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G.S. Capsule Punjab & Haryana High Court
1.The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent 8. The idea of the Constitution of India was first of all given
Assembly set up: by:
(a) under the Indian Independence Act, 1947 (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) M.N. Roy
(c) through a resolution of the provisional government 9. India became a Sovereign, democratic republic on:
(d) by the Indian National Congress (a) Aug 15, 1947 (b) Jan 30, 1948
2. The Constituent Assembly which framed the Constitution (c) Jan 26, 1950 (d) Nov 26, 1929
for Independent India was set up in : 10. Who among the following is known as the Father of the
(a) 1945 (b) 1946 Indian Constitution?
(c) 1947 (d) 1949 (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Mahatma Gandhi
3. Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Constituent Assembly of India? 11. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting
(a) Sachidananda Sinha (b) B.R. Ambedkar Committee of the Constitution?
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) P. Upendra (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) B.R. Ambedkar
4. Who among the following was the Chairman of the (c) B.N. Rao (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution? 12. Match the following:
(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Tej Bahadur Sapru Constitutional Sourcesprovisions
(c) C. Rajagopalachari (d) B. R. Ambedkar A. Federation 1. U.S.A.
5. The Constituent Assembly for undivided India first met B. Parliamentary 2. Britain
on C. DirectivePrinciple 3. Canada
(a) 6th December, 1946 (b) 9th December, 1946 D. FundamentalRights 4. Ireland
(c) 20th February, 1947 (d) 3rd June, 1947 ABCD ABCD
6. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser (a)2141 (b)2314
to the Constituent Assembly of India ? (c)3421 (d)3241
(a) Dr. B.N. Rao (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 13. Which of the following features and their source is
(c) K.M. Munshi (d) M.C. Setalvad wrongly matched?
7. Which of the following is/are correctly matched? (a) Judicial review - British practice
I. Indias National Song - Vande Mataram (b) Concurrent List - Australian Constitution
II. Indias National Flower Rose (c) Directive Principles Irish Constitution
III. Indias National Animal Tiger (d) Fundamental Rights - U.S. Constitution
IV. Indias National Bird Eagle 14. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian
(a) I and IV (b) I, II and III Federation from the Constitution of :
(c) II, III and IV (d) I and III (a) U.S.A (b) Canada
(c) Ireland (d) U.K.
15. Which of the following describes India as a Secular (a) Birth (b) Acquiring Property
State ? (c) Descent (d) Naturalisation
(a) Fundamental Rights 24. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R.
(b) Ninth Schedule Ambedkar as The Heart and Soul of the Constitution ?
(c) Directive Principles (a) Right of Freedom of Religion
(d) Preamble to the Constitution (b) Right to Property
16. The Constitution of India is designed to work as a (c) Right to Equality
unitary government: (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(a) in normal times 25. Protection of the interests of the minorities is envisaged
(b) in times of emergency in which of the following articles?
(c) when the parliament so desires (a) 14 (b) 19
(d) at the will of the President (c) 29 (d) 32
17. From which of the countries, Constitution of India has 26. On whom does the Constitution confer special
adopted fundamental duties? responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
(a) USA (b) Canada (a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court
(c) Erstwhile USSR (d) UK (c) President (d) State legislature
18. The Indian Constitution is regarded as : 27. Under which Article of the Constitution are the Cultural
(a) federal (b) unitary and Educational Rights granted?
(c) parliamentary (a) Article 29 and 31 (b) Article 29 and 32
(d) federal in form and unitary in spirit (c) Article 29 and 30 (d) Article 30 and 31
19. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of 28. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under:
Preamble from the: (a) fundamental right (b) legal rights
(a) Italian Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution (c) constitutional rights (d) natural rights
(c) French Constitution (d) Constitution of USA 29. Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis
20. The word socialist secular and unity and integrity of of:
the Nation were added to our Constitution by : (a) religion (b) caste
nd
(a) 42 Amendment of the Constitution (c) population (d) colour
th
(b) 44 Amendment of the Constitution 30. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable
(c) 46thAmendment of the Constitution according to :
(d) none of the above (a) Article 15 (b) Article 16
21. The correct nomenclature of India according to the (c) Article 17 (d) Article 15
Preambleis: 31. Right to education is a fundamental right emanating
(a) Sovereign Secular, Democratic Republic from right to :
(b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic (a) Freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(l)(a)
(c) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic (b) Culture and education under Articles 29 and 30
(d) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democracy. c (c) life and personal liberty under Article 21
22. The Constitution names our country as : (d) Equality before law and equal protection of law under
(a) Bharat (b) India, that is Bharat Article14
(c) Hindustan (d) Aryavarta 32. Regarding equality before law, the Indian Constitution
23. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a makes exceptions in the case of:
citizen of India ? (a) the President or a Governor (b) foreign sovereigns
(d) List of religions in India 53. An individual who is not a member of either House of
44. Which language is not recognised in the 8th Schedule Parliament can be appointed a member of the Council of
though it is an official language of a state ? Ministers, but he has to become a member of either House
(a) English (b) Sindhi within a period of :
(c) Sanskrit (d) Kashmiri (a) 1 month (b) 2 months
45. Which part of the Constitution incorporates special (c) 3 months (d) 6 months
provisions with regard to the state of Jammu and Kashmir? 54. Which one of the following does not constitute the
(a) Part VI (b) Part IX Electoral College for electing the President of India?
(c) Part XI (d) Part XXI (a) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
46. National emergency has been declared so far : (b) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(a) once (b) twice (c) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each
(c) thrice (d) four times state
47. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 352 (d) Elected members of the Legislative Council
must be approved by the Parliament within : 55. If the President wants to resign from office, he may do
(a) 1 month (b) 6 weeks so by writing to the :
(c) 2 months (d) 3 months (a) Vice-President (b) Chief Justice of India
48. The Presidents Rule in a state means that the state is (c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
ruled by: 56. The President of India is :
(a) the President directly (a) Commander-in-Chief of Defence Forces
(b) a caretaker government (b) Supreme Commander of Armed Forces
(c) the Chief Minister nominated by the President (c) Head of the Government
(d) the Governor of the State (d) Supreme Commander of Defence Forces of the Union
49. The Presidents rule is imposed for the period of: and Executive Head of the Union
(a) 3 months 57. The President can be removed by the way of
(b) 6 months impeachment which can be made only :
(c) till the next election is held (a) by the Supreme Court
(d) it depends upon the Presidents wish (b) by the Rajya Sabha
50. During the proclamation of National Emergency: (c) by the Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha through
(a) all fundamental rights are suspended impeachment
(b) Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended (d) cannot be impeached
(c) Article 32 cannot be suspended 58. Which of the following appointments is not made by the
(d) Article 19 cannot be suspended President of India ?
51. Anglo Indian representatives in the Lok Sabha are (a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
nominated in terms of the Article: (b) Chief Justice of India
(a) 331 (b) 80 (c) Chief of the Air Force
(c) 370 (d) 333w w . ma k e my e x a m. i (d) Chief of the Army
52. Who administers the oath of office to the President? 59. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is :
(a) Chief Justice of India (a) 30 years (b) 35 years
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) 23 years (d) 21 years
(c) Prime Minister 60. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the
(d) Vice President President of India?
(a) Only Lok Sabha (a) on the advice of the Prime Minister
(b) Rajya Sabha (b) in his own discretion
(c) Any Vidhan Sabha (c) on the advice of the Vice- President
(d) Either House of Parliament (d) on the basis of election results
61. The President takes an oath before assuming office in 69. The Vice-Presidents letter of resignation is to be
the presence of the Chief Justice of India. If the Chief addressed to the:
Justice is not available, he takes the oath in the presence of : (a) Deputy Chaiman of Raiya Sabha
(a) the Vice-President (b) Chief Justice of India
(b) the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court (c) President
(c) the Attorney-General (d) Speaker
(d) Election Commissioner 70. Which one of the following resigned as Vice-President
62. The President of India does not has the power of: to contest for the office of the President?
(a)Absolute veto (b)Suspensive veto (a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c)Pocket veto (d) Qualified veto (b) V.V. Giri
63. The executive authority of the Union is vested by the (c) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
Constitution in the : (d) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(a) Prime Minister (b) President 71. When the Chairman of Rajya Sabha acts as President,
(c) Cabinet (d) Union Legislature the duties of the Chairman are performed by:
64. Which of the following Chief Justices of India has acted (a) himself
as President of India? (b) a newly elected Chairman
(a) M. Hidayatullah (b) P.B. Gajendra Gadkar (c) the Deputy Chairman
(c) P.N. Bhagwati (d) All the above (d) a member of Rajya Sabha deputed by the Chairman
65. The pardoning power given to the President of India 72. Who elects the Vice-President?
under Article 72 can be exercised: (a) The same electoral college which elects the President
(a) only after the trial and on the sentence of conviction (b) Members of the Rajya Sabha
(b) during or after trial but never before trial (c) An electoral college consisting of members of
(c) at any time before, during or after the trial Parliament
(d) either before or after the trial but never during the trial of (d) Members of Parliament at a joint meeting
the case 73. The Union Council of Ministers consists of:
66. The only President of India who was elected unopposed (a) Prime Minister
is: (b) Cabinet Minister
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (b) Dr. Zakir Hussain (c) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States
(c) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (d) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (d) Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy
67. Who acts as the President of India when neither the inisters
President nor the Vice President is available? 74. The portfolios are allocated to the ministers by :
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (a) the President
(b) Chief Justice of India (b) the Prime Minister
(c) Auditor General of India (c) collective decision of the Council of Ministers
(d) Seniormost Governor of a State (d) individual choice
68. Appointment of the members of the Council of Ministers 75. The Prime Minister is :
is made by the President: (a) elected by Lok Sabha
83. Who, according to the Anti-Defection Act, is the final (a) 3 months (b) 6 months
authority to decide whether a member of Lok Sabha has (c) 9 months (d) 1 year
incurred disqualification due to defection? 92. The Union Territories get representation in:
(a) Speaker (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(b) President (c) Both Houses of Parliament
(c) Election Commission (d) None of these
(b) from civil cases only (b) The court that maintains records of all lower courts
(c) from criminal cases only (c) The court that can punish for its contempt
(d) cannot claim immunity either from civil or from criminal (d) The court that is competent to give directions and
cases issue writs
103. Representatives of Union Territories in Lok Sabha are 110. Which is not an eligibility criterion for appointment as
chosenby: a Judge of the Supreme Court ?
(a) direct elections (b) indirect elections (a) must have been a High Court Judge for at least 5
(c) nomination (d) all the above means years
104. Who is considered the guardian of the Public Purse? (b) must have attained the age of 55 years
(a) Parliament (c) must have been an advocate of a High Court for
(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General not less than 10 years
(c) Public Accounts Committee (d) must be, in the opinion of the President, a
(d) The President distinguished jurist
105. In the case of a deadlock between the two Houses of 111. Judicial Review function of the Supreme Court
the Parliaent, the joint sitting is presided over by the: means the power to :
(a) President (a) review its own judgement
(b) Vice-President (b) review the functioning of judiciary in the country
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) examine the constitutional validity of the laws
(d) Member of the Lok Sabha specifically elected for the (d) undertake periodic review of the Constitution
purpose 112. The Supreme Court of India decides the disputes
106. Which of the following non-members of Parliament regarding the election of:
has the right to address it? (a) the Prime Minister
(a) Solicitor-General of India (b) the Speaker and Deputy Speaker
(b) Chief Justice of India (c) the President and Vice-President
(c) Attorney General of India (d) all of the above
(d) Chief Election Commissioner 113. Which of the following is true about the Supreme
107. How many members of the Lok Sabha must support a Court?
motion of no confidence in the government, before it can (a) It has only the AppellateJurisdiction
be admitted by the Speaker? (b) It is the highest federal court of India
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) It does not have the Original Jurisdiction
(c) 35 (d) 50 (d) It can amend the Constitution
108. Which of the following states does not have a 114. Which one of the following comes under the
bicameral legislature? jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme
(a) Bihar (b) Karnataka Court ?
(c) Rajasthan (d) Maharashtra (a) Disputes between the Centre and the States
108. Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal in (b) Disputes between the States
respect of the Constitution of India? (c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(a) Parliament (b)President (d) Protection against the violation of the Constitution
(c) Supreme Court (d) Union Cabinet 115. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are drawn
109. What is meant by Court of Record? from the:
(a) The court that preserves all its records (a) Grants-in-aid (b)Contingency Fund
(c) Consolidated Fund (d)Public Accounts 123. The judges of the Supreme Court take an oath or
116. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India is to hold affirmation before entering upon office, conducted by :
office until he attains the age of: (a) Chief Justice of India
(a) 58 years (b)60years (b) President or Vice-President
(c) 62 years (d)65years (c) President or some person appointed by him
117. At present the Supreme Court consists of how many (d) none of the above
judges besides the Chief Justice? 124. To whom does a judge of the Supreme Court address
(a) 30 (b)18 his resignation if he wants to leave office before his
(c) 24 (d)25 term is complete?
118. The Supreme Court was set up under: (a)Chief Justice of India (b)Prime Minister
(a) Pitts India Act (b)Regulating Act (c)President (d) Union Law Minister
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1861 125. The right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1892 Court on any question of law or fact belongs to:
119. Which Judge of the Supreme Court was unsuccessfully (a) the President (b)High Courts
sought to be impeached? (c) the Governor (d)all these
(a) Justice H.R. Khanna 126. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
(b) Justice A.N. Grover :
(c) Justice M. Hidayatullah (a) the United Kingdom (b)Australia
(d) Justice Ramaswami (c) the United States (d)Canada
120. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed: 127. Which of the following amendments curtailed the
(a) by the President power of Judicial review of the Supreme Court and the
(b) by the President in consultation with the Chief High Courts?
Justice of India (a) 24th (b)26th
(c) by the President in consultation with the Chief (c) 42th (d)44th
Justice of India and out of the judges of the 128. Which of the following writs is issued by the court in
Supreme Court and High Court as he may deem case of illegal detention of a person?
necessary for the purpose (a) Habeas Corpus (b)Mandamus
(d) by the President in consultation with Prime (c) Certiorari (d)Quo Warranto
Minister 129. Under the writ of Mandamus, the Court can:
121. Which is not correct statement: The Supreme Court: (a) ask the person to be produced
(a) is a watch-dog of citizens liberty (b) ask to let a person free for a temporary period
(b) interprets the Constitution (c) order to transfer the case from one court
(c) protects the Directive Principles of State Policy (d) direct the Government to do or not to do a thing
(d) settles electoral disputes of the President and Vice- 130. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of
President of India personal freedom?
122. Public Interest Litigation applies to any case of public (a) Mandamus (b)Habeas Corpus
injury arising from (c) Quo Warranto (d)Certiorari
(a) the breach of any public duty 131. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce
(b) the violation of a constitutional provision a Fundamental Right?
(c) the violation of the law (a) Habeas Corpus (b)Mandamus
(d) all the above (c) Prohibition (d)Certiorari
132. The appropriate writ issued by the court to quash the (b) Delhi High Court
appointment of a person to a public office is that of : (c) Himachal Pradesh High Court
(a) Prohibition (b)Quo Warranto (d) Guwahati High Court
(c) Certiorari (d)Mandamus 141. A retired judge of High Court cannot:
133. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court (a) practice in the Supreme Court
is : (b) practice in any High Court of India
(a) 62 years (b)65 years (c) practice in the High Court from where he has
(c) 58 years (d)60 years retired
134. The oath to a High Court judge is administered by the : (d) practice in any Court of India
(a) Chief Justice of India 142. Which of the following High Courts covers more than
(b) Chief Justice of that High Court one State/Union Territories ?
(c) Governor (a) Delhi (b)Allahabad
(d) President (c) Guwahati (d)None of these
135. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court 143. The only Union Territory which has a High Court of
are appointed by the : its own:
(a) President (a) Delhi (b)Lakshadweep
(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (c) Chandigarh (d)Daman and Diu
(c) Governor of the concerned state 144. Chennai High Court has the jurisdiction over:
(d) Chief Minister of the concerned state (a) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
136. The Constitution gives the powers of superintendence (b) Tamil Nadu and Pondicherry
over all subordinate courts to the High Courts under (c) Kerala and Lakshadweep
Article: (d) Lakshadweep and Tamil Nadu
(a) 226 (b)227 145. The Governor is appointed by the:
(c) 228 (d)229 (a) Prime Minister
137. The High Courts in India were first started at: (b) President
(a) Bombay, Madras, Calcutta (c) Chief Minister
(b) Delhi and Calcutta (d) Chief Justice
(c) Bombay, Delhi, Madras 146. The membership of a State Legislative Council :
(d) Madras and Bombay (a) shall not be more than l/3rd of the membership of
138. Who decides the number of judges in a High Court? the Legislative Assembly
(a) State Government (b)President (b) shall not be less than 40
(c) Governor of the State (d)Parliament (c) shall not be less than 2/3rd of total membership of
139. A common High Court for two or more States and/or Lok Sabha
Union Territory may be established by : (d) both (a) and (b)
(a) President 147. The State of Jammu and Kashmir was accorded
(b) Parliament by Law special status under :
(c) Governor of the State (a) Article 356 of the Constitution
(d) Chief Justice of India (b) Article 370 of the Constitution
140. The High Court which has the distinction of having the (c) Articles 356 and 370 of the Constitution
first woman Chief Justice is (d) none of these
(a) Allahabad High Court 148. The special status of Jammu and Kashmir implies the
State has: 157. Which of these States has the bicameral legislature ?
(a) a separate defence force 1. Bihar 2.Gujarat
(b) a separate Constitution 3. Karnataka 4.Jammu & Kashmir
(c) a separature Judiciary 5. Maharashtra 6.U.P.
(d) all of the above (a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (b)1, 3, 4, 5, 6
149. Who among the following is a legal advisor of the (c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (d)All of these
State Government as provided by the Constitution? 158. The Central Governments exclusive powers are
(a) Public Prosecutor enumerated in the :
(b) Solicitor General (a) Concurrent List (b) State List
(c) Advocate General (c) Union List (d) Federal List
(d) Attorney General 159. Under the Constitution, the residuary powers vest with
150. Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir? the:
(a) Chief Minister of the state (a) President (b)Supreme Court
(b) Chief Justice of the High Court (c) Union Government (d) State Governments
(c) President 160. A proclamation of emergency by the President:
(d) Prime Minister (a) cannot apply to Jammu and Kashmir
151. The first woman Governor of a state in free India was (b) shall have effect in Jammu and Kashmir only on
(a) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu the concurrence of the State Legislature
(b) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani (c) shall apply to Jammu and Kashmir only on
(c) Mrs Indira Gandhi endorsement by its Governor
(d) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit (d) has to be separately issued for Jammu and
152. What is the maximum number of elected members in a Kashmir
State Assembly? 161. The first general elections in India were held in:
(a) 250 (b)300 (a) 1949 (b)1950
(c) 600 (d)500 (c) 1951 (d)1947
153. A minister in a State is individually responsible to the: 162. The State Election Commission can be removed from
(a)Legislature (b)Governor
(c)Chief Minister (d)President
154. The Governor does not appoint:
(a) judges of the High Court
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(d) Advocate-General of the State
155. A post under a State is held during the pleasure of the :
(a) President (b)Governor
(c) Parliament (d)State Legislature
1 b 21 c 41 b 61 b 81 b
2 b 22 b 42 a 62 d 82 a
3 a 23 b 43 b 63 b 83 a
4 d 24 d 44 a 64 a 84 c
5 b 25 c 45 d 65 a 85 a
6 a 26 b 46 c 66 c 86 a
7 d 27 c 47 a 67 b 87 c
8 d 28 a 48 d 68 a 88 c
9 c 29 a 49 b 69 c 89 a
10 a 30 c 50 b 70 b 90 c
11 a 31 c 51 a 71 c 91 b
12 d 32 a 52 a 72 c 92 c
13 a 33 b 53 d 73 d 93 d
14 b 34 b 54 d 74 b 94 b
15 d 35 b 55 a 75 c 95 b
16 b 36 b 56 d 76 d 96 b
17 c 37 d 57 c 77 B 97 d
18 d 38 a 58 a 78 B 98 b
19 d 39 c 59 b 79 D 99 b
20 a 40 c 60 d 80 C 100 b
16. During the Mughal period which one of the following of:
traders first came to India? (a) Aurangzeb (b) Shah Jahan
(a) Portuguese (b) Dutch (c) Jahangir (d) Akbar
(c) Danish (d) English 28. Tobacco was introduced for cultivation during the reign
17. The first Indian ruler to organise Haj pilgrimage at the of
expense of the state was: (a) Akbar (b) Sher Shah Suri
(a) Alauddin Khilji (b) Firoz Tughlaq (c) Jahangir (d) Aurangzeb
(c) Akbar (d) Aurangzeb 29. Which Sikh guru helped the rebellious prince Khusrau
18. The coin rupia was first issued by and got executed by Jahangir?
(a) Sher Shah (b) Alauddin Khilji (a) Guru Hargovind (b) Guru Gobind Singh
(c) Akbar (d) Muhammad-bin Tughlaq (c) Guru Arjun Dev (d) Guru Tegh Bahadur
19. Who was the ruler of medieval India who Is credited with 30. Who among the following was the first Mughal emperor
the building of the Grand Trunk Roads to allow Britishers to establish trade links with India?
(a) Baba (b) Sher Shah Suri (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Jahangir (d) Krishnadeva Raya (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
20. Who was the Afghan ruler of India whose administrative 31. Which Mughal king tried to stop the practice of sati?
system was emulated by the British? (a) Akbar (b) Humayun
(a) Bairam Khan (b) Sher Shah (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
(c) Muhammad Shah (d) Ahmad Shah 32. Itmad-ud-daulas tomb at Agra was built by:
21. Tulsidas was a contemporary of: (a) Akbar (b) Nur Jahan
(a) Babar (b) Akbar (c) Jahangir (d) Shah Jahan
(c) Jahangir (d) Shahjahan 33. Who among the following deserves the credit for the
22. Buland Darwaza built by Akbar, is to commemorate the
victory of
(a) Orissa (b) Bengal
(c) Delhi (d) Gujarat
23. When did Vasco da Gama come to India?
(a) 1492 (b) 1498
(c) 1398 (d) 1542
24. Which Mughal emperor gave land for the construction of
the Golden Temple at Amritsar?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
25. Sher Shah is credited for introducing for the first time the
following measures except:
(a) postal system (b) spy system
(c) currency system
(d) land revenue system based on scientific principles
26. Who among the following was regarded as Zinda pir?
(a) Babar (b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir (d) Aurangzeb
27. Upanishads were translated into Persian during the reign
1 a 21 b 41 d 61 c 81 c
2 b 22 d 42 a 62 a 82 d
3 c 23 b 43 c 63 d 83 d
4 b 24 d 44 c 64 d 84 b
5 b 25 c 45 b 65 b 85 b
6 b 26 d 46 c 66 a 86 c
7 a 27 b 47 d 67 b 87 b
8 a 28 c 48 c 68 c 88 d
9 b 29 c 49 b 69 c 89 a
10 d 30 b 50 d 70 b 90 c
11 a 31 d 51 c 71 d 91 c
12 a 32 b 52 c 72 a 92 d
13 d 33 b 53 a 73 b 93 c
14 a 34 b 54 d 74 c 94 a
15 d 35 a 55 c 75 d 95 c
16 a 36 b 56 c 76 d 96 a
17 c 37 c 57 b 77 c 97 c
18 a 38 d 58 b 78 b 98 b
19 b 39 d 59 d 79 b
20 b 40 d 60 c 80 b
1. Who is called the Father of Economics? (b) Directive Principles of State policy
(a) Max Muller (b)Karl Marx (c) Fundamental Duties
(c) Adam Smith (d)None of these (d) Preamble
2. India has: 9. Economic survey is published by:
(a) Socialistic economy (b)Gandhian economy (a) Ministry of Finance
(c) Mixed economy (d)Free economy (b) Planning Commission
3. India opted for Mixed Economy in: (c) Govt, of India
(a) Framing of the Constitution (d) Indian Statistical Institute
(b) Second Five Year Plan 10. Dadabhai Naoroji theorised on the drain of wealth
(c) Industrial Policy of 1948 from India in his book:
(d) none of these (a) Poverty under British Rule in India
4. Mixed Economy means : (b) Poverty in British Rule in India
(a) co-existence of small scale and large scale (c) Poverty and Un-British Rule in India
industries (d) Poverty of Economic Drain in British India
(b) co-existence of the rich and the poor 11. The first attempt to initiate economic planning in India
(c) co-existence of private and public sector was made by :
(d) assigning equal importance to both agriculture and (a) Balwantrai Mehta (b)Vallabhbhai Patel
heavy industries (c) M. Visvesvaraya (d)Jawaharlal Nehru
5. Who wrote the book Planned Economy for India? 12. The strategy of Rolling plan was adopted during the
(a) M. Visvesvaraya (b)Sardar Vallabhbhai Prime Ministership of :
Patel (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d)Mahatma Gandhi (b) Indira Gandhi
6. Economic Planning is a subject: (c) Morarji Desai
(a) in the Union List (d) Rajiv Gandhi
(b)in the State List 13. The Second Five Year Plan laid more stress upon :
(c) in the Concurrent List (a) agriculture
(d) Unspecified in any special list (b) industrialisation
7. Niti Auyog is planning a new framework for : (c) removing poverty
(a) 5 year plans (d) self-reliance
(b) Finance Commission 14. Absolute Poverty means :
(c) Budget (a) poverty in terms of absolute number of people
(d) All of above (b) poverty in terms of the basic minimum calorie
8. Planning in India derives its objectives from: requirements
(a) Fundamental Rights (c) poverty in terms of the prevailing price level
(c) capital expenditure is more than capital revenue (b) Geneva and Vienna
(d) total expenditure is more than current revenue (c) New York and Geneva
69. Fiscal deficit in the budget means: (d) Both Washington DC
(a) Revenue deficit plus the net borrowings of the 76. Voting rights in the IMF are distributed on the basis of
government :
(b) Budgetary deficit plus the net borrowings of the (a) one country, one vote
government (b) proportion to the share of the income of the
(c) Capital deficit plus revenue deficit country in the world income
(d) Primary deficit minus capital deficit (c) proportion to contributions given by each country
70. Net factor income from abroad added to GDP gives: (d) proportion to quota alloted to countries from time
(a) GNP (b)NNP to time
(c) NDP (d) Per Capita Income 77. Human Development Index comprises literacy rates,
71. Gross National Income is always more than Net life expectancy at birth and:
National Income because it includes: (a) gross domestic product per head in the US dollars
(a) foreign income (b) gross domestic product per head at real purchasing
(b) capital consumption allowance power
(c) indirect taxes (c) gross national product in US dollars
(d) direct taxes (d) national income per head in US dollars
72. National income refers to: 78. The earlier name of the WTO was :
(a) money value of goods and services produced in a (a) UNIDO (b) UNCTAD
country during a year. (c) OECD (d) GATT
(b) money value of stocks and shares of a country 79. Special Drawing Rights (SDR) facility is available at
during a year. (a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(c) money value of capital goods produced by a (b) World Bank (IBRD)
country during a year. (c) International Development Association (IDA)
(d) money value of consumer goods produced by a (d) Organisation of Economic Cooperation and
country during a year. Development (OECD)
73. BOP (Balance of Payment) refers to : 80. The headquarters of World Trade Organisation is in :
(a) Transactions in the flow of capital (a) Montreal (b)Seattle
(b) Transactions relating to receipts and payment of (c) Geneva (d)The Hague
invisibles 81. The headquarters of OPEC (Organisation of Petroleum
(c) Transactions relating only to exports and imports Countries) is at:
(d) Systematic record of all its economic transaction (a) Vienna (b)Kuwait City
with the rest of the world (c) Algeria (d)Tehran
74. Core industries include : 82. Who is the originator of Green Revolution in India?
(a) basic industries (a) Norman E. Borlaug
(b) industries catering to defence requirements (b) M.S. Swaminathan
(c) critical industries (c) Garry Backer
(d) all the above (d) None of these
75. The headquarters of IMF and World Bank are located 83. What is Green Gold?
at: (a) Tea (b)Coffee
(a) Geneva and Montreal (c) Gold (d)Rice
84. Which State produces maximum pulses in the country? (d) Geographically developed regions as defined by
(a) Madhya Pradesh the UNDP
(b) Uttar Pradesh 88 . Who is regarded as the founder of the scientific
(c) Orissa Socialism?
(d) Maharashtra (a) Rousseau (b) Karl Marx
85. Buffer stocks of foodgrains have helped the (c) Engels (d) Lenin
Government to achieve all but one of the following: 89. What is Laissez-faire?
(a) Solve food problem (a) Mixed economy
(b) Maintain Public Distribution System (PDS) (b) Controlled economy
(c) Implement employment generation programmes (c) Non-interference of Government in economic
(d) Provide balanced diet to masses affairs
86. India is said to be in the second stage of the (d) None of these
demographic transition because: 90. From the view cf International economy, Third World
(a) Both birth and death rates are high implies:
(b) Birth rate is high but death rate is declining due to (a) the developed countries
improvement in healthy services (b) the developing countries
(c) Death rates and birth rates are declining sharply (c) block led by U.S.A., U.K. etc.
(d) None of the above (d) None of these
87. GDR means: 91. In which one of the following countries is Rupee its
(a) gross domestic ratio which is a macro aggregate currency?
(b) globed depository receipt which is the (a) Bhutan (b) Malaysia
mechanism to raise funds from international (c) Maldives (d) Seychelles
market
(c) global development range which has been set up
by UNO for developing countries
1 c 21 b 41 c 61 b 81 a
2 c 22 b 42 b 62 b 82 b
3 c 23 b 43 b 63 c 83 a
4 c 24 d 44 d 64 c 84 a
5 a 25 d 45 a 65 c 85 d
6 c 26 a 46 b 66 c 86 b
7 a 27 b 47 d 67 b 87 b
8 b 28 d 48 d 68 a 88 b
9 a 29 c 49 c 69 b 89 c
10 c 30 d 50 d 70 a 90 b
11 c 31 c 51 b 71 b 91 d
12 c 32 c 52 b 72 a
13 b 33 b 53 d 73 d
14 b 34 b 54 b 74 d
15 c 35 b 55 a 75 d
16 c 36 c 56 c 76 d
17 c 37 c 57 d 77 b
18 c 38 c 58 b 78 d
19 b 39 a 59 a 79 a
20 c 40 a 60 c 80 c
1. The 8th Global Entrepreneurship Summit 2017 create land bank for industrial allocation?
(GES 2017) was held in: a.Madhya Pradesh
a.Gurgaon b.Jharkhand
b.New Delhi c.Odisha
c.Hyderabad d.West Bengal
d.Chennai
9. World Habitat Day is celebrated on:
2. 3rd India International Science Festival will be a.1st October
held in: b.2nd October
a.Chennai c.3rd October
b.Hyderabad d.4th October
c.New Delhi
d.Jaipur 10. Who among the following has not received the
Nobel Prize for Medicine 2017?
3. ARPAN 3.0 is a software related to: a.Michael Rosbash
a.Finance b.Michael W. Young
b.Defence c.Jeffrey C Hall
c.Agriculture d.Michael J. Naurman
d.Child Safety
11. The panel to examine the sub-categorisation of
4. International Translation Day is celebrated on: Other Backward Classes (OBCs) will be
a.29th September headed by:
b.30th September a.Justice Dipak Misra
c.1st October b.Justice Rohini
d.2nd October c.Justice A R Dave
d.Justice RM Lodha
5. International Day of Older Persons is observed
on: 12. The theme for the World Habitat Day 2017 is:
a.Ist October a.Housing Policies: Affordable Homes
b.2nd October b.Clean Habitat, Safe Habitat
c.30th September c.Sustainable Habitat for Survival
d.3rd October d.Habitat and Sustainable Environment
6. With reference to recently launched software, 13. UN conference on Housing and Sustainable
ARPAN stands for: Urban Development is also known as:
a.Army Record Office Process Automation a.Habitat I Conference
b.Army Related Personal Automation Number b.Habitat II Conference
c.Aerial Record Process Automation Number c.Habitat III Conference
d.None of the above d.Habitat IV Conference
7. Nationwide free eye check-up campaign has 14. International Day of Non-Violence has been
recently been launched by: adopted by:
a.NITI Ayog a.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
b.National Highway Authority of India b.United Nations General Assembly (UNGA)
(NHAI) c.United Nations Convention Framework for
c.Department of Science and Technology Peace
d.None of the above d.International Court of Justice (ICJ)
19. Soumya Swaminathan has been appointed as 26. Sovereign Gold Bond of series III can-not be
the new Deputy Director General of: sold by:
a.World Health Organization (WHO) a.Non-Banking Financial Company
b.World Trade Organization (WTO) b.Banks
c.United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) c.National Stock Exchange
d.United Nations Development Program
(UNDP)
42. Frugal engineering is defined as the process 49. The theme for the World Maritime Day 2017
of: is:
A raising the profit of a firm by reducing A Connecting the Globe
labour and capital cost B Connecting People to People
B reducing the complexity and cost of a good C Connecting Ships, Ports and People
and its production D Connecting Ports
C accelerating the profit of a firm by adoption
of science-based innovations
D increasing customer base by offering 50. International Maritime Organization (IMO)
discounts to customers has its Headquarters in:
A Paris
B London
43. The base year for the calculation of all-India
Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is: C Shanghai
D Tokyo
A 2004-05
B 2005-06
51. The World Maritime Day is celebrated on:
C 2010-11
A 27th September
D 2011-12
B 28th September
44. Which of the following states have used Voter C 29th September
D 30th September
Verified Paper Audit Trial (VVPAT) system
for the entire assembly election?
52. In context of India and Norway, (NIPI) stands
A Gujarat
for:
B Goa
C Maharashtra A Norway India Partnership Initiative
D Karnataka B Norway India Parallel Initiative
C Norway India Partnership Idea
D Norway India Prime Initiative
45. Electoral Bond Scheme will target:
A Funding of Political Parties
53. The benefits of Electronic Voting Machines
B Election Expenditure of the candidates
C Party Symbol (EVMs) are:
A They are ecofriendly
D Penalties for violating the Moral Code of
B Faster counting of votes
Conduct
C Greater transparency
D All of the above
46. TK Viswanathan Committee has been
constituted for:
A Women safety 54. World Rabies Day is celebrated on:
A 27th September
B Demonetization
B 28th September
C Hate speech in public
C 29th September
D Hate speech on internet
D 1st October
83. International Day of Peace is celebrated on: 91. Mars Orbitor Mission (MOM) aims to scan the
A 20th September Martian atmosphere for which of the following
B 21st September gases?
C 22nd September A Oxygen
84. Saubhagya scheme has been launched by the B Carbon di oxide
A Ministry of: C Methane
B Power D Hydrogen
C Rural Development
D Women and Child Development 92. DRUZBA is a joint military exercise between:
AYUSH A India and China
B Pakistan and China
85. Who will be the head of the recently C India and Russia
constituted Economic Advisory Council to the D Russia and Pakistan
Prime Minister (EAC-PM)?
A Ratan Watal 93. Recently Tribal Cooperative Marketing
B Dr. Ashima Goyal Development federation of India Limited
C Bibek Debroy (TRIFED) has signed an MoU with:
D Dr. Surjit Bhalla A Google
B Amazon
86. The recently constituted Economic Advisory C Snapdeal
Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) will D Infosys
have _ members. 94. Government has launched Pt. Deen Dayal
A3 Upadhyaya Vigyan Gram Sankul Pariyojna in:
B5 A Uttar Pradesh
C6 B Uttarakhand
D4 C Madhya Pradesh
D Karnataka
87. According to the World Nuclear Industry
Status Report 2017, India is on the _ rank. 95. Pt. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Vigyan Gram
A 1st Sankul Pariyojna is related to:
B 10th A Skill development
C 3rd B Skill utilization
D 5th C Science labs
D None of the above
88. DRUZBA 2017 was recently held in:
A China 96. Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat Scheme
B Russia focuses upon:
C India A Women empowerment
D Pakistan B Health
C Environment
89. INS TARASA is a: D All of the above
A Submarine
B Missile 97. The Government has launched Deen Dayal
C Aircraft Carrier Hastkala sankul at:
D Offshore Patrol Vessel A Ahmedabad
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. D
11. B 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. C
16. D 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. B
21. C 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. A
26. A 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. B
31. B 32. D 33. A 34. A 35. B
36. B 37. A 38. A 39. D 40. A
41. B 42. B 43. D 44. B 45. A
46. D 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. B
51. B 52. A 53. D 54. B 55. B
56. C 57. B 58. A 59. A 60. B
61. B 62. B 63. C 64. C 65. B
66. A 67. D 68. A 69. B 70. B
71. A 72. B 73. B 74. B 75. B
76. C 77. C 78. D 79. A 80. B
81. C 82. C 83. B 84. A 85. C
86. B 87. C 88. B 89. B 90. D
91. C 92. D 93. B 94. B 95. B
96. D 97. D 98. A 99. A 100. B