductive cells
3. b) Separation of chromatids
4. d) Separation of chromatids
5. c) Anaphase I
6. d) Two homologous chromosomes
7. a) Segregation, independent assortment and crossing over
8. b) Pachytene
9. c) Crossing over
10. b) Crossing over