TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Which among the following statements about the Cold War is wrong?
() It was a competition between the US and Soviet Union and their respective allies.
(b) It was an ideological war between the superpowers.
(c) It triggered off an arms race.
(d) The US and USSR were engaged in direct wars.
Answer: (d) The US and USSR were engaged in direct wars.

Q2. Which among the following statements does not reflect the objectives of NAM?
(a) Enabling newly decolonised countries to pursue independent policies.
(b) No to joining any military alliances.
(c) Following a policy of neutrality on global issues.
(d) Focus on elimination of global economic inequalities.
Answer: (c) Following a policy of neutrality on global issues.

Q3. Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements that describe the
features ol Tliitary alliances formed by the superpowers.
(a) Member countries of the alliance are to provide bases in their respective lands for
superpowers.
(b) Member countries to support the superpower both in terms of ideology and military strategy.
(c) When a nation attacks any member country, it is considered as an attack on all the member
countries.
(d) Superpowers assist all the member countries to develop their own nuclear weapons.
Answer: (a) True (6) True (c) True (d) False

Q4. Here is a list of countries. Write against each of these blocs they belonged to during
the Cold War.
Answer:
(a) PolandEastern Alliance (Warsaw Pact)
(b) FranceWestern Alliance (NATO)
(c) JapanWestern Alliance (NATO)
(d) NigeriaNAM
(e) North KoreaEastern Alliance (Warsaw Pact)
(f) Sri LankaNAM

Q5. The Cold War produced an arms race as well as arms control. What were the reasons
for both these development?
Answer: The Cold War produced an arms race as well as arms control:
1. Cuban Missile Crisis engaged both of them (superpowers) in the development of nuclear
weapons to influence the world.
2. US dropped nuclear bombs on the cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki with the intention to stop
Soviet Union from making military and political gains in Asia.
3. Both the powers were not ready to initiate a war because they knew that destruction from
these will not justify any gain for them.
4. Both the powers were to be rational and responsible being restraint and avoiding risk of
another World War to ensure human survival.
5. Hence, both the superpowers decided to limiting certain kinds of nuclear and non-nuclear
weapons by signing various significant agreements within a decade i.e. Limited Test Ban
Treaty, Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty, Anti Ballistic Missile Treaty etc.

Q6. Why did the superpowers have military alliances with smaller countries? Give three
reasons.
Answer: Superpowers had military alliances with smaller states who were helpful for them in
gaining access to:
1. Vital resources as oil and minerals.
2. Territory from where the superpowers could launch their weapons and troops.
3. Locations from where they could spy on each other.
4. Economic support to pay their military expenses.

Q7. Sometimes it is said that the Cold War was a simple struggle for power and that
ideology had nothing to do with it. Do
you agree with this? Give one example to support your position.
Answer: Yes, the Cold War was a simple struggle for power and that ideology had nothing to
do with it because:
1. The Cold War led to several shooting wars but this did not lead to another World War.
2. Despite direct confrontations in Korea (1950-53), Berlin (1958-62), the Congo (early 1960s),
neither alliance system crossed certain limits.
3. Many lives have been lost in some of the arenas like Korea, Vietnam and Afghanistan but
World War spread a nuclear war or global hostilities.

Q8. What was Indias foreign policy towards the USandUSSR during the Cold War era?
Do you think that this policy helped Indias interests?
Answer: Indias foreign policy towards the US and USSR was two fold:
1. Took particular care in staging away from the two alliances.
2. Raised voice against the newly decolonised countries becoming part of these alliances.
3. Moreover, India tried to reduce the differences and rivalries between these alliances from
escalating into a full scale war.
Yes, this policy served Indias interests also:
1. Non-alignment allowed India to take international decisions that served Indias interests rather
than interests of superpowers and its allies.
2. India maintained a balance between two superpowers as if India felt ignored by one
superpower it could tilt towards other superpowers.
3. Neither the alliance could take India for granted.

Q9. NAM was considered a third option by third world countries! How did this option
benefit their growth during the peak of the Cold War?
Answer: Non-alignment offered newly decolonised countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America,
a third optionnot to join either alliance. A majority of NAM members was categorised as the
Least Development Countries (LDCs), to be developed more economically not to remain
dependent on richer countries. A new International Economic Order (NIEO) originated with this
realisation. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) brought out
a report in 1972 entitled towards a New Trade Policy for Development which proposed a reform
of global trading system:
1. LDCs got control over their own natural resources which were being exploited by developed
western countries.
2. To make western market available for LDCs to make trade more beneficial.
3. To reduce cost of-technology from western countries.
4. To provide LDCs with a greater role in international economic institutions.

Q10. What do you th nk about the statement that NAM has bdcoPie irrelevant today? Give
reasons to support your opinion.
Or
What is the relevance of non-aligned movement after the end of Cold War?
Answer: By the mid 1970s, NAM had become an economic pressure group and by late 1980s,
the NIEO initiative had faded due to stiff competition from developed countries who acted as a
united group while non-aligned countries struggled to maintain their unity in face of this
opposition. Non-alignment both as an international movement and as a core of Indias foreign
policy lost some of its earlier relevance. Though non-alignment contained some core values and
enduring ideas. It was based on a recognition that decolonised states shared a historical
affiliation and can become powerful force if they come together, as very small and poor
countries need not to become follower of any big powers instead they could persue an
independent foreign policy also.
In nutshell, it can be concluded that NAM has not lost its relevance. It has stood test of adverse
circumstances. It has served an important purpose of protecting and preserving interests of third
world countries.

Very Short Answer Type Questions[1 Mark]

Q1. Why was the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation also called Western Alliance?
Answer: The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation was an association of twelve states. All these
states belonged to western Europe. Therefore, this association was also called Western
Alliance.

Q2. Name the two superpowers responsible for Cold War. When did the world become
unipolar?
Answer: The US and USSR were responsible for Cold War. The world became unipolar in 1991
after disintegration of USSR.

Q3. What does USSR stand for?

Answer: Union of Soviet Socialist Republic.

Q4. When did NATO and WARSAW PACT come into existence?
Answer: NATOApril 1949
WARSAW PACT1955

Q5. Mention the period of first and second World Wars.

Answer: First World War: 1914-1918
Second World 1939-1945

Q6. What is meant b; .old War?

Answer: Cold War is a state of extreme unfriendliness existing between two superpowers
especially with opposing political system which expresses itself not through fighting but through
political pressures and threats.
Q7. Non-alignment does not imply neutrality or equidistance. What does this
statement mean?
Answer: Neutrality refers to a policy of staying out of war and not to help end a war. Non-
aligned states including India worked to prevent wars and rivalries between others.

Q8. What was deterrence relationship between superpowers?

Answer: Deterrence relationship refers that both sides have the capacity to retaliate against an
attack and to cause so much destruction that neither can afford to initiate war.

Q9. How did superpowers maintain arms- control?

Answer: Superpowers maintained arms control by signing significant agreements within a
decade as Limited Test Ban Treaty, Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty, Anti- Ballistic Missile
Treaty and hold several rounds of arms limitation talks.

Q10. What do you understand by Least Developed Countries?

Answer: Majority of NAM members were categorised as Least Developed Countries (LDCs) to
be more developed economically and to lift their people out of poverty.

Q11. What was the difference in the ideology of Western Alliances and that of Eastern
Alliances?
Answer: The Western Alliance headed by the US represented ideology of liberal democracy
and capitalism while the eastern alliance headed by Soviet Union committed to socialism and
communism.

Q12. What was Indias policy of Nonalignment?

Answer: Indias policy of Non-alignment was not a policy offleeing away instead India was in
favour of actively intervening in world affairs to soften Cold War rivalries and prevented
differences from escalating into a full scale war.

Q13. Why did India not join either of the two camps during the Cold War?
Answer: India did not join either of the two camps during the Cold War because India played an
active role in mediating between the two rival alliances for the sake of peace and stability. Their
strength was based on unity of NAM members and their resolve to remain non-aligned despite
the attempts and made by two superpowers to bring them into their alliances.

Q14. How were the military alliances beneficial to smaller nations during the Cold War?
Answer: Smaller nations got the promise of protection, weapons and economic aid against their
local and regional rivals. A state was supposed to remain tied to its protective superpowers to
unite influence of other superpower and its allies.

Q15. Name any two foreign leaders alongwith the countries they belonged to, who are
recognised as the founders of NAM.
Answer: Yugoslavias Josip Broz Tito; Egypts leader Gamal Abdel Nasser.

Q16. What was Limited Test Ban Treaty (LTBT)?

Answer: It was arms control treaty between superpowers. It banned nuclear weapon tests in
the atmosphere, in outer space and under water. It was signed by the US, UK and USSR in
Moscow on 5 August, 1963. It entered into force on 10 October, 1963.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. What is meant by the Cuba Missile Crisis?

Answer: Cuba was an ally of the Soviet Union and received both diplomatic and financial aid
from it. In 1962, Soviet Union placed nuclear missiles in Cuba to convert it into a Russian base.
This move fired the US. It ordered American warships to intercept any Soviet ships heading to
Cuba as a way of warning the USSR of its seriousness. A clash seemed imminent in what came
to be known as the Cuban Missile Crisis.

Q2. What was the main objective of New International Economic Order?
Answer: The main objective of NSEO was to develop more to Least (Economic)
Developed countries of NAM and to lift them out of poverty by their sustainable development.

Q3. Mention two military features of the Cold War.

Answer: 1. Cold War divided the world into two divisions namely Western and Eastern alliances
as well as SEATO and CENTO.
2. Mad arms race had taken to manu-facture atom-bomb and nuclear weapons by Super
Powers of the world.

Q4. Explain Eastern and Western alliance during Cold war.

Answer: 1. Cold War gave birth to Eastern Alliance known as Warsaw Pact headed by Soviet
Union in 1955 with the principal function to counter NATOs forces.
2. Cold War created Western Alliance known as NATO in April 1949 by association of twelve
states. Its policy was that an armed attack on any one of them would be regarded as an attack
on all of them and everybody would be obliged to help each other.

Q5. When did NATO come into existence? How many states joined it?
Answer: NATO came into existence in April 1949 and twelve sca+ joined it.

Q6. Name any two t,rms control treaties signed between two superpowers in 1960s.
Answer: 1. Limited Test Ban Treaty (5 August, 1963)
2. Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (1 July, 1960)

Q7. Name two leaders who played crucial role in Cuban Missile Crisis.
Answer: 1. Nikita KhrushchevLeader of Soviet Union
2. John F. KennedyUS President

Q8. Explain any four objectives on Non- aligned Movement.

Answer: 1. NAM aimed at an end of colonisation and freedom to all nations.
2. NAM promoted and maintained international peace and security.
3. NAM aimed at removal of disparity among developed, poor and very small countries.
4. NAM aimed at promotion of New International Economic Order to encourage cooperation
among nations.
Q9. Mention any four important events which took place during Cuban Missile Crisis.
Answer: 1. In 1962, USSR installed Missiles in Cuba with intention to convert it into Russian
base.
2. America became aware of it and as a warning ordered American warship to intercept Soviet
ships moving to Cuba.
3. The US was feared of developing nuclear weapons on part of the USSR to challenge
supremacy of the US.
4. The Cuban Crisis divided the world into two power blocs to expand their own spheres of
influence in the world.

Q10. Who was the key leader of NAM who tried to reduce the Cold War conflicts?
Answer: Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru was the key leader of NAM who played a crucial role in
mediating between two Koreas. Nehru appealed for reduction of Cold War conflicts and the
establishment of world peace and security through co-operative disarmament.

Q11. Why were most of the countries categorised as Least Developed Countries?
Answer:1. The economic development of these countries was very low.
2. They were dependent on richer countries for their sustainable development.
3. Their natural resources were being exploited by developed countries.
4. They could not participate in international economic institutions and they had a little say, if
participated.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Why did India distance itself from the two camps led by the U.S. and the Soviet
Union? Explain.
Answer: The end of the Second World War was the beginning of the Cold War between the two
superpowers of the world, namely the US and the USSR. These two superpowers were keen on
expanding their spheres of influence in different parts of the world. Most countries of western
Europe sided with the US and those of eastern Europe joined the USSR. But India kept a
distance from these superpowers. It means, it became a member of the non-alignment-
movement by not joining either alliance. Non-alignment was not a noble international cause
which had little to do with Indias real interests. A non-aligned posture also served Indias
interests very directly, in at least two ways.
(t) Non-alignment allowed India to take international decisions and stances that served its
interests rather than the interests of the superpowers and their allies. .
(ii) India was often able to balance one superpower against the other. If India felt ignored or
unduly pressurised by one superpower, it could tilt towards the other. Neither alliance system
could take India for granted or bully it.

Q2. The drop of bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki by the US was a political game.
Justify the statement.
Answer: The Second World War ended when the United States dropped two atomic bombs on
Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki in August 1945 causing Japan to surrender.
Moreover, this action was criticised on the ground that the US knew that Japan was about to
surrender and dropping of bombs was not necessary. US action was intended to stop Soviet
Union from making military and political gains in Asia and elsewhere and to show that the US
was supreme.
Q3. Explain the Cuban Missile Crisis.
Answer: In 1962, Soviet Union decided to convert Cuba into a Russian base as it provided
USSR diplomatic and financial aid both. Hence, Soviet Union placed nuclear missiles in Cuba.
The US became aware of it and ordered American warships to intercept to Soviet Union to
remove missiles to avoid full scale nuclear war. A clash seemed imminent what came to be
known as Cuban Missile Crisis.

Q4. Name any two founders of Non-aligned Movement. The first NAM summit was the
culmination of which three factors?
Answer: Two founders of Non-aligned Movement were:
1. Indonesias Sukarno and
2. Ghanas Kwame Nkrumah
The first NAM was held in Belgrade in 1961. This was the culmination of following three factors:
1. Cooperation among member countries.
2. Growing cold war tensions and its widening arenas.
3. The dramatic entry of many new decolonised African countries into international arena.

Q5. What is the rationale of Non-aligned movement after the end of Cold War?
Or
Whmh core values keep non-alignment relevant even after Cold War has ended?
Answer: Non-aligned Movement was based on a recognition that decolonised states shared a
historical affiliation and can become powerful force if they come together. It meant that very
small and poor countries need not become followers of any big power, instead they could
persue an independent foreign policy also. It was based on a resolve to democratise the
international system to redress existing inequities also.

Q6. Non-alignment posture was in the interest of India. How?

Answer: Non-alignment posture was in the interest of India because:
1. Non-alignment allowed India to take international decisions to serve her own interests.
2. India maintained a balance between two superpowers as if India felt ignored by one. India
would tilt towards other superpower.

Q6. Non-alignment posture was in the interest of India. How?

Answer: Non-alignment posture was in the interest of India because:
1. Non-alignment allowed India to take international decisions to serve her own interests.
2. India maintained a balance between two superpowers as if India felt ignored by one. India
would tilt towards other superpower.

Passage Based Questions

1. Read carefully the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The Cold War was not simply a matter of power rivalries, military alliances and of balance
of power. These were accompanied by a real ideological conflict as well, a difference
over- the best and most appropriate way of organising political, economic and social life
all over the world.

Questions
1. Why is a war like situation called Cold War?
2. Identify one military pact each signed by each of the two super powers to balance the
power rivalries.
3. Differentiate between the ideologies represented by the rival blocs.
Answer:
1. The Cold War referred to the competition, the tensions and a series of confrontations
between the US and Soviet Union. It never escalated into a hot war, i.e. a full-scale war
between these two powers.
2. The US and USSR decided to collaborate in limiting or eliminating certain kinds of nuclear
and non-nuclear weapons. A stable balance of weapon, they decided, could be maintained
through arms
control. Starting in the 1960s, the two sides signed significant agreements, namely, Limited
Test Ban Treaty and Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty.
3. The Western alliance, headed by the US, represented the ideology of liberal democracy and
capitalism while the eastern alliance, headed by the Soviet Union, was committed to the
ideology of socialism and communism.
2. Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, pages 2-3) given below carefully and answer the
questions:
In April 1961 the Soviet Union were worried that the United States of America would invade
communist ruled Cuba and overthrow the Cuban President Fidel Castro. Nikita Khrushchev,
the leader of Soviet Union, decided to convert Cuba into a Russian base. In 1962, placed
nuclear missiles Three weeks after the Soviet Union had placed the nuclear weapons in
Cuba, the Americans became aware of it. They became reluctant to do anything that might lead
to full scale war between the two countries A clash seemed imminent in what came to be
known as Cuban Missile Crisis. The prospects of this clash made the whole world nervous.

Questions
1. Why was the Soviet Union worried about America invading Cuba?
2. In response to the action taken by America, what did Nikita Khrushchev do?
3. Why were the two superpowers reluctant to start nuclear war?
Answer:
1. The Soviet Union was worried about America invading Cuba that the US world overthrew
Cuban President Fidel Castro to capture power in Cuba.
2. They became reluctant to do anything that might lead to to full scale war between the two
countries.
3. The two superpowers became reluctant because both of them knew that it might lead only a
massive destruction and will not justify any gain for them.
3. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
The Western alliance was formalised into an organisation, the North Atlantic Treaty
Organisation (NATO), which came into existence in April 1949. It was an association of twelve
states which declared that armed attack on any one of them would be regarded as an attack on
all of them. Each of these status would be obliged to help each other. The eastern alliance
known as the Warsaw Pact was led by Soviet Union, created in 1955 and its principal function
was to counter NATOs forces in Europe.

Questions
1. What does NATO stand for?
2. What was NATOs policy?
3. What was Warsaw Pact?
4. Mention the main function of Warsaw Pact.
Answer:
1. NATO stands for North Atlantic Treaty Organisation.
2. NATO was an association of twelve states which declared that armed attack on any one of
them would be regarded as an attack on all of them and each of them would be obliged to help
each other.
3. Warsaw Pact was eastern alliance, led by Soviet Union, created in 1955.
4. Main function of Warsaw Pact was to counter NATOs forces in Europe.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Describe any six factors responsible for the disintegration of USSR.
Or
What is meant by New International Economic Order? Mention any four reforms of the
global trading system proposed by UNCTAD in 1972.
Answer: Six factors responsible for the disintegration of USSR are
(i) The internal weaknesses of Soviet political and economic institutions failed to meet the
aspirations of the people.
(ii) Economic stagnation for many years led to severe consumer shortages and a large section
of Soviet society began to doubt and question the system and to do so openly.
(iii) The Soviet Union had become stagnant in an administrative and political sense as well. The
Communist Party that had ruled the Soviet Union for over 70 years was not accountable to the
people. Ordinary people were alienated by slow and stifling administration, rampant corruption,
the inability of the system to correct mistakes it had made, the unwillingness to allow more
openness in government and the centralisation of authority in a-vast land.
(iv) The Soviet economy used much of its resources in maintaining a nuclear and military
arsenal and the development of its satellite states in Eastern Europe and within the Soviet
system. This led a huge economic burden that the system could not cope with.
(v) When Gorbachev became the President, he carried out reforms and loosened the system.
He set in motion forces and expectations that few could have predicted and became virtually
impossible to control. There were sections of Soviet society which felt that Gorbachev should
have moved much faster and were disappointed and impatient with his methods. Others,
especially members of the Communist Party and those who were served by the system, took
exactly the opposite view. In this tug of war, Gorbachev lost support on all sides.
(vi) The rise of nationalism and the desire for sovereignty within various republics including
Russia and the Baltic Republics, Ukraine, Georgia, and others proved to be the final and most
immediate cause for the disintegration of the USSR.
Or
The non-aligned countries were more than merely mediators during the Cold War. The
challenge for most of the non-aligned countries a majority of them were categorised as the
Least
Developed Countries (LDCs) was to be more developed economically and to lift their people
out of poverty. Economic development was also vital for the independence of the new countries.
Without sustained development, a country could not be truly free. It would remain dependent on
the richer countries including the colonial powers from which political freedom had been
achieved. The idea of a New International Economic Order (NIEO) originated with this
realisation.
The UNCTAD brought out a report in 1972 entitled Towards a New Trade Policy for
Development. The report proposed a reform of the global trading system so as to:
(i) give the Least Developed Countries (LDCs) control over their natural resources exploited by
the developed western countries.
(ii) obtain access to western markets so that LDCs would sell their products and, therefore,
make trade more beneficial for the poorer countries.
(iii) reduce the cost of technology from the western countries, and
(iv) provide the LDCs with a greater role in international economic institutions.

Q2. What led to the emergence of bipolar world? What were the arenas of Cold War
between the two power blocs?
Answer: Emergence of bipolar world:
1. Two superpowers expanded their own spheres of influence in different parts of the world.
2. It divided the world into two alliances namely Western and Eastern alliance headed by the US
and Soviet Union respectively.
3. The smaller states in alliances got the promise of protection of weapons and economic aid
against their local rivals, hence they remained tied to its protective superpowers to limit
influence of other superpower and its allies.
Arenas of Cold War:
1. Crisis and war occurred between alliance systems but did not cross certain limits.
2. Many lives were lost in Korea, Vietnam and Afghanistan, but world was spared from nuclear
war and global hostilities.
3. The Cold War led to several shooting wars but it did not lead to another World War despite
direct confrontations in Korea (1950-53), Berlin (1958-62) and the Congo (the early 1960s).

Q3. How did Europe become main arena of conflict between the superpowers?
Answer: 1. Superpowersusedtheirmilitarypower to bring countries into their respective
alliances.
2. Soviet Union used its influence in Eastern Europe so that the eastern half of Europe
remained within its sphere of influence.
3. In East and Southeast Asia and in West Asia, the US built an alliance called South East
Asian Treaty Organisation (SEATO) and the Central Treaty Organisation (CENTO).
4. The Soviet Union responded by having close relations with regional countries such as North
Vietnam, North Korea and Iraq.

Q4. Indias policy of non-alignment was criticised on a number of counts. Explain.

Answer: A non-aligned posture also served Indias interests very directly as well as India
intervened in world affairs to soften cold war rivalries by reducing differences between the
alliances and from escalating into a full scale war. Though Indias policy of non-alignment was
criticised on a number of counts:
1. Indias non-alignment was said to be unprincipled in the name of persuing in national
interest.
2. India often refused to take firm stand on crucial international issues.
! 3. Sometimes India took contradictory postures, having criticised others for joining alliances,
Indian signed the Treaty of friendship in August 1971 with the USSR for 29 years
4. During Bangladesh crisis also India developed good relations even with the US in the name
of diplomatic and military support.

Q5. Explain various arms control treaties.

Or
Define the various treaties to control arms.
Answer: 1. Limited Test Ban Treaty: Banned nuclear weapon tests in the atmosphere, in outer
space and under water signed by the US, UK and USSR in Moscow on 5 August 1963 came
into force on 10 October, 1963.
2. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty:
It allows only nuclear weapon states to have nuclear weapons and stops others from acquiring
them. A nuclear weapon state is one which had manufactured and exploded nuclear explosive
device prior to 1 Janaury, 1967. So there are five nuclear weapon states: US, USSR, Britain,
France and China.
3. Strategic Arms Limitation Talks I and II (Salt I and II): The first round began in November
1969. The Soviet Union leader Leonid Brezhnev and the US President Kichard Nixon signed the
following in Moscow on 26 May 1972 (a) Anti Ballistic Missile System Treaty, (b) Interim
Agreement on limitation of strategic offensive arms.
It came into force on 3 October, 1972. The second round started in November 1972. The US
President Jimmy Carter and the Soviet leader Brezhnev signed Treaty on limiting strategic
offensive arms in Vienna on 18 June, 1979.
4. Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty I and II (START I and II): Treaty I signed by the USSR
president Mikhail Gorbachev and the US president George Bush (Senior) on the reduction and
limitation of strategic offensive arms in Moscow on 31 July 1991.
Treaty II was signed for same purpose in Moscow on 3 January, 1993 between Russian
President Boris Yeltsin and the US President George Bush (Senior).

Map Based Questions

Q1. On the political map of world locate and level the following by giving symbols to
them:

1. Study the given map of the world in which six different countries have been marked
1,2,3,4,5,6. Identify these countries with their names and classify them as first, second,
third world countries.
Answer:

Study the given map and identify these countries from each of rival blocs. Name and
categorise them. These countries have been symbolised as A, B, C, D, E, F.
Answer:

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Which among the following statements that describe the nature of Soviet economy is
wrong?
(a) Socialism was the dominant ideology.
(b) State ownership/control existed over the factors of production.
(c) People enjoyed economic freedom.
(d) Every aspect of the economy was planned and contained by the state.
Answer: (c) People enjoyed economic freedom.

Q2. Arrange the following in chronological order:

(a) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
(b) Fall of the Berlin Wall
(c) Disintegration of Soviet Union
(d) Russian Revolution
Answer: I. (d) Russian Revolution (1917)
II. (a) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan (1979)
III. (b) Fall of the Berlin Wall (Nov 1989)
IV. (c) Disintegration of Soviet Union
Q3. Which among the following is NOT an outcome of the disintegration of the USSR?
(a) End of the ideological war between the US and USSR
(b) Birth of CIS
(c) Change in the balance of power in the world order
(d) Crises in the Middle East
Answer: (d) Crises in the Middle East

Q4. Match the following:

Answer: (i)-(c); (ii)-(d); (iti)-(a); (iv)-(e); (v)-(b)

Q5. Fill in the blanks:

(a) The Soviet Political System was based on ideology.
(b) was the military alliance started by the USSR.
(c) party dominated the Soviet Unions political system.
(d) initiated the reforms in the USSR in 1985.
(e) The fall of the symbolised the end of the Cold War.
Answer:
(a) socialist
(b) Warsaw Pact
(c) Communist
(d) Gorbachev
(e) Berlin wall

Q6. Mention any three features that distinguish the Soviet economy from that of a
capitalist country like the US.
Answer: The three features that distinguish the Soviet economy from that of a capitalist country
like the US, can be summed up as follows:
1. Soviet economy experienced a complex communication network, vast energy resources and
an efficient transport sector to connect its remotest areas.
2. Soviet Union industries produced every domestic product from pin to cars, whose quality
might not match with that of the west technology.
3. Soviet Union ensured a minimum standard of living for all its citizens. Consequently
Government subsidised basic necessities including health, education, children and other welfare
schemes.
4. There was an absence of unemployment in Soviet Union.
5. Land and productive assets were owned by the state only.

Q7. What were the factors that forced Gorbachev to initiate the reforms in the USSR?
Answer: Mikhail Gorbachev was the General Secretary of Communist Party of Soviet Union in
1985. He was forced to initiate the reforms in the USSR due to following reasons:
1. To keep the USSR abreast of information and technological revolutions at par the West.
2. To normalise the relations with that of the West.
3. To democratise the Soviet System.
4. To loosen the administrative system which exempted ordinary people from the privileges.

Q8. What were the major consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union for
countries like India?
Answer: The major consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union for countries like
India can be analysed as follows:
1. Disintegration of Soviet Union gave an end to Cold War confrontations and to ideological
disputes between two superpowers.
2. Military alliances had been abolished and demand arose for world peace and security.
3. Multipolar system was surpassed to exist where no single power could dominate and a group
of countries could play a crucial role in world politics like NAM Countries.
4. The US became the sole superpower and capitalist economy became dominant at
international level. World Bank and IMF became powerful advisors due to their economic
support to these countries during transitional period.
5. The motion of liberal democracy emerged as a way to organise political life.
6. Due to disintegration of Soviet Union many new countries emerged with the independent
aspirations and choices.
7. The Baltic and East European states wanted to join European Union and became the part of
NATO. The Central Asian countries took the advantage of their geographical location and
continued close ties with Russia, West, China and others.

Q8. What were the major consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union for
countries like India?
Answer: The major consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union for countries like
India can be analysed as follows:
1. Disintegration of Soviet Union gave an end to Cold War confrontations and to ideological
disputes between two superpowers.
2. Military alliances had been abolished and demand arose for world peace and security.
3. Multipolar system was surpassed to exist where no single power could dominate and a group
of countries could play a crucial role in world politics like NAM Countries.
4. The US became the sole superpower and capitalist economy became dominant at
international level. World Bank and IMF became powerful advisors due to their economic
support to these countries during transitional period.
5. The motion of liberal democracy emerged as a way to organise political life.
6. Due to disintegration of Soviet Union many new countries emerged with the independent
aspirations and choices.
7. The Baltic and East European states wanted to join European Union and became the part of
NATO. The Central Asian countries took the advantage of their geographical location and
continued close ties with Russia, West, China and others.

Q9. What was Shock Therapy? Was this the best way to make a transition from
communism to capitalism?
Answer: Shock Therapy was a painful process of transition from an authoritarian socialist
system to a democratic capitalist system. This transformation system was influenced by the
world bank and the IMF in Russia, Central Asia and East Europe. Though it varies in intensity
and speed amongst the former second world countries but its direction and features were quite
similar.
This was not the best way to make a transition from communism to capitalism due to following
drawbacks:
1. Russia, the large state controlled industrial complex lost about 90 per cent of its industries
through sales to private individuals and companies
2. It created the largest garage sale in history which led virtual disappearance of entire
industries for the restructuring was carried out by market forces in place of government owned
policies.
Hence, industries were undervalued and sold at throwaway prices.
3. It systematically destroyed old system of social welfare.
4. The value of ruble, the Russian currency, declined dramatically due to high rate of inflation
and real GDP of Russia also declined between 1989 to 1999.
5. The withdrawal of government subsidies pushed large sections of society into poverty and it
emerged mafia to start controlling many economic activities.
6. Privatisation led to new disparities which divided Russia between rich and poor people
creating economic inequality.
7. Hence, Shock Therapy brought ruin to economies and disaster upon the people of entire
region.

Q10. Write an essay for or against the following proposition. With the disintegration of
the second world, India should change its foreign policy and focus more on friendship
with the US rather than with traditional friends like Russia.
Answer: India should not change its foreign policy and focus more on friendship with US, but
India is required to maintain healthy relations with Russia because India has experienced a long
band of mutual trust, interests and popular perceptions with Russia in the following manner:
1. Russia and India share a vision of multipolar world order i.e. coexistence of several world
powers internationally, collective security, greater regionalism, democratisation with the
decision-making through bodies like the UN.
2. More than 80 bilateral agreements have been experienced between India and Russia as a
part of the Indo- Russia Strategic Agreement of 2001.
3. India has been benefitted from its relationship on the issues like Kashmir, energy supplies,
sharing information on international terrorism, access to Central Asia and balancing its relation
with China.
4. Russia is also important for Indias nuclear energy plane and assisting Indias space industry
by giving cryogenic rocket to India whenever needed.
5. Co-operation with Russia and its republics like Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan in the form of
partnership and investment in oil fields has also benefitted India.
6. Russia is also benefitted from India on ground of the second largest arms market for Russia.
Indian military gets most of its hardware from Russia.
7. Russia and India have collaborated on various scientific projects also.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Q1. When did Socialist Revolution take place in Russia?

Answer: 1917.

Q2. What was Shock Therapy?

Answer: Shock Therapy was the transitional form from authoritarian socialist system to a
democratic capitalist system in Russia, Central Asia and East Europe under the influence of the
World Bank and IMF.

Q3. What was the largest garage sale in history?

Answer: Largest garage sale in history was resulted due to shock therapy to undervalue the
valuable industries of the USSR to sell them at throwaway prices.

Q4. What was the immediate cause of disintegration of USSR?

Answer: The rise of nationalism and the desire for sovereignty within various republics
including Russia and the Baltic Republic (Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania), Ukraine, Georgia and
others proved to be the most immediate cause for disintegration of the USSR.

Q5. What was Socialist Bloc?

Answer: The Second World countries or the group of east European countries who were
liberated from fascist forces, followed the model of the USSR, known as Socialist Bloc.

Q6. What is the new name of former USSR?

Answer: Russia.

Q7. When did the Berlin Wall fall?

Answer: November 1989.

Q8. Who was the General Secretary of Communist Party of Soviet Union in 1985?
Answer: Mikhail Gorbachev.

Q9. Mention the role of Boris Yeltsin in the disintegration of the USSR.
Answer: Boris Yeltsin had emerged as national hero after popular election in Russian Republic.
In Dec 1991, under the leadership of Boris Yeltsin, Russia, Ukraine and Belarus declared
themselves independent.

Q10. What does CIS stand for?

Answer: Commonwealth of Independent States.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. What is meant by Shock Therapy?

Answer: The Shock Therapy was the state of affairs which signifies the collapse of
communism followed by a painful process of transition from an authoritarian socialist system to
a democratic capitalist system-
1. Shock Therapy administered in the year 1900 not to lead the people into the promised
utopia of mass consumption.
2. It brought ruin to economies and disaster upon the people of entire region.

Q2. Why is it said that collapse of Berlin wall signified the collapse of bipolar world?
Answer: Collapse of Berlin Wall unified the
divided Germany and eight east European countries of the Soviet Bloc replaced their
Communist government resulting into disintegration of Soviet Union. With the disintegration of
Soviet Union, military alliances came to an end and the world became unipolar.

Q3. Mention any two characteristics of Soviet Political System.

Answer: 1. The Soviet Political System central around the Communist Party and no other
political party or opposition was allowed.
2. The economy was planned and controlled by the state only.
Or
The one party system had tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable to people.
3. People locked democracy and were snatched away their right to freedom of speech and
expression

Q4. The Soviet Union lagged behind the West. Comment.

Answer. The Soviet Union lagged behind the West in technology, infrastructure (transport,
power etc.) as it could not cope with the political and economic aspirations of people and
resulted in:
1. Though wages continued to grow but productivity and technology fell considerably behind
that of the West.
2. This led to shortage of consumer goods and increased food import every year.
3. The above mentioned reasons made the Soviet economy stagnant.

Q5. Mention some features of Soviet Society.

Answer:
1. Soviet Society gave priority to the state and party institutions only.
2. Only the Communist Party was ruling over there and no opposition was allowed.
3. The economy was planned and controlled by the state only.
4. The Soviet Union became the great power after the Second World War.

Q6. Write anote onformationof Commonwealth of Independent States.

Answer: Disintegration of the USSR gave birth to Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS)
when under the leadership of Boris Yeltsin Russia, Ukraine and Belarus declared themselves as
independent and gave a surprise to other republics especially to central Asian Republics. This
issue was resolved quickly by making these republics as founding
members of the CIS and Russia became the successor state who inherited the Soviet sea in the
UN and accepted all the international treaties and commitments.

Q7. Mention any two possibilities which were being presumed in changed scenario of
world politics after disintegration of the USSR.
Answer: 1. The US, the only superpower could dominate the world and make a unipolar world.
2. A multipolar world could also exist where no other power could dominate or the group of
countries could participate in the international affairs.

Q8. How did the USSR come into existence?

Answer: The USSR came into existence after the Socialist revolution in Russia in 1917 with the
inspiration of socialism and a need of egalitarian society who opposed capitalism. This was
considered the biggest attempt in human history to abolish the institution of private property and
to design a society based on equality.
Q9. Who was Gorbachev? Why did he seek to reform Soviet Society?
Answer: Gorbachev was the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in
1985. He was forced by the following factors to seek reforms in Soviet Society:
1. To keep the USSR abreast of the
information and technological revolutions.
2. To bring Soviet economy at par with the west.
3. To loosen the administrative system.
4. To democratise Soviet System and to normalise relations with the west.

Q10. How did Shock Therapy affect trade and commerce of Russia?
Answer. Shock Therapy affected trade and commerce of Russia in the following manner:
1. The value of Ruble, the Russian currency declined.
2. Inflation rose at a very high rate and it lost all savings of people.
3. Lack of productivity and technology created shortage of food which increased food imports
every year.
4. The GDP of Russia also declined between 1989 to 1999.

Q11. When and how did Russia revive its economy?

Answer: Russia revived its economy in 2000 by the export of natural resources like oil, natural
gas and minerals. Even other countries have also gained due to crossing of pipelines from their
region and they have been paid a rent. Russia has started some manufacturing units also to
revive its economy.

Q12. Write a note on tension and conflicts that occurred in Russia.

Answer: In Russia, two republicsChechnya and Dagestanhad violent secessionist
movements. Moscows method of dealing with the Chechen rebels and indiscriminate military
bombings have led to many human rights violation but failed to deter the aspirations for
independence.

Q13. Mention the methods ofShock Therapy amongst the former Second World
countries.
Answer: 1. The newly evolved criterion required to make a total shift to a capitalist economy to
root out completely any structures evolved during Soviet period.
2. Shock therapy involved a drastic change in the external orientation.
3. Sudden and complete switch to free trade was considered essential.
4. It also involved openness to foreign investment, financial opening up and currency
convertibility.

Q14. The old system of social welfare was systematically destroyed. With reference to
Shock Therapy, justify the statement.
Answer: 1. The Government withdrew subsidies and pushed people into poverty.
2. The middle classes were pushed to the periphery of society and the academic and intellectual
manpower migrated.
3. A mafia had been emerged and started controlling many economic activities.
4. Privatisation led to new disparities.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Describe any four consequences of the disintegration of Soviet Union.
Answer: (i) The disintegration of Soviet Union meant the end of Cold War confrontations which
demanded the end of armed race and restoration of possible peace.
(ii) This disintegration created the possibility to bring in a multipolar system where no power
could dominate.
(iii) The US became the sole superpower and the capitalist economy was now dominant
economic system at international level.
(iv) This disintegration emerged in many new countries dividing Soviet Union into 15
independent countries alongwith their own aspirations and choices.

Q2. Explain any two reasons for disintegration of the USSR.

Answer: 1. The internal weaknesses of Soviet political and economic institutions failed to meet
the aspirations of the people.
2. Economic stagnation for many years led to severed consumer shortage and a large section of
Soviet society began to double the system because Communist Party was not accountable to
peoples.

Q3. What were the political reasons for disintegration of Soviet Union?
Answer: 1. The Communist Party of Soviet Union had ruled for over 70 years but it was not
accountable to people.
2. Ordinary people had been alienated and were exempted from enjoying the privileges and to
participate actively in political affairs.
3. Due to slow and stifling administration, the inability of system to correct mistakes lost popular
support.
4. The centralisation of authority in > vast land.

Q4. In what manner Gorbachevs reform policy was protested? Who took the command
during these events?
Answer. 1. The East European countries which were the part of the Soviet Bloc, started to
protest against their own
government and Soviet control.
2. Boris Yeltsin took the command during these events as he got popular support of people in
the elections and began to shake off centralised control.
3. Power began to shift from centre to the republics which declared themselves independent.
4. In December 1991, under the leadership of Boris Yeltsin Russia, Ukraine and Baltics
declared themselves as sovereign states.

Q5. Why did Soviet system become so weak and Soviet economy stagnant?
Answer: Soviet system became so weak and Soviet economy stagnant due to the following
reasons:
1. The Soviet economy used much of its resources in maintaining nuclear and military arsenals.
2. Soviet economy concentrated on the development of its satellite states in Eastern Europe
especially in the five central Asian Republics.
3. This led to a huge economic burden on people to be coped up with.
4. Ordinary citizens became more knowledgeable about the economic advancement of the West
and backwardness of Soviet system.

Q6. Why did Gorbachevs reform policy fail in spite of his accurate diagnosis of the
problem?
Answer. 1. When Gorbachev carried out his reforms and loosened the system, he set in motion
forces and expectations that few could have predicted and became virtually impossible to
control.
2. Some sections of Soviet Society felt that Gorbachev should have moved much faster and
were disappointed and impatient with him.
3. The members of communist party felt that their power and privileges were eroding and
Gorbachev was moving too quickly.
4. In this tug of war, Gorbachev lost support on all sides and divided public opinion with the
disillusionment of inadequate dependence.

Passage Based Questions

1. Read the following passage (NCERT Textbook, page 27) carefully and answer the
questions:
In eastern Europe, Czechoslovakia split peacefully into two, with the Czechs and the
Slovaks forming independent countries. But the most severe conflict took place in the
Balkan republics of Yugoslavia. After 1991, it broke apart with several provinces like
Croatia, Slovenia and Bosnia and Herzegovina declaring independence. Ethnic Serbs
opposed this, and a massacre of non-Serb Bosnians followed. The NATO intervention
and the bombing of Yugoslavia followed interethnic civil war.

Questions
1. In Eastern Europe which republic split into two?
2. Name the republic/place where severe conflict took place.
3. Name various provinces with which Yugoslavia had been broken in 1991?
4. Which incidents resulted into inter-ethnic civil war?
Answer:
1. Czechoslovakia split into two with Czechs and Slovaks.
2. Balkan republics of Yugoslavia.
3. Croatia, Slovenia, Bosnia, Herzegovina.
4. 1. Ethnic Serbs opposed the breakirigup
of several provinces independently following a massacre of non-serb Bosnians.
2. NATO intervention and bombing on Yugoslavia.
2. Read the following passage (NCERT Textbook, page 18) carefully and answer the questions:
The Soviet system, however, became very bureaucratic and authoritarian, making life very
difficult for its citizens. Lack of democracy and the absence of freedom of speech stifled people
who often expressed their dissent in jokes and cartoons. Most of the institutions of the Soviet
state needed reform : the one-party system
represented by the communist party of the Soviet union had tight control over all institutions and
was unaccountable to the people. The party refused to recognise the urge of people in the
fifteen different republics that formed the Soviet Union to manage their own affairs including
their cultural affairs. Although, on paper, Russia was only one of the fifteen republics then
together constituted the USSR in reality Russia dominated everything, and people from other
regions felt neglected and often suppressed.

Questions
1. What was Soviet system?
2. How many republics formed Soviet Union?
3. Which republic dominated in the USSR?
4. Why did people become dissatisfied
with the rule of Communist Party of Soviet Union?
Answer:
1. 1. Soviet system was bureaucratic and
authoritarian making life difficult for citizens.
2. Soviet system lacked democracy and the freedom of speech of people was also snatched
away.
2. 15 Republics.
3. Russia.
4. 1. Soviet Union had tight control over
all institutions.
2. Soviet Union was unaccountable to people.
3. Soviet Union refused 15 republics to manage their own affairs.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. What was Soviet system? Assess any four features of Soviet system.
Answer: Soviet system was introduced after Socialist Revolution in Russia in 1917. It was
based on the principle of egalitarian society and planned economy controlled by the state. Its
four features can be summed up in the following ways:
1. The Soviet system ensured a minimum standard of living for its citizens.
2. The government subsidised basic necessities including health,education, childcare and other
welfare schemes.
3. There was no unemployment in the Soviet system.
4. State ownership was the dominant owned and controlled by the Soviet state.

Q2. Explain six factors which helped Soviet Union becoming superpower after Second
World War.
Answe: The following factors helped Soviet Union becoming superpower after Second World
War:
1. The east European countries the Soviet army had liberated from the fascist forces came
under the control of the USSR.
2. The political and economic systems of all these countries were modelled after the USSR and
collectively were called the second world.
3. The WARSAW PACT, a military alliance held them together and the USSR was the leader of
the bloc.
4. The Soviet economy was then more developed than the rest of the world except for the US.
5. It had a complex communication network, vast energy resources including oil, iron and steel,
(machinery) production and a transport sector that connected its remotest _areas with
efficiency.
6. It had a domestic consumer industry that produced everything from pins to cars to make
themselves self-dependent.

Q3. During the Cold War era India and the USSR enjoyed a special relationship which
made critics to say that India was part of Soviet camp. Examine the statement.
Or
India and the USSR enjoyed mutual dimensional relationship. Justify the statement.
Answer: During the Cold War era India and the USSR enjoyed a special relationship which
made critics to say that India was part of the Soviet camp. It was a multi-dimensional
relationship:
1. Economic:
(a) The Soviet Union assisted Indias public sector companies at a time when such assistance
was difficult to get.
(b) It gave aid and technical assistance for steel plants like Bhilai, Bokaro, Vishakhapatnam and
machinery plants like Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
(c) The Soviet Union accepted Indian currency for trade when India was short of foreign
exchange.
2. Political:
() The Soviet Union supported Indias positions on the Kashmir issue in the WN.
(b) The Soviet Union also supported India during its major conflicts during the war with Pakistan
in 1971.
(c) India too supported Soviet foreign policy in some crucial but indirect ways.
3. Military:
(a) India received military hardware from Soviet Union.
(b) India got technological know-how regarding maintenance of military arsenal.
(c) India and Soviet Union got mutual agreements to produce military equipments.
4. Cultural:
(a) Hindi films and Indian culture were popular in the Soviet Union.
(b) A large number of Indian writers and artists visited the USSR.
(c) Indian heroes from Raj Kapoor to Amitabh Bachhan are household names in Russia.

Q4. Mention the causes of Soviet disintegration.

Answer: The causes of Soviet disintegration can be summed up as follows:
1. Economic Stagnancy:
(a) Economic institutions experienced internal weaknesses to meet the aspirations of people.
(b) Economic stagnation for many years to severe consumer shortages.
2. Political and Administrative Causes:
(a) The only ruling Communist Party was not accountable despite its rule of 70 years.
(b) Theordinaiypeoplewereabstained from taking participation in political riots, hence the system
became incapable of correcting its mistakes.
(c) The ordinary citizens were exempted from gaining the privileges.
(d) Due to non-participation of people, the government lost popular support from all sides.
3. Gorbachevs Reform Policies:
() Gorbachevs reforms aimed at keeping the USSR abreast of information and technological
revolutions taking place in the west.
(b) Gorbachev focused to normalise relations with the west.
(c) Gorbachev worked to democratise the Soviet System.
(d) But Society was divided into two sections towards Gorbacheves reforms and both of them
had contradictory views towards him.
4. Rise of Nationalism and Desire for Sovereignty:
(a) The rise of nationalism in various republics of Soviet Union proved to be immediate cause of
revolutions in Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Ukraine and Georgia.
(b) The nationalist dissatisfaction with the Soviet Union was strongest in European and
prosperous part in Russia and the Baltic areas as well as Ukraine and Georgia.
(c) Ordinary people felt alienated from Central Asia.

Q5. What sot of conflicts had occurred in Soviet Republics? Explain.

Answer: 1. In Russia:
(a) Chechnya and Dagestan had violent secessionist movements.
(b) Moscows method to deal with Chechen rebels and indiscriminate military bombings led to
many human rights violation but for deter aspirations for independence.
2. In Central Asia:
(a) Tajikistan witnessed a civil war that went on for ten years till 2001.
(b) In Azerbaijans provinces of Nagorno-Karobakh, some local Armenians want to secede and
join Armenia.
(c) In Georgia, the demand for independence came from two provinces resulting in a civil war.
(d) There are still movements against the existing regimes in Ukraine, Kyrgyzstan and Georgia.
(e) Even countries and provinces are fighting over river water.
3. In Eastern Europe:
(a) Czechoslovakia, split peacefully into two with the Czechs and Slovaks, forming independent
countries.
(b) The severe conflict took place in the Balkan republics of Yugoslavia.
(c) After 1991, Yugoslavia broke \ apart with several provinces like Croatia, Slovania, Bosnia
and Herzegovina declaring independence.
(d) Ethnic Serbs opposed this and a massacre of non-Serbs Bosanians followed.
(e) The NATO intervention and the bombing of Yugoslavia followed inter-ethnic Civil war.

Map Based Questions

Q1: On a political map of world locate and label the following by giving symbols to them:

Questions
1. A republic of Eastern Europe split into two independent countries peacefully.
2. Most dominating republic of Soviet Union.
3. Identify two major oil and gas producers of Soviet Union.
members of Commonwealth of Independent States.
Answer:
1. Czechoslovakia Czechs (1) and Slovakia(2).
2. Russia (3).
3. Turkmenistan (4) and Uzbekistan (5).
4. Yugoslavia (6).
5. Ukraine (7) and Belarus (8).
TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Which among the following statements about hegemony is incorrect?

(a) The word implies the leadership or predominance of one State.
(b) It was used to denote the predominance of Athens in the ancient Greece.
(c) The country having hegemonic position will possess unchallenged military power.
(d) Hegemonic position is fixed. Once a hegemon, always a hegemon.
Answer: (d) Hegemonic position is fixed. Once a hegemon, always a hegemon.

Q2. Which among the following statements is wrong about the contemporary world
order?
(a) There is an absence of world government, which could regulate the States behaviour.
(b) The US is the predominant player in world affairs.
(c) States are using force against one another.
(d) States, which violate international law, are severely punished by the UN.
Answer: (c) States are using force against one another.

Q3. Which among the following statements is wrong with regard to Operation Iraqi
Freedom?
(a) More than forty countries joined in the US led coalition of the willing to invade Iraq.
(b) The reason given for invading Iraq was to prevent it from developing weapons of mass
destruction.
(c) The action was taken with the prior approval of the UN.
(d) The US-led coalition did not face major resistance from Iraqi forces.
Answer: (c) The action was taken with the prior approval of the UN.

Q4. Give an example each of the three types of hegemony that are dealt within the
chapter. Do not cite examples that are in the chapter.
Answer: 1. Hegemony as Hard Power:
Tabasum was an artist living in Nigeria and was planning to join Art and Craft Academy to give
proficiency to her artistic aptitude. But she lost her leg in 2003 missile attack by the US. After
she overcame it, she made efforts to achieve and fulfill her dreams if the foreign armies leave
her country.
2. Hegemony as Structural Power: Tabish is very good in his studies in the countryside of
Middle East Asia and is planning to study subjects from Arts stream to accommodate himself in
different aspects as per requirements. But parents want him to be a master in computers to
become Software Engineer due to flair for job opportunities in the same.
3. Hegemony as Soft Power: Mayank is a young and energetic man of Melbourne, immigrants
from Russia. His father gets upset when he puts on black shirt with white jeans while he goes to
church. He justifies that black colour signifies protest for freedom and white signifies freedom in
a peaceful manner.

Q5. Mention three ways in which US dominance since the Cold War is different from its
position as a superpower during the Cold War.
Answer: 1. During Cold War, the US found it difficult to win over the Soviet Union as hard
power due to retaliating capacity of the Soviet Union and to protest world from large scale
destruction. But in the areas of structural and soft power, the US dominated.
2. During Cold War years, the Soviet Union provided an alternate model of socialist economy to
maximise welfare of states. Still the world economy throughout the Cold War years adapted
capitalist economy under the US.
3. In the area of soft power, the US became triumphant. As the example of blue jeans shows
that the US could engineer a generational gap even in Soviet Society on culture basis.

Q6. Match the following:

Answer: (i)-(c); (ti)-(a); (iii)(d); (iv)-(b)

Q7. WTiat are the constraints on American hegemony today? Which one of these do you
expect to get more important in the future?
Answer. We can identify three constraints on American Power which were actually not in
operation in the years following 9/11. Hence the US could establish its hegemony. Recently all
these constraints are slowly beginning to operate in the following ways:
1. The US bears institutional architecture in the American State itself. It refers division of powers
between the three branches of government where American militarys executive branch can
place significant brakes upon the unrestrained and immoderate exercise.
2. The second constraint on American hegemony emerges from open nature of American
society. American society and suffering from a deep skepticism towards purposes and methods
of government in America despite an imposition of particular perspectives on domestic opinion
in the US. This is a huge constraint on US military action overseas.
3. The third constraint on US hegemony is the possession of NATO to moderate the exercise of
the US hegemony today. The US has an enormous interest in keeping the alliance of
democracies to follow the market economies alive and it may be possible to its allies in NATO to
moderate the exercise of the US hegemony through their own liberal policies to fulfill their own
ends.

Q8. Read the three extracts in the chapter from Lok Sabha debate on the Indo-US deal.
Develop any one of these into a full speech defending a certain position on Indo-US
relations.
Answer: The following speech has been developed based on the excerpts from Lok Sabha
debate as presented by Major General (Retired) B.C. Khanduri of BJP:
Sir, I would respectfully draw the attention of august house towards the US hegemony in todays
scenario. But we should not ignore the fact that India might be next waiting in the wings to
perform as a superpower to maintain its own identity. Moreover, hegemony can not stand
forever due to its weaknesses. Therefore, we are supposed to have a good and harmonious
relations with that of the US for mutual promotion of trade and technology. But India should not
compromise from the same on the cost of its own security and identity.
Hence, India should work in a diplomatic manner while it thinks to go hand-inhand the US in
such a manner that India could extract best benefits from the US hegemony and find out mutual
options for itself.
Thanks.

Q9. If big and resourceful states cannot resist the US hegemony, it is unrealistic to
expect much smaller and weaker non-state actors to offer any resistance. Examine this
proposition and give your opinion.
Answer. This proposition focuses only on, the powers of the state and believes that only big
and resourceful states can challenge the US hegemony which it approaches right in a practical
manner, but if we think deeply these are thoughts and pens of writers, expressions of artists,
media and intellectuals who have no boundaries including hegemony itself to be criticised and
resisted in the form of non-government organisations (NGOs), social movements and public
opinion. Hence, non-state actors may challenge the US hegemony also in their own way and it
can work out also.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Ql.What is meant by Hegemon/?

Answer: The term Hegemony stands for an international system which is dominated by a sole
superpower or hyper-power. The collapse of the Soviet Union left the world with only one single
power, the United States of America.

Q2. What was first Gulf War?

Answer: A massive coalition force of 660,000 troops from 34 countries faught against
Iraq and defeated it in what came to be known as the First Gulf War.

Q3. What was Operation Iraqi Freedom?

Answer: On 19 March 2003, the US launched its invasion of Iraqi under the codename
Operation Iraqi Freedom. More than 40 other countries joined in the US coalition of the willing
after the UN refused to give its mandate to the invasion.

Q4. What is meant by hegemony?

Answer: Hegemony is an international system to dominate world by only one superpower.

Q5. First Gulf War was fought against in which troops from countries fought.
Answer: Iraq, 34 countries.

Q6. What does the term hegemony imply?

Answer: The word hegemony implies the dominance of one state means world power in the
form of military dominance, economic power, political clout and cultural superiority.

Q7. What is meant by 9/11 in the context of USA?

Answer: 9/11 denotes a series of attacks on the US by hijackers from Arab countries on 11 Sep
2001. It was the most disastrous attack on the US.
Q8. What is the New World Order?
Answer: The sudden collapse of Soviet Union led to the New World Order in the form of the US
hegemony.

Q9. What is World Politics?

Answer: World Politics refers to distribution of power among the countries of the world. These
countries are engaged to gain and retain power by their capabilities.

Q10. Mention the period of beginning of US hegemony.

Answer: 1991.

Q11. Name the elected president of the USA in the year 1992 and 1996.
Answer: William Jefferson Bill Clinton.

Q12. What was the focus of foreign policy of Bill Clinton?

Answer: The Clinton government tended to focus on Soft issues like democracy promotion,
climate change and world trade rather than on the hard politics of military power.

Q13. What was the Guantanamo Bay?

Answer: A naval base in Cuba set up by the US where prisoners forbidden of the protection of
international law or law of their own country or that of the US.

Q14. Mention any two constraints operated in the US hegemony.

Answer: Two constraints operated in the US hegemony are institutional architecture of
American state (division of power) and open nature of American Society.

Q15. What are Global Public Goods?

Answer: Goods that can be consumed by people without reducing the amount of available
goods for others are known as the global public goods.
Examples: Fresh air, roads, sea-lanes of communications (SLoCs).

Q16. What is SLoCs?

Answer: SLoCs stands for Sea Lanes of Communications. It is the naval power of hegemon
that underwrites the law of the sea and ensures freedom of navigation in international water.

Q17. What is the full form of WMD?

Answer: WMD stands for Weapons of Mass Destruction.

Q18. What is meant by hegemony as hard power?

Answer. Hegemony as hard power implies dominance of superpower on ground of military
power.

Q19. What is meant by hegemony as structural power?

Answer: Hegemony as structural power implies dominance of superpower on grounds of
economic structure. The superpower must possess both the ability and the desire to establish
norms for order and must sustain the global structure.
Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. When and why did the New World Order begin?
Answer: The New World Order began in 1991 after the collapse of Soviet Union. The world was
left only with single superpower the US and came to be known as the US Hegemony to show
the superiority of its military power. The US hegemony also shaped world economy and
emerged in the form of military domination, economic order, political clout and cultural
superiority.

Q2. Why did US launch a war against Iraq?

Answer: On 19 March 2003, the US launched a war against Iraq under the codename of
Operation Iraqi Freedom to be joined by forty other countries under the leadership of the US on
the ground to prevent Iraq from developing weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) without no
evidence against Iraq. Hence, the ostensible purposes were different as controlling Iraqi
Oilfields and installing a regime friendly to the US.

Q3. How was Kuwait liberated from Iraq in 1990?

Answer: In August 1990, Iraq invaded Kuwait rapidly occupying and subsequently annexing it.
All diplomatic attempts were a failure in convincing Iraq to quit its aggression. The United
Nations took a dramatic decision to mandate the liberation of Kuwait by force. A massive
coalition force of 66,000 troops from 34 countries fought against Iraq and defeated it, known as
the First Gulf War also.

Q4. What was Operation Infinite Reach ordered by President Clinton?

Answer: Operation Infinite Reach was a series of cruise missile strikes on Al-Qaeda terrorist
targets in Sudan and Afghanistan. For this, the US did not bother of any international law. This
operation was ordered by President Clinton in response to bombing of the US embassies in
Narobi, Kenya, Dar-es-Salaam, Tanzania in 1998.

Q5. What was Operation Enduring Freedom?

Answer: Operation Enduring Freedom was the US response against 9/11 attack to arrest all
those who were suspected to be behind the attack, mainly Al-Qaeda and the Taliban regime in
Afghanistan. The US arrested the persons all over the world often without the knowledge of
government of the person being arrested, transported them and detained in secret prisons.

Q6. How can hegemony be overcome?

Answer: To overcome hegemony there are different strategies developed by analysts. As the
bandwagon strategy reveals to extract benefits by operating within hegemonic system. To hide
strategy implies staying as far from the dominant power as possible. And it may be possible that
various challenges to occur from non-state actors in the form of their writings, expressions to
mould the minds of people.

Q7. The US did not start behaving like a hegemonic power right from 1991, it became
clear much later that world was living in fact in a period of hegemony. Examine the
statement.
Answer: The US hegemony was the beginning of New World Order and process for its
establishment had been started in August 1990 when Iraq invaded Kuwait and occupied it to
make a part of Iraq. Despite UNs diplomatic attempts to liberate Kuwait from Iraq, it was not
liberated. Hence UN mandated liberation of Kuwait by force, a dramatic decision. A massive
coalition force of 660,000 troops from 34 countries fought against Iraq and defeated it under
UNs Operation Desert Storm. But it was led by the US because 75 per cent of the coalition
forces were from the US only. This war is popularly known as the First Gulf War establishing the
US hegemony.

Q8. With reference to Iraq invasion, mention the American weaknesses.

Answer: Imperial powers have used military forces to accomplish only four tasks to conquer,
deter, punish and police in a historical perspective. As the Iraq invasion shows American
capacity to conquer is formidable and capability to deter and to punish is self evident. American
weakness has been revealed in performing fourth task i.e. the policing in an occupied territory.

Q9. What was 9/11 event? How did the US respond to it?
Answer: 9/11 event implies a series of attacks on the US by hijackers from Arab countries on
11 September 2001. It was the most disastrous attack on the US. The hijackers attacked on
important US building as World Trade Centre in New York, Pentagon building and Capital
building of US Congress in Pennsylvania.
The US responded to it by launching Operation Enduring Freedom to arrest all those who were
suspected to be behind this attack. The US forces made arrest all over the world without the
knowledge of the government of the persons being arrested, transported and detained them in
secret prisons mainly against Al-Qaeda and Taliban regime in Afghanistan.

Q10. The US hegemony does not dominate the world only as hard and structural power
but as a soft power also. Justify the statement.
Answer: The US hegemony does not dominate the world only as militarily and economically but
it has the capacity to create manufacturing consent from the rest of the world in the cultural
dimensions also. The cultural dimension implies class ascendancy in the social, political and
ideological spheres where the ideas of good life are flourished. Its most appealing example is
ofblue jeans from the US, which had the capacity to engineer even as generational divide.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. How far is it correctYo say that the 9/11 attack on the World Trade Centre was the
attack on the US hegemony? Explain.
Answer: The US had established its hegemony through the launch of two operations namely
Operation Desert Storm where 75 per cent of the coalition forces were from the US and
Operation Infinite Reach, a series of Cruise missile strikes on Al-Qaeda. These operations
made the US more confident of the establishment of the US hegemony that no one could dare
to challenge the US. But, suddenly hijackers from Arab countries attacked on the World Trade
Centre on 11 September 2001 alongwith the other important buildings also as Pentagon
building (the US defence department) and the capital building of US the Congress. It was the
most severe attack on the US soil since the founding of the country in 1776.
Thus, it can be concluded that the 9/11 attack was the attack on US hegemony which
challenged the US in its own way.

Q2. Describe any two constraints of American hegemony.

Answer: The US domination in military, economic, cultural aspects over other nations to show
her supremacy is known as US hegemony.
Its constraints are as follows-
1. The institutional architecture of American State itself i.e. they follow the system of division of
powers between three organs of government.
2. The open nature of American Society and Political Culture i.e. the American mass media may
promote a particular issue on domestic public opinion but never opposed the purposes and
methods of government in American Political Culture.

Q3. What military actions were taken by Clinton government despite their lack of interest
were different from military power?
Answer: The US President William Jefferson Bill Clinton believed in the policy of soft issues like
democracy promotion, climate change and the world trade in place of military dominance. But
the US revealed its military dominance even during the Clinton era wherever it was required by
the US in the following manner:
1. In 1999, the US responded.to Yugoslavian action against the predominant Albanian
population in the province of Kosovo. The NATO air force countries under the US leadership
bombarded targets around Yugoslavia for two months forcing the downfall of the government of
Slobodan Milosevic and the stationary of NATO force in Kosovo.
2. In 1998, the US launched an Operation Infinite Reach a series of cruise missile strikes on Al-
Qaeda terrorist targets in Sudan and Afghanistan in response to the bombings of US embassies
in Nairobi, Kenya, Dar-es- Salaam and Tanzania.

Q4, Explain the hegemony of the United States of America as a structural power.
Answer: Hegemony as a structural power implies economic perspective of world economy. It
can be summed up in the following ways:
1. An open world economy requires a dominant power to support its creation and existence.
2. The hegemon must possess both the ability and the desire to establish certain norms for
order and must sustain global structure i.e. Bretton Woods system set up by the US after
Second World Wan
3. The US reflects this hegemony by providing the global public goods, those can be consumed
by one person without reducing the amount of goods available for someone else.
4. A classical example of structural power of the US is the academic degree Masters in
Business Administration (MBA) to sharpen business skills in a University.

Q5. Economic preponderance of the US is inseparable from its structural power.

Discuss.
Answer: Economic preponderance of the US is inseparable from its structural power, it can be
justified in the following manner:
1. The hegemon shapes the basic global economy in a particular manner aS
the US provided the Bretton Woods system after Second World War.
2. We can regard the World Bank, International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Trade
Organisation (WTO) as the products of American hegemony.

Q6. In reference of structural power mention the global public goods by which the US
established its hegemony?
Answer: The global public goods can be consumed by one person without reducing the amount
of the goods available for someone else:
1. Sea lanes of communications (SLoCs) is the naval power of the hegemon to underwrite the
law of the sea and to ensure freedom of navigational international waters. These sea routes are
commonly used by merchant ships.
2. Internet is the direct outcome of a US military research project that began in 1950. Even
today, internet relies on a global network of satellites.

Q7. How does India maintain its relations with the US during post Cold War?
Answer: After the collapse of Soviet Union India decided to liberalise its economy and integrate
it with global economy. Indias impressive economic growth rate made India an attractive
economic partner for the US due to its technological dimensions and the role of Indian-
American diaspora. These two factors are interrelated in the following ways:
1. The US absorbs about 65 per cent of Indias total exports in the software sector.
2. 35 per cent of the technical staff of Boeing is estimated to be of Indian origin.
3. 300,000 Indians work in Silicon Valley.
4. 15 per cent of all high-tech start ups are by Indian-Americans.

Q8. Explain the strategies which, may be performed by India to maintain Indo-US
relations.
Answer: In todays scenario India is supposed to decide what type of relations to have with the
US. Moreover, the three strategies have been debated by Indian analysts:
1. Indian analysts observed military nature of US hegemony and suggested that India should
maintain its aloofness from Washington and focus upon increasing its own comprehensive
national power.
2. The analysts secondly suggest that India should take advantage of the US hegemony and the
mutual convergences to establish the best possible options for itself in future perspective.
3. The third strategy is suggested that India should lead in establishing a coalition from the
developing countries to become powerful and work out in weaning the hegemon away from its
dominating ways. Moreover, it cannot be concluded that India may opt for one strategy to
maintain Indo-US relations, but it needs a mix of strategies to maintain its own identity.

Passage Based Questions

1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:

During the Cold War years, India found itself on the opposite side of the divide from the
US. Indias closest friendship during those years was with the Soviet Union. After the
collapse of Soviet Union, India suddenly found itself friendless in an increasingly hostile
international environment. However, these were also the years when India decided to
liberalise its economy and integrate it with the global economy. This policy and Indias
impressive economic growth rate made the country an attractive economic partner for a
number of countries including the US.

Questions
1. Name the country which was Indias closest friend during Cold War years.
2. What was Indias policy during post Cold War years?
3. What made India an attractive economic partner for the countries like the US?
Answer:
1. Soviet Union.
2. India decided to liberalise its economy and integrate it with global economy.
3. Indias policy of liberalisation and its impressive economic growth rate.
2. Read the following passage (NCERT Textbook, page 47) carefully and answer the questions:
Some people argue that it is strategically more prudent to take advantage of the opportunities
that hegemony creates. For instance, raising economic growth rates requires increased trade,
technology transfers and investment, which are best acquired by working with rather than
against the hegemon. Thus, it is suggested that instead of engaging in activities opposed to
hegemonic power, it may be advisable to extract benefits by operating within the hegemonic
system. This is called the bandwagon strategy.

Questions
1. What is prudent during a period of hegemony?
2. What benefits can be acquired within the hegemonic system?
3. What is the bandwagon strategy?
Answer:
1. To take advantage of opportunities that a hegemon creates.
2. Increased trade, technology transfers and investment.
3. To extract benefits by operating within hegemonic system in place of being engaged in the
opposed activities.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Examine any three factors responsible for the US hegemony in the world politics.
Answer: Three factors responsible for the US hegemony in the world politics are
(i) The US power lies in the overwhelming superiority of its military power. American military
dominance today is both absolute and relative. In absolute terms, the US today has military
capabilities that can reach any point on the planet accurately, lethally and in real time, thereby
crippling the adversary while its own forces are sheltered to the maximum extent possible from
the dangers of war.
(ii) No other power today can remotely match them. The US today spends
more on its military capability than the next 12 powers combined. Further more, a large chunk of
the Pentagons budget goes into military research and development, or, in other words,
technology. Thus, the military dominance of the US is not just based on higher military
spending, but on a qualitative gap, a technological chasm that no other power can at present
conceivably span.
(iii) The US invasion of Iraq shows that the American capacity to conquer is formidable. Similarly
the US capability to deter and to punish is self-evident. More than forty countries joined in the
US-led coalition of the willing after the UN refused to give its mandate to theinvasion. Thus, no
country can deny the US superiority in the world politics.

Q2. Explain the three types of US hegemony and give examples for each.
Answer: GO Hegemony as Hard Power:
(a) This hegemony signifies military status of America to be both absolute and relative. In
absolute terms, it has military capabilities to reach any point on the Planet accurately and no
other power today can remotely match them.
(b) The US military dominance is based on both the higher military expenditure and on a
qualitative gap i.e. technological know-how.
(ii) Hegemony as Structural Power:
(a) It signifies Economic Prospects of hegemon power to possess both the ability and the
desire to establish certain norms for order and sustain global structure even including goods to
be consumed by one person without reducing the amount of goods available for someone else.
(b) A classical example is academic
degree MBA (Masters in Business Administration) to presume business as a profession to be
dependent upon skills that can be taught in a University which is uniquely American.
(iii) Hegemony as Soft Power:
(a) US Hegemony has its cultural dimensions also which implies class ascendancy in social,
political and particularly ideological spheres to shape the behaviour of competing and lesser
powers.Here, the consent goes hand in and more effective than coercion.
(b) For example, most of the dreams of individuals and societies across the globe, are dreams
churned out by practices prevailing in twentiethcentury America. All these are about the
capacity to manufacture consent.

Q3. What are different natures of hegemony? Explain.

Answer: Hegemony is an international system to dominate world by only one superpower. The
natures of hegemony can be found out as follows:
(i) Hegemony as Hard Power:
(a) It is based on the military capability between the states.
(b) The US military dominance is based on their higher expenditures on military as well as the
technological know-how.
(c) The US bears military dominance in both the terms i.e. absolute and relative. In absolute
terms the US military capabilities can reach any point on the planet and no other power can be
a match to them.
(ii) Hegemony as Structural Power:
(a) It is based on economic factors of the world dominated by the hegemonic power.
(b) Hegemony must sustain global structure to establish certain norms for order and the US has
set up Bretton Woods System.
(c) The US hegemony has provided the global public goods to be consumed by one person
without reducing the amount available for someone else as SLoCs and the Internet, MBA
degree.
(iii) Hegemony as Soft Power:
(a) To dominate world even in reference of cultural dimensions i.e. class ascendancy in social,
political and ideological spheres.
(b) The US hegemony has the capacity to create manufacturing consent by the class to be
dominated by the hegemon.
(c) The blue jeans from the US is capable to engineer even a generational divide.

Q4. How can the US hegemony be checked?

Or
How long will hegemony last? How do we get beyond hegemony?
Answer:
(i) The US hegemony has been symbolised as the global village and other countries as its
neighbours.
(ii) If the headman of global village becomes intolerable, neighbours do not have any choice of
leaving it, but develop a resistant.
(iii) Though there are some rules and norms called laws of war that restrict but do not prohibit
war.
(iv) No single power can challenge the US militarily.
Still, to overcome the US hegemony, the following strategies have been found out: (a)
Bandwagon strategy emphasises not to oppose hegemonic power, instead take advantage of
opportunities that hegemon creates i.e. increased trade and technology transfer and
investments to extract benefits by operating within hegemonic system. (.b) To hide strategy
implies to stay as far removed from the dominant power as possible as China, Russia and the
European Union. This strategy is applicable to small states but states may not be able to hide
for substantial length of time.
(c) Non-state actors as writers, artists and intellectuals have no boundaries to work with. They
can reach beyond the limits of the states to mould the minds of people through their
expressions.

Q5. What is meant by Operation Iraqi Freedom? Mention its main and hidden objectives.
Give any two consequences of this operation.
Answer: Operation Iraqi Freedom was the code name given by the US to launch invasion on 19
March 2003. More than 40 countries joined in the US led coalition of the willing after the UN
refused to give its mandate to the invasion.
Main Objective: To prevent Iraq from developing Weapons of Mass Destructions (WMD). Since
no evidence of WMD has been unearthed in Iraq. Hidden Objective: It was motivated by
controlling Iraqi Oilfields and installing a regime friendly to the US. Consequences of this
Operation
1. Although the government of Saddam Hussein fell swiftly but US has not been able to pacify
Iraq.
2. A fully fledged insurgency against US occupation was ignited in. Iraq.
3. Conservatively estimated that 50,000 Iraqi civilians have been killed since the US-led
invasion.
4. It is widely recognised that the US invasion of Iraq was, in some crucial respects, both a
military and political failure.

Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1. Study the cartoon given above and answer the following questions:

(i) Which country is represented by this mighty soldier?

(ii) Why have the names of so many countries been written on the uniform of the soldier?
(iii) What message does this cartoon convey to the international community?
Answer:
(i) The United States of America is represented by this mighty soldier.
(ii) On 19 March 2003, the US launched its invasion of Iraq under the codename Operation
Iraqui Freedom. More than forty other countries joined in the US-led invasion. The names of
these countries have been written on this soldiers uniform.
(iii) This cartoon shows that America is all powerful and can go to any extent to serve its
interests. It attacked Iraq even after the UN refused to give its mandate to the invasion.
Q2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:
THE NEW U.S. FOREIGN POLICY?

Questions
1. Who has been represented by cartoon wearing cap?
2. What does this cartoon try to speak?
3. Which event can be correlated with this cartoon?
4. You posed a potential threat. What does this refer?
Answer:
1. The USA.
2. The US hegemony.
3. The US response to 9/11 attack against Al-Qaeda and Taliban.
4. 9/11 attack was an attack on the US hegemony and in response they launched operation
Enduring Freedom to teach a lesson to the countries if it is dared to repeat.

Q3. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. How long do you think the US will stay on the superpower stage?
2. Except China, who can be shown as waiting in the wings?
3. What is being represented in the cartoon?
4. Why China has been represented as waiting in the wings?
Answer:
1. The US will stay on the superpower stage till the rest of the world is resistant with the US and
the mega states like China, Russia, India and EU follow the strategy to hide.
2. Either Russia or India or EU.
3. The well established US hegemony or unipolar world and other countries may be next in the
wings.
4. China is a mega-state who can stand at par US hegemony if it accommodates its full potential
for the same.

Q4. On a political outline map of the world locate and label the following and symbolise
them as indicated:

Questions
1. The country Iraq invaded in Aug. 1990.
2. The country in the presidentship of Saddam Hussein.
3. The country referred to as a hegemonic power.
4. The Operation Infinite Reach was launched against these countries.
Answer:
1. Kuwait (A).
2. Iraq (B).
3. The USA (C).
4. Afghanistan and Sudan (D) and (E).

chapter 4
TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Arrange the following in chronological order:

(a) Chinas accession to WTO
(b) Establishment of the EEC
(c) Establishment of tlr EU
(d) Birth of ARF
Answer:
(b) Establishment of the EEC 1957
(c) Establishment of the EU 1992
(d) Birth of ARF 1994
(a) Chinas accession to WTO

Q2. The ASEAN WAY:

(a) Reflects the lifestyle of ASEAN members.
(b) A form of interaction among ASEAN members that is informal and cooperative.
(c) The defence policy followed by the ASEAN members.
(d) The road that connects all the ASEAN members.
Answer: (b) A form of interaction among ASEAN members that is informal and cooperative.

Q3. Who among the following adopted an open door policy?

(a) China (b) EU
(c) Japan (d) USA
Answer: (a) China

Q4. Fill in the blanks:

(a) The border conflict between China and India in 1962 was principally
over..and..region.
(b) ARF was established in the year..
(c) China entered into bilateral relations with (a major country) in 1972.
(d) ..plan influenced the establishment of the organisation for European Economic
Cooperation in 1948.
(e).. is the organisation of ASEAN that deals with security.
Answer:
(a) Arunachal Pradesh, Aksai Chin,
(b) 1994,
(c) the US,
(d) Marshall,
(e) Asian Regional Forum.

Q5. What are the objectives of establishing regional organisations?

Answer: The regional organisations are established with the following objectives:
1. To make regional development at par the fast growing global economy.
2. To accelerate economic growth through the social progress and cultural development.
3. To promote regional peace and stability based on the rule of law and the principles of United
Nations Charter.

Q6. How does the geographical proximity influence the formation of regional
organisations?
Answer: The geographical proximity influences the formation of regional organisations
because:
1. It is influenced by almost some historical enmities and weaknesses.
2. Sometimes the similar interests come together.
3. Even fruitful areas for regional economy are also the result of geographical proximity.

Q7. Wha.are the components of the ASEAN Visiong020?

Ans: The com10nents of ASEAN Vision 2020 can be summed up as follows:
1. An ou.ward looking role in internatioial community.
2. To encourage negotiations over conflicts in tie region.
3. To mediate tc end the conflicts i.e. Cambodian conflict, East Timor Crisis, annual discussion
on East Asian Cooperatioi through meetings.

Q8. Name the pillars aid objectives of ASEAN community.

Answer: The ASEAN community established the following three pillars:
1. The ASEAN Security Community
2. The ASEAN Economic Community
3. The ASEAN Socio-cultural Community.
The objectives of ASEAN community are as follows:
1. Territorial disputes should not escalate into armed confrontations.
2. To accelerate economic growth through social progress and cultural development.
3. To promote regional peace and stability based on the rule of law and the principles of the
United Nations Charter.
4. To establish dispute settlement mechanism to resolve economic disputes.
5. To create Free Trade Areas for investments, labour and services.

Q9. In what ways does the present Chinese economy differ from its command economy?
Answer: The present Chinese economy has adopted the open door policy to generate higher
productivity by investments of capital and technology. It differed from its command economy in
the following manner:
1. It broke stagnancy of command economy.
2.Command economy lagged behind the industrial production but Chinese economy recovered
it by privatisation of agriculture and industry.
3. The present Chinese economy established new trading laws and created Special Economic
Zones leading higher rise in foreign trade. During Command economy the international trade
was minimal and per capita income was very low.

Q10. How did the European countries resolve their Post Second World War problem?
Briefly outline the attempts that led to the formation of the European Union.
Answer: After the end of Second World War in 1945, the European States confronted the ruin
of their economies and the destruction of assumptions and structures on which Europe had
been founded. European countries resolved their Post Second World War problems in the
following manner:
1. Under the Marshall Plan the USA provided financial help to revive European economy.
2. The US also created a new collective security structure under NATO.
3. Under the Marshall Plan the organisation for European Economic Cooperation was
established in 1948 to extend cooperation on trade and economic issues among the Western
European States.
4. European Union was founded in 1992 for a common foreign and security policy, cooperation
on justice and home affairs and creation of a single currency. It evolved from an economic union
to political one over time.
The following attempts led to the formation of European Union:
1. The Council of Europe was established in 1949 for political cooperation.
2. The process of economic integration of European Capitalist countries led to the formation of
European Economic Community in 1957.
3. The above mentioned processes acquired a political dimension with the creation of European
Parliament.
4. The collapse of Soviet bloc put Europe on a fast track and resulted in the establishment of
European Union in 1992.

Q11. What makes the European Union a highly influential regional organisation?
Answer: As a supernational organisation, the European Union bears economic, political
diplomacy and military influence as a regional organisation in the following manner:
1. Economic Influence:
() Three times larger share in world trade than the US.
(b) Its currency Euro, can pose a threat to the dominance of the US dollar.
(c) The EU functions as an important bloc in the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
2. Political and Diplomatic Influences:
(a) Two members of the EU, Britain and France hold permanent seats in the Security Council to
influence the UN policies.
(b) The EU also includes various non-permanent members of the UNSC.
(c) The European Union play an influential role in diplomacy and negotiations except the military
force i.e. the EUs dialogue with China on human rights and environmental degradation is
remarkable.
3. Military Influence:
(o) The EUs combined armed fo^fees are second largest in the world.
(b) Its total expenditure on military is second to the US.
(c) Its two important members Britain and France also experience nuclear ascends of 550
nuclear warheads.
(d) The EU is worlds second most important source of space and communications technology.

Q12. The emerging economies of China and India have great potential to challenge the
unipolar world. Do you agree with the statement? Substantiate your arguments.
Answer: The Indo-China relations experience strategically organised as rising economic
powers in global politics and to play a major role in Asian economy after the end of Cold War. It
can be proved on the following grounds:
1. The new economic policies of India and China have broken their economy from stagnancy.
2. The creation of special economic zones led to a phenomenal rise in foreign trade.
3. China has become the most important destination for foreign direct investment anywhere in
the world. Hence, it has large reserves for foreign exchange to allow it to make big investment in
other countries.
4. At the global level also, India and China have adopted similar policies in World Trade
Organisation to deepen integration with the world economy to challenge unipolar world.
Q13. The peace and prosperity of countries lay in the establishment and strengthening of
regional economic organisations. Justify this statement.
Answer: This statement represents the ASEAN Regional Forum and the European Union,
where ASEAN Regional Forum is based on the notion not to escalate territorial disputes into
armed confrontation:
1. The ASEAN is rapidly growing as a regional organisation with the Vision 2020 including an
outward looking role in international community and to encourage negotiations over conflicts in
the region.
2. ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) maintains coordination of security and foreign policy.
3. The EU has also been funded on the ground of common foreign and security policy,
cooperation on justice and home affairs.
4. The European Union has also extended cooperation while acquiring new members especially
from Soviet bloc.

Q14. Identify the contentious issues between China and India. How could these be
resolved for greater cooperation? Give your suggestions.
Answer: The relations with China experience friendly gestures from India as India signed
popular Panchsheel to develop Indo-China relations in 1954 and advocated Chinas
membership to the United Nations. Still, after 1957, various contentious issues arose in Indo-
China relations:
1. In 1962, military conflict over a border dispute of MacMohan Line resulted on unwarranted
claim by China which now lie in Arunachal Pradesh and Aksai Chin region of Ladakh.
2. Differences arose from Chinese take over of Tibet in 1950 which was protested by India
against China.
3. After Panchsheel, attack by China on India in 1962, to occupy larger territories of India,
created humiliation.
4. Chinas assistance to Pakistans nuclear programme also created differences.
5. Chinas military relations with Bangladesh and Myanmar were viewed as hostile to Indian
interests.
All the above mentioned differences/ disputes could be resolved for greater cooperation-
1. Both the countries should make some more efforts to revive harmonious attitude between
themselves.
2. Both the countries should move hand-in-hand to fight against terrorism, nuclear race and
economic disparities.
3. Both the countries should develop understanding and respect.
4. Hence, both of them have signed agreements on cultural exchange and cooperation in
science and technology.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]

Q1. What is meant by ASEAN WAT?

Answer: ASEAN WAY is an interaction that is informal, confrontationist and cooperative to
promote supernational structures in the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN).

Q2. Correct the following statement and rewrite ASEAN stands for Association of South
East African Nations.
Or
What does ASEAN stand for?
Answer: ASEAN stands for Association of South East Asian Nations.
Q3. In which year the European Union was established?
Answer: 1992

Q4. What is the common currency of EU?

Answer: EURO

Q5. Name any two older members of EU.

Answer: Austria and Denmark

Q6. Name any two new members of EU.

Answer: Estonia and Poland.

Q7. What does the circle with golden stars on the European Union flag stand for?
Answer: The circle with golden stars on the European Union flag stands for solidarity and
harmony between the people of Europe.

Q8. Mention the major challenges faced in Europe after Second World War.
Answer: 1. Shattered many assumptions and structures on which European states maintained
their relations.
2. The European states confronted the ruin of economies and the destruction on which Europe
had been founded.

Q9. What is European Union?

Answer: European Union is a group of European capitalist countries established in 1992 for
common goal of foreign and security policy, cooperation and home affairs.

Q10. What was Marshall Plan?

Answer: Marshall Plan was introduced by America to provide financial help for revival of
European economy.

Q11. Name two countries of European Union who opposed Americas Iraq invasion.
Answer: Germany and France.

Q12. What is ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF)?

Answer: ASEAN Regional Forum was established in 1994 to carry out coordination and foreign
policy among ASEAN members.

Q13. What is the significance of ASEAN flag?

Answer: In the ASEAN logo, the ten stellas of paddy (rice) represent the ten South East Asian
countries bound together in friendship and solidarity. The circle symbolises the unity of ASEAN.

Q14. When did China get independence?

Answer: 1949
Q15. What is SEZs (Special Economic Zones)?
Answer: Special Economic Zones are created to set up their own enterprises by foreign
investors.

Q16. Mention the three pillars formed in ASEAN.

Answer: 1. The ASEAN Security Community
2. The ASEAN Economic Community
3. The ASEAN Socio-Cultural Com-munity.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. Which four common symbols make the European Union look like a nation state?
Answer: The European Union has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.

Q2. Mention any two steps taken by China to improve its economy.
Answer: 1. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) were created to invite foreign investors to set up
their own enterprises.
2. The privatisation of agriculture and industry in 1982 and 1998.

Q3. Mention the agreements signed between India and ASEAN.

Ans: 1. India signed Free Trade Areas (FTAs) with two ASEAN members, Singapore and
Thailand.
2. India is trying to sign on FTA with ASEAN itself.

Q4. What are the odds which limit the ability of EU?
Answer: European Union is a supernational organisation but in many areas its member states
have their own foreign relations and defence policies that are often at odds as-
1. British Prime Minister Tony Blair supported the USs Iraq invasion and many new members
made US led coalition of willing while Germany and France opposed it.
2. Denmark and Sweden have resisted the Maastricht treaty and the adoption of the Euro.

Q5. The European Union is a nation state more than a Economic Union. Justify the
statement.
Ans: The European Union has now started to act more as a nation state because:
1. European Union has its own flag, anthem, founding date and common currency.
2. European Union bears common foreign and security policy.
3. The EU has made efforts to expand areas of cooperation while acquiring new members
especially from Soviet bloc.

Q6. How can we say that ASEAN is an economic association?

Answer: To more extent it can be said that ASEAN is an economic association:
1. ASEAN Economic Community aims at to create open market and production based activities
within ASEAN states.
2. ASEAN has created Free Trade Areas (FTAs) for investment, labour and services.
3. The current economic strength of ASEAN as a trading and investment partner to the growing
Asian economies as India and China make this attractive proposition.
Q7. What are the objectives of ASEAN Economic Community?
Answer: The objectives of ASEAN Economic Community are as follows:
1. To create common market and production based activities within ASEAN states.
2. To aid social and economic development.
3. To resolve economic disputes, the existing dispute settlement mechanism has been
improved.
4. Free Trade Areas for investment, labour and services have also been created.

Q8. How do ASEAN members commit to uphold peace and neutrality?

Answer: ASEAN members commit to uphold peace and neutrality-
1. ASEAN security community is based on the conviction that territorial disputes should not
escalate into armed confrontation.
2. By 2003, ASEAN had several agreements among members states to uphold peace,
neutrality, cooperation, non-interference, respect for national differences and sovereign rights.
3. ASEAN Regional Forum was established in 1994 to coordinate security and foreign policy.

Q9. What are economic challenges of China despite its economic development?
Answer: Though the Chinese economy has improved dramatically, still everyone in China has
not been benefitted by the reforms which can be judged by the following facts-
1. Unemployment has risen. About 100 million people are looking for jobs.
2. Female employment and conditions are bad as in Europe of 18th and 19th centuries.
3. Increasing environmental degradation and corruption.
4. Rising economic inequality between rural and urban residents.

Q10. How did relations improve after the conflict of 1962 between India and China?
Answer: Indo-China war of 1962 had complicated Indo-China relations. After 1976 the relations
began to improve slowly because:
1. Chinas policy became more pragmatic and less ideological due to change in Chinas political
leadership in the late 1970s when China got ready to settle the contentious issues.
2. A series of talks to resol ve the border issues were also initiated to develop harmonious
relations.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. How has the European Union evolved over time from an economic union to an
increasingly political one?
Answer: The European Union has evolved over time from an economic union to an increasingly
political one. The EU has started to act more as a nation state. While the attempts to have a
constitution for the EU have failed, it has its own flag, anthem, founding date, and currency. It
also has some form of a common foreign and security policy in its dealings with other nations.
The European Union has tried to expand areas of cooperation while acquiring new members,
especially from the erstwhile Soviet bloc. The process has not proved easy, for people in many
countries are not very enthusiastic in giving the EU powers that were exercised by the
government of their country. There are also reservations about including some new countries
within the European Union.

Q2. Explain the political, diplomatic influence of European Union as a supernational

organisation.
Answer: Political and Diplomatic Influences:
(a) Two members of the EU Britain and France hold permanent seats in the Security Council
to influence the UN policies.
(b) The EU also includes various non-permanent members of the UNSC.
(c) The European Union plays an influential role in diplomacy and negotiations except the
military force
i. e. the EUs dialogue with China on human rights and environmental degradation is remarkable

Q3. What led to the evolution of the EU from an economic union to an increasingly
political one?
Answer: The European Union has now started to act more as a nation state because-
(i) European Union has its own flag, anthem, founding date and common currency.
(ii) European Union bears common foreign and security policy.
(iii) The EU has made efforts to expand areas of cooperation while acquiring new members
especially from Soviet bloc.

Q4. What are the objectives behind the formation of ASEAN?

Answer: The objectives behind the formation of ASEAN are as follows:
1. Territorial disputes should not escalate into armed confrontations.
2. To accelerate economic growth through social progress and cultural development.
3. To promote regional peace and stability based on the rule of law and the principles of United
Nations
; charter.
4. To establish Dispute Settlement Mechanism to resolve economic disputes.
5. To create Free Trade Areas for investment, labour and services.

Q5. Describe any four significant characteristics of ASEAN.

Answer: 1. To create common market and production based activities within ASEAN States.
2. To aid social and economic development.
3. To resolve economic disputes, the existing dispute settlement mechanism has been
improved.
4. Free Trade Areas for investment, labour and services have also been created.

Q6. What role has been played by European Union in solving the problems of the
European countries?
Answer: 1. The EU functions as an important bloc in international organisation as World Trade
Organisation to intervene in economic areas.
2. The EU has expanded areas of cooperation while acquiring new members especially from
Soviet bloc.
3. The EU has an influential role in the UN policies because its two membersBritain and
France hold permanent seats in the UN Security Council.
4. The EU is influential in the areas of diplomacy, economic investments and negotiation.

Q7. Why India and China both view themselves as rising powers in global politics in spite
of tensions between them? Substantiate your answer by giving any four events that have
brought cordiality in their relationship.
Answer: Due to Indian initiatives, Indo-China relations improved. In 1954, India signed famous
Panchsheel starting a new era of Indo-China friendship. But after 1957 some contentious issues
had been arisen between them:
(i) Tibet Problem
(ii) Border Issues
(iii) Chinese Attack in 1962
(iv) Chinese Assistance to Pakistan.
Gradually, both the countries came together to develop harmonious relations between
themselves:
1. Attempt to normalise relations were restored by exchange of ambassadors.
2. Joint Working Group was set up by both the countries to resolve border dispute.
3. Both of them committed to reduce the forces on Indo-China border.
4. Indian and Chinese leadership and official visits with great frequency.
5. Increasing transportation and communication links, common economic interests and global
concerns.

Q8. Why was European Union founded? What were its objectives and significance?
Answer: The European Union was founded in 1992 for a common foreign and security policy,
cooperation on justice and home affairs and to create a single currency. Objectives:
1. The circle of gold stars on the flag stands for solidarity and harmony between European
Union States.
2. To expand areas of co-operation while acquiring new members especially from Soviet bloc.

Q9. Why ASEAN was established?

Answer: ASEAN is the regional association to provide a political forum to discuss political and
security concerns-
1. Before and during the Second World War, the southeastern region of Asia suffered the
economic and political consequences of repeated colonialism, both European and Japanese.
2. At the end of war it confronted problems of nation building, the progress of poverty and
economic backwardness and the pressure to align with one great power or another during cold
war.

Q10. China has emerged as third alternative to world power. Examine.

Answer: China emerged as the third alternative to world power since its economic reforms of
1978 as China has been the fastest growing economy since the reforms first began there-
1. China is projected to overtake the US as the worlds largest economy by 2040.
2. Its economic integration into the region makes it drive of East Asian growth.
3. Its strength of economy are population, landmass, resources, regional location, political
influence, added to its power.

Q11. How did China end its political and economic isolation?
Answer: China had adopted Soviet model of economy. Despite development, China faced
economic crisis as industrial production was not growing fast, international trade was minimal.
Under these situations some major pplicy decisions were taken-
1. China established relations with the US in 1972.
2. China proposed four areas of modernisation as agriculture, industry, science and technology
in 1973.
3. Open door policy was introduced to generate higher productivity by investment of capital and
technology from abroad.
4. Privatisation of agriculture and industry in 1982 and 1998.
5. China set Special Economic Zones to remove trade barriers.
Q12. Chinese economy has been recognised at the global level. Justify.
Answer: China has introduced open market economy which is moving China towards global
economy due to following facts-
1. The integration of Chinese-economy and interdependencies has enabled China to have
considerable influence with its trade partners.
2. The open door policy has stabilised the ASEAN economy.
3. Chinas outward looking for investment and aid policies in Latin America and Africa are
protecting China as a global player.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
ASEAN was and still remains principally an economic association. While the ASEAN
region as a whole is a much smaller economy compared to the US the EU, and Japan, its
economy is growing much faster than all these. This accounts for the growth in its
influence both in the region and beyond. The objectives of the ASEAN Economic
Community are to create a common market and production base within ASEAN States
and to aid social and economic development in the region. The Economic Community
would also like to improve the existing ASEAN Dispute Settlement Mechanism to resolve
economic disputes. ASEAN has focused on creating a Free Trade Area (FTA) for
investment, labour, and services. The US and China have already moved fast to negotiate
FTAs with ASEAN.

Questions
1. What is the objective of ASEAN Economic Community?
2. Why did ASEAN establish Free Trade Areas (FTAs)?
3. How ASEAN Economic Community would resolve economic disputes?
4. Which countries have already moved fast to negotiate FTAs with ASEAN and why?
Answer:
1. To create common market and production based activities within ASEAN states itself and to
aid social and economic development.
2. Free Trade Areas have been established for investment, labour and services.
3. By improving the existing ASEAN Dispute Settlement Mechanism.
4. ASEAN is rapidly growing into areas of regional organisation with its Vision 2020.

Q2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
The conflict of 1962, in which India suffered military reverses, had long-term implications
for India-China relations. Diplomatic relations between the two countries were
downgraded until 1976. Thereafter, relltions between the two countries began to improve
slowly. After the change in Chinas political leadership from the mid to late 1970s,
Chinas policy became more pragmatic and less ideological. So it was prepared to, put
off the settlement of contentious issues while improving relations with India. A series of
talks to resolve the border issue were also initiated in 1981.

Questions
1. Why did India suffer military reverses as a result of conflict of 1962?
2. When did the relations between India and China begin to improve?
3. What was the change in the policy of China in the seventies?
4. Which efforts were made to resolve the border issues between India and China?
Answer:
1. Due to territorial claims principally in Arunachal Pradesh and Aksai Chin region of Ladakh.
2. From the mid to late 1970s.
3. Chinas policy became more pragmatic and less ideological in the seventies.
4. 1. It prepared to put off settlements
of contentious issues.
2. A series of talks to resolve the border issues were initiated in 1981.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. How did China rise to be an economic superpower? Assess.

Answer: China had adopted Soviet model of economy. Despite development, China faced
economic crisis as industrial production was not growing fast, international trade was minimal.
Under these situations some major policy decisions were taken-
1. China established relations with the US in 1972.
2. China proposed four areas of modernisation as agriculture, industry, science and technology
in 1973.
3. Open door policy was introduced to generate higher productivity by investment of capital and
technology from abroad.
4. Privatisation of agriculture and industry in 1982 and 1998.
5. China set Special Economic Zones to remove trade barriers.
6. The integration of Chinese economy and inter-dependencies has enabled China to have
considerable influence with its trade partners.
7. The open door policy has stabilised the ASEAN economy.
8. Chinas outward looking for investment and aid policies in Latin America and Africa are
projecting China as a global player.

Q2. Why is the EU considered a highly influential regional organisation in the economic,
political and military fields?
Answer: Because-
1. Economic Influence:
(a) Three times larger share in World trade than the US.
(b) Its currency Euro can pose a threat to the dominance of US Dollar.
(c) The EU functions as an important bloc in World Trade Organisation (WTO).
2. Political Influence:
() Two members of the EU, Britain and France hold permanent seats in Security Council to
influence UN policies.
(b) The EU also includes various non-permanent members of UNSC.
(c) The European Union plays an influential role in diplomacy and negotiations except military
force i.e. EUs dialogue with China on Human Rights and environmental degradation is
remarkable.
3. Military Influence:
(a) The EUs combined armed forces are second largest in world.
(b) Its total military expenditure is second to the US.
(c) Its two important members Britain and France also experience nuclear arsenals of 550
nuclear warheads.
(d) The EU is worlds second most important source of space and communication technology.
Q3. Discuss Indo-China relations.
Answer: The relations with China experienced friendly gestures from India as India signed
popular Panchsheel to develop Indo-China relations in 1954 and advocated Chinas
membership to the United Nations still, after 1957, various contentious issues arose in Indo-
China relations-
1. In 1962, military conflict over a border dispute of MacMohan Line resulted an unwarranted
claim by China which lies now in Arunachal Pradesh and Aksai Chin regions of Ladakh.
2. Differences arose from Chinese take over of Tibet in 1950 which was protested by India
against China.
3. After Panchsheel, attack by China on India in 1962, to occupy larger territories of India,
created a humiliation.
4. Chinas assistance to Pakistans nuclear programme also created differences.
5. Chinas military relations with Bangladesh and Myanmar were viewed as hostile to Indian
interests.
All the above mentioned differences/ disputes could be resolved for greater cooperation.
1. Both the countries should make some more efforts to revive harmonious attitude between
themselves.
2. Both the countries should move hand-in-hand to fight against terrorism, nuclear race and
economic disparities.
3. Both the countries should develop mutual understanding and respect.
4. Hence, both of them have signed agreements on cultural exchange and cooperation in
science and technology.

Picture/Map Based Questions [5 Marks]

Q1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Question.
1. The given cartoon is related to which country?
2. Which two symbols in this cartoon helped in identifying the country?
3. What message does this cartoon convey to the world?
Answer:
1. This cartoon is related to China.
2. The Dragon and the Great Wall helped in identifying the country.
3. This cartoon conveys a message to the world that China is emerging as a great economic
power.

Q2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Question.
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Name the policy that is being represented in the cartoon.
3. What does the Competition refer to in the cartoon?
4. Well have to get used to it. What does it denote?
Answer:
1. Indias policy towards ASEAN.
2. Look East Policy since 1991 to interact with ASEAN, China, Japan and South Korea.
3. Competition among various countries to develop potential relations with ASEAN.
4. It denotes Indias strategy towards using free trade areas with ASEAN

Q3. On a political outline map of world locate and label the following and symbolise them
as indicated:
Questions
1. An older member of EU between Portugal and France. Symbolise (A)
2. An older member near Belgium and Netherlands. Symbolise (B)
3. The four new members of EU. Symbolise 1, 2, 3, 4.
4. Four old members of EU. Symbolise 5, 6, 7, 8.
Answer:
1. Spain
2. Germany
3. 1. Estonia 2. Poland
3. Hungary 4. Lithuania
4. 5. Finland 6. Denmark
7. Austria 8. Ireland

Chapter 5

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Identify the country:
(a) The struggle among pro-monarchy, pro-democracy groups and extremists created an
atmosphere of political instability.
(b) A landlocked country with multiparty competition.
(c) The first country to liberalise the economy in the South Asian region.
(d) In the conflict between the military and pro-democracy groups, the military has
prevailed over democracy.
(e) Centrally located and shares borders with most of the South Asian Countries.
(f) Earlier the island had the Sultans as the head of state. Now, it is a republic.
(g) Small savings and credit cooperatives in the rural areas have helped in reducing
poverty.
( h ) A landlocked country with a monarchy.
Answer:
(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) India
(d) Pakistan
(e) India
(f) Maldives
(g) India
(h) Nepal

Q2. Which among the following statements about South Asia is wrong?
(a) All the countries in South Asia are democratic.
(b) Bangladesh and India have signed an agreement on river-water sharing.
(c) SAFTA was signed at the 12th SAARC Summit in South Asian politics.
(d) The US and China play an influential role in South Asian politics.
Answer: (a) All the countries in South Asia are democratic.

Q3. What are some of the commonalities and differences between Bangladesh and
Pakistan in their democratic experiences?
Answer: Bangladesh has been the part of Pakistan itself. Both of these countries bear some
similarities and differences as follows:
Commonalities
1. Both Bangladesh and Pakistan were under a military rule.
2. At both the places, the struggle for democracy took place in their own way.
3. Pakistans administration began under the command of General Ayub Khan and gave up due
to dissatisfaction among people giving way to Yahyas military rule and continued with the army
rule though elections were held by military rulers to give a democratic shape to their own rule.
4. In the same way, Bangladesh drafted its own constitution to begin with democracy. Sheikh
Mujibur Rahman formed presidential setup by abolishing all the parties except Awami Legue.
But after his assassination the new military ruler Zia-ur-Rahman formed his own party and won
elections in 1979. Later on he was also assassinated and another military leader Lt. Gen. H.M.
Ershad took over. Differences
1. In Pakistan, military, clergy and land-owning aristocrats dominated socially to overthrow
elected government whereas in Bangladesh the leaders and their party members dominated for
the same.
2. Pro-military groups have become more powerful due to conflict with India in Pakistan
whereas in Bangladesh, pro-military groups are powerful due to friendship and encouragement
of India.
Q4. List three challenges to democracy in Nepal.
Answer: The three challenges to democracy in Nepal were the result of a triangular conflict
between-
1. the monarchist forces
2. the democrats
3. the Maoists
These challenges created massive, countrywide, pro-democracy protest in April 2006.

Q5. Name the principal players in the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka. How do you assess the
prospects of the resolution of this conflict?
Answer: The principal players in the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka were Sinhala and Sri Lankan
Tamils.
After its independence, politics in Sri Lanka was dominated by the interests of Sinhala
community who was hostile to Tamils, who migrated from India to be settled there. Sinhalese
presumed Sri Lanka to be belonged to them only, hence no concession should be given to
Tamils. This created militant Tamil nationalism
i. e. Ethnic conflict.
Despite the revenges of internal conflict Sri Lanka has maintained democratic political system
and registered considerable economic growth and high level of human development.

Q6. Mention some of the recent agreements between India and Pakistan. Can we be sure
that the two countries are well in their way to a friendly relationship?
Answer: Although Indo-Pakistan relations seem to be the story of endemic conflict and
violence, there have been a series of efforts to manage tensions and build peace under the
various agreements:
1. Agreed to undertake confidence building measures to reduce the risk of war.
2. Social activists and prominent personalities have collaborated to create an atmosphere of
friendship.
3. Leaders have met at summits to better understanding.
4. Bus routes have been opened up between these two countries.
5. Trade between the two parts of Punjab has increased substantially in the last five years.
6. Visas have been given more easily. No, despite the above mentioned agreements and
initiatives, we can not be sure that both the countries are well in their way to friendship, still
some areas of conflict exist there to be sorted out,

Q7. Mention two areas each of cooperation and disagreement between India and
Bangladesh.
Answer: Disagreement
1. Differences over the sharing of the Ganga and Brahmaputra river waters.
2. Illegal immigration to India.
3. Refusal to allow Indian troops to move through its territory.
4. Not to export natural gas to India.
Cooperation
1. Economic relations have been improved considerably within last ten years.
2. Bangladesh is the part of Indias Look East policy to link up with southeast Asia via
Myanmar.
3. Cooperated on the issues of disaster management and environment.
4. Cooperation on identifying common threats and being more sensitive to each others needs.
Q8. How are the external powers influencing bilateral relations in South Asia? Take any
one example to illustrate your point.
Answer: The external powers influence bilateral relations in South Asia because no region
exists in the vacuum. It is influenced by outside powers and events no matter how much it may
try to insulate itself from non-regional powers:
1. China and the US remain key players in South Asian politics.
2. Sino-Indian relations have improved significantly in the last ten years, but Chinas strategic
partnership with Pakistan remains a major irritant.
3. The demands of development and globalisation have brought the two Asian giants closer and
their economic ties have multiplied rapidly since 1991.
4. The US enjoys good relations with both India and Pakistan and works as a moderator in Indo-
Pak relations.
5. Economic reforms and liberal economic policies in both the countries have increased the
depth of American participation. . _
6. The large South Asian economy remains in the US and the huge size of population and
markets of the region give America an added stake in the future of regional security and peace

Q9. Write a short note on the role and the limitations of SAARC as a forum for facilitating
economic cooperation among the South Asian Countries.
Answer: Role of SAARC: Role of SAARC can be identified as follows:
1. South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) is a regional initiative among
South Asian states to evolve cooperation since 1985 onwards.
2. It consists of seven members to encourage mutual harmony and understanding.
3. SAARC has initiated SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Agreement) to free trade zones for
wThole south Asia for collective economic security.
4. SAARC has projected on economic development of its member states to reduce their
dependencies on the non-regional powers.
Limitations: SAARC is growing slowly due to political differences among its member states
1. Only the conflicts led to bilateral issues as Kashmir problem between India and Pak.
2. Some of the Indias neighbours fear that India intends to dominate them by influencing their
societies and politics.
3. SAARC members are from among the developing or least developing countries which creates
insufficiency of funds.

Q10. Indias neighbours often think that the Indian government tries to dominate and
interfere in the domestic affairs of the smaller countries of the region. Is this a correct
impression?
Answer: No, the impression is not correct because India makes efforts to manage its
neighbours beyond its size and powers which can be justified on following grounds-
1. India often feels exploited by its neighbours.
2. On the other hand, Indias neighbours fear that India wants to dominate them regionally but
India is centrally located who shares borders with other countries geographically, which should
be accepted on mutual understanding.
3. India avoids political instability in its neighbouring states so that outsiders should not take
advantage of influence in the region.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Q1. Fill in the blanks:
The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed by the members of in the
year
Ans: SAARC, 2004.

Q2. Whose mediation resolved the Indus River water dispute between India and
Pakistan?
Answer: The World Bank.

Q3. How long did East and West Pakistan remain together?
Answer: From 1947 to 1971.

Q4. What was the reason for the formation of SAARC?

Answer: The states of South Asia recognised cooperation and friendly relations among
themselves which gave birth to the formation of SAARC for mutual trust and understanding
among its member states.

Q5. What is the full form of SAARC?

Answer: SAARC: South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.

Q6. Mention present status of Sri Lanka.

Answer: Sri Lanka has maintained a democratic political system alongwith a considerable
economic growth i.e. Sri Lanka is one of the first developing countries to control population
growth rate, liberalised economy and bears highest per capita Gross Domestic Product despite
ongoing conflicts.

Q7. What does the MDP stand for?

Answer: MDP stands for Maldivian Democratic Party.

Q8. Who took the command over Pakistan after its first constitution was framed?
Answer: General Ayub Khan.

Q9. What does SPA stand for?

Answer: SPA stands for Seven Party Alliance to protest against monarchy in Nepal.

Q10. What was the former name of Sri Lanka?

Answer: Ceylon.

Q11. Mention changes that occurred in Maldives.

Answer: 1. Transformed into a republic with a presidential form of government in 1968.
2. In June 2005, parliament voted unanimously to introduce multiparty system.
3. Democracy strengthened after 2005 elections.

Q12. What is meant by Geo-politics?

Answer: Geo-politics refers togetherness of countries who are bound with each other
geographically and their interests are also interlinked politically and economically.
Q13. What do you mean by South Asia?
Answer: South Asia signifies a group of seven countries i.e. Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal,
Sri Lanka, Pakistan and the Maldives who stand for diversity in every sense but still constitute
one geopolitical space.

Q14. How did LTTE emerge?

Answer: LTTE emerged 1983 onwards on the negligence of Tamil interest by Sri Lanka
government. Hence, Liberation Tigers of Tamil Elam (LTTE) took birth demanding a seperate
state for Tamil in Sri Lanka.

Q15. What does SAFTA stand for?

Answer: SAFTA: South Asian Free Trade Area Agreement.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. Mention the names of member states of SAARC.

Answer: India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan and Maldives.

Q2. Mention any two objectives of SAARC.

Answer: 1. To provide an integrated programme for regional development.
2. To accelerate economic growth, social progress in the region.

Q3. Democracy in South Asia has expanded the global imagination of democracy. Do
you agree? Justify.
Answer: The various countries in South Asia have experienced mixed record of democracies
and the people also share an aspiration for democracy to be flourished not only in rich or
developed countries but in developing and underdeveloped countries also which can be drawn
from the examples of Nepal, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Maldives, because
1. Every ordinary citizen, rich or poor belonging to different religions view the idea of democracy
positively and support the institutions of representative democracy.
2. They prefer democracy over any other form of democracy and think that democracy is
suitable for their country

Q4. Explain the problems that India have with Pakistan.

Answer: India have following problems with Pakistan:
1. The problem of Kashmir on the issues of Pak occupied Kashmir (Pok) and Line of Control
(LOC). India claims Kashmir to be its integral part and Pakistan refuses to accept it. Hence,
wars took place in 1965 and 1971, but issue remained unsettled.
2. Problems over starting issues like control of Siachin glacier and over acquisition of arms
involved both the states acquiring nuclear weapons and missiles to deliver such arms against
each other in 1990s.
3. Pakistan government has been blamed for using a strategy of low key violence by helping
Kashmiri militants with arms, training, money and protection to carry out terrorist strikes against
India.
4. Paks spy agency Inter Services Intelligence (ISI) is alleged to involve in various anti India
campaigns.
Q5. Military rule and democracy are the two sides of a coin in Pakistan. Examine the
statement.
Answer: Military rule and democracy co-exist or are the two sides of a coin can be examined
with the following facts:
1. After the implementation of first constitution in Pakistan, General Ayub Khan took the
command, but was overthrown by military general Yahya Khan due to dissatisfaction of rule.
2. Again in 1971, Zulfikar Ali Bhutto formed an elected government which was later removed by
General Zia-ul- Haq in 1977.
3. 1982 onwards, pro-democracy movements took place resulting an elected democratic
government in 1988 under leadership of Benazir Bhutto, replaced by Nawaz Sharif.
4. Nawaz Sharif was again removed by General Pervez Musharraf in 1999 and in 2005, he got
himself elected as president but was later dethroned by the court.

Q6. What is Indus River Water Treaty? Mention its significance also.
Answer: India and Pakistan signed Indus River Water Treaty by the mediation of the world
bank in 1960 over the issue of sharing of rivers of the Indus basin. This treaty has been survived
despite many military conflicts between these two countries. .

Q7. Why did India help Bangladesh to get independence and how?
Answer: Bangladesh was created by the support of India because:
1. West Pakistan did not allow Awami League, an East Pakistani Party to form government
despite winning all the seats.
2. East Pakistanis rebelled against and were suppressed by the army of West Pakistan,
resulting large scale migration into India.
3. This created huge refugee problem for India.
4. Hence, India supported the demand of East Pakistanis financially and militarily.
5. In December 1971, a war took place between India and Pakistan and ended with the
surrender of Pakistani forces by forming Bangladesh as an independent country.

Q8. Mention some points of agreement between India and Nepal.

Answer: India and Nepal enjoy the following agreements:
1. Allow their citizens to travel and work without visas and passport.
2. India is the largest aid giver to Nepal to provide financial and technical assistance in areas of
trade, scientific cooperation, common natural resources and electricity generation.

Q9. Mention the features of SAFTA.

Answer: South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed by SAARC members in 2004
with the following features:
1. Formation of Free Trade Zone for whole south Asia.
2. To sustain mutual trade and cooperation among SAARC members.

Q10. Mention some other conflicts in South Asia except with that of India.
Answer: 1. Nepal and Bhutan as well as Bangladesh and Myanmar have disagreement over
the migration of ethnic Nepalese into Bhutan and Rohingyas into Myanmar.
2. Bangladesh and Nepal bear some differences over the future of Himalayan river water.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Despite the mixed record of democratic experience, the people of all the countries of
South Asia share the aspiration of democracy.
Answer: The various countries in South Asia have experienced mixed record of democracies
and the people also share an aspiration for democracy to be flourished not only in rich or
developed countries but in developing and underdeveloped countries also which can be drawn
from the examples of Nepal, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Maldives, because:
1. Every ordinary citizen, rich or poor and belonging to different religions view the idea of
democracy positively and support the institutions of representative democracy.
2. They prefer democracy over any other form of democracy and think that democracy is
suitable for their country.

Q2. Describe any two major issues of conflicts between India and Pakistan leading to the
war of 1971.
Answer: The 1947-48 war resulted in the division of the province into Pakistan occupied
Kashmir (Pok) and the Indian province of Jammu and Kashmir divided by the Line of Control
(LOC). Pakistan claims Kashmir to be its part but India presumes it to be its integral part.
Hence, these conflicts led to war in 1971 and India won but the issues remain unsettled.

Q3. Describe any four consequences of Bangladesh war of 1971.

Answer: 1. India supported the demand of East Pakistan financially and militarily.
2. The war of 1971 made Pakistani forces to surrender in East Pakistan.
3. Bangladesh was formed as an independent country.
4. Bangladesh drafted its constitution declaring faith in secularism, democracy and socialism.

Q4. Explain Indias changing relationship with Pakistan.

Answer: Although Indo-Pakistan relations seem to be story of endemic conflict and violence,
there have been a series of efforts to manage tensions and build peace under the various
agreements:
1. Agreed to undertake confidence building measures to reduce the risk of war.
2. Social activists and prominent personalities have collaborated to create an atmosphere of
friendship.
3. Leaders have met at summits to create better understanding.
4. Bus routes have been opened up between these two countries.
5. Trade between the two parts of Punjab has increased substantially in the last five years.
6. Visas have been given more easily. Despite above mentioned agreements and initiatives, we
cannot be sure that both the countries are well on their way to friendship, still some areas of
conflict exist there to be sorted out.

Q5. Highlight any two issues of cooperation as well as confrontation each between India
and Bangladesh.
Or
Explain any two points of conflict between India and Bangladesh.
Answer: Co-operation:
1. Economic relations have been improved considerably in last ten years.
2. Bangladesh is the part of Indias Look East policy to link up South East Asia via Myanmar.
3. Both the countries have cooperated regularly on the issues of disaster management and
environment.
Confrontation:
1. Bear differences over several issues including the sharing of Ganga and Brahmaputra river
water.
2. India is unhappy on the issues of denial of illegal immigration, refusal to allow Indian troops
and not to export natural gas to India.

Q6. What is meant by SAARC? How can peace and cooperation be enhanced through it?
Answer: SAARC stands for South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation for mutual trust
and understanding among states of South Asia.
Role of SAARC:
1. SAARC is a regional initiative among South Asian states to evolve cooperation since 1985
onwards.
2. It consists of seven members to encourage mutual harmony and understanding.
3. SAARC has initiated SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Agreement) to form free trade zones
for whole South Asia for collective economic security.
4. SAARC has projected on economic development of its member states to reduce their
dependencies on the non-regional powers.

Q7. Name the countries included in South Asia. How can peace and cooperation be
enhanced in this region?
Answer: Countries included in South Asia are India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri
Lanka and Maldives. South Asian countries are diverse in every sense, still constitute one
geopolitical space by enhancing peace and cooperation in the following way-
1. People in all these countries share an aspiration of fair democracy.
2. South Asian members recognise the importance of cooperation and friendly relations among
themselves.
3. SAARC is the regional initiative to evolve cooperation among member states.
4. SAARC members have signed South Asia Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) to free trade for
the whole of south Asia.

Q8. How was democracy restored in Nepal over monarchy? Explain

Answer: Nepal was a Hindu kingdom in the past and then a constitutional monarchy in the
modern period for many years-
1. Throughout this period, the political parties and common people wanted to establish
democracy, but the king retained full control with the help of army and restricted expansion of
democracy.
2. The king accepted new democratic constitution in 1990 due. to pro-democracy movement but
again in 2007, due to triangular conflict of monarchists, democrats and maoists, king abolished
the parliament.
3. A massive countrywide prodemocracy protest took place and achieved first major victory to
force king to restore the house of representatives.
4. But Nepals transition to democracy is not complete. It is moving towards the framing of
constituent assembly to France and its constitution.

Q9. Why did India and Nepal experience differences between themselves?
Answer: India and Nepal experience differences between themselves due to the following
reasons-
1. Indian government expressed displeasure at the warm relationship between Nepal and
China.
2. India is unhappy on inaction of Nepal government against anti-Indian elements.
3. The Maoist movement in Nepal is a security threat to India giving rise to Naxalite groups in
various states of India from Bihar in the North to Andhra Pradesh in the South.

Q10. Mention some features of Indo-Bhutan relationship.

Answer: India does not have any major conflict with the Bhutanese government.
1. The efforts made by Bhutanese monarch to weed out the gurillas and militants from north-
eastern India that operate in the country have been helpful to India.
2. India is involved in big hydroelectric projects in Bhutan and remains the Himalayan Kingdoms
biggest source of development aid.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Pakistan and Bangladesh have experienced both civilian and military rulers, with
Bangladesh remaining democracy, in the Post Cold War period. Pakistan began the post
cold war period with successive democratic governments under Benazir Bhutto and
Nawaz Sharif respectively. But it suffered a military coup in 1999 and-has been run by a
military regime since then. Till 2006, Nepal was a constitutional monarchy with the
danger of the king taking over executive powers. In 2006, a successful uprising led to
restoration of democracy and reduced the king to a nominal position, from the
experience of Bangladesh and Nepal, we can say that democracy is becoming an
accepted norm in the entire region of South Asia.

Questions
1. How did Pakistan begin with Post Cold War period?
2. Mention two reasons for the aspiration of democracy in South Asia.
3. Why these findings are significant?
Answer:
1. Pakistan began with post cold war period with successive democratic government under
Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif.
2. Ordinary citizens rich or poor or belonging to different religions or institutions view democracy
more suitable and support them.
3. Because it was earlier believed that democracy could flourish and find support only in
prosperous countries of the world.

Q2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
No region exists in a vacuum. It is influenced by outside powers and events, no matter
how much it may try to insulate itself from non-regional powers. China and the United
States remain key players in South Asian politics. Sino-Indian relations have improved
significantly in the last ten years, but Chinas strategic partnership with Pakistan remains
a major irritant. The demands of development and globalisation have brought the two
Asian giants closer and their economic ties have multiplied rapidly since 1991.

Questions
1. Which two countries have been referred to as outside powers?
2. Which are the two Asian giants and why they have been called so?
3. Chinas strategic partnership with Pakistan is a major irritant for which country and
why?
Answer:
1. The US and China.
2. India and China, because both of them have been considered as rising economic powers in
the world.
3. India, because China has been seen as a contributor to Pakistans nuclear programme.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Assess the positive and negative aspects of Indias relations with Bangladesh.
Answer: Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from 1947 to 1971. It consisted of the partitioned
areas of Bengal and Assam from British India. The people of this region resented the
domination of Western Pakistan and the imposition of Urdu language. Soon after the partition,
they began protests against the unfair treatment meted out to the Bengali culture and language.
They demanded autonomy for the eastern region. But the government dominated by the West
Pakistan leadership refused their demand. The Pakistan army tried to suppress the mass
movement of the Bengali people. Thousands were killed by the Pakistan army. This led a large
scale migration into India, creating a huge refugee problem for India. The government of India
supported the demand of the people of East Pakistan for their independence and helped them
financially and militarily. This resulted in a war between India and Pakistan in December 1971
that ended in surrender of the Pakistan forces in East Pakistan and the formation of Bangladesh
as an independent country.

Q2. How is the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) a major
regional initiative by South Asian States to evolve co-operation through multilateral
means? Assess.
Answer: Role of SAARC:
Role of SAARC can be identified in the following ways:
1. South Asia Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) is a regional initiative among
South Asian States to evolve cooperation since 1985 onwards.
2. It consists of seven members to encourage mutual harmony and understanding.
3. SAARC has initiated SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Agreement) to form free trade zones
for whole South Asia for collective economic security.
4. SAARC has projected economic development of its member states to reduce their
dependencies on the non-regional powers.
South Asian free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed by SAARC members in 2004 with the
following features:
1. Formation of free trade zone for whole South Asia.
2. To lower trade tarrifs by 20%.
3. To sustain mutual trade and cooperation among SAARC members.

Q3. Like India why could democracy not take roots in Pakistan despite the fact that both
the countries share a common part?
Or
Explain the factors responsible for Paks failure in building a stable democracy.
Or
Describe any two pro-democracy factors present in Pakistan which can pave the way for
establishing a lasting democratic setup over there?
Or
Since 1947 Pakistan has been experimenting with democratic system and the military
rule. In the light of above statement explain any two reasons why democratic system
has not been stable there?
Answer: The following factors are responsible for Pakistans failure in building a stable
democracy:
1. The lack of genuine international support for a democratic rule in Pakistan has encouraged to
military to continue its dominance. The US and other countries have also supported military rule
due to fulfilling their own interests.
2. Pakistans conflict with India has made paramilitary groups more powerful which have often
said that political parties and democracy in Pakistan are flawed, that Pakistans security would
be harmed by selfish minded parties and chaotic democracy, hence army stay in power is
justified.
3. The social dominance of military, clergy, and owning aristocracy has led to frequent
overthrow of elected governments and the establishing of military governments.
4. Global Islamic Terrorism and their apprehension that Pakistans nuclear arsenal might fall into
hands
of these terrorist groups, the military regime in Pakistan was seen as the protector of western
interests in West Asia and South Asia.
The two pro-democracy factors present in Pakistan that can pave the way for establishing a
lasting democratic set up over there are:
1. Pakistan bears a courageous and entirely free press.
2. Pakistan enjoys strong human rights movement.

Q4. What are the major differences between SAARC and European Union as an
alternative centres of poor?
Answer: 1. The European Union bears economic political-diplomatic and military influence all
over the region and its closest neighbours whereas SAARC is limited towards its South Asian
Region only.
2. The member states of European Union are maximum from among the developed countries
while SAARC members are from among least developed countries (LOCs)
3. The EU behaves like a nation state by having its own anthem and currency but SARRC does
not enjoy these.
4. The EU performance as an important bloc in international economic organisations such as
WTO but SAARC has initiated SAFTA only to cooperate economically among its member
states.

Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

ut?
3. Im always good at calculations. What does this represent?
Answer:
1. Dual role of Pakistans ruler Pervez
Musharraf as the president and as army General. ,
2. These equations speak about dominance of one person militarily more rather than only
president.
3. It shows the nation that Musharraf wants to command the country militarily and
administratively both to strengthen his power because presidents survival is not easy without
military support.

Q2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Which animals do represent Sinhala and LTTE?
3. What does Sri Lankan leadership speak in the cartoon?
Answer:
1. Sri Lankas ethnic conflict between LTTE and Sinhala.
2. Sinhala by Lion, LTTE by Tiger.
3. Sri Lankan leadership is supposed to balance both Sinhala hardliners and Tamil militants
while negotiating peace.
Q3 On a political outline map of world locate and label the following and symbolise them
as indicated:

rally located and shares borders with most South Asian Countries.
3. Earlier the island had Sultan as head, now its a republic.
4. A landlocked country with a monarchy.
5. Country, where military has prevailed over democracy
Answer:
1. Bhutan
2. India
3. Maldives
4. Nepal
5. Pakistan

Chapter 6
TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED
Q1. Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements about the veto
power:
(a) Only the permanent members of the Security Council possess the veto power.
(b) Its a kind of negative power.
(c) The Secretary General uses this power when not satisfied with any decision.
(d) One veto can stall a Security Council resolution.
Answer: (a) Correct (b) Correct
(c) Wrong (d) Correct
(e) India (f) Maldives
(g) India (h) Nepal

Q2. Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements about the way the UN
functions:
(a) All security and peace related issues are dealt within the Security Council.
(b) Humanitarian policies are implemented by the main organs and specialised agencies
spread across the globe.
(c) Having consensus among five permanent members on security issues is vital for its
implementation.
(d) The members of the General Assembly are automatically the members of all other
principal organs and specialised agencies of the UN.
Answer: (a) Correct (b) Wrong
(c) Correct (d) Wrong

Q3. Which among the following would give more weightage to Indias proposal for
permanent membership in the Security Council?
(a) Nuclear capability
(b) It has been a member of the UN since its inception.
(c) It is located in Asia.
(d) Indias growing economic power and stable political system.
Answer: (d) Indias growing economic power and stable political system.

Q4. The UN agency concerned with the safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology is:
(a) The UN Committee on Disarmament
(b) International Atomic Energy Agency
(c) UN International Safeguard Committee
(d) None of the above.
Answer: (b) International Atomic Energy Agency

Q5. WTO is serving as the successor to which of the following organisations:

(a) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs
(b) General Arrangement on Trade and Tariffs
(c) World Health Organisation
(d) UN Development Programme
Answer: (a) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs

Q6. Fill in the blanks:

(a) The prime objective of UN is
(b) The highest functionary of the UN is called
(c) The UN Security Council has permanent and non permanent members.
(d) is the present UN Secretary General.
Answer: (a) to maintain peace and security
(b) Secretariat
(c) 5, 10
(d) Ban-ki-Moon

Q7. Match the principal organs and agencies of the UN with their functions:
A. 1. Economic and Social Council
2. International Court of Justice
3. International Atomic Energy Agency
4. Security Council
5. UN High Commission for Refugees
6. World Trade Organisation
7. International Monetary Fund
8. General Assembly
9. World Health Organisation
10. Secretariat
B. (a) Oversees the global financial system.
(b) Reservation of international peace and security.
(c) Looks into the economic and social welfare of the member countries.
(d) Safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology.
(e) Resolves disputes between and among member countries.
(f) Provides shelter and medical help during emergencies.
(g) Debates and discusses global issues.
(h) Administration and coordination of UN affairs.
(i) Providing good health for all.
(j) Facilitates free trade among member countries.
Answer: 1. Economic and Social Council
(c) Looks into the economic and social welfare of the member
countries.
2. International Court of Justice
(e) Resolves disputes between and among member countries.
3. International Atomic Energy Agency
(d) Safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology
4. Security Council
(b) Reservation of international peace and security
5. UN High Commission for Refugees
(f) Provides shelter and medical help during emergencies.
6. World Trade Organisations
(j) Facilitates free trade among member countries.
7. International Monetary Fund
(a) Overseas the global financial system.
8. General Assembly
(g) Debates and discusses global issues.
9. World Health Organisation
(j) Providing good health for all.
10. Secretariat
(h) Administration and coordination of UN affairs.
Q8. What are the functions of Security Council?
Answer: Its main function is to maintain peace and security in the world and the other functions
are as follows:
1. The Security Council recommends methods to adjust disputes among nations.
2. Security Council can take military action if required.
3. Security Council elects the judges of International Court of Justice and appoints the Secretary
General by recommending to the General Assembly.
4. Security Council can apply economic sanction also to stop any aggression.
5. The Security Council can investigate the disputes in case a friction arises.

Q9. As a citizen of India, how would you support Indias candidature for the permanent
membership of Security Council? Justify your proposal.
Answer: As a citizen of India, we may support Indias candidature for the permanent
membership of Security Council in the following manner:
1. India is the most populous country in the world with one-fifth of world population.
2. India is worlds largest democracy.
3. Indias economic emergence on the World Stage.
4. India is a regular financial contributor to the UN.
5. India signifies a growing importance in world affairs in conduct of its foreign policy.
6. India participated in all the initiatives of the UN.

Q10. Critically evaluate the difficulties involved in implementing the suggested reforms
to reconstruct the UN.
Answer: The following are the question marks in implementing the suggested reforms to
reconstruct the UN:
1. How big an economic and military power may qualify to become UNSC membership?
2. What level of budget contribution should be enabled?
3. No guarantee to be effective as Council Member in respect for democracy and human rights.
4. Why should the issue of equitable representation decided by geography? Why not by levels
of economic development?
5. Why not to give more seats to members of developing world?
All the above mentioned criteria which were adopted bud not universally accepted. Hence, the
difficulties were involved.

Q11. Though the UN has failed in preventing wars and related miseries, nations prefer its
continuation. What makes the UN an indispensable organisation?
Answer: 1. Interdependence and globalisation is not possible without the international
organisations such as the UN.
2. To enforce cooperation on the issues of poverty, unemployment, environmental degradation,
crime rate etc.
3. To provide financial assistance to developing countries to stabilise economy all over the
world,, the UN and its specialised agencies are always required.
4. The UN works as a forum to solve any international dispute among nations and sort out the
best possible way.
5. Hence, though the UN has failed in preventing related wars and miseries, despite the nations
require its continuation due to above mentioned reasons to promote international peace and
understanding.
Q12. Reforming the UN means restructuring of the Security Council. Do you agree with
this statement? Give arguments for or against this position.
Answer: Yes, we agree with the statement because Security Council plays a crucial role in
functioning of the UN. In todays scenario power equations have been changed with the
disintegration of USSR and many new countries are entering into the UN:
1. The UN charter has given a privileged position to permanent members to bring stability all
over the world. This position remains the same and no one is allowed to enter.
2. Except permanent members enjoy veto power to be placed in a valuable position.
3. Permanent members category is from industrialised developed country which should be
balanced by enhancing representation from developing countries to become either permanent
or non-permanent members.
4. Hence, Security Council should reform and improve its working to make the UN more
effective i.e., inclusion of member states should be judged on the basis of contribution to peace
keeping initiatives.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Q1. Who is present Secretary General of the United Nations?

Answer: Ban-Ki-Moon from South Korea.

Q2. Name any two member states of the European Union who are permanent members of
the UN Security Council.
Answer: Britain and France

Q3. What is the main objective of the United Nations?

Answer: To prevent international conflict and to facilitate cooperation among states.

Q4. Mention any two agencies of the United Nations.

Answer: 1. International Monetary Fund.
2. World Health Organisation.
Ans. Amnesty International is an NGO, which was established to campaign for protection of
human rights all over the world. Its objective is to promote respect for all the human beings and
human rights in the universal declaration of Human Rights.

Q5. How many member countries have got veto power in the UN Security Council and
why?
Answer: Five permanent member countries i.e France, Russia, UK, the US, China got veto
power because they have been emerged as industrialised developed countries to stall any
decision.

Q6. Mention any two advantages of having international organisation in the world?
Answer: 1. To help countries in the matters of conflicts and differences.
2. To make the countries cooperate and create better living conditions for humanity.

Q7. State any two objectives of the UN.

Answer: 1. To maintain international peace and security.
2. To facilitate cooperation among member countries by avoiding conflicts and war.
Q8. State any two objectives of Human Rights watch.
Answer: 1. To draw global medias attention to human rights abuses.
2. To help in building international coalitions like the campaigns to ban land-mines, to stop the
use of child soldier, and to establish international criminal court.

Q9. What reforms in the UN are required?

Answer: Following reforms are required in the UN:
1. Reform of the organisations structures and processes.
2. A review of the issues that fall within the jurisdiction of the organisation.
3. Reforms are required due to certain limitations to the UN i.e. only five members on
permanent basis in the UN Security Council and their veto power, dominance of few powerful
countries etc.

Q10. Discuss the resolution adopted by General Assembly in 1992 over the reform of the
UN Security Council.
Answer: In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution, which reflected three main
complaints:
1. The UN Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
2. Its decisions reflect only western values and interests and are dominated by a few7 powers.
3. It lacks equitable representation. Considering above mentioned demands for restructuring of
the UN on 01 January 1997, the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan initiated an enquiry into how
the UN should be reformed.

Q11. What is the veto power? Should it be modified?

Answer: The veto power is a negative vote to stall any decision by five permanent members of
UN Security Council. Sometimes the moves have been made to modify this but it is presumed
to have a danger to lose interest by great powers, and without their support and involvement
such organisation would become ineffective.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]

Q1. Critically evaluate the difficulties involved in implementing the suggested reforms to
reconstruct the U.N.
Answer: In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution which reflected three main
complaints
The Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
Its decisions reflect only Western values and interests and are dominated by a few powers.
It lacks equitable representation. In view of these growing demands for the restructuring of the
UN, on 1 January, 1997, the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan initiated an inquiry into how the
UN should be reformed. How for instance, should new Security Council members be chosen?
1. Indias nuclear weapon capabilities
2. If India is included, some emerging powers (Brazil, Germany, Japan, South Africa) will also
be accommodated.
3. France and the US advocate that Africa and South America must be represented for they do
not have any representation in the present structure.

Q2. What steps should be taken to make the UN more relevant in the changing context?
Answer: (a) Creation of Peace Building Commission.
(b) Acceptance of responsibility of international community in case of failures of national
governments to protect their own citizens from atrocities.
(c) Condemnation of terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.
(d) An agreement to achieve the Millennium Development Goals.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Countries have conflicteand differences with each other. That does not necessarily mean
they must go to war to deal with their antagonisms. They can instead discuss
contentious issues and find peaceful solutions, indeed, even though this is rarely
noticed most conflicts and differences are resolved without going to war. The role of an
international organisation is not a super-state with authority over its members. It is
created by and responds to states. It comes into being when states agree to its creation.
Once created, it can help member states resolve their problems peacefully.

Questions
1. Is this necessary to engage into wars during conflicts among countries?
2. Is an international organisation a super state?
3. What is the significance of international organisation?
Answer:
1. No, instead countries can discuss contentious issues to find peaceful solutions.
2. No, it is created by and responds to states and comes into being when study agrees to its
creation.
3. To help member states to resolve problems peacefully without going to war.

Q2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
By 2006, the UN had 192 member states. These included almost all independent states. In
the UN General Assembly, all members have one vote each. In the UN Security Council,
there are five permanent members. These are the US, UK, Russia, France, China. These
states were selected as permanent members as they were most powerful immediately
after the Second World War and because they constituted the victors in the war.

Questions
1. How many member states were there in the UN 2006?
2. Name five permanent members of UN Security Council.
3. Why these states were selected as permanent?
Answer:
1. There were 192 member states in the UN by 2006.
2. The UK, US, China, Russia and France are the permanent members.
3. Because they were most powerful immediately after the Second World War and constituted
the victors in the war.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Describe any six criteria for the new membership of Security Council as suggested
after 1997.
Answer: A new member, as suggested after 1997, should be
(i ) A major economic power
(ii) A major military power.
(iii) A substantial contributor to the UN budget.
(iv) A big nation in terms of its populations.
(v) A nation that respects democracy and human rights
(vi) A country that would make the Council more representative of the worlds diversity in terms
of geography, economic system, and culture.

Q2. Examine the role played by India in the implementation of UN policies and
programmes.
Answer: 1. India believes that a strengthened and revitalised UN is desirable in the changing
world.
2. India also supports an enhanced role for the UN in promoting development and cooperation
among states.
3. India believes that the development
should be central to the UNs agenda as it is a vital precondition for the maintenance of
international peace and security.
4. India debates more representation in Security Council may enjoy greater support in world
community.
5. India has major concern about restructuring of UN Security Council.
6. India supports the role of developing countries should be represented in Security Council in
decision making.

Q3. How far did the UN perform its role successor fully in maintaining peace in the
world? Explain.
Answer: 1. Interdependence and globalisation is not possible without the international
organisations such as the UN.
2. To enhance cooperation on the issues of poverty, unemployment, environmental degradation,
crime rate etc.
3. To provide financial assistance to developing countries to stabilise economy all over the
world, the UN and its specialized agencies are always required.
4. The UN works as a forum to solve any international dispute among nations and sort out the
best possible.
5. Hence, though the UN has failed in preventing any related wars and miseries, despite the
nations require its continuation due to above mentioned reasons to promote international peace
and understanding.

Q4. Suggest any six steps since 2005 to make the United Nations more relevant in the
changing context.
Answer: In September 2005, the UN celebrated its 60th anniversary and leaders decided to
make it more relevant in the changing context by following steps:
1. Creation of Peace Building Commission.
2. Acceptance of the responsibility of the international community in case of failures of national
governments to protect their own citizens from atrocities.
3. Establishment of a Human Rights Council (Operational Since 19 June 2006).
4. Agreements to achieve the Millennium Development Goals.
5. Condemnation of terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.
6. Creation of a Democracy Fund.
7. An agreement to wind up the Trusteeship Council.
Q5. Can the UN serve as a balance against the US dominance?
Answer: No, the UN can not serve against the US dominance in a comfort zone because:
1. The US has been the only superpower after 1991 and may ignore international organisations
economically and militarily.
2. Its veto power can stop any move damaging its interests.
3. The US enjoys a considerable degree of say in the selection of the UN Secretary General.
Besides the above mentioned grounds, the UN is playing an effective role to argument against
the US attitudes and policies and makes compromises and concessions even or the part of the
US. The EU performs as an important bloc in International Economic Organisations such as
WTO but SAARC has initiated SAFTA only to cooperate economically among its member
states.

Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1.Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Who is the person being commented in the cartoon?
3. What message does the cartoon convey?
Answer:
1. It represents role of the UN on attack on Lebanan by Israeli forces.
2. The UN Secretary General.
3. It conveys message on relevance of the UN as immediate follow-up was not there by Israeli
forces despite passing a resolution from the UN.
Q2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. What type of crisis does the cartoon show?
3. What message does the cartoon convey?
Answer:
1. A humanitarian crisis in Darfur, Sudan.
2. Starvation, genocide, horror etc.
3. A Big Helping of Words only because during these crises, the international organisations
performed debates, speeches on these but no actual aid or support was reached to peoples.
Q3. On a political outline map of the world locate and label the following and symbolise
them as indicated:

2. Locate and label peace keeping operations.

Answer:
1. 1. France 2. Russia
3. The UK
4. The US
5. China
2. (A) Cyprus 1964
(B) Lebanon 1978
(C) Israel 1974
(D) Sudan 2005
(E) East Timor 2006x
Chapter 7

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Match the terms with their meaning:
1. Confidence Building Measures (CBMs)
2. Arms Control
3. Alliance
4. Disarmament
(a) Giving up certain types ofweapons.
(b) A process of exchanging information on defence matters between nations on a
regular basis.
(c) A coalition of nations meant to deter or defend against military attacks.
(d) Regulates the acquisition of development of weapons.
Answer: (i)-(b); (ii)-(d); (iii)-(c); (iv)-(a).

Q2. Which among the following would you consider as a traditional security
concern/non-traditional/not a threat?
(a) The spread of chikungunya/dengue fever
(b) Inflow of workers from a neighbouring nation.
(c) Emergence of a group demanding nationhood for their region.
(d) Emergence of a group demanding autonomy for their region.
(e) A newspaper that is critical of the armed-forces in the country.
Answer: (a) Non-traditional (b) Non-traditional !(c) Traditional id) Not a threat
(e) Not a threat

Q3. What is the difference between traditional and non-traditional security? Which
category would the creation and sustenance of alliances belong to?
Answer:
Creation and sustenance of alliances belong to traditional notion of security.

Q4. What are the differences in the threats that people in the third world face and those
living in the First World face?
Answer: The threats are different in the third world and first world peoples because their
regions are changed, hence they face different security challenges.in the following manner:
1. The newly independent countries faced the military conflicts even with their neighbouring
states.
2. These countries faced threats not only from outside their borders, mostly from neighbours,
but also from within.
3. Internally, new states worried about threats from separatist movements which wanted to form
independent countries.
4. Sometimes, the external and internal threats merged.
5. For the new states, external wars with neighbours and internal wars posed a serious
challenge to their security.

Q5. Is terrorism a traditional or non- traditional threat to security?

Answer: Terrorism is a non-traditional threat to wound the peace and order in the country:
1. Terrorism refers to political violence to target civilians deliberately and indiscriminately.
2. Civilians are usually terrorised to be it as a weapon against national government and other
parties in the conflict.
3. Terrorism involves hijacking planes or planting bombs in trains, cafes, markets and other
crowded places.
4. After a terrorist attack on World Trade Centre on 11 September 2001, the other governments
and public also are paying more attention to terrorism.
Q6. What are the choices available to a state when its security is threatened, according to
traditional security perspective?
Answer: Traditional security perspective emphasises on compromises to limit the violence by
giving following three choices to the state if its security is threatened:
1. To surrender when actually confronted by war, but they will not advertise this as the policy of
country.
2. To prevent the other side from attacking by promising to raise the costs of war to an
unacceptable level.
3. To defend to protect itself when war actually breaks out so as to deny the attacking country
its objectives and to turn back or to defeat the attacking forces altogether
4. Hence, states security policy is to prevent war which is called deterrence and with limiting or
heading war called defence.

Q6. What are the choices available to a state when its security is threatened, according to
traditional security perspective?
Answer: Traditional security perspective emphasises on compromises to limit the violence by
giving following three choices to the state if its security is threatened:
1. To surrender when actually confronted by war, but they will not advertise this as the policy of
country.
2. To prevent the other side from attacking by promising to raise the costs of war to an
unacceptable level.
3. To defend to protect itself when war actually breaks out so as to deny the attacking country
its objectives and to turn back or to defeat the attacking forces altogether
4. Hence, states security policy is to prevent war which is called deterrence and with limiting or
heading war called defence.

Q7. What is Balance of Power? How could a state achieve this?

Answer: Balance of Power is a balance between bigger and smaller countries by cooperating
with each other economically and technologically. A smaller country is always suspicious to
break out a war from bigger or powerful country. Hence, they maintain a balance of power to
build up ones military power together with economic and technological power-to protect ones
own security

Q8. What are the objectives of military alliances? Give an example of a functioning
military alliance with its specific objectives.
Answer: Objectives:
1. Alliance building is important component of traditional security to threats to deal between
states and nations to deter or defend against military attacks.
2. Alliances are formalised in written treaties and identification of who constitutes the threats.
3. Alliances are formed to increase their effective power relative to another alliance.
4. Alliances are based on national interests and can change when national interest change.
Example-The US backed the Islamic militants in Afghanistan against the Soviet Union in 1980s,
but later attacked them when Al-Qaeda, a group of Islamic militants, led by Osama Bin Laden
launched terrorist strikes against America on 11th September 2001.

Q9. Rapid environmental degradation is causing a serious threat to security. Do you

agree with the statement? Substantiate your arguments.
Answer: Yes, we agree with the statement because in some situations one country may have
to disproportionately bear the brunt of a global problem i.e. environmental degradation causing
a serious threat to security, for example, due to global warming, a sea level rise of 1.5-2.0
meters would flood 20% of Bangladesh, inundate most of Maldives and threaten nearly half the
population of Thailand, Hence, international cooperation is vital due to global nature of these
problems.

Q10. Nuclear weapons as deterrence or defence have limited usage against

contemporary security threats to states. Explain the statement.
Answer: Nuclear weapons have limited usage due to arms-control method of cooperation. One
of the arms-control treaty was the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 to regulate
the acquisition of nuclear weapons. As per this treaty those countries that had fasted and
manufactured nuclear weapons before 1967 were allowed to keep their weapons and those that
had not done so were to give up the right to acquire them. The NPT did not abolish nuclear
weapons rather it limited the number of countries that could have them.

Q11. Looking at the Indian scenario, what type of security has been given priority in
India, traditional or non-traditional? What examples could you cite to substantiate the
arguments?
Answer: India has faced traditional (military) and non-traditional threats to its security that have
emerged from within as well as outside its borders. Its security strategy has four broad
components i e :
1. To strengthen its military capabilities because:
(a) India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48,1965,1971 and
1999 and China in 1962.
(b) In South Asian Region, India is
surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence Indias decision to conduct nuclear test in 1998
was justified to safeguard national security.
(c) India first tested nuclear device in 1974.
2. To strengthen international norms and international institutions:
(a) Indias first Prime Minister J.L. Nehru supported Asian solidarity, disarmament,
decolonisation and the UN as a forum to settle down international conflict.
(b) India took initiatives to bring about a universal and non- discriminatory non-proliferation
regime to enjoy some rights and obligations with respect to weapons of mass destruction.
(c) It used non-alignment to help to carve out an area of peace outside the blocs.
(d) India signed Kyoto Protocol in 1997 to be a part of roadmap for reducing the emissions of
greenhouse gases to check global warming.
3. To meet security challenges within the country:
(a) Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab, Kashmir have
sought to break away from India.
(b) India makes efforts to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system by
providing freedom of speech and expression alongwith the right to vote.
4. To develop its economy:
(a) India develops the way to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty, misery and huge economic
inequalities.
(b) A democratically elected government is supposed to combine economic growth with human
development without any demarcation between the rich and the poor.

Q12. Read the cartoon below and write a short note in favour or against the connection
between war and terrorism depicted in this cartoon.
Answer: Terrorism is non-traditional threat to security as it is goal oriented political

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Q1. Define security.

Answer: Security is an essence for existence of human life to protect from threats either
external or internal.

Q2. What is meant by disarmament?

Answer: Disarmament bounds states to give up certain kinds of weapons to avoid mass-
destruction through signing various treaties.

Q3. Mention any two human rights in political field.

Answer: 1. Freedom of speech and expression.
2. Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner.

Q4. Define cooperative security.

Answer: Cooperative security is the involvement of international cooperation depending on the
nature of the threat and the willingness and ability of countries to respond.

Q5. Which is the greatest danger to a security as per traditional notion of security?
Answer: It is from military threats which lies in another country to endanger the core values of
sovereignty, independence and territorial integration of a country.

Q6. Why human security is more important in the contemporary world than territorial
security?weapon. It is a war against democracy and a crime against humanity:
1. Terrorism refers to political violence to target civilians deliberately and
indiscriminately.
2. Civilians are targeted to be terrorised to use it as a weapon into this war.
3. Even, the US superpower could not escape itself from terrorism and it became a global
phenomenon i.e. terrorist attack on World Trade Tower on 11th September 2001
Answer: Human security is about the protection of people more than protection of states
because, during the last 100 years more people have been killed by their own governments
than by foreign armies:
1. Protecting citizens from foreign
attack
2. Security from violent threats
3. Security from threats to human dignity.
Q7. What is Global Security?
Answer: Global Security implies protection from threats which may have effect on people and
states globally. It emerged in 1990 to respond global warming, terrorism, health epidemics etc.

Q8. What is Global Poverty?

Answer: Global Poverty signifies a condition available in the states to be suffered from low
incomes and less economic growth i.e. developing or underdeveloped countries.

Q9. Is the same notion of security applicable to all the states?

Answer: All states do not experience the same threats at a time, hence security is grouped into
two as per requirements:
(a) Traditional conception
(b) Non-traditional conception

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. Suggest any one effective step which would limit war or violence between countries.
Answer: An effective step may be in the form of cooperative security only that involves
international cooperation which may be bilateral, regional, continental or global which depends
on the nature of the threat and the willingness, and ability of countries to respond to limit war or
violence cooperative security place at national and international levels.

Q2. Highlight any two threats of a countrys security at per traditional notion of security.
Or
Explain traditional concept of security.
Answer: The Traditional Notion of Security covers both the external and internal threats of a
countrys security. External threats consist of four components i.e. military threats, threat of war,
balance of power, alliance building. Internal threats include maintenance of internal peace and
order and recognise cooperative security to limit violence.

Q3. Write a note on Human Security.

Answer: Human Security refers to the protecting people more than protection of states which
includes:
1. To protect citizens from foreign attack.
2. To secure people from violence.
3. To protect from individual economic threats.
4. To protect human dignity also.

Q4. What is military threat?

Answer: Military threat refers to military action from another country to endanger the core
values of countrys sovereignty, independence, and territorial integrity.Military action often
targets the men and women i.e. ordinary citizens.

Q5. Mention some human rights.

Answer: Human rights are the basic conditions which an individual is supposed to be entitled
as a human being for all round
development. These rights have been categorised as follows:
1. Political rights
2. Freedom of speech and expression
3. Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner.
4. Economic rights
5. Social and civil rights
6. Rights of indigenous minorities

Q6. Human security stresses on freedom from want and freedom from fear. Justify
the statement.
Answer:
1. Freedom from want refers to economic equality i.e. equal opportunity and economic
privileges.
2. Freedom from fear refers to protection from hunger, disease, natural disaster, military
threats, genocide and terrorism.

Q7. Explain Non-traditional concept of security.

Answer: Non-traditional concept of security includes human and global security covering a wide
range of threats affecting human existence:
1. It does not cover the states only but also the individual and communities.
2. It emphasises on security on nature of threat and right approach to deal with the threat.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Explain any four components of Indias security strategy.

Answer: (a) To strengthen its military capabilities:
(i) India has been involved in conflicts with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48,1965,1971,
1999 and China in 1962.
(ii) In South Asian region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries.
(b) To strengthen international norms and institutions:
(i) Indias first Prime Minister J.L. Nehru supported Asian solidarity, disarmament, decolonisation
and the UN as a forum to settle down international conflict.
(ii) It used non-alignment to help to carry out an area of peace outside the blocs.
(c) To meet security challenges within country:
(i) Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab, Kashmir have
sought to break away from India.
(ii) India has made efforts to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system
by providing freedom of speech and expression alongwith the right to vote.
(d) To develop its economy:
(i) India develops the way to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty, misery and huge economic
inequalities.
(ii) A democraticallj^ elected government is supposed to combine economic growth with human
development without any demarcation between the rich and the poor.

Q2. Identify and explain any four new sources of threats to security.
Answer: Four new sources of threats to security can be identified as follows:
1. Terrorism is a war against democracy and a crime against humanity. It refers to political
violence that targets civilians deliberately and discriminately to use it as a weapon against
national government. It has become a global phenomena because even superpower is not free
from terrorist attacks.
2. Human rights are those basic conditions which an individual is supposed to enjoy as a human
being. These rights include political rights, freedom of speech and expression, economic rights,
social and civil rights and rights of indigenous people to lead as honourable and dignified life.
3. Global poverty refers to low economic growth, low national income and low standard of living
of developing or least developed countries.
4. Health epidemics is a very serious threat to a countrys security because severe acute
respiratory syndrome (SARS), HIV-AIDS, bird flue etc. diseases spread across countries
through migration business, tourism and military operations.

Q3. How is global poverty a source of insecurity? Explain.

Answer: Global poverty refers to low economic growth, low national income and low standard
of living of developing or least developed countries. It is a source of insecurity because:
1. Half the worlds population growth occurs in just six countries- India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria,
Bangladesh and Indonesia, considered developing countries and even in poorest countries
population is expected to triple in next 50 years.
2. Globally, this disparity contributes to the gap between the northern and southern countries of
the world.
3. Poverty in south has also led a large migration to seek a better economic opportunities in the
north.
4. All these created international political friction as international law and norms make a
distinction between migrants and refugees as they do not get ready to accept migrants.

Q4. Which third weapon both the superpowers did not want to give up under the concept
of disarmament?
Answer: Disarmament requires all states to give up certain kinds of weapons i.e. the 1972
Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) and 1992 Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)
banned the production and possession of these weapons. Despite the US and Soviet Union
were not ready to give up the third type of weapons of mass-destruction namely nuclear
weapons.

Q5. The secure states do not imply the secure people in itself. Examine the statement.
Answer: The secure states are supposed to protect their people from individual in security also
rather the territorial security only. Hence they are required to provide security from foreign attack
hunger, diseases and natural disasters etc. because it destructs the people rather more than a
war.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
The US and SovietUnion signed a number of other arms control treaties including the
Strategic Arms Limitations Treaty II (SALT II) and the Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty
(START). The Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 was an arms control treaty
in the sense that it regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons, those countries that
had tested and manufactured nuclear weapons before 1967 were allowed to keep their
weapons and those that had not done so were to give up the right to acquire them. The
NPT did not abolish nuclear weapons; rather, it limited the number of countries that
could have them.
Questions
1. What is arms control treaty?
2. Was NPT an arms control treaty? Why?
3. What was the intention behind regulation of NPT?
Answer:
1. To regulate the acquisition or development of wTeapons among countries.
2. Yes, because it regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons to protect world from large seat
destruction.
3. It did not abolish nuclear weapons rather it limited the number of countries that could have
them.

Q2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Global poverty is another source of insecurity. World population-now at 650 crore-will
reach 700 to 800 crore within 25 years and many eventually level out at 900 to 1000 crore.
Currently, half the worlds population growth occurs in just six countries India, China,
Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh and Indonesia. Among the worlds poorest countries,
population is expected to triple in next 50 years whereas many rich countries will see
population shrinkage in that period, high per capita income and low population growth
make rich states or rich social groups get richer, whereas low incomes and high
population growth reinforce each other to make poor states and poor groups get poorer.
puui O ta tco CUJ.IL puux gi u upo get puui d.

Questions
1. Name the countries expected to occur half the worlds population growth.
2. Mention two reasons to make rich states more richer.
3. What makes poor countries more poorer?
Answer:
1. India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh, Indonesia.
2. (i) High per capita income (ii) Low population growth.
3. Low income and high population growth.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. What is meant by Security? Mention any four components of Indian security strategy.
Answer: At its most basic, security implies freedom from threats. Human existence and the life
of a country are full of threats. We generally say that only those things that threaten core
values should be regarded as being of interest in discussions of security. Thus, security relates
only to extremely dangerous threats threats that could so endanger core values that those
values would be damaged beyond repair if we did not do something to deal with the situation.
Indias security strategy has four broad components which have been used in a varying
combination from time to time: (i) The first component was strengthening its military capabilities
because India has been involved in conflicts with its neighbours Pakistan in 1947-48, 1965,
1971 and 1999 and China in 1962. Since it is surrounded by nuclear-armed countries in the
South Asian region, Indias decision to conduct nuclear tests in 1998 was justified by the Indian
government in terms of safeguarding national security.
(ii) The second component of Indias
security strategy has been to strengthen international norms and international institutions to
protect its security interests.
(iii) The third component of Indian security strategy is geared towards meeting security
challenges within the country. Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram,
the Punjab and Kashmir among others have from time to time sought to break away from India.
India has tried to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system.
(iv) There has been an attempt in India to develop its economy in a way that the vast mass of
citizens are lifted out of poverty and misery and huge economic inequalities are not allowed to
exist.

Q2. Give a comparative analysis of Indian expenditure on traditional and non- traditional
security.
Answer: India spends more on traditional security than non-traditional because
(i) India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48, 1965, 1971
and 1999 and China in 1962.
(ii) In South Asian Region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence, Indias
decision to conduct nuclear test in 1990 was justified to safeguard national security.
(iii) Indias first tested nuclear device in 1974.
Though India has made efforts to develop its economy and an individuals security from poverty
but still it is lagging behind even now and we are supposed to make more efforts.

Q3. Mention and explain the components and Indias security strategy.
Answer: India has faced traditional military and non-traditional threats to its security that have
emerged from within as well as outside its borders. Its security strategy has four broad
components i.e.:
1. To Strengthen its Military Capabilities:
Because:
(a) India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours, as Pakistan in 1947-48,1965,1971
and 1999 and China in 1962.
(b) In South Asian Region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence, Indias
decision to conduct nuclear test in 1990 was justified to safeguard national security.
(c) India first tested nuclear device in 1974.
2. To Strengthen International Norms and International Institutions:
(a) Indias first Prime Minister J.L. Nehru supported Asian solidarity, disarmament,
decolonisation and the UN as a forum to settle down international conflict.
(b) India took initiatives to bring about a universal and non- discriminatory non-proliferation
regime to enjoy same rights and obligations with respect to weapons of mass destruction.
(c) It used non-alignment to help to carve out an area of place outside the blocs.
(d) India signed Kyoto Protocol in 1997 to be a part of roadmap for reducing the emissions of
greenhouse gases to check global warming.
3. To Meet Security Challenges
within the Country:
(a) Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab, Kashmir have
sought to break away from India.
(b) India makes efforts to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system by
providing freedom of speech and expression alongwith the right to vote.
4. To Develop its Economy:
(a) India develops the way to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty, misery and huge economic
inequalities.
(b) A democratically elected government is supposed to combine economic growth with human
development without any demarcation between the rich and the poor.
Q4. Explain the areas of operation of non- traditional notion of security.
Answer: Non-traditional concept of security includes human and global security covering a wide
range of threats affecting human existence:
1. It does not cover only the states but
also the individuals and communities also.
2. It emphasises on security on nature of threat and right approach to deal with the threat.
Its sources can be identified as follows:
1. Terrorism refers to political violence to target civilians deliberately and discriminately to use it
as a weapon against national government.
2. Human Rights refer to basic conditions which an individual is supposed to enjoy as a human
being as political rights, freedom of speech and expression, economic rights, social and civil
rights to lead an honourable and dignified life.
3. Global poverty refers to low economic growth, low national income and low standard of living
of developing or least developed countries.
4. Health epidemics is a very serious threat to countrys security because severe Acute
Respiratory Syndrome (ARS), HIV-AIDS, bird flue diseases spread across countries through
migration, business, tourism and military operations.

Q5. Write a note on Arms control.

Answer: Arms control regulates the acquisition or development of weapons by adopting
following measures:
1. The Anti Ballistic Missiles Treaty in 1992 stopped the US and Soviet Union from using
ballistic missiles to limit large scale production.
2. Other arms control treaties were also signed i.e. Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START),
Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty and Nuclear non-proliferation treaty (NPT) to limit the weapons
which many bring large scale destruction.
3. NPT regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons in 1968.
4. NPT did not abolish nuclear weapons rather it limited number of countries that could have
them.

Picture Based Questions

Q1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. What does the pigeon and man with goods symbolise?
3. What message does the cartoon convey?
Answer:
1. The movement of Peace Keeping Force i.e. pigeon (White) a symbol of peace and an army
personnel is flying it.
2. Pigeon symbolises peace and a man with goods to maintain peace at a place where threat
has occurred.
3. Peace Keeping Forces are also supposed to bear arms to initiate peace.

Q2.Study the picture given below and answer the questions as that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Is it any different from our country?
3. What message does this cartoon convey?
Answer:
1. The USs massive expenditure of defence and lack of money for peace related issues.
2. Our country spends a lot on peaceful initiations first as well as make efforts to find out a
peaceful solution first.
3. This cartoon conveys message that the countries are ready to spend on military rather than
on peaceful initiation.

Chapter 8

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1.Which among the following best explains
the reason for growing concerns about
the environment?
(a) The developed countries are concerned about projecting nature.
(b) Protection of the environment is vital for indigenous people and natural habitats.
(c) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has become pervasive
and has reached a dangerous level.
(d) None of the above.
Answer. (c) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has become
persuasive and has reached a dangerous level.

Q2. Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements about the Earth
Summit:
(a) It was attended by 170 countries, thousands of NGOs and many MNCs.
(b) The Summit was held under aegis of the UN.
(c) For the first time, global environmental issues were firmly consolidated at the
political level.
(d) It was a summit meeting.
Answer. (a) Correct (b) Wrong
(c) Correct (d) Wrong

Q3. Which among the following are true about the Global Commons?
(a) The earths atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer space are considered as
part of the Global Commons.
(b) The Global Commons are outside sovereign jurisdiction.
(c) The question of managing the Global Commons has reflected the North- South divide.
(d) The countries of the North are more concerned about the protection of the global
Commons than the countries of the South.
Answer. (a) The Earths atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer space are considered as
a part of global commons.

Q4. What were the outcomes of Rio-Summit?

Answer. 1. Rio-Summit produced conventions dealing with climate change, biodiversity,
forestry and recommended a list of development practices called Agenda 21.
2. It gave the concept of sustainable development to be combined economic growth with
ecological responsibility.
3. Rio-Summit developed various contentious issues like Commons, Global Commons in global
politics of environment.

Q5. What is meant by Global Commons? How are they exploited and polluted?
Answer. The areas or regions located outside the jurisdiction of any one state and region,
common governance by international community are Global Commons i.e. Earth atmosphere,
Antarctic Ocean floor and outer space. They are exploited and polluted due to
1. Vague scientific evidences, their lack of consensus on common environmental issues.
2. North-South inequalities and their exploitative activities and competition lack proper
management area out space.
3. Technological and Industrial development have also affected the earths atmosphere and
ocean floor.

Q6. What is meant by Common but differentiated responsibilities? How could we

implement the idea?
Answer. Common but differentiated responsibilities mean that the state shall cooperate in the
spirit of global partnership to conserve, protect and restore the health and integrity of the earths
ecosystem. As the states have common but differentiated responsibilities over various
contributions of global environmental degradation. The developed countries acknowledge that
the responsibility that they bear in the international pursuit of sustainable development in view of
the pressures their societies place on the global environment and of the tech-nological and
financial resources they command.
We could implement the idea with the help of conventions and declarations:
1. The Rio-Summit held in June 1992 produced conventions dealing with climate change,
biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of developed practices called Agenda 21.
2. The 1992 United Nations Framework convention on climatic change (UNFCCC) also
emphasised that the parties should act to protect the climate system on the basis of common
but differentiated responsibilities;
3. An international agreement known Kyoto Protocol set targets for industrialised countries to
cut their greenhouse gas emissions which support for global warming.

Q7. Why have issues related to global environmental protection become the priority
concern of states since the 1990s?
Answer. Issues related to global environmental protection became the priority concern of states
since the 1990s because at global level, the environmental issues drew attentions of various
states at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio-de-
Janerio, Brazil in June 1992 through Agenda 21:
1. Rio-Summit 1992 dealt with climatic change, bio-diversity and forestry.
2. Agenda 21 combined economic growth with ecological responsibilities.
3. Kyoto Protocol set targets for greenhouse emissions. The above mentioned conferences and
summits raised the environmental issues at the global level to take steps by various states to
check environmental degradation in a co-operative manner.

Q8. Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies required by states to
save Planet Earth. Substantiate the statement in the light of the ongoing negotiations
between the North and South on environmental issues.
Answer. Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies to save Planet Earth
by the states but the states from North and South have different notions towards environmental
issues:
1. The Northern States (Developed) are concerned with ozone depletion and global warming
whereas southern states (Developing) want to address the relationship between economic
development and environmental management.
2. The developed countries of the North want to discuss the environmental issues which stand
equally responsible for ecological conservation.
3. The developing countries of the south feel that much of the ecological degradation in the
world is created by developed countries through their industrial projects.
4. And if developed countries cause more environmental degradation they are supposed to take
more responsibility onwards.
5. The developing counties are under process of industrialization and they should be exempted
from restrictions imposed on developed countries through various conventions like protocol etc.
6. The special needs of developing countries must be taken into considerations in the
process of development, application and interpretation of rules of International Environmental
Law.
All the above mentioned provisions were accepted in Earth Summit, 1992 while adopting
common but differentiated responsibilities.

Q9. The most serious challenge before the states is pursuing economic development
without causing further damage to the global environment. How could we achieve this?
Explain with a few examples.
Answer. The economic development can be achieved even without damaging global
environment by following practices:
1. In June 1992, Earth Summit provided some conservative measures for sustainable growth
without damaging environment anymore.
2. The Antarctic Treaty of 1959 covered Global Commons for mutual economic development.
3. Kyoto protocol cut greenhouse emissions from industrialised countries to protect environment
and to develop industries also.
4. Resource Geopolitics allocates and distribute natural resources among
the nation states of global arena for sustainable development of nations. Hence, the above
mentioned practices protect the global environment and even though the states are developing
we could achieve this challenge only if we follow the provisions and practices mentioned in all
these conferences and summits.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]

Q1. What does the UNEP stand for?

Answer. UNEP stands for the United Nations Environment Programme to hold international
conferences to promote coordination to effective response to environmental problems.

Q2. What is Agenda 21?

Answer. Agenda 21 is a list of developed practices ecological responsibility to promote
sustainable development.

Q3. What do you mean by Global Commons?

Answer. Global Commons are the common governance by international community over the
areas or regions which are located outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any one state or
authority.
Q4. What is UNFCCC?
Answer. The 1992 United Nations Framework Convention Climate Change (UNFCCC) provides
that the parties should act to protect the climate system on the basis of equity and in
accordance with the common but differentiated responsibilities.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. Suggest any two steps to be taken by the government to check pollution and save
environment.
Answer. (i) Indias National Auto-fuel Policj7 mandates cleaner fuels for vehicles. The Energy
Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency.
(ii) The Electricity Act of2003 encourages the use of renewable energy.

Q2. Mention any two outcomes of Rio- Summit.

Answer. 1. It provided a consensus to combine economic growth with ecological responsibility
for sustainable development.
2. It recommended a list of development practices called Agenda 21 which induced climatic
change, biodiversity, forestry and development practices.

Q3. Give any two environmental concerns of global politics.

Answer. 1. Ozone layer depletion is an alarming concern for ecosystem.
2. Loss of fertility of agricultural land due to extreme use of fertilizers and overgrazed
grasslands.

Q4. Explain the most obvious threat to the survival of indigenous people.
Answer. The most obvious threat to the survival of indigenous people is the loss of land
which was occupied by their ancestrals. The loss of land referred to a loss of their economic
resource also.

Q5. How did Earth Summit draw attention of global politics towards environmental
issues?
Answer. The Earth Summit drew attention of global politics towards environmental issues
because it produced conventions to deal with climate change, biodiversity, forestry and
recommended a list of development practices called Agenda 21 which combined economic
growth with ecological responsibility known as Sustainable Development as well as Earth
Summit laid stress on the cooperation of states to conserve, protect, restore the health and
integrity of the earths ecosystems.

Q6. Mention the major problems of ecological issues.

Answer. 1. Common environmental agenda could not get common consensus due to vague
scientific methods.
2. Management of outer space is influenced by North-South inequalities.
3. Technology and industrial development are also the issues over earths atmosphere and
ocean floor.
4. Ozone hole over Antarctic also revealed the opportunity as well as dangers inherent in
tackling global environment problems.
Q7. What is Kyoto Protocol?
Answer. 1. Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement signed in 1997 in Kyoto for setting
targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions.
2. Certain gases like Carbon dioxide, Methane, Hydro-fluoro Carbons etc. are considered
responsible for global warming.
3. This global warming may rise the global temperature to have catastrophic consequences for
life on earth.

Q8. What do you mean by common property?

Answer. Common property refers to the rights and duties of a group together over a natural
resources with the following norms:
1. The group members enjoy rights and duties both over nature, levels of use and the
maintenance of a given resource.
2. In India, many village communities have defined members rights and responsibilities through
mutual understanding.
3. The institutional arrangement for the actual management of sacred groves on state owned
forest land appropriately fit the description of common property.

Q9. What is Resource Geopolitics?

Answer. Resource Geopolitics is concerned with allocation of distribution of natural resources
among the nation states of global arena:
1. It is about who gets what, when, where and how.
2. Inter state rivalry and western geopolitical thinking about resources have been dominated by
the relationship of trade, war and power.

Q10. Is there any difference between the prospectives adopted by the rich and the poor
nations to protect the Earth? Explain.
Answer. Yes, the rich and the poor nations adopted different prospectives to protect the earth
at Rio-Summit:
1. The rich countries were known as Global North whereas the poor countries were called
Global South.
2. Northern states showed concern with ozone depletion and global warming whereas southern
states showed
? concern for economic development and environmental management.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. What is meant by common property resources? Explain with examples.

Answer. Common property refers to the rights and duties of a group together over natural
resources with the following norms:
1. The group members enjoy rights and duties both over nature, levels of use and the
maintenance of a given resource.
2. In India, many village communities have defined members rights and responsibilities through
mutual understanding.
3. The institutional arrangement for the actual management of sacred groves on state owned
forest level appropriating fit the description of common property.
Q2. Explain the meaning of global commons. Give any four examples of global
commons.
Answer. The areas of regions located outside the jurisdiction of any one state and require
common governance by international community are Global Commons i.e. Earth atmosphere.
Antarctic Ocean Floor and outer space. They are exploited and polluted due to:
1. Vague scientific evidences, these lack of consensus on common environmental issues.
2. North-South inequalities and their exploitative activities and competition lack proper
management over outer space.
3. Technological and Industrial development have also affected the earths atmosphere and
ocean floor.

Q3. Describe any four steps taken by India to improve the environment.
Answer. The Indian government is participating in global efforts through a number of
programmes:
1. Indias National Auto-fuel policy mandates cleaner fuels for vehicles.
2. The Energy Conservation Act, 2001 outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency.
3. Electricity Act, 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy.
4. Recent trends in importing natural gas and encouraging the adoption of clean coal
technologies show that India is making real efforts.
5. India is also keen to launch a national mission on Biodiesel using about 11 million hectares of
land to produce biodiesel by 2011-12.

Q4. Define indigenous population. Highlight any two problems of such people.
Answer. The UN defines indigenous population as comprising the descendants of people who
inhabited the present territory of a country at the time when persons of a different culture or
ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of the world and overcame them. The following
problems are faced by such people:
1. They lost their lands which belonged to them only for a long time.
2. The loss of land refers to a loss of an economic resource base.
3. Issues related to the rights of the indigenous communities have also been neglected in
domestic and international politics for long.

Q5. Explain the importance and role of concept common but differentiated pertaining to
environment.
Answer. Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies to Save Planet Earth
by the states but the states from North and South have different notions towards environmental
issues:
1. The Northern States (Developed) are concerned with Ozone depletion and global warming
whereas Southern States (Developing) warn to address the relationship between economic
development and environmental management.
2. The developed countries of the North want to discuss the environmental issues which stands
equally responsible for ecological conservation.
3. The developing countries of the South feel that much of the ecological degradation in the
world is created by developed countries through their industrial projects.
4. And if developed countries cause more environmental degradation they are supposed to take
more responsibility onwards.
5. The developing countries are under process of industrialization and they should be exempted
from restrictions imposed on developed countries through various conventions like Kyoto
Protocol etc.
6. The special needs of developing countries must be taken into considerations in the process
of development, application and interpretation of rules of International Environmental Law.
All the above mentioned provisions were accepted in Earth Summit, 1992 while adopting
common but differentiated responsibilities.

Q6. Explain Indias stand on environmental issues. What steps have been suggested by
India in this respect?
Answer. India plays a dominating role among the Asian countries on environmental issues:
1. India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in August 2002 which emphasised to follow
the principle common but differentiated responsibility.
2. India feels this contravens the very spirit of UNFCCC. Neither does it seem fair to impose
restrictions on India when the countrys rise per capita carbon emissions by 2030 is likely to still
represent less than half the world average.
3. The Indian government is also keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel which makes
India to have one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.
4. The Indian government is also participating in global efforts through a number of programmes
i.e. National Auto fuel Policy, Electricity Act 2003, Energy Conservation Act, 2001 etc.

Q7. What is meant by environment? Suggest any two steps for the environmental
improvement.
Answer. Environment refers to surroundings of a region which can be improved by taking
following steps:
1. More focus should be on afforestation
i. e. planting more trees to maintain ecological balance, prevent soil erosion and enhance water
cycle also.
2. Eco-friendly industries should be set up as well as industries adherent should be disposed
with scientific methods and industries should be established at far away places from
populous/residential areas.

Q8. What do you mean by environmental movements? Explain.

Answer. Environmental movements are the movements of a group which are environmentally
conscious to challenge environmental degradation to work at both the national and international
levels or local levels:
1. These movements raise new ideas and long term vision of what we should not do in our
individual and collective lines.
2. These environmental movements may be diverse in nature i.e. the forest movements of the
south, in Mexico, Chile, Brazil, Malaysia, Indonesia, continental Africa and India are faced with
enormous pressures.
Categories of Environmental Movements:
1. Forest Movements
2. Movement against mining corporation and mineral industry (water pollution)
3. Anti Dam Movements against the construction of mega dams riot to disturb channels of
rivers.

Q9. Oil is an important resource in global strategy that affects the geopolitics and global
economy. Comment.
Answer. Oil is the resource which generates immense wealth, hence it creates political
struggles involving industrialised countries to adopt various methods to ensure steady flows of
oil:
1. These include deployment of military process near exploitation sites and along sea lanes of
communications.
2. The stockpiling of strategic resources.
3. They support multinational companies by making favourable international agreements.
4. The global economy relied on oil as a portable and indispensable fuel, hence, the history of
petroleum is the history of war and struggle.
5. It created conflict between Iraq and Saudi Arabia as Iraqs known reserves are second only to
Saudi Arabia and since substantial portions of Iraqi territory are yet to be fully explored, there is
a fair chance that actual reserves might be far larger.

Q10. Water is a crucial resource to global politics. Explain with examples.

Or
Explain the water wars with examples.
Answer. Water is a crucial resource relevant to global politics. Regional variations and
increasing scarcity of fresh water in some parts of the world point to the possibility of
disagreements over shared water resources as a leading source of conflicts in 21st century,
which is known as water wars:
1. Water wars may create violent conflict due to disagreement of countries over sharing rivers
i.e. a typical disagreement is a downstream states objection to pollution, excessive irrigation, or
construction of dams which degrade the quality of water available to downstream states.
2. States have used force to seize fresh water resources i.e. 1950, struggle between Israel,
Syria and Jordan and 1960s over attempts by each side to divert water from the Jordan and
Yarmuk rivers.
3. The more recent threats between Turkey, Syria and Iraq over the construction of Dams on
Euphrates river.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
The Indian government is already participating in global efforts through a number of
programmes. For example, Indias National Autofuel Policy mandates cleaner fuels for
vehicles. The Energy Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve
energy efficiency. Similarly, the Electricity Act of 2003 encourages the use of renewable
energy. Recent trends in importing natural gas and encouraging the adoption of clean
coal technologies show that India has been making real efforts. The government is also
keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel, using about 11 million hectares of land
to produce biodiesel by 2011-2012. And India has one of the largest renewable energy
programmes in the world.

Questions
1. How India has participated in global efforts to protect environment?
2. What are Energy Conservation Act and Electricity Act?
3. Mention the efforts made by Indian government for biodiesel.
Answer.
1. It has launched a number of programmes i.e. Auto Fuel Policy, Energy Conservation Act
2001, Electricity Act 2003 to protect environment.
2. The Energy Conservation Act was passed in 2001 to outline initiatives to improve energy
efficiency and Electricity Act, passed in 2003 to encourage the use of renewable energy by the
Indian government as a conservation programme.
3. The Indian government is keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel using about 11
million hectares of land to produce biodiesel by 2011-12.

Q2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
The global economy relied on oil for much of the 20th century as a portable and
indispensable fuel. The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles
to control it, and the history of petroleum is also the history of war and struggle.
Nowhere is this more obviously the case than in West Asia and Central Asia, West Asia,
specifically the Gulf region, accounts for about 30 per cent of global oil production. But it
has about 64 per cent of the planets known reserves, and is therefore the only region
able to satisfy any substantial rise in oil demand. Saudi Arabia has a quarter of the
worlds total reserves and is the single largest producer. Iraqs known reserves are
second only to Saudi Arabias. And, since substantial portions of Iraqi territory are yet to
be fully explored, there is a fair chance that actual resei*ves might be far that actual
reseiVes might be far larger. The United States, Europe, Japan, and increasingly India
and China, which consume this petroleum, are located at a considerable distance from
the region.

Questions
1. Which region has much potential for oil production?
2. Which area is supposed to have far larger reserves than actually it has?
3. Why the history of petroleum is called the history of war and struggle?
Answer.
1. West Asia especially the Gulf region enjoys much more potential for oil production.
larger. The United States, Europe, Japan, and increasingly India and China, which consume this
petroleum, are located at a considerable distance from the region.
2. Iraqi territory is supposed to be fully explored.
3. The global economy relied on oil for much of 20th century as a portable and indispensable
fuel. The common wealth associated with oil generates political struggles to control it.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Explain the meaning ofglobal commons. How are environmental concerns
becoming important in global politics?
Answer. Commons are those resources which are not owned by anyone but rather shared by
a community. This could be a common room, a community centre, a park or a river. Similarly,
there are some areas or regions of the world which are located outside the sovereign jurisdiction
of any one state, and therefore require common governance by the international community.
These are known as global commons. They include the earths atmosphere, Antarctica, the
ocean floor and outer space.
Although environmental concerns have a long history, awareness of the environmental
consequences of economic growth acquired an increasingly political character from the 1960s
onwards. The Club of Rome, a global think-tank, published a book in 1972 entitled Limits to
Growth, dramatising the potential depletion of the earths resources against the backdrop of
rapidly growing world population. International agencies began holding international
conferences and promoting detailed studies to get a more coordinated and effective response to
environmental problems. Since then, the environment has emerged as significant . issue of
global politics.
The growing focus on environmental issues within the arena of global politics was firmly
consolidated at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de
Janerio, Brazil, in June, 1992.
This was also called the Earth Summit. The Summit was attended by 170 states, thousands of
NGOs and many multinational corporations. The Summit produced conventions dealing with
climate change, biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of development practices called
Agenda 21. But it left unresolved considerable differences and difficulties. There was a
consensus on combining economic growth with ecological responsibility. This approach to
development is commonly known as sustainable development.

Q2. Explain the concept of common but differentiated responsibilities. How and where
was it emphasised upon?
Or
States have common but differentiated responsibilities towards environment. Analyse
the statement giving suitable examples.
Answer. Common but differentiated responsibilities mean that the states shall cooperate in the
spirit of global partnership to conserve, protect and restore the health and integrity of the earths
eco system. As the states have common but differentiated responsibilities over various
contribution of global environmental degradation. The developed countries acknowledge that
the responsibility that they bear in the international pursuit of sustainable development in view of
the pressures their societies place on the global environment and of the technological and
financial resources they command. We could implement the idea with the help of conventions
and declarations:
1. The Rio Summit held in June 1992 produced conventions dealing with climate change,
biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of developed practices called Agenda 21.
2. The 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climatic Change
(UNFCCC) also emphasised that the parties should act to protect the climate system on the
basis of common but differentiated responsibilities.
3. An international agreement known by its Protocol set targets for industrialised countries to cut
their greenhouse gas emissions which support for global warming.

Q3. Analyse Indias stand on any three environmental issues. Or

Analyse Indias stand on environmental issues.
Answer. India plays a dominating role among the Asian countries on environmental issues:
1. India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in August 2002 which emphasised to follow
the principle common but differentiated responsibility.
2. India feels this convention is the very spirit of UNFCCC. Neither does it seem fair to impose
restrictions on India when the countrys rise in per capita carbon emissions by 2030 is likely to
still represent less than half the world average.
3. The Indian government is also keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel which makes
India to have one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.
4. The Indian government is also participating in global efforts through a number of programmes
i.e. National Auto Fuel Policy, Electricity Act 2003, Energy Conservation Act, 2001, etc.

Q4. Explain any three environmental concerns in global politics.

Answer. Some environmental issues have been considered as the global issues:
1. Natural resources are being depleted i.e. cultivable area has not been sustained any more,
agricultural land lost fertility and grass lands have been overgrazed.
2. Waterbodies have suffered a depletion and pollution both.
3. A steady decline in ozone layer also poses a threat to ecosystem and human health.
4. Natural forests stabilize the climate, moderate water supply and habitat various species also
which are also being lost creating destruction to biodiversity through industrial pollution etc.
5. Due to land based activities, coastal pollution is also increasing which affects fisheries.

Q5. Mention the rights of indigenous peoples.

Answer. The UN defines indigenous population as the descendants of people who inhabited
the present territory of a countryat the time when persons of a different culture or ethnic origin
arrived there from other parts of world and overcome them. The rights of indigenous people can
be summarised as follows:
1. Indigenous people speak of their struggles, agenda and fights like social movements.
2. Their voices in world politics call for the admission of indigenous people to the world
community as equals.
3. Many of the present day island states in the Oceania region (including Australia, New
Zealand) were inhabited by various indigenous people over the course of show for thousands of
years.
4. Indigenous people appeal to government to create indigenous nations with an identity of their
own.
5. The World Council of indigenous people was formed in 1975. The council became the first of
11 indigenous NGOs to receive consultative status in the UN.

Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the picture represent?
2. Why do you think the fingers are designed like chimneys and the world made into a
lighter?
3. What message does this picture convey?
Answer.
1. It represents Industrial Pollution commenting on Global warming.
2. Fingers denote pollution coming out of chimneys from industries and the lighter represents
burning and depleting of natural resources.
3. This picture draws the attention of the world towards industrial pollution, if it continues on,
flora and fauna will be depleted which will create an imbalance to ecosystem.
Q2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Which countries are being shown here?
3. What message does this picture convey?
Answer.
1. The cartoon represents the methods adopted by industrialised countries to fulfil their
essentials from weaker sections.
2. The stronger country like the USA and the weaker nation like Iraq.
3. Resources are the real strength of a nation and neo-colonialism play politics to obtain it.

Chapter 9

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1.Which of the st atements are True about
globalisation?
(a) Globalisation is purely an economic phenomenon.
(b) Globalisation began in 1991.
(c) Globalisation is the same thing as westernisation.
(d) Globalisation is a multi-dimensional phenomenon.
Answer: (d) Globalisation is a multi-dimensional phenomenon.

Q2.Which of the statements are True about

the impact of globalisation?
(a) Globalisation has been uneven in its impact on states and societies.
(ib) Globalisation has had a uniform impact on all states and societies.
(c) The impact of globalisation has been confined to the political sphere.
(d) Globalisation inevitably results in cultural homogeneity.
Answer: (a) Globalisation has been uneven in its impact on states and societies.
(b) Globalisation inevitably results in cultural homogeneity.
Q3. Which of the statem ents are True about
causes of globalisation?
(a) Technology is an important cause of globalisation.
(b) Globalisation is caused by a particular community of people.
(c) Globalisation originated in the US.
(d) Economic interdependence alone causes globalisation.
Answer: (a) Technology is an important cause of globalisation.
(b) It originated in the US.

Q4. Which statements are true about

globalisation?
(a) Globalisation is only about movement of commodities.
(b) Globalisation does not involve a conflict of values.
(c) Services are an insignificant part of globalisation.
(d) Globalisation is about worldwide interconnectedness.
Answer: (b) Globalisation does not involve a conflict of values.
(d) Globalisation is about worldwide interconnectedness.

Q5. Which of the statements are False about globalisation?

(a) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic growth.
(b) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic disparity.
(c) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenisation.
(d) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenisation.
Answer: The statements (b) and (d) are false about globalisation.

Q6. What is worldwide interconnectedness? What are its components?

Answer: The worldwide interconnectedness implies to interlink the world through free flow of
goods and services, technology, ideas and people across the globe to extend globalisation. This
contains three components:
1. Capital Flow: It is the flow of resources through loans or business investments among the
countries.
2. Trade Flows of Goods: It refers to exchange of goods among countries.
3. Labour Flow: It refers to Brain drain by creating favourable conditions for employment.

Q7. How has technology contributed to globalisation?

Answer: Technical equipments as cell phone, internet, telephone and microchip have
contributed to globalisation by exchanging ideas, capitals and people to make convenient to
move from one place to another at a fast pace to stimulate the process of globalisation.

Q8. Critically evaluate the impact of the changing role of state in the developing
countries in the light of globalisation?
Answer: The impact of changing role of state in the developing countries in the light of
globalisation can be summed up as follows:
1. Globalisation reduces the state capacity i.e. the ability of governments to do what they do.
2. Market becomes the prime concern to set down economic and social priorities.
3. Multinational companies effect on the decisions taken by government because their own
interest fulfillment also depends on government policies.
4. The old welfare state is now giving way to more minimalist state to perform certain core
functions as maintenance of law and order and the security.
5. State also withdraws from many of its welfare functions taken place at the level of economic
and social wellbeing.
6. To some extent developing countries have received a boost as a result of globalisation and
became more strong and powerful clue to emergence of new technology.

Q9. What are the economic implications of globalisation? How has globalisation
impacted on India with regard to this particular dimension?
Answer: (A) Economic Implications of Globalisation (Positive)
1. It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
2. It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries.
3. The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
4. This has spread internet and computer related services across national boundaries.
(B) Negative Economic Implications
1. Economic globalisation has created diverse opinion all over the world as to benefit only a
small section of society.
2. It does not have equality at par the movement of people across the globe i.e. developed
countries
have carefully guarded their borders with visa policies to ensure job security to their own
citizens.
3. It has created disparities among states also by making the rich more richer and the poor more
poorer.
Impact of Globalisation on India
1. More new jobs have been created in the MNCs like cell phones, fast food etc.
2. India is playing a crucial role among developing countries in trade and commerce by making
some companies multinational themselves
i. e. Tata Motors, Ranbaxy etc.
3. Foreign Direct Investment have also been increased.
4. It has invited inflow of private foreign capital and export oriented activities.

Q10. Do you agree with the argument that globalisation leads to cultural heterogeneity?
Answer: Cultural consequences do not assume to lead to cultural heterogeneity only. All
cultures accept outside influences all the time. Some external influences may be negative even
to reduce our choices. Sometime external influences enlarge the choices or modify our culture
without overwhelming the traditions
i. e. the burger is not a substitute for a masala dosa, blue jeans can go well with a homespun
Khadi-Kurta (a nique new combination by external influences). Hence, it can be said that
globalisation does not lead cultural heterogeneity every time but it is supportive to promote
cultural outlook and cultural homogenisation.

Q11. How has globalisation impacted on India and how is India in turn impacting on
globalisation?
Answer: Impact of Globalisation on India:
1. More new jobs have been created in the MNCs like cell phones, fast food etc.
2. India is playing a crucial role among developing countries in trade and commerce by making
some companies multinational themselves
i. e. Tata Motors, Ranbaxy etc.
3. Foreign Direct Investments have also been increased.
4. It has invited inflow of private foreign capital and export oriented activities. India in turn
impacting:
1. Through responding to 1991 financial crisis, Indian economy was liberalised to attract foreign
direct investment.
2. India introduced new trade policy reforms to remove tariffs and restrictions imposed on
imports.
3. Under industries, it abolished licensing system exempting few specified industries only.
4. Banking operations by private sectors were permitted to expand in the country.
5. To promote globalisation, India has adopted an open economy.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Q1. To what extent does globalisation provide opportunities as well as challenges?

Answer: Globalisation creates new jobs in industries and MNCs and increases the volume of
trade in goods and services. As a challenge it reduces the capacity of state to take decisions on
their own.

Q2. Define Globalisation.

Answer: Globalisation refers to integration of an economy with the other country based on
interdependence.

Q3. What is WSF?

Answer: WSF is the World Social Forum, a global platform to bring together a wide coalition of
human rights activists, environmentalists and women activists .

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Q1 .Welfare State is getting replaced by market. Analyse the reason for this change.
Answer: Globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity. All over the world, the old welfare
state is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as
maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens. However, it withdraws from many
of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and social wellbeing. In place of the
welfare state, it is the market that becomes prime determinant of economic and social priorities.
The entry and the increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to reduction in the capacity of
government to take decisions on their own.

Q2. How far is it correct to say that powers of states have actually increased due to
globalisation?
Answer: To some extent globalisation increases the activities of state to help in development of
economy as well as state capacity has received a boost also with enhanced technologies
available at the disposal of state to collect information about its citizens.

Q3. What are two thrust areas of Globalisation?

Answer: Globalisation has two thrust areas:
1. Liberalisation provides freedom of trade and investment, eliminate restrictions imposed on
external trade and payments and expand technological progress to globalise faster.
2. Privatisation permits MNCs to produce goods and services inside the country to attract FDI.

Q4. Which factors have contributed to the process of globalisation?

Answer: Process of globalisation is the result of:
1. Historical factors.
2. Role of international organisations like JMF and WTO.
3. Liberalisation and privatisation.
4. Technological innovations.

Q5. Mention positive impact of globalisation.

Answer: 1. Increase in the volume of trade in goods and services.
2. It attracts private foreign capital investment.
3. It creates new job opportunities.
4. It raises standard of living.
5. It increases production efficiency and healthy competition.
6. It attracts Foreign Direct Investment also.

Q6. Mention negative impact of globalisation.

Answer: 1. Globalisation has not generated much more employment opportunities because it
needs highly skilled people only.
2. The foreign companies focus on their profit orientation projects only in place of social welfare.
3. It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
4. Gradually, globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.
5. Even farmers are supposed to be well educated if they want to use modern methods of
cultivation.

Q7. Can we say that Globalisation is only an economic dimension?

Answer: No, globalisation is not only an economic dimension because it is a multidimensional
concept having political, economic and cultural manifestations. Globalisation is the process of
exchange of ideas, capital, commodities and people.

Q8. Globalisation is a multidimensional concept. Justify the statement.

Answer: Globalisation refers to integration of an economy with the other countries based on
interdependence. It is a multidimensional concept having political, economic, cultural
manifestations. It is the process of exchange of ideas, capital commodities and people.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Mention any four political consequences of globalisation.

Answer: Political consequences are positive and negative both as:
Negative Aspects
1. Globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity, that is the ability of government to do
what they do.
2. The old welfare state is now giving way to more minimalist state that performs certain core
functions such as maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens.
3. Sometimes state withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic
and social well being.
4. Market becomes prime determinant to settle down social and economic priorities in place of
welfare.
Positive Aspects
1. The primary status remains unchallenged basis of political community.
2. To some extent developing countries have received a boost to become more powerful and
strong.

Q2. Explain any two economic consequences of globalisation.

Answer: 1. Positive Economic Consequences
(a) It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
(b) It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries,
(c) The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
2. Negative Economic Consequences
() It has created diverse opinion all over the world so as to benefit only a small section of
society.
(b) It does not have equality at par the movement of people across the globe i.e. Developed
countries have carefully guarded their borders with visa policies to ensure job security to their
own citizens.

Q3. What is globalisation? Highlight any three causes of globalisation.

Answer: Globalisation is integration of an economy with other economies alongwith the free
flow of trade and capital. Process of globalisation is the result of:
1. Historical factors
2. Role of International Organisations like IMF and WTO.
3. Liberalisation and Privatisation
4. Technological innovations.

Q4. Explain any two positive and two negative effects of globalisation.
Answer: I. Positive Effects (Any two).
1. Increase in the volume of trade in goods and services.
2. It attracts private foreign capital investment.
3. It creates new job opportunities.
4. It raises standard of living.
5. It increases production efficiency and healthy competition.
6. It attracts foreign Direct Investment also.
2. Negative Effects:
1. It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
2. Gradually, globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.

Q5. Explain any four consequences of globalisation.

Answer: 1. Economic Consequences
(a) It has involved greater trade in commodities across the globe.
(b) The restrictions imposed by other countries on allowing imports have beenreduced.
2. Cultural Consequences
(a) The rise of uniform culture called as cultural homogenisation.
(b) Global culture is the imposition of western culture on rest of the world.
3. Political Consequences
() In place of welfare state it is the market to become the prime determinant of economic and
social priorities.
(b) The entry and increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to reduction in capacity of
governments to take decisions on their own.
4. Others
() The left wing protests against economic liberalisation.
(b) Indian social forum also raised voices against globalisation.

Q6. Globalisation has shifted power from nation states to global consumers. Justify
the statement.
Or
What is the impact of globalisation on states sovereignty?
Answer: The impact of changing role of state in developing countries in the light of globalisation
can be summed up as follows:
1. Globalisation reduces state capacity i. e. the ability of governments to do what they do.
2. Market becomes the prime determinant to down economic and social priorities.
3. Multinational companies effect on decision taken by governments because their own interest
fulfillment depends on government policies.
4. The old Welfare state is now giving way to more minimalist state to perform certain core
functions as maintenance of law and order and the security.

Q7. What is meant by globalisation? Explain any three cultural consequences of

globalisation.
Answer: Globalisation is integration of an economy with the other economies alongwith the free
flow of trade and capital. Its cultural consequences can be summed up as follows:
1. The rise of uniform culture as cultural homogenisation.
2. Global culture is imposition of western culture of rest of the world.
3. Sometimes, external influences enlarge the choices or modify over culture without
overwhelming the traditions.

Q8. Does globalisation lead to cultural ho-mogenisation or cultural heterogeniza- tion

or both? Justify.
Answer: Globalisation leads to both:
1. Though cultural homogenisation is an arena of globalisation the same process generates the
opposite effect also which prompts each culture to dominate over other culture resulting into
heterogenisation.
2. Globalisation leads to the rise of uniform culture known as cultural homogenisation i.e. the
influence of western culture.
3. The differences among powers remain the same despite the exchange of cultures. Hence it
may be said that cultural exchange is only one of many processes.

Q9. A militant group issued a statement threatening college girls who wear western
clothes. Analyse.
Answer: This statement refers to the cultural implications of globalisation in the form of fear of a
defence group about the imposition of western culture to lead a shrinkage of rich cultural
heritage.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
At the most simple level, globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity, that is, the
ability of government to do what they do. All over the world, the old welfare state is now
giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as the
maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens. However, it withdraws from
many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and social well-being. In place
of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and
social priorities. The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the
world leads to a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decisions on their own.
At the same time, globalisation does not always reduce state capacity. The primacy of
the state continues to be the unchallenged basis of political community. The old
jealousies and rivalries between countries have not ceased to matter in world politics.
The state continues to discharge its essential functions (law and order, national security)
and consciously withdraws from certain domains from which it wishes to. States
continue to be important. Indeed, in some respects state capacity has received a boost
as a consequence of globalisation, with enhanced technologies available at the disposal
of the state to collect information about its citizens. With this information, the state is
better able to rule, not less able. Thus, states become more powerful than they were
earlier as an outcome of the new technology.

Questions
1. How does globalisation effect on state capacity?
2. How have multinational companies effected the states?
3. How does the old welfare state react to globalisation?
Answer:
1. It reduces states capacity and ability of government to do what they do.
2. The entry and increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to reduction in the capacity of
government to take decision on their own.
3. The old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core
functions i.e. maintenance of law and order and security of its own citizens.

Q2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Advocates of economic globalisation argue that it generates greater economic growth
and well-being for larger sections of the population when there is de-regulation. Greater
trade among countries allows each economy to do what it does best. This would benefit
the whole world. They also argue that economic globalisation is inevitable and it is not
wise to resist the march of history. More moderate supporters of globalisation say that
globalisation provides a challenge that can be responded to intelligently without
accepting it uncritically. What, however, cannot be denied is the increased momentum
towards inter-dependence and integration between governments, businesses, and
ordinary people in different parts of the world as a result of globalisation.

Questions
1. What is economic globalisation?
2. How does economic globalisation benefit the whole world?
3. How does the moderate supporters of globalisation view it?
Answer:
1. Economic globalisation generates great or economic growth and well being for larger section
of population when there is deregulation.
2. Economic globalisation gives opportunities to countries to do best in their economy.
3. Moderate supporters of globalisation view it as a challenge to be responded intelligently
without accepting it uncritically.
Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Explain globalisation. How has technology contributed in promoting globalisation?

Answer: Globalisation as a concept fundamentally deals with flows. These flows could be of
various kinds ideas moving from one part of the world to another, capital shunted between
two or more places, commodities being traded across borders, and people moving in search of
better livelihoods to different parts of the world. The crucial element is the worldwide
interconnectedness that is created and sustained as a consequence of these constant flows.
While globalisation is not caused by any single factor, technology remains a critical element.
There is no doubt that the invention of the telegraph, the telephone and the microchip in more
recent years has revolutionised communication between different parts of the world. When
printing initially came into being it laid the basis for the creation of nationalism. So also today we
should expect that technology will affect the way we think of our personal but also our collective
lives.
The ability of ideas, capital, commodities and people to move more easily from one part of the
world to another has been made possible largely by technological advances. The pace of these
flow may vary.

Q2. Explain any three benefits of globalisation with examples.

Answer: 1. Economic Benefits
1. It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
2. It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries.
3. The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
4. This has spread internet and computer related services across national boundaries.
2. Technological Benefits
Technical equipments as telephone, internet, telephone and microchip have contributed to
globalisation by exchanging ideas, capitals and people to make convenient to move from one
place to another at a fast pace to stimulate the process of globalisation.
3. Political Benefits
1. The primary status remains unchallenged on the basis of political community.
2. To some extent developing countries have received a boost to become more powerful and
strong.

Q3. Assess any three basics on which globalisation is being resisted in India.
Answer: Resistance to globalisation in India has come from different quarters:
1. Left using protests to economic liberalisation was voiced through political parties as well as
through forum like the Indian Social Forum.
2. Trade Unions and farmers interests have also organised protests against MNCs.
3. The patenting of certain plants like Neem by American and European firms has also
generated protests.
4. Resistance has come from political parties also in the form of objecting to various cultural
influences like availability of foreign T.V. channels provided by cable networks, celebration of
Valentines Day and Westernisation of dress code.

Q4. How do the critics view the process of globalistion?

Answer: Globalisation has invited some strong criticisms also despite its positive impacts. Its
critical arguments can be categorized as:
1. Economic 2. Political
3. Cultural
1. Economic:
(a) Reduction in subsidies on mass consumption goods to make foreign creditors powerful.
(b) It has grown disparity between the rich and the poor nations by making the rich more richer
and the poor more poorer.
(c) Even states have also created the same disparities between developed and developing
nations.
2. Political:
(a) Welfare functions of the state has been reduced.
Picture Based Questions
(b) Sovereignty of states has been affected.
(c) States have become weak to take their own decisions.
3. Cultural:
(a) People lose their age old values and traditions.
(b) The world begins to look more like the dominant power over less powerful society.
(c) It leads to shrinking of rich cultural heritage of the entire globe.

Picture Based Questions

Q1.Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon comment?
2. What is referred under the title Yesterday?
3. What message does the title Today convey?
Answer:
1. Cartoon comments on the changing scenario due to globalisation.
2. It refers to earlier conditions of developing countries who were starving due to less growth in
their economy.
3. Globalisation opened doors for new entrants from developing nations and resulted into brain
drain.

Chapter 10

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Which among the following statements
about the partition is incorrect?
(a) Partition of India was the outcome of the two-nation theory.
(b) Punjab and Bengal were the two provinces divided on the basis of religion.
(c) East Pakistan and West Pakistan were not contiguous.
(d) The scheme of Partition included a plan for transfer of population across the border.
Answer: (d) The scheme of partition included a plan for transfer of population across the
border.

Q2. Match the principles with instances:

Answer: (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Q3. Take a current political map of India (showing outlines of states) and mark the
location of the following Princely States,
(a) Junagadh (b) Manipur
(c) Mysore (d) Gwalior.
Answer: Please see the Map attached at the end of the chapter. The places are marked as
3(a), 3(b), 3(c) and 3(d).

Q4. Here are two opinions:

Bismay: The merger with the Indian State was an extension of democracy to the people
of the Princely States. Inderpreet: I am not so sure, there was force being used.
Democracy comes by creating consensus.
What is your opinion in the light of accession of Princely States and the responses of the
people in these parts?
Answer: Accession of Princely States and merger with Indian union was to expand democracy
all over the country because princely states never enjoyed their political rights. Indian
government central government used force to extend democracy to some extent as this was
mandatory to have a uniform base in the country.

Q5. Read the following very different statements made in August 1947: Today you have
worn on your heads a crown of thorns. The seat of power is a nasty thing. You have to
remain ever wakeful on that seat you have to he more humble and forbearing now
there will be no end to your being tested.
-M.K, Gandhi India will awake to a life of freedom. we step out from, the old to the
new. we end, today a period of ill fortune and India discovers herself again. The
achievement we celebrate today is but a step, an opening of opportunity ,
-Jawaharlal Nehru Spell out the agenda of nation building that flows from these two
statements. Which one appeals more to you and why?
Answer: These two statements focus on the agenda of secularism, democracy, sovereignty
and freedom. It focuses on the path which will lead to the real development and prosperity of
our country. The first statement appeals to me more than the second one because it invokes the
countrymen to remain awake, alert and conscious as it is not the end of our struggle. The time
to build the nation initiates now.

Q6. What are the reasons being used by Nehru for keeping India secular? Do you think
these reasons were only ethical and sentimental? Or were there some prudential reasons
as well?
Answer: Reasons for keeping India secular:
1. All the Muslims did not leave India during participation, some muslims stayed in India as a
minority and Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to deal with them in a very civilised and dignified
manner.
2. He advocated security and democratic rights of Muslims as a citizen of India.
No, these reasons were not only ethical and sentimental, but there were some prudential
reasons also as:
1. Indias secular nature cherished its long term goals and principles
like socialism, equality, liberty and fraternity.
2. Secularism stops any single faith to become superior and inferior to those who practicised
another religion. Hence it considers all citizens equal irrespective of religious affiliation.

Q7. Bring out two major differences between the challenge of nation building for eastern
and western regions of the country at the time of Independence.
Answer: The two major differences between eastern (Bengal) and Western (Punjab) regions
can be summed up as follows:
1. These regions were the muslim majority provinces to be joined. Hence, it was decided that
new country Pakistan will comprise two territories i.e. West and East Pakistan.
2. Secondly, there was a problem of minorities on both sides of border (East and West). Lakhs
of Hindus and Sikhs in areas of Pakistan and Muslims on the Indian side of Punjab and Bengal
found themselves trapped with no option except to leave their homes.

Q8. What was the task of the States Reorganisation Commission? What was its most
salient recommendation?
Answer: The State Reorganisation Commission was set up in 1953 by central government to
look into the matter of redrawing of boundaries of state:
1. The commission evolved that states boundaries should reflect the boundaries of different
languages to accommodate linguistic diversity.
2. The State Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 which resulted the creation of 14 states
and 6 union territories.
3. Its most salient recommendation was the formation of linguistic states i.e. to reorganise states
on the basis of accommodation of their languages to prepare a uniform base for the nation.
Q9. It is said that the nation is to large extent an imagined community held together by
common beliefs, history, political aspirations and imaginations. Identify the features that
make India a nation.
Answer: India proved herself through all stages of three challenges at the time of nation
building like:
1. India is a secular country where people speak different languages and follow different
cultures and religions to be recognised as a nation of unity in diversity with common faith and
beliefs.
2. Political aspiration ensures democratic setup based on parliamentary form of government
creating political competition in a democratic framework.
3. Indias imaginations established a welfare state on the principle of equality and special
protection to socially disadvantaged groups and religions as well as cultural communities.

Q10. Read the following passage and answer the questions below:
In the history of nation-building only the Soviet experiment bears comparison with the
Indian. There too, a sense of unity had to be forged between many diverse ethnic groups,
religious, linguistic communities and social classes. The scale-geographic as well as
demographic was comparably massive. The raw material the state had to work with was
equally unpropitious: a people divided by faith and driven by debt and disease.
Ramachandra Guha
(a) List the commonalities that the author mentions between India and Soviet Union and
give one example for each of these from India.
(b) The author does not talk about dissimilarities between the two experiments. Can you
mention two dissimilarities?
(c) In retrospect which of these two experiments worked better and why?
Answer: (a) Commonalities between India and Soviet Union:
(i) Both the nations shaped the nation on linguistic basis.
(ii) To promote welfare motives, the economic and technological developments took place in
India also.
(iii) States were divided on the grounds of geographical boundary and strength of populations
also in both the nations.
(b) Dissimilarities:
(i) Soviet Union was divided into 15 independent republics/countries to be disintegrated.
(ii) India maintained its unity and integrity even among diversified nature of states and peoples
without any more division.
(c) The Indian experiment worked better to promote linguistic and cultural plurality without
affecting unity and integrity of the nation though India adopted some diplomatic measures to
make country united.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Marks]

Q1. Name the leader who played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely
states to join the Indian Union.
Answer: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q2. What is meant by Two Nation Theory?

Answer: Two Nation Theory was propounded by Muhammad Ali Jinnah to create separate
state for Muslims.
Q3. Mention the main recommendation of the State Reorganisation Commission of 1953.
Answer: The main recommendation of the State Reorganisation Commission was to organise
states on language basis and the boundaries of states could also reflect the linguistic aspects.

Q4. Which two languages were spoken in Bombay state before it was divided in 1960?
Answer: Gujarati and Marathi

Q5. Name any four princely states that resisted their merger with the Indian Union?
Answer: Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur.

Q6. How many princely states consisted at the time of independence of India?
Answer: 565 princely states.

Q7. What was meant by princely states?

Answer: Princely states were ruled by princes who employed some form of control over their
internal affairs under the supremacy of the British.

Q8. What was the basis of the report of States Reorganisation Commission?
Answer: States Reorganisation Commission Report was based on the distribution of
boundaries of states on language basis to reflect linguistic aspects.

Q9. Why were the states reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956?
Answer: States were reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956 to maintain unity and
integrity of the nation to avoid violence and conflicts among the people.

Q10. Whose speech was known as tryst with destiny?

Answer. Tryst with destiny speech was delivered by the first Prime Minister of independent
India Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru while addressing special session of constituent Assembly as the
midnight of 14-15 August 1947.

Q11. Name the states which decided to remain independent in place of joining India.
Answer: Travancore, Junagadh, Hyderabad and Bhopal decided to remain independent.

Q12. In which Congress Session proposal for linguistic principles of reorganisation was
accepted?
Answer: Nagpur Congress Session of 1920.

Q13. Name the movement which demanded the separate province for Andhra region.
Answer: The Vishalandhra movement demanded that Telugu speaking areas should be
separated from Madras Province of which they were a part and be made into a separate Andhra
Province.

Q14. Why did Amritsar and Kolkata become communal zones?

Answer: Amritsar and Kolkata became communal zones because Muslims did not wish to
move into area of Hindus and Sikhs majority and on the other hand Hindus and Sikhs also
wanted to stay away from the areas of Muslim predominance.
Q15. Define Globalisation.
Answer: Globalisation refers to integration of an economy with the other country based on
interdependence.

Q16. What is WSF?

Answer: WSF is the World Social Forum, a global platform to bring together a wide coalition of
human rights activists, environmentalists and women activists.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. Identify any two consequences of the partition of India in 1947.

Answer: 1. Communal Riots took place as the people of one community were killed and
maimed by the people of other community in the name of religion.
2. People went through immense sufferings as they were forced to abandon their homes and to
secure temporary shelter in the refugee camps. Thousands of women were abducted on both
sides of border.

Q2. Mention any two challenges that India faced just after independence.
Answer: (i) Challenge to shape a nation
(ii) Challenges to establish democracy.
Or
(iii) Challenge to ensure the development and well being of the entire society.

Q3. Name the original states from which the following states were carved out.
(a) Meghalaya (b) Gujarat
Answer: (a) Assam (1972) (b) Bombay (1960)

Q4. Explain the role played by Sardar Patel in the integration of princely states into the
Indian Union.
Answer. Sardar Patel negotiated with the rulers of princely states and diplomatically merged
most of them into the Indian Union i.e. there were 26 small states in todays Orissa and 14 big
states and 119 small states in todays Gujarat.

Q5. Which state got divided on bilingual basis?

Answer: Bombay got divided on bilingual basis consisting of Gujarat and Marathi speaking
people. After popular agitation, the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat were created in 1960.

Q6. Name the leader who advocated separate state of Andhra Pradesh by observing fast
unto death and participation in Salt Satyagraha.
Answer: The leader Potti Sriramulu of Madras resigned from government job to participate in
Salt Satyagraha and advocated equality in the society and demanded entry of dalits in temples
of Madras as well as observed fast unto death since 19 October 1952 to create separate state
of Andhra Pradesh

Q7. What was governments approach towards the integration of princely states was
based on three considerations?
Answer: 1. Most of the princely states willingly wanted to join Indian Union.
2. The government wanted to accommodate plurality by adopting flexible approach in dealing
with the demand of the region.
3. The central government was so much concerned towards integration and consolidation of
territorial boundaries of Indian nation.

Q8. Which interests were hidden behind the conflicts between Hindus and Muslims at the
time of independence?
Answer: Hindu and Muslim communities bear some political interests at the time of
independence:
1. Muslim League demanded a separate nation for Muslims to protect the interests of Muslims
only.
2. There were some Hindu organisations also which made efforts to look after the interests of
Hindus only to make India a Hindu Nation.

Q9. India got independence under very difficult circumstances rather than any other
country. Justify the statement.
Answer: India got independence in 1947 under very difficult circumstances:
1. Freedom came with the partition of the country.
2. The year 1947 became the year of unprecedented violence and trauma.
3. Still our leader faced all these challenges in an appreciable manner by accommodating
regional diversities also.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. How was the princely state of Manipur acceded to India?

Answer: Due to integration of princely states, Maharaja of Manipur Bodhachandra Singh signed
the Instrument of Accession with the India Government on the assurance to be maintained the
internal autonomy of Manipur:
1. The state became a constitutional Monarchy after it conducted elections in 1948 to become
first state to hold elections based on Universal Adult Franchise.
2. But sharp differences arose in Legislative Assembly over the question of merger of Manipur
with India while the state congress wanted the merger other political parties were opposed to
this.

Q2. Describe briefly any four problems faced in the process of partition of India.
Answer: The process of partition had been started in 1940 when Muslim League Propounded
Two Nation Theory. This process involved various problems:
1. Areas were supposed to be distributed on the basis of religions majority i.e. Muslim majority
areas built Pakistani territory and rest stayed with India. It created communal riots in country.
2. No single belt of muslim majority was the part of British India. They were concentrated in East
and West. Hence, it was decided that Pakistan will comprise two territories namely East and
West Pakistan separated by long expansion of India territory.
3. All muslim majority areas did not want to be merged with Pakistan
i. e. it was opposed in NWFP. But ultimately NW.FP was made to merge with Pakistan.
4. Another problem belonged to minorities on both sides of border
i. e. Lakhs of Hindus and Muslims and Sikhs from both the sides were left with no option except
to leave their homes.
Q3. Name the states divided on the basis of sub-regional culture.
Answer: In the late 20th century, some states sub-regions raised the voice for separate states
accommodating their regional culture on the ground of complaints of regional imbalances.
Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Uttaranchal were created in 2000 on the basis of separate
regional culture only.

Q4. Explain three challenges which independent India faced during the process of Nation
Building.
Answer: India had to face many challenges immediately after she got independence, which can
be summed up as follows:
1. Challenge to Shape a Nation: India was divided among various states at the time of
independence. Hence a great challenge arose to unity and integrate country into one bond
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel took upon himself to integrate these states either wilfully or
diplomatically to be completed into different stages.
2. To Establish Democratic Setup: India constituted representative democracy based on
parliamentary form of government and it was a great challenge to develop these democratic
practices in the nation.
3. To Ensure Development and Well Being of the Society: Indian polity made herself to achieve
welfare goods with the environment of effective economic policies and eradication of poverty
and unemployment.

Q5. What problems were involved at the integration of princely states during nation
building?
Answer: Integration of princely states possessed many difficulties in front of nation builders:
1. British announced to lapse of British
Paramountcy over princely states with the end of their rule over India.
2. British government took the view that all these states were free to join either India or Pakistan
or remain independent wilfully. It became a hindrance for unity of nation.
3. Ruler of Travancore declared the states an independent one.
4. Nizam of Hyderabad and Bhopal also followed Travancore.
5. These responses created a possibility of division of country in place of unity and democracy.

Q6. Write a short note on the peoples movement of Hyderabad.

Answer: Hyderabad was the largest princely state of India under the rule of Nizam. One of the
worlds richest person. Nizam wanted Hyderabad to be an independent state. But the people of
Hyderabad were not happy with the rule of Nizam due to his non-democratic practices. Hence,
various section of society agitated against him:
1. The peasants in Telangana region particularly rose voice against him.
2. Women also joined the movement in large number.
3. The communist and Hyderabad congress were in the forefront of movement.
4. Nizam responded by unbashing a Razakars paramilitary force on people.
5. Ultimately, the central government had to order the army to tackle and in 1948, Indian army
moved in control the Nizams forces.
All the above mentioned situations led to an accession of Hyderabad.

Q7. What was the significance of linguistic reorganisation of Indian states to the nation
building?
Answer: In the initial years it was felt that linguistic states may foster separatism and create
pressures on newly founded nation. But India considered democracy and federalism by making
a favour to linguistic states only:
1. Linguistic states enhanced democratic practices.
2. Linguistic states reduced separatist attitude by accepting the regional linguistic claims of all
regions.
3. Linguistic reorganisation provided a uniform base to the nation and strengthened unity of
nation.
4. Linguistic states promoted the principle of unity in diversity, a distinct feature of nation.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions:
The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into
smaller principalities of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National
Congress and took the view that the States should be free to adopt any course they liked.
Sardar Patel, Indias Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial
period, immediately after Independence, played a historic role in negotiating with the
rulers of Princely States in bringing most of them into the Indian Union.

Questions
1. Which government has been referred to as the interim government?
2. Why did the Muslim League oppose the Indian National Congress?
3. What makes the role of Sardar Patel a historic one? Explain.
Answer:
1. The Indian National Congress has been referred to as the interim government.
2. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress because it was of the view that
the states should be free to adopt any course they liked.
3. Sardar Patel was Indias Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial
period immediately following Independence. He negotiated with the rulers of princely states
firmly but diplomatically and brought most of them into the Indian Union.

Q2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
We should begin to work in that spirit and in course of time all these angularities of the
majority and minority communities, the Hindu community and the Muslim community-
because even as regards Muslims you have Pathans, Punjabis, Shias, Sunnis and so on
and among the Hindus you have Brahmins, Vaishnavas, Khatris, also Bengalees,
Madrasis, and so on-will vanish. You are free; you are free to go to your temples, you
are free to go to your mosques or to any other place of worship in this State of Pakistan.
You may belong to any religion or caste or creed-that has nothing to do with the
business of the State.
Mohammad Ali Jinnah

Questions
1. Do you think that Jinnahs statement contradicts the theory which was the basis of
creation of Pakistan? Justify your answer.
2. What is the essence of Jinnahs statement in this passage?
3. To what extent did Pakistan live up to Jinnahs expectations in this passage?
Answer:
1. Jinnahs statement does not con-tradict the Two Nations Theory as he aimed at the creation
of separate state for Muslims without any interference in other communities like Pathans,
Punjabis, Shias and Sunnis.
2. The essence of Jinnahs statement in this passage is his secular outlook regarding the
protection and promotion of every community by giving freedom to practices ones own beliefs
(religiously).
3. Pakistan did not live up to Jinnahs expectations because Pakistan became an orthodox
Muslim country that did not respect interests of another communities after indepen-dence.

Q3. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
We have a Muslim minority who are so large in numbers that they cannot, even if they
want, go anywhere else. That is a basic fact about which there can be no argument..
Whatever the provocation from Pakistan and whatever the indignities and horrors
inflicted on non-Muslims there, we have got to deal with this minority in a civilised
manner. We must give them security and the rights of citizens in a democratic state. If we
fail to do so, we shall have a festering sore which will eventually poison the whole body
politic and probably destroy it.
Jawaharlal Nehru

Questions
1. Why did Jawaharlal Nehru want to deal with the muslim minority in a civilised way?
2. Why this minority should be given the security and rights-on the same footing as 20 all
others in a democratic system?
3. If this minority was not provided security and rights what kind of scenario is
envisaged?
Answer:
1. Because India adopted democracy which commit equal rights and opportunities to each and
every human being in place of dividing them.
2. It was argued by Jawaharlal Nehru not only for ethical and sentimental reasons but prudential
reasons also to realise long cherished goals and principles as socialism, equality, and fraternity.
3. If this minority was not provided security and rights it may effect:
1. Basic nature of democratic system.
2. It is against secular nature of India.
3. It may effect Indias foreign policy also.
4. It may threat to other minorities also.
5. Most important it may lead to disintegration of the nation.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. What forced the Union Government of India to appoint the State Reorganisation
Commission in 1953? Mention its two main recommendations. Name any four new states
formed after 1956.
Answer: 1. State Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1953 by central Government to
rearrange the boundaries of states.
2. Its main recommendations were to organise states on language basis as well as the
boundaries of state could reflect the linguistic aspects also.
3. The Madras province under British India created following linguistic states:
(a) Andhra Pradesh (Telugu)
(b) Tamilnadu (Tamil)
(c) Kerala (Malayalam)
(cl) Karnataka (Kannad)
4. The state Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 which created 14 states and 6 Union
territories.

Q2. Explain any three challenges faced by India at the time of its independence.
Answer: India had to face many challenges immediately after she got independence, which can
be summed up as follows:
1. Challenge to Shape a Nation: India was divided among various states at the time of
independence. Hence a great challenge arose to unify and integrate country into one bond.
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel took upon himself to integrate these states either wishfully or
diplomatically to be completed into different stages.
2. To Establish Democratic Set up: India constituted representative democracy based on
parliamentary form of government and it was a great challenge to develop these democratic
practices in the nation.
3. To Ensure Development and Well Being of the Society: Indian polity made herself to achieve
welfare goals with the evolvement of effective economic policies and eradication of poverty and
unemployment.

Q3. How did the reorganisation of states take place in India after its independence?
Explain.
Answer: 1. In the initial years it was felt that linguistic states may foster seperatism and create
pressures on newly founded nation, but India considered democracy and federalism by making
a favour to linguistic states only.
2. State Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1953 central Government to rearrange
the boundaries of states.
3. Its main recommendations were to organise states on language basis as well as the
boundaries of states could reflect the linguistic aspects also.
4. The State Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 which created 14 states and 6 union
territories.
5. Linguistic states enhanced democratic practices.
6. Linguistic states reduced separatist attitude by accepting the regional and linguistic claims of
all regions.

Q4. Explain any three consequences of partition in India.

Answer: 1. In the name of religion, people of one community killed and mained people of the
other community. Cities like Lahore, Kolkata and Amritsar were titled as communal zones.
2. People went through social sufferings also be forced to abandon their homes especially
minorities, who took shelter in refugee camps.
3. To preserve the honour of family, many women were killed even many children were
separated from their family and if crossed borders, they did not have any home.
4. The partition did not only divide property, assets or liabilities but also the government
employees and the railways etc.

Q5. Assess the role played by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in nation building.
Answer: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is also known as Iron man of India, became Indias Deputy
Prime minister and Home minister during integration of princely states. He played a historic role
in negotiating the rulers of princely states and diplomatically brought most of them in Indian
Union. It was very complicated which required skilful persuation i.e. there were 26 small states
in todays
Orissa, Saurashtra region of Gujarat had 14 states with 119 small states etc.
Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1.Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does this picture represent?
2. Mention some consequences of partition.
3. Which year is being denoted in the picture?
Answer:
1. This picture represents the painful scene of partition of country when people were supposed
to leave their homes.
2. (i) Communal Riots (ii) Social Sufferings
(iii) Administrative Concerns and Financial Strains.
3. The year of 1947, most abrupt, unplanned year in the history.

Q2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. Identify the person in the centre of the cartoon and mention the challenge surrounding
him.
2. What does the picture actually refer?
3. How did India avoid all these conflicts?
Answer:
1. The person is the first Prime Minister of India Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru, who faced the first and
foremost challenge of integration of princely states and formation of linguistic states.
2. The picture refers the problem of reorganisation of states on linguistic basis with the fear of
disintegration in the country.
3. India identified and respected regional demands of the people and enhanced democracy by
providing some autonomy to the states also.

Q3. On a political outline map of India locate and label the following and symbolise them
as indicated:
Questions
1. Name and mark the original state from . which the following states were carved out.
(a) Gujarat (b) Meghalaya (c) Haryana (d) Chhattisgarh
2. Name and mark the countries reorganised on religious grounds.
3. Demarcated boundaries of these countries by geographical zones.
Answer:
1. (a) Gujarat (from Bombay)
(b) Meghalaya (from Assam)
(c) Haryana (from Punjab)
(d) Chhattisgarh (from Madhya Pradesh)
2. (a) India (b) Pakistan
3. (a) Pakistan (b) Bangladesh

Chapter 11

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Choose the correct option to fill in the
blanks.
(a) The First General Elections in 1952 involved simultaneous elections to
the Lok Sabha and.
(The President of India/State Assemblies/Rajya Sabha/The Prime Minister)
(b) The party that won the second largest number of Lok Sabha seats in the first
elections was the
(Praja Socialist Party/Bharatiya Jana Sangh/Communist Party of India/Bharatiya Janata
Party)
(c) One of the guiding principles of the ideology of the Swatantra Party was
(Working class interest/protection of Princely States/Economy free from State
control/Autonomy of States within the Union)
Answer: (a) State Assemblies
(b) Communist Party of India
(c) Economy free from state control.

Q2. Match the following

Answer: (a)(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(w), (d)-(iii)

Q3. Four statements regarding one-party dominance are given below. Mark each of them
as true or false:
(a) One-party dominance is rooted in the absence of strong alternative political parties
(b) One-party dominance occurs because of weak public opinion.
(c) One-party dominance is linked to the nations colonial past.
(d) One-party dominance reflects the absence of democratic ideals in a country.
Answer: (a) True, (b) False, (c) True, (d) False

Q4. If Bharatiya Jana Sangh of the Communist Party of India had formed the government
after the first election, in which respects would the policies of the government have been
different? Specify three differences each for both the parties.
Answer: 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh:
The policies of Bharatiya Jana Sangh were based on the principles as follows:
(a) It replaced secular concept by the ideology of one country, one culture and one nation.
(b) No cultural and educational rights as this party opposed the granting of concessions to
religious and cultural minorities.
(c) It focused on the reunity of India and Pakistan under the concept of Akhand Bharat.
2. Communist Party of India:
Communist Party of India would have been different on the principles as follows:
() It worked for proportional representation in the govern-ment.
() This party followed communist ideology in various policies.
(c) It emphasised on a control over electronic mass media by an autonomous body or
corporation.

Q5. In what sense was the Congress an ideological coalition? Mention the various
ideological currents present within the Congress.
Answer: The Congress Party became a social and ideological coalition for it merged different
social groups alongwith their identity holding different beliefs:
1. It accommodated the revolutionary, conservative, pacifist, radical, extremist and moderates
and the rights and the left with all other shades of the centre.
2. Congress became a platform for numerous groups, interests and even political parties to take
part in the national movement.
Ideological currents present within the Congress:
(a) In pre-independence days, many organisations and parties with their own constitutions and
organisational structures were allowed to exist within the Congress.
(b) Some of these like Congress Socialist Party later seperated from the Congress and
became on opposition party.

Q6. Did the prevalence of a one-party dominant system affect adversely the democratic
nature of Indian politics?
Answer: No, the prevalence of one party dominance system did not affect adversely the
democratic nature of Indian politics because:
1. The key role of Congress in the freedom struggle gave it a head start over others.
2. The Congress accommodated diversified interests, religion, beliefs and aspirations to
strengthen democracy.
3. Despite being taken place of free and fair elections, Congress won elections in the same
manner again and again.
4. Congress party consisted of various factions inside itself, based on ideological considerations
who never taught together or went out of Congress.
5. Hence, on the basis of above mentioned criterion, it can be concluded that Congress
strengthened ideals of democracy and held unity and integrity of the country.

Q7. Bring out three differences each between Socialist Parties and the Communist Party
and between Bharatiya Jana Sangh and Swatantra Party.
Answer: 1. Differences between Socialist Parties and Communist Party:

2. Differences between Bharatiya Jana Sangh and Swatantra Party:

Q8. What would you consider as the main differences between Mexico and India under
one party domination?
Answer: There was a difference between one party domination in India and Mexico. In Mexico,
this was a one party system only not dominance because:
1. In India, the Congress party dominated on behalf of popular consensus but Institutional
Revolutionary Party (PRI) (in Spanish) ruled on behalf of perfect dictatorship.
2. In India, free and fair elections took place, where the losing of election was also fair but it
Mexico, elections were based on malpractices, dominated by PRI.

Q9. Take a political map of India (with State outlines) and mark:
(a) Two states where Congress was not in poiver at some point during 1952-67.
(b) Two states where the Congress remained in power through this period.
Answer. Map is attached and marked as:
(a) 1. Kerala (Travancore-Cochin)
2. Madras (Travancore-Cochin)
(b) 1. Punjab or U.P.
2. Rajasthan or West Bengal.

Q10. Read the following passage:

Patel, the organisational man of the Congress, wanted to purge the Congress of other
political groups and sought to make of it a cohesive and disciplined political party. He
sought to take the Congress away from its all-embracing character
and turn it into a close-knit party of disciplined cadres. Being a r list he looked more for
discipline than for took too romantic a view of eariging on the movement, Patels idea
of transforming the Congress into strictly political party with a single ideology and tight
discipline showed an equal lack of understanding of the eclectic role that the Congress,
as a government, was to be called upon to perform in the decades to follow.Rnjni Kotl
c1
() Why does the author think that Congress should not have been a cohesive and
disciplined party?
(b) Give some examples of the eclectic
role of the Congress party in the early years.
(c) Why does the author say that Gandhis view about Congress future was romantic?
Answer: (a) Because she wanted to take the Congress away from its all embracing character
and turn it into a close knit party of disciplined caders.
(b) These examples are in the form of social and ideological coalition of Congress:
(i) It provided a platform for numerous groups, interests and even political parties to participate
in national movement.
(ii) Congress party represented a rainbow like social coalition representing diversity of India
including various castes, religions and languages.
(c) Because Gandhiji believed in hand- in-hand characteristic of national movement led by
Congress which attracted various sections groups and society to form a social and ideological
coalition in Congress.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Q1. Which political party laid emphasis on the idea of one party, one culture and one
nation?
Answer: Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
Q2. Which political party of India had leaders like A.K. Gopalan, E.M.S. Namboodiripad,
and S.A. Dange?
Answer: Communist Party of India.

Q3. Who was the founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh?

Answer: Shyama Prasad Mukherjee in 1951.

Q4. In which year was the Election Commission of India set up and who was the first
chief Election Commissioner of India?
Answer: 25 January 1950, Sukumar Sen.

Q5. Name the founder president of the Congress Socialist Party. What name was given to
this party after 1948?
Answer: The founder president of the Congress Socialist Party was Acharya Narendra Dev and
after 1955 it came to be known as Socialist Party.

Q6. Differentiate between one party dominance and one party system.
Answer: One party dominance refer to representation on behalf of popular consensus
alongwith free and fair elections i.e. Congress in India whereas one party system refers
representation based on malpractice, fraud etc. to ensure winning of a particular party.

Q7. When and why was the electronic voting machine used in India for the first time?
Answer: The electronic voting machine was used in India in 1990 for first time for more
accuracy and fair dealing while counting as well as it helps to check Booth capturing and other
malpractices.

Q8. How did socialist party origin?

Answer: The founder president of the Congress socialist party was Acharya Narendra Dev and
after 1955 it came to be known as Socialist Party.

Q9. Define faction.

Answer: Faction are the groups formed inside the party i.e. coalitions made in Congress
created various factions which were based on either ideological considerations or personal
ambitions.

Q10. When and by whom PRI was founded?

Answer: The Institutional Revolutionary Party (PRI) was founded in 1929 by Plutareo Elias
Calles in Mexico which represented the legacy of Mexican Revolution.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. How did the dominance of Congress Party in the first three general elections help in
establishing a democratic set-up in India?
Answer: The first general election was the first big test of democracy in a poor and illiterate
country. Till then democracy had existed only in the prosperous countries. By that time many
countries in Europe had not given voting rights to all women. In this context Indias experiment
with universal adult franchise appeared very bold and risky. Indias general election of 1952
became a landmark in the history of democracy all over the world. It was no longer possible to
argue that domocratic elections could not be held on conditions of poverty or lack of education.
It proved that democracy could be practised anywhere in the world. The next two general
elections strengthened democratic set-up in India.

Q2. Highlight any two features of ideology of Bharatiya Jana Sangh.

Answer: 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh laid emphasis on ideology of one country, one culture and
one nation.
2. Bharatiya Jana Sangh called for reunity of India and Pakistan in Akhand Bharat.

Q3. Explain the major difference of ideology between that of Congress and the Bharatiya
Jana Sangh.
Answer: The major difference of ideology between Congress and the Bharatiya Jana Sangh
was that Bharatiya Jana Sangh emphasised on one party country. One culture, one nation i.e. a
Hindu nation or Hindutva whereas Congress formed ideological and social coalitions
accommodating social diversities.

Q4. State any two ideologies of the Swatantra Party.

Answer: Swatantra Party was founded by Senior Congress leader C. Rajgopalachari in August
1959:
1. The party believed that prosperity could come only through individual freedom.
2. This party was against land ceilings in agriculture and opposed to cooperative farming.

Q5. How has the method of voting changed from the first General Election of 1952 to the
General Election of 2004?
Answer: 1. In the first General Election a box was placed inside each polling booth for each
candidate with the election symbol of the candidate. Each voter was given a blank ballot paper
to drop into the box, they wanted to vote for.
2. After first two elections, this method was changed. Now ballot paper carried the names and
symbols of candidates and the voter stamped against the name of candidate to vote for.
3. In 2004, Electronic Voting Machine were introduced to press the button according to choice of
the voter containing the name of candidate and symbol of political party.

Q6. When was Communist Party emerged?

Answer: The Communist Party emerged in 1920 in different parts of India. It took the inspiration
from Bolshevik revolution in Russia. The important leaders of CPI were A.K. Gopalan, S.A.
Dange, E.M.S. Namboodiripad, P.C. Joshi, Ajay Ghosh etc.

Q7. Indias experiment with universal adult franchise appeared very bold and risky.
Justify the statement.
Answer: Because:
1. Countrys vast size and electorates made these elections unusual.
2. The year 1952, it was a big test for poor and illiterate country.
3. Till then, democracy had been existed only in the prosperous countries mainly in Europe and
North America where everyone was almost literate.

Q8. Mention the aims and goals of Socialist Party of India. Why the party could not prove
itself as an effective alternative to the Congress?
Answer: Aims and goals of socialist party of India:
1. The Socialist Party believed in the ideology of democratic socialism to be distinguished from
Congress and Communists both.
2. It criticised Congress for ignoring the workers and peasants.
It became difficult for socialist party to prove itself as an effective alternative to Congress
because Congress Party declared its goal to be the socialist pattern of society in 1955.

Q9. What were the reasons for dominance of one party system in India?
Answer: The dominance of Congress in India was due to following reasons:
1. Congress was identified with the freedom struggle for building national unity and solidarity.
2. Congress was associated with Mahatma Gandhis name.
3. It had a broad based manifesto to include the various section of society.
4. Congress bore a popular appeal of charismatic leader like Mahatma Gandhi, J.L. Nehru,
Sardar Patel, Indira Gandhi etc.
5. Congress focused on building role of the party.

Q10. How did Indias first general elections of 1952 become a landmark in the history of
democracy all over the world?
Answer: Because:
1. These elections were competitive among various parties.
2. The participation of people was encouraging also.
3. The results were declared in a very fair manner, even to be accepted by the losers in a fair
manner.
4. This experiment of India, proved the critics wrong also.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Describe the organisation of Congress Party as a social and ideological coalitions.
Or
For a long time Congress Party had been a social and ideological coalition. Justify the
statement.
Answer: 1. It accommodated the revolutionary conservative, extremist and moderates with all
other shades of the centre.
2. Congress became a platform for numerous groups, interests and even political parties to take
part in national movement.
3. In pre-independence days, many organisations and parties were allowed to co-exist within
the Congress.
4. Some of these like Congress Socialist Party later separated from the Congress and became
an opposition party.

Q2. How was one party dominance of India different from the other examples of one party
dominance in the world?
Or
Examine the comparative analysis of nature of Congress dominance.
Answer: India is not the only country to have dominance of one party but we have some other
examples also for the same. But the dominance of one party in India does not compromise
democratic spirit of constitution whereas other nations have compromised it:
1. In countries like China, Cuba and Syria are permitted to be ruled by one party only by the
constitutional provisions.
2. Myanmar, Belarus, Egypt also experience one party system due to legal and military
measurer.
3. In India, Congress dominates on behalf of free and fair elections based on democracy where
the losing of other party is also fair.

Q3. In India, hero-worship, plays a part in its politics unequalled in magnitude by the
part it plays in the politics of any other country But in politics, hero-worship is a sure
road to degradation and eventual dictatorship.Babasaheb Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Analyse
the statement.
Answer: The above mentioned statement speaks of accommodating diversities by the leader of
India which was a challenging path to democracy. Our leaders wanted to represent politics as a
way of solution of problems in place of making politics a problem.

Q4. Examine the dominance of Congress in the first three General Elections.
Answer: I. In the first election Congress won 364/489 seats as per expectations.
2. The Communist Party next to Congress won only 16 seats.
3. Congress scored higher in state elections also except Travancore- Cochin (Kerala), Madras
and Orissa.
4. Hence, country ruled at national and state level both by declaring Pt. J.L. Nehru as the first
Prime Minister of India.
5. In second and third elections also, Congress maintained the same position in Loksabha by
winning of three fourth seats in the years 1957 and 1962 respectively.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
This coalition-like character of the Congress gave it an unusual strength. Firstly, a
coalition accommodates all those who join it. Therefore, it has to avoid any extreme
position and strike a balance on almost all issues. Compromise and inclusiveness are
the hallmarks of a coalition. This strategy put the opposition in a difficulty. Anything that
the opposition wanted to say, would also find a place in the programme and ideology of
the Congress. Secondly, in a party that has the nature of a coalition, there is a greater
tolerance of internal differences and ambitions of various groups and leaders are
accommodated. The Congress did both these things during the freedom struggle and
continued doing this even after Independence. That is why, even if a group was not
happy with the position of the party or with its share of power, it would remain inside the
party and fight the other groups rather than leaving the party and becoming an
opposition.

Questions
1. What do you mean by a faction?
2. How did coalition-like character affect the nature of Congress Party?
3. How did Congress avoided to increase number of opposition?
Answer:
1. Factions are the groups formed inside the party based on either ideological considerations or
on personal ambitions and rivalries.
2. Coalition-like character of Congress accommodated all social diversities and maintained a
balance on almost all issues. Even a proper space for the programmes and ideology of opposite
parties was also given. In such a way Congress showed greater tolerance towards internal
differences.
3. Alongwith its coalition-like character, Congress did not let the groups to leave the party to
become an opposition.

Q2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
The socialists believed in the ideology of democratic socialism which distinguished them
both from the Congress as well as from the Communists. They criticised the Congress
for favouring capitalists and landlords and for ignoring the workers and the peasants.
But the socialists faced a dilemma when in 1955 the Congress declared its goal to be the
socialist pattern of society. Thus it became difficult for the socialists to present
themselves as an effective alternative to the Congress. Some of them, led by
Rammanohar Lohia, increased their distance from and criticism of the Congress party.
Some others like Asoka Mehta advocated a limited cooperation with the Congress.

Questions
1. Mention the ideology of Socialists.
2. Name some leaders of the Socialist Party.
3. Why did it become difficult for socialists to present themselves as an effective
alternative to the Congress?
Answer:
1. Socialists believed in the ideology of democratic socialism to be distinguished from Congress
as well as from Communists.
2. Ram Manohar Lohia, Ashok Mehta and Acharya Narendra Dev, Jayaprakash Narayan etc.
3. Because in 1955, Congress declared its goal to be the socialist pattern of society.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Describe the various steps taken to hold the first general elections in India. How far
these elections were successful?
Answer: The first general elections had to be postponed twice and finally held from October
1951 to February 1952:
1. These elections were referred to as 1952 elections because most parts of country voted in
January 1952.
2. It took six months for campaigning, polling and counting to be completed.
3. Elections were competitive because there were on an average more than four candidates for
each seat.
4. The level of participation was en-couraging to vote out in the election.
5. The results were declared and accepted as fair even by losers to prove critics wrong.
These elections were successful:
1. The losing of the parties was also accepted as fair.
2. These elections became a landmark in the history of democracy.
3. It was no longer possible to argue that democratic elections could not be held in conditions of
poverty or lack of education. Instead, it can be practised anywhere in the world.

Q2. Why was Congress considered as a social and ideological coalition in independence
days? Explain.
Answer: The Congress Party became a social and ideological coalition for it merged different
social groups alongwith their identity holding different beliefs:
1. It accommodated the revolutionary, conservative, pacifist, radical, extremist and moderates
and the right and the left with all other shades of the centre.
2. Congress became a platform for numerous groups, interacts and even political parties to take
part in the national movement.
Ideological currents present within the Congress:
() In pre-independence days, many organisations and parties with their own constitutions and
organisational structures were allowed to exist within the Congress.
(b) Some of these like Congress Socialist Party, later separated from the Congress and
became an opposition party.

Q3. How was the one party dominance in India different from the one party system in
Mexico? In your opinion which of the two political systems is better and why?
Answer: There was a difference between one party domination in India and Mexico. In Mexico,
this was a one party system only not dominance because:
1. In India, the Congress Party dominated on behalf of popular consensus but Institutional
Revolu-tionary Party (PRI) (in Spanish) ruled on behalf of perfect dictatorship.
2. In India, free and fair elections took place, where the losing of election was also fair but in
Mexico, elections were based on malpractices, dominated by PRI.
In our opinion one party dominancelike India is better because this sort of dominance:
1. Accommodates social diversities.
2. Encourage large number of parti-cipation.
3. Ensures democratic spirit as well as maintains the same.
4. Bear respect even for opposition.

Q4. How did opposition parties emerge in India? What was their importance?
Answer: Some of the diverse opposition parties had come into existence before the
first general elections in 1952 as non-Congress parties which succeeded to gain only a taken of
representation in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. These parties maintained a democratic
character of the system:
1. These offered a criticism based on principles to keep ruling party under check.
2. These parties groomed the leaders also to play a crucial role in shaping the country.
3. In the early years, these was a lot of respect between leaders of Congress and opposition
parties i.e. interim government included even opposition leaders like Dr. Ambedkar,
Jayaprakash Narayan, Shyama Prasad Mukherjee into the cabinet.

Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1.Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. What does the term Tug of war refer to?
3. Who has been shown on the branches of tree?
Answer:
1. Cartoon represents dominance of Congress which is being tug by opposition parties to throw
Congress out of power.
2. Tug of war refer to pulling out the Congress by criticism and mentioning its weaknesses in
an honest and justified manner.
3. Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru alongwith his colleagues in the cabinet.

Q2:In the outline political map of India given below, five States have been marked as A,
B, C, D and E. With the help of the information given below, identify them and write their
correct names in your answer book along with the serial number of the information used
and the related alphabet in the map.
Questions
(i) The State to which C. Rajagopalachari, the first Indian Governor-General of India,
belonged.
(ii) The State where the first non-Congress Government was formed by E.M.S.
Namboodiripad.
(iii) The State to which Rafi Ahmed Kidwai, the Union Minister for Food and Agriculture
(1952-54) belonged.
(iv) The State which faced the most acute food crisis in 1965-1967.
(v) The State which led the country to White Revolution through Dairy Cooperative Movement.
Answer:
A (iv) Bihar B (iii) Uttar Pradesh C (v) Gujarat D (i) Tamil Nadu C (a) Kerala

Q3. On a political outline map of India locate and label the following and symbolise them
as indicated:
Questions
1. Two states where Congress was not in power at some point during 1952-67.
2. Two states where the Congress remained in power through this period.
Answer:
1. (i) Jammu & Kashmir (ii) Kerala
2. (i) Uttar Pradesh (ii) Maharashtra

Chapter 12

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Which of these statements about the Bombay Plan is incorrect?
(a) It was a blueprint for Indias economic future.
(b) It supported state-ownership of industry.
(c) It was made by some leading industrialists.
(d) It supported strongly the idea of planning.
Answer: (a) It was a blueprint for Indias economic future.

Q2. Which of the following ideas did not form part of the early phase of Indias
development policy?
(a) Planning
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Cooperative farming
(d) Self sufficiency
Answer: (b) Liberalisation.

Q3. The idea of planning in India was drawn from

(a) The Bombay plan
(b) Experiences of the Soviet bloc countries
(c) Gandhian vision of society
(d) Demand by peasant organisations
(i) (b) and (d) only
(ii) (d) and (c) only
(iii) (a) and (b) only
(iv) All the above
Answer: (iv) All of the above.

Q4. Match the following:

Answer: (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Q5. What were the major differences in the approach towards development at the time of
Independence? Has the debate been resolved?
Answer. At the time of independence, development was about becoming more like the
industrialised countries of the West, to be involved with the break down of traditional social
structure as well as rise of capitalism and liberalism.
1. Modernisation referred to growth, material progress and scientific rationality.
2. India had two models of modern development at the time of independence into
considerations to be adopted i.e. the liberal capitalist model like Europe and the US and the
socialist model like the USSR.
3. A debate had been occurred regarding adoption of model of development as communists,
socialists and Pt.
J.L. Nehru supported the socialist model to reflect a broad consensus to be developed during
national movement.
4. Above mentioned intentions cleared that the government made the priority to poverty
alleviation alongwith social and economic redistribution.
5. At the same time, these leaders differed and debated:
(a) Industrialisation should be the preferred path or
(b) Agricultural development should take place or
(c) Rural poverty should be alleviated.

Q6. What was the major thrust of the First Five Year Plan? In which ways did the Second
Plan differ from the first one?
Answer: The First Five Year Plan was commenced in 1951 to be drafted by Young Economist
K.N. Roy with the emphasis on poverty alleviation. Its main thrusts were as follows:
1. To invest in dams and irrigation to improve agricultural sector with the urgent attention.
2. Huge allocations were made for large scale projects like Bhakra-Nangal Dam.
3. It focused on land reforms for the development in rural areas.
4. It aimed to increase level of National Income.
The first five year plan differed from the second five year plan:
(a) TheSecondFiveYearPlanstressed on heavy industrialisation.
(b) Second Five Year Plan wanted to bring quick structural transformation in all possible
directions in place of slow and steady growth like First Five Year Plan.

Q7. What was the Green Revolution? Mention two positive and two negative
consequences of the Green Revolution.
Answer: Green Revolution was introduced to bring about revolutionary changes in agriculture
especially in foodgrains like wheat and rice to increase production through high yielding
varieties of seeds, fertilisers and scientific irrigation
1. The government offered high yielding varieties of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and better
irrigation facilities at subsidised prices to farmers.
2. The government fixed the prices also to purchase the produce of farmers at a given price.
Positive Consequences:
(i) In many parts, the stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords produced
conditions favourable for left wing organisations to organise the poor peasants.
(ii) It resulted in the rise of what is called the Middle peasant sections who were farmers with
medium size holdings who benefitted from the changes and soon emerged politically influential
in many parts of country.
Negative Consequences:
(i) This created a stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords.
(ii) It delivered only a moderate agricultural growth i.e. a rise in rice and wheat production by
raising availability of foodgrains in country. On the other hand it increased polarisation between
the classes and regions like Northern States
i. e. Punjab, Haryana, West-UP become agriculturally rich but others remained backward.

Q8. State the main arguments in the debate that ensued between industrialisation and
agricultural development at the time of the Second Five Year Plan.
Answer: At the time of Second Five Year Plan, some controversial issues rose in reference of
relevancy of agriculture over industry.
1. Second Five Year Plan emphasised on industry in place of agriculture or rural India.
2. J.C. Kumarappa, a Gandhian Economist proposed an alternative blueprint to emphasise on
rural industrialisation.
3. Bharatiya Lok Dal leader, Chaudhary Charan Singh also commented that the planning
leading to creation of prosperity in Urban and industrial sections at the cost of rural welfare.
Others debated that without an increase in industrial sector poverty could not be alleviated:
(i) India planning did not have an agrarian strategy to boost the production of food grains.
(ii) It also proposed programmes of community development and spent large sums on irrigation
project and failure was not that of policy but of its nonimplementation because of the politics of
land owning classes.
(in) Besides, they also argued that every if the government had spent more money on
agriculture it would not have solved the massive problem of rural poverty.

Q9. Indian policy makers made a mistake by emphasising the role of state in the
economy. India could have developed much better if private sector was allowed a free
play right from the beginning. Give arguments for or against this proposition.
Answer: No, the above statement is not perfectly true because states intervention was
mandatory to regulate countrys economy
after independence immediately. Indian did not follow either capitalist model of development or
socialist model completely. Instead she adopted the model ofmixed economy to be criticised
from the right and the left:
(i) Private sector lacked enough space and stimulus to grow.
(ii) Licensing and permits for investment in private sector created hurdles for private capital
accumulation.
(iii) The state control beyond the limits led to inefficiency and corruption. State control was
emphasised:
1. State helped the private sector to make profits by intervening only in those areas where the
private sector was not prepared to go.
2. Instead of helping the poor, the states intervention ended up creating a new class that
enjoyed the privileges of higher salaries without much account-ability.

Q10. Read the following passage:

In the early years of Independence,
two contradictory tendencies were already well advanced inside the Congress Party. On
the one hand, the national party executive endorsed socialist principles of state
ownership, regulation and control over key sectors of the economy in order to improve
productivity and at the same time curb economic concentration. On the other hand, the
national Congress government pursued liberal economic policies and incentives to
private investment that was justified in terms of the sold criterion of achieving maximum
increase in production.
Francine Frankel
(a) What is the contradiction that the author is talking about? What would be the political
implications of a contradiction like this?
(b) If the author is correct, why is it that the Congress was pursuing this policy? Was it
related to the nature of the opposition parties?
(c) Was there also a contradiction between the central leadership of the Congress party
and its state level leaders?
Answer: (a) The author is talking about contradiction regarding adoption of development
models either socialist or capitalist. Political implications of this contradiction may result the
differences among party members itself and government can issue licensing and permits in
more complicated manner.
(b) Congress was pursuing this policy as a sole criterion of achieving maximum increased in
production. Yes, it was related to the nature of opposition parties to be pursued liberal economic
policies and incentives to private investment.
(c) No, there was not a contradiction between the central leadership of the Congress Party and
its state level leaders because state emphasised on states ownership, regulation and control
over key sectors improve productivity whereas control leadership pursued liberal economic
policies and incentives to private investment.
Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]

Q1. Who was the founder of Indian Statistical Institute?

Answer: P.C. Mahalanobis to initiate Second Five Year Plan to support industrialisation and
positive role of public sector.

Q2. What is Left and Right in politics?

Answer: These refer to position of concerned party in the group. The left signifies to favour the
poor and downtrodden section of society through government politics whereas the Right
favours free economy in the market not to be intervened unnecessarily by the government.

Q3. What is Development?

Answer: Development refers to the process of improving living standard of country people and
economic level in reference of industrialisation and modernisation to be judged by the
improvements in the quality of life.

Q4. Mention the primary responsibilities of India immediately after independence.

Answer: 1. Development of agriculture
2. Poverty alleviation of rural and urban level both.
3. Social and economic redistribution.

Q5. Why did India adopt planning?

Answer: Because:
1. To bring a socio-economic changes.
2. It was to provide a controlled and faster growth rate.
3. To resolve contradictions between societies.

Q6. What is composition of Planning Commission of India?

Answer: 1. It consists Prime Minister as its Chairman.
2. Some ministers or incharges of economic portfolios.
3. The members of Planning Commission have a high public image alongwith an administrative
and educational background.

Q7. Mention the various interests associated with Orissa Reserved Iron Resource.
Answer: The reserved iron resource of Orissa is an important investment destination due to rise
a global demand of Iron. The state government signed Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
with both international and domestic steel makers in order to bring in capital investment and
employment opportunities.

Q8. What are the key conflicts associated with Orissa reserved Iron Resources?
Answer: 1. These iron resources lie in some most underdeveloped and predominant tribal
districts.
2. Tribal population feared that the setting up of industries would mean displacement from their
name and livelihood.
3. The environmentalist feared to be polluted the environment due to mining and industrial
activities.
Q9. What was Bombay Plan?
Answer: Bombay Plan was drafted in 1944 in the want of states to take major initiatives in
industrial and other economic investment through a joint proposal of a section of the big
industrialist for setting up a Planned Economy.

Q10. What are the objectives of planning?

Answer: 1. To make economy self reliant and self generating through planned strategies.
2. To activate distributive justice among various sectors of economy.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. Differentiate between the main objectives of the First and Second Five Year Plans.
Answer: 1. Objectives of First Five Year Plan:
(a) It focused on land reforms for the development in rural areas.
(b) It aimed to increase level of National Income.
2. The First Five Year Plan differed from the Second Five Year Plan:
(a) The second five year plan stressed on heavy industrialisation.
(b) Second five year plan wanted to bring quick structural transformations in all possible
directions in place of slow and steady growth like first five year plan.

Q2. Differentiate between the capitalist and socialist models of development.

Answer: The capitalist model of development refers to the strategies in which the private
sectors are prioritised in place of social welfare whereas socialist model of development aims at
public sector and planning to establish egalitarian society.

Q3. What is meant by decentralized planning?

Answer: Decentralized planning is designed to involve the peoples through voluntary citizens
organisation in making plans at the panchayats, blocs and districts level. Its example is the
Kerala Model.

Q4. Highlight the two areas on which the First Five Year Plan focused.
Answer: The first five year plan was commenced in 1951 to be drafted by young economist
K.N. Raj with the emphasis on poverty alleviation. Its main thrusts were as follows:
1. To invest in dams and irrigation to improve agricultural sector with the urgent attention.
2. Huge allocations were made for large scale projects like Bhakra-Nangal Dam.

Q5. Which are the two models of development? Which model of development was
adopted by India?
Answer: Two models of development are the capitalist and socialist models of development,
India adopted the elements from both these models together to be known as Mixed Economy.

Q6. What were the fears of tribal population of Orissa and environmentalist about setting
up industries in tribal areas?
Answer: 1. These iron resources lie in some most underdeveloped and predominant tribal
districts.
2. Tribal population feared that the setting up of industries would mean displacement from their
home and livelihood.
3. The environmentalists feared to be polluted the environment due to mining and industrial
activities.

Q7. What is the meaning and importance of economic planning in Indian context?
Answer: Economic planning in India refers do a systematic regulation of economic activities by
government to reduce the wastage of time and resources:
1. Economic planning helps to achieve national goals in a continuous process of development.
2. It is a rational process to associate with the future needs and goals to evaluate alternate
proposals also.

Q8. What was Kerala Model?

Answer: Kerala model is an example of decentralised planning at the state level:
1. It is the initiative taken by Kerala for planning and development strategies.
2. It targeted on education, health, land reform, effective food distribution and poverty
alleviation.
3. Kerala model initiated to implement Panchayati Raj, blocs and district level of government.

Q9. Which state was prone to food crisis in the early years of independence?
Answer: Bihar was prone to food crisis in the early years of independence
1. It was due to a near famine situation.
2. The food shortage was very much acute in all districts of Bihar.
3. Food shortage led to acute and widespread malnutrition.
4. The zoning policies of government prohibited trade of food across states, which reduced
availability of food in Bihar.

Q10. Who was J.C. Kumarappa?

Answer: 1. J.C. Kumarappa was originally known as J.C. Cornelius.
2. He was an economist and chartered accountant.
3. He was the follower of Mahatma Gandhi to apply Gandhian Principles of Economic Policies.
4. He was the author of Economy of Permanence and a member of planning commission.

Q11. What is Plan Holiday?

Answer: 1. Plan Holidays is a gap between two five years plan, i.e. 1979-1980 and 1990-92.
2. It was a stop gap arrangements by the provisions of annual plans.
3. Plan holidays took place due to change in government to be locked in development-goals and
priorities etc.
4. Those five year plans were supposed to be reviewed and changed by the succeeding
government.

Q12. What results were revealed by Planned Economy?

Answer: 1. Big industrialists continued to benefit.
2. The land owning classes became politically powerful.
3. Land reforms could not take place effectively.
4. The early initiatives for planned development were realising the goals of economic
development.

Q13. Which methods were used to implement the development process in a mixed
economy?
Answer: 1. Planning and governmental regulation to control economy.
2. Licensing, subsidies, progressive taxing, price control and reforfhs etc. were also
implemented.
3. To make a significant role of public sector.
4. To ensure a political democracy

Q14. What is Mixed Economy?

Answer: Mixed economy is an economy to co-exist private and public sector both:
1. Both the sectors work within invisible lands of market forces and visible lands of planning set
by government.
2. State own means of production to aim social welfare and private own means of production
to be regulated by states.

Q15. How did Indian lay down the foundation of future economic growth?
Answer: 1. Some of the largest developmental projects in Indias history were undertaken
during this period to include mega dams like Bhakra- Nangal and Hirakud for irrigation and
power generation.
2. Heavy industries were started in the public sector like steel plants, oil refineries,
manufacturing units and defence production etc.
3. Infrastructure and communication were also improved.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Explain any two merits and two demerits each of the Green Revolution.
Answer: Two Merits of the Green Revolution:
(i) The Green Revolution ensured food sufficiency in the country. In many parts, the stark
contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords produced conditions favourable for left
wing organisations to organise the poor peasants.
(ii) The Green Revolution resulted in the rise of middle peasant sections.
These were farmers with medium size holding, who benefited from the changes and soon
emerged politically influential in many parts of the country.
Two Demerits of the Green Revolution:
(i) The Green Revolution delivered only moderate agricultural growth and raised the availability
of food in the country but also increased polarisation between classes and regions.
(ii) Some regions like Punjab, Haryana and Western UP became agriculturally prosperous while
others remained backward.

Q2. List any two merits and two demerits of Green Revolution.
Or
What is Green Revolution? Highlight any two of its effects?
Answer: Green Revolution was introduced to bring about revolutionary changes in agriculture
especially in foodgrains like wheat and Rice to increase production:
1. Production was increased by the use of high yielding varieties of seeds.
2. Scientific irrigation and fertilisers were also applied.
Merits of Green Revolution:
() The government offered various irrigational facilities at a subsidised prices.
() It resulted in the rise of Middle Peasant Section who soon emerged politically influential.
Demerits of Green Revolution:
(a) This created a stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords.
(b) It increased polarisation between the classes and regions like northern states i.e. Punjab,
Haryana, West UP, became agriculturally rich but other remained backward.

Q3. How was Planning Commission of India : set up? Mention its scope of work.
Answer:Planning Commission was set up as:
1. It consists Prime Minister as its chairman.
2. Some ministers or incharges of economic portfolios.
3.The members of planning commission have a high public image alongwith an administrative
and educational background.
Its scope of work:
1. To bring socio-economic change.
2. It was to provide a controlled and faster growth rate.
3. To resolve contradictions between societies.

Q4. describe the main functions of planning commission of India.

Answer: Planning commission was set up in 1950 by a cabinet resolution as an extra
constitutional body:
1. It look advisory in nature but it is very powerful to be known as economic cabinet of country.
2. Planning commission prepares a document to have plan for income and expenditure for five
year plans.
3. Planning commission prepares strategies to provide adequate means of livelihood for every
man and woman.
4. It also ensures not to concentrate wealth and means of production into few hands only.

Q5. What was the protest against Posco plants in Orissa?

Answer: In Orissa, Posco is the state plant. The government of Orissa signed a Memorandum
of understanding (MoU) with Korean Company for enhancement of the plant. But this displaced
many workers working in the plant.
Hence, the workers demonstrated outside Korean Companys office to cancel the
memorandum. This demonstration was organised by Rashtriya Yuva Sanghtan and
Navmirmana Samithi.

Q6. Which part of constitution helps the planning commission to ensure socioeconomic
justice?
Answer. The directive principles of state policy ensure the welfare through securing and
protecting them from any kind of social, economic and politieal industries:
1. Men and women equally have the right to adequate means of livelihood.
2. Prevent concentration and means of production into the few hands only.
3. Equal distribution of resources.

Q7. What do you know about land reforms in India during planning period?
Answer: 1. Zamindari system was abolished to release land from big landlord who were least
interested in agriculture.
2. Lands were consolidated to bring small pieces together to increase the farm size.
Drawbacks:
1. Despite a ceiling, people with excess land managed to violate the laws.
2. The tenants, who worked on
someoneelses land were given greater legal security which rarely implemented.
3. Landowners were very powerful and wielded considerable political influence.
Q8. What is meant by White Revolution in Gujarat?
Answer: The White Revolution in Gujarat was started by Varghese Kurien known as milkman
of India to launch Gujarat Cooperative Milk and Marketing Federation Ltd., which further
launched AmuF.
Amul is a dairy cooperative movement based in Anand town of Gujarat to become a unique
appropriate model for rural development and poverty alleviation.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
It was in Bihar that the food-crisis was most acutely felt as the state faced a near-famine
situation. The food shortage was significant in all districts of Bihar, with 9 districts
producing less than half of their normal output. Five of these districts, in fact, produced
less than one- third of what they produced normally. Food deprivation subsequently led
to acute and widespread malnutrition. It was estimated that the calorie intake dropped
from 2200 per capital per day to as low as 1200 in many regions of the
state (as against the requirement of2450 per day for the average person.). Death rate in
Bihar in 1987 was 34% higher than the number of deaths that occurred in the following
year. Food prices also hit a high in Bihar during the year, even when comp
states. For wheat and rice the prices in the state were twice or more than their prices in
more prosperous Punjab. The government had honing policies that prohibited tra.de of
food across states* tins reduced the availability of food in Bihar dramatically. In
situations such as this, the poorest sections of the so. . most.

Questions
1. What is food-crisis?
2. What were the reasons of food crisis in Bihar?
3. What do you understand by Zoning policies of government?
Answer:
1. When any state or country face the problem of insufficiency of food in the region or food
shortage is known as food crisis.
2. (i) Famine situation occurred there.
(ii) Food prices also hit a high in Bihar than other states.
(iii) Government policies ofZoning1 also caused it.
3. Zoning policies of government prohibit trade of food across the states which reduced the
availability of food in Bihar.

Q2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Decentralized Planning: It is not necessary that all planning always lias to be centralised;
nor is it that planning is only about big industries and large projects. The Kerala modle
is the name given to the path of planning and development charted by the Stats of Kerala
.There has been a focus model on education, health, land refoiin, effective food
distribution, and poverty alleviation. Despite low per capita incomes,
and a relatively weak industrial base, Kerala achieved nearly total literacy,long life
expectency ,low infant and female mortality, low birth .rates and Mgb access to medical
care. Between 1987 and 1991, the government launched the New Democratic Initiative
which involved campaigns for development (including total literacy especially in science
and environment) designed to involve people directly in development activities through
voluntary citizens organisations. The State has also taken initiative to involve people in
making plans at the Panchavat, block and district level.

Questions
1. What is meant by decentralisation?
2. Which state is the best example for this?
3. Which methods were used by state of Kerala for decentralisation?
Answer:
1. Decentralisation shares the powers even among the states and its subordinate units to run
the administration in efficient manner i.e. at the Panchayats, blocs and district level.
2. Kerala which is known as Kerala Model also.
3. 1. Campaigning for development
especially in Science and environment.
2. To involve people in making plans at Panchayat, blocs and district level.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. What was Green Revolution? Mention its any two positive and two negative
consequences.
Answer: Green Revolution was introduced to bring about revolutionary changes in agriculture
especially in foodgrains like wheat and rice to increase food production through high yielding
varieties of seeds, fertilisers and scientific irrigation. Positive Consequences:
1. In many parts, the stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords produced
conditions favourable for left wing organisations to organise the poor peasants.
It resulted in the rise of what is called the Middle Peasant Sections
who were farmers with medium size holdings who benefitted from the changes and soon
emerged politically influential in many parts of country. Negative Consequences:
(i) This created a stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords.
(ii) It delivered only a moderate agricultural growth i.e. a rise in rice and wheat production by
raising availability of foodgrains in country. On the other hand it increased polarisation between
the classes and regions like Northern States i. e. Punjab, Haryana, West-U.P. became
agriculturally rich but others remained backward.

Q2. Explain the main arguments in the debate that ensued between industrialisation
agricultural development at the time of second five year plan.
Answer: At the time of second five year plan, some controversial issues rose in reference of
relevancy of agriculture over industry:
1. Second five year plan emphasised on industry in place of agriculture or rural India.
2. J.C. Kumarappa, a Gandhian Economist proposed an alternative blueprint to emphasise on
rural industrialisation.
3. Bharatiya Lok Dal leader, Chaudhary Charan Singh also commented that the planning was
leading to creation of prosperity in Urban and industrial sections at the cost of rural welfare.
Others debated that without an increase in industrial sector poverty could not be alleviated:
1. India planning did not have agrarian strategy to boost the production of foodgrains.
2. It also proposed programme of community development and spent large sums on irrigation
projects and failure was not that of policy but of its non-implementation because of the politics of
land owning classes.
3. Besides they also argued that even if the government had spent more money on agriculture,
it would not have solved the massive problems of rural poverty.
Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1.Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What message does the cartoon convey?
2. Name the person who is making efforts to balance both the sectors.
3. How was both these sectors balanced?
Answer:
1. Cartoon is trying to make balance between the private and public sector to maintain the
growth of an economy adopted by India.
2. Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru, the then Prime Minister of India.
3. Pt. Nehru made a balance between both the sectors by adopting the model of mixed
economy to co-exist the private and public sector.

Q2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:
Questions
1. About which state the clipping is talking about?
2. What is food-crisis?
3. What were the main reasons for food- crisis?
4. Is India now sufficient in food production?
Answer:
1. Bihar
2. Food crisis is unavailability of sufficient food or food shortage.
3. (i) High prices of food items.
(ii) Zoning policy of government.
4. Yes, due to Green Revolution foodgrain production has been increased upto maximum
extent.

Q3. On a political outline map of India locate and label the following and symbolise them
as indicated:
Questions
1. The state prone to food crisis during independence days!
2. The state adopted decentralisation.
3. The state where people protested against POSCO plants.
4. The state where White Revolution took place.
Answer:
1. Bihar 2. Kerala
3. Orissa 4. Gujarat

Chapter 13

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Write True or False against each of these statements.

(a) Non-alignment allowed India to gain assistance both from USA and USSR.
(b) Indias relationship with her neighbours has been strained from the beginning.
(c) The cold war has affected the relationship between India and Pakistan.
(d) The treaty of Peace and Friendship in 1971 was the result of Indias closeness to USA.
Answer: (a) True; (b) True; (c) True; (d) False.

Q2. Match the following:

Answer: (a)(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i).

Q3. Why did Nehru regard conduct of foreign relations as an essential indicator of
independence? State any two reasons with examples to support your reading.
Answer. 1. India decided to conduct its foreign relations with respect to sovereignty of other
nations and maintain peace and security through mutual cooperation to be reflected in the
Directive Principles of State Policy on Article 51 of constitution
2. India always advocated the policy of Non-alignment, made efforts to reduce cold war tensions
and contributed human resources to UN peace keeping operations.
3. Hence, India took independent stand and got assistance from members of both the blocs.

Q4. The conduct of foreign affairs is an outcome of a two-way interaction between

domestic compulsions and prevailing international climate. Take one example from
Indias external relations in the 1960s to substantiate your answer.
Answer: The statement is justified to maximum extent to be proved during Sino-Indian Conflict
of 1962 to dent Indias image at home and international level, India had to approach the
Americans and the British for military assistance to tide over the issues. The Soviet Union
remained neutral during the conflict:
(i) All the occurrings, created a sense of national humiliation but strengthened a spirit of
nationalism also on the other hand.
(ii) Pt. Nehru was also criticised for his naive assessment of Chinese intentions and lack of
military preparedness.
(iii) Political mood of country began to change, when no-confidence motion against Nehru
moved in and debated in Lok-Sabha.
(iv) Sino-Indian Conflict splitted the Communist Party of India in 1964s split fraction formed
communist party of India (CPI-M).
(v) Besides, the war with China alerted Indian leadership to volatile situation in the North east
region.
(vi) Apart from being isolated and extremely underdeveloped, this region posed the challenge of
national integration in front of India.

Q5. Identify any two aspects of Indias foreign policy that you would like to retain and two
that you would like to change, if you were to become a decision maker. Give reasons to
support your position.
Answer: Two Aspects to be Supported:
1. India always maintained her dignity and image of a peace loving country by taking initiatives
to bring about equality and understanding among the nations i.e. India supported to end Korean
War in 1953, French rule in China, US role in Vietnam.
2. Indias initiatives for Nonalignment are also appreciable for the maintenance of mutual
understanding and security. During post cold war era also, NAM had become an effective tool to
make the Security Council more effective and democratic.
Two Aspects to be Changed:
1. In the course of decade of 1962-72, India faced three wars and its peaceful image played a
very limited role.
2. Conflict with neighbouring countries like China and Pakistan derailed Indias concept of
regional cooperation under SAARC.
Hence, India must adopt diplomatic and defensive postures in its foreign policy to maintain its
independent entity.

Q6. Write short notes on the following:

(a) Indias nuclear policy
(b) Consensus in foreign policy matters
Answer: (a) Indias Nuclear Policy:
1. India advocates no first use and reiterates Indias commitment to global verifiable on non-
discriminatory nuclear disarmament loading to a nuclear weapon free world.
2. Pt. Nehru always promoted science and technology to build
a modern India, i.e. initiated nuclear programme in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi J.
Bhoba.
3. India was against nuclear weapons, hence pleaded many nuclear disarmament with
superpowers.
4. India always considered NPT as discriminatory and refused to sign on it.
5. Even Indias first Nuclear Test in May 1974 was termed as a peaceful explosion and India
argued to use nuclear power for peaceful purposes only.
(6) Consensus in Foreign Policy Matters:
1. Pt. Nehru played a crucial role in the architecture of setting National Agenda for foreign
policy.
2. Both as a Prime Minister and foreign minister he played profound influence in the formulation
and implementation of Indias foreign policy from 1946 to 1964.
3. When different parties came to power from time to time, foreign policy of India played a
limited role in party politics.

Q7.Indias foreign policy was built around the principles of peace and cooperation. But
India fought three wars in a space of ten years between 1962 and 1971. Would you say
that this was a failure of the foreign policy? Or
would you say that this was a result of international situation? Give reasons to support
your answer.
Answer: No, this was not the failure of foreign policy but this was a result of international
situation:
1. The Chinese Invasion 1962:
(a) Serious conflict arose when China annexed Tibet in 1950 and removed a historical buffer
between two nation, and India did not oppose this openly.
(b) India grew uneasy, when China began to suppress Tibetan Culture.
(c) Another border dispute arose when China claimed Aksai Chin area and NEFA (much of the
state in Arunachal Pradesh) within the Indian territory.
(id) Despite long term correspondence and discussions, these issues have not been resolved
even by top leaders of country.
(e) Hence, India had to indulge in the conflict.
2. War with Pakistan:
(a) A serious armed conflict between two countries began in 1965 with the initiative of Pakistan
over Kashmir partition.
(b) In 1966, the hostilities came to an end with the UN intervention and Tashkent Agreement
signed between Indian Prime Minister Lai Bahadur Shastri and Pakistans General Ayub Khan.
(c) The 1965 War added to Indias already difficult economic situation.
3. Bangladesh War of 1971:
(a) In 1970, Pakistan faced its biggest crisis in the way for a split verdict i.e. Zulficar Ali Bhuttos
Party emerged as winner in West Pakistan while Awami league led by Sheikh Mujibur-
Rehman swept through East Pakistan.
(b) The Bengali population of East Pakistan had voted to protest against discriminatory attitude
of West Pakistan, which was not acceptable to West Pakistan rulers.
(c) In 1971, Pakistani army arrested Sheikh Mujib and unleashed a region of terror on East
Pakistan. This started peoples struggle to liberate Bangladesh from Pakistan.
(d) India had to bear 80 lakh refugees who fled from East Pakistan to take shelter. Hence, India
had to extend moral and : material support to the freedom
struggle in Bangladesh.
(e) A full scale war between India and Pakistan in December 1971 broke out, when Pakistan
attacked on Punjab and Rajasthan to be retaliated an attack from India.
(f) Within ten days the Indian army surrounded Dhaka and Pakistan had to surrender with
Bangladesh as a free country, India declared a unilateral ceasefire and Shimla Agreement was
signed between India and Pakistan in 1972.
(g) Most people in India saw this moment as a glory of India and a clear sign of Indias growing
military powers.
Q8. Does Indias foreign policy reflect her desire to be an important regional power?
Argue your case with the Bangladesh war of 1971 as an example.
Answer: Bangladesh War 1971:
(a) In 1970, Pakistan faced its biggest crisis in the way for a split verdict i. e. Zulficar Ali Bhuttos
Party emerged as winner in West Pakistan while Awami League led by Sheikh Mujibur-
Rehman swept through East Pakistan.
(b) The Bengali population of East Pakistan had voted to protest against discriminatory attitude
of west Pakistan which was not acceptable to west Pakistan rulers.
(c) In 1971, Pakistani army arrested Sheikh Mujib and unleashed a reign of terror on East
Pakistan. This started peoples struggle to liberate Bangladesh from Pakistan.
(d) India had to bear 80 lakh refugees who fled from East Pakistan to take shelter. Hence, India
had to extend moral and material support to the freedom struggle in Bangladesh.
(e) A full scale war between India and Pakistan in December 1971 broke out, when Pakistan
attacked on Punjab and Rajasthan to be retaliated an attack from India. if) Within ten days the
Indian army surrounded Dhakan and Pakistan had to surrender with Bangladesh as a free
country, India declared a unilateral ceasefire and Shimla Agreement was signed between India
and Pakistan in 1972.
(g) Most people in India saw this moment as a glory of India and a dear sign of Indias growing
military powers.
On the above mentioned reference, we may conclude Yes. Indias foreign Policy reflects her
desire to be an important regional power which was revealed during the Bangladesh war of
1971. Yes, Indias foreign policy reflects her desire to be an important regional power which was
revealed during the Bangladesh war of 1971.

Q9. How does political leadership of a nation affect its foreign policy? Explain this with
the help of examples from Indias foreign policy.
Answer: Foreign policy of any country is the mirror of national interests as in India:
1. During non-congress government in 1977, Janata Party announced to follow non-alignment
genuinely. This implied that the pro-Soviet tilt in foreign policy will be corrected. Since then, all
governments took initiatives to restore better relations with China and entered into close ties
with the US.
2. In Post 1990 period the ruling parties were criticised for their pro-US foreign policy. During
this period Russia had lost its global preeminence despite it has been Indias good friend.
Hence, Indias foreign policy shifted to a more pro-US strategy.
3. Besides, the contemporary international situation is also more influenced by economic
interests than military interests so made an impact on Indias foreign policy
i. e. Indo-Pakistan relations have witnessed new developments.

Q10. Read the Passage:

Broadly, non-alignment means not tying yourself off with military blocs
It means trying to view things, as far as possible, not from the military point of view,
though that has to come in sometimes, but independently, and trying to maintain friendly
relations with all countries.
-Jawaharlal Nehru
(a) Why does Nehru want to keep off military blocs?
(b) Do you think that the Indo-Soviet friendship treaty violated the principle of non-
alignment? Give reasons for your answer,
(c) If there were no military blocs, do you think non-alignment would have been
unnecessary?
Answer: (a) Nehru wanted to keep off military blocs to maintain friendly and peaceful relation
with all nations of world as well as to maintain Indias uniqueness at international stage.
(b) No, the Indo-Soviet friendship treaty did not violate non-alignment because it was not to
maintain military relations but to maintain diplomatic friendly relations. .
(c) NAM emphasises on disarmament, decolonisation and terrorism except staying away from
military blocs.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]

Q1. What is foreign policy?

Answer: Foreign policy of a nation reflects systematic statements of national interests alongwith
the interplay of domestic and external factors.

Q2. I n which context India started participating in the world affairs as an independent
nation state?
Answer: Due to:
1. British government left the legacy of many international disputes.
2. Priority to the poverty alleviation.
3. Pressures created by the partition.

Q3. Why did India not sign Nuclear Non-proliferation treaty?

Answer: Because India considered the NPT as discriminatory policy to argue it to be used for
peaceful purposes only.

Q4. What was Bandung conference?

Answer: Bandung conference was held in 1955 in Indonesia as an Afro-Asian conference to
lead an establishment of NAM and to mark the engagement of India with African and Asian
nations.

Q5. Mention the Article of Indian constitution to promote international peace and
security.
Answer: Article 51 to lay down some Directive Principles of State Policy.

Q6. Which step was the beginning of Indochinas strong relationship?

Answer: Panchsheel, the five principles of peaceful co-existance signed in 1954.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. How did the Sino-Indian conflict affect the opposition also?
Answer: The Sino-Indian conflicts affected the opposition as well. This and the growing rift
between China and the Soviet Union created irreconcilable differences within the Communist
Party of India (CPI). The pro-USSR faction remained within the CPI and moved towards closer
ties with the Congress. The other faction was for sometime closer to China and was against any
ties with the Congress. The party split in 1964 and the leaders of the later faction formed the
Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI-M). In the wake of the China War, many leaders of
CPI(M) were arrested for being proChina.
Q2. Which two differences between India and China led to an army conflict in 1962?
Answer: (i) Serious conflict arose when China annexed Tibet in 1950 and removed a historical
buffer between two nation and India did not oppose this openly. (ii) Another border dispute
arose when China claimed Aksai Chin Area and NEFA (much of the state in Arunachal
Pradesh) within the . Indian territory.

Q3. Highlight the contribution made by Pt. J.L. Nehru to the foreign policy of India.
Answer: (i) Indias initiatives for non-alignment for maintenance of mutual understanding
and security.
(ii) India always maintained her dignity and image of peace loving country by taking initiatives to
bring about equality and understanding among nations i.e. to end Korean war in 1953, French
rule in China etc.

Q4. Mention any two/four Directive Principles of State Policy for the promotion of
international peace and security.
Answer: The Article 51 of Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State
Policy on Promotion of International Peace and Security:
(i) Promote international peace and security.
(ii) Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
(iii) Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised people
with one another.
(iv) Encourage settlement of international dispute by arbitration.

Q5. Highlight any two/four major objectives of Prime Minister Nehrus Foreign Policy.
Answer:1. The first objective was to follow NAM, not to join either the military blocs formed by
USA and Soviet Union.
2. To promote rapid economic development and maintain cordial relations with other nations.
3. To prefect the territorial integrity.
4. To preserve sovereignty of India and also respecting others sovereignty.

Q6. What was Afra-Asian Unity?

Answer: Bandung conference was held in 1955 in Indonesia as an Afro-Asian conference to
lead an establishment of NAM to mark the engagement of India with African and Asian nations
known as Afro-Asian Unity.

Q7. Why did India oppose the international treaties on Nuclear non-proliferation?
Answer: Because of discriminatory nature:
1. India felt that these treaties prove the monopoly of five nuclear weapon- powers only and
applicable to only the non-nuclear powers.
2. India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT in 1995 and refused to sign even CTBT
(Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty).

Q8. In the Post Cold War Era what is the nature of Indias foreign policy in terms of
shifting alliances in world politics?
Answer: In the Post Cold War Era Indias foreign policy had shifted to more pro-US stance with
the disintegration of USSR:
1. At present Indias foreign policy rather more emphasizes on economic interests in place of
military.
2. Every Indo-Pak relations have also witnessed many new developments.
3. Efforts are being made to restore normal relations with other countries through cultural
exchange.

Q9. Arrange the following events in the correct chronological sequence from the earlier
to the latest:
(a) First nuclear test conducted by India.
(b) Twenty year treaty of peace and relationship between India and Soviet Union.
(c) The Tashkent Agreement.
(d) The Panchsheel declaration.
Answer: (a) Panchsheel-1954
(b) Tashkent Agreement-1966
(c) Twenty year treaty-1971
(d) First nuclear test-1974

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Explain Indias Nuclear Policy.

Or
Explain any four important features of Indias Nuclear Policy.
Answer: Indias Nuclear Policy:
1. India advocates no first use and reiterates Indias commitment to global verifiable on non-
discriminatoiy nuclear disarmament loading to a nuclear weapon free world.
2. Pt. Nehru always promoted science and technology so build a modern India i.e. initiated
nuclear programme in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi J. Bhaba.
3. India was against nuclear weapons, hence pleaded many nuclear disarmament with
superpowers.
4. India always considered NPT as discriminatory and refused to sign on it.
5. Even Indias first Nuclear Test in May 1974 was termed as a peaceful explosion and India
argued to use nuclear power for peaceful purposes only.

Q2. Describe any four issues of conflict between India and China .
Answer: Issues of Conflict between India and China:
(a) Serious conflict arose when China annexed Tibet in 1950 and removed a historical buffer
between two nation and India did not oppose this openly.
(b) India grew uneasy, when China began to suppress Tibetan culture.
(c) Another border dispute arose when China claimed Aksai Chin Area and NEFA (much of the
state in Arunachal Pradesh) within the Indian territory.
(d) Despite long term correspondence and discussions, these issues have not been resolved
even by top leaders of country.
(e) Hence, India had to indulge in the conflict.

Q3. Describe any two major issues of conflict between India and Pakistan leading to war
of 1971.
Answer: Issues of conflict between India and Pakistan leading to War in 1971:
1. A serious armed struggle arose between India and Pakistan in December 1971 when
Pakistan attacked on Punjab and Rajasthan. In turn India had to retaliated a war against
Pakistan.
2. India had to bear 80 lakh refugees who fled from East Pakistan to take shelter in India.
Hence, India had to extend moral and material support to freedom struggle in Bangladesh
against Pakistan.

Q4. What was Tibet issue? How did it cause tension between India and China? Explain.
Answer: 1. From the very beginning of independence time to time, China has claimed its
administrative control over Tibet.
2. In 1950, China took over control of Tibet. Large sections of Tibetan population opposed this
takeover.
3. In 1958, there was an armed uprising in Tibet against Chinas occupation. India supported the
cause of Tibetan which was bitterly objected by China. Even India has granted asylum to Dalai
Lama and a large number of Tibetans.

Q5. Access any four principles of Indias foreign policy.

Answer: Indias foreign policy is based on principles of Panchsheel, which is derived from two
words Panch means five and Sheel means a Code of Conduct for peaceful co-existence.
1. Panchsheel
2. Non-alignment (NAM)
3. Mutual benefits and equality
4. Mutual non-aggression
5. Non-intervention in each others international affairs
6. To maintain international peace and understanding

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
What does independence consist of? It consists fundamentally and basically of foreign
relations. That is the test of independence. All else is local autonomy. Once foreign
relations go out of your hands into the charge of somebody else,
to that extent and in that measure you are not independent.
Jawaharlal Nehru
Questions
1. What does the extract signify?
2. What is not an independence as per Pt. J.L. Nehru?
3. What did India do to maintain its Sovereignty?
Answer:
1. The above extract signifies the non-alignment policy of India.
2. When foreign relations go out of the hands of a country into the charge of somebody else, to
that extent, one is not independent.
3. When India achieved its freedom and started forming its foreign policy, it followed non-
alignment policy to pursue its national interests within international context.

Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:
Question.
1. What message does this cartoon convey?
2. Which year is being shown here?
Answer:
1. This cartoon conveys message on Indo-China tensions to be resolved.
2. 1962, Chinese invasion.

Chapter 14

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Which of these statements about the 1967 elections is/are correct?
(a) Congress won the Lok Sabha elections but lost the Assembly elections in many
states.
(b) Congress lost both Lok Sabha and Assembly elections.
(c) Congress lost majority in the Lok Sabha but formed a coalition government with the s
upport of some other parties.
(d) Congress retained power at the Centre with an increased majority. Ans. (a) Congress
won the Lok Sabha elections but lost the Assembly elections in many states.
Answer: (a) Congress won the Lok Sabha elections but lost the Assembly elections in many
states.
(c) Congress lost majority in the Lok Sabha but formed a coalition government with the support
of some other parties.

Q2. Match the following:

Answer: (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii).

Q3. Whom would you identify with the following slogans/phrases?

(a) Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan
(b) Indira Hatao!
(c) Garibi Hatao!
Answer: (a) Lai Bahadur Shastri: Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan
(b) Syndicate: Indira Hatao!
(c) Indira Gandhi: Garibi Hatao!

Q4. Which of the following statement about the Grand Alliance of 1971 is correct? The
Grand Alliance
() was formed by non-Communist, non-Congress parties.
(b) had a clear political and ideological programme.
(c) was formed by all non-Congress parties.
Answer: (a) was formed by non-Communist, non-Congress parties.

Q5. How should a political party resolve its internal differences? Here are some
suggestions. Think of each and list out their advantages and shortcomings?
(a) Follow the footsteps of the party president
(b) Listen to the majority group
(c) Secret ballot voting on every issue
(d) Consult the senior and experienced leaders of the party
Answer: (a) Advantage: If the party follows the footsteps of the party president, there will be
discipline and unity within the party.
Shortcoming: The party president can take its decision without taking into consideration the
views of its party members. So, the inner democracy may get weakened.
(b) Advantage: If the party listens to the majority group, there will be more confidence among
the party members and inner democracy will be strengthened.
Shortcoming: If the party listens to the majority group, factionalism may increase in the party.
One faction may try to back another faction to gather support.
(c) Advantage: Secret ballot voting is an appropriate system. It is more democratic. Through it,
any member can express his views.
Shortcoming: Sometimes, the party members may vote through secret ballot by ignoring the
whip of the party issued by the party president. It may prove fatal to the party.
(d) Advantage: The novice and less experienced candidates will be benefited if they consult the
senior and experienced leaders of the party and also follow their guidelines. Shortcoming: If the
party members only consult the senior and experienced leaders and follow their guidelines, their
hold will get strengthened in the party.

Q6. State which of these were reasons for the defeat of the Congress in 1967. Give
reasons for your answer?
(a) The absence of a charismatic leader in the Congress party.
(b) Split within the Congress party.
(c) Increased mobilisation of regional, ethnic and communal groups.
(d) Increasing unity among nonCongress parties.
(e) Internal differences within the Congress party.
Answer: (a) It may not be the reason of the defeat of Congress party. Because there were so
many experienced and charismatic leaders in the party.
(b) It was one of the main reasons of the defeat of Congress party. Now party was split into two
groups. Syndicate had strong hold over the Congress party while Indira supporters were more
inclined to their leader. One group was in support of capitalism and liberalisation while others
opposed it.
(c) Due to the emergence of the Akali Dal in Punjab, D.M.K. in Tamil Nadu got and other
regional parties, Congress setback. The party could not get majority at the centre and had to be
deprived of power in various states.
(d) There was no unity among nonCongress parties. So the nonCongress parties got benefit
in other provinces.
(e) Internal differences within the party were one of the major causes of its defeat.

Q7. What were the factors which led to the popularity of Indira Gandhis Government in
the early 1970s?
Answer: Because:
1. Socialist credentials became main projects during this period.
2. Indira Gandhi campaigned to implement land reform legislations and land ceiling legislations.
3. She ended her dependence on other
political parties by strengthening her partys position and recommended the dissolution of Lok
Sabha in December 1970.
4. The crisis in East Pakistan and Indo- Pak war to establish Bangladesh as an independent
one, also enhanced the popularity of Indira Gandhi.
5. Indira Gandhis government was not accepted only as a protector of the poor and
underprivileged but as a strong government also.
6. Congress became popular among different social sections and restored dominance again.

Q8. What does the term syndicate mean in the context of the Congress party of the .
sixties? What role did the Syndicate play in the Congress party?
Answer: Syndicate was a group of powerful and influential leaders from within the Congress:
1. Syndicate was led by K. Kamraj, former chief minister of Tamilnadu and the then president of
Congress party. It also includes some powerful leaders like S.K. Patil, S. Nijalingappa, N.
Sanjeeva Reddy and Atulya Ghosh.
2. In the sixties, Syndicate played a decisive role by installing both Lai Bahadur Shastri and
Indira Gandhi as a Prime Minister.
3. Syndicate played decisive say in Indira Gandhis first council of Ministers and formation and
implementation of policies.
4. After a split, two groups in Congress were created i.e. Congress (O), led by Syndicate and
Congress (R), led by Indira Gandhi.
5. Congress (R), won popularity after 1971 and Syndicate lost power and prestige.

Q9. Discuss the major issue which led to the formal split of the Congress Party in 1969.
Answer: The formal split in Congress took place in 1969 on the issue of nomination of the
candidate during presidential elections:
1. Despite, Indira Gandhis reservations, the Syndicate nominated Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy, as
the official Congress candidate for ensuing Presidential elections.
2. Indira Gandhi retaliated the situation by encouraging Mr. V.V. Giri, the then Vice-President, to
be nominated as an independent candidate.
3. During election, the then Congress President S. Nijalingappa issued a whip asking all
Congress MPs. MLAs to vote for N. Sanjeeva Reddy.
4. On the other hand, after silently supporting V.V. Giri, the Prime Minister Mrs Indira Gandhi
openly called for a conscience vote to vote the way they want.
5. Elections went in favour of V.V. Giri due to this diplomatic effort and N. Sanjeeva Reddy was
defeated.
6. The defeat of N. Sanjeeva Reddy, the formal Congress candidate, formalised the split of
party into two:
(a) Congress (O), i.e. organisation
led by syndicate, known as Old Congress.
(b) Congress (R) i.e. requisitionists led by Indira Gandhi, known as New Congress.

Q10. Read the passage and answer the questions below:

Indira Gandhi changed the Congress into highly centralised and undemocratic party
organisation, from the earlier federal, democratic and ideological formation that Nehru
had led. But this could not have happened had not Indira Gandhi changed the entire
nature of politics. This new, populist politics turned political ideology into a mere
electoral discourse, use of various slogans not meant to be translated into government
policies. During its great electoral victories in early 1970s, amidst the celebration, the
Congress party as a political organisation died
Sudipta Kaviraj
(a) What according to the author is the difference between the strategies of Nehru and
Indira Gandhi?
(b) Why does the author say that the Congress party died in the seventies?
(c) In what way, did the change in the Congress party affect other political parties also?
Answer: (a) According to author, main difference between the strategies of Nehru and Indira
Gandhi is that Jawahar Lai Nehru led the Congress into federal, democratic and ideological
nature whereas Indira Gandhi converted it into highly centralised and undemocratic party.
(b) Congress party died in the seventies due to changed nature of Congress, the new populist
politics turned political ideology into a mere electoral discourage and the use of various slogans
never meant to be translated into government policies
i. e. electoral victories of 1970s.
(c) The change in the Congress party affected other political parties also as they formed SVD
(Samyukt Vidhayak Dal) in the form of coalitions and grand alliance.

Very Short Answer Type Questions[1 Mark]

Q1. Which major factor was responsible for the dramatic victory of Indira Gandhi in 1971
elections?
Answer: Although the Congresss position was very weak in the electroal contest of 1971, it
had something that its big opponents lackedit had an issue, an agenda and a positive slogan:
Garibi Hatao in contrast to oppositions Indira Hatao. This proved to be a major factor
responsible for the dramatic victory of Indira Gandhi.

Q2. Who represented Congress (O) and Congress (R) after the split of Congress Party?
Answer: Congress (O) was represented by K. Kamraj, former Chief Minister of Tamilnadu and
the then President of Congress Party whereas Congress (R) was led by Indira Gandhi.

Q3. What is meant by term Congress Syndicate?

Answer: Congress Syndicate, implied a group of powerful and influential leaders within
Congress to be known as Old Congress.
Q4. In 1966, who contested against Indira Gandhi for the post of Prime Minister from
among Congress MPs?
Answer: Morarji Desai, earlier Chief Minister of Bombay State.

Q5. What was the Slogan of Indira Gandhi during the elections of 1971?
Answer: Garibi Hatao.

Q6. After the death of Lai Bahadur Shastri which two leaders of Congress Party
contested against each other to become leader of Congress parliamentary party?
Answer: Morarji Desai and Indira Gandhi.

Q7. Name the leaders who gave the following slogans.

1. Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan
2. Garibi Hatao
Answer: 1. Lai Bahadur Shastri
2. Indira Gandhi

Q8. Which theoretical argument did Ram j Manohar Lohia give in defence on non-
Congressism?
Answer: Congress rule was undemocratic and opposed to the interest of ordinary poor people,
therefore, the coming together of the non-Congress parties was necessary for reclaiming
democracy for the people.

Q9. The results of which, elections were called j Political Earthquake?

Answer. February 1967, Fourth General Elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.

Q10. When and where was the first non- j Congress state government formed after
Indias independence?
Answer: Haryana, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh in 1967.

Q11. Why are the results of 1967 elections in India called Political Earthquake?
Answer: Because it jolted the Congress at both the central and state levels as Congress did not
get majority in Congress ruled states.

Q12. What challenges were faced by India between 1964 to 1966 during Prime-
ministership of Lai Bahadur Shastri?
Answer: 1. Economic crisis due to Indo-China War 1962 and Indo-Pak War 1965.
2. Failed Monsoons, drought, serious food crisis presented a grave challenge.

Q13. What do you mean by SVD?

Answer: SVD stands for Samyukt Vidhayak Dal
i. e. Joint Legislative Parties formed by various non-Congress parties called as coalitions after
fourth general elections.

Q14. Why were 1960s, called as the dangerous decade?

Answer: Due to some unresolved problems like poverty, inequality, communal and regional
divisions led a failure of democratic projects or disintegration of country.
Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. What does Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram stand for in Indian politics?
Answer: 1. The phrase Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram implied frequent floor crossing by legislators in
the party which was developed by Haryana MLA Gaya Lai in 1967.
2. He changed his party thrice in fortnight from Congress to United Front back to Congress and
then within nine hours to United Front again.
3. This incident later became a political joke and develop the culture of defection in Indian
politics to create instability among the political parties.
4. Now, the Constitution has been amended to prevent this practice under Anti Defection Law.

Q2. Why did senior Congress leader support Indira Gandhi as Prime Minister after the
death of Lai Bahadur Shastri?
Answer: Because:
1. Indira Gandhi was the daughter of Jawaharlal Nehru and she had been Congress president in
the past and had also been Union Minister for Information in Shastri Cabinet.
2. The senior leaders presumed that her administrative and political inexperience would compel
her to dependent on them for support and guidance.

Q3. What is meant by Grand Alliance?

Answer: Grand Alliance was an electoral alliance of all the major Non-communist,
nonCongress opposition parties. The SSP, PSP, Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Swatantra Party and
the Bharatiya Kranti Dal came together under this Umbrella.

Q4. Why did Indira Gandhi government devalue the Indian Rupee in 1967?
Answer: Indira Gandhi government devalued Indian rupee to check economic crisis of 1967.
Consequently, one US dollar could be purchased for less than ? 5 after devaluation, it cost more
than ? 7.
1. The economic situation triggered a price rise.
2. People started protest against increase in prices of essential commodities and unemployment
etc.
3. The Communist and Socialist parties launched struggle to avail greater equality.

Q5. How did Congress face challenge of political succession second time?
Answer: The Congress party faced the challenge of succession for second time in 1966 after
the death of Lai Bahadur Shastri:
1. This challenge started with an intense competition between Morarji Desai and Indira Gandhi
to be resolved through a secret ballot.
2. Indira Gandhi defeated Morarji Desai by securing support of more than two-third of the partys
MPs.
3. Thus, a peaceful transition of power despite intense competition for leadership was seen as a
sign of maturity of Indias democracy.

Q6. What was the status of SVD in the new era of coalition?
Answer: The elections of 1967 brought the coalitions when no single party got the majority and
joint legislator parties called Samyukt Vidhayak Dal came together to form government to
support non-Congress government:
1. The SVD government in Bihar included two socialist partiesSSP and PSP along-with CPS
on left and Jana Sangh on right.
2. In Punjab, it was called the popular United Front and comprised the two rival Akali Parties at
that time.

Q7. 1960s were labelled as the dangerous decade. Explain.

Answer: Due to some unresolved problems like poverty, inequality, communal and regional
divisions and the was speculations that all these could lead to a failure of the democratic project
or even disintegration of country.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Explain any two reasons for the popularity of Indira Gandhi during 1971 elections.
Or
Analyse any three factors which enhanced popularity of Indira Gandhi in the early 1970s.
Answer: Because:
1. Indira Gandhi campaigned to implement land reforms legislations and land ceiling legislation
during elections.
2. She ended her dependence on other political parties by strengthening her partys position
and recommended the dissolution of Lok Sabha in December 1970.
3. The crisis in East Pakistan and Indo- Pak war to establish Bangladesh as an independent
one, also enhanced the popularity of Indira Gandhi.

Q2. What does defection stand for in Indian politics? Highlight any two demerits of this
practice?
Answer: Defection refers to an elected representative leaves the party on whose symbol he/she
is elected and joins another party. This culture developed in Indian Politics after 1967 elections.
Its two demerits were as follows:
1. It played an important role in making and unmaking of government frequently.
2. The constant realignments and shifting political loyalties in this period gave rise to the
expression Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram.

Q3. Why was the year 1967 considered a landmark year in Indias political and electoral
history? Explain.
Answer: The fourth general election was held in 1967 for the first time without Nehru:
1. The election verdict was not in favour of Congress and results jolted the Congress both at the
national and state levels.
2. Half the ministers in Indira Gandhis cabinet were defeated including K. Kamraj in Tamilnadu,
S.K. Patil in Maharashtra, Atulya Ghosh in West Bengal, K.B. Sahay in Bihar.
3. Congress did not lose majority in seven states only but two other states also prevented it to
form government due to defections.
4. For the first time any non-Congress party secured majority in any state and in other eight
states different non-Congress parties formed the coalitions.

Q4. These election results were called as a Political Earthquake.4. How can we see re-
emergence of Indira Gandhi to power in 1971?
Answer: Congress (R) under Indira Gandhi had an issue, an agenda and a positive slogan
which was lacked by its opponents. The Grand Alliance had only one common i programme
Indira Hatao:
1. In contrast to this, Indira Gandhi put forward a positive slogan Garibi Hatao.
2. By this, she generated a support base among poor, minorities, landless labourers, dalit,
women and unemployed youth.
3. Except it, she focused on the growth of public sector, imposition of ceiling on rural land
holdings and urban property, removal of disparity etc.
4. Thus, the slogan of Garibi Hatao and programmes became the part of Indira Gandhis
political strategy of building an independent nationwide political support base during the
electoral contest of 1971.

Q5. What is meant by Privy Purses? Why did Indira Gandhi insist on abolishing them in
1970?
Answer:Privy Purses was the form of grant in heredity given to the rulers and their families:
1. The grant or Privy Purse was measured on the basis of extent revenue and potential of the
merging state in the assurance given at the time of integration of princely states.
2. Privy purses were criticised, the privileges given to princely states at the time of accession,
integration and consolidation were protested.
3. Hence, some leaders like Indira Gandhi insisted on abolishing the privy purses because
hereditary privileges were not constant with the principle of equality, social and economic justice
laid down in the constitution.
4. Hence in the elections of 1971, Indira Gandhi made this a major election issue and got a lot
of public support
and alongwith massive victory in 1971 election, the constitution was amended to remove legal
obstacles for abolition of privy purses.

Q6. How did the outcome of 1971 elections help in restoration of Congress?
Answer: Congress (R) under Indira Gandhi had an issue an agenda and a positive slogan
which was lacked by its opponents. The Grand Alliance had only one common programme
Indira Hatao:
1. In contrast to this, Indira Gandhi put forward a positive slogan Garibi Hatoa.
2. By this, she generated a support base among poors, minorities, landlors labourers, dalits,
women and unemployed bye youth.
3. Except it, she focused on the growth of public sector, imposition of ceiling on rural land
holdings and urban property, removal of disparity etc.
4. Thus, the slogan of Garibi Hatao and programmes became the part of Indira Gandhis
political strategy of building an independent nationwide political support base during the
electoral contest of 1971.

Q7. Write a short note on:

(a) Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan
(b) Garibi Hatao
(c) Indira Hatao
(d) Grand Alliance
Answer: (a) Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan
(i) A slogan given by Lai Bahadur Shastri in 1965.
(ii) To symbolise to resolve countrys challenge of food crisis and external threat.
(b) Garibi Hatao
(i) A slogan given by the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1970 to symbolise removal of
poverty.
(ii) Through this slogan, Indira Gandhi generated a support base among women, unemployed
youth, minorities, landless labourers, dalits, etc.
(c) Indira Hatao
A slogan given by Grand Alliance alongwith one programme ofIndira Hatao only i.e. remove
Indira Gandhi from Political arena.
(d) Grand Alliance
(i) An alliance formed by non-communist and non-Congress parties to be formed against
Congress (R).
(ii) It did not focus on multiple strategies of development rather included only Indira Hatao.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read carefully the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The New Congress had something that its big opponents lackedit had an issue, an
agenda and a positive slogan. The Grand Alliance did not have a coherent political
programme. Indira Gandhi said that the opposition alliance had only one common
programme Indira Hatao. In contrast to this, she put forward a positive programme
captured in the famous slogan Garibi Hatao.
Questions
1. Which Congress is being referred to as the New Congress?
2. Highlight any two steps taken by Indira Gandhi to remove poverty.
3. How far is it justified to call the opposition alliance as the Grand Alliance?
Answer:
1. Congress (O) is being referred to as the New Congress.
2. She focused on the growth of the public sector.
She focused on the removal of dis-parities in income and opportunity.
3. It is justified to call the opposition alliance as the Grand Alliance because it came into
existence to make matters worse for Indira Gandhi.

Q2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
The defeat of the official Congress candidate formalised the split in the party. The
Congress President expelled the Prime Minister from the party; she claimed that her
group was the real Congress. By November 1969, the Congress group led by the
syndicate came to be referred to as the Congress (Organisation) and the group led by
Indira Gandhi came to be called the Congress (Requisitionists). These two parties were
also described as Old Congress and New Congress. Indira Gandhi projected the split as
an ideological divide between socialists and conservatives, between the pro-poor and
the pro-rich.
Questions
1. What formalised the split of Congress?
2. Mention two groups created after the split.
3. How did Indira Gandhi project the split?
Answer:
1. The defeat of official candidate during presidential elections in 1969.
2. Congress (O) i.e. Organisation led by syndicate known as old Congress, Congress (R) i.e.
requisitionists led by Indira Gandhi known as new Congress.
3. Indira Gandhi projected the split as an ideological divide between socialists and
conservatives, between pro-rich and pro-poor

Q3. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
But does it mean that the Congress system was restored? What Indira Gandhi had done
was not a revival of the old Congress party. In many ways she had re-invented the party.
The party occupied a similar position in terms of its popularity as in the past. But it was a
different kind of a party. It relied entirely on the popularity of the supreme leader. It had a
somewhat weak organisational structure. This
Congress party now did not have many fanctions ,Thus it could not accommodate all
kind of options and interests .While it won elections,it depends more on some social
groups: the poor, the women,Dalits, Adivasis and the minorities.It was a new congress
system by changing the nature of the congress system itself.
Questions
1. Had Indira Gandhi revived Congress?
2. How did Indira Gandhi restore the Congress system?
3. Why did Congress not have all kinds of opinions and interests?
Answer:
1. No, whatever had been done by Indira Gandhi, was not a revival of old Congress system but
it was a reinvention of party.
2. Indira Gandhi restored the Congress system changing the nature of Congress system itself,
to be dependent more on poor, women, dalits, adivasis and minorities.
3. It had a somewhat weak organisational structure and it did not have many factions also to
accommodate all kinds of opinions and interests.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Analyse any three major factors which led the popularity of Indira Gandhis
Government in the early 1970s.
Answer: (i) The fifth general elections to Lok Sabha were held in February 1971. The electoral
contest appeared to be loaded against Congress (R). After all, the new Congress was just one
faction of an already weak party. Everyone believed that the real organizational strength of the
Congress Party was under the command of Congress (O). To make i matters worse for Indira
Gandhi, all the major non-Communist, non Congress opposition parties formed an electoral
alliance known as the Grand Alliance. Yet the new Congress had something that its big
opponents lacked it had an issue, an agenda and a positive slogan. The Grand Alliance did
not have a coherent political programme. Indira Gandhi said that the opposition alliance had
only one common programme Indira Hatao (Remove Indira). In contrast to this, she put forward
a positive programme captured in the famous slogan: Garibi Hatao (Remove poverty).
(ii) Indira Gandhi focussed on the growth of the public sector, imposition of ceiling on rural land
holdings and urban poverty, removal of disparities in income and opportunity, and abolition of
princely privileges. Thus, the slogan Garibi Hatao and the programmes that followed it were part
of Indira Gandhis political strategy of building an Independent nationwide political support base.
As a result, she won 352 seats with about 44 per cent of the popular votes on its own in the Lok
Sabha elections of 1971.
(iii) Soon after the 1971 Lok Sabha election, a major political and military crises broke out in
East Pakistan (now Bangladesh). The 1971 elections were followed by the crisis in East
Pakistan and the Indo- Pak war leading to the establishment of Bangladesh. These events
added to the popularity of Indira Gandhi. Even the opposition leaders admired her
statesmanship.

Q2. Examine the three main reasons responsible for the split in Congress during 1969.
Or
Describe the various aspects of presidential election of 1969.
Answer: The formal split in Congress took place in 1969 on the issue of nomination of the
candidate during presidential elections:
1. Despite, Indira Gandhis representatives, the syndicate nominated Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy,
as the official Congress candidate for ensuring presidential elections.
2. Indira Gandhi retaliated the situation by encouraging Mr. V.V. Giri, the then Vice President, to
be nominated as an independent candidate.
3. During election, the then Congress president S. Nijalingappa issue a Whip asking all
Congress MPs, MLAs to vote for N. Sanjeeva Reddy.
4. On the other hand, after silently supporting V.V. Giri, the Prime Minister Indira Gandhi openly
called for a conscience vote to vote the way they want.
5. Elections went in favour of V.V. Giri due to this diplomatic effort and N. Sanjeeva Reddy was
defeated.
6. The defeat of N. Sanjeeva Reddy, the formal Congress candidate, formalised the split of
party into two:
(a) Congress (0) i.e organisation led by Syndicate, known as Old Congress.
(b) Congress (R) i.e. requisitionists led by Indira Gandhi, known as New Congress.

Q3. Which six factors contributed to the popularity of Indira Gandhis government in the
decade of 1970s?
Answer: Because:
1. Socialist credentials became main projects during this period.
2. Indira Gandhi campaigned to implement land reform legislation and land ceiling legislations.
3. She ended her dependence on other political parties by strengthening her partys position
and recommended the dissolution of Lok Sabha in December 1970.
4. The crisis in East Pakistan and Indo- Pak war to establish Bangladesh as an independent
one, also enhanced the popularity of Indira Gandhi.
5. Indira Gandhi and her government was not accepted only as a protector of the poor and
under privileged but as a strong government also.
6. Congress became popular among different social sections and restored dominance again.

Q4. Examine the grave economic crisis prior to fourth general election of 1967. Assess
the electoral verdict also.
Answer: Indira Gandhi government devalued Indian rupee to check economic crisis of 1967.
Consequently, one US dollar could be purchased for less than ? 5 after devaluation, it cost more
than ? 7.
1. The economic situation triggered a price rise.
2. People started protest against increase in prices of essential commodities and unemployment
etc.
3. The Communist and Socialist parties launched struggle to avail greater equality.
The fourth general election was held in 1967 for the first time without Nehru:
1. The election verdict was not in favour of Congress and results jolted the Congress both at the
national and state levels.
2. Half the ministers in Indira Gandhis cabinet were defeated including K. Kamraj in Tamilnadu,
S.K. Patil in Maharashtra, Atulya Ghosh in West Bengal, K.B. Sahay in Bihar.
3. Congress did not lose only majority in seven states but two other states also prevented it to
form government due to defections.
4. For the first time any non-Congress party secured majority in any state and in other eight
states different non-Congress parties formed the coalitions.
5. These election results were called as a Political Earthquake.

Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What is meant by Keep Right, No Left Turn?
2. In the picture what does the following stand for:
() LD (b) BKS
(c) SSP (d) BKD
3. What is a hung assembly?
Answer:
1. United Front Party was formed on the basis of non-Communist ideology and supposed to
follow the rightist only.
2. (a) Lok Dal
(b) Bihar Kranti Sabha
(c) Samyukt Socialist Party (d) Bharatiya Kranti Dal
3. It is dominated by coalition government where no single party gets majority and this is very
uncertain also.

Q2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. Which year is being referred by cartoon?
2. Who is being commented by the phrase Aya Ram Gaya Ram?
Answer:
1. 1967
2. Haryanas MLA Gaya LaP who changed the party thrice in a fortnight from Congress to
United Front, back to Congress and then within nine hours to United Front again.
Q3. Study the picture given below and answer the questions

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Identify the lady in the cartoon and give reason for her pleasure.
3. Identify the person wearing garland in winning position.
4. Who is lying on the ground?
Answer:
1. Presidential elections of 1969.
2. Indira Gandhi on winning of her candidate V.V. Giri in presidential elections.
3. V.V. Giri.
4. N. Sanjeeva Reddy.

Chapter 15

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. State whether the following statements regarding the Emergency are correct or
incorrect.
(a) It was declared in 1975 by Indira Gandhi.
(b) It led to the suspension of all fundamental rights.
(c) It was proclaimed due to the deteriorating economic conditions.
(d) Many Opposition leaders were arrested during the emergency.
(e) CPI supported the proclamation of the Emergency.
Answer: (a) Correct, (b) Correct, (c) Wrong,
(d) Correct, (e) Correct.

Q2. Find the odd one out in the context of proclamation of Emergency.
(a) The call for Total Revolution.
(b) The Railway Strike of 1974
(c) The Naxalite Movement
(d) The Allahabad High Court verdict
(e) The findings of the Shah Commission Report
Answer: (c) The Naxalite Movement
Q3. Match the following:

Answer: (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv).

Q4. What were the reasons which led to the mid-term elections in 1980?
Answer: 1. Janata party lacked direction, leadership and a common programme.
2. Janata party government could not bring a fundamental change in policies pursued by
Congress.
3. There was a split in Janata Party and the government led by Morarji Desai which lost its
majority in less than 18 months.
4. Charan Singh government was formed due to support of Congress party which later decided
to withdraw its support resulting resignation of Charan Singh government within four months.
5. All the above mentioned reasons led midterm elections of 1980, which defeated Janata Party
and again Congress led by Indira Gandhi came back to power by winning 353 seats.

Q5. The Shah Commission was appointed in 1977 by the Janata Party Government. Why
was it appointed and what were its findings?
Answer: The Shah commission was appointed in May 1977 by Janata Party government which
was headed by J.C. Shah, retired chief justice of Supreme Court of India to look into the matters
of:
1. Allegations of abuse of authority, excesses and malpractices as well as actions taken in the
name of emergency proclaimed on 25 June 1975.
2. The Commission performed to examine various evidences to give testimonies even including
Indira Gandhi to appear before Commission, but she refused to answer any questions.
Findings of Shah Commission:
(a) It found many excesses committed during Emergency.
(b) Under preventive detention laws nearly one lakh eleven thousand people were arrested.
(c) Press censorship took place without any proper legal sanctions.
(d) Even general manager of Delhi Power Supply Corporation received verbal orders from the
officers of the Lt. Governor of Delhi to cut electricity to all newspapers press at 2 a.m. on 26
June 1975.

Q6. What reasons did the Government give for declaring a National Emergency in 1975?
Answer: Emergency was proclaimed in response to petition filed by Raj Narain to declare Indira
Gandhis election invalid.
(i) On June 25, 1975, the government declared the threat of internal disturbances to invoke
Article 352 of constitution.
(ii) Article 352 can declare emergency on ground of either internal or external disturbances.
(iii) The government decided a grave crisis to be arisen to proclaim emergency to bring law and
order, restore efficiency and implement pro-poor welfare programmes.
(iv) The President Fakhruddin Adi Ahmad proclaimed emergency which became the most
controversial episode in Indian Politics.

Q7. The 1977 elections for the first time saw the Opposition coming into power at the
Centre. What would you consider as the reasons for this development?
Answer: The 1977 elections were evolved as a shock to everyone as Congress party was
defeated for the very first time and opposition party came into power:
1. The opposition adopted the slogan Save democracy against imposition of emergency
earlier.
2. The opposition campaigned non- democratic character of rule which provided various
excesses.
3. The opposition party highlighted the preventive detention and press censorship to favour
public opinion.
4. Janata Party also ensured not to divide non-Congress votes.
5. Middle section of north India was moving away from Congress for whom Janata Party
became a platform.
6. Hence, elections of 1977 emerged many other factors instead about emergency only.

Q8. Discuss the effects of Emergency on the following aspects of our polity.
(a) Effects on civil liberties for citizens.
(b) Impact on relationship between the Executive and Judiciary.
(c) Functioning of Mass Media.
(d) Working of Police and Bureaucracy.
Answer: (a) Effects on Civil Liberties for Citizens:
1. The government made large scale arrests under preventive detention.
2. Arrested political persons could not challenge arrest even under Habeas Corpus petition.
3. Despite of filing many petitions government claimed it not to be necessary to be informed on
grounds to arrested persons.
4. In April 1976, finally it was proved that the government could take away citizens right to life
and liberty by overruling of high courts under supreme court and accept governments plea.
(b) Impact on Relationship between the Executive and Judiciary:
1. The Parliament brought in many new changes in Constitution which made an amendment
declaring that elections of Prime Minister, President and VicePresident could not be
challenged in the court.
2. The forty-second amendment (42nd) was also passed to bring a series of changes in
constitution like duration of legislatures, elections can be postponed by one
year during an emergency.
(c) Functioning of Mass Media:
1. Press censorship took place which banned freedom of press and newspapers w7ere
supposed to prior approval before they
publish any material i.e. RSS and Janata Island were banned.
2. Protests, strikes and public agitations were also banned.
3. Various fundamental rights were also suspended including even Right to move to court for
restoration of Fundamental Rights.
4. Kannada writer Shivarama Karanth awarded with Padma Bhushan and Hindi writer
Fanishwarnath Tlenu with Padmashri returned their awards in protest against suspension of
democracy.
5. Newspapers mainly Indian Express, and the statesman protested against censorship by
leaving blank spaces where news items were censored.
(d) Working of Police and Bureaucracy:
Refer Part (a) + (b) of the same question.

Q9. In what way did the imposition of Emergency affect the party system in India?
Elaborate your answer with examples.
Answer: 1. Due to absolute majority to party in power, leadership even dared to suspend
democratic process.
2. The constitution makers presumed to be abide by laws and democratic orders, hence, wide
and open ended powers were given to the government during emergency.
3. A tension and differences arose between institution based democracy and democracy based
on spontaneous popular participation.
4. It was attributed to incapability of party system to incorporate aspirations of the people.
5. For the first time, opposition parties came together to form a new party Janata Party not to
divide the non-Congress votes.
6. 1977 elections brought an end to one party dominance and created coalition government.

Q10. Read the passage and answer the questions below:

Indian democracy was never so close to a two-party system as it was during the 1977
elections. However, the next few years saw a complete change. Soon after its defeat, the
Indian National
Congress split into two groups
The Janata Party also went
through major convulsions David
Butler, Ashok Lahiri and Prannoy Roy.
Partha Chatterjee
(a) What made the party system in India look like a two-party system in 1977?
(b) Many more than two parties existed in 1977. Why then are the authors describing this
period as close to a two-party system?
(c) What caused splits in Congress and the Janata Party?
Answer: (a) The imposition of emergency in 1977 and political crisis made the party system in
India look like a two-party system.
(b) Two parties existed in 1977 were Congress and non-Congress parties to be described as
close to two party system because it ended the one party dominance and emerged Janata
Party, umbrella of nonCongress parties.
(c) Split in Congress: Congress splitted on the issues of presidential elections in 1969. Split in
Janata Party: On tensions among three leaders Morarji Desai, Charan Singh and Jagjivan Ram
for leadership in 1979.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Q1. Mention the main reason for the defeat of Congress party in the elections 1977.
Answer: The opposition party adopted the slogan Save democracy against the imposition of
emergency.

Q2. In which year fifth general elections to Lok Sabha held?

Answer: 1971.
Q3. Name the political party which came to power at centre in 1977.
Answer: Janata Party

Q4. In January 1974, Students of Gujarat started an agitation against which two major
problems?
Answer: 1. Rising prices of food grains, cooking oil and other essential commodities.
2. Corruption in high places.

Q5. Who was Charu Majumdar?

Answer: Charu Majumdar was a communist revolutionary and the leader of Naxalbari uprising.
He founded the Communist Party of India (Marxist Leninist).

Q6. Name the president who proclaimed emergency in 1975 in India.

Answer. President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad at midnight on 25 June 1975.

Q7. Who introduced Twenty Point Programme and Why?

Answer: Congress government led by Indira Gandhi introduced Twenty Point Programme to
maintain law and order and to restored efficiency including land reforms, eradication of bonded
labour, land redistribution, workers participation in management etc.

Q8. Who became the symbol of restoration of democracy?

Answer: Jayaprakash Narayan, leader of Janata Party.

Q9. Mention the Historic decision given by the court in famous Kesavananda Bharati
Case.
Answer: That there are some basic features of constitution not to be amended by parliament at
all. It led to a crisis between the government and judiciary.

Q10. What was the controversy regarding the appointment of the chief justice A.N. Ray in
1973?
Answer: It became political controversial because in this appointment the government set aside
the seniority of three judges who had given ruling against the stand of government.

Q11. Why did Congress win in Southern states?

Answer: 1. The impact of emergency was not felt equally in all the states.
2. The forced relocation and displacements, the forced sterilisations were mostly concentrated
in the northern states.

Q12. What do you mean by Preventive Detention?

Answer: In Preventive Detention Act, people are arrested and detained on the apprehension to
commit any offence in future and government made large scale arrests under this during
emergency.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. What factors led to crisis of democratic order in Indian Politics?
Answer: 1. Emergence of Indira Gandhi with a lot of popularity.
2. Party competitions had been created.
3. Relation between the government and judiciary had become tense.

Q2. Mention the factors which led Naxalite movement in backward states.
Answer: 1. Forced labour
2. Exploitation by moneylenders
3. Exploitation of resources by outsiders.

Q3. What was Shah Commission of inquiry?

How did government react to it?
Answer: The Shah commission was appointed in May 1977 by Janata Party government
headed by S.C. Shah, retired chief justice of Supreme Court of India to look into the matter of:
1. Allegations of abuse of authority.
2. Excesses and malpractices.
3. Actions taken in the name of emergency proclaimed on 25 June 1975.
The government appeared before commission against various evidences but she refused to
answer any question.

Q4. Describe any two outcomes of Naxalite Movement.

Answer: The Naxalites were the Marxist and Leninist Agricultural workers of Andhra Pradesh,
West Bengal, Bihar and adjoining areas who organised massive agitations against economic
injustice and inequality and demanded redistribution of land to cultivators.

Q5. Mention circumstances to be characterised for imposition of emergency?

Answer: 1. Emergence of Indira Gandhi.
2. Power Politics became personalised and governmental authority was converted into
personalization.
3. Bitter party competition.
4. Tense relations between the government and judiciary.

Q6. Who organised the first nationwide Satyagraha and Why?

Answer: It was organised by Jayaprakash Narayan for Indira Gandhis resignation, he appealed
to people not to obey illegal and immoral orders by a massive demonstration on 25 June 1975.
All these changed the political mood of the country against Congress.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Explain the reasons for students movement of 1974 in Bihar and the role played by
Jayaprakash Narayan in this movement.
Answer: Reasons for Students Movement of 1974:
Students organised movement against:
1. Rising prices of food grains, cooking oil and other essential commodities.
2. Corruption in high places.
Assess Role played by Jai Prakash Narayan:
Satyagraha was organised by Jayaprakash Narayan for Indira Gandhis resignation, he
appealed to people not to obey illegal and immoral orders by a massive demonstration on 25
June 1975. All these changed the political mood of the country against Congress.

Q2. Evaluate the consequences of declaration of emergency in 1975?

Answer: 1. It effected civil liberties of peoples i.e.
in April11976 it was proved that the
government could take away citizens right to life and liberty by overruling of high courts under
supreme courts and accepted governments plea.
2. The forth-second Amendment was also passed to bring a series of changes in constitution.
3. It affected the functioning of mass media also as press censorship took place which banned
freedom of press and newspapers, which were supposed to prior approval before they publish
any material.
4. Despite of filing many petitions government claimed it not to be necessary to be informed the
grounds to arrested persons.

Q3. Explain any two lessons learnt from emergency imposed in 1975.
Answer: The emergency brought out weaknesses and strengths both to Indias democracy:
1. First lesson was felt that it was extremely difficult to do away with democracy in India.
2. Secondly, it amended that internal emergency could be proclaimed only on the grounds of
armed rebellion, on the advice to the president to proclaim emergency must be given in writing
by council of ministers.
3. Thirdly, emergency made everyone more aware of civil liberties as well as courts also took an
active role in protecting civil liberties of individuals.

Q4. Examine the legacy of emergency of 1975 in India.

Answer: The legacy of emergency was felt in every
sphere of peoples life and politics:
1. Between the elections of 1977 and 1980, Congress identified itself with particular ideology,
claiming to be only socialist and pro-poor party.
2. The concept of non-Congression was created among oppositions parties.
3. The issues of welfare of backward classes began to dominate politics i. e. northern states
elected nonCongress leaders of backward class since 1977.
4. This period of emergency saw the period of constitutional crisis to loose its origin in
constitutional battle over jurisdiction of parliament and judiciary.
5. This period created political crisis also as the party in power enjoyed absolute majority, still
decided to suspend the democratic process.
6. The emergency tensed between institution based democracy and democracy based on
spontaneous popular participation for which party system was to be blamed.

Q5. Why is emergency and period around it known as the period of constitutional crisis?
Explain.
Answer: 1. The Parliament brought in many new changes in constitution which made an
amendment declaring that elections of Prime Minister, President and Vice President could not
be challenged in the court.
2. The forty second amendment was also passed to bring a series of changes in constitution like
duration of legislatures, elections can be postponed by one year during emergency.

Q6. How far do you agree that the government had misused its emergency powers during
1975-77? Explain.
Answer: No, the government hence misused its Emergency Powers. But it said that it wanted
to use the emergency:
1. To bring law and order into society.
2. To restore efficiency into administration and system.
3. To implement the pro-poor welfare programmes.

Q7. How did emergency of 1975 benefit the Indian democratic set up?
Answer: 1. Between the elections of 1977 and 1980, Congress identified itself with particulars
ideology, claiming to be only socialist and pro-poor party.
2. The concept of non-Congressism was created among opposition parties.
3. The issues of welfare of backward class began to dominate politics
i. e. Northern states elected non-
Congress leaders of backward class since 1977.
4. The emergency tensed between institution based democracy and democracy based on
spontaneous popular participation for which party system was to be blamed.

Q8. Describe any four circumstances for proclamation of emergency in 1975.

Answer:1. Emergence of Indira Gandhi.
2. Power politics became personalised and governmental authority was converted into
personalization.
3. Bitter party competition.
4. Tensed relations between the government and judiciary.

Q9. Discuss the role of Jayaprakash Narayan in Bihar movement and national politics.
Answer: 1. Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan from Janata Party was a Marxist of youth, who
became a Gandhian and involved himself in a Bhoodan movement.
2. He led Bihar movement and opposed the emergency.
3. Bihar students invited him and he accepted on the condition of movement to be non-violent
and not to limit only to Bihar territory. Hence, Bihar movement assumed a political character and
national appeal.
4. This movement demanded dismissal of Congress government in Bihar and called for total
revolution in social, economic and political aspects to establish a total democracy.
5. Bandhs, gheraos, strikes were organised in protest. Even employees of railways organised a
strike which threatened to paralyse the country.
6. In 1975, Janata Party led peoples march to parliament to be one of the largest political rallies
ever held in capital.
7. Janata was supported by nonCongress parties like BJS, socialist
parties etc., which projected JP as an alternative to Indira Gandhi.

Q10. Emergency was a Blackmark in Indian History. Comment.

Answer: 1. Emergency was declared on the ground of internal disturbances on 25 June 1975 to
invoke Article 352 of constitution.
2. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi recommended to impose emergency to president Fakhruddin Ali
Ahmad.
3. Emergency was one of the most controversial episode which possessed different virus
regarding to impose emergency.
4. Emergency practically suspended the democratic functioning.
5. Shah Commission exposed many excesses committed during emergency.
6. Emergency highlighted some hidden matters over constitutional battle between the
parliament and judiciary.
7. Tensions or conflicts had been arisen between institution based democracy and popular
participation of people.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Once an emergency is proclaimed, the federal distribution of powers remains practically
suspended and al 1 t be powc itc
the hands of the union government. Secondly, the government also gets the power to
curtail or restrict all or any of the Fundamental Rights during the emergency. From the
wording of the provisions of the Constitution, it is clear that an Emergency is seen as an
extra-iordinary condition in which normal democratic politics cannot function. Therefore,
special powers are granted to the government.
Questions
1. When was emergency imposed?
2. Who recommended emergency to be imposed and to whom?
3. Mention the implications of emergency.
Answer:
1. 25 June 1975.
2. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi recommended to impose emergency to the president
Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad.
3. (i) The federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended.
(ii) All the powers are concentrated in the hands of Union government.
(iii) The government also gets power to restrict all or any of Fundamental Rights during
emergency.

Q2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
There were many acts of dissent and resistance to the Emergency. Many political
workers who were not arrested in the first wave, went underground and organised
protests against the government. Newspapers like the Indian Express and the Statesman
protested against censorship by leaving blank spaces where news items had been
censored. Magazines like the Seminar and the Mainstream chose to close down rather
than submit to censorship. Many journalists were arrested for writing against the
Emergency. Many underground newsletters and leaflets were published to bypass
censorship. Kannada writer Shivarama Karanth, awarded with Padma Bhushan, and
Hindi writer Fanishwarnath Renu, awarded with Padma Shri, returned their awards in
protest against the suspension of democracy. By and large, though, such open acts of
defiance and resistance were rare.
Questions
1. Why did people began to protest against government?
2. How did newspapers protest against censorship?
3. How did writers protest against the emergency?
4. Which magazines protested against censorship?
Answer:
1. Against imposition of emergency.
2. Newspaper like Indian Express and the Statesman protested against censorship by leaving
blank spaces where news items had been censored.
3. Kannada writer Shivarama Karanth awarded with Padma Bhushan and Hindi writer
Fanishwarnath Renu awarded with Padma Shri returned their awards in protest against
suspension of democracy.
4. Magazines like Seminar and Mainstream chose to close down rather than submit to
censorship

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Analyse any three lessons learnt from the emergency of 1975.
Answer: (i) The emergency of 1975 at once brought out both the weaknesses and the
strengths of Indias democracy. Though there are many observers who think that India ceased
to be democratic during the emergency, it is noteworthy that normal democratic functioning
resumed within a short span of time. Thus, one lesson of Emergency is that it is extremely
difficult to do away with democracy in India.
(ii) It brought out some ambiguities regarding the emergency provision in the constitution that
have been rectified since. Now internal emergency can be proclaimed only on the grounds of
armed rebellion and it is necessary that the advice to the President to proclaim emergency
must be given in writing by the Council of Ministers.
(iii) The Emergency made everyone aware of the value of civil liberties. The courts, too, have
taken an active role after the emergency in protecting the civil liberties of the individuals. This is
in response to the inability of the judiciary to protect civil liberties effectively during the
emergency. Many civil liberties organizations came up after this experience.

Q2. Examine the three consequences of emergency imposed in 1975.

Answer: (a) Effects on Civil Liberties of Citizens:
1. The government made large scale arrests under preventive detention.
2. Arrested political persons could not challenge arrest even under Habeas Corpus petition.
3. Despite filing many petitions government claimed it not to be necessary to be informed of
grounds to arrested persons.
4. In April 1976, finally it was proved that the government could taken away citizens right to life
and liberty by over ruling of high courts under supreme court and accepted governments plea.
(b) Impact on Relationship between Parliament and Judiciary:
1. The parliament brought in many new changes in constitution which made an amendment
declaring that election of Prime Minister, President and Vicepresident could not be challenged
in the court.
2. The forty-second amendment (42nd) was also passed to bring a series of changes in
constitution like duration of legislatures, elections can be postponed by one year during an
emergency.
(c) Functioning of Mass Media:
1. Press censorship took place
which banned freedom of press is newspapers were supposed to seek prior approval before
they publish any material.
2. Protests, strikes and public agitations were also banned.
3. Various fundamental rights were also suspended including even Right to move to Court for
Restoration of Fundamental Rights.
4. Kannada writer Shivarama Karnata awarded with Padma Bhushan and Hindi writer
Fanishwarnath Renu with Padmashri returned their awards on protest against suspension of
democracy.
5. Newspapers mainly Indian Express, and the Statesman protested against censorship by
leaving blank editorial column.
Q3. Examine any six reasons for the imposition of emergency in India in 1975.
Or
Analyse any three reasons for imposing emergency on 25 June 1975. Did the government
misuse its emergency powers? Give any three arguments in support of answers.
Answer: (i) Emergency was proclaimed in response to petition filed by Raj Narayan to declare
Indira Gandhis election invalid.
(ii) On June 25, 1975, the government declared the threat of internal disturbances to invoke
Article 352 of constitution.
(iii) Article 352 can declare emergency on ground of either internal or external disturbances.
(iv) The government decided a grave crisis to be arisen to proclaim emergency to bring law and
order, restore efficiency and implement pro-poor Welfare Programmes.
(v) The President FakhruddinAli Ahmad proclaimed emergency which became the most
controversial episode in Indian politics.
(vi) Power politics became personalised and governmental authority was converted into
personalization

Q4. Assess any three happenings which were responsible for the downfall of Congress
Party in the 1977 elections.
Or
The 1977 elections for the first time saw the opposition coming to power at the centre.
Examine any six reasons for this change.
Answer: The 1977 elections were evolved as a shock to everyone as Congress Party was
defeated for the very first time and opposition party came into power:
1. The opposition adopted the slogan save democracy against imposition of emergency earlier.
2. The opposition campaigned non- democratic character of rule which provided various
excesses.
3. The opposition party highlighted the preventive detention and press censorship to favour
public opinion.
4. Janata Party also ensured not to divide non-Congress votes.
5. Middle section of North India was moving away from Congress for whom Janata Party
became a platform.
6. Hence, elections of 1977 emerged many other factors instead about emergency only.

Q5. Explain any three outcomes of Lok Sabha elections of 1977.

Answer: 1. In March 1977 elections, for the first time, Congress lost elections with winning 154
seats only.
2. Janata Party and its allies won 330 seats out of 542 seats.
3. Congress lost from the states of Bihar, U.P., Haryana, Delhi and Madhya Pradesh.
4. Janata Party was formed of coalitions under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayana.
5. Janata Party called this election as a referendum on emergency.
6. Opposition party realised not to divide the votes to enjoy the power under one umbrella.
7. All these indicated a tough time for Congress ahead.

Q6. What is Naxalite movement? Evaluate its role in Indian politics.

Answer: The Naxalites were the Marxist and Leninist agricultural workers of Andhra Pradesh,
West Bengal, Bihar and adjoining areas which organised massive agilations against economic
injustice and inequality and demanded redistribution of land to cultivators.
Role in Indian Politics:
1. Naxalite, did not participate in the elections formally but these were actively associated with
parties.
2. Naxalites ensured a better representation of demands of deprived social sections in party
politics.
3. These movements retained associations or relations alongwith the political parties either as
an individual or as an organisations.

Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What was the slogan of Janata Party to campaign in elections?
2. Identify the person who is sitting on ground holding the slogan.
3. Against which practices Jayaprakash Narayana agitated?
Answer:
1. Save Democracy.
2. Jayaprakash Narayan.
3. Corruption, lawlessness, violence, and most important against imposition of emergency.

Q2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Question.
1. When did cartoon appear in the newspaper and why?
2. Identify the person behind Indira Gandhi.
3. Identify what does the Political Crisis stand for. Explain.
Answer:
1. This cartoon appeared few days before the declaration of emergency to capture the sense of
impending political crisis.
2. The then Congress president D.K. Barooah.
3. Political crisis in 1977 made the party system in India look like a two party system i.e.
Congress and nonCongress to end one party dominance and emergence of non-Congress
party Janata Party as an umbrella for others.

Q3. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What situation does the picture refer to?
2. Which Commission is represented into the cartoon?
3. Mention some points of this Commissions report.
Answer:
1. Appearance of Indira Gandhi before Commission but refused to answer any question.
2. Shah Commissions report about emergency.
3. (i) There were many excesses committed
during emergency.
(ii) Several restrictions were put on the press sometimes without legal sanction.
(iii) Many people were arrested under preventive detention law.
(iv) Even general manager of Delhi Power Supply Corporation received verbal orders from the
officers of Lt. Governor of Delhi to cut electricity to all newspaper presses at 2 a.m. on 26 June
1975.

Chapter 16

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Which of these statements are incorrect: The Chipko Movement

() was an environmental movement to prevent cutting down of trees.
(b) raised questions of ecological and economic exploitation.
(c) was a movement against alcoholism started by the women.
(d) demanded that local communities should have control over their natural resources.
Answer: (c) was a movement against alcoholism started by the women.
Q2. Some of the statements below are incorrect. Identify the incorrect statements and
rewrite those with necessary correction.
() Social movements are hampering the functioning of Indias democracy.
(b) The main strength of social movements lies in their mass base across social
sections.
(c) Social movements in India emerged because there were many issues that political
parties did not address.
Answer:(a) Rewritten-Social movements involve a gradual process of coming together of
people with similar problems.
(c) Rewritten-Social movements in India emerged to reduce the possibility of deep social conflict
and disaffection of groups from democracy.

Q3. Identify the reasons which led to the Chipko Movement in U.P. in early 1970s. What
was the impact of this movement?
Answer: 1. The Chipko movement began in two or three villages of Uttarakhand on refusal of
permission to villages to fell ash trees for making agricultural tools and allotted the same land to
sports manufacturers for commercial uses.
2. The villagers protested against the practices of logging to be permitted by government.
3. Villagers used a novel tactic to hug the trees to protect them from being cut down.
Impact of movement:
1. It soon spread across many parts of Uttarakhand and larger issues of ecological and
economic exploitation were also raised.
2. Government issued a ban on felling of tress in Himalayan region for fifteen years until green
cover was fully restored.
3. Active participation of women was also a very novel aspect of the movement.
4. This movement was started with a single issue but became symbol of many such popular
movements emerging in different parts of country during 1970s.

Q4. The Bharatiya Kisan Union is a leading organisation highlighting the plight of
farmers. What were the issues addressed by it in the nineties and to what extent were
they successful?
Answer: Bharatiya Kisan Union was one of the leading farmers movement to protest against
the policies of process of liberalisation of Indian economy:
Issues addressed by BKU:
1. Higher government floor prices for sugarcane and wheat,
2. Guaranteed supply of electricity at reasonable rates.
3. To wave off repayments due on loan to farmers.
4. To provide government pension to farmers.
5. Abolition of restrictions on the interstate movement of farm produce. Highlighted the plight of
farmers:
1. BKUconductedrallies, demonstrations, and Jail Bharo agilations.
2. These protests involved thousands 20 over lakhs farmers from western UPs adjoining
regions.
3. BKU operated as a pressure group in politics with its strength of sheer members.
Extent of Success:
1. BKU became the most successful social movements.
2. It sustained for a longtime due to clannetworks among its members.
3. These networks mobilised funds, resources and activities of BKU.
4. An outcome of political bargaining powers by its members.
5. BKU farmers dominated regional electoral politics also.
Q5. The anti-arrack movement in Andhra Pradesh drew the attention of the country to
some serious issues. What were these issues?
Answer: 1. Anti-arrack movement was the movement of rural women in Andhra Pradesh to
protest against alcoholism, mafias and government.
2. This movement had its roots in adult literacy drive where women complained of increased
consumption of locally brewed alcohol arrack by men in their families to effect on rural economy
also.
3. Women in Nellore came together in spontaneous local initiatives to protest against arrack and
forced the closure of wine shop.
And this movement spread slowly all over the state
Issues relating to movements:
1. The Anti-arrack movement aimed at prohibition on the sale of arrack.
2. Its demand touched upon larger section of social, economic and political issues which had
established a close nexus between crime and politics.
3. Women openly discussed the issues of domestic violence like dowry, sexual violence etc.
4. Anti-arrack movement provided a platform to discuss private issues of domestic violence.

Q6. Would you consider the anti-arrack movement as a womens movement? Why?
Answer: Yes, we would consider the Antiarrack movement as a part of womens movement to
provide a platform for women to discuss private issues of domestic violence:
1. This movement focused on issues of sexual violence against women either within family or
outside.
2. Women joined the campaign against dowry and demanded personal and property laws based
on gender equality.
3. These campaigns contributed a great deal in increasing social awareness as well as shifted
from legal reforms to open social confrontations.
4. Consequently, movement demanded equal representation to women in politics during the
nineties. Hence 73rd and 74th amendments granted reservations to women in local level
political offices.
5. Thus, it can be concluded to be a part of womens movement.

Q7. Why did the Narmada Bachao Aandolan oppose the dam projects in the Narmada
Valley?
Answer: Narmada Bachao Aandolan was a collective local organisations movement to save
river Narmada which opposed the construction of multi-purpose dam The Narmada Sagar
Project and questioned the ongoing developmental projects in country:
1. Narmada Bachao Aandolan linked its opposition to Sardar Sarovar Project with larger issues
concerning the nature of ongoing developmental projects, efficiency of model of development
that the country followed and about what constituted public interest in a democracy.
2. It demanded that there should be a cost benefit analysis of the major developmental projects
due to construction of dam submerged around 245 villages to require two and a half lakh
population to be relocated.
3. The movement demanded proper rehabilitation of all those to be effected from the
construction of these projects.
4. This movement also questioned the nature of decision making process to be in framing of
mega scale development projects.
5. Movement also insisted that local communities must have a say in such decision making
alongwith an effective control over natural resources.
6. Hence, NBA achieved a comprehensive National Rehabilitation Policy formed by government
in 2003.
Q8. Do movements and protests in a country strengthen democracy? Justify your
answer with examples.
Answer: Yes, to some extent movements and protests in country strengthen democracy to
have mixed reactions both for and against:
Arguments for:
1. Anti-arrack movement, Chipko movement, NBA etc., rectified some problems to be seen as
integral part of democratic politics.
2. These movements ensured participation and representation from diverse groups to reduce
possibility of deep social conflicts in democracy.
3. These movements broadened the idea of participation in Indian democrac i. e., Anti-arrack
movement and Dalit Panthers. Arguments against:
1. Collective actions, rallies, strikes, disrupt the functioning of a democracy and create a delay in
decision making.
2. Routine functioning of democracy did not have enough space for the voices of these social
groups.
3. It is possible to ignore demand of these movements with the presentation to be represented
by one section of society only.
4. Political parties do not seem to be taking up issues of marginal social groups.
5. The relationship between popular movements and political parties has grown weaker over the
years creating a vacuum in politics.
Hence, we may conclude that movements are not only about collective assertions or rallies or
protest, but they also involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar
problems, demand and expectations.

Q9. What issues did the Dalit Panthers address?

Answer: Dalit Panthers was a militant organisation of Dalit Youth to be formed in 1972 in
Maharashtra:
1. These groups mainly fought against the perpetual caste based inequalities and material
injustices that Dalits faced in spite of constitutional guarantees of equality and justice.
2. Dalits faced collective atrocities over minor symbolic issues of caste pride. Hence, they
demanded effective implementation of reservations and other such policies of social justice.

Q10. Read the passage and answer questions below:

., nearly all new social movements have emerged as corrective to new maladies
environmental degradation, violation of the status of women, destruction of tribal
cultures and the undermining of human rights none of which are in and by themselves
transformative of the social order.
They are in that way quite different from revolutionar}1- ideologies of the past. But their
weakness lies in their
being so heavily fragmented
a large part of the space occupied by the new social movements seem to be suffering
from various characteristics which have prevented them from being relevant to the
truly oppressed and the poor in the form of a solid unified movement of the people. They
are too fragmented, reactive, ad hocish, providing no comprehensive framework of basic
social change. Their being anti-this or that (anti-West, anti-capitalist, anti-development,
etc.) does not make them any more coherent, any more relevant to oppressed and
peripheralized communities.
-Rajni Kothari
(a) What is the difference between new social movements and revolutionary ideologies?
(b) What according to the author are the limitations of social movements?
(c) If social movements address specific issues, would you say that they are fragmented
or that they are more focused? Give reasons for you answer by giving examples.
Answer: (a) The difference is that like revolutionary ideologies none of new social movements
are in and by themselves transformative of the social order but they emerged as corrective of
new malodies.
(b) According to author these movements are not any more coherent, relevant to oppressed and
peripheralised communities. To some extent these are effected by party politics.
(c) If social movements address specific issues, we would say that these are fragmented which
provide no comprehensive framework of social change i.e., Anti-arrack movement, Dalit
Panthers etc.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]

Q1. Mention the two main demands of Bharatiya Kisan Union in 1980s.
Answer: 1. Higher government floor price for sugarcane and wheat.
2. Guaranteed supply of electricity at reasonable rates.

Q2. What was the most novel aspect of Chipko movement?

Answer: Womens active participation in Chipko agitation was the novel aspect of Chipko
movement.

Q3. What was Anti-arrack movement?

Answer: Anti-arrack movement was the movement of rural women from Andhra Pradesh to
fight against alcoholism, mafias and government during this periods.

Q4. What was main objective of Dalit Panthers?

Answer: Dalit Panthers aimed at the destroy of caste system and to build on organisation of all
oppressed sections like landless poor peasants and urban industrial workers alongwith Dalits.

Q5. What is meant by non-party movement?

Answer: Non-party movements are started by voluntary organisations or group of people
(Students/Workers) who did not get support of political parties and not contest elections also.

Q6. What are popular movements?

Answer: Popular movements are the movements organised by dalits and farmers under the
banner of various social organisations to voice their demands.

Q7. What does the term Dalit Panthers mean?

Answer: Dalit Panthers denotes to a militant organisation of Dalit Youth to be formed in 1972 in
Maharashtra.

Q8. In the poem what does the term Pilgrims of darkness signify? To whom the poet
has referred as the liberator?
Answer: It signifies Dalit Communities who had experienced brutal caste injustices. The poet
refers to Dr. Ambedkar as their liberator as well as Sun flower giving Fakir.
Q9. Who wrote the poem on Dalit? What does the poem signify?
Answer: The Marathi poet Namdeo Dhsal wrote poem on Dalit during the decade of seventies
which expresses the anguish that the Dalit masses continued to face even after twenty years of
Independence.

Q10. WTiy did the cash crop market face on crisis?

Answer: Due to beginning of the process of Liberalisation of Indian Economy when
agricultural sector came under threat and a debate between industry and agriculture has
become one of the prominent issues in Indias model of development.

Q11. What strategies were used by Narmada Bachao Aandolan to put forward its
demands?
Answer: 1. Mobilisation of support at international level.
2. Appeals to judiciary.
3. Public rallies.
4. Forms of Satyagraha to convince people.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. What was the main demand of Chipko movement?

Answer: 1. The villagers demanded that no forest exploiting contracts should be given to
outsiders.
2. Local communities should have effective control over natural resources like water, land and
forests.
3. They also demanded the government to provide low cost materials to small industries and
ensure development of region without disturbing ecological
balance.
4. This movement took up economic issues of landless forest workers and asked for guarantees
of minimum wages.

Q2. Highlight any two main demands of Antiarrack movement.

Answer: 1. Prohibition on the sale of arrack.
2. Provided a platform to discuss private issues of domestic violence.

Q3. Mention any two demands of Bharatiya Kisan Union.

Answer: 1. Higher government floor price for sugarcane and wheat.
2. Guaranteed supply of electricity at reasonable rates.

Q4. How does party based movement differ from non-party movement?
Answer: Party based movements are those movements supported by political parties i.e. Trade
Union Movement in Mumbai, Kolkata and Kanpur etc., whereas non-party movements have lost
faith in existing democratic institutions and electoral politics to be merged of students and young
political activists in mass-mobilisation.

Q5. Which two issues were addressed by Dalit Panthers?

Answer: Dalit Panthers was a militant organisation of Dalit Youth formed in 1972 in
Maharashtra:
1. These groups mainly fought against the perpetual caste based inequalities and material
injustices that Dalits faced inspite of constitutional guarantees of equality and justice.
2. Dalits faced collective atrocities over minor symbolic issues of caste pride. Hence, they
demanded effective implementation of reservations and other such policies of social just.
Ans. 1. The villagers demanded that no forest exploiting contracts should be given to outsiders.
2. Local communities should have effective control over natural resources like water, land and
forests.

Q7. Mention any two party based movement.

Answer: 1. Naxalite movements.
2. Trade Union movement of Mumbai, Kolkata and Kanpur.

Q8. List any four activities conducted by Bharatiya Kisan Union to pressurize the state
for accepting its demands.
Answer: 1. BKU conducted rallies, demonstrations and Jail Bharo agitations.
2. These protests involved thousands so over lakhs farmers from western UPs adjoining
regions.
3. BKU operated as a pressure group in politics with its strength of sheer members.

Q9. Which action of the government of India threatened the fish workers lives in a major
way? Which organisation did they form at national level?
Answer: The government policies of economic liberalisation opened up Indias waters to large
commercial vessels including multinational fishing companies which threatened the local
fishworkers who came together on a national level platform in the form of organisation National
Fishworkers Forum needed by fishworkers from Kerala.

Q10. In what ways social movement raised various issues about the model of economic
development of India at the time of independence?
Answer: 1. Chipko movement brought about the issues of ecological depletion.
2. The BKU farmers organisation complained a neglect of agricultural sector.
3. Dalits led mass struggle against social and material conditions.
4. Anti-arrack movement focused on negative fallouts of what was considered development.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Assess any two positive aspects of the Chipko Movement.

Answer: (i) The Chipko Movement started in early 1973 in the state that is now Uttarakhand.
The movement was unique in the sense that it presented a very unusual form of collective
action in which men and women from a village of this state were engaged. These villagers
protested against the practices of commercial logging that the government had permitted. They
used a novel tactic for their protest that of hugging the trees to prevent them from being cut
down. The struggle soon spread across many parts of the Uttarakhand region.
(ii) Womens active participation in the Chipko agitation was a very novel aspect of the
movement. The forest contractors of the region usually doubled up as suppliers of alcohol to
men. Women held sustained agitations against the habit of alcoholism and broadened the
agenda of the movement to cover other social issues. The movement achieved a victory when
the government issued a ban on felling of trees in the Himalayan region for fifteen years, until
the green cover was fully restored.
Q2. Where and when was the organisation Dalit Panthers formed? Describe any three of
its activities.
Answer: Dalit Panthers denotes to a militant organisation of Dalit Youth to be formed in 1972 in
Maharasthra.
Its activities can be summed up as follows:
1. These groups mainly fought against the perpetual caste based inequalities and material
injustices that Dalits faced in spite of constitutional guarantees of equality and justice.
2. Dalits faced collective atrocities over minor symbolic issues of caste pride.
3. They demanded effective implementation of reservations and other such policies of social
justice.

Q3. What are popular movements? Explain any three issues related to women which
brought social awareness amongst them.
Answer: Popular movements are the movements organised by dalits and farmers under the
banner of various social organisations to voice their demands.
Women in Nellore came together in spontaneous local initiatives to protest against arrack and
forced the closure of wine shops.
And this movement spread slowly all over the state.
Issues relating to movements:
1. The Anti-Arrack movement aimed at prohibition on the sale of arrack.
2. Its demand touched upon larger section of social, economic and political issues which had
established a close nexus between crime and politics.
3. Women openly discussed the issue of domestic violence like dowry, sexual violence etc.
4. Anti-Arrack movement provided a platform to discuss private issues of domestic violence.

Q4. What is the Right to Information Act? When was it passed in India?
Answer: The Right to Information Act is a law to empower the people to find out happenings in
government and act as a watchdog of democracy:
1. It was passed in October 2005 by Government of India.
2. This Act ensures its citizens all information about functioning of government machinery.
3. This right has been expanded to cover various services provided by government i.e., if any
purchased product is defective it can be -asked for replacement.
4. This right gives political actors incentives to good things to help to control corruption.

Q5. What was Narmada Bachao Aandolan? What was criticism against it?
Answer: Narmada Bachao Aandolan linked its opposition to Sardar Sarovar Project with larger
issues concerning the nature of ongoing development projects with the . dreams of cost benefit
analysis due to construction of dams submerged around 245 villages to require two and a half
lakh population to be relocated.
Its criticism:
1. The obstruction to the process of development.
2. Denial to the access to water to many people.
3. Hurdle to economic development.

Q6. Movement are not only about collective assertions or only about rallies and protests
but something else as well. Justify.
Answer: Though movements are the result of collective assertions, still these are associated
with a Gradual process of coming together of people with common intentions, common
problem, demands and common expectations. These movements make people aware also by
performing educative role towards expansions of democracy.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Sardar Sarovar Project is a multipurpose mega-scale dam. Its advocates say that it would
benefit huge areas of Gujarat and the three adjoining states in terms of availability of
drinking water and water for irrigation, generation of electricity and increase in
agricultural production. Many more subsidiary benefits like effective flood and drought
control in the region were linked to the success of this dam. In the process of
construction of the dam 245 villages from these States were expected to get submerged.
It required relocation of around two and a half lakh people from these villages. Issues of
relocation and proper rehabilitation of the project- affected people were first raised by
local activist groups. It wrns around 1988-89 that the issues crystallised under the
banner of the NBA a loose collective of local voluntary organisations.
Questions
1. Why is Sardar Sarovar Project mentioned as multipurpose mega scale dam?
2. Why was it opposed by villagers?
3. Name the organisation which led the movement against this project.
4. What was the main demand of Local Activist Groups?
Answer:
1. Because it fulfilled the various purposes together as to benefit huge areas of Gujarat and
three adjoining states:
1. Availability of drinking water
2. Water for irrigation
3. Generation of electricity
4. Effective floods and drought control in the region.
2. Because in the process of construction of dam about 245 villages from these states were
expected to be submerged alongwith the population of two and a half lakh people.
3. Local Activist Group under the banner of Narmada Bachao Andolan.
4. To relocate and proper rehabilitation of project affected people.

Q2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Movements are not only about collective assertions or only about rallies and protests.
They involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems,
similar demands and similar expectations. But then movements are also about making
people aware of their rights and the expectations that they can have from democratic
institutions. Social movements in India have been involved in these educative tasks for a
long time and have thus contributed to expansion of democracy rather than causing
disruptions.
Questions
1. What is the importance of popular movements in democracy?
2. How do popular movements help the
government?
3. What factors make the people come together in a particular movement?
Answer:
1. Popular movements make people aware of their rights and expectations which can be drawn
from democratic institutions.
2. Popular movements let the government be aware of the similar demands, similar problems
and expectations of
people through an educative task for expansion of democracy rather than disrupting it.
3. Similar problems, similar demands, and similar expectations of the same group/people.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Suppose you are an important leader of the Farmers agitation. The government
authorities ask you to present any three demands on behalf of the farmers. On priority
basis, which three demands will you make? Support your demands with appropriate
arguments.
Answer: Farmers agitation is not new in our country. It has been in existence time to time for
particular goals. We know that the Indian farmers have been the worst sufferers in the country.
They are the backbone of the country in development, yet they are not given much attention.
Governments come and go, but the tragedy of our farmers remain the same. Being the leader of
the farmers agitation I have several demands in my mind for the benefit of the poor farmers but
here I would mention only three demands on their behalf:
(i) Proper banking facilities so that farmers should not depend on the village moneylenders who
give them money at a very high rate. Most of the time the poor farmers fall into debt trap which
make their life a hell.
(ii) Proper irrigation facilities in case there is poor/weak monsoon.
(ii) Insurance of crops will save farmers from committing suicide. The unexpected rain in the
months of March and April this year devastated the standing crops in the field. The natures fury
aggravated the miseries of the farmers some of whom could not bear and committed suicide.

Q2. What was Narmada Bachao Aandolan? What were its main issues? What democratic
strategies did it use to put forward its demands?
Answer: 1. Narmada Bachao Aandolan linked its opposition to Sardar Sarovar project with
larger issues concerning the nature of ongoing developmental projects, efficacy of model of
development that the country followed and what constituted public interest in a democracy.
2. It demanded that there should be a cost benefit analysis of the major developmental projects
due to construction of dam submerged around 245 villages to require two a half lakh population
to be relocated.
3. The movement demanded proper rehabilitation of all those to be affected from the
construction of these projects.
4. This movement also questioned the nature of decision making process to be in forming of
mega scale development projects.
5. Movement also insisted that local communities must have a say in such decision making
alongwith an effective control over natural resources.
6. Hence, NBA achieved a compreh ensive National Rehabilitation Policy formed by
government in 2003.
Democratic strategies used by it:
1. Mobilisation of support at inter-national level.
2. Appeals to judiciary.
3. Public rallies
4. Forms of Satyagraha

Q3. What is meant by Chipko movement? When did it start and where? What is the
significance of this movement?
Answer: 1. The Chipko movement began in two or three villages of Uttarakhand on refusal of
permission to villagers to fell ash trees for making agricultural tools, and allotted the same land
to sports manufacturers for commercial uses.
2. The villagers protested against the practices of logging to be permitted by the government.
3. Villagers used a novel tactic to hug the trees to protect them from being cut down.
Impact of movement:
1. It soon spread across many parts of Uttarakhand and larger issues of ecological and
economic exploitation were also raised.
2. Government issued a ban on felling of trees in Himalayan region for fifteen years until green
cover was fully restored.
3. Active participation of women was also a very novel aspect of the movement.
4. This movement was started with a single issue but became symbol of many such popular
movements emerging in different parts of country during 1970s.

Q4. Mention any three social movements of India. Explain their main objectives.
Answer: 1. The Chipko Movement:
(a) It raised the issues of ecological and economic exploitation.
(b) Active participation of women was a novel aspect of the movement.
(c) The villagers protested against the practices of logging to be permitted by the government.
2. Anti-Arrack movement:
(a) This movement focused on issues of sexual violence against women either within family or
outside.
(b) Women joined the campaign against dowry and demanded personal and property laws
based on gender equality.
(c) These campaigns contributed a great deal in increasing social awareness as well as shifted
from legal reforms to open social confrontations.
3. Narmada Bachao Aandolan:
(a) Narmada Bachao Aandolan linked its opposition to Sardar Sarovar Project with larger issues
concerning the nature of ongoing developmental projects.
(b) It demanded cost benefit analysis of major developmental projects to relocate the people
suffered from construction of dams.
(c) This movement also questioned the nature of decision making process to be in framing of
mega scale development projects.

Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1. On a political outline map of India locate and label the following and symbolise them
as indicated.

Questions
1 .The state where Anti-Arrack movement started in October 1992.
2. The state where Dalit Panthers Organisation was active.
3. The state related with Chipko movement.
4. The states associated with Narmada Bachao Aandolan.
Answer:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Uttarakhand
4. (a) Gujarat (b) Madhya Pradesh

Chapter 17

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Match the following:

Answer: (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Q2. Regional aspirations of the people of North-East get expressed in different ways.
These include movements against outsiders, movement for greater autonomy and
movement for separate . national existence. On the map of the North-East, using different
shades for these three, show the States where these expressions are prominently found.
Answer: Tripura, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh (See the Map at the end of the Chapter).

Q3. What were the main provisions of the Punjab accord? In what way can they be the
basis for further tensions between the Punjab and its neighbouring States?
Answer: Punjab Accord was an agreement signed between the then Prime Minister Rajiv
Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal, the then President of Akali Dal in 1985 to be known as
Rajiv Gandhi Longowal Accord also to create normalcy in Punjab:
1. Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab.
2. To appoint a separate commission to resolve border dispute between Punjab and Haryana.
3. To set up a tribunal to settle down the sharing of Ravi-Beas river water among Punjab,
Haryana and Rajasthan.
4. To provide agreement for compen-sation to better treatment to those affected by militancy in
Punjab.
5. To withdraw the Armed forces special power Act ip Punjab.
But, peace could not be established easily in Punjab and resulted as follows:
(a) It led to many excesses by police and violation of human rights.
(b) It fragmented the Akali Dal.
(c) Presidents rule was imposed and normal political process was suspended.
(id) Hence, Political process could not be restored in this atmosphere. Even during elections in
1992, only 24% electors turned out to vote. Consequently above mentioned added to tension
between Punjab and its neighbouring states.

Q4. Why did the Anandpur Sahib Resolution become controversial?

Answer: Anandpur Sahib Resolution was passed at the conference of Akali Dal at Anandpur
Sahib in 1973:
() To ascertain regional autonomy and to redefine centre-state relations.
(b) Sikhs aspirations aimed at bolbala (dominance) of Sikhs.
(c) It could also be interpreted as a plea for separate sikh nation despite of federal spirit.
But, it became controversial due to following reasons:
1. Due to lack of popularity of Akali Dal resolution had a United appeal.
2. Akali government was dismissed in 1980s it lost its importance.
3. Akali Dal launched a movement on the distribution of water between Punjab and its
neighbouring states.
4. Movement went into the hands of extremist elements from moderate Akalis and converted
into armed insurgency for which Anandpur Sahib Resolution considered responsible.

Q5. Explain the internal divisions of the State of Jammu and Kashmir and describe how
these lead to multiple regional aspirations in that State.
Answer: Jammu and Kashmir comprised of three regions:
1. Kashmir region is Kashmir valley consisting Kashmiri speaking and mostly Muslim with a
Kashmiri speaking Hindu minority.
2. Jammu region consists of Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs and speakers of various languages, in the
areas of foothills and plains.
3. Ladakh region is equally divided between Buddhists and Muslims and maintains an little
population area.
These internal divisions led to multiple regional aspirations:
1. One strand of separatist to demand a separate Kashmiri nation independent of India and
Pakistan.
2. Some other groups want Kashmir to be merged with Pakistan.
3. Third strand wants a greater autonomy for people of state within Indian Union.
4. The demand for intra-state autonomy
is as strong as the demand for the state autonomy.
In present scenario, most of the separatist in dialogue are trying to re-negotiate a relationship of
state with India.

Q6. What are the various positions on the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir?
Which of these do you think are justifiable? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer: On the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir, the following positions are states as:
1. Kashmiris were promised to make accession on reference of people after situation created by
tribal invasion, becomes normal. But it has not been fulfilled, hence, it generated the demand for
Plebiscite.
2. Sometimes, it was felt that special federal status guaranteed by Article 370 has been eroded
practically which led the demand for restoration of autonomy or Greater State Autonomy.
3. It is felt that democracy, which is practised in rest of India has not been similarly
institutionalised in Jammu and Kashmir.
We prefer the first position because Plebiscite provides better opportunity to people of J & K to
protect and sustain their regional autonomy in a very democratic manner.

Q7. The Assam movement was a combination of cultural pride and economic
backwardness. Explain.
Answer: Because:
1. It was against outsiders to maintain cultural integration of Assam.
2. There was widespread poverty and unemployment in Assam, despite existence of natural
resources like tea, coal and oil.
3. It was felt that these were drained out of state without any commensurate benefit to the
people.
Q8. All regional movements need not lead to separatist demands. Explain by giving
examples from this chapter.
Answer: Because:
1. Regional aspirations are part of democratic politics.
2. Expression of regional issues is not an abnormal phenomenon.
3. Scotland, Wales, Northern Ireland have regional aspirations in United Kingdom.
4. Regional movements are responded
through democratic negotiations rather than suppression.
5. Its examples are in eighties, military erupted in Punjab, problems persisted in the North-East,
students agitated in Assam and Kashmir valley was on the boil.
6. The government of India settled down some negotiations with these regional aspirations to
reduce tensions in many regions.
7. Mizoram is an example of political settlement to resolve the problem of separation effectively.

Q9. Regional demands from different parts of India exemplify the principle of unity with
diversity. Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer: Yes, we agree with the statement because India adopted a democratic approach on
these regional aspirations in place of considering them as anti-national:
1. Indias democratic politics allows people and groups to address the people on the basis of
their regional identity, aspiration, and specific regional problems.
2. Indias democratic politics focus on regional issues and problems to receive adequate
attention and accommodation in the policy making process, i.e. regional aspirations of Assam,
Punjab and North-East, Kashmir etc.
3. Its examples are in eighties, military erupted in Punjab, problems persisted in the North-East,
students agitated in Assam and Kashmir valley was on the boil.
4. The government of India settled down some negotiations with these regional aspirations to
reduce tensions in many regions.
5. Mizoram is an example of political settlement to resolve the problem of separation effectively.
It can be concluded that regional aspirations do not encourage separation but these respect
diversity to retain unity in the nation.

Q10. Read the passage and answer the questions below:

One of Hazarikas songs dwells
on the unity theme; the seven states of north-eastern India become seven sisters born of
the same
mother Meghalaya went own
way ., Arunachal too separated and Mizoram appeared in Assams gateway as a groom
to marry another
daughter. The song ends with
a determination to keep the unity of the Assamese with other smaller nationalities that
are left in the present-day Assam- the Karbis and the Mising brothers and sisters are our
dear ones.
Sanjib Baruah
(a) Which unity is the poet talking about?
(b) Why were some States of NorthEast created separately out of the erstwhile State of
Assam?
(c) Do you think that the same theme of unity could apply to all the regions of India?
Why?
Answer: (a) The poet is talking about the Unity of Assamese.
(b) Because these states face that Assamese government was imposing Assamese language
on them. Hence, regional aspirations began.
(c) Yes, same theme of unity could apply to all regions of India because Indian government
deals with all these regional aspirations with respect to accommodate regional diversities.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]

Q1. Name the three social and political regions of the Northern most state of India.
Answer: Names of the three social and political regions of the Northern most state of India
(i) Jammu (ii) Kashmir (iii) Ladakh

Q2. Why were the seven small states created in North-East India?
Answer: Seven small states were created in North-East India because of demands for (i)
autonomy (ii) movements for secession and
(iii) opposition to outsiders.

Q3. Which students group led the anti foreigner movement in Assam?
Answer: All Assam Students Union in 1979 (AASU).

Q4. Who were the signatories of Punjab Accord of 1985?

Answer: The then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal, the then
President of Akali Dal.

Q5. Jammu and Kashmir state comprised of which three social and political regions?
Answer: Kashmir, Jammu and Laddakh regions.

Q6. How did India meet with the challenge of diversity?

Answer: By redrawing the internal boundaries of the country, i.e. created Chhattisgarh
Jharkhand and Uttarakhand etc.

Q7. What is the significance of Article 370? Ans. Article 370 signifies special status of
Kashmir:
Answer: 1. To give greater autonomy to J & K.
2. To specify that state has its own constitution.
3. All provisions of constitution are not applicable to state.

Q8. Which Prime Minister expressed regret over violence against Sikhs after Indira
Gandhis death?
Answer: Prime Minister Manmohan Singh in 2005 after twenty years in Parliament to regret
over the killings of Sikhs.

Q9. When was first normal election held in Punjab after violence?
Answer: In 1997 in the post militancy era and alliance of Akali Dal and BJP scored victory.

Q10. What do you mean by Seven Sisters?

Answer. The North-East region consisting of seven states is referred to as seven sisters.
Very Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. What does the special status given to J & K under Article 370 mean?
Answer: Article 370 signifies special status of Kashmir:
1. To give greater autonomy to J & K.
2. To specify that state has its own constitution.
3. All provisions of constitution are not applicable to state.

Q2. Highlight any two characteristics of Dravidian movement.

Answer: Dravidian movement was one of the first regional movements in Indian Politics
with the ambition to create a Dravid nation:
1. This movement used democratic means like public debates and the electoral platform to
achieve its ends.
2. Due to this strategy, movements acquired political power in the state and became influential
at national level.
3. Dravidian movement led to formation ofDravid Kazhagam (DK) under the leadership of Tamil
Social reformer E.V. Ramaswami Periyar.

Q3. Mention the outcomes of Assam Accord of 1985.

Answer: Assam Accord was signed between Rajiv Gandhi-led government and AASU leaders
over the issue of outsiders in 1985:
1. The foreigners who migrated into Assam during and after Bangladesh war and since were to
be identified and deported.
2. The Asom G. ;,a Parishad came to power in 1985 with the promise of resolving the foreign
national problems as well as to build a Golden Assam.

Q4. Which accord proved to be a turning point in the history of Mizoram?

Answer: The accord between Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga of 1986 granted full fledged
statehood with special powers to Mizoram. Even MNF (Mizo National Front) agreed to give up
secessionists struggle.

Q5. What was the role of Congress in the politics of Jammu and Kashmir?
Answer: Congress dominated the politics of J & K between 1953 to 1974 in the following
manner:
1. National Conference remained iconic power with the active support of Congress for sometime
but later merged with the Congress.
2. The Congress gained direct control over the government in state.
3. The Congress party also made attempts to have an agreement between Sheikh Abdullah and
Government of India.
4. In 1974, Indira Gandhi reached an agreement with Sheikh Abdullah and he became the Chief
Minister of State.

Q6. Which communities wanted separate states in the North East region?
Answer: Despite reorganisation of North-East in 1972, autonomy demand arose:
1. Assam communities like Bodos, Karbis and Dimosas demanded separate states.
2. They mobilised public opinion and popular movement and same area was claimed by more
than one community.
3. Federal set up satisfied their autonomy i.e. Karbis and Dimosas were granted autonomy
under district councils while Bodos were granted autonomous council.

Q7. In what ways the issue of outsiders continues to be a live issue in Assam?
Answer: Assam Accord could not solve the problem of immigration:
1. The issue ofoutsiders continues to be alive issue.
2. In Tripura, the original inhabitants have been reduced to being a minority in North-East.
3. The same feelings formed the hostility of local population to Chakma refugees in Mizoram
and Arunachal Pradesh.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. What was the main outcome of Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal accord in July 1985?
Answer: 1. Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab.
2. A separate commission to be appointed to resolve border dispute between Punjab and
Haryana.
3. A tribunal to be set up to settle down the sharing of Ravi-Beas river water among Punjab,
Haryana and Rajasthan.
4. To withdraw the Armed forces special power Act in Punjab.

Q2. What was Goa problem? How was Goa liberated and how did it become part of Indian
Union?
Answer. 1. Goa was under Portuguese alongwith Daman and Diu since 16th century.
2. We expected freedom in 1947 but Portugal refused to withdraw but the people of Goa wanted
to merge with motherland.
3. People of Goa^suppressed from religious conversions and civil rights known as Goa
Problem.
4. In 1961, with in two days Goa, Daman and Diu were liberated from Portugal rule under
Operation Vijay by Government of India.
5. Goa became part of India and in 1987, it attained the status of State Position.

Q3. Describe the outcome of Anandpur Sahib Resolution of 1973.

Answer: Anandpur Sahib Resolution was passed at the conference of Akali Dal at Anandpur
Sahib in 1973:
(a) To ascertain regional autonomy and to redefine centre-state relations.
(b) Sikhs aspirations aimed at bolbala of Sikhs.
(c) It could also be interpreted as a plea for separate sikh nation despite federal spirit.
But, it became controversial due to following reasons:
1. Due to lack of popularity of Akali Dal resolution had a United appeal.
2. Akali government was dismissed in 1980 and it lost its importance.
3. Akali Dal launched a movement on the distribution of water between Punjab, and its
neighbouring states.
4. Movement went into the hands of extremist elements from moderate
Akalis and converted into armed insurgency for which Anandpur Sahib Resolution considered
responsible.

Q4. State one similarity and one difference between the crisis in Punjab and Assam
during 1980s.
Answer: Similarity- It was regional aspirations given to prior importance and solving the crisis
through democratic negotiations. Differences- In Punjab, Akali Dal started the movement for
formation of Punjabi Sabha wdiereas in Assam, the crisis was against the people who were
seen as outsiders or migrants who were considered to be competitors to employment
opportunities.

Q5. How was DMK entered in Indian Politics?

Answer: DMK i.e. Dravid Munetra Kazhagam entered in Indian politics with three demands in
1953-54:
1. To restore original name of Kallkudi railway station.
2. The addition of Tamil Cultural History in &hool curriculum.
3. To eliminate craft education scheme.

Q6. When did Independent India first use referendum procedure?

Answer: In 1967 in the case of Goas liberation:
1. In January 1967, the central government held a special Opinion Poll in Goa asking people to
decide it they wanted to be a part of Maharashtra or remain separate.
2. The majority was in favour of remaining outside of Maharashtra, thus Goa became a Union-
territory.
3. Goa was granted statehood in 1987.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer thequestions:
The Assam Movement from 1979 to 1985 is the best example of such movements against
outsiders. The Assamese suspected that there were huge number of illegal Bengali
Muslim settlers from Bangladesh. They felt that unless these foreign nationals are
detected and deported they would reduce the indigenous Assamese into a minority.
There were other economic issues too. There was widespread poverty and
unemployment in Assam despite the existence of natural resources like oil, tea and coal.
It was felt that these were drained out of the State without any commensurate benefit to
the people.
Questions
1. Name the group that led movement against outsiders in 1979.
2. Why did Assamese seek the detection and deportation of outsiders?
3. What were the economic issues taken up as a part of movement?
Answer:
1. All Assam Students Union (AASU).
2. Because they feared that they would reduce the indigenous Assamese into a minority.
3. (i) There was widespread poverty and
unemployment in Assam despite existence of natural resources like oil, tea and coal.
(ii) It was also felt these were drained out of state without any commensurate benefit to
people.

Q2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer thequestions:
The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic negotiations
rather than through suppression. Look at the situation in the eighties-militancy had
erupted in Punjab: problems were persisting in the North-East: students in Assam were
agitating; Kashmir valley was on the boil. Instead of treating these as simple law and
order problems, the Government of India reached negotiated settlement with regional
movements. This produced a reconciliation which reduced the tensions existing in many
regions. The example of Mizoram shows how political settlement can resolve the
problem of separatism effectively.
Questions
1. How are regional aspirations dangerous for the unity of country?
2. What is meant by democratic negotiations?
3. Who was leading agitation in Assam?
4. What steps were taken by government of India to respond regional aspirations?
Answer:
1. It creates the problem of separatism in the country.
2. Democratic negotiations respect the demand of regional aspirations in place of suppression.
3. The students.
4. (i) Reached negotiated settlement with
regional movements.
(ii) Produced a reconciliation to reduce the tensions existing in many regions.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Describe the secessionist movement of Mizos. How as per the provisions of
constitution, was it resolved on accommodation of diversities?
Answer: 1. After independence, the Mizo hills was made an autonomous district within Assam.
2. Some Mizos believed that they were never a part of British India and not to belong to Indian
Union.
3. The movement of secession gained popular support after Assam government failed to
respond
adequately to great famine of 1959 in Mizo hills.
4. It led to formation of Mizo National Front (MNF) under leadership of Laldenga.
5. In 1966, the MNF started an armed campaign for independence.
6. The MNF fought gurilla war, got support from Pakistan government and secured shelter in
then East Pakistan.
7. At the end oftwo decades ofinsurgency, Mizoram under leadership of Laldenga started
negotiations with Indian government.
8. 1986, a peace-agreement was signed between Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga which granted
statehood to Mizoram with special powers and MNF agreed to give up secessionist struggle.
9. Today, Mizoram is one of the most peaceful places in the region alongwith big strides in
literacy and development.

Q2. Regional aspirations, regional inbalances and regionalism are a hindrance in the
way of national unity of India. Do you agree with the statement?
Answer: Because:
1. Regional aspirations are part of democratic politics.
2. Expression of regional issues is not an abnormal phenomenon.
3. Scotland, Wales, Northern Ireland have regional aspirations in United Kingdom.
4. Regional movements are responded through democratic negotiations rather than
suppression.
5. Its examples are in eighties, militancy erupted in Punjab, problems persisted in the North-
East, students agitated in Assam and Kashmir Valley was on the boil.
6. The government of India settled down some negotiations with these
regional aspirations to reduce tensions in many regions.
7. Mizoram is an example of political settlement to resolve the problem of separation effectively.

Q3. What were the main provisions of Punjab Accord of 1985? How has peace been
restored on seewar lines in Punjab?
Answer: Punjab Accord was an agreement signed between the then Prime Minister Rajiv
Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal, the then President of Akali Dal in 1985 to be known as
Rajiv Gandhi Longowal Accord also to create normalcy in Punjab:
1. Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab.
2. To appoint a separate commission to resolve border dispute between Punjab and Haryana.
3. A tribunal to be set up to settle down sharing of Ravi-Beas river water among Punjab,
Haryana and Rajasthan.
4. To withdraw the Armed forces special power Act in Punjab.
5. To provide agreement for compensation to better treatment to those affected by militancy in
Punjab.
But, peace could not be established easily in Punjab and resulted:
(a) It led to many excesses by police and violation of human rights.
(b) If fragmented the Akali Dal.
(c) Presidents rule was imposed and normal Political process was suspended.
(d) Hence, Political process could not be restored in this atmosphere. Even during elections in
1992, only 24% electors turned out to vote.
Consequently above mentioned added to tension between Punjab and its neighbouring states.

Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1. On a political outline map of India locate and label the following and symbolise them
as indicated:

Questions
1. The 22nd State of India due to its merger.
2. The state out of which the states of Meghalaya, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh were
created.
3. Article 370 has a special significance for this state of India.
4. The state whose leader signed an agreement with Rajiv Gandhi.
5. An important state whose leader was Lai Denga.
6. Two states which were not part of state of Assam at the time of Indias Independence.
7. The state associated with Golden Temple and Operation Blue Star.
Answer:
1. Sikkim 2. Assam
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Punjab
5. Mizoram
6. (a) Manipur (b) Tripura
7. Punjab

Chapter 18

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Unscramble a bunch of disarranged press clipping file of Unni-Munni and arrange
the file chronologically.
(a) Mandal Recommendations and Anti Reservation Stir.
(b) Formation of Janata Dal.
(c) The demolition of Babri Masjid.
(d) Assassination of India Gandhi.
(e) The formation of NDA government.
(f) Godhra incident and its fallout.
(g) Formation of UPA government.
Answer:
(a) Assassination of India Gandhi(1984).
(b) Formation of Janata Dal (1989)
(c) Mandal Recommendations and Anti Reservation Stir (1990)
(d) The demolition of Babri Masjid (1992)
(e) The formation of NDA government (1997)
(g) Formation of UPA government (2004)

Q2. Match the following:

Answer: (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

Q3. State the main issues in Indian politics in the period after 1989. What different
configurations of political parties these differences lead to?
Answer: In the decade of eighties, the country witnessed five main developments which had a
long lasting impact on politics:
1. End of Congress system.
2. Mandal issues
3. New Economic Reforms
4. Babri Masjid Issues
5. Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi 1989 elections led to defeat of Congress and emerged the era
of Multi Party- System when no single party secured majority in Lok Sabha elections since
1989. It led the era of coalition government also when regional parties played an crucial role in
forming a ruling alliance.
Since 1989, there have been nine governments at the centre either coalition government or
minority government supported by other parties. In this phase, government could be formed
only with the participation of many regional parties.
The nineties also saw the emergence of powerful parties to represent Dalits and backward
classes and regional assertions as well.

Q4. In the new era of coalition politics, political parties are not aligning or realigning on
the basis of ideology. What arguments would you put forward to support or oppose this
statement?
Answer: The statement is justified because in the new era of coalition politics the emphasis on
pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliance without
ideological agreement:
1. Coalition politics has shifted the focus from ideological differences to power sharing
arrangements.
2. Most parties of NDA did not agree with the Hindutva ideology of B JP still they came
together to form government and remained in power also for full term.

Q5. Trace the emergence of BJP as a significant force in post-Emergency politics.

Answer: The major trends in the electoral performance of BJP since 1989 can be traced as
follows:
1. In the elections of 1989, the National front under V.P. Singh came to power supported by left
front and BJP from outside because they wanted to keep the Congress out of power. Due to
Mandal Commission Report and implementation of its recommendations forced BJP to
reconsider its support and finally withdrew it. Thus, in November 1990, the rule of National Front
came to an end.
2. In 1996 BJP minority government was formed for a short period. In June 1996 BJP failed to
get majority support in the vote of confidence and thus collapsed.
3. From March 1998 to October 1999, BJP and others formed alliances NDA (National
Democratic Alliance) under the leadership of Atal Bihari Vajpayee. The regional Parties
demanded more share in the government to extend their support.
4. The political competition during nineties and divided between the coalition led by BJP and
coalition led by Congress.

Q6. In spite of the decline of Congress dominance the Congress party continues to
influence politics in the country. Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer: The defeat of Congress Party in 1989 marked an end of Congress dominance over
Indian Party System. But Congress continued to influence politics in country:
1. Congress improved performance and came back to power after mid term elections in 1991.
2. It also supported United Front government.
3. In 1996, the left continued to support the non-Congress government but this time Congress
supported it as both Congress and Left wanted to keep BJP out of power.
4. Thus, Congress remained an important party and ruled country more than any other party
even during the period since 1989. But it lost the kind of centrality it earlier enjoyed in the party
system.

Q7. Many people think that a two-party system is required for successful democracy.
Drawing from Indias experience of last twenty years, write an essay on what advantages
the present party system in India has.
Answer: In the first decade of electoral politics India did not have a recognised opposition party.
But some of vibrant and diverse opposition parties had come into being even before the first
General Election of 1952 as the non-Congress parties. Hence, the roots of almost all the non-
Congress parties of today can be traced to one or the other of the opposition parties of 1950s.
All these opposition parties gained only a representation, still their presence played a crucial
role in maintaining democratic character of system. Hence due to following reasons two party
system is required for successful democracy:
1. Within two party systems, the opposition party offers a sustained and principled criticism of
policies and practices of ruling party keeping it under a strict check.
2. By keeping democratic political alternative alive, these parties prevented the resentment with
the system from turning anti-democratic.
On the basis of above mentioned features it is justifiable to have a two party system which have
following advantages:
1. India has arrived at more competitive politics.
2. Political parties act within the spheres of consensus.
3. -New forms, vision, pathways of development have been identified.
4. Issues like poverty, displacement, minimum wages, livelihood and social security are being
put on political agenda.
5. Issues of justice and democracy are being voiced by various classes, castes and regions to
remind states its responsibility.

Q8. Read the passage and answer the

questions below:
Party politics in India has confronted numerous challenges. Not only has the Congress
system destroyed itself, but the fragmentation of the Congress coalition has triggered a
new emphasis on self-representation which raises questions about the party system and
its capacity to accommodate diverse interest,. An important test facing the polity is to
evolve a party system or political parties that can effectively articulate and aggregate a
variety of interests.
Zoya Hasan
(a) Write a short note on what the author calls challenges of the party system in the light
of what you have read in this chapter.
(b) Given an example from this chapter of the lack of accommodation and aggregation
mentioned in this passage.
(c) Why is it necessary for parties to accommodate and aggregate variety of interests?
Answer: (a) The author calls challenges to coalition government as well as coalition in
Congress party itself to trigger a new emphasis on self-representation.
(b) To unsolve a party system to accommodate diverse interests but the political parties formed
under the leadership of Kanshi Ram for Dalits only.
(c) It is necessary for parties to accommodate and aggregate variety of interests to maintain the
culture of India Unity in Diversity so that there should be no space for separatist movements in
India.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]

Q1. Name two alliances/fronts that formed the government at the centre in 1989 and 1996
respectively.
Answer: National front-1989,United front-1996.
Q2. Mention any two incidents of violence against minority community which are a threat
to democracy.
Answer: 1. Violent anti-Mandal protest
2. Godhra incident

Q3. What is the difference between a coalition party and coalition in Congress system?
Answer: Coalition party government refers government of more than two regional and political
parties whereas coalition in Congress system refers to encouragement of various factions inside
the party with different ideologies.

Q4. Which organisation took up the cause of Bahujans?

Answer: The Backward and Minority Classes Employees Federation (BAMCEF) took various
steps and strong position in favour of political power to Bahujans including SCs, STs, OBCs and
minorities.

Q5. What was the status of BSP?

Answer: The Bahujan Samaj Party emerged under the leadership of Kanshi Ram supported by
Dalit voters in Punjab, Haryana and U.P. But in 1989 and 1991 elections, it achieved a
breakthrough success in U.P.

Q6. When did the phase of coalition politics begin?

Answer: With elections of 1989, coalition politics began in India i.e. National front in 1989,
United Front in 1996 and 1997 and UPA in 2004.

Q7. When were new economic reforms announced?

Answer: In 1991.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]

Q1. AWho was the chairperson of Mandal Commission? State any one recommendation
made by him/her.
Answer: Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal was the chairperson of Mandal Commission set up in
1978 to investigate the extent of educational and social backwardness among various sections
of society and recommend ways to identify these classes.
The Mandal Commission gave its recommendations in 1980:
1. The commission advised that backward classes should be understood to mean backward
castes since many castes other than the SCs were also treated as low in caste hierarchy
2. Reservation 27% seats in educational institutions and government jobs for these groups.
3. It recommended land reforms to improve the condition of OBCs.
4. Hence, Mandal commission made recommendations in economic and occupational
structures.

Q2. State any two major political happenings of 1984 in India.

Answer: 1. Assassination of Indira Gandhi
2. Lok Sabha elections were held.
Q3. What was change in electoral performance of Congress party and BJP from
19842004?
Answer: 1. In the elections of 1989, Congress secured 197 seats but did not get majority.
Therefore, it decided to sit in opposition.
2. The National Front under V.P. Singh came to power supported by left front and BJP from
outside.
3. The assassination of Rajiv Gandhi in May 1991 led to emergence of Congress as the single
largest party and formed the government supported by AIADMK.
4. In 1996, BJP minority government was formed for short period. Later in June 1996 United
Front with the support of Congress formed the
Government and H.D. Deve Gowda became Prime Minister and after 11 months I.K. Gujral
came to power to rule till March 1998.
5. From March 1998 to October 1999, BJP and other parties formed alliances NDA (National
Democratic Alliance) under the leadership of Atal Behari Vajpayee and regional parties
demanded more share in government to extend its support.
6. In the elections of May 2004, Congress and its allies formed UPA (United Progressive
Alliance) and came to power and Manmohan Singh became Prime Minister.

Q4. When was Indias New Economic Policy launched? Who was its chief architect?
Answer: It was launched in 1991 as the structure adjustment programme and it was started by
the then Prime Minister Narasimha Rao:
1. Indias New Economic Policy was launched by the then Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan
Singh.
2. The economic changes first became visible in 1991 and radically changed the direction that
Indian Economy had pursued since independence towards liberalised and open economy.

Q5. What happened to the state government after demolition of Babri Masjid?
Answer: 1. The BJP state government was dismissed.
2. Alongwith that, other states where the BJP was in power, were also put under Presidents
rule.
3. A case against Chief Minister of U.P. was registered in Supreme Court.

Q6. What led to the serious debate over secularism?

Answer: The demolition of disputed mosque at Ayodhya on December 6,1992, by Karseva, led
to a serious debate over secularism:
1. Most political parties condemned the demolition and declared it to be against secularism.
2. A debate took place about using religious sentiments for electoral purposes.

Q7. List the four groups to be emerged in 1990s.

Answer: 1. Parties in coalition with Congress UPA (United Progressive Alliance).
2. Parties in alliance with BJPNDA (National Democratic Alliance).
3. Left front parties (Left Parties).
4. Other parties not to be part of the rest (Others).

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Describe any four major developments in the Indian politics since 1989.
Answer: In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts, a consensus appears to have
emerged among most parties. This consensus consists of four elements:
(i) Agreement on new economic policies: While many groups are opposed to the new economic
policies, most political parties are in support of the new economic policies. Most parties believe
that these policies would lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the
world.
(ii) Acceptance of political and social claims of the backward castes:
Political parties have recognised the social and political claims of the backward castes need to
be accepted. As a result, all political parties now support reservation of seats for the backward
classes in education and employment. Political parties are also willing to ensure that the OBCs
get adequate share of power.
(iii) Acceptance of the role of state level parties in governance of the country: The distinction
between state level and national level parties is fast becoming less important. State level parties
are showing power at the national level and have played a central role in the countrys politics of
last twenty years or so.
(iv) Emphasis on pragmatic consid-erations rather than ideological positions and political
alliances without ideological agreement:
Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideo-logical differences to power
sharing arrangements. Thus, most parties of the NDA did not agree with the Hindutva ideology
of the BJP. Yet, they came together to form a government and remained in power for a full
term.

Q2. When and why did a long phase of coalition politics begin in India?
Answer: The era of coalitions could be seen after 1989 elections onwards. The Congress was
the largest party but did not achieve a single majority, hence it decided to act as opposition
party. This led to National Front (Alliance of Janata Dal and other regional parties). It received
major support from BJP and left front. BJP and left front did not join the government but gave
support from outside. The coalition era had many PMs and some of them held office for short
duration.

Q3. Coal ition government helps in consensus building. Do you agree with the
statement? Give arguments in support of your answer.
Answer: In the midst of severe competition and conflicts, a consensus appears to have
emerged among most parties consisting of following four elements:
1. Most political parties were in support of new economic policies to lead the country to
prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
2. All political parties supported , reservation of seats for backward
classes in education and employment and even to ensure the OBCs to get adequate share of
power.
3. Role of state level parties was accepted in the governance of country.
4. Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power
sharing arrangements. Hence most of the NDA did not agree the Hindutva ideology of BJP, still
they came together to form a government and remained in power for full term.

Q4. Write a note on Hindu-Muslim Riots in Gujarat.

Answer: 1. The Anti-Muslim Riots took place at a station called Godhara in 2002.
2. A fire took place on a bogey full of leorsevakos returning from Ayodhya.
3. The hand of Muslims was suspected behind this fire.
4. Widespread violence took place against muslims in which nearly 1100, mostly muslims were
killed.
5. Human Right commission criticised Gujarat governments role in failing to control violence
and provided relief to victims.
6. Gujarat riots show that the government machinery also becomes susceptible to passion and
alert us the danger involved in using religious sentiments for political purposes.

Passage Based Questions

Q1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer thequestions:
Thus, with the elections of 1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since
then, there have been nine governments at the Centre, all of which have either been
coalition governments or minority governments supported by other parties, which did
not join the government. In this new phase, any government could be formed only with
the participation or support of many regional parties. This applied to the National Front in
1989, the United Front in 1996 and 1997, the NDA in 1997, BJP-led coalition in 1998, NDA
in 1999 and the UPA in 2004.
Questions
1. What is meant by coalition politics?
2. Name any two regional political parties which were a part of coalition government.
3. Write the full form of NDA.
4. What does a minority government mean?
Answer:
1. Coalition politics does not have maj ority even to a single party but parties may enter into an
alliance or get support of other parties to form government.
2. NDA and United front.
3. National Democratic Alliance.
4. Minority governments are supported by other parties which did not join the government.

Q2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Infact the BSP, under Kanshi Rams leadership was envisaged as an organisation based
on pragmatic politics. It derived confidence from the fact that the Bahujans (SC, ST, OBC
and religious minorities) constituted the majority of the population, and were a
formidable political force on the strength of their numbers.
Questions
1. Which organisation was formed by Kanshi Ram?
2. Name any two religious minorities.
3. Why are Bahujans considered a formidable political forces?
Answer:
1. BSP (Bahujan Samaj Party)
2. Muslims and Christians
3. Because Bahujans constituted the majority of population, hence they
were formidable political force on strength of their numbers.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. In 2014 elections, people have voted for a stable government at the Centre. Do you
think that the era of coalition has ended? Support your answer with suitable arguments.
Answer: After Independence, Congress party came in power. It ruled over the country as a
democratic government till 1977. One after the other the government was represented by the
Congress Prime Ministers like Nehru, Shastri and then Mrs. Indira Gandhi. It was due to some
political upheaval; a state Emergency was declared in 1975. During Emergency all the
opposition leaders were jailed and their constitutional powers were seized. It made all the
opposition leaders unite and form first united party in the name of Janata Party which came in
power in 1977. The general election held soon after the Emergency. Though it couldnt last long,
but it started a new concept of rule in India. One after the other, India saw many governments
ruled by alliance group, except a few single-party-led government. But with the elections of
1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since then there have been nine
governments at the centre all of which have either been coalition government or minority
government supported by other parties which did not join the government. The National Front
government in 1989, the United Front government in 1996 and 1997, the NDA government in
1997, 1998 and 1999 and then UPA government in 2004 and 2009 and again BJP-led NDA
government in 2014 have been the coalition governments in India. In none
of these governments any one single party had the number enough to form the government at
its own. But in 2014, there was a change in the pattern. BJP could gain 284 seats in the Lok
Sabha election which was sufficient to form the government at its own -which required to only
272. But as the election was fought with a pre-poll alliance by NDA led by BJP. So the present
government was formed with Narendra Modi, the leader of BJP.
This election shows that people are again turning to the single party government at the centre
which may be stable. People have experienced the lack of stability, lack of policy decision and
lack of proper development in the government ruled by the coalition group.

Q2. In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts in 1989, a consensus appeared
to have emerged among most parties. Explain any three points.(or)
Examine growing consensus over the crucial issues.
Answer: In the midst of severe competition and conflicts, a consensus appears to have
emerged among most parties consisting of following four elements:
1. Most political parties were in support of new economic policies to lead the country to
prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
2. All political parties supported reservation of seats for backward classes in education and
employment and even to ensure the OBCS to get adequate share of power.
3. Role of state level parties was accepted in the governance of country.
4. Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power
sharing arrangements. Hence most of the NDA did not agree with the Hindutva ideology of BJP,
still they come together to form a government and remained in power for full term.

Q3. What was Mandal Commission? Did it try to solve the problems of other Backward
classes? State any two arguments in support of your answer?
Answer: Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal was the chairperson of Mandal commission set up in
1978 to investigate the extent of educational and social backwardness among various sections
of society and recommended way to identify these classes.
The Mandal commission gave its recommendations in 1980:
1. The commission advised that backward classes should be understood to mean backward
castes since many castes other than the SCs were also treated as low in caste hierarchy.
2. Reservation 27% seats in educational institutions and government jobs for these groups.
3. It recommended land reforms to improve the condition of OBCs.
4. Hence, Mandal commission made recommendations in economic and occupational
structures.
The government of India accepted recommendations in 1990:
1. 27% jobs reservation has been made in central and state government.
2. Many Welfare Schemes have also been launched as Swarnima National Backward classes
Finance and Development Corporation.
Picture/Map Based Questions

Q1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Describe the role of such government in Indian Democratic set up.
3. What does this statement Support the government from outside mean?
Answer:
1. A puppet government showing example of coalition government.
2. It plays negative and positive role both. In a negative way, it provides unstable form of
government.
In a positive way, it provides opportunities to regional parties also in forming ruling alliances.
3. No direct participation and position in government but support in the formation of government.

Q2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the picture indicate?
2. Which party is being referred to as one party dominance?
3. Identify female character in the cartoon.
Answer:
1. It depicts change from one party dominance to a multi-party alliance system.
2. Congress.
3. Mrs. Indira Gandhi.