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TEST ITEM BANK

FOR DECK OFFICER AND ENGINEER


OFFICER AT OPERATIONAL LEVEL

DIRECTORATE GENERAL OF SEA TRANSPORTATION


MINISTRY OF TRANSPORTATION
Jl. Medan Merdeka Timur No. 5 Jakarta
Phone : 021-3845808 Fax : 021-3456945Email : dpkp.tu@gmail.com
Website : dpkp-kemenhub.org
CONTENTS

Acknowledgement................................................................................................. i
Foreword ............................................................................................................... ii
Preface .................................................................................................................. iii
Contents ................................................................................................................ iv

I. PRELIMINARY (PART I) ...................................................................................... 1


A. Background ................................................................................................ 1
B. Basic ........................................................................................................... 2
C. Objective.................................................................................................... 3
D. Scope ......................................................................................................... 4

II. DECK OFFICERS COMPETENCE (PART II) ......................................................... 1


1. Plan and conduct a passage and determine position ............................... 1
2. Maintain a safe navigational watch .......................................................... 163
3. Use of radar and ARPA to maintain safety of navigation ......................... 247
4. Use of ECDIS to maintain the safety of navigation ................................... 351
5. Respond to emergencies............................................................................ 358
6. Respond to a distress signal at sea............................................................ 407
7. IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases and Use the IMO
Standard Marine Communication Phrases and use English in written
and oral form ............................................................................................. 438
8. Transmit and receive information by visual signaling............................... 465
9. Manoeuvre the ship ................................................................................... 486
10. Monitor the loading, stowage, securing, care during the voyage
and the unloading ..................................................................................... 522
11. Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch
covers and ballast tanks ............................................................................ 543
12. Ensure compliance with pollution prevention requirements..................... 563
13. Maintain seaworthiness of the ship .......................................................... 638
14. Prevent, control and fight fires on board .................................................. 662
15. Operate life-saving appliances .................................................................. 683
16. Apply medical first aid on board ship ........................................................ 704
17. Monitor compliance with legislative requirements ................................... 725
18. Application of leadership and teamworking skills ..................................... 754
19. Contribute to the safety of personnel and ship ......................................... 762

iv
III. ENGINEER OFFICERS COMPETENCE (PART III) ................................................ 782
1. Maintain a safe engineering watch .......................................................... 782
2. Use English in written and oral form ........................................................ 855
3. Use internal communication systems........................................................ 899
4. Operate main and auxiliary machinery and associated control
systems ...................................................................................................... 901
5. Operate fuel, lubrication, ballast and other pumping systems and
associated control systems ........................................................................ 1115
6. Operate electrical, electronic and control systems ................................... 1206
7. Maintenance and repair of electrical and electronic equipment .............. 1334
8. Appropriate use of hand tools, machine tools and measuring
instruments for fabrication and repair on board ...................................... 1377
9. Maintenance and repair of shipboard machinery and equipment ........... 1452
10. Ensure compliance with pollution prevention requirements..................... 1506
11. Maintain seaworthiness of the ship ........................................................ 1556
12. Monitor compliance with legislative requirements ................................... 1582
13. Application of leadership and teamworking skills..................................... 1609

IV. End Chapter .............................................................................................. 1614

v
PRELIMINARY

A. Background
Since the establishment of the International Maritime Organization (IMO), Human
Resource become the most important development of the world shipping industry that
have a considerable influence to improve the quality of education and training for
seafarers through the provision of international and national requirements. It becomes
a matter that can not be negotiable and should get special attention to exam the
competence of seafarers as an assessment of the learning process and is used as an
accurate attestation of training participants competencies. Required the system and
regulations that are sustainable. therefore, The Board of Examination and Assessment
for Seafarers (DPKP) as a forum AD-hoc for independent responsible for organizing
the exam expertise sefarers in a professional, relevant, valid, reliable, consistent and
realistic to develop a system Competence-Base Assessment in facing the challenges
of the future that aims to test the competence of seafarers as the evidence that the
training participants can make and implement behavior and competencies STCW as
Amended in that suit in the realm of domain taxonomy bloom namely Cognitive,
Psychomotor and Affective where training participants with the level of the duties,
responsibilities and authority to master;
1. What should the training participants know (knowledge)
2. What skills should the training participants can do (ability), and
3. How should the training participants have a taste or a change of attitude as a
seafarers (skills).
Proficiency exam seafarers is a exam to obtain a certificate of the seafarers for the
examinees to write a comprehensive testing methods and practices. Appropriate
regulation of the Director General of Sea Transportation No. HK.103 / 4/2 / DGLT-
2015 on Systems and Procedures Implementation Exam Skills for Seafarers (SISPRO)
is as a reference guide in the implementation of assessment system seafarers for the
acquisition of knowledge, abilities and skills of training participants.
Computer-Base Assessment (CBA) is a computer-based assessment to evaluate the
level of comprehensive knowledge and understanding in form which complies with
minimum standard column in STCW as amended. Hopefully, the result in the future it
can be apply as on-line assessment expectedly directly be accessed objectively and
the implementation can be more effective and efficient.
As for problems that can be identified both in the learning process and the testing
process competence the basis will be for how seafarers can be generated
internationally and nationally so that in the future human resources of sea
transportation become entrepreneurs in shipping industry and support the
government's vision to make Indonesia as the world Maritime Axis in the face of
globalization market.

B. Basic
1. International Maritime Organization Convention on Standards of Training,
Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW) in regulation I / 6 and Code
STCW Section A-I /6;
2. Keputusan Presiden Nomor 60 Tahun 1986 tentang Pengesahan International
Convention on Standard of Training Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers
1978 sebagaimana telah diubah dengan Amandemen yang terakhir;
3. Undang Undang Nomor 17 Tahun 2008 tentang Pelayaran (Lembaran Negara
tahun 2008 Nomor 64, Tambahan Lembaran Negara Nomor 4849);
4. Undang-undang Nomor 20 Tahun 2003 tentang Sistem Pendidikan Nasional;
Evaluasi, Akreditasi dan Sertifikasi;
5. Peraturan Pemerintah Nomor 7 Tahun 2000 tentang Kepelautan;
6. PerMenHub No PM 70 Tahun 2013 tentang Diklat, Sertifikasi, & Dinas Jaga
Pelaut;
7. Keputusan Bersama Menteri Perhubungan, Menteri Pendidikan Nasional dan
Menteri Tenaga Kerja dan Transmigrasi Nomor KM.41 Tahun 2003, Nomor
5/U/KB/2003, Nomor KEP.208 A/MEN/2003 tentang Sistem Standar Mutu
Kepelautan Indonesia;
8. Peraturan Direktur Jenderal Perhubungan Laut No. HK.103/4/2/DJPL-2015
tentang Sistem dan Prosedur Penyelenggaraan Ujian Keahlian Pelaut.
C. Objective

Test Item Bank for Deck Officer and Engineer Officer of Management Level, includes a
collection of Test Item Bank in accordance with specific minimum standard column ot
the STCW as amended which can be developed as on-line or off-line assessment with
system of computerized random to carry out a written test comprehensively to measure
mastery level of learning outcomes for generating the execellent and professional
seafarers.

D. Targets

The targets are as follows :

1. To stimulate participants spirit of learning


2. To stimulate the instructor and assessors fairness
3. To collect 1000 Test Item in multiple choice form as necessary

E. Scope
1. Deck Officer at Management Level :
a) Plan a voyage and conduct navigation
b) Determine position and the accuracy of resultant position fix by any means
c) Determine and allow for compass errors
d) Coordinate search and rescue operations
e) Establish watchkeeping arrangements and procedures
f) Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from navigation equipment and
systems to assist command decision making
g) Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and associated navigation
systems to assist command decision making
h) Forecast weather and oceanographic conditions
i) Respond to navigational emergencies
j) Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions
k) Operate remote controls of propulsion plant and engineering systems and services
l) Assess reported defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks and
take appropriate action
m) Carriage of dangerous goods
n) Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks
o) Control trim, stability and stress
p) Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure
safety of life at sea, security and the protection of the marine environment
q) Maintain safety and security of the ships crew and passengers and the operational
condition of lifesaving, firefighting and other safety systems
r) Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations
s) Use of leadership and managerial
t) Organize and manage the provision of medical care on board

2. Engineer Officer at Management Level :


a) Manage the operation of propulsion plant
b) Plan and schedule operations
c) Operation, surveillance, performance assessment and maintaining safety of propulsion
plant and auxiliary machinery
d) Manage fuel, lubrication and ballast operations
e) Manage operation of electrical and electronic control equipment
f) Manage trouble-shooting, restoration of electrical and electronic control equipment to
operating condition
g) Manage safe and effective maintenance and repair procedures
h) Detect and identify the cause of machinery malfunctions and correct faults
i) Control trim, stability and stress
j) Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure
safety of life at sea, security and protection of the marine environment
k) Maintain safety and security of the vessel, crew and passengers and the operational
condition of life-saving, fire-fighting and other safety systems
l) Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations
m) Use leadership and managerial skills
1. Plan and conduct a passage and determine
Merencanakan dan melaksanakan pelayaran dan menentukan posisi

1. What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses.


A. Gnomonic
B. Routeing
C. Passage planning
D. Instructional

2. What is a chronometer used for? Indicating


A. LMT
B. SMT
C. GMT
D. CST

3. A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called?
A. Great circle
B. Latitude
C. Longitude
D. Small circle

4. If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour circle
passing through a heavenly body s called:
A. Local hour angle
B. Greenwich hour angle
C. Sidereal hour angle
D. Tight ascension

5. What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ?


A. The date line
B. Equator
C. Rhumb line
D. Greenwich meridian

1
6. What is the angle of depression which the direction of sight to the visible
horizon makes with the plane of the true horizon called ?
A. dip
B. height of eye
C. index error
D. error of parallax

7. When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when :
A. at the equator
B. the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles
C. the course is ti-S
D. the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings

8. Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth?


A. Mesosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Ionosphere

9. What is the true shape of the earth?


A. a perfect sphere
B. rectangle
C. an oblate spheroid
D. square

10. The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called :
A. aphelion
B. perihelion
C. apogee
D. perigee

2
11. What is the extent of zone zero?
A. from 0 deg to 7.5 deg E
B. from 7 deg E to 7 deg W from Greenwich
C. From 7.5 deg E to 7.5 deg W from Greenwich
D. From 0 deg to 7.5 deg W

12. The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called:
A. geographical mile
B. sea mile
C. none of the given options
D. statue mile

13. As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude?


A. Reduces
B. Remains constant
C. Always zero
D. Increases

14. Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called:
A. Observer's Principle vertical
B. Vertical circles
C. Observer's Prime vertical
D. Small circles

15. The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the:
A. solstical point
B. first point of aries
C. first point of libra
D. celestial pole

3
16. To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp =
A. sin late x cos dec
B. sin dec x cos lat
C. sin lat x sec dec
D. sin dec x sec lat

17. Longitudinal zones of the earths surface, each 15deg in extent, measured
eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called:
A. Time zones
B. Zone time
C. Separation zones
D. Fixed zones

18. An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow


measurement of altitude of celestial bodies is called :
A. apparent horizon
B. sensible horizon
C. artificial horizon
D. visible horizon

19. the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the
earth contained between the observers zenith and the centre of the body is
called:
A. Attitude of the celestial body
B. Declination of the celestial body
C. True zenith distance of the celestial body
D. Calculated zenith distance

4
20. If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct?
A. The vessel will after course frequently depending on her position and
bearing to destination
B. The vessel sails on the same course through out
C. The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the
intermediate course is
D. None of the other options

21. Right ascension is measured:


A. Westward from aries
B. Westward from Greenwich
C. Eastwards from aries
D. Wrestward from the observer

22. What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ
by 90 deg.?
A. Quadrature
B. Conjunction
C. Opposition
D. None of the given options

23. The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the
earth's surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's
sensible horizon is called?
A. Parallax in attitude
B. True attitude
C. Horizontal parallax of a celestial body.
D. Apparent altitude

5
24. What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ?
A. 4 1/5 deg
B. 5 1/4 deg
C. 1 4/5 deg
D. 1 5/4 deg

25. Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are
called
A. both<Option 1> and C
B. celestial meridians
C. meridians
D. neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>

26. If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is:


A. multiplied
B. subtracted
C. there is no correction
D. added

27. What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a
constant rate equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the
ecliptic called?
A. Mean sun
B. True sun
C. Apparent sun
D. All of these.

28. What are planets which are closer to the sun called?
A. Inferior planets
B. Small planets
C. Large planets
D. Superior planets

6
29. What type of motion do planets have around the sun?
A. retrograde
B. direct
C. southward
D. northward

30. Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time?


A. no
B. only for the period when the sun and moon are in conjunction
C. yes
D. only for the period when sun and moon are in opposition

31. A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun?
A. Superior planets
B. Small planets
C. Inferior planets
D. Large planets

32. What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages
called?
A. A minute
B. An hour
C. A day
D. A second

33. The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg.
below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when
the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called :
A. nautical twilight
B. civil twilight
C. astronomical twilight
D. sunrise

7
34. Every day a star rises, sets, culminates:
A. 4 min later
B. 4 min. earlier
C. 10 min later
D. 40 min earlier

35. When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is
below the horizon, it is called:
A. sunrise
B. moon rise
C. sunset
D. twilight

36. In which case is augmentation necessary:


A. Sun
B. Stars
C. Moon
D. Planets

37. The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith
contained between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle
passing through that body when the body is on the observer's rational
horizon is
A. Amplitude
B. Horizontal sextant angle
C. Vertical sextant angle
D. Azimuth

8
38. What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears
to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting
in the west called?
A. Diurnal motion
B. Diurnal inequality
C. Diurnal circle
D. Diurnal arc

39. The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg
around the earth is called?
A. Rotational period of the moon
B. Revolutionary period of the moon
C. Synodic period of the moon
D. Sidereal period of the moon

40. What is the diameter about which the earth rotates?


A. Axis
B. Prime meridian
C. None of the other options
D. Equator

41. What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from the
observer's meridian called?
A. Greenwich sidereal time
B. Local mean time
C. Local sidereal time
D. Greenwich apparent time

9
42. What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of
the sun and the center of that body?
A. Elongation of a celestial body
B. Attitude of a celestial body
C. Horizontal parallax
D. parallax in attitude

43. Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called:


A. Isothermic line
B. Isobaric line
C. Isogonic line
D. isobathic line

44. When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the
three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be
A. in opposition
B. in Perihelion
C. in Aphelion
D. in conjunction

45. What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude
shortly before and after it has crossed the meridian?
A. Longitude by chronometer
B. Ex-meridian altitude
C. Intercept
D. Latitude by meridian altitude

46. The geographical mean between two latitudes is called:


A. Mean latitude
B. Middle latitude
C. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>
D. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>

10
47. The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a
celestial body is called:
A. azimuth
B. true bearing
C. amplitude
D. relative bearing

48. The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called:
A. Datum
B. Calibration point
C. Date line
D. Danger line

49. How do planets moue when they are closer to the sun as compared to when
they are further away from the sun?
A. Do not moue
B. Constant rate
C. Faster
D. Slower

50. When is a body said to be circumpolar?


A. Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90
B. Observer's latitude & body's declination are of the same name.
C. Neither <Option 2> nor <Option 3>
D. Both <Option 2> and <Option 3>

51. How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W
at 0 deg?
A. partly curved and partly straight
B. straight
C. neither <option 1> nor <option 2>
D. curved

11
52. To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply:
A. both <Option 2>and <Option 3>
B. sun
C. stars
D. coon

53. Latitude scale is obtained as:


A. long scale x cosec fat
B. long scale x cos lat
C. long. Scale x sec lat
D. long scale x sin lat

54. At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is
A. 23 deg
B. 12 deg
C. 0 deg
D. 23.5 deg

55. At the horizon, refraction:


A. Is moderate
B. Does not exist
C. Is maximum
D. Is minimum

56. Refraction correction must always be:


A. Divided
B. Added
C. Subtracted
D. Multiplie

12
57. What is the interval in time between two successive meridian passages of
the true sun over the same meridian?
A. Mean solar day
B. Sidereal day
C. none of the other options
D. Apparent solar day

58. As height of eye increases, Dip:


A. increases
B. remains constant
C. doubles
D. decreases

59. Which of these is an inferior planet?


A. Mercury
B. Uranus
C. Jupiter
D. Saturn

60. What are the points where the moons orbit intersect the ecliptic called?
A. 1 st point of aries
B. 1 st point of libra
C. Nodes
D. Antinodes

61. How many time zones are there?


A. 36
B. 24
C. 48
D. 12

13
62. At the horizon refraction is =
A. 0 min
B. 1min
C. 34 min
D. 16min

63. The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea is
called:
A. Observer's sensible horizon
B. None of the other options
C. Observer's visible horizon
D. Observer's rational horizon

64. What is the average distance of the sun from the earth?
A. 9,300 million miles
B. 930million miles
C. 93 million miles
D. 9.3 million miles

65. The Prime meridian is at:


A. 80 deg long
B. 90 deg long
C. 45 deg long
D. 0 deg long.
66. Augmentation at the horizon is
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.2
D. 0

14
67. The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible
horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called:
A. ht of eye
B. Sextant altitude
C. dip
D. Apparent altituden

68. What is the maximum declination of the sun?


A. 26 deg N or S
B. 26 deg 23.7min N or S
C. 23 deg 26.7min N or S
D. 23 deg N or S

69. A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the terrestrial
poles is known as
A. latitude
B. equator
C. equinoxial
D. meridian

70. Which of these is a morning and evening star?


A. Venus
B. Mars
C. Saturn
D. Jupiter

71. Either of the two points at which the sun crosses the equator is called :
A. zenith
B. first point of aries
C. equinox
D. first point of libra

15
72. What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as?
A. Plane sailing
B. Composite sailing
C. Parallel track sailing
D. Rhumb line sailing

73. Where can the correction for altitude of celestial bodies be obtained from?
A. Sight reduction tables
B. Nautical alamanac
C. Tide tables
D. Reeds distance table

74. What does the term culmination mean?


A. The greatest and least altitudes of a celestial body when crossing the
meridian
B. When the celestial body is about to set
C. When the celestial body just starts rising
D. Max declination of a celestial body

75. What is total correction tabulated against?


A. Observed attitude
B. True altitude
C. Sextant altitude
D. Apparent attitude

76. What is the day gained in crossing the 180deg meridian when sailing
westward called?
A. Antipodean day
B. Astronomical day
C. Solar day
D. Sidereal day

16
77. When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant, it is
called:
A. Index error
B. error of perpendicularity
C. side error
D. error of collimation

78. A chronometer is said to be loosing if :


A. if it is slow one day and less slow next day
B. it is fast one day and more fast the next day
C. if it is slow one day and fast the next day.
D. it is correct on GMT one day and is slow next day

79. What should be the correct position of the sun when checking compass error
by amplitude?
A. Centre of the body should be on the rational horizon of the observer
B. Centre of the body should be on the visible horizon of the observer
C. Any one of the other options.
D. Centre of the body should be on the celestial horizon of the observer

80. When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the sextant, it is
called
A. index error
B. error of collimation
C. side error
D. error of perpendicularity

81. What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects?


A. Reflection plotter
B. Cursor
C. Sextant
D. Azimuth circle

17
82. What is the apparent increase in the semi-diameter of the moon called?
A. Refraction
B. Augmentation
C. Horizontal parallax
D. Parallax

83. The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance between
two objects is known as :
A. angle of inclination
B. Angle of repose
C. Vertical sextant angler
D. Horizontal sextant angle

84. What is the relation between azimuth and attitude in higher latitudes?
A. Any change in attitude will change the azimuth by the same amount.
B. A small change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth
C. A large change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth
D. A small change in altitude results in a small change in Dazimuth

85. What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum north
declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day and
shortest night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere?
A. Winter solstice
B. Vernal equinox
C. Autumnal equinox
D. Summer solstice

86. Once Index error is applied to the sextant altitude, it is called


A. Apparent altitude
B. True altitude
C. True zenith distance
D. Observed altitude

18
87. In taking a vertical sextant angle to determine the distance of an object,
where would you find the height of the object :
A. from the chart
B. chart 5011
C. from the chart catalogue
D. guide to port entry

88. What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ?


A. position of the observer
B. observer's latitude
C. observer's longitude0
D. none of the other options

89. When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant , it is
called :
A. side error
B. index error
C. error of collimation
D. error of perpendicularity

90. When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and distances
run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of celestial
observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called :
A. DR
B. EP
C. Plot
D. Fix

19
91. On which day does a solar eclipse occur?
A. Full moon day
B. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
C. Both new and full moon day
D. New moon day

92. For lunar eclipse to occur, what should be the position of the sun and the
moon?
A. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
B. Sun and moon must be in opposition
C. Sun and moon must be in conjunction
D. It is possible in both cases. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2'>

93. What is pelorus used for?


A. For assessing visibility
B. For identifying stars
C. Taking bearings
D. For ascertaining the signal strength of radio waves

94. Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides?


A. Moon
B. Comets
C. Stars
D. Planets

95. If an observer is in the surrounding area where only the penumbra reaches,
the observer will only see a part of the sun covered , in this case, what kind
of an eclipse will he be experiencing?
A. Annular solar eclipse
B. Total solar eclipse
C. Partial lunar eclipse
D. Partial solar eclipse

20
96. Where can the correction for parallex be obtained from?
A. Nautical tables
B. Reeds distance table
C. Nautical alamanac
D. Sight reduction tables

97. When the index mirror and the horizon glass are not exactly parallel to each
other, it is called :
A. side error
B. error of collimation
C. index error
D. error of perpendicularity

98. In a sextant, what is the mirror mounted on the upper end of the index bar,
perpendicular to the plane of the limb called?
A. Horizon glass
B. Index glass
C. Horizon shade
D. Index shade
99. What is the index nor?

A. 3'40"
B. 4'40"
C. 40"
D. 5'40"

21
100. For H.E 8.6 what is the correction (Dip)

A. 5.2
B. 5.1
C. 5.25
D. 5.15

101. What charts are used for coasting, pilotage waters and plotting waypoints
A. Routeing
B. Small scale
C. Large scale
D. Instructional

102. Ship's speed through water is measured in


A. Knots
B. none of the given options
C. m/s
D. km/hr

103. How often is a chart catalogue published?


A. Twice a year
B. Monthly
C. Annually
D. Weekly

104. How often are cumulative lists published ?


A. Weekly
B. Annually
C. Monthly
D. Twice a year

22
105. How often are chart corrections published ?
A. Meekly
B. Monthly
C. Yearly
D. Annually

106. How often are nautical almanacs published ?


A. Weekly
B. Twice in a year
C. Annually
D. Monthly

107. Distance on a chart is measured using :


A. Latitude scale
B. none of the given options
C. any uniform scale
D. Longitude scale

108. Where can you find the symbols and abbreviations used on the Admiralty
charts ?
A. Chart 5011
B. Chart catalogue
C. notice to mariners
D. Chart 5022

109. How are courses and bearings represented on a mercator chart ?


A. as s-shaped lines
B. as spiral lines
C. as straight lines
D. curved lines

23
110. Vessel steaming 000(T) at 20 knots, if the wind is from the north at 10 kts
What would the apparent wind to the observer from north be ?
A. 2 knots
B. 10 knots
C. 20 knots
D. 30 knots

111. What region of the earth may not be shown by mercator projection ?
A. polar
B. subtropical
C. eguitorial
D. tropical

112. How are charts corrected ?


A. none of the given options
B. local warnings & nay warnings received on telex
C. from EGC messages
D. notices to mariners

113. Where will you get detailed information on ocean currents :


A. guide to port entry
B. notice to mariners
C. admiralty
D. sailing directions

24
114. How are sailing directions corrected?
A. EGC chart 5011
B. information supplied by owners
C. regulation update
D. From weekly additions subsequent to current annual summary of
admiralty notice to mariners

115. The deposition of material at the bottom or the course by water movement is
called:
A. dumping
B. erosion
C. accretion
D. collecting

116. What are lights exhibited as aids to navigation of aircraft called :


A. aero-radio beacon
B. aero-marine lights
C. aero-beacon
D. aero lights

117. A ship resting on the bottom is said to be :


A. aground
B. afloat
C. alongside
D. touching the bottom

25
118. The difference between mean tide level and high or low water is called :
A. amplitude of tide
B. none of the given options
C. tide
D. tidal range

119. What is the clearing of a channel by the action of water called?


A. Scoriae
B. Scour
C. Scarp
D. Sargasso

120. Buoy marking the position where a sewer or other pipe discharges into the
sea is called:
A. Cone buoy
B. Outfall buoy
C. Spar buoy
D. Can buoy

121. A tidal stream which runs only in one of two directions, with a period of
slack water in between is called:
A. Flood tide
B. All of these.
C. Rectilinear stream
D. Ebb tide

26
122. The Buoy used in the main navigable channel usually in a river or running
through into a harbour is called:
A. starboard hand buoy
B. Fairway buoy
C. Port hand buoy
D. Special mark

123. Oscillations in the water level which occur in harbours, bays having periods
of few minutes or more, the more spectacular ones being caused by abrupt
changes in barometric pressure and wind is called:
A. Scend
B. Seismic sea waves
C. Seiche
D. Wave

124. What is a route leading through off shore oil installations called?
A. Ship canal
B. Ship safety fairway
C. Safety zone
D. Fairway

125. A channel dredged or cut dry land or through drying shoals or banks and
used as a waterway
A. river
B. tributary
C. channel
D. canal

27
126. The part of the sea distant but visible from the shore or anchorage is called
A. Open basin
B. Offing
C. Offshore
D. Horizon

127. What is a danger to navigation, the exact nature of which is not specified or
has not been determined, called?
A. Observation point
B. Obstruction
C. Wreck
D. to go area

128. A vessel anchored as a floating aid to navigation from which is exhibited a


light which may have any of the characteristics of a lighthouse is called:
A. Lighthouse
B. Light float
C. Lighter
D. Light vessel

129. What is a detached area of any material the depth over which constitutes a
danger to surface navigation?
A. Shore
B. Seashore
C. Shelf
D. Shoal

28
130. Where will you find the limits of sailing directions?
A. Chart correction log
B. Weekly notice to mariners
C. Chart catalogue
D. Guide to port entry

131. What is a device fitted to a buoy or beacon used to increase the response of
radar transmission called?
A. Radar transponder
B. Radio beacon
C. Radiolarian
D. Radar reflector

132. The highest tidal level which can be predicted to occur under average
meteorological conditions and under any combination of astronomical
conditions is called:
A. high water neaps
B. lowest astronomical tide
C. high water springs
D. highest astronomical tide

133. When due to some external influence, the bows of a ship unexpectedly
deviates from her course, it is said that:
A. The ship has taken a sheer
B. The ship has deviated from her track
C. The ship is carrying on her track
D. The ship has taken a turn

29
134. A loose term applied both to the rising tide and the incoming tidal stream is
called:
A. flood tide
B. flood mark
C. flow
D. flow channel

135. An arm of the sea at the mouth of a tidal river usually encumbered with
shoals where the tidal effect is influenced by river current is called :
A. estuary
B. estuary port
C. shallow patch
D. lake

136. The amount of drift of a vessel to leeward of the course steered due to the
action of wind is called:
A. Drift
B. Lee tide
C. Leeway
D. Set

137. A series of waves caused by a submarine earthquake, often traveling


thousands of miles and building up to disastrous proportions on certain
shelving beaches are called:
A. elephants
B. tidal wave
C. Tsunamis
D. Roaring forties

30
138. What is the distributed water astern or the water through which the vessel
has passed called?
A. Both <option 1 > and C
B. Wake
C. Wash
D. Neither <option 1> nor <option 2>

139. The distance a sea wave has traveled to the observer from the locality of the
wind that caused it or from the nearest weather shore is called :
A. wave period
B. Tidal range
C. wave height
D. Fetch

140. What is a track shown on a chart, which all or certain vessels are
recommended to follow?
A. Proposed track
B. Hazardous track
C. None of the given options
D. Recommended track

141. The condition where the sea and swell approach the ship at right angles is
called :
A. Seas from any quarter
B. Following seas
C. Beam seas
D. Read seas

31
142. A signal, usually by radio, for the purpose of checking the errors of
chronometers is called
A. Radio signal
B. Sound signal
C. Time signal
D. Light signal

143. The wearing away of the coast by water action is called:


A. accretion
B. andfall
C. deposition
D. erosion

144. AE Conduct Passage progressive wave of meteorological origin which, if its


crest arrives at the time of high water, can cause exceptionally high tides is
called:
A. Storm
B. Hurricane
C. Storm surge
D. Tidal wave

145. An area wherein fishing craft congregate to fish is called:


A. Fish weir
B. Fitting out basin
C. Fishing ground
D. Fishing harbour

32
146. An area of rocks or corals, detached or not, the depth over which constitutes
a danger to surface navigation s called:
A. Obstruction
B. Reef
C. Wreck
D. All of these.

147. A light showing at regular intervals a group of two or more flashes is called:
A. occulting light
B. group occulting light
C. flashing light
D. Troup flashing light

148. A region of completely shallow water strewn with rocks, boulders, corals or
obstruction making it unsuitable for anchoring is called:
A. foul bottom
B. fowl birth
C. foul patch
D. foul ground

149. The period between high water and the succeeding low water is called:
A. Tidal range
B. height of tide
C. Falling tide
D. rising tide

150. What is a group flashing light in which the flashes are combined in alternate
groups of different numbers of flashes?
A. Occulting
B. Composite group flashing
C. Composite group occurting
D. group flashing

33
151. What is the angular motion of the ship in the fore and aft direction called?
A. Pitch
B. Roll
C. Racking
D. Pounding

152. A radio beacon which transmits two signals in such a way that they are of
equal strength on only one bearing is called :
A. non-directional radio beacon
B. radio beacon
C. directional radio beacon
D. multi-directional radio beacon

153. When is the river said to be in spate?


A. When there is increased rate in current and fall in level in river due to
heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters
B. When there is reduced rate in current and rise in level in river due to
heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters
C. When there is increased rate in current and rise in level Cin a river due to
heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters
D. All of these.

154. To proceed against the tide stream at such a speed that the vessel remains
stationary over the ground is called:
A. Heave to
B. Stem the tide
C. Broach to
D. Ride to

34
155. A passage between two sea areas is called
A. Sound
B. Runnel
C. Channel
D. Canal
156. A Tide which has only one high water and one low water each day; that part
of the tide which has one complete osculation in a day, is called :
A. double tide
B. tidal stream
C. diurnal tide
D. tidal range

157. The sea in the vicinity of the coast is called :


A. coastline
B. coastal plain
C. coast
D. coastal waters

158. An area where concrete blocks, hulks, disused car bodies are dumped to
provide suitable conditions for Fish to breed in is called:
A. Fish stake
B. Fish farm
C. Fish haven
D. Fish pond

159. What is the hollow between two waves called?


A. Wavefront
B. Trough
C. Crest
D. Wavelength

35
160. Which of these is not an advantage of a mercator chart ?
A. Distances are easily measured as scale of latitude= scale of distance
B. Bearings and position lines can be easily transferred from one part of the
chart to another as parallel of atitudes.
C. Polar regions can be represented on a mercator chart
D. Shapes of land masses are shown correctly in the immediate
neighbourhood of any port.

161. Where will you find the position for different ports in the world?
A. Nautical almanac
B. Chart catalogue
C. Guide to port Entry
D. Reeds distance table

162. A buoy, the visible portion of which shows an approximately spherical


shape is called :
A. a spindle buoy
B. All of these.
C. a spherical buoy
D. a spar buoy

163. A fixed light varied at regular intervals by a group of two or more flashes of
greater brilliance is called:
A. fixed and group flashing light
B. fixed and flashing light
C. alternatively flashing light
D. just flashing light

36
164. Currents caused by pressure gradient in the water is called :
A. ocean current
B. equatorial current
C. countercurrent
D. gadiant current

165. Detailed description or representation on a chart or map, of the natural or


artificial features of a district is called:
A. Botony
B. topography
C. Oceanography
D. Zoology

166. What is the minimum speed required to keep the vessel under control by
means of the rudder called?
A. Critical speed
B. Speed of advance
C. Steerage way
D. Stern speed

167. A radar transponder beacon which emits a characteristic signal when


triggered by the emissions of ship's radar is called:
A. Radio beacon
B. Ramark
C. Rayband
D. Racon

37
168. A shoal area in a river, or extending across a river where the depths are less
than those upstream or downstream of it is called:
A. Bank
B. Reef
C. Seashore
D. Shallow

169. On a gnomonic chart which of these can be done


A. Bearing and position lines can be easily transferred
B. Measurement of longitude & distance is easy.
C. Thumb line courses appear as straight lines
D. Great circle courses can be laid as straight lines

170. A light showing over a very narrow sector forming a single leading light is
called
A. search light
B. sector light
C. directional light
D. non-directional light

171. On which of these areas would you consider that climatological routing to
be satisfactory?
A. Malacca straits
B. North Atlantic
C. Gulf of Oman
D. Red sea

38
172. On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer, how
would the wind direction change in the advance of a warm front?
A. remain steady
B. slowly veer as it is approached
C. suddenly year by 90deg
D. slowly back as it is approached

173. What word is used to indicate colour variations in the characteristics of a


light?
A. Alternating
B. Flashing
C. Occulting
D. Sophase

174. When correcting charts by applying a block correction, which of the


following would be the correct procedure?
A. The block should be penciled around when in position and the pencil area
of the chart & the block should be pasted
B. The block should be penciled around when in position and the pencil area
of the chart pasted
C. The block should be penciled around when in position and the edges of
the block should be pasted before fixing
D. The block should be penciled around when in position nd the block
should be pasted before fixing

175. When can a towed log measure speed?


A. In all the other options
B. When the speed is greater than 5 kts
C. When the speed is between 1-5 kts
D. When speed is greater than lid

39
176. On predominant current charts, what is obtained by comparing the number
of observations in the predominant sector against the total number of
observations and expressed as a percentage?
A. Constancy
B. Clean resultant
C. Occurrence
D. Percentage frequency

177. On a routenig chart, what pastel colour is used to indicate the summer zone?
A. light blue
B. light green
C. light yellow
D. light pink

178. When two position lines are obtained at different times, the position of the
ship may be found by transferring the first position line up t the time of
taking the bearing of the second position line. What is this called
A. three point bearing
B. four point bearing
C. horizontal sextant angles
D. running fix

179. In which if the following publications will you find general information on
ice
A. Nories tables
B. Guide o port entry
C. Mariner's handbook
D. ALRS

40
180. How will it be indicated that the course recorder paper is nearly finished?
A. By an audible sound
B. By a flashing light on the instrument
C. By a colored stripe on the paper
D. There is no such indication

181. What is course allowing for leeway know as?


A. leeway
B. Ground track
C. Set
D. Water track

182. What is the course recorder used for?


A. To keep a record of all gyro courses steered during the voyage
B. To record the courses of other ships in the vicinity during the voyage
C. To find out the set and drift of a vessel
D. To find out the course to steer to the next waypoint

183. Satellite information charts providing information on cloud pattern and


cloud thickness are called :
A. Change of pressure charts
B. Upper air charts
C. Hindcast charts
D. Elephanalysis charts

184. The intersection of two or more position lines, which has been obtained at
the same time which gives the position of the ship is called :
A. Bearing
B. Course lines
C. Cocked hat
D. Fix

41
185. What is a chart, which is published for the first time called?
A. Newly corrected chart
B. Newly printed chart
C. New edition
D. New chart

186. Which method is not used to obtain a position line :


A. Taking a time signal
B. An observation of a celestial body giving the position line.
C. A transit bearing
D. Visual bearing of a terrestrial object

187. What is a wireless station which emits a beam of waves in one or several
definite directions or sectors?
A. Directional radio beacon
B. Aero beacon
C. Direction finder
D. Non-directional radio beacon

188. On a routeing chart what does the direction of the current (arrows) indicate?
A. The direction in which the current is flowing
B. None of the other options
C. A direction perpendicular to the direction of current.
D. The direction from where the current is coming

189. In coastal navigation, What is the horizontal angle between two fixed
objects on shore lying approximately at the same distance on either side of a
danger to be cleared, outside of which it is considered safe for the ship
A. Angle of repose
B. Danger angle
C. Complementary angle
D. Horizontal parallax

42
190. What is the vertical distance on a given day between the water surface at
high and low water called?
A. Height of tide
B. Range of tides
C. Highest astronomical tide
D. Lowest astronomical tide.

191. Ship's speed through water is measured in


A. Knots
B. none of the given options
C. m/s
D. km/hr

192. Where can you find the symbols and abbreviations used on the Admiralty
charts ?
A. Chart 5011
B. Chart catalogue
C. notice to mariners
D. Chart 5022

193. What is the east - west distance between two points called ?
A. dlat
B. DMP
C. Departure
D. D'Iong

194. How are courses and bearings represented on a mercator chart ?


A. as s-shaped lines
B. as spiral lines
C. as straight lines
D. curved lines

43
195. Vessel steaming 000(T) at 20 knots, if the wind is from the north at 10 kts
What would the apparent wind to the observer from north be ?
A. 2 knots
B. 10 knots
C. 20 knots
D. 30 knots

196. What region of the earth may not be shown by mercator projection ?
A. polar
B. subtropical
C. eguitorial
D. tropical

197. How are charts corrected ?


A. none of the given options
B. local warnings & nay warnings received on telex
C. from EGC messages
D. notices to mariners

198. When crossing the 180th meridian on an easterly course:


A. retard one day
B. advance bytwo days
C. do not advance or retard
D. advance by one day

199. Where will you get detailed information on ocean currents :


A. guide to port entry
B. notice to mariners
C. admiralty
D. sailing directions

44
200. How are sailing directions corrected?
A. EGC chart 5011
B. information supplied by owners
C. regulation update
D. From weekly additions subsequent to current annual summary of
admiralty notice to mariners

201. The deposition of material at the bottom or the course by water movement is
called:
A. dumping
B. erosion
C. accretion
D. collecting

202. What are lights exhibited as aids to navigation of aircraft called :


A. aero-radio beacon
B. aero-marine lights
C. aero-beacon
D. aero lights

203. A ship resting on the bottom is said to be :


A. aground
B. afloat
C. alongside
D. touching the bottom

204. The difference between mean tide level and high or low water is called :
A. amplitude of tide
B. none of the given options
C. tide
D. tidal range

45
205. The sector/sectors in which a light is visible from seaward is called :
A. ray
B. loom
C. arc of visibility
D. brightness

206. What is the tide of relatively small range occurring near the time of moons
quarter known as?
A. Astronomical tide
B. Spring tide
C. Low tide
D. Neap tide

207. A prolonged period during which the tide does HOT rise or fall noticeably is
called?
A. Stand of the tide
B. Tidal effect
C. Height of tide
D. Tidal range

208. What is an isolated or comparatively isolated elevation rising at least 1,000


m from the ocean floor and of limited extent across the summit called
A. Sea knoll
B. All of these.
C. Seamount
D. Seamark

46
209. The angular distance on a meridian, measured north or south of the equator
is called:
A. D'Iong
B. D'Iat
C. Latitude
D. Longitude

210. What is the clearing of a channel by the action of water called?


A. Scoriae
B. Scour
C. Scarp
D. Sargasso

211. Buoy marking the position where a sewer or other pipe discharges into the
sea is called:
A. Cone buoy
B. Outfall buoy
C. Spar buoy
D. Can buoy

212. Which instrument is used for signaling to another ship during the day and
night (by light)
A. Aldis lamp
B. Torch
C. Rasthead light
D. Radar reflector

47
213. A tidal stream which runs only in one of two directions, with a period of
slack water in between is called:
A. Flood tide
B. All of these.
C. Rectilinear stream
D. Ebb tide

214. The Buoy used in the main navigable channel usually in a river or running
through into a harbour is called:
A. starboard hand buoy
B. Fairway buoy
C. Port hand buoy
D. Special mark

215. Oscillations in the water level which occur in harbours, bays having periods
of few minutes or more, the more spectacular ones being caused by abrupt
changes in barometric pressure and wind is called:
A. Scend
B. Seismic sea waves
C. Seiche
D. Wave

216. What is a route leading through off shore oil installations called?
A. Ship canal
B. Ship safety fairway
C. Safety zone
D. Fairway

48
217. A channel dredged or cut dry land or through drying shoals or banks and
used as a waterway
A. river
B. tributary
C. channel
D. canal

218. The part of the sea distant but visible from the shore or anchorage is called
A. Open basin
B. Offing
C. Offshore
D. Horizon

219. Turbulences associated with the flow of strong tidal streams over abrupt
changes in depth, or with the meeting of tidal streams flowing from different
directions is called:
A. Over tide
B. Tide rips
C. Tidal stream
D. Tidal surge

220. The level below which soundings are given on Admiralty charts and above
which are given the drying heights of features which are periodically
covered and uncovered by the tide is called :
A. Chart datum
B. LHWS
C. MHWS
D. MHHWS

49
221. What are sediments deposited by water in a channel or harbour called?
A. Slake
B. Skerry
C. Slick
D. Silt

222. What type of measurement is time?


A. westward
B. eastward
C. southward
D. northward

223. A port for which tidal data is given in Admiralty tide tables but for which
daily predictions are not given is called:
A. A secondary port
B. Tidal port
C. A primary port
D. Ion tidal port

224. The part of the sea distant but visible from the shore or anchorage is called
A. Open basin
B. Offing
C. Offshore
D. Horizon

50
225. Turbulences associated with the flow of strong tidal streams over abrupt
changes in depth, or with the meeting of tidal streams flowing from different
directions is called:
A. Over tide
B. Tide rips
C. Tidal stream
D. Tidal surge

226. The level below which soundings are given on Admiralty charts and above
which are given the drying heights of features which are periodically
covered and uncovered by the tide is called :
A. Chart datum
B. LHWS
C. MHWS
D. MHHWS

227. What are sediments deposited by water in a channel or harbour called?


A. Slake
B. Skerry
C. Slick
D. Silt

228. What type of measurement is time?


A. westward
B. eastward
C. southward
D. northward

51
229. A port for which tidal data is given in Admiralty tide tables but for which
daily predictions are not given is called:
A. A secondary port
B. Tidal port
C. A primary port
D. Ion tidal port

230. The length of a meridian contained between the equator and that latitude on
a mercator chart expressed in minutes of longitude scale is called:
A. Difference bet 0 deg and that latitude
B. Difference bet 0 deg and that longitude
C. Meridional part for that latitude
D. Meridional part for that longitude

231. The open water outside the confines of a harbour is called:


A. Sea reach
B. Sea room
C. Sea-way
D. Seaboard

232. What is a danger to navigation, the exact nature of which is not specified or
has not been determined, called?
A. Observation point
B. Obstruction
C. Wreck
D. to go area

52
233. What is a detached area of any material the depth over which constitutes a
danger to surface navigation?
A. Shore
B. Seashore
C. Shelf
D. Shoal

234. Where will you find the limits of sailing directions?


A. Chart correction log
B. Weekly notice to mariners
C. Chart catalogue
D. Guide to port entry

235. What is a device fitted to a buoy or beacon used to increase the response of
radar transmission called?
A. Radar transponder
B. Radio beacon
C. Radiolarian
D. Radar reflector

236. The highest tidal level which can be predicted to occur under average
meteorological conditions and under any combination of astronomical
conditions is called:
A. high water neaps
B. lowest astronomical tide
C. high water springs
D. highest astronomical tide

53
237. A line joining points of same height above, or depth below, the datum is
called
A. Co-range lines
B. Contour line
C. Iso -gonic lines
D. co-tidal lines

238. What is the official time kept by a country or area called?


A. standard time
B. Local mean time
C. GMT
D. local time

239. A solid structure such as a wall to break the force of wanes protecting a
harbour or anchorage is called:
A. breakwater
B. dam
C. breaking sea
D. breaker

240. What is a comparatively narrow passage connecting two seas or two bodies
of water called?
A. Channel
B. Strad
C. Canal
D. Sound

54
241. A loose term applied both to the rising tide and the incoming tidal stream is
called:
A. flood tide
B. flood mark
C. flow
D. flow channel

242. An arm of the sea at the mouth of a tidal river usually encumbered with
shoals where the tidal effect is influenced by river current is called :
A. estuary
B. estuary port
C. shallow patch
D. lake

243. A prominent artificial feature on land such as a tower or church used as an


aid to navigation is called:
A. Landmark
B. Landing stage
C. Landlock
D. Landslip

244. The amount of drift of a vessel to leeward of the course steered due to the
action of wind is called:
A. Drift
B. Lee tide
C. Leeway
D. Set

55
245. A series of waves caused by a submarine earthquake, often traveling
thousands of miles and building up to disastrous proportions on certain
shelving beaches are called:
A. elephants
B. tidal wave
C. Tsunamis
D. Roaring forties

246. The higher of two successive high waters where diurnal in equality is
present, is called:
A. high water change
B. high water datum
C. high water
D. higher high water

247. What is the distributed water astern or the water through which the vessel
has passed called?
A. Both <option 1 > and C
B. Wake
C. Wash
D. leither <option 1> nor <option 2>

248. The distance a sea wave has traveled to the observer from the locality of the
wind that caused it or from the nearest weather shore is called :
A. Wave period
B. Tidal range
C. Wave height
D. Fetch

56
249. What is a track shown on a chart, which all or certain vessels are
recommended to follow?
A. Proposed track
B. Hazardous track
C. None of the given options
D. Recommended track

250. What is the point of minimum tidal range in an amphidromic system called?
A. Focal point
B. Nodal point
C. Point of intersection
D. Point of convergence

251. The height of tide halfway between high and low water is called:
A. half tide basin
B. mean tide level
C. half tide rock
D. tidal range

252. A circular motion in water; horizontal movement in a different direction


from that of a general direction of he tidal stream in the vicinity caused by
obstructions, such as islands, rocks or by frictional effect of beach?
A. local anomaly
B. local current
C. eddy
D. tide rips

57
253. A signal, usually by radio, for the purpose of checking the errors of
chronometers is called
A. Radio signal
B. Sound signal
C. Time signal
D. Light signal

254. The wearing away of the coast by water action is called:


A. Accretion
B. landfall
C. deposition
D. erosion

255. What are identification shapes fitted on the top of beacons and buoys called?
A. Marks
B. Shapes
C. Indicators
D. Top marks

256. An area of rocks or corals, detached or not, the depth over which constitutes
a danger to surface navigation s called:
A. Obstruction
B. Reef
C. Wreck
D. All of these

58
257. A light showing at regular intervals a group of two or more flashes is called:
A. occulting light
B. group occulting light
C. flashing light
D. Troup flashing light

258. Heights above chart datum of features which are periodically covered and
exposed by rise and fall of tides are called :
A. drying soundings
B. rise of tide
C. drying heights
D. tidal rise

259. A current which does not extend more than 3 m below the surface is called
A. Gradient current
B. Ocean current
C. Coastal current
D. Surface curren

260. A region of completely shallow water strewn with rocks, boulders, corals or
obstruction making it unsuitable for anchoring is called:
A. foul bottom
B. fowl birth
C. foul patch
D. foul ground

59
261. The period between high water and the succeeding low water is called:
A. Tidal range
B. height of tide
C. Falling tide
D. rising tide

262. What is a group flashing light in which the flashes are combined in alternate
groups of different numbers of flashes?
A. Occulting
B. Composite group flashing
C. Composite group occurting
D. group flashing

263. What is the angular motion of the ship in the fore and aft direction called?
A. Pitch
B. Roll
C. Racking
D. Pounding

264. The period of negligible horizontal water movement when a rectilinear tidal
stream is changing direction is called?
A. Tide rips
B. High water
C. Low water
D. Slack water

60
234. A radio beacon which transmits two signals in such a way that they are of
equal strength on only one bearing is called :
A. non-directional radio beacon
B. radio beacon
C. directional radio beacon
D. multi-directional radio beacon

235. Occasions when the level of the sea of the sea is lower than the predicted
level, it is called:
A. Surging tide
B. Positive surges
C. None of the given options
D. Negative surges

236. When is the river said to be in spate?


A. When there is increased rate in current and fall in level in river due to
heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters
B. When there is reduced rate in current and rise in level in river due to
heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters
C. When there is increased rate in current and rise in level Cin a river due to
heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters
D. All of these.

237. To proceed against the tide stream at such a speed that the vessel remains
stationary over the ground is called:
A. Heave to
B. Stem the tide
C. Broach to
D. Ride to

61
238. A passage between two sea areas is called
A. Sound
B. Runnel
C. Channel
D. Canal

239. A light with all durations of day and night equal is called:
A. Group occulting
B. Flashing light
C. Isophase light
D. Occulting light

240. The situation whereby a vessel is carried inadvertently broad side on to the
sea when running before it is called:
A. pooping
B. dragging
C. broaching
D. drifting

241. A Tide which has only one high water and one low water each day; that part
of the tide which has one complete osculation in a day, is called :
A. double tide
B. tidal stream
C. diurnal tide
D. tidal range

62
242. A local effect, constant in magnitude, superimposed on the earths normal
magnetic field is called :
A. Magnetic variation
B. Earths field
C. Abnormal magnetic variation
D. Local magnetic anomaly

243. The sea in the vicinity of the coast is called :


A. coastline
B. coastal plain
C. coast
D. coastal waters

244. Which of these is not an advantage of a mercator chart ?


A. Distances are easily measured as scale of latitude= scale of distance
B. Bearings and position lines can be easily transferred from one part of the
chart to another as parallel of altitudes.
C. Polar regions can be represented on a mercator chart
D. Shapes of land masses are shown correctly in the immediate
neighbourhood of any port.

245. Where will you find the position for different ports in the world?
A. Nautical almanac
B. Chart catalogue
C. Guide to port Entry
D. Reeds distance tables

63
246. The triangle not uncommonly formed by the intersection of three lines of
bearing on the chart are called :
A. DR
B. point of intersection
C. diamond
D. cocked hat

247. A buoy, the visible portion of which shows an approximately spherical


shape is called :
A. a spindle buoy
B. All of these.
C. a spherical buoy
D. a spar buoy

248. A fixed light varied at regular intervals by a group of two or more flashes of
greater brilliance is called:
A. fixed and group flashing light
B. fixed and flashing light
C. alternatively flashing light
D. just flashing light

249. Currents caused by pressure gradient in the water is called :


A. ocean current
B. equatorial current
C. countercurrent
D. gradient current

64
250. Detailed description or representation on a chart or map, of the natural or
artificial features of a district is called:
A. Botony
B. topography
C. Oceanography
D. Zoology

251. What is the minimum speed required to keep the vessel under control by
means of the rudder called?
A. Critical speed
B. Speed of advance
C. Steerage way
D. Stern speed

252. A radar transponder beacon which emits a characteristic signal when


triggered by the emissions of ship's radar is called:
A. Radio beacon
B. Ramark
C. Rayband
D. Racon

253. A shoal area in a river, or extending across a river where the depths are less
than those upstream or downstream of it is called:
A. Bank
B. Reef
C. Seashore
D. Shallow

65
254. On a gnomonic chart which of these can be done
A. Bearing and position lines can be easily transferred
B. Measurement of longitude & distance is easy.
C. Thumb line courses appear as straight lines
D. Great circle courses can be laid as straight lines

255. A light showing over a very narrow sector forming a single leading light is
called
A. search light
B. sector light
C. directional light
D. non-directional light

256. The average time interval between moon's transit and the following high
water is called:
A. Mean sea level
B. Mean high water neaps
C. Mean high waterlevel
D. Mean high water springs

257. What word is used to indicate colour variations in the characteristics of a


light?
A. Alternating
B. Flashing
C. Occulting
D. Sophase

66
258. When correcting charts by applying a block correction, which of the
following would be the correct procedure?
A. The block should be penciled around when in position and the pencil area
of the chart & the block should be pasted
B. The block should be penciled around when in position and the pencil area
of the chart pasted
C. The block should be penciled around when in position and the edges of
the block should be pasted before fixing
D. The block should be penciled around when in position and the block
should be pasted before fixing

259. When can a towed log measure speed?


A. In all the other options
B. When the speed is greater than 5 kts
C. When the speed is between 1-5 kts
D. When speed is greater than lid

260. On predominant current charts, what is obtained by comparing the number


of observations in the predominant sector against the total number of
observations and expressed as a percentage?
A. Constancy
B. Clean resultant
C. Occurrence
D. Percentage frequency

261. On a routeing chart, what pastel colour is used to indicate the summer zone?
A. light blue
B. light green
C. light yellow
D. light pink

67
262. When two position lines are obtained at different times, the position of the
ship may be found by transferring the first position line up t the time of
taking the bearing of the second position line. What is this called
A. three point bearing
B. four point bearing
C. horizontal sextant angles
D. running fix

263. Which book is usually kept by a junior officer, in which are entered speeds,
directions and times of engine movements as they are relayed to the engine
room while the ship is manouvering?
A. Bell book
B. None of the other options
C. Bridge note book
D. Mates log book

264. In which if the following publications will you find general information on
ice
A. Nories tables
B. Guide o port entry
C. Mariner's handbook
D. ALRS

265. How will it be indicated that the course recorder paper is nearly finished?
A. By an audible sound
B. By a flashing light on the instrument
C. By a colored stripe on the paper
D. There is no such indication

68
266. Which of these is used to find the times and heights of high water in
offshore areas and at places which lie between secondary ports?
A. co-tidal/co-range charts
B. routeing charts
C. Diamonds marked on the chart
D. tidal stream atlas

267. What is course allowing for leeway know as?


A. leeway
B. Ground track
C. Set
D. Water track

268. For which of these aspects would a navigational chart not be used?
A. Laying of bearings
B. Great circle sailing
C. Large scale plans of harbour approaches
D. Polar navigation in higher latitudes

269. The intersection of two or more position lines, which has been obtained at
the same time which gives the position of the ship is called :
A. Bearing
B. Course lines
C. Cocked hat
D. Fix

69
270. What are vector current charts used for?
A. To calculate the drift of objects over a long period of time.
B. All of these.
C. To ascertain the most likely current to be experienced in the area of
consideration
D. To find out the variability of the ocean current in the region it covers.

271. A line drawn on a chart on which the ship is known to be is called :


A. Clearing line
B. Position line
C. Course line
D. Clearing bearing

272. What type of routeing would container ships normally opt for?
A. All weather route
B. Ice free route
C. Deep water route
D. Climatic route

273. What is the portion of a circle, defined by limiting bearings if necessary,


throughout which a light is visible from seaward known as ?
A. Limiting circle
B. Arc of visibility
C. Range of light
D. Arc of the horizon

70
274. The distance called a vessel continues to travel on a course before
responding to a change of helm?
A. Tactical diameter
B. Transfer
C. Drift angle
D. Advance

275. What is a chart, which is published for the first time called?
A. Newly corrected chart
B. Newly printed chart
C. New edition
D. New chart

276. What is the work of computation required in navigating a ship for 24 hrs
called?
A. Day mark
B. flays run
C. Days work
D. Jays of grace

277. If you wish to report a depth which is different from the chartered depth,
how will you do so?
A. Inform the nearest coast guard
B. Inform any meteorological office
C. Use hydrographic note to inform the hydrographic office
D. Inform IMO

71
278. What term is used to describe newly discovered hazards which have not yet
been indicated in the nautical publications ?
A. Isolated danger
B. Dangerous mark
C. New danger
D. Danger zone

279. Which method is not used to obtain a position line :


A. Taking a time signal
B. An observation of a celestial body giving the position line.
C. A transit bearing
D. Visual bearing of a terrestrial object

280. The accuracy of a running fix depends on :


A. Speed at which the observation is taken
B. time of the day
C. accuracy of the estimated run over the ground
D. Instruments used in plotting

281. If a ship is steaming at an engine speed of 12kts in a 3kts current which is


setting in the opposite direction then what will the log speed show?^
A. 3 kts
B. 9 kts
C. 12 kts
D. 15 kts

72
282. What is the difference between the speed of the stream projected by the
propeller and the speed of the ship, in relation to a fixed point in the water,
clear of the wake called?
A. Speed through the water
B. Apparent Slip
C. Speed over ground
D. Engine speed

283. On a routeing chart what does the direction of the current (arrows) indicate?
A. The direction in which the current is flowing
B. None of the other options
C. A direction perpendicular to the direction of current.
D. The direction from where the current is coming

284. Who issues and publishes the weekly notice to mariners?


A. The hydrographic department of the navy
B. IMO
C. The meterological department
D. The World health organization

285. What information can be obtained from the source data block on the chart?
A. Special reference to tidal levels and chartered data
B. Special navigational notes on land and sea areas
C. Date of publication of the chart
D. Dates of survey
286. Where are you likely to experience the Trades
A. Atlantic ,pacific and Indian oceans
B. Mediterranean
C. Straits of Magellan
D. Aegean sea

73
287. The international nautical mile is :
A. 1,852 meters
B. 1852 meters
C. 1,853 meters
D. 185 meters

288. In coastal navigation, What is the horizontal angle between two fixed
objects on shore lying approximately at the same distance on either side of a
danger to be cleared, outside of which it is considered safe for the ship
A. Angle of repose
B. Danger angle
C. Complementary angle
D. Horizontal parallax

289. What is the course known as after taking into account current and leeway?
A. Course to steer to counteract current
B. Course to steer to counteract leeway
C. Course to steer
D. Course made good

265. What would be considered a good practice when transferring positions from
one chart to another?
A. Use bearings in distance of a readily unidentifiable object
B.Transfer the approximate position
C. None of the other options
D. By using a tracing sheet

74
266. The best fix is obtained when the bearing between two objects are:
A. 45 degrees apart
B. 90 degrees apart
C. 180 degrees apart
D. 135 degrees apart

267. Where is the title of the chart printed: TO IPD


In some convenient, conspicuous place, where it does not hinder navigation
or the use of it
A. Where the sea areas are located
B. Always at the center of the chart
C. Always at the bottom left hand margin
D. Always at the bottom left hand margin

268. The relationship between the actual length of something on the earth and the
length by which that thing is shown on the chart is called :
A. Calculated scale
B. Natural scale
C. Variable scale
D. Actual scale

269. Where is the natural scale of the chart is shown?


A. Below the title
B. At the back of the chart
C. Bottom left hand margin
D. Top right hand margin

75
270. What does natural scale of 1/12,500 mean :
A. a feature of 1cm length on the earth would be represented by a length of
0.00008 cm. on the chart.
B. a feature of 12,500 cms length on the earth would be represented by a
length of one cm. on the chart.
C. a feature of 1 cm length on the earth would be represented by a length of
12,500cms on the chart
D. a feature of 12,500 cms length on the earth would be represented by a
length of 12,500cms. on the chart.

271. How do direction lines appear on a mercator projection?


A. As straight lines
B. Parabolic
C. As curved lines
D. Elliptical

272. How are angles represented on a mercator chart?


A. True and equal to the corresponding angles on the earth's surface
B. Relative and equal to the corresponding angles on the earth's surface
C. True but different from the corresponding angles on the earth's surface
D. Relative but different from the corresponding angles on earth's surface

273. How are the meridians shown on a mercator chart?


A. As equidistant parallel lines parallel to the equator
B. Not equidistant but perpendicular to the equator
C. As equidistant parallel lines perpendicular to the equator
D. As equidistant parallel lines but inclined with the equator

76
274. D'lat =
A. dlat x sec long
B. length of d'Iong x sec lat
C. length of d'Iat x sec long
D. long x sec lat

275. Where will you find the number of the chart?


A. Always outside the left hand margin
B. Always outside the right hand margin.
C. Below the chart title
D. At the bottom right hand corner and top left hand corner outside the
margin.

276. Where will you find the list of charts with the title and number for various
parts of the world ?
A. Chart folio
B. Chart catalogue
C. Sailing directions
D. Chart 5011

277. Where will you find the date of publication of a chart ?


A. At the top, in the middle just outside the margin.
B. At the left, in the middle just outside the margin.
C. At the right, in the middle just outside the margin.
D. At the bottom, in the middle just outside the margin.

77
278. Where will you find the date of printing?
A. Left hand corner outside the margin
B. Bottom right hand corner outside the margin.
C. Right hand corner outside the margin
D. Top right hand corner outside the margin.

279. If the chart was printed on the the 335th day of 1975, how is this written?
A. 3351975
B. 33575
C. 335.75
D. 335.1975

280. Where are the numbers of small corrections entered ?


A. Bottom left hand corner outside the margin
B. Right left hand corner outside the margin
C. Top left hand corner outside the margin
D. Left hand corner outside the margin

281. Where will you find large corrections and new edition dates?
A. These are shown at the bottom right hand corner and top left hand corner
outside the margin.
B. These are shown below the chart title.
C. These are shown near the new edition dates, at the bottom , in the middle,
outside the margin.
D. These are shown Top right hand corner outside the margin.

78
282. Sometimes a notice to mariner includes a reproduction of a small area of a
chart in which the correction has been carried out. This is cut and pasted in
the appropriate position on the chart as part of a small correction.
A. Permanent correction
B. Chart block
C. Tracing
D. T & P notice

283. That does the figures in brackets shown outside the lower right hand border
of the chart eg (425.0 x B60.0mm) indicate ?
A. plate dimensions
B. Latitude and longitude sale
C. chart dimensions
D. Scale of the chart

284. List of lights gives


A. luminous range of lights
B. nominal range
C. geographical range of lights
D. hone of the other options

285. Pick out the one which is not an advantage of a leading light?
A. Helps in fixing the position of the ship in the channel
B. It indicates the safe passage of the ship in a channel
C. It helps the navigator in obtaining a homing signal
D. It helps the navigator in finding the compass error

79
286. If the true transit bearings of two leading lights is read off the chart and the
compass bearing of the two , when in transit is taken, then the difference
between the two bearings so obtained is the:
A. variation
B. compass error
C. deviation
D. magnetic bearing

287. What is used on the chart for the laying off bearing and courses?
A. Latitudes
B. Compass rose
C. Longitude scale
D. Latitude scale

288. The compass roses is printed as two concentric cards. The inner card is:
A. on the true north
B. compass north
C. none of the other options
D. on the magnetic meridian

289. What are sailing directions also known as?


A. Pilot books
B. Passage planning charts
C. Routeing charts
D. Guide to port entry

80
290. When a new supplement to the sailing direction, what is done with the old
one?
A. The supplement replaces the entire edition
B. cancelled
C. Used independently of the old one
D. Used in conjunction with the old one TO IPD

291. If Var = 8W and Dev =411V, What is the compass error ?


A. 4W
B. 12W
C. 4E
D. 12E

292. If var =6E; dev =3W, What is the compass error ?


A. 9W
B. 3E
C. 3W
D. 9E

293. Var = 7W ;Dev = 12E ; What is the compass error ?


A. 17E
B. 17W
C. 5W
D. 5E

294. To convert compass course to magnetic course, it is necessary to apply


A. both<Option 1> and <Option 2>
B. neither<Option 1> or <Option 2>
C. variation
D. deviation

81
295. Compass course 035 ( C ), Deviation 6 E, What is the magnetic course ?
A. 029 (M)
B. 221 ( M)
C. 041 ( M )
D. 209 ( M)

296. Compass course 185 ( C ), Deviation = 3W, What is the magnetic course ?
A. 188 ( M)
B. 002 (M )
C. 182 ( M)
D. 008 ( M)

297. To convert magnetic course to true course, it is necessary to apply:


A. Deviation
B. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>
C. Variation
D. Netiher<:Option 1> or <Option 2>

298. Magnetic course = 050 (M ); Variation = 8E; What is the true course ?
A. 042 ( T )
B. 058 ( T)
C. 238 ( T )
D. 222 ( T)

299. True course =310 ( T ), Variation 6 E, What is the magnetic course ?


A. 124 (T )
B. 136 ( T)
C. 304(T)
D. 316 (T)

82
300. Deviation varies as the :
A. Geographical position
B. Ship's speed
C. Ship's head
D. Weather conditions

301. If ship's head by compass was 045 (C), What is the true course if the
variation is 5W? Dev =9.5 W
A. 054.5 (T)
B. 059.5 (T)
C. 030.5 (T)
D. 050 (T)

302. A position line is a part of a:


A. Small circle
B. All of these.
C. Position circle
D. Segment

303. A position line is ........to the azimuth of the body.


A. 90deg
B. 45deg
C. 180deg
D. parallel

304. What is obtained when the difference between the true and calculated ?
A. Longitude
B. Position line
C. Intercept
D. Latitude

83
305. For how long should notice to mariners be retained on board ?
A. discard as soon as corrections are completed.
B. 5yrs
C. 6months
D. 2 yrs

306. What does this figure indicate?

A. Anchor for deep draft


B. Anchoring prohibited
C. Anchor berth
D. Quarantine anchorage

307. What does this figure indicate?

A. Fish trap
B. Shell fish bed
C. Fish farm
D. Fishing stake

308. What is this?

A. Raymark
B. Radio calling in point, way or reporting point showing direction of
vessels movement
C. Coast radio station providing range and beating fromstations on request
D. Aeronautical radio beacon

84
309. What does this figure indicate?

A. Pipeline
B. Telegraph line
C. Power transmission line
D. Overhead transporter

310. On routeing charts how are iceberg limits


presented.

A. letter d
B. letter c
C. letter a
D. letter b

311. What does this figure indicate?

A. Fish farm
B. Fish trap
C. Fishing prohibited
D. Fish haven

312. What does this figure indicate?

A. Group quick
B. Single Occulting
C. Composite group flashing
D. Single flashing

85
313. Give the meaning of.

A. Special mark
B. Isolated danger
C. Fairway buoy
D. Safe water mark

314. What does this figure indicate?

A. Eddies
B. Kelp
C. Overfalls and tide-rips
D. Breakers

315. Give the meaning of.

A. Non directional radio beacon


B. Rotating pattern radio beacon
C. Coast radio station providing QTG Service
D. Directional radio beacon

316. Give the meaning of.

A. North cardinal buoy


B. South cardinal buoy
C. East cardinal buoy
D. West cardinal buoy

86
317. What does this figure indicate?

A. Rock awash at the level of chart


datum
B. Historic wreck
C. Wreck of which the masts only
are visible
D. Rock which covers and uncovers

318. What does this figure indicate?

A. Chimney
B. Wind-motor
C. Pillar
D. Windmill

319. What does the figure indicate?

A. Ice barrier
B. Notice board
C. Areas of mobile bottom
D. Fresh water spring in sea bed

87
320. What does the upper figure indicate?

A. Percentage frequency
B. Mean resultant
C. Strength
D. No. of observations

321. If insufficient observations are made, how is the probable direction of the
predominant direction of sea surface current
indicated?

A. letter d
B. letter c
C. letter a
D. letter b

322. Vector current charts. Where is the mean position of observation

A. At the start of the arrow


B. the distance from the
start of the arrow
C. At the center of the arrow
D. At the arrow head
323. Give the meaning of.

A. None of the given options


B. Range lights
C. Lighthouse
D. Light vessel

88
324. What does the figure indicate?

A. Mosque
B. Spire
C. Minaret
D. Pagoda

325. What does this figure indicate?


A. Shinto shrine
B. Minaret
C. Cathedral
D. Chapel

326. What does the figure indicate?

A. None of the other options


B. Bottom found at less than 110 fathoms
C. No bottom found at 110 fathoms
D. Bottom found at 110 fathoms

327. What is this?


A. Nipa palm
B. Conifer
C. Filao
D. Palm

328. What does the figure indicate?

A. None of the given options


B. Disused submarine pipeline
C. Submarine cable
D. Submarine pipeline
89
329. What does this figure indicate?

A. Signal station
B. Pilot office
C. Pilot boarding place
D. Pilot lookout station

330. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 2 - 2.2
miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 3 - 3.9 mile

331. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Less than 0.9 mile
D. Between 3 - 3.9
miles

90
332. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.Between 46 - 60 minutes
B. Between 21 - 30 minutes
C. Now or passed
D. Between 11 - 20 minutes

333. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.Between 3 - 3.9 miles


B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

334. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 3 - 4 miles
B. Less than 0.9 miles
C. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

335. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 3 - 3.9 miles


B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

91
336. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 0.9 miles


B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Between 3 3.9 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

337. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?


A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

338. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Now or passed
B. Between 31 - 45 minutes
C. Between 21 - 30 minutes
D. Between 46 - 60 minutes

339. What is the aspect of the target A ?


A. Starboard bow (Green 15-
75)
B. End on or nearly end on
C. Port beam (Red 75-105)
D. Port quarter (Red 105-
160)

92
340. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 4 - 5 miles
B. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 2 - 3 miles

341. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 0.9 mile


B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

342. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 11 - 20 minutes
B. Between 31 - 45 minutes
C. Between 21 - 30 minutes
D. Between 46 - 60 minutes

343. What is the aspect of the target A ?

A. Starboard quarter (Green


105-160)
B. Port bow (Red 15-75)
C. Starboard bow (Green 15-
75)
D. Port quarter (Red 105-160)

93
344. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 4 - 5 miles
B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Less than 0.9 mile
D. Between 2.1 - 3.9 miles

345. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 0.9 mile


B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
D. Between 2.1 - 2.9 miles

346. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 0.9 mites


B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Between 2.1 - 3.9 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

347. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
D. Less than 0.9 miles

94
348. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 0 - 10 minutes
B. Between 11 - 20 minutes
C. Between 31 - 40 minutes
D. Between 21 - 30 minutes

349. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 1 mile


B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. Between 2 - 4 miles

350. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 3 - 3.9 miles


B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Less than 1 mile
D. Between 2.1 - 2.9 miles

351. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Less than 1 mile
C. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
D. Between 3 - 4 miles

95
352. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?
A. Between 4 - 5 miles
B. Less than 1 mile
C. Between 2 - 4 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

353. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
C. Less than 1 mile
D. Between 3 - 4 miles

354. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 2 - 4 miles
B. Less than 0.9 miles
C. More than 4 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

355. 2What is the closest point of approach of target A ?


A. Less than 0.9 miles
B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
C. Between 4 - 5 miles
D. Between 3 - 3.9 miles

96
356. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. More than 4 miles


B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
C. Between 3 - 4 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

357. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?


A. More than 5 miles
B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 2 - 4 miles

358. What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ?

A. Between 31 - 45 minutes
B. Now or Passed
C. Between 20 - 30 minutes
D. Between 5 - 15 minutes

359. 30. Which target will have the closest point of approach?
A. Target A
B. All Equal
C. Target B
D. Target C

97
360. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?
A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. More than 3 miles
C. Less than 0.9 mile
D. Between 2 - 2.9 miles

361. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 2 - 4 miles
C. Less than 1 mile
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

362. Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A. Target B
B. Target C
C. All equal
D. Target A

363. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

A. Between 2 - 2.9 miles


B. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. Less than 1 mile

98
364. Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A. Target A
B. All equal
C. Target B
D. Target C

365. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Less than 1 mile


B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. More than 5 miles

366. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?


A. More than 5 miles
B. Between 2 - 4 miles
C. Between 4 - 5 miles
D. Less than 1 mile

367. What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ?


A.Between 11 - 20 minutes
B. Between 21 - 30 minutes
C. Between 31 - 45 minutes
D. Between 0 - 10 minute

99
368. Which target will have the closest point of approach?
A. Target A
B. Target C
C. All equal
D. Target B

369. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

A. Less than 1 mile


B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Between 2 - 3 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

370. Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A. Target B
B. Target C
C. All equal
D. Target A

371. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?


A. Less than 0.9 mile
B. Between 1 - 1.9 miles
C. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
D. Between 2 - 2.9 miles

100
372. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target B
B. All equal
C. Target A
D. Target C

373. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Between 4 - 5 miles
B. Between 3 - 4 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. Less than 0.9 mile

374. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target C
B. Target B
C. Target A
D. All Equal

375. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. All equal
B. Target C
C. Target A
D. Target B

101
376. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?
A. Target B
B. Target A
C. All Equal
D. Target C

377. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?


A. Less than 0.9 mile
B. Between 3 - 4 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

378. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target C
B. Target A
C. Target B
D. All equal

379. What is the time to closest point of approach of target C ?

A. Now or passed
B. Between 46 - 60 minutes
C. Between 31 - 45 minutes
D. Between 21 - 30 minutes

102
380. What is the aspect of the target C ?
A. Starboard beam. (75-105)
B. Starboard bow. (Green 15-
75)
C. Port bow. (Red 15-75)
D. Port beam. (Red 75-105)

381. If the visibility is 10 miles, what action should be taken ?


A. A broad alteration to port
B. A substantial reduction of
speed
C. A broad alteration to
starboard
D. Stand on

382. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?


A. Target C
B. Target B
C. All the same
D. Target A

383. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?


A. Target B
B. Target F
C. All the same
D. Target D

103
384. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?
A. Target D
B. Target B
C. Target C
D. Target A

385. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target F
B. Target D
C. Target B
D. Target E

386. What is aspect of the target B ?


A. End on or nearly end on
B. Port beam. (Red 75-105)
C. Starboard bow. (Green 15-
75)
D. Port bow. (Red 15-75)

387. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?


A. Target B
B. Target A
C. Target F
D. Target D

104
388. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A. More than 5 miles


B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

389. What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Now or passed
B. Between 15 - 30 minutes
C. Between 31 - 45 minutes
D. Between 0 - 10 minutes

390. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?


A. Targat D
B. Target E
C. Target C
D. Target B

391. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Less than 0.9 mile


B. Between 2 - 3 miles
C. Between 4 - 5 miles
D. Between 1 - 1.9 miles

105
392. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?
A. Less than 0.9 mile
B. Between 2 - 3 miles
C. Between 4-5 miles
D. Between 1 -1.9 miles

393. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?


A. More than 4 miles
B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Less than 1 mile
D. Between 3 - 4 miles

394. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 3 - 3.9 mites


B. Less than 1 mile
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. Between 2 - 3 miles

395. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?


A. Now or passed
B. Between 31 - 45 minutes
C. Between 11 - 20 minutes
D. Between 46 - 60 minutes

396. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?


A. Target C
B. Target B
C. Target D
D. Target A

106
397. What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?
A. Between 11 - 20 minutes
B. Between 21 - 30 minutes
C. Between 0 - 10 minutes
D. Now or passed

398. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?


A. Between 2 - 3 miles
B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Now or passed
D. Less than 0.9 miles

399. Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A. Target B
B. Target F
C. Target C
D. Target E

400. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?


A. Less than 0.9 mite
B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. More than 5 miles

107
401. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?
A. Between 46 - 60 minutes
B. Now or passed
C. Between 10 - 20 minutes
D. Between 31 - 45 minutes

402. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?


A. Between 3 - 4 miles
B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 2 - 2.9 miles

403. What is the aspect of the target B ?


A. Port beam. (Red 75-
105)
B. Port bow. (Red 15-75)
C. Starboard beam (Green
75-105)
D. Starboard bow. (Green 15-75)

404. What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?


A. Between 0 - 10 minutes
B. Between 46 - 60 minutes
C. Between 31 - 45 minutes
D. Between 21 - 30 minutes

108
405. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target B
B. Target E
C. Target A
D. Target C

406. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target C
B. Target A
C. Target B
D. Target D

407. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

A. Between 0.5 - 1.5 miles


B. More than 5 miles
C. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles.

408. What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ?

A. Between 21 - 30 minutes
B. Between 31 - 45 minutes
C. Now or passed
D. Between 0 - 10 minutes

109
409. What is the aspect of the target C ?

A. Port bow. (Red 15-75)


B. Starboard bow. (Green 15-
75)
C. End on or nearly end on
D. Stern or nearly astern

410. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Now or passed
B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Between 3 - 4 miles
D. Less than 1 mile

411. If the visibility is restricted, what action should be taken in this situation ?

A. A substantial reduction of
peed
B. A broad alteration to port
C. A broad alteration of
course to starboard
D. Stand on with caution

412. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target A
B. Target C
C. Target B
D. Target D

110
413. What is the aspect of the target B ?

A. Starboard bow. (15 - 75)


B. Port bow. (15 - 75)
C. End on or nearly end on
D. Stern or nearly astern

414. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target A
B. Target C
C. Target D
D. Target B

415. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 3 - 3.9 miles


B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. Now or passed

416. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 21 - 30 minutes
B. Between 31 - 45 minutes
C. Between 11 - 20 minutes
D. Now or passed

111
417. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target B
B. Target F
C. Target E
D. Target D

418. What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Now or passed
B. Between 31 - 45 minutes
C. Between 11 - 20 minutes
D. Between 21 - 30 minutes

419. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Now or passed
C. Between 4 - 5 miles
D. Less than 0.9 mile

420. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 31 - 46 minutes
B. Between 46 - 60 minutes
C. Now or passed
D. Between 11 - 20 minutes

112
421. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target B
B. Target C
C. Target A
D. Target D

422. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 1 mile


B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. More than 5 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

423. Where does the auto pilot get its heading information from?
A. By manual input
B. radar
C. G.P.S
D. gyro compass

424. Which of these is an error caused in the CPS system?


A. Random errors
B. Light effect
C. User clock error
D. Systematic error

425. In which of these situations is the autopilot most successfully used?


A. When the vessel is not in restricted waters and no manoeuvering is
carried out
B. When the vessel is in restricted waters and manoeuvering is to be carried
out
C. When large alterations of course are intended.
D. When the speed is less than 5 kts

113
426. In the G.P.S., Which of the following does the satellite message consist of?
A. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, Time difference between
signals,atmospheric propagation, almanacs
B. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, satellite clock
bias,atmospheric propagation, almanacs
C. Course acquisition code, Phase difference of the signals, satellite clock
bias,atmospheric propagation, almanacs
D. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, satellite lock bias,the time at
which a null occurred, almanacs

427. Which control on the auto pilot is used if there is a constant external
influence?
A. Permanent helm
B. Rudder
C. Weather
D. Counter rudder

428. Which of these is an error caused in the GPS system?


A. Random errors
B. Light effect
C. User clock error
D. Systematic error

429. In the G.P.S., Which of the following does the satellite message consist of?
A. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, Time difference between
signals,atmospheric propagation, almanacs
B. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, satellite clock
bias,atmospheric propagation, almanacs
C. Course acquisition code, Phase difference of the signals, satellite clock
bias,atmospheric propagation, almanacs
D. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, satellite lock bias,the time at
which a null occurred, almanacs

430. What is the accuracy of G.P.S., for a PPS user?


A. +/- 100 meters
B. +/- 10,000 meters
C. +/- 1000 meters
D. +/- 5-10 meters

114
431. What is the positional accuracy within DGPS coverage?
A. 1000 metres
B. 10,000 metres
C. 100 meters
D. 10 meters

432. What is the accuracy of G.P.S., for a SPS user?


A. +/- 100 meters
B. +/- 5-10 meters
C. +/- 10,000 meters
D. +/- 1000 meters

433. In the G.P.S. system, Which are the two services provided by the user
segmeny?
A. Precise position service & Standard positioning service
B. Precise position service & Variable positioning service
C. Position plotting service & Variable positioning service
D. Precise position service & fixed positioning service

434. What are radio waves which travel along the earths surface called?
A. Sea waves
B. Sky waves
C. Air waves
D. Ground waves

435. When is the G.P.S. satellite unusable?


A. When it's elevation is greater than 9.5 deg
B. When its elevation is less than 9.5 deg
C. When its elevation is less than 45 deg
D. When its elevation is greater than 45 deg

115
436. In the G.P.S. system, what is the range measured which includes the user
clock offset?
A. Observed range
B. True range
C. Calculated range
D. Pseudo range

437. What is the error in GPS is caused when the configuration of the available
satellite is not suitable?
A. Geometric dilution of precision
B. User clock error
C. Ionospheric and tropospheric delays of signals
D. Satellite clock error

438. Which are the three segments the GPS segment comprises of?
A. Control , Ground and user segments
B. Ground , space and user segments
C. Control , space and ground segments
D. Control , space and user segments

439. What is a wireless station which emits a beam of waves in one or several
definite directions or sectors?
A. Directional radio beacon
B. Aero beacon
C. Direction finder
D. Non-directional radio beacon

116
440. Which are the two most important parameters on which the control segment
of the G.P.S. depends on?
A. Satellite positional information & Atmospheric propagation data
B. Satellite rotational speed & Atmospheric propagation data
C. Satellite clock error control & satellite positional information.
D. Satellite rotational speed & satellite clock error control

441. Which of these principles is used to obtain the position of the ship by
G.P.S.?
A. Ranging
B. Difference in tone
C. Time difference
D. Phase difference

442. How can the error of the Gyro compass be determined?

A. By taking a transit bearing with the gyro compass of two prominent fixed
shore objects and comparing it with the bearing of the same objects on
the chart
B. By using any of the methods in the suggested answers
C. By comparing the course readout on the GPS with the gyro course
steered.
D. By taking the radar bearing of an object when the radar is on a compass
stabilised mode and comparing it with the bearing on the chart of the
same object

443. Is the location of the Compass Binnacle critical?


A. Yes, for the reasons stated in all of the suggested answers
B. Yes, it should be on the fore and aft centreline of the ship
C. Yes, it should be away from all electrical power cables
D. Yes, it should be sited on a non-metallic base if possible.

117
444. The compass binnacle on the ship has various specific functions, which of
the following answers reflect its most important functions.
A. All of the answers provided
B. Houses the corrective magnets
C. Houses the soft iron correctors
D. Provides a non-magnetic housing for the compass

445. The gyro compass can suffer from a compass error and may need to be
allowed for, when steering a course in a dangerous navigational area. What
is the probable cause of the error?
A. An uncorrected course and speed error.
B. Variation
C. Compass Deviation
D. Fluctuations in the electrical supply to the compass.

446. What are the main components causing the magnetic compass to require a
regular evaluation and compass correction?
A. Permanent and induced magnetism in the ships structure
B. The change in the position of the magnetic pole causing annual changes
in the variation
C. Deviation and Variation
D. The continual changes of courses steered by the ship

447. What are the required data inputs into most gyro compasses to reduce any
possible compass error?
A. Latitude and Speed
B. Deviation and Variation
C. Maximum helm angle and rolling period
D. All of the data in the suggested answers

118
448. What are the two parts of the magnetic compass error?
A. Variation and Deviation
B. Permanent and induced magnetism
C. The latitude and longitude
D. West and East errors

449. What could be the reason for the magnetic compass to swing through large
angles when the ship is rolling in a seaway?
A. The heeling error magnets are upside down and/or not in the correct
position.
B. The error due to deviation is large for that ships heading
C. The induced magnetism from the earth's magnetic field is very strong in
that area
D. The Coefficient B determined by the Compass Corrector at the last dry-
dock was not correctly calculated.

450. Where can the size of the Magnetic Compass Error be found?
A. By taking a transit bearing of two fixed geographical positions and
comparing it with the bearing of the same points on the chart
B. On the chart in the centre of the compass rose or by reference to the
Variation chart, taking into account the annual changes
C. By reference to the last entry in the Compass Error Log Book
D. By taking the error from the Deviation Table on the bridge

119
451. Which part of the magnetic compass error changes with a change in the
course steered?

A. Deviation
B. Variation
C. Induced magnetism
D. All of the suggested answers

452. What is the meaning of H.S. PUMPS ?

A. Hele-Shaw pumps
B. Higgins-Simpson pumps
C. Hydraulic solenoid pumps
D. Hydrostatic solenoid pumps

453. What is the function of the values PR fitted between the two after and the
two forward cylinders ?
A. To act as automatic by-pass valves when the steering gear is stopped
B. To be opened to allow emergency steering.
C. To act as safety valves to absorb shock and avoid damage
D. To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump

454. When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action ?

A. As soon as the electric motor is


started
B. As soon as point Z moves
C. As soon as the telemotor pump is
started
D. As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge

120
455. What is part No 3 ?

A. The rudder
B. The poop
C. The transom
D. The stern

456. What is the shaft called to which the propeller is fastened ?

A. The main engine shaft


B. The intermediate shaft
C. The tail shaft
D. The stern shaft

457. How is the propeller fitted on the drive shaft, so as to avoid it from slipping ?

A. it is locked into slots on the drive shaft


B. It is bolted on the flange of the drive shaft
C. A key is fitted between propeller and drive shaft
D. Wires are fitted through the securing holes of shaft and propeller

458. What part is fitted under the propeller cone ? (Left triangular part of the propeller
in the drawing)

A. The propeller nut


B. The propeller seal
C. The propeller locking bar
D. The oil filling pipe

459. Of what kind commonly named metal is the stern tube lining composed of ?

A. in
B. Aluminium brass
C. Lead
D. White metal

121
460. How is the stern tube bearing lubricated ?

A. By the main stern supply


pump
B. it turns in an oil bath
C. By grease
D. By graphite

461. What is the shape of stern tube


seals (forward and aft) ?

A. They are square in form and diagonally cut


B. They are round in form and in one piece (0-ring type)
C. They are lip seals and in one piece
D. They are flat gaskets between flanges

462. Which are the stern tube bearing


parts on this type of stern tube?

A. The cylindrical steel tube aft


B. The forward and the aft bearing bushes (liners)
C. The cylindrical steel tube with white metal lining and oil bath
D. The forward and aft plummer blocks

122
463. When a command is given to this steering
gear, what happens ?

A. The spring "S" will be compressed or elongated


B. The HS pumps will start pumping
C. Point "X" will turn around point "Y", moving "Z" and the control rod
D. The valves 'PR" will activate, building up hydraulic pressure

464. What is the purpose of spring "S" fitted


between point "Y" and the Trunion block
of the steering gear ?

A. To avoid sudden movements and overload


B. To elongate and compress and keep point "Y" in place
C. To absorb the clearance of the Trunion with the rod "X-Y"
D. Ensuring flexibility by absorbing vibrations and clearances

465. What is to be checked during a drydocking period to ensure that any upward
movement of the rudder will be contained and damage to the steering gear
will be avoided ?

A. The pallister bearing clearance


B. The upper and lower pintle jumping bar clearances
C. The rudder plugs
D. The rudder stock carrier bearing clearance

123
466. Which action of the steering gear pumps is
feasible ?

A. Pressure to cylinders A and D, return oil from B and C


B. Pressure to cylinders A and B, return oil from C and D
C. Pressure to cylinders A and C, return oil from B and D
D. Pressure to cylinder A, return oil from D

467. During normal operations, the command


rod ''C" pushes point Z and the control
rod off centre so that the "HS" pumps start
pumping and the settering gear moves.
When will it stop moving

A. When the command rod "C" stops moving


B. When the command rod ''C" moves in opposite direction
C. When the rudder angle indicator corresponds to the command
D. When the trunion point "Y" pushes point Z back in the centre

468. This electric circuit is part of the Steering


Gear Control System, in which the output is
either 1 or 0 as either solenoid 1or 2 is
energized. It is an example of what kind of
circuit ?

A. Two (2) double resistor circuits balanced by the solenoids


B. Two (2) Potentiometers with amplifier relays
C. A booster aggregate
D. A Wheatstone Bridge

124
469. The first potentiometer of this electric
command system is located on the bridge.
By what mode of steering will it be given a
command ?

A. By automatic steering via the gyro


B. By hand steering
C. By any of these steering methods
D. By push button steering

470. What will the output be to the solenoids of the steering gear depending
potentiometers stands if : BRIDGE IIGHER THAN RUDDER = A stand,
RUDDER HIGHER THAN BRIDGE = B stand, RUDDER EQUAL TO BRIDGE
= O stand ?

A. O-stand = output 0, A-stand =S1 is 1, B-stand = S2 is 1


B. O-stand = output 1, A-stand =S1 is 1, B-stand = S2 is 1
C. O-stand = S1+S2, A stand = S1, B stand = S2
D. O-stand = output 1, A-stand =S1 is 0, B-stand = S2 is 0

471. This steering gear telemotor system is


drawn in the neutral position, rudder
amidship. This means that .?

A. neither solenoid S1" or "S2"is energised


B. the double check valves are blocked
C. the capacity control is at zero
D. pump P is not pumping

125
472. What is the purpose of the double
check valves fitted in this telemotor
system ?

A. To maintain the set pressure in the system


B. To keep the rudder locked in the desired position
C. To avoid pipe rupture due to sudden movements
D. To avoid oil blockage and stickiness

473. What is the purpose of the capacity control on the telemotor of a steering
gear ?

A. To keep the oil delivery quantity to the telemotor ram constant


B. To keep the electric capacity between parameters (absorption)
C. To keep the outlet pressure and capacity to react constant
D. To keep the oil delivery quantity of the pump constant

474. Under what circumstances is this steering control system energised /


operational?

A. By any of the above


B. By hand steering
C. By automatic gyro steering
D. By push-button steering

126
475. Mat is the purpose of the 3-way cock
part No 7 in the stern tube oil circuit
?

A. To drain the oil from the stern tube and sample


B. To remove air from the system
C. To fill oil in the system
D. To change over from main to forward stern tube sealing circuit

476. Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level ?

A. To ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal


B. To avoid sea water entering the stern tube
C. To ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal
D. To avoid oil being spilled overboard

477. In what direction does the axis of the gyro-compass wheel point?
A. Compass NORTH
B. Magnetic NORTH
C. True east
D. True North

478. The angle between the magnetic north and the true north is
A. Magnetic compass error
B. Compass error
C. Deviation
D. Variation

127
479. Which of the following methods can be used for determining the compass
error?
A. All of these.
B. By bearing of the sun
C. By a distant object on land
D. By comparing with a gyro compass which has a known error

480. What errors in the gyro- compass are caused due to torques within the
system and they cannot be corrected for by the user?
A. Speed and latitude error
B. Settling error
C. Longitude error
D. Ballastic error

481. In which of these circumstances would you carry out a compass swing?
A. When large structural alterations have occurred to the superstructure or to
the hull.
B. After being at anchor for a long time
C. After a long voyage
D. After a long stay in port

482. What is based on the principle of comparing the course to steer set by the
officer with thevessels actual course as seen from the gyro or magnetic
compass?
A. Course recorder
B. Gyro repeater
C. Auto pilot
D. Gyro compass

483. The combination of variation and deviation is known as:


A. sextant error
B. Gyro compass error
C. Magnetic compass error
D. position error

484. In what direction does the axis of the gyro-compass wheel point?
A. Compass NORTH
B. Magnetic NORTH
C. True east
D. True North

485. The angle between the magnetic north and the true north is
A. Magnetic compass error
B. Compass error
C. Deviation
D. Variation

128
486. What errors in the gyro- compass are caused due to torques within the
system and they cannot be corrected for by the user?
A. Speed and latitude error
B. Settling error
C. Longitude error
D. Ballastic error

487. In which of these circumstances would you carry out a compass swing?
A. When large structural alterations have occurred to the superstructure or to
the hull.
B. After being at anchor for a long time
C. fter a long voyage
D. After a long stay in port

488. What is based on the principle of comparing the course to steer set by the
officer with the vessels actual course as seen from the gyro or magnetic
compass?
A. Course recorder
B. Gyro repeater
C. Auto pilot
D. Gyro compass

489. What is a hemispherical brass or copper receptacal covered by a glass plate


in which the compass card is mounted?
A. Compass cover
B. Compass card
C. Compass chamber
D. Compass bowl

129
490. Which two corrections are necessary for a gyro compass?
A. Speed and latitude
B. Speed and longitude
C. Time and longitude
D. Latitude and time

491. Which are the two properties of a free gyroscope?


A. Gyroscopic inertia and precession
B. Inherent magnetism and precession
C. Inherent magnetism and rigidity in space
D. Gyroscopic inertia and inherent magnetism

492. Quadrantal correctors are:


A. fore and aft magnets
B. soft iron spheres
C. flinders bar
D. Thwartship bar magnets

493. Which are the three errors that are experienced in a gyro compass?
A. Time, speed and latitude and longitude errors.
B. settling, speed and latitude and longitude errors.
C. longitude, speed and latitude and ballastic errors.
D. settling, speed and latitude and ballastic errors.

494. Which of these errors are not adjustable on board?


A. error collimation
B. side error
C. index error
D. optical error

130
495. To name the 32 points of the compass in proper sequence from north
through east, south and west back to north is called
A. Box wrap
B. Swinging the compass
C. Box off
D. Box the compass
496. Which control on the auto pilot is used if there is a constant external
influence?
A. Permanent helm
B. Rudder
C. Weather
D. Counter rudder
497. Which are the two natural forces that a gyrosphere depends on?
A. rotational & rotational
B. magnetic & electrical
C. gravitational & rotational
D. magnetic & rotational

498. When does the off course alarm sound?


A. When the difference between the course setting and true course is more
than the pre-set limit.
B. When the difference between the course setting and gyro heading is equal
to the pre-set limit.
C. When the difference between the course setting and gyro heading is more
than the pre-set limit.
D. When the difference between the course setting and true course is equal
to the pre-set limit.
499. The course indicated by a magnetic compass, influencing both variation and
deviation is called
A. magnetic course
B. magnetic course
C. Compass course
D. true course

131
500. The combination of variation and deviation is known as:
A. sextant error
B. Gyro compass error
C. Magnetic compass error
D. position error

501. If the var = 2E & dev = 1E, Compass error will be


A. 3W
B. 1E
C. nil
D. 3E

502. The angle between the direction of the place or object and the magnetic
meridian is called
A. Compass bearing
B. Magnetic bearing
C. True bearing
D. Bearing line

503. In case of a steering failure which of these would be your first action?
A. Stop engines
B. Inform ER
C. Change over to non-follow up system
D. Change over to emergency steering

504. Which of the following methods can be used for determining the compass
error?
A. All of these.
B. By bearing of the sun
C. By a distant object on land
D. By comparing with a gyro compass which has a known error

132
505. Where does the auto pilot get its heading information from?
A. By manual input
B. radar
C. G.P.S
D. gyro compass

506. In which of these situations is the autopilot most successfully used?


A. When the vessel is not in restricted waters and no manoeuvering is
carried out
B. When the vessel is in restricted waters and manoeuvering is to be carried
out
C. When large alterations of course are intended.
D. When the speed is less than 5 kts

507. If the wheel is put to stbd.10, the rudder will also be turned to stbd.10 as
long as the wheel is kept on stbd. 10, then in which steering mode is the
vessel in?
A. Non follow up mode
B. Auto
C. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>
D. Follow up mode

508. What input information is required in order to ensure the course recorder to
function properly?
A. Speed of he vessel and the correct time(clock)
B. Input from gyro(repeater) and the correct time(clock)
C. Speed of the vessel and Input from gyro(repeater)
D. Input from gyro(repeater) and the position of the vessel

509. What is the course recorder used for?


A. To keep a record of all gyro courses steered during the voyage
B. To record the courses of other ships in the vicinity during the voyage
C. To find out the set and drift of a vessel
D. To find out the course to steer to the next waypoint
133
510. Which log works on the principle that if any conductor cuts through the
magnetic field, a small EMF will be induced within itself which is
proportional to the speed of movement of the conductor?
A. Pressure tube or pitot type log
B. Electromagnetic log
C. Impeller log
D. Doppler log

511. Which are the three sections that the course recorder paper consist of :
A. The time scale, course section and position section.
B. The time scale, course section and zone section.
C. The speed scale, course section and zone section.
D. The time scale, course section and speed scale

512. The angle between the magnetic north and the true north is
A. Magnetic compass error
B. Compass error
C. Deviation
D. Variation

513. Which of the following methods can be used for determining the compass
error?
A. All of these.
B. By bearing of the sun
C. By a distant object on land
D. By comparing with a gyro compass which has a known error

514. What errors in the gyro- compass are caused due to torques within the
system and they cannot be corrected for by the user?
A. Speed and latitude error
B. Settling error
C. Longitude error
D. Ballastic error
515. In which of these circumstances would you carry out a compass swing?
A. When large structural alterations have occurred to the superstructure or to
the hull.
B. After being at anchor for a long time
C. After a long voyage
D. After a long stay in port

134
516. What is based on the principle of comparing the course to steer set by the
officer with the vessels actual course as seen from the gyro or magnetic
compass?
A. Course recorder
B. Gyro repeater
C. Auto pilot
D. Gyro compass

517. Which control on the auto pilot is used if there is a constant external
influence?
A. Permanent helm
B. Rudder
C. Weather
D. Counter rudder

518. The time taken to put the rudder from 150 on one side to 150 on the other on
a fully laden ship running ahead at half speed should be:
A. Not more than 120sec
B. Not more than 90sec
C. Not more than 60sec
D. Not more than 65sec

519. The time required for the main steering gear to put the rudder from 350 on
one side to 350 on the other on a fully laden ship, running ahead at
maximum service speed under the same conditions is:
A. 28 secs
B. 45sec
C. 60sec
D. 30sec

520. If ship's head by compass was 045 (C), What is the true course if the
variation is 5W? Dev =9.5 W
A. 054.5 (T)
B. 059.5 (T)
C. 030.5 (T)
D. 050 (T)

135
521. 80. What is a standard compass ?
A. A compass that automatically steers the ship.
B. A magnetic compass in a binnacle.
C. A gyro compass powered by electricity.
D. A compass for indicating wind direction found on the mast.
522. The cause for ice accumulation on the ship is due to freezing of sea spray at
the temperature below
A. + 2 degree C.
B. 0 degree C
C. 5 degree C
D. 2 degree C

523. An occluded depression tends to move ..


A. slowly.
B. fast and irregularly.
C. fast.
D. slowly and irregularly.

524. the Beaufort scale, storm force corresponds to wind


A. force 6 and above.
B. force 10 and above.
C. force 12 and above.
D. force 8 and above.

525. On the Beaufort scale, hurricane force corresponds to wind .


A. force 14.
B. force 10.
C. force 8.
D. force 12.

136
526. Frontal depressions moue in families, each depression following its
predecessor but in..
A. a slightly lower latitude.
B. a slightly higher latitude.
C. a much higher latitude.
D. the same latitude.
527. Which of these is the correct weather sequence associated with a "warm
front" ?
A. In advance - continuous rain; during the passage - rain almost or
completely stops; in the rear - mainly cloudy and slight rain.
B. In advance - drizzle; during the passage - no rain; in the rear - continuous
rain.
C. In advance - showers; during the passage - thunderstorms / in the rear
clear skies
D. In advance - no rain; during the passage - continuous rain; in the rear -
drizzle.

528. Tropical revolving storms are accompanied by .


A. heavy rains sometimes with thunder and lightning.
B. dense fog.
C. very cold air and sometimes hail
D. slight wind and heavy rain.

529. In what latitude do tropical revolving storms generally originate ?


A. 50 to 65 degrees.
B. 0 to 25 degrees.
C. 25 to 35 degrees.
D. 35 to 50 degrees.

137
530. Which of these is the correct pressure sequence associated with a "cold front
"?
A. In advance - steady; during the passage - sudden rise; in the rear - fall.
B. None of these are correct.
C. In advance - fall; during the passage - sudden rise; in the rear - rise
continues more slowly.
D. In advance - sudden fall; during the passage - sudden rise; in the rear -
steady.
531. You are 60 to 120 nautical miles from the centre of a tropical revolving
storm. What barometric changes would you expect?
A. Slight fall with diurnal variations still in evidence.
B. Rapid increase with no sign of diurnal variations.
C. A steady slowly dropping pressure
D. A marked fall with diurnal changes completely masked

532. Wind force 10 correspond to wind speed of .


A. 56 - 63 knots.
B. 48 - 55 knots.
C. 34 - 40 knots.
D. 28 - 33 knots.

533. In meteorology, isobars are the lines joining places having the same ..
A. temperature.
B. humidity
C. iceberg density.
D. pressure.

534. What weather phenomenon can cause a reduction of radar range due to
attenuation?
A. Mist.
B. Rain & snow.
C. Fog.
D. Rough seas.

138
535. Which of these are 'low clouds"?
A. Mega stratus.
B. Altocumulus, altostratus.
C. Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus.
D. Nimbostratus, stratus, stratocumulus.

536. In the vicinity of a tropical revolving storm, a prudent master will first
determine which semicircle his ship is in and then set a course to .
A. heave to
B. get away from the dangerous semicircle
C. Head for the lee of the nearest land
D. The centre of the storm.

537. You are 10 to 60 nautical miles away from the centre of a tropical revolving
storm. What barometric changes would you expect ?
A. Rapid Increase.
B. Rapid fall.
C. No change.
D. Slight Increase.

538. In meteorology, isotherms are the lines joining places having the
same
A. pressure.
B. humidity.
C. iceberg density.
D. temperature.

539. Which of these are 'Medium clouds ?


A. Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus.
B. Nimbostatus, stratus, stratocumulus.
C. Cumulonimbus.
D. Altocumulus, altostratus.

139
540. If the vessel is between latitudes 5 - 20 degrees North, the most likely
direction of movement of a storm is .
A. West forth West.
B. East South East.
C. North East.
D. Westerly.

541. When in the vicinity of a tropical revolving storm it is important to


determination in which semicircle the ship is situated. In the northern
hemisphere which of these statements is true?
A. If the wind is steady you are in the dangerous semicircle.
B. If the wind is backing you are in the dangerous semicircle.
C. It is not possible to determine if you are in the dangerous semicircle.
D. If the wind is veering you are in the dangerous semicircle.

542. The direction of the centre of the tropical revolving storm may be found by
Buys Ballot's law, namely face the wind and
A. the center of the storm will be right behind you about a point on your left.
B. the center of the tropical storm will be ahead about a point to the right.
C. the centre of the storm is to your left if you are in Northern hemisphere
and to your right if you are in Southern hemisphere.
D. in the Northern hemisphere the centre of the storm will bear 8 to 12
points to the right.

543. Which of these are ''high clouds?


A. Cumulonimbus.
B. Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus.
C. Nimbostratus, stratus, stratocumulus.
D. Altocumulus, altostratus.

140
544. What is the common name for hurricanes, typhoons or cyclones ?
A. Inter tropical convergence zones.
B. Tropical revolving storms.
C. Tropical depressions.
D. Monsoons.

545. Trade winds are the general surface wind in which of the following latitudes
?
A. 60-90 degrees
B. 05-25 degrees
C. 00-30 degrees.
D. 25-60 degrees.

546. Which of these is the correct sequence of weather associated with a "cold
front"?
A. In advance - no rain; during the passage - moderate rain ; in the rear -
heavy rain.
B. In advance - clear skies; during the passage - thunderstorms, often with
hail; in the rear - steady drizzle with cloudy skies.
C. In advance - usually some rain and perhaps thunder; during the passage -
rain, often heavy; in the rear - heavy rain for a short period than fair.
D. In advance - heavy rain; during the passage - no rain; in the rear - no rain.

547. If depression has a large warm sector, it has a tendency to .


A. weaken.
B. remain unchanged.
C. deepen.
D. move fast.

141
548. Which of these is correct sequence of visibility associated with a "cold
front"?
A. In advance - very poor; during the passage - bad; in the rear - moderate.
B. In advance - very good; during the passage - moderate in showers; at the
rear - usually poor.
C. In advance - usually poor; during the passage - first bad than good; in the
rear - usually very good except in showers.
D. In advance - very good; during the passage - very poor; in the rear -
moderate.

549. Which of these is the correct pressure sequence associated with a "warm
front"?
A. In advance - sharply falling; during the passage - rise and fall ; in the rear
- slowly rising.
B. In advance - steady; during the passage - steady fall ; in the rear -
increase.
C. In advance - increase; during the passage - steady; in the rear - decrease.
D. In advance - steady fall; during the passage - fall ceases ; in the rear -
little change or slow fall.

550. In a tropical revolving storm, The eye is a small central region of ..

A. comparatively light winds and little clouds.


B. no winds and heavy rain.
C. very strong winds and no clouds.
D. comparatively strong winds and heavy clouds.

551. The eye of the tropical revolving storm is an area with light wind but with
seas that are
A. very high from the East or West.
B. very high and confused.
C. very high from the North or South.
D. moderate and confused.

142
552. Wind force 5 corresponds to wind speed of ..
A. 25 - 29 knots.
B. 30 - 34 knots.
C. 10 - 14 knots.
D. 17 - 21 knots.

553. South Westerlies and Roaring Forties are general surface wind in which of
the following latitudes?
A. 40 - 60 degrees.
B. 60 - 90 degrees.
C. 30 - 40 degrees.
D. 00 - 30 degrees.

554. Fast moving high clouds are an indication of .


A. rainy weather to come.
B. unchanged weather.
C. bad weather to come.
D. good weather to come.

555. A falling barometer is an indication of


A. bad weather to come.
B. rainy weather to come.
C. no change in weather.
D. good weather to come.

556. Your ship is 120 to 500 nautical miles from centre of tropical revolving
storm. What barometric changes do would you expect?
A. No change in the diurnal variation.
B. Rapid fall.
C. Slow increase with the diurnal variation still in evidence.
D. A slow fall with diurnal variation still in evidence.

143
557. What is water content of the atmosphere (usually expressed as a
percentage) known as?
A. Due
B. Humidity
C. Mist
D. Fog

558. What is the instrument used for measuring humidity of the atmosphere
called?
A. Barometer
B. Humidifier
C. Hydrometer
D. Psychrometer

559. What is a region where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of the
surrounding regions called?
A. High
B. Warm front
C. Low
D. Cold front

560. If an observer is facing the true wind in the northern hemisphere, where
does the Low pressure lie?
A. Behind
B. Ahead
C. To the left
D. To the right

144
561. An instrument used for measuring the velocity of wind is known as
A. Barometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Anemometer
D. Tachometer

562. A sudden rising strong wind, or sudden increase of wind usually


immediately followed by a shower of rain snow is called a
A. Squall
B. Storm
C. Tropical cyclone
D. Cyclone

563. A squall line of sharp changes of wind, is very often associated with a :
A. Warn front
B. Warm front
C. Occluded front
D. Cold front

564. If it is reported that the wind velocity in four areas are in the given options:
In which area will the isobars be spaced closest?
A. A2 20kts
B. A4 10kts
C. A3. 30kts
D. A1. 40kts

565. In what direction does the wind blow around a cyclonic storm in the
northern hemisphere?
A. Towards the pole
B. Clockwise
C. Anti-clockwise
D. Towards the equator

145
566. What weather conditions are likely to result from the movement of warm air
mass over a relatively colder sea surface?
A. trough
B. Rain
C. Squally
D. fog

567. What is the quantity of water vapour present in the atmosphere called ?
A. Humidity
B. Absolute humidity
C. Dew point
D. Relative humidity

568. What is rain accompanied with snow called ?


A. ice pellets
B. hail
C. sleet
D. snow flakes

569. When visibility is 1km or less, it is known as:


A. neither DO
B. fog
C. haze
D. both

570. What is also called sea fog ?


A. steam fog
B. advection fog
C. radiation fog
D. smog

146
571. What is smoke + fog called ?
A. steam fog
B. radiation fog
C. advection fog
D. smog

572. What is the clockwise change of direction from which the wind is blowing
from called?
A. backing
B. Veering
C. advancing
D. retarding

573. Beaufort wind force 5 corresponds to:


A. 28-33 kIs
B. 17-21 kts
C. 4-6 kts
D. 7-10 kts

574. What is the phenomenon in which a cloud forms a funnel shaped pendant
which descends towards the sea and draws up a corresponding hollow
column of whirling spray which may form a pillar of water from cloud to
sea is called
A. A waterspout
B. A waterway
C. A waterfall
D. A waterside

147
575. The condition where the sea and swell approach the ship at right angles is
called:
A. Seas from any quarter
B. Following seas
C. Beam seas
D. Read seas

576. A horizontal movement in the upper layer of the sea caused by wind is
called :
A. drift current
B. none of the given options
C. drift
D. current

577. What is the swell encountered in the open ocean called?


A. Ground swell
B. Low swell
C. Ocean swell
D. High swell

578. A Conduct Passage progressive wave of meteorological origin which, if its


crest arrives at the time of high water, can cause exceptionally high tides is
called:
A. Storm
B. Hurricane
C. Storm surge
D. Tidal wave

148
579. On which of these areas would you consider that climatological routing to
be satisfactory?
A. Malacca straits
B. North Atlantic
C. Gulf of Oman
D. Red sea

580. On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer, how


would the wind direction change in the advance of a warm front?
A. remain steady
B. slowly veer as it is approached
C. suddenly year by 90deg
D. slowly back as it is approached

581. When warm air proceeds an occlusion, it is called :


A. Upper warm front
B. Warm occlusion
C. Upper cold front
D. Cold occlusion

582. When the dew point of the air is higher than the sea surface temperature, it
is called :
A. Sea fog
B. Advection fog
C. Steam fog
D. Zadiation fog

149
583. Which of these symptoms indicate the approach of an extra tropical cyclone
?
A. Increasing wind usually from a direction between east and south in the
northern hemisphere and between east and north in the southern
hemisphere.
B. All of these.
C. Falling barometer
D. Increasing cirrus clouds which thicken into altostratus (sometimes
altocumulus) accompanied by rain.

584. What is an area of high pressure jutting into areas of low pressure called?
A. Trough
B. Ridge
C. Col
D. Anticyclone

585. Satellite information charts providing information on cloud pattern and


cloud thickness are called :
A. Change of pressure charts
B. Upper air charts
C. Hindcast charts
D. Elephanalysis charts

586. Which of these contribute to the formation of a depression ?


A. Large difference in pressure between the warm and cold air masses
B. Large temperature difference between the warm and cold air masses
C. Small temperature difference between the warm and cold air masses
D. Small difference in pressure between the warm and cold air masses

150
587. If the pressure is rising al around the center, or rising on one side more
rapidly than it is falling on the other, then the anticyclone is said to be:
A. Unchanged
B. Stationary
C. Weakening
D. Intensifying

588. An the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer, how


would the pressure change in the `advance of a warm front?
A. Remain constant
B. Rise sharply
C. Pressure would fall steadily
D. Rise slowly

589. What is a large piece of floating glacier ice, generally showing less than 5m
above sea level (normally more than 1m) and normally about 100-300
square meters in area called?
A. Growler
B. Floe
C. Bergy bit
D. Brash ice

590. What is shown in a surface weather analysis?


A. Forecast positions of fronts and pressure systems at the surface for
projection period of 2 to 5 days.
B. Weather patterns based on current synoptic surface observations
C. Future weather patterns for either 24hr, 36hr or 72hr outlook for certain
regions
D. All of these.

151
591. What are clouds in a patch, layer or sheet form, white or grey or both in
colour called?
A. Altocumulus clouds
B. Nimbostratus
C. Cumulus
D. Cirrocumulus

592. Where is the vessel located in a TRS if the wind is Veering in the northern
hemisphere?
A. Navigable semi- circle
B. In the path of the storm
C. Dangerous semi-circle
D. In the eye

593. If the vessel is in the dangerous semi-circle of a TRS in the northern


hemisphere, what would be the most appropriate action?
A. Put the wind on the port Bow and alter course to port as the wind backs
B. Put the wind on the port quarter and alter course to starboard as the wind
veers
C. Put the wind on the stbd. Bow and alter course to starboard as the wind
veers
D. Put the wind on the stbd. quarter and alter course to port s the wind backs

594. With a steady westerly wind over the whole region, the fetch at a point
80n.m. to the east of an extensive north to south coastline will be
A. 20 n. mile
B. 160 n. mile
C. 80 n. mile
D. 40 n. mile

152
595. On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer how would
the weather change in the advance of a warm front?
A. Cloudy with slight drizzle
B. Continuous heavy rain or snow
C. Precipitation stops
D. Clear skies

596. On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer how would
the temperature change in the warm sector?
A. Fall steadily
B. Slowly rise
C. Remain steady
D. Rise quickly

597. As a result of the friction of the rotating earth, how are winds deflected in
the northern hemisphere?
A. Spirally
B. Anticlockwise
C. Clockwise
D. Ellipticalty

598. What is the wind caused by downward currents of air and peculiar to
mountainous districts and high coastline called?
A. Anabatic winds
B. Westerlies
C. Katabatic winds
D. Trade winds

153
599. Which of these conditions indicates the passing of an extratropical cyclone?
A. Barometer falls and then becomes steady
B. Barometer remains steady
C. Barometer becomes steady and then falls
D. Barometer becomes steady and then rises

600. The speed of an occlusion is best assumed


A. To be about two thirds of the geostrophic wind speed.
B. To be greater than the geostrophic wind speed.
C. To be lesser than the geostrophic wind speed.
D. To be equal to the geostrophic wind speed.

601. What instrument is used to measure the dew point


A. hydrometer
B. pitometer
C. psychrometer
D. stadimeter

602. What is an aneroid barometer fitted with a lever which bears a pen,
recording upon a revolving drum variations of atmospheric pressure called?
A. Gold slide
B. Barogram
C. Mercurm barometer
D. Barograph

603. On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer what type
of clouds will be experienced at the passage of a cold front?
A. Low Hs
B. Ci , Cs ,As
C. Ac & Cu
D. Cb of very high vertical extent

154
604. What is shown on wave analysis charts ?
A. Forecast positions of wave system for projection period of 2 to 5 days
B. Characteristics of sea waves
C. Forecast of the positions of wave systems, normally over a period of 24
hrs
D. All of these.

605. What is found north and south of each tradewind belt ?


A. Roaring forties
B. Doldrums
C. Prevailing westerlies
D. Horse latitude

606. Where do tropical storms generate?


A. Always at the equator
B. Between latitudes 5 deg to 10 deg N or S of the equator
C. Between latitudes 35 deg to 40 deg N or S of the equator
D. Between latitudes 45 deg to 50 deg N or S of the equator

607. An the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer how would
the visibility be in the advance of a warm front?
A. Poor due to mist or fog
B. Poor due to rain
C. Very good except in showers
D. Very good

608. What can be obtained from met-route to compare weather and progress
along the metroute advised route with that likely to have been experienced
iachieued along an appropriate alternative route?
A. Hindcast charts
B. Routeing summaries
C. Voyage analysis
D. Customer requirements

155
609. When should a ship seeking met - routeing request for the same
A. On arrival at a port
B. On drop of the last outward going pilot
C. 48 hrs prior departure
D. On departure

610. When a warm air mass replaces a cold one, the line on which the frontal
surface meets the ground is known as a:
A. cold sector
B. cold front
C. warm sector
D. warm front

611. On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer How


would the force change in the dry advance of a warm front?
A. steady
B. increase
C. decrease
D. squally, with gusting winds

612. Which are the two horizontal forces acting on any parcel of air?
A. The rotational force and the deflecting force
B. The pressure gradient and the deflecting force
C. None of the other options
D. The pressure gradient and the rotational force

613. What warnings are issued from the country of origin and effect a specific
coastal region, in the area of the hazard?
A. local warnings
B. All of these.
C. coastal warnings
D. navarea warnings

156
614. What is the furthest westerly point reached by a tropical storm center called?
A. Bar of the storm
B. Vortex
C. Vertex
D. Eye of the storm

615. What is a heavy mass of cloud rising in the form of mountains, turrets, or
anvils, generally surmounted by a sheet or screen of fiberous appearance
called?
A. Cumulo-nimbus clouds
B. Stratus clouds
C. Cumulus clouds
D. Nimbostratus clouds

616. A curved line joining all places at which the atmospheric pressure is the
same is called?
A. Isobar
B. Isotherm
C. Isotope
D. None of the other options

617. A large elongated zone of irregular typography of the sea flow , categorized
by large sea mounts and steep sided or non-symmetrical ridges is called :
A. furrow
B. fringing reef
C. fracture zone
D. Freshet

618. What is the wind which works round against the hands of the clock called?
A. Back pressure
B. Baffling wind
C. Veering wind
D. Backing wind
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619. What corrections are applied to a mercury barometer?
A. Latitude, height and pressure
B. Latitude, temperature and pressure
C. Latitude, Temperature and height
D. Temperature, height and pressure

620. When wind blows over the surface for a prolonged period, it tends to drag
the uppermost layers of the water in that direction. This is called :
A. Local currents
B. Gradient current
C. Surface current
D. Wind drift current

621. Which of these variables is used to determine the height of sea waves?
A. Wind speed, latitude and fetch
B. Latitude, duration of wind and fetch
C. Wind speed, duration of wind and fetch
D. Wind speed, duration of the wind and latitude

622. What is the mean height of the highest 1/3 rd of the range of waves called?
A. Wave height
B. Wavelength
C. Significant wave height
D. Wave period

623. What half of the tropical storm lies to the left part in the northern
hemisphere & to the right part in the southern hemisphere?
A. Dangerous semi-circle
B. Dangerous quadrant
C. Trough
D. Navigable semi-circle

158
624. Where will you find formats of 'hydrographic note"
A. Admiralty list of radio signals
B. Cumulative list of admiralty notice to mariners
C. The weekly notice to mariners
D. Annual summary of admiralty notice to mariners

625. Which are the two reasons which cause ocean currents?
A. Pressure gradients and coriolis forces
B. Wind-drift currents and gradient currents
C. Wind-drift currents and pressure gradients
D. gradient currents and pressure gradients

626. What does the upper figure indicate?

A. Percentage frequency of variables winds


B. No. of observed calms
C. None of the other options
D. No. of observations

627. What is the wind speed of the arrow


indicated?

A. 5 kts
B. 4 kts
C. 3 kts
D. 7 kts

159
628. Assuming a forecast wind of say, 30 kts,
with the max. wind duration and
maximum fetch, what would be the value
of significant wane height.

A. 3
B. 3.9
C. 4.9
D. 4

629. Mean surface current circulation.


Location to be circled...

A. Kuroskio current
B. Mocambique current
C. Agulhas current
D. Gulf Stream

630. What kind of current is


indicated?

A. Upwelling current
B. Drift
C. Convergent
D. Stream

160
631. What does the lower figure represent?

A. No. of observations
B. Mean resultant
C. The percentage frequency of currents having a rate of less than knots
D. Strongest current experienced

161
1. Maintain a safe navigational watch (Memelihara tugas jaga navigasi secara aman

1. A ship is being overtaken by another ship while


proceeding along a river. What should be the
required procedure?

A. The overtaking vessel should request permission from the other ship by
sounding two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts on the
whistle or by direct VHF contact.
B. The overtaking vessel can overtake but must allow sufficient space to
reduce the interaction between the two vessels
C. There should be no overtaking in these confined waters
D. The overtaking vessel should request permission to overtake from the
Port Control VTS

2. According to rule 13 of the International


Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea,
what is the definition of "an overtaking vessel"?

A. When coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 22.5
degrees abaft her beam.
B. When coming up with another vessel from any direction abaft her beam.
C. When coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 45
degrees abaft her beam.
D. When the vessel is detected as a radar target or sighted visually in a
position directly astern.

163
3. If whistles are fitted on a vessel at a distance
apart of more than 100 metres, will
manoeuvring and warning signals, as defined by
rule 34 of the International regulations for
Preventing Collisions at Sea, be given on one or
both whistles?

A. They shall be given on one whistle only.


B. They shall be given on both whistles simultaneously.
C. They shall first be given on the forward whistle, followed by the after
whistle, with a 5 second inetrval in between.
D. Manoeuvring signals will be given only on the forward whistle; warning
signals will be given on both whistles simultaneously.

4. Rule 12 of the International Collision


Regulations prescribes the action to be taken by a
sailing vessel when meeting another sailing
vessel. This depends on the direction of the wind
relative to each vessel. In the situation shown
here, which sailing vessel (A or B) must keep out
of the way of the other?

A. Sailing vessel A must keep out of the way of sailing vessel B.


B. Sailing vessel B must keep out of the way of sailing vessel A.
C. Both sailing vessels are required to take avoiding action.
D. The upwind sailing vessel must keep out of the way of the downwind
sailing vessel.

164
5. The following vessels are all required to
make the same sound signal when in or near
an area of restricted visibility: a vessel not
under command; a vessel restricted in her
ability to manoeuvre; a vessel constrained by
her draught / a sailing vessel; a vessel
engaged in fishing; a vessel engaged in
towing or pushing another vessel. What is
that signal?

A. One prolonged blast, followed by two short blasts, at intervals of not


more than two minutes.
B. Two prolonged blasts, followed by one short blast, at intervals of not
more than two minutes.
C. One prolonged blast at intervals at not more than two minutes.
D. One prolonged blast, followed by two short blasts, at intervals of not
more than one minute.

165
6. The lights displayed here indicate that this is one of
two types of vessel. What are the two options?

A. A power-driven vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in length,


length of tow under 200 metres, towing vessel and tow restricted in their
ability to manoeuvre, seen head-on OR a power-driven vessel underway,
more than 50 metres in length, or less than 50 metres in length and
showing a second masthead light, restricted in her ability to manoeuvre,
seen head-on.
B. A power-driven vessel engaged in towing, more than 50 metres in length,
or less than 50 metres in length and showing a second masthead light,
length of tow under 200 metres, seen head-on OR a power-driven vessel
underway. Less than 50 metres in length and displaying the second all-
round white masthead light, seen head-on.
C. A vessel engaged in fishing, restricted in her ability to manoeuvre,
shooting nets OR a vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in
length, length of tow under 200 metres, towing vessel restricted in her
ability to manoeuvre, seen head-on.
D. A vessel engaged on pilotage duty, engaged in deploying or recovering a
pilot, seen head-on or a power-driven vessel underway, lmore than 50
metres in length or less than 50 metres in length and showing the second
masthead light, seen head-on.

166
7. The lights here show those that must be exhibited
by a vessel engaged in towing, as per rule 24 of the
International Collision Regulations. But how long
is the tow behind this vessel?

A. It exceeds 200 metres.


B. It is less than 200 metres.
C. It is more than 50 metres but less than 200 metres.
D. At least 100 metres.

8. This vessel is encountered at the mouth of a river


which leads to your discharge port. What do the
various shapes tell you?

A. This is a vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations. The two


balls in a vertical line indicate the side on which an obstruction exists; the
two diamonds in a vertical line indicate the side on which it is safe to
pass; the ball / diamond / /ball in a vertical line indiacte that the vessel is
restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.
B. This is a vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations. The two
balls in a vertical line indicate the side on which it is safe to pass; the two
diamonds in a vertical line indicate the side on which an obstruction
exists; the ball / diamond / ball indicate that the vessel is restricted in her
ability to manoeuvre.
C. This is a vessel engaged on port security duties. The two balls in a
vertical line indicate that the port is closed; the two diamonds in a vertical
line indicate that the port is engaged in mine-clearance operations; the
ball / diamond / ball in a vertical line indicate that the vessel is restricted
in her ability to manoeuvre.
D. This is a vessel engaged in mine-clearance opetrations. The two balls in
a vertical line indicate that it has a sweep mechanism deployed; the two
diamonds in a vertical line indicate that the vessel should be given a
clearance of at least 1000 metres; the ball / diamond / ball indicate that
the vessel is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.
167
9. This vessel is sighted ahead and slightly to port.
What is her situation? What will you do?

A. This vessel is aground. I will navigate with extreme caution given the
nature of the hazard.
B. This is a vessel engaged in fishing vessel, with her nets fast on an
obstruction. I will keep out of the way by rule 18 of the International
Collision Regulations.
C. This is a vessel aground. She appears to have been headed to starboard
of my track and I will therefore alter course to port, passing under her
stern.
D. This is a vessel not under command at anchor.

10. What are we seeing here?

A. A sailing vessel less than 20 metres in length, displaying the optional


combined lantern in lieu of standard sailing lights, seen head-on.
B. A sailing vessel of less than 10 metres in length, displaying the
mandatory combined lantern inlieu of sailing lights, seen head-on.
C. A sailing vessel, seen from astern, where the edges of her sidelights are
both visible.
D. A sailing vessel, at anchor.

168
11. What do the shapes that this vessel is displaying
tell us about her?

A. That she is not under command.


B. That she is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.
C. That she is engaged in towing.
D. That she is constrained by her draught.

12. What is happening here?

A. These are two vessels engaged in fishing (pair trawling), showing the
additional volutary signals for hauling nets.
B. These are two vessels engaged in fishing (pair trawling), showing the
additional voluntary signals for shooting nets.
C. This is a vessel engaged in towing a disabled tow, restricted in its ability
to manoeuvre, with a searchlight used to highlight the location of the tow.
D. These are two vessels engaged in fishing, using purse-seine gear. The
searchlights are simply working lights.

169
13. What is the colour and characteristic of a "towing
light", as defined in the International Regulations for
Preventing Collisions at Sea?

A. Yellow, fixed, seen over an arc of 135 degrees and so arranged as to


display 67.5 degrees from right aft on each side of the vessel.
B. Amber, all-round, flashing, where it can best be seen.
C. White, fixed, displayed as an additional light on the foremast over an arc
of 225 degrees, from right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on each
side of the vessel.
D. One of two all-round amber, alternate flashing lights, displayed where
they can best be seen.

14. What is the description for a sidelight, as shown in


rule 21 of the International Regulations for
Preventing Collisions at Sea?

A. A green light on the starboard side and red light on the port side, showing
an unbroken light over an arc of 112.5 degree, from right ahead to 22.5
degrees abaft the beam on the respective side.
B. A red, green or yellow lantern, showing an unbroken light over an arc of
112.5 degrees.
C. A red light or a green light, with a minimum range, in a vessel of 50
metres or more, of 3 miles. In a vessel of 10 metres or more but less than
50 metres in length, a range of 1 mile.
D. A green light on the starboard side and red light on the port side, showing
an unbroken light over an arc of 135 degrees, from right ahead to 22.5
degrees abaft the beam on the respective side.

170
15. What is the situation of this vessel?

A. This vessel is not under command, but is making way through the water.
B. This vessel is aground.
C. This vessel is not under command and stopped in the water.
D. This is a vessel constrained by her draft.

16. What signal may be given by sound and by light to


indicate that a vessel fails to understand the
intentions or actions of another vessel, or is in
doubt that sufficient action is being taken by the
other to avoid collision?

A. Five short and rapid blasts (flashes).


B. Five prolonged blasts (flashes).
C. Three short and rapid blasts (flashes).
D. One prolonged blast (flash), followed by five or more short and rapid
blasts (flashes)

171
17. What type of vessel is this and from what
direction are you seeing it?

A. This is a vessel engaged in fishing other than trawling, making way


through the water, with outlying gear extending more than 150m in the
direction of the all-round white light. I am looking at her port side.
B. This is a vessel engaged in fishing other than trawling, making way
through the water, with outlying gear extending more than 150 metres in
the direction of the all-round red light. I am seeing her from astern.
C. This is a vessel engaged in pilotage duties at anchor. I am looking at her
port side.
D. This is a vessel engaged in pilotage operations, deploying or recovering a
pilot. I am looking at her port side.
18. What, by definition in the International Collision
Regulations, is a "vessel restricted in her ability
to manoeuvre"?

A. A vessel which from the nature of her work is restricted in her ability to
manoeuvre as required by the Rules and is therefore unable to keep out of
the way of another vessel.
B. A vessel which through some exceptional circumstance is unable to
manoeuvre as required by the Rules and is therefore unable to keep out of
the way of another vessel.
C. A vessel engaged in underwater work, such as the laying, picking up or
servicing of a pipeline, or which is in support of diving operations,
performing dredging and mine-clearance or is deploying or recovering a
pilot.
D. A vessel which because of her draught in relation to the available depth
of navigable water is restricted in her ability to deviate from her course
and keep out of the way of another vessel.
172
19. You are approaching a port in a snowstorm. You
hear this signal. What kind of vessel is it and
what is it doing?

A. It comes from a vessel engaged in pilotage duties and it is making way


through the water.
B. It comes from a vessel engaged in pilotage duties at anchor, over 100
metres in length.
C. It comes from a vessel at anchor, less than 100 metres in length.
D. It comes from a vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

20. You are close to the entrance to a port in thick fog.


You hear the following signal. What does it mean?

A. That there is a vessel at anchor in the vicinity. She is less than 100 metres
in length.
B. That there is a vessel at anchor in the vicinity. She is more than 100
metres in length.
C. That there is a vessel aground in the vicinity.
D. That the port is closed.
21. You are in an area of restricted visibility and hear
this signal. It is repeated at two minute intervals.
What does it indicate?

A. That there is another vessel nearby, that she is underway, but stopped and
making no way through the water.
B. That there is another vessel nearby, but that she is at anchor.
C. That there are two more vessels nearby.
D. That there is another vessel in the vicinity and that she has just altered
course to port.
173
22. You are in an area of restricted visibility, close to
a port. You hear this signal. What vessel does it
come from and what additional information does
the signal provide?

A. A vessel at anchor, more than 100 metres in length. She is sounding the
additional signal to give warning of her position.
B. A vessel aground, more than 100 metres in length. The additional signal
indicates which side the clear water lies on.
C. A vessel at anchor, less than 100 metres in length. She is sounding the
additional signal top give warning of her position.
D. A vessel at anchor, more than 100 metres in length. The additional signal
indicates that her cable extends at least 25 metres from her bow.

23. You are in an area of restricted visibility. You


hear this sound signal. What does it mean?

A. That there is a vessel in distress nearby.


B. That there is a vessel at anchor in the vicinity.
C. That there is a vessel aground in the vicinity.
D. That there is a vessel engaged in underwater operations in the vicinity.
She has divers down.
24. You are in open water and clear conditions. You
are approaching the pilot station when you hear
this signal from a vessel ahead of you. What does
it signify?

A. That the vessel is operating astern propulsion.


B. That the vessel is picking up his pilot.
C. That the vessel is altering his course to starboard.
D. That the vessel is starting his engine and resuming his passage.

174
25. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in
open water. This vessel is sighted directly ahead.
The distance is closing slowly. What action will
you take under the International Collision
Regulations and why?

A. I will keep out of her way. I am the overtaking vessel and am obliged to
keep clear under rule 13.
B. I will maintain my course and speed. The other vessel is being
overtaken and is therefore obliged to keep out of the way by rule 13.
C. The vessel is on a steady bearing and the distance is closing. I will
therefore take avoiding action, altering course to starboard and sounding
one short blast under rules 14 and 16.
D. This is a vessel engaged in towing and I am seeing the stern light of the
tow. The tug is not however showing any lights indicating she is
restricted in her ability to manoeuvre. I will however display good
seamanship and keep out of her way.

26. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in


open water. This vessel is sighted on the port bow
steady bearing. What kind of vessel is it and what
will your action be?

A. This is a sailing vessel underway, seen head-on. It is my responsibility to


keep clear under rule 18 and I will take appropriate avoiding action.
B. This is a sailing vessel underway. I am the stand-on vessel and will
maintain my course and speed under rule 17.
C. This is a sailing vessel not making way through the water. There is no
risk of collision and I will maintain my course and speed.
D. This is a vessel engaged in fishing. It is my responsibility to keep clear
under rule 18 and I will alter course to starboard, sounding one short
blast.

175
27. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open
water. This vessel is sighted wide on the port bow.
It's bearing is opening, but its distance is closing
rapidly. Which of the following is a correct
assessment of the situation and the action to be
taken?

A. Risk of collision is deemed not to exist and I will maintain my course and
speed. I will continue to monitor the situation.
B. Risk of collision is deemed to exist and I will make a broad alteration of
course to starboard, sounding one short blast. I will re-assess the
situation when the alteration is carried out.
C. Risk of collision is deemed not to to exist. However, to be sure of a safe
passing distance, I will reduce my speed to allow the other vessel to pass
ahead.
D. Risk of collision is a possibility. I will maintain my course and speed for
now, but be prepared for an alteration of course to port if the CPA seems
to be less than 0.2nm as we draw closer.

28. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in


open water. You observe this vessel, directly
ahead, on a steady bearing, with the distance
closing steadily. What can you tell about this
vessel from the lights it is displaying?

A. This vessel is not under command and is not making way through the
water. I cannot tell its aspect.
B. This vessel is restricted in its ability to manoeuvre and is stopped in the
water. I am seeing it from astern.
C. This is a fishing vessel, not making way through the water, with its nets
fast upon an obstruction, seen from astern.
D. This vessel is aground and is seen from directly ahead.

176
29. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in
open water. You sight these lights on the port
bow, on a steady bearing. The distance is
closing. What are you looking at and what
action will you take in compliance with the
International Regulations for Preventing
Collision at Sea?

A. This is a power-driven vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in


length, length of tow under 200 metres and the tow, both being restricted
in their ability to manoeuvre, seen from the starboard side. Under rule 18,
I am required to keep clear and will take appropriate avoiding action.
B. This is a power-driven vessel engaged in towing, more than 50 metres in
length or less than 50 metres in length and showing a second masthead
light and the tow, the combined length of which is under 200 metres.
The towing vessel is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre. I am seeing
their starboard sides. The bearing is steady and risk of collision therefore
exists. I will maintain my course and speed under rule 17.
C. This is a power-driven vessel, more than 50 metres in length or less than
50 metres in length and showing a second masthead light, restricted in
her ability to manoeuvre. The sidelight of a second vessel can be seen
beyond her. Under rule 18, I am obliged to keep clear of the first vessel
and will therefore take appropriate avoiding action.
D. This is a power-driven vessel engaged in towing, more than 50 metres in
length or less than 50 metres in length and showing a second masthead
light, length of tow 200 metres or more, not under command. I will keep
clear under rule 27.

177
30. You are on a sailing vessel, underway in open
water. This vessel is sighted on the starboard
bow, on a steady bearing and the distance is
closing. By the International Regulations for the
Preventing Collisions at Sea, what action will
you follow?

A. By Rule 18, a power-driven vessel underway shall keep out of the way of
a sailing vessel. I will maintain my course and speed, but will continue
to monitor situation to ensure the other vessel takes avoiding action.
B. Risk of collision is deemed to exist and, as the other vessel is on a steady
bearing on my starboard side, I am required to keep out of the way. I will
make a broad alteration of course to starboard.
C. This vessel is clearly a power-driven vessel and I anticipate that the
bearing will therefore close and she will pass ahead at a safe distance.
D. Risk of collision is deemed to exist and, as the other vessel is on a steady
bearing on my starboard side, I will maintain my course and speed.

178
31. You are on a tug and are towing an unmanned
barge. You are restricted in your ability to
manoeuvre. The total length of the tow is 219
metres. What daylight signals are required by the
International Regulations for Preventing Collisions
at Sea?

A. A diamond shape, where it can best be seen shall be displayed on the tug
and the tow. Three shapes shall also be displayed in a vertical line, the
upper and lower being balls and the middle one a diamond. Diamond
shape
B. A diamond shape, where it can best be seen, on the tug only. Three
shapes shall also be displayed, being three balls in a vertical line.
C. Three shapes shall be displayed forward on the tug, in a vertical line, the
upper and lower being balls and the middle one a diamond.
D. Three shapes shall be displayed on the tug, where they can best be seen,
in a vertical line, the upper and lower being balls and the middle one a
cylinder. The signal flag "T" shall also be flown on the tug. A diamond
shall be displayed aft on the tow.

179
32. You are proceeding along a coastal route when you
hear this signal. The visibility is severely restricted.
What does the signal mean?

A. There is a vessel aground in the vicinity. She is more than 100 metres in
length. She is sounding an additional warning to approaching vessels
that they are "running into danger".
B. There is a vessel aground in the vicinity. She is less than 100 metres in
length. She is sounding an additional warning to approaching vessels to
"navigate with extreme caution".
C. There is a vessel at anchor in the vicinity. She is more than 100 metres in
length. She is sounding an additional warning signal to approaching
vessels, directing them to "keep clear".
D. There is a vessel at anchor in the vicinity. She is less than 100 metres in
length. She is sounding an additional warning to approaching vessels
that they are "running into danger".

33. You are proceeding along a narrow channel and


approaching a bend, on the inside shore of which is a
large hill, which obsures your view further up
channel. What sound signal will you make to
indicate your presence to any vessel that is behind
the obstructing hill?

A. One prolonged blast.


B. One short blast.
C. Two prolonged blasts.
D. Two short blasts.

180
34. You are proceeding along a narrow channel
behind another vessel. You have a higher speed
and have signalled your intention to the vessel
ahead that you intend to overtake him on his port
side. The vessel responds with this sound signal.
What does it mean?

A. That the vessel is indicating her agreement with my proposed manoeuvre.


B. That the vessel does not agree with my proposed manoeuvre.
C. That the vessel suggests I overtake on the starboard side instead.
D. This is a signal intended for another vessel or shore station. It is nothing
to do with our vessel.

35. You are proceeding along a narrow channel in


front of another vessel, both heading for port.
You hear this signal from the vessel behind you.
What does it mean?

A. I intend to overtake you on your starboard side.


B. I intend to overtake you on your port side.
C. I am operating astern propulsion.
D. I am faster than you. Get out of the way.

36. To navigate a ship safely and support the bridge team, it is essential that the
passage plan is made
A. from berth to berth
B. in coastal passages
C. pilot station to pilot station
D. ocean passages

181
37. When changes are made in a passage plan, who should be consulted and
briefed to ensure the revised plan is understood
A. master
B. the bridge team on that watch
C. the bridge team on each watch
D. he OOW

38. The correct order to follow while planning a passage would be


A. plan, appraise, monitor, execute
B. appraise, plan, monitor, execute
C. plan, monitor, appraise, execute
D. plan, monitor, execute, appraise.

39. In preparing a passage plan the effects of squat must be borne in mind, as
under keel clearance gets reduced. Which of these factors will cause the
vessel to squat?
A. Ice accretion
B. Seas on deck
C. Wind
D. Speed

40. Which of these are used to steer a ship by keeping a conspicuous object
lying ahead of the track?
A. A bearing line
B. 3 point bearing
C. None of the other options
D. A clearing bearing
41. What is a routeing measure aimed at the separation of opposing streams of
traffic by establishing traffic lanes called?
A. Traffic Lane
B. Traffic separation scheme
C. Separation Zone
D. Recommend route

182
42. What is the purpose of Ship Reporting Systems?
A. To keep a tack of FOC Ships p
B. For SAR & prevention of pollution
C. To know where ships are plying
D. To ensure all ships are complying with regulators

43. In which Publication can information on ship reporting be found?


A. SOPEP Manual
B. ALRS
C. Ship Routeing
D. IAMSAR

44. In which publication can information on VTS be found?


A. Chart Catalogues
B. Tide Tables
C. ALRS
D. Routeing Charts
45. Who is responsible to ensure that bridge watch manning levels are at all
times safe for the prevailing circumstances and conditions?
A. Navigating Officer
B. Helmsman
C. OOW
D. Master
46. From where can the maneuvering characteristics of the vessel be obtained?
A. Passage plan
B. Ships' particulars
C. The wheel house poster
D. The deck log book
47. Duties of the OOW also include one for the following
A. People working in the engine room
B. None of the other options
C. People working on deck
D. LSA/FFA maintenance

183
48. Where should notices be posted when work is being carried out on
aerials/sound signaling apparatus
A. Cargo Office
B. None of the options
C. equipment controls
D. At the site

49. Which of the following should not used for collision avoidance?
A. Manual Radar potting
B. VHF Radio
C. Sound/light Signaling
D. ARPA

50. When must the position marked on the navigation chart be erased?
A. After the day has elapsed
B. Once the vessel is on the next course
C. End of the voyage
D. Once the vessel is on the next chart

51. When should operational checks on navigational equipment be carried out?


A. at least once during a voyage
B. As soon as the vessel arrive and departs from port
C. when there has been an equipment failure or power breakdown
D. When preparing for sea and prior port entry

52. How often must manual steering be tested ?


A. at least once a watch
B. Prior entering confined water/port
C. When there has been a steering failure
D. At least once in 24hrs

184
53. How would the OOW be provide with an immediate check as to whether
engine orders are being followed?
A. Speed log
B. Rudder angle indicator
C. RPM indicator
D. Telegraph

54. 19. Who publishes the chart catalogue?


A. HMSO
B. Hydrographer to the navy
C. MO
D. ICS

55. 20. When transiting along the coast it is advisable to use:


A. AUS charts
B. Charts of the hydrographic office of the relevant country
C. US charts
D. BA charts
56. When planning ocean passages, which of these publications are useful?
A. Ocean passages of the world
B. Guide to port entry
C. Ship's routeing
D. Tide tables

57. Where can monthly information on ocean routeing, currents, wind, ice limits
and carious meteorological Information be obtained from?
A. Ocean passages for the world
B. Routeing charts
C. Notices to mariners
D. Ship's routeing

185
58. In which publication can characteristics be found?
A. Ship's routeing
B. ALOL
C. Routeing charts
D. ALRS

59. Information obtained from harbour authorities are called:


A. ocean warnings
B. Local warnings
C. Weather broadcasts
D. EGC

60. In which publication will you find information pertaining to the general
interest of the Mariner?
A. Guide to port entry
B. ALRS
C. Mariner's handbook
D. Notice to Mariners

61. What is the shortest distance between any two points on a sphere?
A. Rhumb line
B. Both are the same
C. Hone of the other options
D. Great circle

62. Who finally shoulders the responsibility for passage planning?


A. Head Office
B. Navigating Officer
C. Master
D. Second officer

186
63. Areas which the ship cannot go safely are shown by highlighting or cross-
hatching on a chart - What are these areas called?
A. No go areas
B. Special areas
C. Isolated dangers
D. Blind sectors

64. What is the line drawn on the chart around the no-go areas at a distance such
that, any part of the ship being navigated will not pass?
A. Coastline
B. Closest line of approach
C. Clearing line
D. Margin of safety

65. What do you call the area where the ship can safely navigate ?
A. Unsafe water
B. Restricted water
C. Safe water
D. Confine water

66. On what type of charts would you draw coastal and estuarial tracks?
A. Large scale charts
B. Small scale charts
C. Plotting sheets.
D. Medium scale charts

67. What type of courses are laid on a Mercator Chart?


A. Magnetic courses
B. True courses
C. Compass courses
D. None of the other options

187
68. Bearings picked up from a chart are:
A. Magnetic bearings
B. None of the other options
C. compass bearings
D. True bearings

69. Which method is useful in monitoring cross track tendency in both poor and
good visibility
A. visual observation
B. Parallel indexing
C. Taking bearings of objects
D. monitor w.r.t a ship in the vicinity

70. What is a position shown on the chart, where a planned change of status will
occur?
A. wreck
B. special mark
C. Waypoint
D. no go area

71. When a ship reaches a point, beyond which it will not be possible to do
other than proceed ahead, then, it is called:
A. Last waypoint
B. cross over point
C. Abort point
D. termination point
72. Which of these publications are not used in a passage plan?
A. list of lights
B. sailing directions
C. P & I guidelines
D. ALRS

188
73. At what stage of a passage plan should light for making landfall and
primary/secondary position fixing methods be identified?
A. Appraisal
B. Monitoring stage
C. once passage is complete
D. At the planning stage

74. How would you obtain a position line without the actual use of instruments?
A. latitude by meridian attitude
B. transit bearing of two shore objects
C. Longitude by chronometer
D. Intercept

75. Which of these are ideal for a course alteration?


A. A beam bearing of a light house
B. celestial observation
C. Transit bearing of two objects right ahead
D. single distance of a light house

76. How often must compass errors be taken?


A. on instructions from the master
B. once a day
C. once a watch and after each alteration of course
D. When deviations are suspected to be high

77. What is used to ensure that the ship passes clear of a danger?
A. Isolated danger
B. position lines
C. leading lines
D. line of approach

189
78. What marks are used to ensure that a ship remains in a safe area?
A. special water marks
B. ODASD
C. cardinal marks
D. Clearing mark

79. On which factor does the max. range of a navigational light does not depend
?
A. the clarity of the atmosphere
B. the observer eyesight
C. the intensity of the light
D. Height of Eye of observer / height of light

80. What is the range shown on the chart, beside the light star?
A. geographical range
B. extreme range
C. Nominal range
D. Luminous range

81. When selecting the maximum distance at which a landfall light would be
visible, which of the following should be selected?
A. greater of the two
B. geographical range
C. nominal range
D. lesser of the two (geographical & nominal range)

82. Where will you find information on tidal streams?


A. tide tables
B. tidal stream atlas
C. guide to port entry
D. ALRS

190
83. When watchkeepers are inadequately rested, it calls for changes to routine
watchkeeping periods. Who is responsible to affect such changes ?
A. navigating officer
B. master
C. watch keeper involved
D. all the other watchkeepers

84. What should be followed to ensure routine tasks are carried out for a proper
voyage preparation?
A. guidelines
B. checklist
C. none of the other options
D. ISM code

85. While fixing a ships position how many position lines are required to ensure
accuracy?
A. none
B. three
C. two
D. one

86. Who is responsible for the safety of the vessel when pilot is on board?
A. Master
B. port authorities
C. 00W
D. Pilot

87. With which log can you measure sideways motion?


A. Doppler log
B. none of the other options
C. Electromagnetic log
D. patent log

191
88. What is the person who has control of the ship called ?
A. donning officer
B. Navigating officer
C. second officer
D. Master

89. The non-tidal movement of the sea surface due mainly to meteorological,
oceanographical and topographical causes is called :
A. tide
B. leeway
C. wind
D. current

90. The horizontal direction of the ship's head at a given moment measured in
degrees clockwise from north is called:
A. course
B. Compass
C. heading
D. Compass rose

91. What is a Radar Beacon which transmits when triggered by ship's own
Radar transmission called:
A. Raymark
B. Rayband
C. Rainbow
D. Racon

92. The direction that a stream runs towards is called:


A. current
B. set
C. drift
D. leeway

192
93. The times between which, the tide hawing achieved a required height, is
safer for a ship to transit a certain area, is called:
A. time of high water
B. tidal window
C. tidal track
D. tidal stream

94. What is the vertical distance between the sea bed and the deepest part of the
keel known as :
A. depth
B. sounding
C. draft
D. under keel clearance
95. The point at which the helm must be applied to achieve a required course
alteration is called:
A. heel-over position
B. way-point
C. drift-point
D. abort-point

96. Which condition may be inappropriate for an officer in charge of a


navigational watch:
A. notifying the Master when in doubt as to what action is to be taken in the
interest of safety
B. continue to be responsible for the safe navigation of the ship despite the
presence of the Master on bridge
C. leaving the bridge without being properly relieved
D. leaving the bridge after being relieved by the Master
97. How should the changeover from automatic to manual steering be carried
out:
A. By Helmsman
B. Cadet
C. Under the supervision of a responsible officer
D. Lookout
193
98. How frequently must the vessel's position be fixed in coastal waters:
A. Whenever one feels like
B. Whenever one is comfortable to do so
C. Whenever a danger is suspected
D. At short regular intervals
99. How should positions be fixed in coastal waters:
A. By using maping only on the Radar
B. By using more than one position fixing method
C. Hone of the other options
D. By using only one position fixing method
100. In restricted visibility which of the following must not be done:
A. Sound fog signal
B. Proceed at safe speed
C. Exhibit navigational lights
D. Avoid keeping lookouts

101. If the OOW is in doubt as to the Pilot's actions or intentions what must he do
:
A. As the Pilot to leave the bridge
B. Avoid taking any action
C. Seek clarification from the Pilot , notify the Master and corrective action
D. Call Master and wait for him to take action

102. While maintaining an anchor watch, which of these should be avoided:


A. Ensure that inspection rounds are made periodically
B. Ensure that an efficient lookout is maintained
C. Notify the Master and take necessary steps if ship drags anchor
D. Plot the ship's position only when suspected the ship is dragging anchor
103. Route which is primarily selected for use by ships which because of their
draught, may not be able to navigate safely outside such route is called:
A. inshore traffic route
B. Small craft's route
C. Ship's routing
D. Deep draught route
194
104. Which unit is not set on charts to indicate soundings?
A. Feet
B. Fathoms
C. Meters
D. Bars

105. Where on the chart is the unit of depth indicated?


A. At the center of the chart
B. In the left hand margin of the chart
C. In the right hand margin of the chart
D. Under the title of the chart

106. Charts prepared on a very small scale, covering large portions of the globe
are called:
A. Decca charts
B. Loran charts
C. Coastal charts
D. Ocean charts

107. Charts drawn on a very large scale and covering a small area is called:
A. Loran chart
B. Coastal chart
C. Plan chart
D. Decca chart

108. Charts used in air navigation but may also be used as an aid to navigation
are called:
A. Loran charts
B. Decca charts
C. Plan charts
D. Console charts

195
109. A Passage Planning Routeing charts are published:
A. For different months of the year
B. For each ocean and for different months of the year
C. All oceans on a chart for different months
D. For each ocean

110. How many hours, prior to sailing would it be advisable to test controls?
A. on departure
B. 2 hours
C. 12 hrs
D. 24hrs

111. Who should be aware of the time of testing controls?


A. Duty officer
B. All of these.
C. Master
D. Duty engineer

112. Which of the following would not be included as part of control testing prior
departure?
A. Testing of ship's cranes
B. Check communication between Bridge and Engine control room
C. Synchronise clocks
D. Testing of engine telegraph and it's auto recorder

113. When will you make entries in the deck log book:
A. The next day
B. within a week
C. During your watch
D. After completing your watch and being fully relived

196
114. After each watch when fire and safety rounds are carried out by OOW/AB,
who should be informed?
A. chief engineer
B. the bridge
C. master
D. the engine room

115. Which of these is not a synoptic hour?


A. 0200
B. 1200
C. 1800
D. 0600

116. What are the duties of a helmsman?


A. To steer the ship
B. Conn. the ship
C. Keep a lookout
D. All of these.

117. A propeller in which the rotation of the blades is from left to right with the
ship going ahead and the observer facing forward is called :
A. Right-hand propeller
B. Twin screw propeller
C. Left hand propeller
D. Reversible propeller

118. In case of daylight hours, clear visibility and little traffic, what would be the
minimum expected manning level on the bridge?
A. One deck watch officer and one seaman
B. Two deck watch officer and one seaman
C. Three deck watch officer and one seaman
D. Only one watch officer on the bridge

197
119. Which of these errors in DF are caused due to loop siting?
A. Quadrantal error
B. Land and coast effect
C. Night effect
D. All of these.

120. In which of these cases would you consider a watch keeper unfit for duty?
A. If he is impaired by fatigue
B. If he is not intoxicated
C. If he has a bruise on his leg
D. If he has a common cold

121. What is the aim of a routeing system? To ..


A. Comply with the rules and regulations of the government
B. Study the market , by finding out the different cargoes carried
C. Keep a track of the vessels coming and going
D. Provide safe passage for ships through area w/o restricting legitimate
rights, practices & taking account of anticipated/existing navigational
hazards

122. Who is responsible for navigating the ship safety?


A. Owners
B. The OOW under the direction of the master
C. The master
D. Helms man

123. Who is responsible for safety of the vessel/when the pilot is on board?
A. Master
B. owners
C. Pilot
D. Port authorities

198
124. In which of these cases must the watch not be handed over?
A. When the officer of the watch has reason to believe that the relieving
officer is under some disability w/c would prevent him doing duties
effectively
B. When a manoeuvre is taking place
C. Both <Option 2> and :Option 3>
D. When the relieving is satisfied that he has complied with the taking over
watch procedures

125. Who represents the master in navigating the vessel safely?


A. Pilot
B. Only the chief officer
C. OOW
D. Navigating officer

126. What is a routeing measure comprising a separation point or circular


separation point or circular separation zone and a circular traffic lane within
defined limits called?
A. Roundabout
B. Inshore traffic zone
C. Precautionary area
D. Two-way route

127. Which of these may be permitted to change over the steering from automatic
to manual.
A. Helmsman
B. OOW
C. Look out
D. All of these.

199
128. What does the signal 'YG' mean?
A. You appear to be complying with the traffic separation scheme, continue
on the same heading
B. You are running into danger
C. You appear not to be complying with the traffic separation scheme
D. You are in a separation zone

129. Who is responsible to ensure that the watch keeping arrangements are
adequate for maintaining a safe navigational watch?
A. Duty officer
B. Owners
C. Master
D. Al of these.

130. How must a member of the bridge team indicate he has understood the tasks
and duties assigned to him?
A. The team members needs to be supervised and any mistakes corrected
immediately
B. Each team member is considered responsible so once told to carry out a
job, it is understood that the job will be done
C. The team members should confirm that they understand the tasks and
duties assigned to them
D. Report after completing the job

200
131. How should watches be arranged?
A. For the first 12hrs it is normal if watchkeepers are not properly rested,
but every effort must be made to do so.
B. First watch at commencement of voyage may be exempted but
subsequent relieving watches must be sufficiently rested & otherwise fit
when going on duty
C. It is left to the discretion of the master weather the watchkeeper needs to
be rested or not.
D. The 1st watch at the commencement of a voyage and the subsequent
relieving watches are sufficiently rested and otherwise fit when going on
duty

132. If a helmsman is given an order stbd10, what must he do?


A. He must repeat the order before putting the wheel on stbd 10
B. All of the other options are appropriate
C. He must put the wheel on stbd 10 and then report
D. He must repeat the order , wait for a reconfirmation from the OOW and
then put the wheel on stbd 10

133. 99. Which of these jobs can an officer in-charge of a navigational watch
undertake?
A. Any duty provided there is no traffic
B. Assist in painting on the bridge wing
C. No duties that would interfere with the safe navigation of the ship
D. Any job provided he makes regular checks in between

134. When should an intended voyage be planned?


A. During pilotage
B. At least during the course of a voyage
C. On sailing
D. In advance

201
135. Which of these factors must be taken into account when deciding the
composition of a navigational watch?
A. All of these.
B. The weather conditions, visibility and weather there is daylight or
darkness
C. The proximity of navigational hazards, which may make it necessary for
the officer in charge to carry out additional navigational duties.
D. Whether the ship is fitted with automatic steering

136. In which of the following cases would the officer of the watch notify the
master?
A. If difficulty is experienced in maintaining course
B. It restricted visibility is suspected or encountered
C. <Option 2> and <Option 3>
D. In clear weather, no traffic

137. When can the officer of watch be the sole look out
A. At night
B. During the day when master feels it is safe
C. In none of the other cases
D. In open seas throughout a period of 24hrs

138. How often would you check the position of the ship?
A. When one desires
B. Only at one hour intervals
C. At sufficient frequent intervals
D. When one is a little uncomfortable

139. When may the OOW use engines?


A. when approaching port
B. Only after informing the master
C. Whenever he needs to
D. Only on orders from the master

202
140. How shall the composition of a watch and number of lookouts be
determined?
A. There must always be only one officer and look out irrespective of the
situation.
B. It must always be determined before the voyage commences without any
changes
C. It should be adequate and appropriate to the prevailing circumstances and
conditions
D. There is no need for lookouts

141. What type of weather conditions are routeing systems intended for?
A. In heavy ice conditions where ice breakers are used
B. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
C. They are intended for use during day or night in all weather conditions
D. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>

142. What should be carried out when the pilot boards the vessel ?
A. None of the other options
B. Master should hand over the responsibility before leaving the bridge
C. Signing of the pilots dues receipt
D. Master-pilot information exchange

143. What should be the basic concern of the person responsible for navigating
the ship safety?
A. Avoid Collision and stranding
B. Avoid VHF communication
C. Avoid use of anchors
D. Avoid using engines

203
144. What must the navigating officer do once he has deviated from the planned
track?
A. Resume original track only when the master says so
B. Continue on the new track till the new course is set by the navigating
officer
C. Resume the original track as soon as possible
D. Any of the other options is suitable

145. With regard to safety and navigational equipment what care must be taken?
A. The key points and features only need to be understood
B. The equipment must be properly understood and operational conditions
must be fully taken into account
C. At least the important equipment must be properly understood and
operational conditions must be fully taken into account
D. Only equipment which the user knows properly must be used

146. How can good situation awareness be developed amongst the bridge team?
A. By making a passage plan and everyone must be made to it before
departure.
B. By having as many people on the bridge at all times so that more people
are aware in case a situation develops.
C. Regular briefing prior joining a vessel.
D. By making a plan that is well understood, with everyone briefed, with all
members supporting each other.

147. How should ships navigate when they are outside the limits of traffic
separation schemes but close to an inshore traffic zone?
A. In a direction perpendicular to the traffic zone
B. In a direction opposite to that indicated in the zone closest to the ship
C. In the same direction indicated in the zone closest to the ship
D. In any direction

204
148. When using two - way routes or two- way deep water routes, which of these
is recommended?
A. Keeping to the stbd side as far as possible
B. All of the other options are practicable
C. Keeping to the port side as far as possible
D. Remaining at the centre as far as possible

149. If there is a lookout needed on the bridge, what should be the navigating
officers course of action?
A. Seek permission from the officer in charge of the crew and only then
summon for assistance
B. e must ensure assistance is made available by the time the next relieving
officer is on the bridge
C. He must ensure assistance is immediately made available
D. He must ensure assistance is made available before sunset

150. For what type of vessels is a deep-water route intended for?


A. Only ships of over 100000dwt and over
B. Any ship can use the route as long as they exhibit proper lights/shapes for
the same
C. Ships which because of their draught in relation to the available depth of
water in the area concerned require the use of such a route
D. It is a shorter route provided by the government for transit at an added
price

151. If the master of the vessel is present on the bridge while you are keeping a
navigational watch, who would be responsible for the watch?
A. Lookout
B. the master
C. the OOW
D. Both share the responsibility

205
152. What type of ships are routeing systems recommended for use?
A. All types of ships unless otherwise stated
B. Only for those vessels which have difficulty in maneuvering
C. Only for large vessels
D. For vessels following a convoy

153. When should a relieving officer take over a watch?


A. When the officer being relieved says he has handed over the watch
B. Once his vision is fully adjusted to the light
C. Both <Option 2> and <Option 3>
D. Once he satisfied himself by standing & instructions of master, position,
course, speed, draught, tides, currents & navigational situation

154. If the OOW has any doubt about the pilot's actions, what must he do?
A. He should seek clarification from the pilot and if in doubt notify the
master and take appropriate action before master arrives
B. He should seek clarification from the pilot & if he feels the pilots actions
are wrong he should make a report & get it signed by the pilot after pilot

C. He should seek clarification from the pilot and if in doubt notify the
master to take appropriate action.
D. Inform port control and ask for a change of pilot

155. On taking over a navigational watch which of the following will you
confirm?
A. Ships true/estimated position, track, course and speed.
B. That the passage plan is complete
C. Ships bunkers on board
D. That the radar is on

206
156. Excluding small vessels and where there is no all round view. Which of
these would you consider a lookout?
A. Men working on deck
B. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>
C. Person designated to keep a lookout
D. Helmsman

157. 123. When is a vessel required to maintain a lookout ?

A. All the time at sea.

B. At night and when visibility is reduced.

C. From sunset to sunrise.

D. When decided bythe Captain.

158. What is the patent log used for ?

A. Indicating distance traveled through the water.

B. Indicating wind speed.

C. Writing an official record of events on board.

D. Indicating ship's time.

159. With approaching heavy weather, what precautions must be taken with
lifeboats?

A. Lower boats to embarkation deck level and secure.

B. Check and tighten all lashings.

C. Remove all covers make fast the plug.

D. Place onboard additional provisions and rig the painters.

207
160. With approaching heavy weather, name 3 things that must be done on main
deck?

A. Plug scuppers - throw anything loose on deck overboard - close


watertight doors.

B. Turn ventilators into wind - switch on power to winches - remove


sounding caps.

C. Check: all hatches/tank tops are properly secured - all scuppers are clear -
ventilation pipes closed

D. Switch on deck lighting - switch on power to cranes - check all doors are
closed and secured.

161. In preparing for a long passage, what must be done with all the mooring
ropes?

A. Remove from working areas, store and secure in lockers

B. Store on open deck in sheltered place.

C. Secure in place on bow and poop deck.

D. Moue to the accommodation and secure in the central stores

162. What signals must a vessel at anchor display?

A. Code flag 'a' by day and a red light at night.

B. A large black square by day and a flashing white light at night.

C. Code flag 'b' by day and a red light at night.

D. A black ball hoisted at the bow by day and all around white lights at
night.

208
163. With approaching heavy weather, name three things that must be done with
windlass?

A. Tighten brakes - cover windlass with canvas - switch on power to


windlass

B. Open brakes - put windlass in gear - cover windlass with canvas.

C. Lash windlass to rails - remove brake handles - switch on power to


windlass.

D. Tighten brakes-secure cables with wires-take windlass out of gear.

164. When vessel is at anchor in fog, what is the lookout required to do?

A. Keep watch on the bridge using radar and inform the officer of the watch
if any vessel appears to be too close.

B. Ring anchor bell rapidly every 5 minutes.

C. Check the anchor cable at frequent intervals for any sign that the ship
may be dragging.

D. Make hot drinks for the officer of the watch.

165. Is the lookout man allowed to leave his post without being relieved?

A. No, it is not OK.

B. Only for short periods to go to the toilet.

C. It depends on the situation

D. Yes, it is OK.

209
166. at is the main duty of the lookout man ?

A. To call the master if the officer on watch collapses.

B. To assist the officer of the watch in his duties.

C. To assist as required with maintenance work.

D. To keep alert and report anything seen or heard to the officer of the
watch.

167. What colour are the ship's mast lights?

A. Red

B. White

C. Mixed

D. Red and white

168. What colouris the ship's port or left hand sidelight?

A. White

B. Yellow

C. Green

D. Red

169. What colouris the ship's starboard or right hand sidelight?

A. Red

B. Yellow

C. Green

D. White

210
170. When on bridge lookout duty, what is your first responsibility?

A. Clean the bridge

B. Be alert, watch and listen

C. Serve coffee to the captain

D. Seek shelter

171. When on bridge lookout duty, how would you report a light sighted at mid-
way between the bow and the starboard beam ?

A. Light in middle to starboard

B. Light to starboard

C. Light 4 points to starboard

D. Light sharp to starboard

172. When on bridge lookout duty, how would you report a light 22.5 degrees aft
of midships on the port side?

A. Light astern

B. Light four points abaft the port beam

C. Light behind on port side

D. Light two points abaft the port beam

173. When a vessel is approaching 'END Or N, how many side lights would you
see?

A. Two

B. Five

C. Three

D. Four

211
174. When a vessel is crossing from port to starboard, what colour sidelight
would you see?

A. Green

B. Red

C. Yellow

D. White

175. When a vessel is crossing from starboard to port, what colour sidelight
would you see ?

A. Yellow

B. Red

C. White

D. Green

176. When your vessel is overtaking another, what is the colour of the first light
you would see ?

A. White

B. Green

C. Yellow

D. Red

177. How many degrees are there on the rose of a magnetic or gyro compass?

A. 420

B. 360

C. 180

D. 270

212
178. How many points of the compass are there ?

A. 36

B. 24

C. 32

D. 40

179. How many degrees are there in each point of the compass ?

A. 12

B. 11.25

C. 15

D. 17.5

180. How many navigation lights does an ordinary power-driven vessel carry
when steaming full ahead?

A. 7

B. 5

C. 3

D. 4

181. What is the arc (angle) of visibility of a masthead light?

A. 225 degrees

B. 270 degrees

C. 210 degrees

D. 180 degrees

213
182. What is the arc (angle) of visibility of a stern light ?

A. 135 degrees

B. 270 degrees

C. 120 degrees

D. 150 degrees

183. When must a vessel place a bridge lookout on duty ?

A. At night and in poor visibility

B. In poor visibility only

C. All day

D. At night only

184. When is a vessel required to maintain a lookout ?

A. All the time at sea.

B. At night and when visibility is reduced.

C. From sunset to sunrise.

D. When decided bythe Captain.

185. What is the patent log used for ?

A. Indicating distance traveled through the water.

B. Indicating wind speed.

C. Writing an official record of events on board.

D. Indicating ship's time.

214
186. With approaching heavy weather, what precautions must be taken with
lifeboats ?

A. Lower boats to embarkation deck level and secure.

B. Check and tighten all lashings.

C. Remove all covers make fast the plug.

D. Place onboard additional provisions and rig the painters.

187. With approaching heavy weather, name 3 things that must be done on main
deck ?

A. Plug scuppers - throw anything loose on deck overboard - close


watertight doors.

B. Turn ventilators into wind - switch on power to winches - remove


sounding caps.

C. Check: all hatches/tank tops are properly secured - all scuppers are clear -
ventilation pipes closed

D. Switch on deck lighting - switch on power to cranes - check all doors are
closed and secured.

188. In preparing for a long passage, what must be done with all the mooring
ropes ?

A. Remove from working areas, store and secure in lockers

B. Store on open deck in sheltered place.

C. Secure in place on bow and poop deck.

D. Moue to the accommodation and secure in the central stores

215
189. What signals must a vessel at anchor display ?

A. Code flag 'a' by day and a red light at night.

B. A large black square by day and a flashing white light at night.

C. Code flag 'b' by day and a red light at night.

D. A black ball hoisted at the bow by day and all around white lights at
night.

190. When the inboard end of a gangway is resting on the bulwark, what else
must be provided ?

A. A life buoy with self igniting light.

B. A large wooden crate pushed against bulwark.

C. A bulwark ladder properly secured and fenced.

D. Stanchions.

191. With approaching heavy weather, name three things that must be done with
windlass ?

A. Tighten brakes - cover windlass with canvas - switch on power to


windlass

B. Open brakes - put windlass in gear - cover windlass with canvas.

C. Lash windlass to rails - remove brake handles - switch on power to


windlass.

D. Tighten brakes-secure cables with wires-take windlass out of gear.

216
192. When vessel is at anchor in fog, what is the lookout required to do?

A. Keep watch on the bridge using radar and inform the officer of the watch
if any vessel appears to be too close.

B. Ring anchor bell rapidly every 5 minutes.

C. Check the anchor cable at frequent intervals for any sign that the ship
may be dragging.

D. Make hot drinks for the officer of the watch.

193. If this ship was at sea, what would be wrong with this picture ?

A. The windlass is not in gear.

B. The anchor cable is not clean

C. The compression bars are not on the anchor cable.

D. There are no covers on the gypsy.

194. Is the lookout man allowed to leave his post without being relieved ?

A. No, it is not OK.

B. Only for short periods to go to the toilet.

C. It depends on the situation

D. Yes, it is OK.

195. at is the main duty of the lookout man ?

A. To call the master if the officer on watch collapses.

B. To assist the officer of the watch in his duties.

C. To assist as required with maintenance work.

D. To keep alert and report anything seen or heard to the officer of the
watch.

217
196. If ordered to steer "east", how many degrees on the compass is it ?

A. 045 degrees

B. 270 degrees

C. 180 degrees

D. 090 degrees

197. What kind of joining shackle is shown here


?

A. A quick release shackle.

B. A lugged shackle.

C. A kenter shackle.

D. A senhouse shackle.

198. What is a standard compass ?

A. A compass that automatically steers the ship.

B. A magnetic compass in a binnacle.

C. A gyro compass powered by electricity.

D. A compass for indicating wind direction found on the mast.

199. How would you respond to an order of "steer 045 degrees" from the pilot ?

A. Alter course to new heading of 045 degrees.

B. Repeat the order then alter course to a new heading of 045 degrees.

C. Repeat the order, then alter course until 045 degrees shown on compass,
then report "steady on 045 degrees, pilot".

D. Turn the wheel until the course is altered by 045 degrees.

218
200. What is the length of 1 shackle of anchor cable ?

A. One tenth of a nautical mile.

B. 10 fathoms or 18.5 meters.

C. 15 fathoms or 27.5 meters.

D. 20 fathoms or 36.5 meters.

201. Which of these would not need to be done prior to arrival at a berth ?

A. Rig the gangway and lower it to about 15cms above the waterline.

B. Request power on deck, ensure windlass out of gear with brakes on, run
windlass and mooring winch slowly and oil working parts.

C. Prepare heaving lines, rope stoppers, chain stoppers, cork or rope fender
and ratguards.

D. Bring mooring lines out from storage to suitable positions on deck.

202. What is a gangway used for ?

A. To allow safe access to vessel

B. For putting over deck cargo to allow access from the accommodation to
the forecastle.

C. Getting into the vessel's lifeboats or liferafts.

D. Loading cargo.

219
203. Which of the following is not required when a pilot is boarding ?

A. A lifeboat swung out on standby.

B. A bulwark ladder.

C. A heaving line.

D. A lifebuoy with light.

204. In relation the quayside where should the outboard end of gangway rest ?

A. Straight out from ship's side across crane tracks.

B. In front of the ship's after back spring.

C. Right on the edge.

D. Clear of cargo working areas and clear of all suspended loads.

205. Who must supervise the rigging of the pilot ladder and the
embarkation/disembarkation of pilot ?

A. The AB on watch

B. The bosun

C. The Captain

D. The officer of the watch.

220
206. How should a pilot ladder 'hang" on ship's side ?

A. Flat against ship's side and down to the water's edge.

B. Flat against ship's side with lower end of sufficient height above water to
allow easy access.

C. Flat against ship's side and down just below the waterline.

D. At an angle of about 45 degrees towards the stern.

207. Which of these is an adequate means of access to cargo holds ?

A. A mechanical hoist.

B. A rope ladder.

C. A permanent fitted ladder.

D. A long aluminum ladder.

208. How would you know when 3 shackles of cable have been paid out ?

A. By counting the links.

B. By locating metal tags.

C. By asking the chief mate.

D. By locating seizing wire on the link on either side of the joining shackle.

221
209. How would you respond to an order of 'bard a starboard" from the pilot ?

A. Turn the wheel as far as it will go to starboard, then bring the wheel back
to midships.

B. Repeat the order, then turn the wheel as far as it will go to starboard and
report.

C. Repeat the order, then turn the wheel as far as it will go to left and report.

D. Repeat the order, then turn the wheel to starboard until 25 degrees rudder
shown.

210. Where is the best place onboard to rig a pilot ladder ?

A. On deck and as close to midships as possible.

B. Near the stern.

C. Near the bow.

D. From the boat deck.

211. In relation to weather and sea state, what must a vessel provide when
embarking a pilot ?

A. That the vessel is head on to sea

B. That the pilot ladder is rigged on weather side

C. That the pilot ladde is rigged on leeside

D. That anchor is ready to let go.

222
212. When preparing an anchor, what will the bosun do before the vessel arrives
at an anchorage ?

A. Take the windlass out of gear and hold the anchor on the brake.

B. Remove the wire lashings and the cement covers to the chain lockers.

C. Hoist the anchoring ball.

D. Put power to the windlass and walk the anchor back to just above the
water.

213. What is the primary function of the ship's windlass ?

A. Heaving the anchor cable.

B. Mooring the ship.

C. As an additional winch when required.

D. Securing the ship to a tug using the chain.

214. This vessel is at anchor. What daytime signal must this vessel display ?

A. A basket.

B. A black cylinder.

C. A red and yellow flag.

D. A black ball.

215. In preparing for sea, what must be done with all deck storerooms ?

A. Make sure all contents are properly stowed and secured.

B. Check with the chief mate or bosun for instructions.

C. Lock the doors and post warning notices.

D. Lock the doors.

223
216. When warping or heaving a vessel alongside, how many men are required
for each line ?

A. Two.

B. One.

C. Three.

D. Four.

217. How do you secure a fibre rope to bitts ?

A. By round turns.

B. By a combination of round turns and figure of eights.

C. By a bowline knot.

D. By a figure eight.

218. In securing nylon or polyproplene ropes, what must you do ?

A. Make two round turns on nearest bitt before making figure of eights.

B. Leave the stoppers secured to the mooring ropes.

C. Lash the top turns after securing.

D. Secure in the same manner as fibre ropes.

219. Once ship is tied up, what must be put on all mooring lines ?

A. Warning notices.

B. Self tension winches.

C. Extra lashings.

D. Rat guards.

224
220. When boarding a pilot at night, what else must vessel provide ?

A. A searchlight or cluster light rigged in such a manner to clearly


illuminate the ship side and pilot ladder.

B. A flare or intermittent flashing light.

C. All of these.

D. A strong flashlight with beam directed on pilot ladder.

221. Beside bow and stern lines, what other lines are used when mooring ?

A. Midship lines.

B. Back springs.

C. Towing springs.

D. Gantlines.

222. How would the helmsman respond to an order "steady from the pilot ?

A. Repeat order and just leave wheel as it is.

B. Repeat order and put wheel to midships.

C. Repeat order, then apply sufficient wheel to arrest any swing and advise
pilot of new course.

D. Repeat the order, note the compass course and steady vessel on that
course, then report steady on course.

225
223. How would you respond to an order "starboard ten" ?

A. By repeating the order and then executing it.

B. By repeating order, turning wheel to starboard until 10 degrees shown on


rudder indicator, then reporting "ten degrees starboard, Sir."

C. By turning wheel to starboard until 10 degrees is shown on the rudder


indicator.

D. By turning wheel to the left until 10 degrees shown on rudder indicator.

224. How would you respond to an order 'midships" ?

A. Turn wheel 10 degrees to the left and then return it midships.

B. Repeat order and leave wheel where it is.

C. Turn the wheel 10 degrees to the right and then return it midships.

D. Repeat the order, then bring wheel to midships position and report "wheel
amidships, Sir."

225. When steering by gyro compass, what must a helmsman periodically do ?

A. Alter course occasionallyto ensure it is working property.

B. Check the gyro compass course against magnetic compass course

C. Allow for the rolling of the ship.

D. Adjust the speed and latitude settings on the gyro each watch.

226
226. How do you respond to an order 'bard a port" ?

A. Repeat the order then turn wheel to port until 20 degrees shown on the
rudder indicator.

B. Turn the wheel as far as it will go to port, then bring the wheel back to
midships.

C. Repeat the order then turn the wheel as far as it will go to port, then
report "wheel hard a port, Sir."

D. Turn the wheel as far as it will go to the right.

227. How do you respond to an order 'test steering gear" ?

A. Starboard

B. By repeating order and turning the wheel hard a port

C. By turning wheel a few degrees to port and starboard.

D. By repeating order, then turning wheel hard over to port and starboard
then back to midships and reporting "Gear in order, Sir."

228. How do you respond to an order "steer 270 degrees" ?

A. Repeat the order then alter course to new heading of 270 degrees.

B. Just alter course to new heading of 270 degrees.

C. Repeat the order, then alter course and steady vessel on new heading and
report "steady on 270 degrees, Sir

D. Turn the wheel until course is altered by 270 degrees.

227
229. What part of the ship is shown here?

A. A mechanical pilot hoist.

B. A pilot ladder.

C. A gangway.

D. A stairway.

230. What part is encircled ?

A. The radar scanner.

B. The azimuth indicator.

C. The radio direction finder.

D. The wind speed indicator.

231. What is the name of the piece of


equipment shown in the picture?

A. The windless.

B. The capstan.

C. A mooring winch.

D. The towing gear.

228
232. What part of this vessel is shown by letter
A?

A. A pumproom.

B. A stern ramp.

C. A pipeline manifold.

D. A hatch cover.

233. How do you respond to an order "steer 10


degrees to port" ?

A. Repeat the order and turn wheel to port until 10 degrees shown on rudder
indicator.

B. Repeat the order then turn the wheel 10 degrees to port

C. Repeat the order, turn the wheel to port and once bow starts swinging
ease the wheel steadying the vessel on new course and then report the
course.

D. Turn the wheel to port until new course appears on compass, then steady
ship.

234. What is this the piece of equipment ?

A. A windlass.

B. A topping lift.

C. A capstan.

D. A set of bitts.

229
235. How do you respond to an order "ease the wheel" ?

A. Report the order then turn the wheel slowlytowards midships.

B. Repeat the order, then turn the wheel to midships until 5 degrees shown
on rudder indicator, then report "wheel eased, Sir."

C. Repeat the order, then bring the wheel to midships.

D. Repeat the order then turn the wheel until the opposite amount of rudder
shown on indicator, then report.

236. What part of the ship is shown by letter


A?

A. A gooseneck.

B. A crane topping lift

C. A crane pedestal.

D. A jib.

237. What is the aft draft ?

A. 7.5 metres.

B. 7 metres 50 centimeters.

C. 7 metres 40 centimeters.

D. 7 metres 85 centimeters.

230
238. What is the forward draft ?

A. 7 metres 60 centimeters.

B. 7.5 metres.

C. 7 metres 65 centimeters.

D. 7 metres 70 centimeters.

239. What signal is being exhibited by this vessel ?

A. A tug restricted in its abitity to maneuver.

B. A tug and tow more then 200m.

C. A tug not under command.

D. A tug constrained by its draft.

240. How many shackles of cable is indicated


here ?

A. 3 shackles.

B. 2 shackles.

C. 1 shackle.

D. 4 shackles.

231
241. What is the draft ?

A. 8.4m

B. 8.5m

C. 7.5m

D. 7.4m

242. What is the forward draft ?

A. 7 metres 90 centimeters.

B. 7 metres 85 centimeters.

C. 7 metres 50 centimeters.

D. 8 metres 50 centimeters.

243. What is a gyro compass ?

A. A type of magnetic compass.

B. A special compass for emergencies.

C. A compass that measures wind direction.

D. A compass powered by electricity.

232
244. What type of boat is in this picture

A. A liferaft.

B. A totally enclosed lifeboat.

C. An open freefall lifeboat.

D. A fast rescue boat.

245. What are the cardinal points of a compass.

A. North East, North West, South East & South West.

B. North, South, East and West.

C. East and West.

D. North and South.

246. What is the part marked with the square


called?

A. A lifeboat catcher.

B. A lifeboat fall.

C. A lifeboat davit.

D. A lifeboat painter.

233
247. What is the forward draft ?

A. 7 metres 40
centimeters.

B. 4 metres.

C. 7 metres 4 centimeters.

D. 8 metres 4 centimeters.

248. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Echo

B. Bravo

C. Mike

D. Oscar

249. What kind of vessel may sound a fog signal consisting of four short blasts ?

A. A vessel constrained by her draught

B. A vessel being towed

C. A vessel engaged on pilotage duty

D. A fishing vessel

234
250. After putting the windlass in gear, what must you do next?

A. Start the electrical convertor

B. Ring the anchor bell

C. Start the windlass

D. Open the brake

251. What colour are the ship's mast lights?

A. Red

B. White

C. Mixed

D. Red and white

252. What colour is the ship's port or left hand sidelight?

A. White

B. Yellow

C. Green

D. Red

253. What colour is the ship's starboard or right hand sidelight?

A. Red

B. Yellow

C. Green

D. White

254. When on bridge lookout duty, what is your first responsibility?

A. Clean the bridge

B. Be alert, watch and listen

C. Serve coffee to the captain

235
D. Seek shelter

255. When on bridge lookout duty, how would you report a light sighted at mid-
way between the bow and the starboard beam ?

A. Light in middle to starboard

B. Light to starboard

C. Light 4 points to starboard

D. Light sharp to starboard

256. When on bridge lookout duty, how would you report a light 22.5 degrees aft
of midships on the port side?

A. Light astern

B. Light four points abaft the port beam

C. Light behind on port side

D. Light two points abaft the port beam

257. When a vessel is approaching 'END OrN, how many side lights would you
see?

A. Two

B. Five

C. Three

D. Four

258. When a vessel is crossing from port to starboard, what colour sidelight
would you see?

A. Green

B. Red

C. Yellow

D. White

236
259. When a vessel is crossing from starboard to port, what colour sidelight
would you see ?

A. Yellow

B. Red

C. White

D. Green

260. When your vessel is overtaking another, what is the colour of the first light
you would see ?

A. White

B. Green

C. Yellow

D. Red

261. When would you use a fid?

A. When splicing a mooring line

B. When securing hatch covers

C. When mixing paint

D. When chipping paint on deck

262. When joining two ropes, what type of splice do you use?

A. A French splice

B. A short splice

C. A long splice

D. An eye splice

237
263. How many degrees are there on the rose of a magnetic or gyro compass?

A. 420

B. 360

C. 180

D. 270

264. How many points of the compass are there ?

A. 36

B. 24

C. 32

D. 40

265. How many degrees are there in each point of the compass ?

A. 12

B. 11.25

C. 15

D. 17.5

266. How many feet are there in a fathom?


A. 6
B. 4
C. 9
D. 12
267. How many fathoms are there in one shackle or shot of the anchor cable?

A. 18

B. 15

C. 20

D. 10

238
268. How many navigation lights does an ordinary power-driven vessel carry
when steaming full ahead?

A. 7

B. 5

C. 3

D. 4

269. What is the arc (angle) of visibility of a masthead light?

A. 225 degrees

B. 270 degrees

C. 210 degrees

D. 180 degrees

270. What is the arc (angle) of visibility of a sternlight ?

A. 135 degrees

B. 270 degrees

C. 120 degrees

D. 150 degrees

271. When must a vessel place a bridge lookout on duty ?

A. At night and in poor visibility

B. In poor visibility only

C. All day

D. At night only

239
272. When told to rig a pilot ladder, which side do you choose?

A. the weather side

B. Close to the stern

C. Either side

D. The lee side

273. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Bravo

B. Zulu

C. Uniform

D. Alfa

274. If a ballast tank has just been emptied, within the last hour, would you still
need to test the space for oxygen ?

A. No, ballast tanks never need to be tested for oxygen content.

B. It is up to the captain or authorized officer.

C. Yes, all enclosed spaces should be tested.

D. No, in this circumstance the atmosphere would contain tifficient oxygen.

240
275. What action should be taken immediately in the event of an oil tank spill
when loading ?

A. Stand by the fire fighting equipment in case of ignition.

B. The spilled oil on deck should be recovered and action taken to stop any
further spillage.

C. Reduced the level in the tank by gravity transfer to a slack tank.

D. Notify the terminal and stop loading.

276. Which deckhands are not permitted to work aloft ?

A. All ordinary seamen.

B. Cadets or apprentices..

C. Those under 18 years who have less than 1 year experience

D. All of these.

277. What does this sign mean ?

A. Dangerous when wet.

B. Poisonous.

C. Chemicals.

D. Corrosive.

241
278. What does this sign mean ?

A. Radioactive.

B. Flammable.

C. Explosive.

D. Dangerous gas.

279. What does this sign mean ?

A. An oxidizing agent.

B. Dangerous when exposed to air.

C. Contains oxygen.

D. A surface burning fuel.

280. A container with this warning sign would


contain which type of hazard ?

A. Marine pollutant.

B. Explosive.

C. Toxic.

D. Radioactive.

242
281. What part is shown by letter D ?

A. The gripes.

B. The brake.

C. The bowsing tackle.

D. The fall block.

282. What does this sign mean ?

A. Compressed air.

B. LPG.

C. Highly flammable compressed gas.

D. Non flammable compressed gas.

283. What does this sign mean?

A. Emergency signals.

B. Rocket line throwing apparatus.

C. Survival craft pyrotechnics.

D. Rocket parachute flares.

243
284. When working over ship's side on staging, what other equipment besides a
safety harness should be worn?

A. A life jacket.

B. No other equipment is necessary.

C. Waterproof overalls.

D. Box type or wrap around goggles.

285. When must you wear breathing apparatus ?

A. When entering a space suspected to be deficient in oxygen.

B. When required to go under water.

C. When cleaning holds after a grain cargo.

D. When spray painting or grit blasting.

286. When must you wear a safety harness ?

A. When at mooring stations.

B. When working in lower hold.

C. When working aloft or over the side of the ship.

D. When opening hatches.

287. What protective equipment must be issued to each deckhand for everyday
use ?

A. Safety hat, work gloves, safety shoes.

B. Chemical resistant, fire resistant jacket.

C. Safety harness, lifeline.

D. Breathing apparatus, resuscitators.

244
288. What is the minimum rest period needed to maintain health and avoid
fatigue ?

A. Not less than twelve (12) hours a day.

B. Not less than six hours in any 24 hour period.

C. Not less than ten hours in any 24 hour period.

D. Not less than 4 hours a day but not every day of the week.

289. What is a permit to work ?

A. Work orders from the senior officers.

B. A complete check on preparedness prior to start of work.

C. The recommendations of the ship's safety committee.

D. A notification that you are qualified to carry out the work.

290. What does this sign mean ?

A. Start air supply.

B. Stream sea anchor.

C. Food rations are located here.

D. Radio direction finder is operating.

291. Which of these gasses would carry this sign ?

A. Hydrogen.

B. Argon.

C. Propane.

D. Acetylene.

245
292. You need to anchor a ship in 80 meters of open water. How much chain
should you use ?

A. 5 shackles.

B. 11 shackles.

C. 8 shackles.

D. 6 shackles.

293. When ordered by pilot to 'meet her or check her", how should the helmsman
respond ?

A. By repeating the order and turning the wheel to midships.

B. By repeating the order, then turn wheel not more than 10 degrees against
the swing of the ship.

C. By repeating the order and turning wheel hard over in opposite direction
to arrest swing.

D. By repeating the order and calling out the ship's heading.

246
3. Use of radar and ARPA to maintain safety of navigation (Penggunaan radar
dan ARPA untuk menjaga keselamatan navigasi)

1. Which are the four main elements of a radar system?

A. Transmitter, servo link, target,display

B. Transmitter, Servo link, antenna , display

C. Transmitter, Antenna, receiver, display

D. Transmitter, servo link, antenna, target

2. Which of these factors govern the echo presentation?


A. Characteristics of the display
B. All of these.
C. Characteristics of the receiver
D. Characteristics of the Transmitter

3. Which of these are the characteristics of the transmitter that govern the echo
presentation?
A. Size and shape ; material ; construction ; Height above sea surface
B. Type of amplifier and its sensitivity, band w/,amount of cleaning applied to the
echo train, limiting/ differentiation applied to video signal pulse
C. Polarization of radiated pulse, width of the apeture, type of apeture, height
above sea surface
D. The frequency of transmitted energy ,The peak power of pulse, no. of pulses
transmitted per second and the length of the pulse

4. What determines the number of pulses that strike a target ?


A. The size of the target , Distance from the scanner,Scanner rotational speed
B. The size of the target , Distance from the scanner,media through which energy
passes
C. The scanner rotational speed, aperture size of the aerial & PRF of the
transmitter.
D. The scanner rotational speed, aperture size of the aerial & size of target.

247
5. What is the vertical angle between the upper and lower edges of the radar beam?
A. Vertical band width
B. Vertical beam width
C. Horizontal beam width
D. Horizontal band width

6. What should be the performance standards of a radar so that it should function


without deterioration in performance when the vessel is rolling or pitching?
A. Upto +/-10deg Rolling or pitching
B. Upto +/-20deg Rolling or pitching
C. Upto +/-30deg Rolling or pitching
D. Upto +/-25deg Rolling or pitching

7. The number of pulses sent out bythe scanner in one second is called:
A. Pulse repetition frequency
B. Pulse length
C. Pulsation
D. Pulse width

8. What are 10cm radars called?


A. L band
B. X band
C. S band
D. M band

9. What are the two main factors that influence the path of travel and energy
content of radar energy that has left the scanner ?
A. Pulse repletion frequency & pulse length
B. Pulse width and pulse length
C. Attenuation and diffraction
D. VBW & HBW

248
10. How is attenuation affected when using waves of shorter wavelength?
A. Attenuation is less
B. There is no Attenuation
C. Attenuation is always the same
D. Attenuation is greater

11. What is the range discrimination of a radar set of pulse length 60metres?
A. 30 metres
B. 20 metres
C. 60 metres
D. 90 metres

12. What is the ability of a radar set to clearly distinguish two targets, on the same
range and slightly different bearings, as two separate targets on the PPI known
as?
A. Maximum range
B. Minimum range
C. Bearing discrimination
D. Range discrimination

13. What is the value beyond which bearing discrimination should not exceed as per
performance standards or navigational radar?
A. 25 degv
B. 5.2 deg
C. 2.5 deg
D. 52 deg

14. On what factors does the minimum detection range of a radar set depend on?
A. Power of the set, Height of scanner,tlature of targets,Weather effects
B. Height of scanner,PRF, Pulse length, VBM
C. Anomalous propagation, Sea and awell
D. Pulse length, De-ionisation delay,VBW and height of scanner.

249
15. As per performance standards for navigational radar , what should be the bearing
accuracy?
A. plus or minus 1/2 deg
B. plus or minus 1deg
C. plus or minus 2 1/2 deg
D. plus or minus 2 deg

16. In what type of waveform does the current go from zero to maximum slowly but
very steadily?
A. Square waveform
B. Direct current waveform
C. Saw- tooth wave form
D. Spike waveform

17. Which part of the radar is a high power RF oscillator capable of being switched on
and off for short durations at the desired PRF, by the pulses from the modulator?
A. TR cell
B. Local oscillator
C. Magnetron
D. Mixer

18. As per performance standards for Navigational radar, what are the requirements
for a scanner
A. tt should rotate at a constant rpm of not less than 30 in relative wind speeds
upto 100 kts.
B. It should rotate at a constant rpm of not less than 12 in relative wind speeds
upto 100 kts.
C. It should rotate at a constant rpm of not less than 20 in relative wind speeds
upto100 kts.
D. It should rotate at a constant rpm of not less than 40 in relative wind speeds
upto 100 kts.

250
19. Which control on the radar is used to suppress clutter?
A. Gain
B. Anti- clutter
C. Differentiator
D. Tuning

20. Which of these is also called calibration rings?


A. Expand center
B. Variable range marker
C. Range ring
D. Electronic bearing marker

21. What is used to control the amplification of echoes received?


A. Gain
B. Brilliance
C. Differentiator
D. Focus

22. For unstabilized display, if the diametric line of the mechanical cursor is made to
pass over a target, then the reading where the line intersects the outer fixed scale
is the bearing of the target which is:
A. True bearing
B. Magnetic bearing
C. Compass bearing
D. Relative bearing

23. Which of these controls is provided to check the overall efficiency of the radar?
A. Centre shift
B. Range selector
C. Performance monitor
D. Pulse length selector

251
24. How does height above sea level influence the range of detection of a target?
A. Higher objects are sometimes never detected whereas lower objects at same
range are always detected.
B. Higher objects are detected at the same distance as lower objects.
C. Higher objects are detected at a lesser distance than lower objects.
D. Higher objects are detected further away than lower objects.

25. What type of refraction will be experienced, when a cold breeze blows over a
relatively warm sea?
A. Normal refraction
B. Sub refraction
C. super refraction
D. Ducting

26. What is the name given to unwanted radial lines that sometimes appear on the
radar screen?
A. Ranging
B. Spoking
C. Starring
D. Racking

27. What is used as a portable, plotting device which is clamped on top of the radar
screen?
A. Plotting chart
B. Plotting sheet
C. Radar reflector
D. Reflection plotter

252
28. Which of these glues only a bearing and not a range?
A. Buoy
B. Lt vessel
C. Ramark
D. Racon

29. In what type of display, the zero of the fixed scale of the PPI represents the true
north and the heading marker represents the true course of the ship?
A. Course up display
B. North up display
C. Head up display
D. Both a & b

30. Which of these is a result of true motion display?


A. CPA and time directly obtained
B. CPA and time obtained only by plotting triangle of relative velocities
C. All objects move relatively on the PPI
D. Course, speed and aspect of any target obtained only by plotting of triangle of
relative velocities

31. Which of these input information is not required to carry out a Trial manoeuuer?
A. A delay
B. The proposed position of the target
C. The proposed speed
D. The proposed course

32. What is used to warn the observer if any distinguishable target closes to a range
or transits a zone chosen by the observer?
A. Collision course warning
B. Cpa warnings
C. Target lost warning
D. Guard rings and zones

253
33. What can be used on the radar screen to eliminate automatic plotting in selected
areas?
A. Predicted areas of danger
B. Potential collision points
C. Area rejection boundaries
D. Guard zones

34. What can be used to set navigational limits, deleniate danger areas or may be set
to assist with parallel ndexing techniques?
A. Potential collision points
B. Navigation lines
C. Tracking and acquisition limits
D. Guard zones

35. The points at which collision can occur may be defined and depend on two
factors. What are they?
A. The size & position of the two ships
B. The speed ratio & size of the two ships
C. External factors & size of the ship
D. The speed ratio & position of the two ships

36. Which are the two most important input information required to operate the
ARPA accurately?
A. Heading and GMT time
B. GMT time and speed.
C. Speed and heading
D. Position and GMT time
37. What is the typical amount of time an ARPA would take to process and predict
data which is stored?
A. 5 to 10 min
B. 20 to 30 min
C. 1 to 3 min.
D. 10 to 20 min

254
38. As the ship rolls,pitches and yaws the apparent center of its radar echo moues
over the full ship's length. What is this called?
A. Glint
B. Backlash
C. Azimuth quantization error
D. Parallax

39. What indicates the true movement of the target being tracked?
A. Relative vector
B. True vector
C. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
D. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>

40. In which case would it appear that all moving targets being tracked are also on the
spot depicting the own ship?
A. True vector
B. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
C. Both cases Option 1> and <Option 2>
D. Relative vector
41. How will the position of the collision point be influenced due to incorrect speed
input?
A. Collision point will appear on a different heading and correct range.
B. Collision point will appear on a different heading and an incorrect range.
C. Collision point will still appear on the heading marker and at the correct range.
D. Collision point will still appear on the heading marker but at an incorrect range.

42. When arpas are used and if the speed input is frm a floppier log, then the
displayed true tracks would be:
A. sea stabilized
B. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
C. ground stabilized
D. Both cases Option 1> and <Option 2>

255
43. If automatic acquisition is provided, how many targets should an ARPA be able to
automatically track, process and simultaneously display and continuously update
the information on?
A. 2 targets
B. 10 targets
C. 20 targets
D. 5 targets

44. If manual acquisition is provided, how many targets should an ARPA be able to
automaticallytrack, process and simultaneously display and continuously update
the information on?
A. 5 targets
B. 2 targets
C. 20 targets
D. 10 targets
45. What should be the size of the display on which ARPA information is presented?
A. Display diameter should be at least 200 mm
B. Display diameter should be at least 250 mm
C. Display diameter should be at least 300 mm
D. Display diameter should be at least 340 mm

46. What are the minimum range scales on which the ARPA facilities should be made
available?
A. 12 or 16
B. neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
C. both <Option 1> and <Option 2>
D. 3 or 4

47. After changing range scales on which the ARPA facilities are available or resetting
the display, in what period of time should full plotting information be displayed?
A. a period of time not exceeding ten scans
B. a period of time not exceeding four scans
C. a period of time not exceeding fourteen scans
D. a period of time not exceeding twelve scans

256
48. What is the effect of a radar reflector on a buoy?
A. it strengthens the reflectivity of the target
B. is used to provide a unique signal
C. it acts as a ramark
D. it weakens the reflectivity of the target

49. When obtaining a fix, which is more accurate?


A. A fix obtained by bearing and range.
B. The intersection of the arcs obtained using the ranges from the objects as radii
C. a fix obtained by cross bearing
D. All of the other options are equally accurate.
50. What is the rate at which two moving objects approach or separate from each
other called?
A. Relative bearing
B. Relative movement
C. Relative speed
D. Relative distance

51. your vessel , while proceeding north at 15 knots, observed by radar a stationary
target, what would be the approximate direction and rate at which the pip would
moue on your PPI scope?
A. North at 15 knots
B. South at 15 knots
C. South at 7 1/2 knots
D. Stationary

52. If your vessel , while proceeding east at 10 knots, observed by radar a vessel
proceeding west at 10 knots, what would be the approximate direction and rate at
which the pip would moue on your PPI scope?
A. Stationary
B. West at 20 knots
C. West at 10 knots
D. East at 20 knots

257
53. If your vessel , while proceeding south at 10 knots, observed by radar a vessel
proceeding south at 10 knots, what would be the approximate direction and rate
at which the pip would moue on your PPI scope?
A. South at tOknots
B. Stationary
C. South at 20knots
D. North at 20knots

54. Which of these does not limit the effective range of the radar?
A. The PRF
B. The signal to noise ratio
C. Peak power of the set
D. Pulse width

55. On which of these factors does bearing resolution depend on?


A. VBW
B. PRF
C. Peak power of the set
D. HBW

56. Which of these range scales would you use in a congested channel?
A. 1 to 6 miles
B. 24 miles
C. 18miles
D. 12 miles

57. Which of these factors would cause blind sectors on the PPI scope?
A. Too much of vibrations
B. Other transmissions taking place at the same time
C. beam of radar energy is obstructed by a mast
D. scanner speed is a little slower than normal

258
58. What is the selection of those targets requiring a tracking procedure and the
intention of their tracking called?
A. Target predicted motion
B. Detection
C. Tacking
D. Rcquisation

59. What measures may be taken to minimize dangers from blind spots?
A. Frequent change of PRF from low to high and vice versa and observing results
on the screen
B. Frequent change of gain , by increasing or decreasing and observing results on
the screen
C. Frequent change of sea clutter by increasing and decreasing and observing
results on the screen
D. Frequent tuning of the radar set and observing results on the screen

60. Which search pattern combines the use of both aircraft and surface units where
the surface unit proceeds along the major axis of the search area while the air
units plan their advance to match the ships movement?
A. Sector search pattern
B. Parallel search pattern
C. Expanded square search pattern
D. Co-ordinated creeping line search
61. Who should maintain and control inter ship communication during a search and
rescue operation?
A. Nearest coast station
B. Co-ordinator surface search
C. Ship that first arrives at the site
D. Rescue Co-ordination center
62. Who should conn the vessel at the time of a search and rescue operation?
A. Call for a pilot to do this
B. Master
C. The second in command (CH. Officer)
D. Duty officer

259
63. The detection range of surface targets is decreased when radar waves touch the
earth's surface at a point closer than the standard horizon. What type of
refraction is this?
A. sub refraction
B. normal refraction
C. ducting
D. super refraction

64. Target detection ranges are considerably reduced due to shipboard structures like
the Samson posts etc. What are such areas known as?
A. Blind sectors
B. Shadow areas
C. Blind areas
D. Shadow sectors

65. (Sometimes shipboard obstructions such as masts, funnels etc reflect radar energy
and the echo painted on the PPI shows a different direction but the same range.
What is this type of echo known as?
A. Indirect echo
B. Side lobe echo
C. Multiple echo
D. Second trace echo

66. When two tracked targets are very close to each other, the data of one target
shifts over to the other target. What is this called?
A. Plotting
B. Target swap
C. Target loss
D. Trial manoeuvre

260
67. What type of scanner is shown here?

A. Slotted wave guide.


B. Parabolic mesh.
C. Parabolic plate.
D. Cheese.

68. What does this control on the radar indicate? (see


figure)

A. Tuning.
B. Anti-clutter.
C. Transmitted power monitor.
D. Performance monitor.

69. What is this on the PPI? (see figure)

A. Raymark.
B. Clearing bearing.
C. Clearing line.
D. Racon.

261
70. What is no.4 ? (see figure)

A. Delay line.
B. Power supplies.
C. Modulator.
D. Magnetron

71. What type of spurious echoes are these? (see


figure)

A. Multiple echoes.
B. Side lobe echoes.
C. Indirect echoes.
D. Second trace echoes.

72. What does the above diagram indicate? (see figure)

A. USW.
B. Range discrimination.
C. Minimum range.
D. Bearing discrimination.

262
73. What is this mark? (see figure)

A. Lt vessel
B. Racon
C. Ramark
D. Signal from SART.

74. What is no.12 ? (see figure)

A. Mixer
B. Trace blanking.
C. Scanner.
D. CRT

263
75. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 2 - 2.2
miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 3 - 3.9 mile

76. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Less than 0.9 mile
D. Between 3 - 3.9
miles

77. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 46 - 60
minutes
B. Between 21 - 30
minutes
C. Now or passed
D. Between 11 - 20 minutes

264
78. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.Between 3 - 3.9 miles


B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

79. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 3 - 4 miles
B. Less than 0.9 miles
C. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

80. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 3 - 3.9 miles


B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

81. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 0.9 miles


B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Between 3 3.9 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

265
82. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?
A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

83. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Now or passed
B. Between 31 - 45 minutes
C. Between 21 - 30 minutes
D. Between 46 - 60 minutes

84. What is the aspect of the target A ?


A. Starboard bow (Green 15-
75)
B. End on or nearly end on
C. Port beam (Red 75-105)
D. Port quarter (Red 105-
160)

85. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 4 - 5 miles
B. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 2 - 3 miles

266
86. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 0.9 mile


B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

87. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 11 - 20 minutes
B. Between 31 - 45 minutes
C. Between 21 - 30 minutes
D. Between 46 - 60 minutes

88. What is the aspect of the target A ?

A. Starboard quarter (Green


105-160)
B. Port bow (Red 15-75)
C. Starboard bow (Green 15-
75)
D. Port quarter (Red 105-160)

267
89. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 4 - 5 miles
B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Less than 0.9 mile
D. Between 2.1 - 3.9 miles

90. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 0.9 mile


B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
D. Between 2.1 - 2.9 miles

91. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 0.9 mites


B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Between 2.1 - 3.9 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

92. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
D. Less than 0.9 miles

268
93. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 0 - 10 minutes
B. Between 11 - 20 minutes
C. Between 31 - 40 minutes
D. Between 21 - 30 minutes

94. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 1 mile


B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. Between 2 - 4 miles

95. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 3 - 3.9 miles


B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Less than 1 mile
D. Between 2.1 - 2.9 miles

96. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Less than 1 mile
C. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
D. Between 3 - 4 miles

269
97. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?
A. Between 4 - 5 miles
B. Less than 1 mile
C. Between 2 - 4 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

98. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
C. Less than 1 mile
D. Between 3 - 4 miles

99. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 2 - 4 miles
B. Less than 0.9 miles
C. More than 4 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

100. 2What is the closest point of approach of target A ?


A. Less than 0.9 miles
B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
C. Between 4 - 5 miles
D. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
E.

270
101. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. More than 4 miles


B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
C. Between 3 - 4 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

102. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?


A. More than 5 miles
B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 2 - 4 miles

103. What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ?

A. Between 31 - 45 minutes
B. Now or Passed
C. Between 20 - 30 minutes
D. Between 5 - 15 minutes

104. 30. Which target will have the closest point of approach?
A. Target A
B. All Equal
C. Target B
D. Target C

271
105. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?
A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. More than 3 miles
C. Less than 0.9 mile
D. Between 2 - 2.9 miles

106. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 2 - 4 miles
C. Less than 1 mile
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

107. Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A. Target B
B. Target C
C. All equal
D. Target A

108. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

A. Between 2 - 2.9 miles


B. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. Less than 1 mile

272
109. Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A. Target A
B. All equal
C. Target B
D. Target C

110. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Less than 1 mile


B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. More than 5 miles

111. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?


A. More than 5 miles
B. Between 2 - 4 miles
C. Between 4 - 5 miles
D. Less than 1 mile

112. What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ?


A. Between 11 - 20
minutes
B. Between 21 - 30
minutes
C. Between 31 - 45
minutes
D. Between 0 - 10 minute

273
113. Which target will have the closest point of approach?
A. Target A
B. Target C
C. All equal
D. Target B

114. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

A. Less than 1 mile


B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Between 2 - 3 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles

115. Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A. Target B
B. Target C
C. All equal
D. Target A

116. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?


A. Less than 0.9 mile
B. Between 1 - 1.9 miles
C. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
D. Between 2 - 2.9 miles

274
117. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target B
B. All equal
C. Target A
D. Target C

118. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Between 4 - 5 miles
B. Between 3 - 4 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. Less than 0.9 mile

119. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target C
B. Target B
C. Target A
D. All Equal

120. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. All equal
B. Target C
C. Target A
D. Target B

275
121. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?
A. Target B
B. Target A
C. All Equal
D. Target C

122. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?


A. Less than 0.9 mile
B. Between 3 - 4 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

123. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target C
B. Target A
C. Target B
D. All equal

124. What is the time to closest point of approach of target C ?

A. Now or passed
B. Between 46 - 60 minutes
C. Between 31 - 45 minutes
D. Between 21 - 30 minutes

276
125. What is the aspect of the target C ?
A. Starboard beam. (75-105)
B. Starboard bow. (Green 15-
75)
C. Port bow. (Red 15-75)
D. Port beam. (Red 75-105)

126. If the visibility is 10 miles, what action should be taken ?


A. A broad alteration to port
B. A substantial reduction of
speed
C. A broad alteration to
starboard
D. Stand on

127. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?


A. Target C
B. Target B
C. All the same
D. Target A

128. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?


A. Target B
B. Target F
C. All the same
D. Target D

277
129. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?
A. Target D
B. Target B
C. Target C
D. Target A

130. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target F
B. Target D
C. Target B
D. Target E

131. What is aspect of the target B ?


A. End on or nearly end on
B. Port beam. (Red 75-105)
C. Starboard bow. (Green 15-
75)
D. Port bow. (Red 15-75)

132. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?


A. Target B
B. Target A
C. Target F
D. Target D
E.

278
133. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A. More than 5 miles


B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

134. What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Now or passed
B. Between 15 - 30 minutes
C. Between 31 - 45 minutes
D. Between 0 - 10 minutes

135. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?


A. Targat D
B. Target E
C. Target C
D. Target B

136. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Less than 0.9 mile


B. Between 2 - 3 miles
C. Between 4 - 5 miles
D. Between 1 - 1.9 miles

279
137. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?
A. Less than 0.9 mile
B. Between 2 - 3 miles
C. Between 4-5 miles
D. Between 1 -1.9 miles

138. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?


A. More than 4 miles
B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Less than 1 mile
D. Between 3 - 4 miles

139. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 3 - 3.9 mites


B. Less than 1 mile
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. Between 2 - 3 miles

140. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?


A. Now or passed
B. Between 31 - 45 minutes
C. Between 11 - 20 minutes
D. Between 46 - 60 minutes

280
141. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?
A. Target C
B. Target B
C. Target D
D. Target A

142. What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?


A. Between 11 - 20 minutes
B. Between 21 - 30 minutes
C. Between 0 - 10 minutes
D. Now or passed

143. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?


A. Between 2 - 3 miles
B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Now or passed
D. Less than 0.9 miles

144. Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A. Target B
B. Target F
C. Target C
D. Target E

281
145. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?
A. Less than 0.9 mite
B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. More than 5 miles

146. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?


A. Between 46 - 60 minutes
B. Now or passed
C. Between 10 - 20 minutes
D. Between 31 - 45 minutes

147. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?


A. Between 3 - 4 miles
B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 2 - 2.9 miles

148. What is the aspect of the target B ?


A. Port beam. (Red 75-
105)
B. Port bow. (Red 15-75)
C. Starboard beam (Green
75-105)
D. Starboard bow. (Green 15-75)

282
149. What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?
A. Between 0 - 10 minutes
B. Between 46 - 60 minutes
C. Between 31 - 45 minutes
D. Between 21 - 30 minutes

150. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target B
B. Target E
C. Target A
D. Target C

151. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target C
B. Target A
C. Target B
D. Target D

152. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

A. Between 0.5 - 1.5 miles


B. More than 5 miles
C. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles.

283
153. What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ?

A. Between 21 - 30 minutes
B. Between 31 - 45 minutes
C. Now or passed
D. Between 0 - 10 minutes

154. What is the aspect of the target C ?

A. Port bow. (Red 15-75)


B. Starboard bow. (Green 15-
75)
C. End on or nearly end on
D. Stern or nearly astern

155. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Now or passed
B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. Between 3 - 4 miles
D. Less than 1 mile

156. If the visibility is restricted, what action should be taken in this situation ?

A. A substantial reduction of
peed
B. A broad alteration to port
C. A broad alteration of
course to starboard
D. Stand on with caution

284
157. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target A
B. Target C
C. Target B
D. Target D

158. What is the aspect of the target B ?

A. Starboard bow. (15 - 75)


B. Port bow. (15 - 75)
C. End on or nearly end on
D. Stern or nearly astern

159. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target A
B. Target C
C. Target D
D. Target B

160. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 3 - 3.9 miles


B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
C. Between 1 - 2 miles
D. Now or passed

285
161. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 21 - 30 minutes
B. Between 31 - 45 minutes
C. Between 11 - 20 minutes
D. Now or passed

162. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target B
B. Target F
C. Target E
D. Target D

163. What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?

A. Now or passed
B. Between 31 - 45 minutes
C. Between 11 - 20 minutes
D. Between 21 - 30 minutes

164. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Now or passed
C. Between 4 - 5 miles
D. Less than 0.9 mile

286
165. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Between 31 - 46 minutes
B. Between 46 - 60 minutes
C. Now or passed
D. Between 11 - 20 minutes

166. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A. Target B
B. Target C
C. Target A
D. Target D

167. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 1 mile


B. Between 1 - 2 miles
C. More than 5 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles

168. In the equation d = (t x s) r2, the


quantity S is:

A. The speed of the radar waves


B. The diameter of the radar screen
C. The width of the scanner
D. The range scale in use

287
169. The bright spot which forms the trace or
timebase moues across the radar screen at a
speed equivalent to:

A. The speed of the radar waves


B. Twice the speed of the radar waves
C. Half the speed of the radar waves
D. A continuously variable speed

170. The purpose of radar is to enable:

A. The wave-lengths of radio waves to be calculated


B. The echoes of targets to be separated
C. The speed of radio waves to be measured
D. The range and bearing of objects to be obtained

288
171. Radar uses pulse transmission in order to:

A. avoid interference
B. counteract bad weather
C. detect close range targets
D. Conserve energy

172. A typical radar pulse length is:

A. 0.05 to 1.25 microseconds


B. 10.25 to 15.05 microseconds
C. 0.05 to 10.25 microseconds
D. 1.23 to 5.03 microseconds

173. Radar does not transmit continuously


because it would:

A. prevent detection of targets


B. reduce the life of components
C. cause interference to other vessels
D. make the equipment get very hot

289
174. A typical pulse repetition frequency is:

A. 500 to 3000 pulses per second


B. 3000 to 6000 pulses per second
C. 100 to 500 pulses per second
D. 6000 to 8500 pulses per second

175. Target ranges are obtained from:

A. the range marker


B. the heading marker
C. the bearing marker
D. the pulse repetition frequency

176. Targets echoes appear along a line called


the :

A. scanner
B. timebase
C. heading marker
D. centre line

290
177. To provide accurate target bearings the
radar beam must be :

A. wide in the vertical plane


B. narrow in the horizontal plane
C. narrow in the vertical plane
D. wide in the horizontal plane

178. Accurate target bearings are obtained by:

A. making the radar beam wide horizontally


B. synchronizing the radar beam and the trace
C. rotating the trace intermittently
D. making the radar beam wide vertically

179. A reference for target bearings is provided by


a line on the radar screen called the :

A. heading marker
B. timebase
C. centre line
D. scanner line

291
180. A complete oscillation of a radio wave is
called :

A. The frequency
B. A cycle
C. The wavelength
D.The amplitude

181. The horizontal distance between the


adjacent crests of a radio wave is called :

A. the frequency
B. the amplitude
C. a cycle
D. the wavelength

182. Malt the vertical distance between the crest


and the trough of a radio wave is called:

A. The frequency
B. The amplitude
C. The wavelength
D. a cycle

292
183. The number of cycles of a radio
wave which pass a fixed point in a
given time is called :

A. The amplitude
B. The speed
C. The wavelength
D. The frequency

184. A radar with a wavelength of 3.2 cm


would have a frequency of about :

A. 9,375 MHz
B. 12,450 MHz
C. 3,245 MHz
D. 6,060 MHz

185. S-band radar has a wavelength of

A. 12.5 to 12.9 cm
B. 5.0 to 5.4 cm
C. 3.1 to 3.2 cm
D. 9.2 to 10 cm

293
186. Marine radar wavelengths are measured
in

A. megahertz.
B. microseconds.
C. feet per second.
D. centimeters.

187. Most commonly ships' radars


operate in the :

A. A - band
B. X - band
C. 0 - band
D. S band

188. In addition to X - band and S - band radar,


another wavelength less commonly used is :

A. F- band
B. E - band
C. C - band
D. D band

294
189. The unit which radiates the radar pulse is the:

A. scanner
B. receiver
C. display
D. transmitter

190. The main component in the display unit is


the :

A. scanner
B. cathode ray unit
C. waueguide
D. T/R cell

191. The main component of the transmitter is


the:

A. antenna
B. cathode ray tube
C. agnetron
D. power supply

295
192. The purpose of the transmitter unit is to :
A. conduct the radar pulses to the scanner
B. detect the returning radar pulses
C. radiate the radar pulses
D. generate the radar pulses

193. The transmitter P.R.F. is determined


by the :

A. delay line
B. modulator
C. magnetron
D. trigger unit

194. Besides initiating the action of the


transmitter, the trigger unit also sends a
pulse to the:

A. display to start the tirnebase.


B. receiver to start the local oscillator.
C. scanner to start scanner rotation.
D. waveguide to open the T/R. cell.

296
195. The transmitted pulse length is
determined by the action of the :

A. trigger unit
B. magnetron
C. modulator
D. delay line

196. The function of the modulator is to :

A. pass D.C. pulses to the magnetron


B. store the energy from the power supplies
C. initiate the action of the T:ft cell
D. cut off the trigger unit after each pulse

197. The transmitted frequency is


determined by the design of the :

A. waveguide
B. T:R cell
C. magnetron
D. scanner

297
198. The magnetron sends the R.F. pulses
to the :

A. display unit
B. scanner unit
C. transmitter unit
D. receiver unit

199. The unit which sends returning ragets


echoes to the receiver is the:

A. scanner unit
B. transmitter unit
C. power supply unit
D. display unit

200. The function of the waueguide is to :


A. shape the beam in vertical plane
B. generate the R.F. pulses
C. conduct pulses to and from the scanner
D. block the transmitter during reception

201. The purpose of the TM cell is to :


A. paint the heading marker on the display
B. protect the receiver during transmission
C. radiate the radar pulses to the targets
D. shape the beam in the horizontal plane

298
202. The commonest type of radar scanner is the :

A. Horizontal slotted waveguide


B. lifted parabolic cylinder
C. Double cheese
D. Single cheese

203. The display trace is caused to


rotate in synchronisation with the
scanner by a signal from the :

A. selsyn generator
B. heading marker contacts
C. scanner motor
D. duplexer

204. Incoming target echoes are detected by the


:

A. video amplifier
B. I.F. amplifier
C. mixer crystal
D. local oscillator

299
205. Signals are converted to a suitable
form for the display by the :

A. mixer crystal
B. I.F. amplifier
C. video amplifier
D. local oscillator

206. The function of the local oscillator is


to :

A. convert the target echoes from an AC to a DC signal


B. limit the strength of the stronger target echoes
C. carry out final amplification of the echoes
D. provide a frequency for mixing with the target signals

207. The purpose of the anodes in the CRT. is


to :

A. deflect the electrons to the edge of the screen


B. attract the electrons to the screen
C. cause the screen to glow when hit by electrons
D. focus to a sharp point at the screen

300
208. The intermediate frequency is
generated by the :

A. selsyn generator
B. mixer crystal
C. magnetron
D. local oscillator

209. The intensity of the electron beam in


the C.R.T. is controlled by:

A. varying the potential on the grid


B. passing a current through the deflection coil
C. a signal from the time unit
D. the action of the first anode

210. A function of the deflection coils in a


C.R.T. is to :

A. focus the electron to a sharp image


B. cause the electrons to form the trace
C. control the flow
D. return the electrons from the screen to the cathode

301
211. Target echoes are received in the display
unit in the form of :

A. a signal from the scanner to the deflection coil


B. a pulse from the brightening unit to the cathode
C. a current from the final anode to the screen
D. an increase potential to the grid

212. The trace on the display rotates:

A. In synchronization with the scanner


B. at half the speed of the scanner
C. Independently of the scanner
D. at twice the speed of the scanner

213. The radar beamwidth is partly


determined by:

A. The rotation speed of the scanner


B. The number of slots in the waueguide
C. The length of the waueguide
D. The size of the magnetron

302
214. The electrons in the Cathode Ray
Tube ( CRT) are attracted :

A. from the cathode to the anodes


B. from the anodes to the cathodes
C. from the grid to the anodes
D. from the grid to the cathode

215. The brilliance control of a Cathod Ray Tube


( CRT) operates on :

A. the deflection coil


B. the anode
C. the grid
D. the cathode

216. The purpose of the gain control is to adjust :

A. the amplification of the target echoes


B. the sharpness of the display focus
C. the brightness of the display control
D. the frequency of the local oscillator

303
217. On a radar display, this symbol
identifies the :

A. focus control
B. tuning control
C. gain control
D. brilliance control

218. The tuning control adjusts:

A. the amplification of target echoes


B. the transmitted frequency
C. the amplification of power output
D. the frequency of the local oscillator

219. The effect of the anti-sea clutter


control is to :

A. reduce the size of all echoes


B. reduce the strength of close range echoes
C. reduce the strength of all echoes
D. reduce the size of close range echoes

304
220. If the trace is not correctly centered, error
may occur when :

A. measuring bearings
B. using the gain control
C. using the tuning control
D. measuring ranges

221. Echoes from rain can be reduced using the :

A. tuning control
B. brilliance control
C. differentiator control
D. S.T.C. control

222. Altering the range scale may automatically


change the :

A. pulse length
B. transmitted frequency
C. amplification of echoes
D. anti-clutter settings

305
223. The distance of a target can be measured by
using the :

A. Tuning control
B. Variable range marker
C. S.T.C. control
D. range scale switch

224. An alternative name for the anti-rain clutter


control is the :

A. S.T.C. control
B. F.T.C. control
C. swept gain control
D. shift control

225. On a radar display, this symbol indicates


the :

A. range ring brilliance


B. range scale switch
C. at-labia range marker
D. flied range rings r

306
226. The brilliance control should be adjusted so
that :

A. the trace is as bright as possible


B. weaker echoes are as strong as possible
C. the trace is just barely visible
D. weaker echoes are just barely visible

227. The purpose of the bearing cursor is to :

A. Indicate the direction of true north


B. show the course of own ship
C. align the heading marker
D. measure the bearing of targets

228. The gain control should be adjusted so


that :

A. clutter echoes are showing at maximum strength


B. no clutter echoes are showing on the screen
C. the screen background has no speckling
D. there is a light speckled background on the screen

307
229. Before taking target bearings, you
should check that :

A. the trace is correctly centered


B. the Variable Range Marker ( VRM ) is switched on
C. the heading marker is switched off
D. the gain control is set to zero

230. This display symbol shown is for :

A. foe motion
B. north-up presentation
C. relative motion
D. lead-up presentation

231. The effect of the anti-rain clutter control is to :


A. reduce the strength of all echoes
B. reduce the size of close range echoes
C. reduce the size of all echoes
D. reduce the strength of close range echoes

308
232. The display symbol shown here is for:

A. scanner rotating
B. the power monitor
C. radar standby
D. heading marker alignment

233. This symbol identifies the :

A. range scale control


B. heading marker alignment
C. centering control
D. Scanner rotating

234. The tuning control is best adjusted by


using the :

A. power monitor
B. centering contral
C. visual tuning indicator
D. range scale control

309
235. The symbol shown here identifies the :

A. head-up presentation
B. heading marker alignment control
C. range scale control
D. north-up presentation

236. An alternative name for the anti-sea clutter


control is the :

A. S.T.C. control
B. radar on/off switch
C. differentiator
D. F.T.C. control

237. The symbol shown here identifies the :

A. gain control
B. bearing cursor
C. variable range marker
D. heading marker alignment control

310
238. As distance from the scanner increases,
the power of the radar beam :

A. remains constant
B. increases slowly
C. decreases rapidly
D. decreases slowly

239. Horizontal beamwidth depends


mainly on :

A. transmitted power
B. scanner width
C. waveguide cross-section
D. PRF

240. Vertical beamwidth is determined by:

A. the height of the scanner


B. the transmitted wavelength
C. the design of the scanner
D. the number of slots in the scanner

311
241. Bearing accuracy depends mainly on :

A. pulse length
B. scanner rotation speed
C. horizontal beamwidth
D. spot size

242. One cause of bearing error is:

A. inaccuracy of the fixed range ring


B. scanner mounted too far forward
C. use of an unsuitable Pulse Repetition Frequency ( PRF )
D. misalignment of the centre of the trace on the display

243. One cause of bearing error is :

A. misalignment of heading marker contacts


B. scanner mounted too low
C. variable range marker inaccuracy
D. misalignment of centre of trace

312
244. Compared to the visual horizon, the
radar horizon is:

A. about 6% nearer
B. about 3% further away
C. about 3% nearer
D. about 6% further away

245. Maximum radar range depends partly on


the:

A. scanner rotation speed


B. mixer strength
C. size of the spot
D. peak power output

246. A factor in determining a radar maximum


range is :

A. receiver sensitivity
B. spot size
C. heading marker alignment
D. inearity of timebase

313
247. Minimum radar range depends mainly on :

A. vertical beamwidth
B. receiver sensitivity
C. scanner height
D. pulse length

248. Radar range accuracy should be within :

A. 3.5 % of the range scale in use


B. 2.5 % of the range scale in use
C. 0.5 % of the range scale in use
D. 1.5 % of the range scale in use

249. Radar range accuracy depends mainly on the


:

A. accuracy of the timebase


B. receiver sensitivity
C. accuracy of fixed range rings
D. alignment of centre of trace

314
250. Which of the following has most effect on the size
and shape of small radar targets ?

A. Pulse length
B. Scanner height
C. Pulse repetition rate
D. Scanner rotation speed

251. Which of the following has the most effect on


the definition of a small target on the radar
display ?

A. Accuracy of range markers


B. Pulse repetition rate
C. Horizontal beamwidth
D. Scanner rotation speed

252. Radar range discrimination should not


be less than:

A. 25 metres
B. 100 metres
C. 75 metres
D. 50 metres

315
253. Range discrimination depends mainly
on which of the following ?

A. Transmitted frequency
B. Scanner rotation speed
C. Pulse repetition frequency
D. rulse length

254. Radar bearing discrimination depends


mainly on which of the following ?

A. Pulse length
B. Transmitted frequency
C. Horizontal beamwidth
D. Scanner rotation speed

255. Radar bearing discrimination is the abilityto


display separately:

A. two targets on same bearing at same range


B. two targets on same bearing at slightly different ranges
C. two targets at slightly different range and bearings
D. two targets at same range on slightly different bearings

316
256. The horizontal pattern of a radar beam
consist of :

A. one large lobe and smaller side lobes either side


B. a number of lobes of similar size
C. one lobe
D. one small lobe and two larger lobes

257. Radar bearing discrimination should be


within :

A. 2.0 degrees
B. 1.5 degrees
C. 2.5 degrees
D. 1.0 degrees

258. The vertical beam must be wide enough to allow for the :
A. reduction of sea clutter
B. rolling and pitching of the ship
C. elimination of shadow sectors
D. the size of large targets

317
259. A typical figure for minimum radar range is :

A. 50 metres
B. 100 metres
C. 25 metres
D. 75 metres

260. The distance of the radar horizon is


largely determined by :

A. the amount of cloud cover


B. the state of the sea surface
C. the width of the scanner
D. the downward refraction of radar wanes

261. Minimum radar range can be increased by:

A. increasing the height of the scanner


B. using a wider beamwidth
C. an increase in peak power
D. using a higher P.R.F.

318
262. Increase of echo strength with increase
of target size is limited by:

A. the cross sectional area of the radar beam


B. the transmitted frequency
C. the cross section of a target
D. the transmitted wavelength

263. A factor which affects the strength rather than the direction of the reflected
radar energy is:
A. target size
B. target aspect
C. target surface texture
D. target shape

264. IA radar target of a certain size is likely


to give a stronger echo if it is made of :

A. metal
B. fibreglass
C. Canvas
D. Wood

319
265. Radar targets glue the strongest echoes if they
are :

A. hard and dense


B. soft and porous
C. made of wood
D. poor electrical conductors

266. A radar target gives the best echo


when its relative aspect to the radar
scanner is :

A. 45 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 50 degrees
D. 30 degrees

267. The radar target which gives the


strongest echo is :

A. a perpendicular cylinder
B. a sphere
C. a cone on its base
D. a perpendicular plane

320
268. A radar target of is likelyto give the
poorest reflection if its shape is :

A. a perpendicular plane
B. conical
C. cylindrical
D. can-shape

269. The principle of a corner reflector is


that it :

A. changes the direction of the beam by 90 degrees


B. changes the direction of the beam by180 degrees
C. deflects the beam clear of obstructions
D. scatters the beam uniformly through 360 degrees

270. A corner reflector is used to :


A. enable the radar to examine shadow areas
B. Increase the radar power output
C. detect targets below the radar horizon
D. Increase the detectability of small targets

321
271. target with a 'Yough" surface is likely to:

A. give only a very weak echo


B. give a good echo at any aspect
C. reflect all the energy in one direction
D. appear very smooth to a 3 cm radar

272. A target with a smooth surface will


only give a good echo if its aspect
relative to the direction of the radar
beam is :

A. 90 degrees
B. 60 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 30 degrees

273. Side echoes are caused by reflection from


:

A. the surface of the sea


B. the side lobes of the radar beam
C. the side of your own vessel
D. the obstruction in the path of the scanner

322
274. Side echoes appear on the radar display as :

A. echoes in shadow sectors


B. a line of echoes on one bearing
C. a symmetrical arc of echoes
D. lines radiating from the centre

275. Then side echoes are displayed, the true


target echo will appear :

A. farther than the false echoes


B. at the edge of the pattern
C. closer than the false echoes
D. at the centre of the pattern

276. Indirect echoes are caused by reflections


from :

A. targets on the beam


B. targets directly ahead
C. obstructions close to the scanner
D. the surface of the sea

323
277. Indirect echoes appear on the display:

A. on the true range, but on a false bearing


B. on a false range and bearing
C. on the true range and bearing
D. on the true bearing, but at a false range

278. Indirect echoes can be recognized by the fact that they:


A. Appear as lines of dots or dashes
B. Appear on the arc of a circle
C. Appear in shadow sectors
D. Appear at twice the true range

279. Multiple echoes appear on the screen :

A. on the correct range but a false bearing


B. on the correct bearing at double the true range
C. on a false bearing and range
D. on the correct bearing but half the true range

280. (Image no. 279 )Multiple echoes can be recognised because they appear :
A. along a curved line
B. at constant range intervals
C. around the arc of a circle
D. on a false bearing

324
281. The most common cause of radar
interference is :

A. electromagnetic storms or disturbances


B. the power of radar transmissions from your our ship
C. defective electrical equipment on the ship experiencing interference
D. lather radar transmissions on a similar frequency

282. A radar target in a narrow shadow sector is


likelyto be :

A. detected at an increased range


B. detected at a reduced range
C. not detected at all
D. detected at a normal range

283. Multiple radar echoes are caused by:

A. reflection between own ship and a large close target


B. reflection from an obstruction on your own ship
C. eflections from the side lobes of the radar beam
D. reflections from the surface of the sea

325
284. If your radar suffers from shadow
sectors you should :

A. report the fact to your marine authority


B. warn approaching vessels in fog
C. determine and record their limits
D. consult your operator's manual

285. The cause of shadow or blind sectors is :

A. rough weather conditions


B. side lobes of the radar beam
C. obstructions on your own ship
D. electromagnetic interference

286. Super-refraction is likely to cause :

A. inaccuracies in detection ranges


B. decreased target detection ranges
C. increase target detection ranges
D. effect on detection ranges

326
287. (image no. 286) An effect on radar performance not caused by weather is :
A. unwanted echoes
B. non-standard propagation
C. attenuation
D. multiple echoes

288. (image no 286) Super-refraction is normally caused by:


A. disturbances in the upper atmosphere
B. warm air over a cool sea surface
C. cool air over a warm sea surface
D. strong winds

289. When ducting occurs, the radar beam is


:

A. carried for long distances


B. affected bythe duration of daylight
C. bent upwards
D. effected by sunspot activity

290. Ducting of the radar beam is caused


by:

A. mild super-refraction conditions


B. extreme sub-refraction conditions
C. extreme super-refraction conditions
D. mild sub-refraction conditions

327
291. Second trace echoes appear on the radar
display at :

A. false ranges on the correct bearing


B. false ranges and bearings
C. false bearings at the correct range
D. correct ranges and bearings

292. Sub-refraction commonly occurs where :

A. a warm air layer lies over a cold sea surface


B. a cold air layer lies over a warm sea surface
C. upper air disturbances are common
D. strong winter gales are common

293. Sub-refraction is likelyto result in :

A. reduced target detection ranges


B. no effect on detection ranges
C. Increased target detection ranges
D. Inaccurate detection range

328
294. Attenuation of the radar beam is greatest
in :

A. thick fog conditions


B. strong clutter conditions
C. heavy rain conditions
D. high clouds conditions

295. Attenuation is ..

A. the absorption of radar energy by the atmosphere.


B. the reflection of radar energy from precipitation.
C. the radiation of radar energy from a power source.
D. the scattering of radar energy around a target.

296. Clutter echoes are not usually caused by


..

A. hail.
B. snow.
C. rog.
D. Rain

329
297. Sea clutter is caused by reflections from

A. the sides of waves.


B. small craft and buoys.
C. the blank surface of the sea.
D. areas of precipitation.

298. A weather phenomenon which gives a


very distinctive pattern on the display
is ..

A. a cloud formation.
B. a smoke or haze conditions.
C. a tropical revolving storm.
D. sand and dust storms.

299. The radar transceiver must be ..

A. directly underneath the scanner.


B. as close to the power supplies as possible.
C. at a safe distance from the magnetic compass.
D. on the fore-and-aft line of the vessel.

330
300. If possible the radar display should be sited

A. as close as possible to the compass.


B. so that it is on the fore-and-aft line.
C. so it can be viewed facing forward.
D. as far forward as possible in the ship.

301. Second trace echoes are more likely to occur


when

A. a high P.R.F. is used.


B. a long pulse length is used.
C. a short pulse length is used.
D. a low P.R.F. is used..

302. The magnetron is sited in the

A. transceiver unit.
B. display unit.
C. scanner unit.
D. power supply unit.

331
303. To avoid any radiation hazard when a
radar is transmitting, you should

A. avoid the proximity of the waueguide.


B. keep a safe distance from the magnetron.
C. not touch the display high tension circuits.
D. keep clear of an operating scanner.

304. Attenuation is likelyto cause

A. Increased detection ranges.


B. reduced detection ranges.
C. multiple target echoes.
D. shadow or blind sectors.

305. An operational check you should carry


out when a radar set is installed is to

A. measure the frequency of the magnetron.


B. check the adjustment of the parallel index.
C. check the accuracy of the heading marker.
D. measure the duration of pulse length.

332
306. An operation check required on
installation is to:

A. measure the frequency of the local oscillator


B. determined the length of waveguide
C. measure the peak power output
D. determined the limits of shadow sectors

307. A radar log should record :

A. the details of repairs and services carried out


B. a listing of radar aids to navigation
C. the details of ships' power supplies
D. the procedure for regular maintenance routines

308. Sea clutter echoes appear on the radar


screen as :

A. a group of echoes within a shadow sector


B. a mass of small echoes around the screen centre
C. a mass of small echoes with an irregular shape
D. a group of echoes at a constant range

333
309. Radar maintenance should be carried
out in accordance with procedures in the
:

A. ship's log
B. radar log
C. safety manual
D. operator's manual
310. Clutter echoes are often caused by:

A. smoke and haze


B. dust storms
C. rain
D. sand storms

311. While as vessel is at anchorage, how often should anchor bearings be taken
?
A. At least everyfour hours
B. At least every hour
C. In accordance with local port state rules
D. they are only required if the weather is bad
312. What is the critical time while anchoring in a strong current and narrow
channel ?
A. When the anchor has been dropped
B. When the ship is 'brought-up"to the anchor
C. When the ship stops in the water before the anchor is dropped
D. When the speed drops below steerage way

334
313. The requirements for using radar for collision advance are described in :
A. International Regulations for Prevention of Collisions at Sea
B. Radar Manual Vol. 2
C. Marine Orders Part 21
D. Admiralty List of Radio Signals

314. Under Rule 5; the radar should be used for


keeping a proper lookout :

A. during night-time hours


B. when the radio is unserviceable
C. whenever it may help
D. when the background lights obscure visibility

315. A vessel fitted with an operational radar must


use it under Rule to :

A. ensure compliance with traffic separation schemes


B. dentify itself to approaching vessels
C. assess the course and speed of other vessels
D. help determine safe speed in prevailing conditions
316. Under Rule 7, proper use of radar to
determine risk of collision includes:

A. radar plotting or equivalent systematic observation


B. short range scanning for small targets
C. use of true motion to determine target movement
D. correct use of anti-clutter controls

335
317. In restricted visibility, risk of collision
can best be assessed by:

A. watching the target's radar bearing and range


B. listening for the target's sound signals
C. posting additional lookouts
D. establishing radio communication with the target

318. Under Rule 19, a vessel must in


complying with the rules and:

A. make only small alterations of course


B. not alter course for a vessel forward of the beam
C. have due regard for restricted visibility
D. maintain a continuous radio watch

319. Rule 19 says that, if you detect another vessel by


radar alone, you must:

A. maintain a steady course and speed


B. continue to observe the other vessel
C. determine if risk of collision exists
D. switch to manual steering

336
320. Under Rule 19, if you get into a
close quarters situation with a vessel
forward of the beam in restricted
risibility, you must :

A. reverse your engine until all way is lost


B. post a forward lookout
C. activate a second radar, if fitted
D. navigate with caution until danger of collision is over
local oscillator
321. On most radar displays the presentation used
for collision avoidance is

A.
B. unstabilised presentation.
C. off-centered presentation.
D. true motion.
E. relative motion.

322. Using relative motion display mode, a


plot of successive positions of a target at
timed intervals enables you to assess:

A. Its true course


B. Its true speed
C. Its closest point of approach (CPA)
D. Its aspect

337
323. To establish additional target data other
than the Closest Point of Approach on a
relative plot, you must

A. draw a relative velocitytriangle.


B. draw a line perpendicular to the target's track.
C. extend the target's relative track.
D. plot your own future track.

324. The information obtained from a


radar plot about a target includes
the

A. target's future course.


B. target's identity.
C. target's closest point of approach.
D. target's radar type.

325. A basic radar plot can be used to

A. indicate target's most likely action.


B. estimate the speed of target
C. obtain the rate of change of aspect.
D. determine the effect of own ship proposed avoiding action.

338
326. A radar reflection plotter can be used
to :

A. make a quick radar plot


B. increase radar detection range
C. examine a radar's shadow sector
D. identify own ship to a target

327. A.R.P.A. is an :

A. Automatic Radar Plotting Aid


B. Additional Radar Pilotage Assignment
C. Actual Radar Position Analyser
D. Anti-collision Radar Performance Aid

328. There is a risk of collision with another


vessel if :

A. her bearing is changing and the range is decreasing


B. her bearing is changing and the range is increasing
C. her bearing is steady and the range is increasing
D. her bearing is steady and the range is decreasing

339
329. A reflection plotter is a radar device
which :

A. is mounted in the scanner unit


B. is fitted in the transceiver
C. fits directly over the display
D. is an automatic plotting device

330. The alteration of own ship's course


or speed required to give a desired
Closest Point of Approach (CPA)
can be obtained from the:

A. collision rules
B. radar tables
C. radar plot
D. 3 hip's data book

331. A true motion radar display shows :

A. own ships movement relative to own ship


B. a target's actual movement
C. a target's movement relative to own ship
D. a target stopped at the screen centre

340
332. Positions obtain by radar :

A. should be used independently of other aids


B. should only be used in restricted visibility
C. should be checked by other available means
D. cannot be relied on for navigation

333. Radar navigational techniques should :

A. only be used at night


B. be practiced in clear visibility
C. not be used in bad weather
D. only be used in poor visibility

334. If parts of an adjacent coastline do not


show on the radar, one possible reason is
the :

A. presence of horizontal radar shadow sectors


B. presence of a fault in the scanner unit
C. presence of a surface duct
D. presence of strong attenuation

341
335. An aid to identifying land features at
long range is:

A. a reflection plotter
B. the echo-ranging principle
C. a chart with topographic details
D. the use of varying pulse lengths

336. A radar fix at long range from land should

A. be used in preference to other methods.


B. not be used for fixing.
C. be treated with caution.
D. only be used by day.

337. The preferred method of radar position


fixing for greatest accuracy is :

A. taking a radar range and radar bearing


B. taking several radar ranges
C. taking a radar range and visual bearing
D. taking several radar bearings

342
338. A useful aid to identifying land at long
range is :

A. the use of a radar reflector


B. parallel indexing techniques
C. the vertical shadowing effect
D. the calculation of distance to the radar horizon
339. If the highest part of the coast is not the
first target detected, the most likely
reason is :

A. that the receiver is incorrectly tune


B. the anti-clutter setting is too high
C. that the scanner is positioned too low
D. the effect of vertical shadowing

340. The use of radar ranges in


preference to radar bearings for
position fixing is because :

A. they are easier to take


B. they are quicker to take
C. suitable targets are easier to find
D. they are more accurate

343
341. The best land target to use for radar
ranging is :

A. a low-lying point
B. an edge of land
C. a cliff face
D. a small rock

342. The best land target to use for a radar bearing is :


A. a large headland
B. a small isolated feature
C. a sloping foreshore
D. a coastal indentation

343. When choosing objects for position fixing by radar ranges you should, if
possible, avoid :
A. small isolated features
B. steep faced features
C. sloping land features
D. large prominent features

344
344. A radar presentation feature which can
often be used to advantage for position
fixing is :

A. relative motion
B. beamwidth distortion
C. an off-centered display
D. an unstabilised presentation

345. Edges of land should be avoided if


possible when position fixing by radar
because of :

A. the effect of vertical beamwidth


B. the effect of pulse length
C. their poor definition
D. the difficulty of the identification

346. The technique of parallel indexing


makes use of :

A. a sefsyn generator on the scanner


B. a T/R cell in the waveguide
C. a rotatable mask mounted on the display and marked with parallel lines
D. transistors in parallel in the transceiver

345
347. The technique used in radar pilotage for
continuously monitoring a vessel's
position is called :

A. cross indexing
B. presentation unstabilisation
C. parallel indexing
D. presentation stabilization

348. A radar presentation feature which is


useful in radar pilotage is:

A. relative motion
B. radar shadow sector determination
C. fixed play centre
D. true motion

349. When carrying out a radar pilotage,


you should use :

A. ranges of prominent features on the beam


B. ranges of prominent features astern
C. bearings of prominent features astern
D. bearings of prominent features on the beam

346
350. When using the radar for coastal position
fixing the main concern is to :

A. avoid radar shadow effect


B. obtain the most accurate fix
C. avoid radar interference
D. allow for beamwidth distortion

351. On a radar display, the return


from a racon :

A. cannot be seen during hours of darkness


B. cannot be seen in a clutter area
C. gives a distinctive echo on the display
D. is transmitted continuously

352. The signal from a racon :

A. only provides range data


B. enables the beacon to be identified
C. does not provide identification
D. only provides bearing data

347
353. One feature of a racon is that it :

A. transmits at fixed time intervals


B. transmits on request
C. transmits continuously
D. must be triggered by a ship's radar

354. Radar reflectors are fitted to


some buoys and small craft in
order to :

A. make them better radar targets


B. provide positive identification
C. avoid mutual radar preference
D. obtain more accurate ranges

355. The most common type of radar


reflector used by small craft is

A. the octahedral cluster.


B. the pentagonal cluster.
C. the racon.
D. the Luneberg lens.

348
356. The principle of a racon is that it :

A. transmits continuously on X band


B. transmits at fixed time intervals
C. transmits when activated by an operator
D. transmits on receipt of ship's radar pulse

357. The commonest arrangement of radar


reflectors for fitting to buoys or beacon
is :

A. Octahedral cluster
B. Pentagonal cluster
C. Luneberg lens
D. Corner reflector

358. In addition to target echoes, the


video amplifier passes to the
display:

A. range and bearing marker signals


B. heading marker signals
C. scanner synchronization signals
D. timebase signals

349
359. Weaker echoes are concerted to
signals of detectable strength by
the:

A. mixer crystals
B. limiter circuit
C. I.F. amplifier
D local oscillator

360. Signals are converted to a suitable


form for the display by the :

A. mixer crystal
B. amplifier
C. video amplifier
D. local oscillator

350
4. Use of ECDIS to maintain the safety of navigation (Menggunakan ECDIS untuk
menjaga keselamatan navigasi)

1. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate


the appropriate methods of determining positions
and include which of the following?

A. All of these suggested answers


B. Radar ranges and Parallel Indexing
C. Bearings and ranges from coastal navigational marks
D. Positions determined by GPS and plotted on the ECDIS

2. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?


A. Yes
B. No
C. Only if approved by the Flag State
D. Only if approved by the owner

3. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan,


(or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or
river, when under pilot?

A. A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the


voyage, or if the ship is under pilot
B. A passage plan is required for all deep sea passages, but not for
transiting a canal under pilotage.
C. A passage plan is required only when there is no pilot on board
D. A passage plan is required from departure from port to arrival at the
pilot station at the destination.

351
4. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and
embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot
should be supervised by:

A. A responsible Officer
B. An experienced AB
C. The Bosun
D. The Sen.Off.Deck only
5. SOLAS (The International Convention for the
Safety of Life at Sea) regulations, Chapter 5, deals
with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which
vessels?

A. All vessels and on all voyages


B. The Convention only applies to ships over a certain size
C. It applies to ships of over a certain size engaged in International
Voyages
D. Over 10 000 dwt

6. What is the crucial aspect in executing a


voyage in a safe and efficient way?

A. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed


by a competent bridge team.
B. All navigational equipment fully functional.
C. Bridge equipment effectively operating and being used efficiently
D. The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in
full and effective operation

352
7. What is the main purpose of VTS?

A. Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the


environment in the vicinity.
B. Provide local information to all vessels navigating in the area
C. Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the area.
D. Increase safety for ships participating in VTS

8. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and


intense bridge activities over many hours, what
management issues should the Master consider?

A. All of these answers


B. Lack of sleep and fatigue of bridge officers
C. Fully manned engine room throughout the canal transit
D. Suitable crew available for lock transits

9. When handing over the con of a vessel to a


pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the
passage plan with the pilot while he is there to
use his local knowledge and advice on the
navigation of the ship?

A. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot,


when under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge
team when deep sea
B. The passage is well established and known by the pilot and a plan
is therefore not necessary

353
C. A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst on board and will be
very familiar with what is required, therefore discussing the
passage plan is not necessary
D. The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more
interested in knowing the ship's characteristics and resist any
passage planning discussions with the Master.

10. When initially setting up the GPS to


provide positions for use with paper

A. Select WGS84 and when plotting on the chart apply the stated
corrections.
B. Select the datum stated on the chart in use
C. WGS78 and input the corrections stated on the chart into the GPS
D. WGS84 and plot the readout position directly on the char

11. When planning a voyage crossing large


oceans, which of the following answers
would most suitably cover the most critical
aspects to be considered when deciding the
courses to steer?

A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The
distances gained by sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and
the loadline limits
B. The anticipated weather with the possibility of encountering ice and
the need for weather routing. The prevailing currents and their
advantage to improved speeds

354
C. The passage time to the destination; the anticipated bunkers used
and the need to arrive within prescribed schedule
D. The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased
traffic density. The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline
limits
12. Which of the following answers would best define
the term "risk"?

A. Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and includes both


identification of the occurrence and the likelihood that it will
happen.
B. Risk is the term to identify a dangerous situation which will affect
the ship
C. Risk is the possibility that a dangerous situation is likely to occur
D. Risk means something more dangerous than normal is likely to
occur

13. While navigating using a paper chart marked


WGS84 the OOW plots the ships position by
four different methods and they all give
slightly different positions. Which of the
following would be considered the most
accurate.

A. Radar ranges from two radar destinctive headlands


B. GPS set on WGS84 datum
C. Bearing and distance from a navigation buoy close to the vessel
D. Gyro compass bearings from two lighthouses

355
14. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions
in the event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?

A. The Panama Canal Authority


B. The ship's Master
C. The ship's company
D. The Master and Pilot will agree the best course of action to be
taken to resolve the emergency situation.

15. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch


on vessel "A" and are passing through
the Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's
speed is 18 knots and your vessel is
overtaking several other vessels, when
the visibility reduces down to about 2
nm. What aspects would you consider
when establishing a "safe speed" for
your vessel?
A. Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density;
manoeuvrability of vessel; effectiveness of navigational equipment
(ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and navigational hazards.
B. Adjust my track to follow Route 1 or 2 illustrated and reduce speed
down to half speed, approximately 8 knots
C. Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a stop within
the visible range
D. A safe speed is where a vessel can take proper and effective action
to avoid collision and be stopped within an appropriate distance

356
16. Your vessel is to leave a crowded
anchorage making a 180 degrees turn.
The ship has a right-handed propeller
and there is equal space either side of
the ship (as illustrated). What would be
the most suitable method to make the
turn using as little space as possible?

A. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway,


rudder hard to starboard and full ahead
B. Full ahead, rudder hard to port
C. Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard
D. Rudder hard to starboard, full ahead. Rudder hard to port, full
astern. Repeating this manoeuvre until the turn has been made.

357
5. Respond to emergencies (Respon terhadap keadaan darurat)

1. If a distress signal is received on board your ship, what should be the first
action that should be taken?

A. Attempt to establish contact with the distressed vessel


B. Determine how close your vessel is to the distressed vessel.
C. Contact SAR Authorities via nearest coastal Radio station
D. Determine if anyone else has heard the distress signal and if your vessel
is near the distress.

2. The Master arrives on the bridge obviously under the influence of alcohol
and states he is taking over the "con" of the ship. What actions should the
Officer of the Watch (OOW) take in this situation?

A. Attempt to diplomatically avoid taking any actions that would put the
ship or crew into danger and call the Chief Officer for assistance.
B. Tell the Master you do not think this is a good idea and retain control of
the watch.
C. Watch the actions made by the Master and if not dangerous, wait until the
Master becomes more capable to take control or leaves the bridge
D. Tell the Master you consider him incapable of taking over the
responsibility of the watch and that he should retire to his cabin and sleep
it off.

358
3. The ship is involved in a collision, what is the immediate action by the
Officer of the Watch after the incident has taken place?

A. Sound the General Alarm and stop engines.


B. Call the Master and check the position for any immediate dangers.
C. Contact the other ship and send the bridge lookout down to start taking
soundings
D. Stop engines and check over the side for any signs of pollution.

4. What action should be taken by the Officer of the Watch in the event of fire
being reported to the bridge during the 00.00 to 04.00 watch?
A. Sound the Fire Alarm
B. Call the Master
C. Stop engines and inform the engine room
D. Send the bridge look-out down to investigate

5. What actions should the Officer of the Watch take when the ship's steering
gear fails?

A. All of the suggested answers


B. Display the NUC signal and consider stopping the engines
C. Request the engine room to check the steering gear
D. Call the Master and advise him of the situation

359
6. What can be used to reduce the effect of the state of sea-waves?

A. Vegetable / Fish Oil


B. Foam
C. Fuel Oil
D. Crude Oil

7. What immediate actions should the Officer of the Watch take when the ship
goes aground on an uncharted shoal in the middle of the ocean?

A. Stop engines and call the Master


B. Stop engines and immediately request "Full Astern"
C. Stop engines and tell the engine room to switch over to high suctions
D. Sound the General Alarm and plot the ships position

8. What special equipment can often provide assistance in locating a survival


craft or man overboard and in the water?

A. A SART
B. A RACON
C. AIS
D. A sectored search pattern

360
9. Which method is used to make a physical connection between a rescue
vessel and a wreck?

A. Rocket line
B. Heaving line
C. Sputnik line
D. Cosmos line
10. In case of a main engine failure what shapes would you exhibit?
A. Ball- diamond- ball
B. Single diamond
C. Two black balls in a vertical line
D. A cylinder
11. What type of message would you broadcast in case of a main engine failure?
A. No message is necessary
B. Distress
C. Urgency
D. Safety

12. Which one of these actions would you give priority in case of a main engine
failure?
A. Inform agents vessels will possibly be delayed
B. Inform charterers
C. Inform head office
D. Prepare for anchoring if in shallow waters

13. In case of a steering failure , which one of these would be your next course
of action?
A. Drop anchors
B. Pull all way off by going astern
C. Engage emergency steering
D. Prepare engines for maneuvering
361
14. What type of messages contain important navigational or meteorological
warnings?
A. All of these.
B. Safety
C. Urgency
D. Distress

15. By using what prefix can a master of a ship make it clear in his message that
his own ship is NOT in distress?
A. Mayday relay
B. Mayday
C. Pan-pan
D. Securite

16. In the case of permanent loss of power what message would you send?
A. Securite
B. All of these.
C. Urgency
D. Distress

17. When an emergency is clearly over , how should it be cancelled?


A. By broadcasting to the nearest coast station
B. By broadcasting to all stations
C. By broadcasting to those involved
D. There is no need to do any of the above

18. In case of an emergency on board which signal should be used?


A. Ships whistle
B. Ships bell
C. General alarm
D. General emergency alarm signal

362
19. Who is responsible for ensuring that emergency navigation lights and
signaling equipment are in working order and ready for immediate use at all
times?
A. Owners
B. Master
C. Managers
D. OOW

20. What important information must a distress alert indicate?


A. The mode of transmission
B. Neither C nor <Option 2>
C. On which frequency the follow up distress message will be transmitted
D. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>

21. To whom should a distress alert be transmitted to in case of satellite


communication?
A. Ships in the vicinity
B. Head office
C. RCC
D. Nearest coast station

22. How often should emergency steering drills be carried out?


A. At least every 6 months
B. At least every 3 months
C. At least every 9 months
D. At least every 12 months

23. What type of message would you transmit if your ship has a collision and
there is grave and imminent danger?
A. Distress relay
B. Urgency message
C. Distress alert and message
D. Safety message

363
24. In case of a man overboard (stbd side), which of the following maneouvers
would be appropriate?
A. Williamson's turn
B. Short turn to port
C. Short turn to stbd
D. Turn on the anchor

25. Which of these is the wrong action in case of a grounding?


A. Reduce draught of the ship
B. sound general emergency alarm signal
C. sound around the ship
D. Broadcast a security message

26. In case of a man overboard which of these actions would be correct?


A. All of these.
B. Go crash astern
C. Alter course towards the same side the man has fallen
D. Alter course towards the opposite side the man has fallen

27. In case of a man overboard what flag would you hoist?


A. Flag "0"
B. Hal " R"
C. Flag "S"
D. Flag "U"

28. What type of message would you broadcast in case of a man overboard?
A. Distress relay
B. Safety
C. Urgency
D. Distress

364
29. In case your vessel collides with another vessel, which one of the following
would be given priority?
A. Safety of the environment
B. Safety of property
C. Any one of the other options
D. Safety of life

30. In case of a fire in port who would be responsible?


A. Agent
B. The ship
C. Head of the shore fire brigade
D. Port authorities

31. In case of an oil pollution which of these would you have for ready
reference?
A. SOPEP
B. M notices dealing with oil pollution
C. MARPOL
D. MSM

32. When should one abandon a ship?


A. When one feels there is a threat to the ship
B. On verbal orders from the master
C. On hearing the general emergency alarm signal
D. On orders from the owners

33. In case the ship is listed and the master has passed the order to abandon the
ship , which would be the most preferable place to jump from?
A. High side
B. The ends
C. Low side
D. Any one of the other options

365
34. What takes place, when the roll period is equal to the apparent wave period
?
A. Pounding
B. Broaching
C. Synchronism
D. Pooping

35. What can be done when a vessel experiences synchronous rolling during
rough weather?
A. Alter course
B. Maintain course and speed
C. Lower the GM of the vessel
D. Alter speed

36. What can be done when a vessel experiences synchronous pitch during
rough weather?
A. After speed
B. Lower GM of the vessel
C. Maintain course and speed
D. After course

37. If your vessel is dragging anchor, which of the following would you do?
A. Drop your second anchor
B. Slip your anchor cable
C. Heave your anchor short
D. Send out a security message

38. Which of the following actions would you carry out in case of Abandoning
ship.
A. Both <Option 2> and <Option 3>
B. Sound bilges and tanks
C. Order crew members to life boat stations and prepare to launch
lifeboats/liferafts
D. Broadcast distress alert And message on authority of the master
366
39. Which of the following actions would you carry out in case of Flooding?
A. All of these.
B. Close all watertight doors
C. Sound bilges and tanks
D. Broadcast urgency messages if ships in the vicinity

40. Which of these are distress signals?


A. Flames on a vessel
B. A gun or explosive signal fired at intervals of about one minute.
C. All of these.
D. A continuous sounding with any fog- signaling apparatus

41. In case of a fire which would be your first action?


A. Seal of the area before calling for help
B. Raise the alarm before carrying out subsequent actions
C. Get help from nearby and proceed to fight the fire
D. Attempt to fight the fire independently

42. Which would be the correct order to fight a fire?


A. Find, extinguish, Inform, restrict
B. Find , Inform, restrict, extinguish
C. Find , restrict, inform, extinguish
D. Find , restrict, extinguish, inform

43. If you receive a distress alert on CH 70 VHF, which of these actions would
be a correct course of action?
A. Set VHF on ch 16 for voice communication
B. Acknowledge using DSC immediately
C. Set VHF on ch 70 for voice communication
D. Both :Option 1> and <Option 2>

367
44. What type of an extinguisher would you use if you have an electrical fire?
A. Anyone of the above
B. Foam
C. CO2
D. Soda acid

45. Which of the following actions would you carry out in case of Search and
rescue?
A. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>
B. Take bearing of distress message if radio direction finder is fitted
C. Close all water tight doors
D. Re- transmit distress message

46. In which of these cases would you transmit a Distress message


A. Steering failure
B. Both a & b
C. Main engine failure
D. Flooding

47. A liferaft must be constructed so that it operates satisfactorily after being


dropped in the water from heights of up to:
A. 10 metres
B. 18 metres
C. 20 metres
D. 4.5 metres

48. Where would you find details for your tasks and duties in case of an
emergency ?
A. In notices posted in messrooms, recreation rooms, etc.
B. In notices posted in the crew's cabins.
C. In the muster list.
D. On posters at the lifeboat station.

368
49. What is a 'Rescue Sub-Centre (R.S.C.) ?
A. A centre for underwater search and rescue operation.
B. A unit subordinate to a rescue co-ordinating centre.
C. A centre established to assist the main national rescue centre.
D. A national search and rescue centre subordinate to an International search
and rescue co-ordinating centre.

50. Which of these requirements regarding lifebuoys corresponds to the SOLAS


regulations?
A. It must have a mass greater than 2.5 kgs.
B. It must have sufficient air.
C. If fitted with light or smoke signal, it must have a mass less than 4 kgs.
D. It must be constructed of inherently buoyant material.

51. Which of these requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to


the SOLAS regulations?
A. All lifeboats shall be lowered during drills.
B. For ships on short international voyages, each lifeboat shall be launched
and maneuvered in water at least every six months.
C. Drills shall be conducted when the ship is in harbour.
D. Each lifeboat shall be launched with its assigned crew, and maneuvered
in the water at least once every three months.

52. The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information on the
life-saving appliances carried onboard. Which of these duties must also be
included ?
A. Correct use of navigational equipment for survival crafts.
B. Correct use of oars and other propulsion equipment for survival crafts.
C. Correct use of survival craft facilities in order to survive.
D. Correct use of on-board communication equipment.

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53. What is a 'Rescue Unit" (RU) ?
A. A unit ready for search and rescue operations at sea at anytime of the day.
B. A unit composed of trained personnel suitably equipped expeditious
search and rescue.
C. A unit specializing in search and rescue operations at sea.
D. Permanently manned rescue vessel.

54. The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information on the
life-saving appliances carried onboard. Which of these duties must also be
included ?
A. Correct method of release of survival craft from launching appliances.
B. Correct donning of fire protective clothing.
C. Correct use of oars in survival crafts.
D. Correct method for use of on-board communication system.

55. What is a HYDROSTATIC RELEASE ?


A. A cone like device that is thrown into the sea to keep the lifeboat's bow
pointing into the wind
B. A piece of wood put through the painter allowing it to be untied even
when there is weight on the rope.
C. A device that allows an inflatable life raft to be deployed automatically if
a ship sinks.
D. Securing device on the lifeboat gripes that allows them o be easily
unfastened.

56. What should you do first if you see a man fall overboard ?
A. Alert other crewmembers and tryto keep him or the lifebuoy in sight.
B. Inform the officer of the watch.
C. Release the nearest lifebuoy on the side he has fallen.
D. Dive in the sea after him to attempt a rescue.

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57. The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information on the
life-saving appliances carried onboard. Which of these duties must also be
included ?
A. Correct use of navigational equipment for survival crafts.
B. Correct use of surface to air visual signals by survivors.
C. Correct use of ship's line throwing apparatus.
D. Correct use of escape routes and other escape methods.

58. Which of these items has to be included in a distress message ?


A. Weather in the immediate vicinity.
B. Ship's destination.
C. Ship's last port of call.
D. Ship's identification.

59. What type of release is allowed for fixed gas fire extinguishing installations
onboard ?
A. An automatic release system activated by fire alarms.
B. A manual operated release only.
C. Any automatic release system.
D. An automatic release system activated byfire detectors.
60. The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information on the
life-saving appliances carried onboard. Which of these duties must also be
included ?
A. Correct method of revival of casualties.
B. Correct use of oars and sails for survival crafts.
C. Correct boarding, launching and clearing of survival crafts and rescue
crafts.
D. Correct donning of fire protective clothing.

61. What information is found on a ship's fire plan ?


A. The locations of various fire fighting appliances and equipment.
B. The action to take if you heard the fire alarm..
C. The signal used on the ship to indicate there is a fire.
D. The duties of each crew member in case of fire
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62. After abandoning ship in a liferaft or lifeboat, which of these should be done
as soon as possible?
A. The occupants should all take a drink of liquor and then sing songs to
keep up their spirits.
B. Available rations should be shared out equally among all the occupants.
C. All occupants should take a seasickness tablet.
D. All money should be collected and held by the leader.

63. The ships training manual must contain instructions and information on the
life-saving appliances carried onboard. Which of these duties must also be
included ?
A. Correct donning of life-jackets.
B. Correct use of oars and sails for survival crafts.
C. Correct donning of protective clothing.
D. Correct use of communication equipment.
64. In cold climates what should be done by the occupants of a liferaft to
provide more insulation ?
A. Inflate the floor of the raft.
B. Deflate the floor of the raft.
C. Rig the emergency heater.
D. Close the doors and ventilators.

65. On a fire plan, what does this symbol mean ?

A. A fire hose.
B. A fire alarm bell.
C. A push button fire alarm.
D. A fire detector.

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66. On a fire plan, what does this symbol mean ?
A. A sprinkler head.
B. A smoke detector.
C. A dry powder nozzle.
D. A horn or siren fire alarm
67. What does this symbol indicate ?

A. A CO2 extinguisher.
B. A CO2 detector.
C. A CO2 warning horn.
D. A CO2 release nozzle.

68. On a fire plan, what does this symbol mean ?


A. A foam monitor.
B. A fire main.
C. A fire fighting water gun.
D. A foam fire extinguisher.

69. What does this symbol indicate ?

A. A fire equipment locker.


B. A fire alarm bell.
C. A fire hose reel.
D. An automatic fire detector.

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70. What would you do if someone's clothes catch fire ?
A. Go and find a fire hose.
B. Smother the flames with a blanket or jacket.
C. Shout for help while getting the first aid kit.
D. Telephone the bridge.

71. How do you direct a fire nozzle under full water pressure ?
A. Direct the nozzle slightly upwards.
B. Direct the nozzle slowly from side to side.
C. Direct the nozzle straight out.
D. Direct the nozzle slightly downwards.

72. What is meant when we say a dressing is sterile ?


A. It is waterproof.
B. It will not stick to the wound and can be easily replaced.
C. It is large enough to cover most wounds.
D. It is free from germs.
73. What action should the watch officer take on being notified of man
overboard ?
A. Call for a lookout.
B. Release the bridge wing buoy, notify master and start slowing down to
maneuvering speed.
C. Alter course 180 degrees and sound the alarm.
D. Alter course hard over on the side the man fell in and nform engine room.

74. What signal is used to mean "ABANDON SHIP" ?


A. A verbal command given bythe master or officer in charge.
B. 3 short blasts on the ship's whistle.
C. 1 short blast - abandon ship to starboard; 2 short blasts - abandon ship to
port.
D. 7 short & 1 long blast on the ship's whistle.

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75. The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information on the
life-saving appliances carried onboard. Which of these duties must also be
included ?
A. Correct use of sea-anchors (drogues).
B. Correct donning of fire protective clothing.
C. Correct use of on-board communication equipment.
D. Correct use of oars and other propulsion equipment's for survival crafts.
76. In terms of flashpoint, what defines if a container carrying a flammable
liquid must carry this sign ?

A. Required for anyflammable liquid regardless of the flashpoint.


B. Required for a flashpoint of 55 degrees C or below.
C. Required for a flashpoint of 100 degrees C or above.
D. Required for a flashpoint of 80 degrees F and above.
77. In which order should we place the priorities of survival, from highest to
lowest ?
A. Location, protection from the environment, water, food.
B. Protection from the environment, location, water, food.
C. Food, water, location, protection from the environment.
D. Water, protection from the environment, food, location.

78. What is the name of the type of stretcher often found on board?
A. The Hart 'moo stretcher.
B. The Neil Robertson stretcher.
C. The SOLAS stretcher.
D. The canvas pole stretcher.
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79. What is a Thermal Protective Aid ?
A. A portable electric heater.
B. A large plastic bag big enough to put a man inside.
C. Special clothes that prevent a survivor from loosing heat.
D. A chemical compound which when mixed produces light and heat.

80. Which of these items of clothing would be best at preventing loss of body
heat ?
A. A vest.
B. A woolen hat.
C. Thick woolen socks.
D. Short pants.

81. What is an immersion suit ?


A. Special clothing that allows the wearer to get close to a fire.
B. Special clothing to protect the wearer from the effects of being in a cold
sea.
C. Special clothing that is worn bythe lookout whilst on watch.
D. A type of life jacket.

82. If you had to board your lifeboat which of the following do you think is
most important ?
A. Carry your important documents such as passport and seaman's book.
B. Keep all your belongings packed in a bag.
C. Wear as many layers of warm clothing as possible.
D. Drink a large cup of hot coffee or hot tea.

83. What is a Class B fire ?


A. A fire involving gases.
B. A fire involving solid materials.
C. A fire involving liquids or liquefied solids.
D. A fire involving metal

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84. What type of boat is seen in this picture ?

A. Fast rescue boat.


B. An open free fall lifeboat.
C. A totally enclosed lifeboat.
D. A liferaft.

85. What is a SART?


A. Search And Rescue Transponder.
B. Satellite Activated Rescue Telephone.
C. Systematic Advised Rescue Tracker.
D. Semi Automatic Rescue Transmitter.

86. When should doors, side scuttles, gangway doors, cargo ports and other
openings which are to be kept watertight at sea be closed at the start of the
voyage ?
A. Before encountering heavy weather.
B. Before entering open waters.
C. Before leaving the port.
D. Before leaving the pilot station.

87. At least how often should rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew
aboard and manoeuvered in the water ?
A. Every three months.
B. Every month.
C. Every two weeks.
D. Every week.

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88. Which of the following activities will have the best effect in the event of a
fire ?
A. The chief officer is called.
B. All fire fighting teams are organised as soon as possible.
C. All possible fire fighting equipment is brought to the scene.
D. The extinguishing attempt is started immediately by the Berson who
discovers the fire.

89. What should be done before throwing the life raft overboard ?
A. Secure the painter to a strong point.
B. Activate the EPIRB.
C. Open the fiberglass cover.
D. Pull the painter all the way out.

90. Which of these statements is true ?


A. We should bring important documents and personal belongings with us in
the liferaft.
B. We should only abandon ship when told to by the master or officer in
charge.
C. If the ship is on fire we have to abandon ship.
D. If the emergency alarm is ringing we have to go to the bridge.

91. What type of fire hose nozzles shall be available aboard ?


A. Dual purpose ( jet/spray ) type incorporating shutoff.
B. Spray type.
C. Dual purpose ( jet/spraytype ).
D. Jet type.

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92. What alarm signal is sounded by the ship's alarm bells in the case of fire
onboard ?
A. A series of 5 long rings.
B. One long ring followed by seven short rings.
C. A series of 5 short rings.
D. Continuous ringing of the bell.

93. What do the letters E.P.I.R.B. stand for ?


A. Extremely Powerful Immersed Rescue Boat.
B. Enhanced Plotted Information Radio Broadcast.
C. Electronic Precision Illuminated Radar Buoy.
D. Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon.

94. What are the two satellite systems that use EPIRBS ?
A. Cospas Sarsat & Inmarsat.
B. Transit & GPS.
C. Comsat & Rescuesat.
D. Sputnik & Metsat.

95. Which of these would NOT be a good thing to do after abandoning ship ?
A. Activate the EPIRS and SART.
B. Sail away from the area of the sinking ship in the direction of the nearest
land.
C. Stay in the area that the ship sank in.
D. Collect all the survival craft together.

96. Over spoken radio communication, what is the code word used to indicate a
distress message ?
A. URGENT.
B. MAYDAY.
C. S.O.S.
D. PRIORITY

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97. What is the part of the lifeboat indicated by the arrows ?

A. The bowsing in tackle.


B. The on-load release.
C. The fall.
D. The gripe.

98. What item of safety equipment is shown


here ?

A. A float.
B. An inflatable life raft.
C. A lifebuoy.
D. An emergency position indicating radio beacon (EPIRB).

99. How is a throw-over liferaft usually secured on deck ?


A. With a steel wire strop.
B. With a heavy object as an anchor.
C. With a hydrostatic release unit.
D. With an atmospheric release.

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100. Which of the following items should be included in each fire drill ?
A. Checking the fire wires.
B. Checking the operation of watertight doors, fire doors, fire dampers and
relevant communication equipment.
C. Checking the operation of fire doors.
D. Checking closing mechanism for all air ventilators and other openings to
accommodation, engine rooms and cargo spaces.

101. What item of fire extinguishing equipment, usually found in the galley, is
particularly effective on fires nuolving hot cooking oil ?
A. A fire blanket.
B. A water filled extinguisher.
C. A bucket of water.
D. A fire hose.

102. Which fixed fire extinguishing medium is most commonly found in


machinery spaces like the engine room
A. High expansion foam.
B. Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
C. Water sprinkler system.
D. Dry powder.

103. Wich fire fighting system is the most efficient and with least side effects in
the event of a fire in the engine room ?
A. The powder extinguishing system.
B. The central CO2 extinguishing system.
C. The sprinkler extinguishing system.
D. If the central foam extinguishing system.

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104. Which of these are attached to a lifejacket ?
A. A light & a whistle.
B. A dye marker & shark repellant.
C. Red light and orange smoke distress flares.
D. A radar transponder.

105. What kind of alert message would you broadcast if you have a man
overboard ?
A. Pan-Pan.
B. Mayday.
C. Security.
D. Mayday relay.

106. What is the purpose of emergency drills ?


A. To get crew to work outside overtime hours.
B. To test the emergency equipment and train the crew.
C. To fill in the required forms to show port state control inspectors.
D. To find out if all the crew are awake.

107. What should be done before throwing the liferaft overboard, after securing
the painter to a strong point ?
A. Untie the painter from the strong point.
B. Inflate the life raft.
C. Check that there is nothing in the sea below.
D. Open the fiberglass case

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108. Ship's whistle and alarm bells sound an alarm signal consisting of seven
short blasts followed by one long blast. What should you do ?
A. Report to the master.
B. Report to your department head.
C. Go to your lifeboat station.
D. Go to your muster station.

109. Which of these has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to


SOLAS regulations ?
A. Launching & recovery of a survival craft.
B. Maneuvering the lifeboat in the water.
C. Starting and operating radio life-saving appliances.
D. Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned.

110. Aside from reducing drift, what other things does the sea anchor on a liferaft
do ?
A. Keeps the doors pointing into the wind.
B. Keeps the doors at right angles to the wind.
C. Releases an orange dye marker into the water.
D. Allows the EPIRB to send a distress message.

111. Where on board are these fire risks likely to arise ? Fuel and lubricating oils,
hot surfaces, welding and oxyacetylene cutting equipment.
A. The engine room.
B. The bridge.
C. The galley.
D. The cargo hold

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112. Mere can shore side personal find necessary information on ship's fire
control systems in an emergency situation ?
A. A copy of the fire control plan is permanently posted in prominently
marked locations onboard ships.
B. Information is to be given by the owners through the nearest rescue
centre.
C. From the duty officer.
D. A copy of the fire control plans/folders is stored in a watertight and
prominently marked container outside the deckhouse or accommodation.

113. When a fire spreads because of the hot gasses rising and heating other fuel
sources, the fire has been spread by
A. Conduction.
B. Convection.
C. Expansion.
D. Radiation.

114. How does heat travel to the earth from the sun ?
A. By radiation.
B. By conduction.
C. By isolation.
D. By convection

115. Which of the following conducts heat well ?


A. Paper.
B. Steel.
C. Styrofoam (Polystyrene).
D. Wood.

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116. In a mixture of flammable vapour and air, if there is too much vapour and
not enough air to support combustion, we say the mixture is
A. Too rich.
B. Saturated.
C. Too lean.
D. Over concentrated.

117. What are the 3 ways that heat can be transmitted ?


A. Convection, radiation and concoction.
B. Convection, radiation and conduction.
C. Thermal, infra red and ultra violet.
D. Explosive, electrical and intrinsic

118. When heat passes from one place to another by direct contact, it is called
A. Insulation.
B. Convection.
C. Radiation.
D. Conduction.

119. Approximately, what is the temperature of a cigarettes burning tip ?


A. 5,000 degrees C
B. 35 degrees C.
C. 500 degrees C.
D. 100 degrees C.

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120. Mat should first be done before the central gas extinguishing system is used
on a fire in the engine room or cargo holds ?
A. Stop all fans and engines.
B. Close down boilers.
C. Close all openings.
D. Make sure that the compartment has been evacuated.

121. What is the main advantage of a davit launched liferaft compared to the
throw-over type ?
A. It contains more equipment then the throw overboard type.
B. It allows the occupants to board without getting wet.
C. It is quicker to launch.
D. It is stronger then the throw overboard type.

122. How manyfireman's outfits are required to be carried on tankers ?


A. At least four sets.
B. At least three sets.
C. At least two sets.
D. At least one set.

123. Why is Halon not used much as a fire extinguisher on board vessels ?
A. It is harmful to the ozone layer.
B. It is not effective on oil fires.
C. It damages electrical equipment.
D. It is too expensive.

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124. In addition to a fire suit, a fireman's outfit also comprises breathing
apparatus and fireproof lifeline. According to SOLAS- how many such sets
of fireman's outfit are required to be carried by all ships?
A. At least three.
B. As required bythe ship's administration.
C. At least two.
D. At least one.

125. What is a ship's contingency plan ?


A. The plan for maintenance and repair of safety equipment.
B. The loading plan for hazardous cargo.
C. The plan for safety preparedness.
D. The plan for the next voyage.

126. Fuel flowing in a pipe is prone to which of the following ignition sources ?
A. Static electricity.
B. Friction.
C. High pressure action.
D. Chemical reaction.

127. If you were at the entrance to an enclosed space and you lost communication
with a crewmember inside, what should you do ?
A. Holding your breath, enter the enclosed space to see if can spot the
crewman.
B. Put on a BA set and enter the enclosed space.
C. Raise the alarm with the bridge or other officers in the area.
D. Wait for a few minutes in case the crewmember is busy.

128. What is the most common cause of death after a shipwreck ?


A. Starvation.
B. Dehydration.
C. Hypothermia.
D. Burns.

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129. In a distress situation, how many times or for how long should the
emergency alarm signal be sounded ?
A. Until the emergency is over.
B. Until all crew members and passengers have reported to their respective
muster stations.
C. 3 minutes.
D. 3 times.

130. Which of the following types of breathing apparatus are most likely found
onboard a modern ship ?
A. Compressed Air Breathing Apparatus.
B. Oxygen Breathing Apparatus.
C. Atmospheric Breathing Apparatus.
D. Gas Mask type Breathing Apparatus.

131. Which side of the fire triangle most commonly causes a fire ?
A. The introduction of fuel.
B. The introduction of air.
C. The introduction of heat.
D. The introduction of oxygen.

132. If heat is removed from the fire triangle, what is this called ?
A. Starving.
B. Wetting.
C. Cooling
D. Smothering.

133. Fuel is removed from the fire triangle, what is this called ?
A. Starving.
B. Suffocating.
C. Smothering.
D. Cooling.

388
134. What unit in the S.I. system is used to measure heat ?
A. Degrees F.
B. Degrees C.
C. Amperes.
D. Joules.

135. Which of the following fuels has the lowest flash point ?
A. Kerosene
B. Coal
C. Diesel fuel
D. Candle wax

136. At what percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is it possible to have a fire


?
A. At 100%
B. At 21%
C. Above 8%
D. Below 4%

137. What is a fire hydrant ?


A. A type of automatic smoke detector used on ships.
B. A valve on the fire main where fire hoses are connected.
C. A type of portable fire extinguisher.
D. A fixed nozzle used for filling the engine room with CO2.

138. Mat fixed and portable fire extinguishers are often found on gas tankers
because they are considered to be most effective with burning gas ?
A. Dry Powder - Dry Chemical.
B. Foam.
C. CO2.
D. Water.

389
139. Which of these extinguishers would not be very effective against a Class A
fire ?
A. A.F.F.F.
B. Water.
C. Foam.
D. Dry Chemical.

140. On fires involving burning liquids, which of these extinguishers is


considered most effective ?
A. Foam.
B. CO2.
C. Dry Powder.
D. Water.

141. Wich of these extinguishing agents is best to use on a fire involving a


burning cabin that had been electrically isolated ?
A. Carbon dioxide (CO2).
B. Water.
C. Dry Powder - Dry Chemical.
D. Foam.

142. What setting are these firefighters use on their nozzle ?

A. Spray.
B. Fountain.
C. Jet.
D. Stream.

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143. What item of fire fighting equipment is shown here ?

A. A jet spray nozzle.


B. A foam extinguisher.
C. A foam eductor.
D. A fire hydrant.

144. If oxygen is removed from the fire triangle, what is this called ?
A. Starving.
B. Smothering.
C. Blowing.
D. Cooling.

145. If you abandoned ship by jumping into the sea wearing a lifejacket, what
should you do then ?
A. Swim vigorously to help maintain bodytemperature.
B. Hold on to part of the ship.
C. Swim in the direction of the nearest land.
D. After getting clear of the ship, float as still as possible.

146. Where can ships' officers find information about the ships fire protection
arrangements, fire detection and xtinguishing equipment ?
A. In the wheel house.
B. In permanently exhibited fire plans.
C. In a special instruction folder at all fire control stations.
D. In permanently exhibited muster lists.

391
147. What does A.F.F.F. stand for ?
A. Anti Fire Frothing Foam.
B. Aqueous Film Forming Foam.
C. Aqueous Fire Fighting Foam
D. Active Fire Finishing Foam.

148. When is the risk of fire greatest ?


A. When the vessel is at sea in stormy weather.
B. When the vessel is in hot, dry climates.
C. When the vessel is in dense traffic situations.
D. When the vessel is in port, particularly dry-dock.

149. What action should be taken first when discovering a fire on board ?
A. Go to your emergency muster station.
B. Go to your cabin and gather your belongings.
C. Look for the nearest fire extinguisher.
D. Activate a fire alarm.

150. What should you do when you hear emergency signals ?


A. Report to your muster station.
B. Telephone the bridge for advice.
C. Put on warm clothes and your lifejacket.
D. Ignore the signal unless you have been told there will be drill.

151. Some cargoes like certain types of coal can heat themselves up to a
temperature where they can automatically ignite. What is this process called
?
A. Spontaneous combustion.
B. Biological heating.
C. Nuclear fission.
D. Biomass conduction.

392
152. What is the international signal for 'Than overboard" ?
A. Three long blasts followed by three short blasts on the whistle.
B. Three long blasts on the whistle.
C. Repeated raising and lowering of arms.
D. If hree short blasts on the whistle.

153. Control wich of these portable fire extinguishers are found on the Bridge, in
the Radio Room and in the Engine Control Room because they are
extremely effective with fires involving lice electrical and electronic
equipment ?
A. Dry Chemical - Dry Powder.
B. Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
C. Foam.
D. A.F.F.F.

154. For fire to occur, which of the following sets of elements must be combined
A. Heat, fuel and oxygen.
B. Air, fuel and oxygen.
C. Conduction, convection & radiation.
D. Air, earth, and water.

155. What is the signal to "abandon ship" ?


A. Seven short blasts followed by one long blast.
B. A verbal command from the master.
C. Five short blasts followed by two long blasts.
D. Three long blasts followed by three short blasts.

156. Mich of these fire extinguishing media is preferred to fight a fire in an


electric installation (eg. the main switchboard) ?
A. Powder.
B. Foam.
C. Sprinkler.
D. Water fog.

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157. Which of these fire extinguishing media is most effective against an open oil
fire ?
A. Powder.
B. Foam.
C. Water.
D. Gas.

158. Which of the following does NOT need to be done right after a fire drill ?
A. Have a debriefing with all members of the safety committee.
B. Return all the equipment to its correct place.
C. Note any defects in the equipment for repair or replacement.
D. Recharge extinguishers and compressed air bottles.

159. Which of these requirements regarding the launching and


recovarrangements for survival crafts corresponds to the SOLAS regulations
?
A. Each lifeboat shall be provided with separate appliances that are capable
of launching and recovering the lifeboat.
B. Launching and recovery arrangements shall be such that the operator at
all times can observe the survival craft and life boat.
C. Different type of launching and recovery arrangements shall be used for
similar survival crafts on board the ship.
D. Means shall be available to prevent any discharge of water on to survival
crafts during abandonment.

160. Why is it advisable to board a life raft without getting wet if possible ?
A. You might drink sea water which will make you more thirsty.
B. Getting wet will increase the bodies insulation against cold.
C. You could be attacked by sharks whilst in the water.
D. Getting wet will increase the loss of body heat.

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161. What is meant by the term "self ignition temperature (S.I.T.) ?
A. The lowest temperature where enough vapours are given off that they
will ignite and keep burning if an external ignition source is applied.
B. The lowest temperature where the vapours given off will automatically
ignite without the presence of an external ignition source.
C. The lowest temperature where enough vapours are given off that they
will ignite and then go out if an external ignition source is applied.
D. The lowest temperature that a liquid will start giving off vapours.

162. What is meant by the "flash point" in a liquid fuel ?


A. The lowest temperature that a liquid will start giving off vapour.
B. The lowest temperature where enough vapour is produced that would
ignite and go out when an external ignition source is introduced.
C. The lowest temperature where enough vapour is produced that would
ignite and keep on burning when an external ignition source is
introduced.
D. The lowest temperature where vapours produced would automatically
ignite without an external ignition source

163. Is it advisable to jump onto the canopy of the raft ?


A. Yes, as tong as from not too great a height as it will save time.
B. Yes, as long as you land on the top of the life raft.
C. No, as you might injure yourself or someone under the canopy.
D. No, as if you fall through the opening you might go hrough the floor of
the raft.

164. You are in a survival craft, after clearing the sinking ship, what should be
done to minimize the rate of drift
A. Tie the painter to a piece of floating wreckage.
B. Stream the sea anchor.
C. One survivor should get into the sea and hold on to the grab lines.
D. Use the paddles or oars.

395
165. After throwing a liferaft into the water, what should be done next ?
A. Throw a lifebuoy into the water as near to the liferaft as possible.
B. Climb down the embarkation ladder and board the life raft.
C. Pull the painter all the way out and give it a tug to inflate the liferaft.
D. Jump into the water and swim to the case, then hold onto the case.

166. What percentage of air is made up by oxygen ?


A. 78%
B. 21%
C. 100%
D. 4%

167. If you are in water at a temperature 10 degrees C, wearing only shorts,


approximately how long would you be able to survive ?
A. About 5 minutes.
B. Less then 1 minute.
C. About 5 hours.
D. About an hour.

168. If it is necessary to enter the water, how should you jump from the ship ?
A. Dive head first with your arms pointing over your head.
B. Look down, jump feet first with legs extended and arms out at right
angles to your body.
C. Fall forwards in order to land on the water chest first with arms straight
by your sides.
D. Look straight ahead, legs together, jump feet first with arms crossed over
your chest.

169. What is the usual signal for a fire alarm ?


A. Slow ringing of alarm bells or gong.
B. Verbal notification from the master.
C. Five long blasts on ship's whistle.
D. Continuous ringing of alarm bells or gong.

396
170. What does this sign mean ?

A. Keep your hands in the boat.


B. Keep warm.
C. Secure hatches.
D. Heavy objects.

171. What life saving appliance is indicated here ?

A. A lifejacket.
B. A lifeboat.
C. A rescue boat.
D. A liferaft.

397
172. What does this sign mean ?

A. Rescue boat crew.


B. Emmersion suit.
C. Wear warm clothing.
D. thermal protective aid.

173. What life saving appliance would be found near this sign ?

A. A radar transponder beacon.


B. A lifeboat radio.
C. An Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB).
D. A GMDSS receiver.

398
174. If you noticed that a piece of equipment is broken, what should you do ?
A. Try to fix it yourself.
B. Pretend that you have not noticed that anything is broken.
C. Report it to the officer on watch.
D. Get another AB to help you fix it

175. What does this sign indicate ?

A. A crew messroom.
B. A passenger holding area.
C. A muster station.
D. A lifeboat embarkation point.

176. What does this sign mean ?

A. Let go lifeboat.
B. Secure painter.
C. Release gripes.
D. Release falls.

399
177. What would you expect to find near this sign ?

A. Embarkation ladders.
B. Escape shute.
C. Emergency radio.
D. Liferafts.

178. What kind of liferaft is shown in this sign ?

A. A davit launched tiferaft.


B. A liferaft at the bow.
C. A disposable life raft.
D. A rigid liferaft.

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179. What does this sign mean ?

A. This way to emergency exit.


B. Embarkation ladder.
C. This way down.
D. Escape shute.

180. What distress signal would be located near this sign ?

A. Invoke floats.
B. Star shell rockets.
C. Hand flares.
D. Parachute flares.

401
181. What part is shown by letter C ?

A. The painter.
B. Etowsing Tackle.
C. The grablines.
D. Leaving lines.

182. What does this sign mean ?

A. Lower literaft to water.


B. Emergency muster station.
C. Abandon ship.
D. Liferaft ahead.

402
183. What do the words "spontaneously combustible' mean ?
A. When this substance burns it burns completely and does not leave any
residue or ash.
B. The substance is very difficult to set alight, even when it is very hot.
C. The substance can catch fire by itself without an external source of heat
or ignition.
D. When the substance burns it becomes very hot.

184. The fall block on a lifeboat is capable of on-load release, what does this
mean ?
A. The lifeboat will automatically float free if the ship sinks.
B. The lifeboat can only be released from the falls when it is in the water.
C. There is a safety device built into the block that does not let it release
until after the other block has been released.
D. The lifeboat can be released from the falls before it enters the water.

185. What does this sign mean ?

A. Automatic release.
B. Lifeboat embarkation point.
C. Release gripes.
D. Lower lifeboat to water.

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186. What does this sign mean ?

A. Flammable.
B. Radioactive.
C. Explosive.
D. Dangerous gas.

187. What does this sign mean ?

A. Release brake.
B. Alter course.
C. Start engine.
D. Lower lifeboat.

404
188. What does this sign mean ?

A. Radar transponder beacon.


B. Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB).
C. Walkie talkie.
D. Survival craft portable radio.

189. What is attached to the lifebuoy in the sign ?

A. A light and die marker.


B. A light and E.P.I.R.B.
C. A smoke float and light.
D. A smoke float and E.P.I.R.B

405
190. What does this sign mean ?

A. Proceed to embarkation station.


B. Children's lifejacket.
C. Put on your lifejacket.
D. Life jackets are located to the left.

191. Under STCW regulations what must each new crew member do before
commencing assigned duties ?
A. Read all posted noticesfregutations carefully.
B. Be familiar with safety procedures.
C. Report to the master for signing on the ship's articles.
D. Locate his working area and working clothes.

406
6. Respond to a distress signal at sea (Merespon tanda marabahaya di laut)

1. How can an azimuth or bearing be indicated by


signal flags?

A. The letter A + three numerals.


B. The letter B + three numerals.
C. The letter A + three numerals + the letter R or T.
D. The letter N + three numerals.

2. Signals are often used by aircraft engaged in


search and rescue operations to direct ships
towards a casualty. This aircraft flies across
your stern, rocking his wings. What is the
meaning of the signal?

A. The assistance of your vessel is no longer required.


B. This is part of a sequence of manoeuvres by which the aircraft will
indicate a direction for my vessel to proceed in.
C. The aircraft is telling me he does not understand my last message.
D. The aircraft is telling me he is preparing to drop supplies or personnel in
the water.

3. Visual signals are used by aircraft engaged in search


and rescue operations to direct ships towards a
casualty. The signals shown here are part of a
sequence. What does it indicate?

A. The aircraft is directing a vessel towards the casualty.


B. The assistance of your vessel is no longer required.

407
C. The casualty is sighted and will require medical assistance.
D. The aircraft is short on fuel and is returning to base.

4. What does this flag mean?

A. I diver down; keep well clear at slow speed.


B. Yes (affirmative). have a
C. My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water.
D. I wish to communicate with you.

5. What does this signal hoist mean?

A. I require immediate assistance.


B. I require medical assistance.
C. Do you require assistance?
D. Stand by to assist me.

6. What does this two flag hoist signal indicate?

A. I am in distress and require immediate assistance.


B. Keep clear. I have divers down.
C. I require medical assistance.

408
D. (On a vessel alongside) You should proceed at slow speed when passing
me.

7. What is the two letter signal, to be used by flags, radiotelephony or


radiotelegraphy, meaning "Calling All Ships".
A. CQ
B. AS
C. CA
D. TT

8. What letter is represented by this flag and what


is it's meaning when displayed by a vessel in
port?

A. P - All persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed to


sea.
B. S - I am operating astern propulsion.
C. P - I require a pilot.
D. W - All persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed
to sea.

9. You are approaching the port entrance. What do


these lights mean?

A. A vessel may proceed only when she has received specific orders to do
so.
B. Vessels may proceed - one-way traffic.
C. Vessels may proceed - two-way traffic.
D. A vessel may proceed only when she has received specific orders to do
409
so, except that vessels which can safely navigate outside the main
channel need not comply with this message.

10. You are proceeding up a river, with berths on both banks.


You see this flag hoist on a vessel moored on a berth
ahead. What does it mean?

A. You should proceed at slow speed when passing me.


B. Caution! I have an anchor down.
C. My engine is disabled.
D. I am about to depart the berth.

11. Which flag means ? "I have a


diver down, keep well clear
at slow speed."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 1
D. Flag 3

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12. Which flag means ? "Keep clear of
me, I am maneuvering with
difficulty."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 1

13. Which flag means ? "I am taking


in, or discharging, or carrying
dangerous goods."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 3
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 1

14. Which flag means ? "Keep clear


of me, I am engaged in pair
trawling."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 1

411
15. Which flag means ? "My
vessel is 'healthy-and I
request free pratique."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 4
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 1

16. Which flag means ? "I require a


tug. When made by fishing
vessels operating in close
proximity on the fishing
grounds, it means: am shooting
my nets."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 1
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 3

17. Which flag means ? "You are


running into clanger."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 1

412
18. Which flag means ? "Stop
carrying out your intentions
and watch for my signals."

A. Flag 1
B. Flag 4
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 3

19. Which flag means ? "I


require assistance."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 1

20. Which flag means ? "I am


operating astern
propulsion."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 1
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 3

413
21. Which flag means ? "I wish
to communicate with you."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 1
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 2

22. Which flag means ? "I


am disabled.
Communicate with me."

A. Flag 1
B. Flag 4
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 2

23. Which flag means ? "I am


altering my course to
starboard."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 1
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 4

414
24. Which flag means ?"
You should stop your
vessel instantly."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 1
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 2

25. Which flag means ? "I am


on fire and have dangerous
cargo on board, keep well
clear of me?'

A. Flag 2
B. Flag 3
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 1
26. Which flag means? "I
have a pilot on board."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 3
C. Flag 2
D. Flag

415
27. Which flag means?"'
am altering my
course to port."

A. Flag 2
B. Flag 1
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 3

28. Nhich flag means? "I


require a pilot. When
made byfishing vessels
operating in close
proximity on the fishing
grounds it means: I am
hauling nets."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 1

416
29. Which flag means? "My
vessel is stopped and making
no way through the water."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 1

30. Which flag means?


"Man overboard."

A. Flag 2
B. Flag 3
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 1
31. Which flag means? "In
harbour. All persons should
report on board as the vessel
is about to proceed to sea. At
sea, it may be used by
fishing
vessels to mean: My nets have come fast upon an obstruction."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag I
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 2

417
32. Which flag means?"' am
dragging my anchor."

A. Flag 2
B. Flag 4
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 1

33. Which flag means? "I


require a medical
assistance."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 4
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 1

34. Which flag means? "No (


negative )."

A. Flag 2
B. Flag 4
C. Flag 1
D. Flag 3

418
35. What is the phonetic word
for this flag ?

A. Charlie
B. Juliet
C. Lima
D. Uniform

36. What is the phonetic


word for this flag ?

A. Foxtrot
B. Charlie
C. Golf
D. Delta
37. What is the phonetic word
for this flag ?

A. Hotel
B. Kilo
C. Echo
D. Tango

419
38. What is the phonetic word
for this flag ?

A. Charlie
B. Foxtrot
C. Lima
D. Alfa

39. What is the phonetic word


for this flag ?

A. Whisky
B. Golf
C. Papa
D. Yankee
40. What is the phonetic word
for this flag ?

A. Hotel
B. Juliet
C. Victor
D. Xray

420
41. What is the phonetic word
for this flag ?

A. Zulu
B. Papa
C. India
D. Mike

42. What is the phonetic word


for this flag ?

A. Lima
B. Juliet
C. Romeo
D. Bravo
43. What is the phonetic word
for this flag ?

A. Oscar
B. Kilo
C. Quebec
D. Sierra

421
44. What is the phonetic word
for this flag ?

A. Echo
B. Hotel
C. Lima
D. Alfa

45. What is the phonetic word


for this flag ?

A. Mike
B. Uniform
C. Whisky
D. Foxtrot
46. What is the phonetic
word for this flag ?

A. November

B. Oscar
C. India
D. Golf

422
47. What is the phonetic
word for this flag ?

A. Uniform
B. Papa
C. Yankee
D. Oscar
48. What is the phonetic
word for this flag ?

A. Papa
B. Hotel
C. Alfa
D. Juliet

49. What is the phonetic


word for this flag ?

A. Quebec
B. Oscar
C. India
D. Victor

423
50. What is the phonetic word
for this flag ?

A. Romeo
B. Zulu
C. Tango
D. Xray
51. What is the phonetic word
for this flag ?

A. Whisky
B. Sierra
C. Lima
D. Papa

52. What is the phonetic


word for this flag ?

A. Golf
B. Juliet
C. Tango
D. Hotel

424
53. What is the phonetic
word for this flag ?

A. Uniform
B. Lima
C. November
D. Mike

54. What is the phonetic word


for this flag ?

A. Yankee
B. Whisky
C. Mike
D. Victor

55. Mat is the phonetic word


for this flag ?

A. Whisky
B. Echo
C. Elena
D. Charlie

425
56. What is the phonetic word
for this flag ?

A. Oscar
B. Yankee
C. Yankee
D. Xray

57. What is the phonetic word


for this flag ?

A. Echo
B. Oscar
C. Yankee
D. Foxtrot

58. What is the phonetic word


for this flag ?

A. Lima
B. Foxtrot
C. Zulu
D. Uniform

426
59. Which flag group means
"Vessel indicated is
reported as requiring
assistance in lat..long..(or
bearing. from lace
indicated, distance..)." ?

A. A
B. D
C. C
D. B

60. Which flag group means


"Do not pass too close to
me." ?

A. A
B. D
C. B
D. C

427
61. Mich flag group means You
should proceed at slow
speed when passing me or
vessels making this signal."

A. A
B. B
C. D
D. C

62. Which flag group means


"I require health
clearance" ?

A. A
B. C
C. B
D. D

63. Nhich flag group means


Interrogative or the
significance of the
previous group should be
read as a question" ?

A. D
B. A
C. B
D. C

428
64. Which flag group means
"Light vessel out of
position" ?

A. C
B. D
C. A
D. B

65. Which flag group means I


is it not safe to fire a
rocker?

A. B
B. C
C. A
D. D

429
66. Which flag group means "
You appear not to be
complying with the traffic
separation scheme ?

A. D
B. B
C. A
D. C

67. Which flag group means "I


am ( or vessel indicated is )
in charge or coordinating a
search" ?

A. C
B. A
C. D
D. B

430
68. Which flag group means
"Look-out for a rocket-
line" ?

A. A
B. D
C. B
D. C

69. Which flag group means "I


am going to communicate
with your station by means of
the International Code of
Signals"

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

431
70. Which flag group means "I
am in distress and require
immediate assistance ?

A. D
B. B
C. C
D. A

71. Which flag group means


"You should proceed with
great caution; Submarines
are exercising in this area" ?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

72. Which flag group means


"The groups which follow
are from the International
Code of Signals"?

A. D
B. B
C. C
D. A

432
73. Which flag group means
"I am calibrating radio
direction finder or
adjusting compasses" ?

A. A
B. C
C. D
D. B

74. Which flag group means


"The words which follow
are in plain language ?

A. A
B. D
C. B
D. C

75. Which flag group means


Have you a doctor " ?

A. C
B. B
C. A
D. D

433
76. Which flag group means
"What is the name or
identity signal of your
vessel" ?

A. A
B. C
C. B
D. D

77. Mich flag group means "I


am engaged in submarine
survey work ( underwater
operations }. Keep well
clear of me at slow
speed." ?

A. B
B. A
C. C
D. D
78. Which flag group means
"I wish to communicate
with you by VHF channel
16" ?

A. D
B. B
C. C
D. A

434
79. Which flag group means
"You should keep away
from me or the vessel
indicated" ?

A. D
B. A
C. B
D. C

80. In what operations would a ship


showing this flag be engaged ?

A. Escorting a submerged submarine


B. Diving operations
C. Minesweeping
D. Fishing with purse seine gear

81. What type of vessel is


this?

A. A trawler
B. Any type of fishing vessel
C. A vessel at anchor
D. A vessel not under command

435
82. What sort of vessel would display
this day signal ?

A. A sailing vessel which is aground


B. A vessel engaged in underwater demolition work
C. A vessel which is in distress and requesting assistance
D. A fishing vessel with gear fast to a rock and at anchor

83. What type of vessel shows


these shapes?

A. A tug and tow


B. A vessel restricted in ability to manoeuvre
C. A vessel not under command
D. A tug and tow where the length of tow exceeds 200m

436
84. Which is the correct day
signal for a vessel engaged in
hydrographic surveying ?

A. Day signal A
B. Day signal D
C. Day signal B
D. Day signal C

437
7. IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases and Use the IMO Standard Marine
Communication Phrases and use English in written and oral form (Menggunakan
Kalimat Komunikasi Maritim Standar IMO dan menggunakan bahasa Inggris dalam
bentuk tulisan dan ucapan)

1. During the anchoring procedure, what would the 2nd Officer understand by
the following request from the bridge, "How is the chain"?
A. The bridge would like to know the direction of the anchor cable from the
hawse pipe.
B. The Master is asking the Chief Officer whether the ship needs to be
moved forward and take the weight off the anchor cable.
C. The Master is requesting the Chief Officer to inform the bridge of
whether he can determine which way the ship is moving in the water.
D. The Master is asking the Chief Officer whether the vessel is dragging
anchor

2. How should the tug be secured to the ship, when the bridge tells the poop
that "It is the tug's wire"??
A. The tug will send a wire to the ship for making fast.
B. The After Team will send a wire from the poop to the tug and then make
it fast.
C. The After team will send out the towing spring to the tug to make fast.
D. The tug will be ready to receive the towing spring and make it fast.

3. In the diagram which line would be the "AFT SPRING", if the vessel was
port side alongside a jetty?

A. The Aft Spring is indicated by A, in the figure


B. The Aft Spring is indicated by B, in the figure
C. The Aft Spring is indicated by C, in the figure

438
D. The Aft Spring is indicated by D, in the figure

4. In the diagram, the depth of water under the keel is indicated by the letter
"C". Which bridge instrument would indicate this depth?

A. Echo Sounder
B. Draught Indicator
C. Arpa Radar
D. GPS

5. In the diagram, which arrow is pointing at the position known as the


"Bridge"?

A. The Bridge is i Indicated by A, in the figure


B. The Bridge is indicated by B, in the figure
C. The Bridge is indicated by C, in the figure
D. The Bridge is indicated by D, in the figure
6. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the "bits" which would probably be
used by the "FORWARD SPRING" when mooring the ship?

A. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by D, in the figure


B. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by B, in the figure
C. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by C, in the figure
D. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by A, in the figure

439
7. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the position "MIDSHIPS"?

A. Midships is indicated by B, in the figure


B. Midships is indicated by A, in the figure
C. Midships is indicated by C, in the figure
D. Midships is indicated by D, in the figure

8. In the diagram, which letter is pointing at the area known as the "BOW" of
the ship?

A. The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure


B. The Bow is indicated by A, in the figure
C. The Bow is indicated by C, in the figure
D. The Bow is indicated by D, in the figure

9. In the diagram, which letter is pointing to the area of the ship known as the
"STERN"?

A. The Stern area is indicated by C, in the figure


B. The Stern area is indicated by B, in the figure
C. The Stern area is indicated by A, in the figure
D. The Stern area is indicated by D, in the figure

440
10. In the figure is shown the direction of possible mooring lines from the stern
of a vessel, when moored port side alongside a jetty. Which letter shows the
direction which would be used by a "STERN LINE"?

A. The Stern Line is indicated by A, in the figure


B. The Stern Line is indicated by B, in the figure
C. The Stern Line is indicated by C, in the figure
D. The Stern Line is indicated by D, in the figure

11. In the figure, which arrow indicates the direction "ASTERN"?

A. Astern is indicated by D, in the figure


B. Astern is indicated by B, in the figure
C. Astern is indicated by C, in the figure
D. Astern is indicated by A, in the figure
12. In the figure, which letter indicates the "BREADTH of the vessel?

A. Breadth is indicated by B, in the figure


B. Breadth is indicated by A, in the figure
C. Breadth is indicated by C, in the figure
D. Breadth is indicated by D, in the figure
441
13. In the figure, which letter indicates what is known as "mooring bits"?

A. The mooring bits are indicated by D, in the figure


B. The mooring bits are indicated by B, in the figure
C. The mooring bits are indicated by C, in the figure
D. The mooring bits are indicated by A, in the figure
14. In the figure, which letter indicates which item is the "WINDLASS"?

A. The Windlass is indicated by B, in the figure


B. The Windlass is indicated by A, in the figure
C. The Windlass is indicated by C, in the figure
D. The Windlass is indicated by D, in the figure

15. In which direction would the "FORWARD HEAD LINE" normally run?

A. The forward head line would normally lead forward from the bow
B. The forward head line would normally lead from the bow back towards
the stern
C. The forward head line would normally lead straight across to the jetty
and be as short as possible
D. The forward head line is normally the line used by the forward tug.

442
16. On the diagram, what is the area at the forward end of the vessel shown by
the letter "A"? It is normally raised by one deck above the main deck

A. Fo'c's'le or Forecastle
B. Forward bridge
C. Poop
D. Crows nest

17. On the diagram, which arrowed line is indicating the "Breadth" of the
vessel?

A. The breadth is indicated by letter B, in the figure


B. The breadth is indicated by letter A, in the figure
C. The breadth is indicated by letter C, in the figure
D. The breadth is indicated by letter D, in the figure
18. On the diagram, which letter indicates what is meant by the word
"DRAUGHT" of the ship?

A. Draught is indicated by D, in the figure


B. Draught is indicated by B, in the figure
C. Draught is indicated by C, in the figure
D. Draught is indicated by A, in the figure

443
19. On the diagram, which letter is indicating the "BOW"?

A. The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure


B. The Bow is indicated by A, in the figure
C. The Bow is indicated by C, in the figure
D. The Bow is indicated by D, in the figure
20. Read the text in the diagram and answer the following question: When
should training in personal survival techniques be given?

A. Before being employed


B. During the first week on board
C. After joining the ship
D. After one period at sea
21. Read the text in the diagram and answer this question: What should be given
to prospective seafarers?

A. Approved training in survival techniques


B. Passport and visa
C. Recommendations
D. Survival and protective clothing

444
22. Read the text in the picture before answering the question. What is the
fundamental requirement relating to the older ships, which are still in
service?

A. The older ships must be in good condition.


B. As a result of the new building activities, older ships are no longer
required.
C. The older ship must be cheaper to run than the new builds.
D. The older ships should be scrapped to make way for the new builds.
23. What are the duties of the bridge lookout during the night, when the vessel
is in the middle of the ocean?
A. The lookout must keep a lookout all-round the ship and report anything
sighted, or heard, to the Officer of the Watch
B. The lookout must keep a lookout ahead of the vessel and report anything
sighted to the Officer of the Watch
C. The lookout should remain on the bridge wing to be at hand to deliver
messages as required by the Officer of the Watch
D. The lookout must standby ready to take the wheel when required by the
Officer of the Watch

24. What could the wheelman be asked to do, to help in the preparations to
leave the berth and go to sea?
A. Test the steering by putting the wheel hard over both ways
B. Help the forward team let go the ropes
C. Help the after team let go the ropes
D. Standby in the mess room until called to the bridge.

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25. What do you understand by the term "Let Go" when applied to mooring and
unmooring?

A. Let Go means to cast off the mooring ropes and wires


B. Let Go means to let seafarers go ashore
C. Let Go means to leave the ship
D. Let Go means to slacken a mooring rope

26. What is a "cargo plan", when applied to a ship?


A. The plan indicating where cargo is to be loaded and in what quantities
B. The plan to show the staff requirements at each hatch while the ship is
loading cargo
C. The plan showing the cargo spaces and their capacity
D. A discussion between the shore and ship to plan the procedure for
loading cargo

27. What is a "Fairlead"?


A. A Fairlead is a special device through which is passed ropes or wires to
stop them moving sidewards and reduces friction and chafing
B. A Fairlead is the sounding lead used to sample the seabed
C. A Fairlead is the device used to close the cargo holds
D. A Fairlead is the safest direction to steam down a fairway

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28. What is a mooring line?
A. A mooring line is a thick rope used to moor the ship
B. A mooring line is a line that is passed through a block
C. A mooring line is a small diameter line attached to a large diameter rope
D. A mooring line is a line attached to the anchor

29. What is a ship's "Gangway"?


A. A Gangway is a portable means of access between the ship and the shore
B. A Gangway is an interval of time between a change of working gangs, on
board
C. A Gangway is a vertical ladder used by the pilot to board the ship
D. A Gangway is the means of access into the cargo holds

30. What is meant by the term "Single up" when a vessel is preparing to leave
the jetty to which it was moored?
A. Single up is the term used to describe the process of letting go most of the
moorings lines and just leaving sufficient lines to stay safely alongside.
B. Single up is the term used when there is only one single rope left out
between the ship and the jetty, when leaving the berth
C. Single up is the term used when only one single tug is used to assist the
ship in leaving the berth.
D. Single up is the term used when a ship leaves the jetty without any
assistance from tugs and it is entirely on its own steam.
31. What is name of the machine shown, used to heave on the ropes during
mooring and unmooring?

A. Winch
B. Capstan
C. Windlass
D. Crane
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32. What is the daytime signal to be shown when the vessel is at anchor?
A. A black ball forward where it can best be seen
B. Two black balls where they can best be seen
C. The national flag flying from the fore mast
D. A black ball from main mast amidships

33. What is the meaning of the term "Make Fast", when mooring the ship?
A. Make Fast means secure the ropes to the bits
B. Make Fast means to act very quickly
C. Make Fast means to avoid eating all meals during the daylight hours.
D. Make Fast means to coil up a rope

34. What is the name of the portable walkway or access between ship and
shore?
A. Gangway
B. Accommodation ladder
C. Bridgeway
D. Bulwark
35. What is the normal name given to the fuel oil used for the ship's main
engines?
A. Bunkers
B. Fuel oil
C. Cargo
D. Lubricating oil

36. What is the normal name of the special wire/rope on board the ship used to
make a tug fast?
A. Towing spring
B. Tugs rope
C. Tugs wire
D. Mooring wire

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37. What is the normal name of the waterproof suit shown in the picture?

A. Survival suit
B. Wet suit
C. Life suit
D. Fluorescent orange suit

38. What is the output shown on the "Rate of Turn" display fitted on the bridge?
A. The Rate of Turn indicator displays the rate the ship is swinging in
degrees per minute
B. The Rate of Turn display shows the turning speed the vessel is swinging
in degrees per second
C. The Rate of Turn indicator shows the rudder angle applied by the
helmsman to turn the ship.
D. The Rate of Turn indicator shows the changing angle of the vessel from
the meridian

39. What is the role of a tug in a port?

A. A tug assists the ships to moor and unmoor


B. A tug provides transport for the port personnel
C. A tug is used to assist the fishing boats when they enter the port
D. A tug is the normal vessel used by the pilot to board a ship

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40. What is understood by the term "Boat Drill"?
A. "Boat Drill" means the practical training in the various aspects of getting
all the people onboard safely off the ship, in the event of abandoning ship
B. "Boat Drill" means an exercise in the safe methods of handling a lifeboat
in heavy seas
C. "Boat Drill" is an exercise in the practical and safe methods to secure a
boat alongside the ship.
D. "Boat Drill" is an exercise to launch the lifeboats and move the boats
clear of the ship.

41. What is understood by the term, "The Lee Side"?


A. Lee Side is the side that faces away from the wind
B. Lee Side is the Starboard side of the vessel
C. Lee Side is the Port side of the vessel
D. Lee Side is the side that faces the wind

42. What is understood by the word "Bollard", when mooring a ship?


A. A Bollard is a thick steel post to which mooring lines are secured
B. A Bollard is a very heavy rope
C. A Bollard is a loop in a rope
D. A Bollard is a rope made up of several strands

43. What letter indicates the direction "AHEAD", in the figure?

A. Ahead is indicated by A, in the figure


B. Ahead is indicated by B, in the figure
C. Ahead is indicated by C, in the figure
D. Ahead is indicated by D, in the figure

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44. When acting as helmsman, what should be the method of responding to an
order?
A. When receiving an order, the order should be repeated back to the person
who gave it before carrying out the order.
B. The response to an order should be to acknowledge that order and then
carry out what you were told to do.
C. When acting as helmsman and given a helm order you should always say
"Yes sir"
D. The order needs to be acted upon and this will indicate you understood
what was said

45. When keeping a lookout, what would be the correct understanding of the
question "What is the aspect of the other ship"?
A. The question is requesting some indication of the direction the other ship
is heading.
B. The question is requesting some idea of how far away the other ship is
from your own ship
C. The question wants to know what type of ship has been sighted
D. The question is requesting where on the horizon the other ship was
sighted.

46. When should the lookout report another vessel?


A. As soon as it is sighted or heard.
B. When the navigation lights can be clearly seen
C. When the other vessel is approaching the ship
D. When the other vessel is forward of the beam of own ship

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47. Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure?

A. The Forecastle is indicated by B, in the figure


B. The Forecastle is indicated by A, in the figure
C. The Forecastle is indicated by C, in the figure
D. The Forecastle is indicated by D, in the figure

48. Where on a ship is the deck known as the "Boat Deck"?


A. The Boat Deck is the deck from which persons embark into the lifeboats
B. The Boat Deck is the deck of a life boat
C. The Boat Deck is the deck where access would be made from any boats
alongside.
D. The Boat Deck is the name of the main deck of the ship or boat.

49. Which is the "CAPSTAN", in the figure?

A. The Capstan is indicated by A, in the figure


B. The Capstan is indicated by B, in the figure
C. The Capstan is indicated by C, in the figure
D. The Capstan is indicated by D, in the figure

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50. Which is the "MOORING BUOY", in the figure?

A. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by B, in the figure


B. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by A, in the figure
C. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by C, in the figure
D. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by D, in the figure

51. Which is the "PANAMA LEAD", in the figure?

A. The Panama Lead is indicated by C, in the figure


B. The Panama Lead is indicated by B, in the figure
C. The Panama Lead is indicated by A, in the figure
D. The Panama Lead is indicated by D, in the figure

52. Which is the "QUAY", in the figure?

A. The Quay is indicated by A, in the figure


B. The Quay is indicated by B, in the figure
C. The Quay is indicated by C, in the figure
D. The Quay is indicated by D, in the figure

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53. Which is the "STARBOARD BOW", in the figure?

A. The Starboard bow is indicated by A, in the figure


B. The Starboard bow is indicated by B, in the figure
C. The Starboard bow is indicated by C, in the figure
D. The Starboard bow is indicated by D, in the figure
54. Which of the mooring lines shown in the figure is known as the "AFT
BREAST LINE"?

A. The Aft Breast Line is B, in the figure


B. The Aft Breast Line is A, in the figure
C. The Aft Breast Line is C, in the figure
D. The Aft Breast Line is D, in the figure

55. Why could dirty and oily areas of the deck be dangerous?
A. They may cause people to slip over and hurt themselves
B. They do not look good to the customers
C. They show the ship is not efficient
D. They are areas which should be cleaned up.

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56. With reference to the text in the frame: what is stated as a threat to lives at
sea and the marine environment?

A. Bad management and poorly maintained older ships.


B. All ships aged between twenty and thirty years old.
C. All old or new ships which are badly managed ships.
D. There is no immediate threat to the crew or environment
57. Would there ever be the need for two lookouts on the Bridge watch?
A. Yes, possibly when there is dense fog and heavy traffic.
B. Never necessary
C. No, one lookout is sufficient even in fog
D. Every night there should be two lookouts, one on each bridge wing.
58. In the figure, which letter gives the correct understanding of the term
"LENGTH OVERALL"?

A. Length Overall is indicated by B, in the figure


B. Length Overall is indicated by A, in the figure
C. Length Overall is indicated by C, in the figure
D. Length Overall is indicated by D, in the figure

59. The IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases are recommended to be


used when the ship's Officer is verbally talking to whom?
A. In circumstances described in all of the answers provided
B. When talking between ship and shore personnel
C. When giving orders on board with other seafarers
D. When talking on the VHF between ships
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60. The Second Officer, when on watch on the bridge, is often referred to as the
OOW. What does OOW actually stand for?
A. Officer of the Watch
B. On official watch
C. On official watchkeeping
D. Operator of the watch
61. What is "AIR DRAUGHT", in the figure?

A. Air draught is indicated by C, in the figure


B. Air draught is indicated by B, in the figure
C. Air draught is indicated by A, in the figure
D. Air draught is indicated by D, in the figure

62. What is "FREEBOARD", in the figure?

A. Freeboard is indicated by B, in the figure


B. Freeboard is indicated by A, in the figure
C. Freeboard is indicated by C, in the figure
D. Freeboard is indicated by D, in the figure

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63. What is "LENGHT OVERALL", in the figure?

A. Length overall is indicated by B, in the figure


B. Length overall is indicated by A, in the figure
C. Length overall is indicated by C, in the figure
D. Length overall is indicated by D, in the figure

64. What is the correct understanding of the term "Block Coefficient" as applied
to a ship?
A. The comparison of the underwater shape of the ship, to a rectangular
block of the same extreme dimensions.
B. The coefficient of a Block and Tackle
C. The ratio of the waterplane shape of the ship to a rectangle of the same
extreme dimensions
D. The restriction of a valve in a pipe to the flow of fluid through that pipe

65. Which approved publication should be used by a seafarer to help overcome


any misunderstanding in communications?
A. The (IMO) Standard Marine Communication Phrases (SMCP) booklet
B. Standard Marine Navigational Vocabulary
C. The Oxford Concise Dictionary
D. The (ICS) Bridge Procedures Guide

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66. Which is the "CENTRE LINE", in the figure?

A. The Fore and aft Centreline is indicated by A, in the figure


B. The fore and aft Centreline is indicated by B, in the figure
C. The fore and aft Centreline is indicated by C, in the figure
D. The fore and aft Centreline is indicated by D, in the figure
67. How would you alert others onboard if you saw a person falling overboard?
A. If I saw a person falling overboard I would shout repeatedly, "Man
overboard"
B. If I saw a person falling overboard I would shout once, "Man overboard"
C. If I saw a person falling overboard I would run to the Bridge
D. If I saw a person falling overboard I would inform the Bosun

68. Is it always possible to use the word "ship" instead of the word "boat"?
A. Normally a small vessel is called a "boat" rather than a "ship", otherwise
it is not important.
B. Either can be used anytime
C. A large vessel is always called a "ship" and never a "boat"
D. A boat can only be used for vessels under 50 metres in length.
69. What are the lists called that give the position and task during a lifeboat drill
for all persons on board the ship?

A. The Muster List


B. The Crew List
C. The Drill List
D. The Duty List

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70. What do you call the wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents the ladder
from twisting?
A. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a
'Spreader'
B. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a
'Long rung'
C. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a
'Wide step'
D. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called an
'Ani-twist rung'

71. What do you understand by the order: "Move the pilot ladder to the other
side"?
A. Move the pilot ladder to the other side, means: to shift the pilot ladder to
the opposite side of the ship.
B. Move the pilot ladder to the other side means: to rig another pilot ladder
C. Move the pilot ladder to the other side means: to move the pilot ladder
further along nearer to the bow.
D. Move the pilot ladder to the other side means: to change the position of
the pilot ladder from the main deck to the fore deck.

72. What do you understand by the term: "Let go the tug"?


A. Let go the tug means: to cast off the lines that secure the tug to the ship
B. Let go the tug means: to tell the tug master to steer away from the ship.
C. Let go the tug means: to cut the lines securing the tug to the ship
D. Let go the tug means: to tell the tug master to let go his anchor

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73. What do you understand by: Bitter end?
A. Bitter end means: the end link of an anchor cable that is secured within
the chain locker
B. Bitter end means: to the very last moment
C. Bitter end means: a foul taste at the end of a meal
D. Bitter end means: the toggled end of a lifeboat painter

74. What do you understand by: Let go the port anchor?


A. Let go the port anchor means: open the port windlass brake
B. Let go the port anchor means: put the port windlass brake in gear
C. Let go the port anchor means: put the port windlass brake in gear and
lower the anchor
D. Let go the port anchor means: slacken the port anchor cable

75. What do you understand by: Rig the accommodation ladder in combination
with the pilot ladder?
A. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder
means: lower the accommodation ladder and rig the pilot ladder right
next to it
B. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder
means: lower the gangway
C. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder
means: lower the gangway and rig the pilot ladder forward of the
accommodation
D. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder
means: lower the gangway and rig the pilot ladder from the gangway

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76. What do you understand by: Secure the tug?

A. Secure the tug means: to make fast the tug


B. Secure the tug means: to let go the tug
C. Secure the tug means: to pass a line to the tug
D. Secure the tug means: to pick up the tug line

77. What does the word "pirates" mean?


A. Pirates are persons who attempt to board and take over a ship at sea
B. Pirates are official people who board the ship while in port
C. Pirates are special cargo lashings on container ships
D. Pirates are another word for helmsmen

78. What is "DRAUGHT", in the figure?

A. Draught is D, in the figure


B. Draught is B, in the figure
C. Draught is C, in the figure
D. Draught is A, in the figure

79. What is the meaning of "make fast"


A. To secure a rope
B. To act quickly
C. To avoid all meals
D. To coil a rope

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80. What is the normal term used for the regular training of how to launch the
lifeboat?

A. Lifeboat drill
B. Lifeboat practice
C. Lifeboat launching
D. Lifeboat exercise

81. What is the objective of the merchant navy?


A. To safely transport goods by sea
B. To transport and deliver goods as quickly as possible
C. To earn money for the shipowner
D. To provide employment for persons who wish to become seafarers
82. What is the room often called where the crew eat their meals?

A. The crew mess


B. The crew restaurant
C. The crew restaurant
D. The crew caf

83. What is understood by the term "take the helm"?


A. Take over the steering of the ship.
B. Take over heaving of a rope.
C. Take a message to another officer.
D. Change the place where the lookout is standing.

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84. Where is "AFT", in the figure?

A. Aft is A, in the figure


B. Aft is B, in the figure
C. Aft is C, in the figure
D. Aft is D, in the figure

85. Where is the "BRIDGE", in the figure?

A. The Bridge is A, in the figure


B. The Bridge is B, in the figure
C. The Bridge is C, in the figure
D. The Bridge is D, in the figure

86. Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure?

A. The Forecastle is B, in the figure


B. The Forecastle is A, in the figure
C. The Forecastle is C, in the figure
D. The Forecastle is D, in the figure

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87. Where is the "PORT QUARTER", in the figure?

A. The Port quarter is D, in the figure


B. The Port quarter is B, in the figure
C. The Port quarter is A, in the figure
D. The Port quarter is C, in the figure

88. Which is the "STARBOARD QUARTER", in the figure?

A. The Starboard quarter is C, in the figure


B. The Starboard quarter is B, in the figure
C. The Starboard quarter is A, in the figure
D. The Starboard quarter is D, in the figure

89. Which of these statements is NOT correct ?


A. Kerosene is good for cleaning the skin.
B. Contact with oil on the skin can cause dermatitis.
C. Oil and gasoline on the skin can cause skin cancer.
D. Oil can block skin pores and cause rashes.

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8. Transmit and receive information by visual signaling (Mengirim dan menerima
informasi dengan isyarat visual)

1. How can an azimuth or bearing be indicated by signal flags?


A. The letter A + three numerals.
B. The letter B + three numerals.
C. The letter A + three numerals + the letter R or
T.
D. The letter N + three numerals.

2. Signals are often used by aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations to
direct ships towards a casualty. This aircraft flies across your stern, rocking
his wings. What is the meaning of the signal?

A. The assistance of your vessel is no longer


required.
B. This is part of a sequence of manoeuvres by
which the aircraft will indicate a direction for
my vessel to proceed in.
C. The aircraft is telling me he does not understand my last message.
D. The aircraft is telling me he is preparing to drop supplies or personnel in
the water.

3. Visual signals are used by aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations
to directships towards a casualty. The signals shown here are part of a
sequence. What does it indicate?

A. The aircraft is directing a vessel towards the


casualty.
B. The assistance of your vessel is no longer required.
C. The casualty is sighted and will require medical
assistance.
D. The aircraft is short on fuel and is returning to base.

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4. What does this flag mean?
A. I diver down; keep well clear at slow speed.
B. Yes (affirmative).have a
C. My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water.
D. I wish to communicate with you.

5. What does this signal hoist mean?


A. I require immediate assistance.
B. I require medical assistance.
C. Do you require assistance?
D. Stand by to assist me.

6. What does this two flag hoist signal indicate?

A. I am in distress and require immediate assistance.


B. Keep clear. I have divers down.
C. I require medical assistance.
D. (On a vessel alongside) You should proceed at slow speed when passing
me.

7. What is the two letter signal, to be used by flags, radiotelephony or


radiotelegraphy, meaning "Calling All Ships".
A. CQ
B. AS
C. CA
D. TT

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8. What letter is represented by this flag and what is it's meaning when
displayed by a vessel in port?

A. P - All persons should report on board as the


vessel is about to proceed to sea.
B. S - I am operating astern propulsion.
C. P - I require a pilot.
D. W - All persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed
to sea.

9. You are approaching the port entrance. What do these lights mean?
A. A vessel may proceed only when she has received specific orders to do
so.
B. Vessels may proceed - one-way traffic.
C. Vessels may proceed - two-way traffic.
D. A vessel may proceed only when she has received specific orders to do
so, except that vessels which can safely navigate outside the main
channel need not comply with this message.

10. You are proceeding up a river, with berths on both banks. You see this flag
hoist on a vessel moored on a berth ahead. What does it mean?
A. You should proceed at slow speed when passing me.
B. Caution! I have an anchor down.
C. My engine is disabled.
D. I am about to depart the berth.

11. Which flag means ? "I have a diver down, keep well clear at slow speed."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 1
D. Flag 3

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12. Which flag means ? "Keep clear of me, I am maneuvering with difficulty."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 1

13. Which flag means ? "I am taking in, or discharging, or carrying dangerous
goods."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 3
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 1

14. Which flag means ? "Keep clear of me, I am engaged in pair trawling."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 1

15. Which flag means ? "My vessel is 'healthy-and I request free pratique."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 4
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 1

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16. Which flag means ? "I require a tug. When made by fishing vessels
operating in close proximity on the fishing grounds, it means: am shooting
my nets."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 1
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 3

17. Which flag means ? "You are running into clanger."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 1

18. Which flag means ? "Stop carrying out your intentions and watch for my
signals."

A. Flag 1
B. Flag 4
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 3

19. Which flag means ? "I require assistance."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 1

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20. Which flag means ? "I am operating astern propulsion."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 1
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 3

21. Which flag means ? "I wish to communicate with you."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 1
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 2

22. Which flag means ? "I am disabled. Communicate with me."

A. Flag 1
B. Flag 4
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 2

23. Which flag means ? "I am altering my course to starboard."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 1
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 4

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24. Which flag means ?" You should stop your vessel instantly."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 1
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 2

25. Which flag means ? "I am on fire and have dangerous cargo on board, keep
well clear of me?'

A. Flag 2
B. Flag 3
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 1

26. Which flag means? "I have a pilot on board."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 3
C. Flag 2
D. Flag

27. Which flag means?"' am altering my course to port."

A. Flag 2
B. Flag 1
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 3

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28. Nhich flag means? "I require a pilot. When made byfishing vessels
operating in close proximity on the fishing grounds it means: I am hauling
nets."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 1

29. Which flag means? "My vessel is stopped and making no way through the
water."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 2
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 1

30. Which flag means? "Man overboard."

A. Flag 2
B. Flag 3
C. Flag 4
D. Flag 1

31. Which flag means? "In harbour. All persons should report on board as the
vessel is about to proceed to sea. At sea, it may be used by fishing
vessels to mean: My nets have come fast upon an obstruction."

A. Flag 4
B. Flag I
C. Flag 3

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D. Flag 2

32. Which flag means?"' am dragging my anchor."

A. Flag 2
B. Flag 4
C. Flag 3
D. Flag 1

33. Which flag means? "I require a medical assistance."

A. Flag 3
B. Flag 4
C. Flag 2
D. Flag 1

34. Which flag means? "No ( negative )."

A. Flag 2
B. Flag 4
C. Flag 1
D. Flag 3

35. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Charlie
B. Juliet
C. Lima
D. Uniform

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36. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Foxtrot
B. Charlie
C. Golf
D. Delta

37. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Hotel
B. Kilo
C. Echo
D. Tango

38. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Charlie
B. Foxtrot
C. Lima
D. Alfa

39. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Whisky
B. Golf
C. Papa
D. Yankee

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40. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Hotel
B. Juliet
C. Victor
D. Xray

41. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Zulu
B. Papa
C. India
D. Mike

42. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Lima
B. Juliet
C. Romeo
D. Bravo

43. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Oscar
B. Kilo
C. Quebec
D. Sierra

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44. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Echo
B. Hotel
C. Lima
D. Alfa

45. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Mike
B. Uniform
C. Whisky
D. Foxtrot

46. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?


A. November

B. Oscar
C. India
D. Golf

47. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Uniform
B. Papa
C. Yankee
D. Oscar

48. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Papa
B. Hotel
C. Alfa

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D. Juliet

49. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Quebec
B. Oscar
C. India
D. Victor

50. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Romeo
B. Zulu
C. Tango
D. Xray

51. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Whisky
B. Sierra
C. Lima
D. Papa

52. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Golf
B. Juliet
C. Tango
D. Hotel

53. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Uniform
B. Lima
C. November
D. Mike

477
54. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Yankee
B. Whisky
C. Mike
D. Victor

55. Mat is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Whisky
B. Echo
C. Elena
D. Charlie

56. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Oscar
B. Yankee
C. Yankee
D. Xray

57. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Echo
B. Oscar
C. Yankee
D. Foxtrot

58. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Lima
B. Foxtrot
C. Zulu

478
D. Uniform

59. Which flag group means "Vessel indicated is reported as requiring


assistance in lat..long..(or bearing. from lace indicated, distance..)." ?

A. A
B. D
C. C
D. B

60. Which flag group means "Do not pass too close to me." ?

A. A
B. D
C. B
D. C

61. Mich flag group means You should proceed at slow speed when passing me
or vessels making this signal." ?

A. A
B. B
C. D
D. C

62. Which flag group means "I require health clearance" ?

A. A
B. C
C. B
D. D

479
63. Nhich flag group means Interrogative or the significance of the previous
group should be read as a question" ?

A. D
B. A
C. B
D. C

64. Which flag group means "Light vessel out of position" ?

A. C
B. D
C. A
D. B

65. Which flag group means I is it not safe to fire a rocker?

A. B
B. C
C. A
D. D

66. Which flag group means " You appear not to be complying with the traffic
separation scheme ?

A. D
B. B
C. A
D. C

480
67. Which flag group means "I am ( or vessel indicated is ) in charge or
coordinating a search" ?

A. C
B. A
C. D
D. B

68. Which flag group means "Look-out for a rocket-line" ?

A. A
B. D
C. B
D. C

69. Which flag group means "I am going to communicate with your station by
means of the International Code of Signals"

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

70. Which flag group means "I am in distress and require immediate assistance
?

A. D
B. B
C. C
D. A

481
71. Which flag group means "You should proceed with great caution;
Submarines are exercising in this area" ?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

72. Which flag group means "The groups which follow are from the
International Code of Signals"?

A. D
B. B
C. C
D. A

73. Which flag group means "I am calibrating radio direction finder or adjusting
compasses" ?

A. A
B. C
C. D
D. B

482
74. Which flag group means "The words which follow are in plain language ?

A. A
B. D
C. B
D. C

75. Which flag group means Have you a doctor " ?

A. C
B. B
C. A
D. D

76. Which flag group means "What is the name or identity signal of your
vessel" ?

A. A
B. C
C. B
D. D

77. Mich flag group means "I am engaged in submarine survey work (
underwater operations }. Keep well clear of me at slow speed." ?

A. B
B. A
C. C
D. D

483
78. Which flag group means "I wish to communicate with you by VHF channel
16" ?

A. D
B. B
C. C
D. A

79. Which flag group means "You should keep away from me or the vessel
indicated" ?

A. D
B. A
C. B
D. C

80. In what operations would a ship showing this flag be engaged ?

A. Escorting a submerged submarine


B. Diving operations
C. Minesweeping
D. Fishing with purse seine gear

81. What type of vessel is this?

A. A trawler
B. Any type of fishing vessel
C. A vessel at anchor
D. A vessel not under command

484
82. What sort of vessel would display this day signal ?

A. A sailing vessel which is aground


B. A vessel engaged in underwater
demolition work
C. A vessel which is in distress and
requesting assistance
D. A fishing vessel with gear fast to
a rock and at anchor

83. What type of vessel shows these shapes?

A. A tug and tow


B. A vessel restricted in ability to
manoeuvre
C. A vessel not under command
D. A tug and tow where the length of
tow exceeds 200m

84. Which is the correct day signal for a vessel engaged in hydrographic
surveying ?

A. Day signal A
B. Day signal D
C. Day signal B
D. Day signal C

485
9. Manoeuvre the ship (Mengolah gerak kapal)

1. A balanced rudder has some of the rudder area forward of the rudder
axis. About how much area should this be to call it a balanced rudder?

A. It should be about 20%


B. It should be about 50%
C. It should be about 5%
D. It should be about 55%

2. A ship is equipped with a right-handed fixed pitch propeller, which when


going from Full Ahead to Full Astern will make the ship sheer to
starboard. Can anything be done to reduce this change in heading?

A. The rudder can be put to Hard to Port to reduce the water flow to
the right side of the propeller
B. The rudder should be kept amidships when going astern and there
is little that can be done to reduce the swing to starboard
C. The rudder should be put Hard to Port to reduce the water flow to
the left side of the propeller
D. The rudder can be put from side to side in a "Rudder Cycling"
movement.

486
3. A ship is passing through a narrow channel and keeping to the starboard
side of the fairway, as illustrated. What could be expected in this
situation?

A. The ship will suffer bank rejection and the bow will be pushed
away from the bank
B. The ship will suffer ship to shore interaction and the bow will be
sucked towards the bank
C. The ship will be sucked towards the bank and the stern will be
pushed away due to ship-to-shore interaction.
D. The ship's rudder will suffer a lack of effectiveness due to the
shallow water, but should not be affected by the bank being close to
the bow.
4. A ship is steaming at "Full Ahead" when the engines are changed to "Full
Astern". Would this reversal of engines produce the same results in deep
water as in shallow water (where the under keel clearance is equal to
about half the draught)?

A. The effectiveness of the rudder and propeller are greatly reduced


and therefore the results will be considerably different
B. The speed will reduce quickly and the transverse thrust will swing
the ships head to starboard as the ship slows down.
C. The reduction in speed and turning effects will vary very little
between deep and shallow water.
D. The shallow water will produce an increase in water velocity and a
reduction in pressure.

487
5. A ship normally turns (swings) around a point which is not the centre of
gravity. What is this point normally called?

A. Pivot Point
B. Centre of Floatation
C. Centre of Turn
D. Centre of Buoyancy

6. A ship turns around a point known as the "pivot point". Where is the
position of this invisible point when the ship is stopped and "dead" in the
water?

A. At about same position as the centre of gravity of the ship


B. About one third the ship's length near the stern of the ship
C. At the Centre of Flotation of the ship
D. About one third of the ship's length near the bow

488
7. A tug is moving towards the bow of the ship to make fast and is in the
vicinity of the ship's shoulder, as illustrated. What specific danger should
be considered when making this approach to the bow?

A. The tug may be turned across the bow of the ship and also suffer a
lose of stability with a danger of being turned over if touched by
the ship
B. The positive pressure field at the ships bow may repel the tug and
make the connection very difficult to establish
C. The stern of the tug may be sucked in towards the bow and also
suffer a reduction in the positive GM, making it very unstable.
D. All of the alternative answers

8. How can the effects of Squat be minimized, when a ship is proceeding in


shallow water?

A. Maintain a slow speed just sufficient to maintain steerage


B. Maintain a speed of about six (6) knots and use minimal rudder
when manoeuvring
C. Decrease the speed and keep the ship to the centre of the channel
where the water is probably deepest
D. Enter the shallow water with a stern trim and proceed at a moderate
speed.

489
9. If a ship requires 2 nautical miles to stop in the water from a "crash stop"
when proceeding at full ahead in deep water. What will the stopping
distance be in shallow water?

A. A greater distance
B. A shorter distance
C. Similar distance to deep water
D. About 1.5 nautical miles

10. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AIR
DRAUGHT" given. Which one is the correct one?

A. Air draught is given by C on the figure


B. Air draught is given by B on the figure
C. Air draught is given by A on the figure
D. Air draught is given by D on the figure
11. Ships vary considerably in design and underwater shape, but does
the ship's trim ever have any influence on its steering abilities?

A. Yes, the ship often steers better if trimmed by the stern


B. No, the ship will have the same steering ability and is unaffected by
trim
C. Yes, a ship often steers better if trimmed by the bow
D. Yes, it is usually best to be on an even keel and have no trim at all

490
12. The engines are going astern and the ship is making sternway of
about 1.5 knots with the rudder hard to starboard. What effect will this
have on the ship's progress?

A. This will give the stern a lift force to starboard


B. The rudder will have no effect when the ship is making sternway, it
should be in the amidships position when going astern
C. This will give the stern a lift force to port
D. There will be no lift force and the ship will go straight astern

13. The maximum rudder angle on your ship is 35 degrees. Do you think
this is the angle that the rudder is most effective?

A. No, the most effective rudder angle is about 25 to 30 degrees, this


is because the rudder is "stalling" at 35 degrees angle
B. No, the rudder is most effective at angles between 10 and 20
degrees
C. Yes, the rudder is most effective at max angle
D. No, the rudder is most effective at small rudder angles

491
14. The rudder is in the hard over position with the propeller stopped
and the ship turning slowly. On a ship with a single fixed pitch right
handed propeller and no thrusters, what can be done to make the ship
increase the speed of turn without significantly increasing the forward
speed of the ship?

A. Give the engines a short kick ahead


B. Give full astern on the engines until ship has stopped and then full
ahead on the engines with rudder hard over
C. Give dead slow ahead on the engines and leave the rudder in the
hard over position.
D. Give half astern on the engines as this will increase the rate of turn
15. The ship has a right-handed propeller and is swinging to starboard
when the engines are slow ahead and the rudder is to starboard. The
engines are stopped and the rate of swing rapidly slows down. How could
the swing to starboard be maintained without the ship making much
headway.

A. Astern on the engines will allow Transverse Thrust to continue the


swing
B. By applying the rudder hard over to starboard and going ahead on
the engines.
C. Transverse Thrust will reduce the swing and therefore a kick ahead
is necessary with full starboard helm applied.
D. The only effective method is by using the bow thruster to push the
bow to starboard.
492
16. The ship has completed a 360 degree turn at full speed in deep
water. The ship is now to repeat the turn at full speed in shallow water.
What will be the difference in the turning circle diameter?

A. The turning diameter will be increased in shallow water


B. The turning diameter will be smaller in shallow water
C. The turning diameter will be the same for all depths
D. It will be the same provided the UKC is 25%-50%

17. The ship is required to be stopped in the water as quickly as


possible, but without major changes to the ship's heading. What is the
most effective method to achieve this?

A. The use of the rudder hard over both sides combined with reducing
engine power, a method known as "high frequency rudder cycling"
B. Put the engine full astern and keep the rudder amidships
C. Make a complete turn while reducing the engine power.
D. Make a zig zag manoeuvre while reducing the engine power.

493
18. The ship is sailing in shallow water with reduced Under Keel
Clearance. If the ship is steaming with the engines at full RPM, what
would be the speed in comparison to the speed achieved in deep water?

A. Slower than deep water


B. Faster than deep water
C. The same as deep water
D. It would be very difficult to maintain full deep sea RPM on the
engines and therefore difficult to assess the speed.

19. The ship is starting to slow down after steaming at full ahead speed.
What will happen to the position of the "pivot point"?

A. It will move aft as the ship slows down


B. Same position as when the ship is steaming at full speed ahead
C. The "pivot point" will move towards the bow of the ship
D. It will move to the side of the centre line

494
20. The ship is steaming at Full Ahead when the engines are reversed to
"Full Astern" to stop the ship. The ship has a single, right-handed fixed
pitch propeller. What would be the anticipated reaction of the ship, if
there is no wind or current?

A. The ship will probably sheer to starboard and gradually lose


headway
B. The ship will probably continue on a straight course, but lose
forward speed.
C. It is unpredictable and could be any of the other alternative
answers.
D. The ship will probably sheer to port and gradually lose headway.

21. The ship is to berth alongside a quay in calm conditions of no wind


or current. The ship has a single fixed pitch right handed propeller.
Which angle of approach would be considered the most favourable?

A. No. 2
B. No. 1
C. No. 3
D. The decision should be left to the pilot who is in charge of the
manoeuvre.

495
22. The ship's engine is going astern and the ship is picking up sternway.
The rudder is amidships and the ship has a single, right-handed, fixed
pitch propeller. What would be expected to happen?

A. The ship will probably start to change heading to starboard and


stern speed will increase
B. The ship will probably start to change heading to port and stern
speed will increase
C. The ship will probably go straight astern without a change in
heading and the stern speed will increase
D. The ship will move astern at an increasing speed and the stern start
to swing off to starboard

23. The ship's rudder is full over when the ship's engines are full ahead.
Will the turning effect (lift force) of the rudder be changed when the
engine is stopped?

A. Yes, the lift force will be dramatically reduced when the engines
are stopped
B. Yes, the Lift or turning force will be reduced to about 50% of the
original lift force when the engines are stopped
C. No, the turning force applied by the rudder will be maintained
within about 90% of the lift force when going full ahead
D. No, the lift force is unaffected by the speed of the propeller

496
24. The vessel is in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If the
engine speed is reduced during the turn, will there be any change in the
turning diameter?

A. Yes, the turning diameter will increase if the speed is reduced.


B. Yes, the turning diameter will be smaller if the speed is reduced.
C. No, the turning diameter will not change if the speed is reduced.
D. No, the turning diameter will only change if the rudder angle is
reduced

25. Two ships are meeting in a restricted channel as illustrated. Which


of the following actions would be the most suitable to take on both
vessels as they approach and pass each other?

A. Slow down if possible without losing steerage and be prepared for


prompt application of rudder to counteract any swing as they
approach and pass each other.
B. Maintain speed and a straight course on the starboard side of the
channel
C. Keep as far as possible on the starboard side of the channel and
maintain speed to retain effective steerage.
D. Increase speed slightly to pass each other as quickly as possible and
thereby reduce the effects of "ship to ship" interaction.

497
26. Two ships travelling in opposite directions are to pass each other in a
narrow river, as illustrated. Explain what is likely to happen as they pass
each other?

A. Due to interaction, the bows will repel each other, and then when
alongside each other the two ships will be sucked together and
finally the sterns will be repelled as they start to pass clear
B. Due to interaction, the bows will attract each other as they
approach, then they will repel each other alongside and as they pass
clear, the sterns will be attracted.
C. As they approach, rudder should be applied quickly to avoid
sheering into the path of each other. Then as they are alongside
they will be attracted and finally repel each other as they pass clear.
D. There will be very little effect between the two ships as they pass.

27. Two vessels are meeting each other in confined waters. What would
be the effects of interaction between the two vessels as they approach
each other?

A. The bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other
B. The bows of the ships will be sucked together
C. Each vessel will experience an increase in speed
D. There will be no effects in these circumstances

498
28. What depth of water would be considered as "Shallow Water" in
relationship to a change of the ships manoeuvring characteristics?

A. When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than 50% of the draught
of the ship
B. When the "Under Keel Clearance" is equal to the draught of the
ship
C. When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than 15% of the draught
of the ship.
D. When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than a quarter of the
draught of the ship.

29. What is the correct understanding of the term "a ship with good
Directional Stability"?

A. A ship which when the rudder is left amidships, it will continue on


approximately a straight course
B. A ship which will maintain its course unless large rudder angles are
applied.
C. A ship which when a rudder angle is applied and the ship starts to
swing, will continue to swing even after the rudder is returned to
amidships
D. A ship where the amount of positive transverse stability (GM) will
vary with the direction of the ship's head.

499
30. What is the correct understanding of the term "bank effect"? If a ship
was approaching the bank at an angle, what would be the effect on the
ship?

A. The vessel's bow is pushed away from the bank


B. The vessel's stern is pushed away from the bank
C. The vessels bow is attracted by the bank.
D. The whole vessel would continue straight towards the bank and
would require a large helm order to avoid going aground.

31. What would be the correct definition of the term "Squat"?

A. Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance and the possible


change of trim of a ship when it moves through shallow water due
to a reduction in water pressure.
B. Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance of a ship when it
moves through shallow water due to a reduction in water pressure.
C. Squat is the loss of effectiveness of the rudder and propeller as a
ship moves through shallow water due to the reduction of water
pressure.
D. Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance due to increase of
water flow under the keel and an increase in the water pressure

500
32. What would be the effects of a ship passing into shallow water?

A. The ship is less responsive to both rudder and propeller.


B. There is no noticeable difference in performance of the ship
C. The speed is not affected, but more rudder is required to steer the
ship
D. The vessel has a tendency to swing to port with a single fixed-pitch
right-hand turning propeller.

33. When a ship is lying at anchor in a tidal area using both forward
anchors, to what particular aspect should the officer of the watch be
paying special attention?

A. When the ship swings to the tide the direction of swing should be
controlled to avoid the anchor cables becoming wrapped round
each other.
B. The tension on both cables should be similar, to avoid one dragging
and all the weight of the ship remaining on the other anchor only.
C. The two anchors will restrict the ships swing with the tide and the
ship may not lie to the prevailing current and wind
D. The ship will become controlled by the tide and the wind will not
be allowed to have any effect on the direction the ship lies at
anchor.

501
34. Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located when the
ship is proceeding at full speed ahead and there is no wind or current?

A. At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the bow


B. At amidships
C. At a position near the stern of the ship
D. At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the stern

35. Which of the following answers correctly specify the following most
common rudders? a) UNBALANCED, b) BALANCED, c) SEMI-
BALANCED and d) UNDERHUNG BALANCED. i.e. The number in
the picture is related to the letter adjacent to the name of the rudder.

A. 1 = a, 2 = b, 3 = c and 4 = d
B. 1 = b, 2 = c, 3 = d and 4 = a
C. 1 = c, 2 = d, 3 = a and 4 = b
D. 1 = d, 2 = a, 3 = b and 4 = c

502
36. Which of the following hull shapes would normally provide a
directionally stable ship?

A. A long ship with a narrow beam.


B. A short ship with a narrow beam
C. A short ship with a wide beam
D. A long ship with a wide beam
37. Which type of vessel suffers from the greatest squat effects?

A. Vessel with a high Block Coefficient


B. Vessel with a low Block Coefficient
C. Vessel with a large length to beam ratio
D. Vessel with a small length to beam ratio.
38. Who is responsible for the number and the position of any tugs to be
used during a mooring operation?

A. The Master, with consideration of the advice of the pilot


B. The Pilot is fully responsible for the number and use of tugs within
the port area
C. It will be only the wind speed that will determine the required
number of tugs and how they are used.
D. The Port Authority will dictate the tug requirements and their use
within the port limits
503
39. You are sailing in shallow water with a 15% Under Keel Clearance.
Turning the ship around, what space do you need compared to deep
water?

A. Need more space than normal


B. Need less space than normal
C. The turning diameter of your ship is the same for all water depths
D. To port less, to starboard more space

40. In the above diagram of a ship's turning circle the distance A is


known as:

A. Tactical Diameter
B. Stopping Distance
C. Advance
D. Transfer

504
41. In the above diagram of a ship's turning circte the distance 8 is
known as

A. Diameter of the turn


B. Transfer
C. Radius of the turn
D. Tactical Diameter

42. In the above diagram of a ship's turning circle point C is known as:

A. Heading Point
B. The Foremast
C. The Pivot Point
D. Centre of Flotation

43. The position of the pivot point when making Sternway is


approximately:
A. Amidships
B. One eight of the length of the ship from the stern
C. One quarter of the length of the ship from the bow
D. One quarter of the length of the ship from the stern

505
44. When a single screw ship with a right handed propeller is stopped in
the water and the engine is put half ahead, transverse thrust effect will:
A. Swing the stern to starboard and the bow to port
B. Swing the stern to port and the bow to starboard
C. Have no noticeable effect
D. Swing the bow and stern to starboard

45. The graph represents the decrease of speed, against time, on a


100,000 deadweight tanker which was proceeding at full speed of 13.3
knots and at minute 0 the engine was stopped. Is the decrease in speed
ore likely to be:

A. Series 2
B. None of the other options
C. Series 1
D. Series 3

46. Your ship is on a course of 240 True. A person has fallen overboard
on the port side and after letting go smoke and light floats, in order to
carry out a Williamson Turn would you:
A. go hard to port until you are heading 180 True, then hard to
starboard until you are on 060 True
B. go hard to starboard until you are heading 300 True, then hard to
port until you are on 060 True
C. go hard to starboard to 285 True, then hard to port until you are on
060 True
D. go hard to port until you are heading 195 True, then hard to
starboard until you are on 060 True
506
47. A ship is being turned short round in a tidal stream that is running at
three knots. If turning short round in still water normally takes 12
minutes, what allowance,should be made for the drift of the ship during
the turn?
A. 12 cables
B. no allowance
C. 3 cables
D. 6 cables

48. In a narrow canal, a ship proceeding at half speed ahead swings


towards the port bank of the channel. As the bow approaches the bank,
would it initially:
A. be first pulled towards the bank, then rejected away
B. be pulled towards the bank by bank suction
C. be unaffected
D. be rejected away from the bank by the pressure

49. When operating with conventional screw tugs, what is the function
of the "Gob" or "Gog" rope:
A. to improve the bollard pull of the tug
B. to secure the tug to the ship
C. to prevent "girting"
D. to keep the tug at the correct place on the ship's side when pushing

507
50. In the diagram B represents the start of a turning circle of power
driven ship in deep water with 20 degrees starboard rudder. If the ship
was in shallow water would the turning circle with the same rudder angle
be:

A. B
B. None of the other options
C. C
D. A

51. What is "ship squat"?


A. A slight increase in underkeel clearance
B. A requirement for ships proceeding up river under low bridges
C. The sinkage and change of trim caused when the ship is proceeding
with a small underkeel clearance
D. Deeper draft caused by operating in fresh rather than salt water

52. What is the maximum ship speed over the ground recommended for
anchoring a 250,000 deadweight VLCC or similar sized ship?
A. 1knot
B. 0.5 knot
C. 1.5 knots
D. 0.25 knot

508
53. Most large tankers in order to remain safely moored alongside the
berth uses wire ropes fitted on winches. If required extra mooring lines,
would a mixture of wires & full-length synthetic fibre ropes be
appropriate?
A. Yes, because the extra fibre ropes are easier to handle
B. Yes, because the fibre ropes are more flexible and complement the
wires, adding to the overall effectiveness of the mooring
C. No, because most fibre ropes of the required breaking strain are
large and difficult to handle
D. No, because the wires would take most of the strain and the fibre
ropes practically none

54. A tug is connected by a line at your bow. Will the bollard pull be the
same at any speed? Choose the most complete answer.
A. No, best use of a tug is made when the ship is going sternway.
B. No, when the speed exceeds 5 knots the tug will not be of much
help.
C. No, when the speed is increasing, the bollard is also increasing.
D. Yes, the bollard is the same at any speed.

55. A ship turns around a point called the pivot point. What is the
position of this point when the ship is going astern ?
A. At about 1/4 of ship's length from the stem.
B. At the stern.
C. At about 1/4 of ship's length from the stern.
D. At the midships.

56. The rudder is hard over, engine full ahead in shallow water. How
much rudder lift force remains when the engine is stopped ?
A. About 50%
B. About 5%
C. About 10%.
D. About 80%.

509
57. Your ship is equipped with a single right-handed fixed propeller.
While steaming full ahead you reverse the engine to stop the ship. How
will the ship react?
A. You will stop on 1.5 times the ship's length.
B. You will sheer to port and stop rather quickly.
C. You will sheer to starboard and gradually lose headway.
D. You will continue on a straight course.

58. You are performing an overtaking manoeuvre in confined waters.


What should you watch out for?
A. The stern may be pulled towards and the bow may be pushed away
from the other ship as you pass.
B. The change in speed of the other ship.
C. The bow may be pulled towards and the stern may be pushed away
from the other ship as you pass.
D. The change in your underkeel clearance.

59. How is shallow water effect felt by a vessel ?


A. The vessel responds very quickly to the rudder.
B. The vessel has a tendency to turn to port (for a right turning
propeller).
C. The vessel becomes sluggish in responding to the rudder.
D. The vessel has a tendency to turn to starboard (for a left turning
propeller).

60. Overshoot is an expression used when talking about a ship's steering


ability. What does this mean?
A. It is the way a ship turns when the helm is put to the hard over
position.
B. It is the way a ship responds when moving the helm from hard to
port to hard to starboard.
C. It is the way a ship continues to turn when the helm is put
amidship.
D. It is the way a ship continues to turn after counter-rudder is applied
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61. The rudder is hard over, engine full ahead in deep water. How much
rudder lift force remains when the engine is stopped ?
A. About 80%.
B. About 20%.
C. About 5%.
D. About 50%
62. The rudder is in the hard over position, propeller stopped. The ship
is turning slowly. What can be done to make her turn faster without
increasing forward speed ?
A. Give full astern until the ship has stopped, then full ahead again
with the rudder hard over.
B. Give slow ahead.
C. Give half astern.
D. Give a kick ahead.
63. our ship is making sternway of about 1.5 knots, with rudder hard to
starboard. Will this rudder position ave any effect on the ship's behaviour
? Choose the most complete answer.
A. No, the ship will go straight astern.
B. No, the rudder will have no effect when the ship is making
sternway, it should be in midship position when going astern.
C. Yes, it will give the stern a lift force to port.
D. Yes, it will give the stern a lift force to starboard.

64. The maximum rudder angle on your ship is 35 degrees. Is the rudder
most effective at this angle ? Choose the most complete answer.
A. No, the most effective rudder angle is about 25 to 30 degrees,
because the rudder is stalling at 35 degrees angle.
B. No, the rudder is most effective at small rudder angles, because
drag is minimised.
C. No, the rudder angle is most effective at angles between 10 and 20
degrees, because water flow over the rudder is strongest.
D. Yes, the rudder is most effective at maximum angle, because water
flow over the rudder is strongest.
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65. You have made a turning test at full speed in deep water. You are
now going to make one with initial speed, 'low ahead. Do you think the
diameter will differ from that of initial full ahead?
A. Yes, it will be much smaller with stow ahead.
B. The diameter will be the same whatever initial speed we have when
starting the turn.
C. Yes, there will be a large difference in the turning diameter
between full and slow ahead.
D. Yes, it will be much greater with slow ahead.

66. Overshoot is an expression used when talking about a ship's steering


ability. How can overshoot be determined ?
A. Do a 360 degrees turning circle.
B. Do a 20/20 degree zigzag manoeuvre.
C. Do a standing turn.
D. Do a 540 degrees turning circle.

67. You are in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If you reduce
speed while in the turn, how will the turning diameter change ?
A. The turning diameter will become smaller.
B. The turning diameter will increase.
C. The turning diameter will not change.
D. The change will depend on rudder angle.

68. Does a ship's trim influence her steering abilities ?


A. No, a ship will have the same steering ability unaffected by trim.
B. No, it is usually best to have no trim at all.
C. Yes, a ship usually steers better if trimmed by bow.
D. Yes, a ship usually steers better if trimmed by stern.

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69. Which of the following is the simplest method of fixing a ship's
position?
A. Visual bearings of terrestrial marks.
B. Horizontal sextant angles.
C. Radar range and bearing.
D. Celestial observation
70. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is the best for
your vessel to maintain during this operation?

A. The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots.


B. A tug may be connected at any convenient speed.
C. The speed should be more than 7 knots.
D. Stop the vessel completely before connecting.

71. What shape of a hull would you say a course unstable ship would
have?
A. A length to beam ratio less than 5.5
B. A long, slim hull.
C. A length to beam ratio greater than 5.5
D. A length to beam ratio less than 7
72. You are going to leave a crowded anchorage by making a 180
degrees turn. You ship has a right handed propeller and you can turn
either way. How can you make the turn using as little space as possible ?
A. Full ahead, rudder hard to port.
B. Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard.
C. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After you gain some sternway,
rudder hard to starboard and full ahead.
D. Rudder hard to starboard, full ahead. Rudder hard to port, full
astern. Repeating this maneuver until you have made he turn.

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73. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force
and a drag force. When the ship has to turn, how much lift force remains
if the rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from the hard over position
?
A. About 50%.
B. About 30%.
C. About 10%.
D. About 80%.

74. In ship handling terms, what is meant by "sinkage" ?


A. Sinkage is the extra draft a vessel experienced when comparatively
heavily loaded both ends.
B. Sinkage is the deepest draft a vessel obtains aft when moving
through the water.
C. Sinkage is the change of draft experienced when moving through
water.
D. Sinkage is the extra draft a vessel experienced when comparatively
heavily loaded amidship.

75. In which of these vessel types is "sinkage' likely to be most


pronounced ?
A. A vessel with a high block coefficient.
B. A vessel with a very wide beam compared to length.
C. A supply or anchor handling vessel.
D. A cargo liner.

76. How is bank effect felt by a vessel ?


A. The vessel's stern is pushed away from the nearest bank.
B. The whole vessel is drawn in parallel to the nearest bank.
C. The vessel's bow is pushed away from the nearest bank.
D. The whole vessel is pushed away parallel to the nearest bank.

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77. Your ship is equipped with a right handed propeller. As you go full
astern from full ahead, the ship is sheering to the starboard. Is there
anything you can do to reduce the change in heading?
A. I can swing the rudder from side to side.
B. Put the rudder hard to port.
C. Put the rudder hard to starboard.
D. No

78. You are meeting another ship in the confined waters. What can
happen as the ships approach each other ?
A. There will be no effect.
B. Initially the bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other.
C. Initially the bows of the ships will be pulled together.
D. Both vessels will be affected by squat.

79. In ship handling terms, what of these overtaking situations is the


most dangerous ?
A. A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with a big difference in
speed between the two vessels.
B. A small vessel overtaking a large vessel with little difference in
speed between the two vessels.
C. A small vessel overtaking a large vessel with a big difference in
speed between the two vessels.
D. A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with little difference in
speed between the two vessels.

80. You have made a turning circle at full speed in deep water. If you
repeat this in shallow water, what will the turning diameter be ?
A. The turning diameter will be increased in shallow water.
B. The turning diameter will be smaller in shallow water.
C. The turning diameter will be the same.
D. It will be the same provided the underkeel clearance is between 25
and 50%.

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81. You are on ship A. What would you do before meeting ship B ?
A. Increase the speed to 8 knots.
B. Put the engine to full astern.
C. Increase speed to full ahead.
D. Stop the engine before meeting and apply engine while meeting/
82. In which of these vessel types is "squat" likely to be most
pronounced ?

A. A vessel with a high block coefficient.


B. A cargo liner.
C. A supply or anchor handling vessel.
D. A vessel with a very wide beam compared to length.

83. With tugs in this position, how would you distribute their power to
moue the ship sideways without yaw?
A. Equal power on both tugs.
B. Full power on the forward tug, the stern tug should hold back.
C. Full power on the forward tug, reduce on the aft tug while checking
the gyro.
D. Full power on the aft tug, stop on the forward tug.

84. You are on a loaded VLCC in shallow water. Is it necessary to keep


speed on the ship in order for her to steer well?
A. Yes, VLCC's steer poorly on low speed in shallow water.
B. Yes, it is necessary to keep a high speed on the ship to steer well.
C. No, it is best to reduce to half ahead for the ship to steer ell.
D. No, VLCC's usually steer better in shallow water on a lower speed
than other ships.

85. How should you minimize the squat effect ?


A. Decrease the speed.
B. Do a zig-zag manoeuvre and reduce the speed.
C. Increase the speed.
D. Transfer ballast to change the ship's trim.
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86. In relation to the squat effect, which of the following statements is
incorrect ?
A. Squat results in a decrease in underkeel clearance.
B. Squat can be a serious problem for deep draft ships.
C. Squat results in an increase in ship's draft.
D. Squat results in a decrease in ship's draft.

87. You are transiting a narrow channel. What can happen in this
situation ?
A. The stern could be pushed away from the bank.
B. The bow could be pulled towards the bank.
C. The stern could be pulled towards the river bank.
D. The bow could be pushed away from the bank.

88. Your ship is operating with a right handed propeller and no thrusters.
What can you do to control your ship in this situation ?
A. Increase the speed.
B. Let go starboard anchor 1 - 1.5 shackles .
C. Let go port anchor 1 -1.5 shackles.
D. Give hard starboard rudder.

89. A vessel's position is best plotted by bearings from


A. fixed known objects on the shore.
B. the radar of the nearest land.
C. the radio direction finder.
D. buoys close at hand.

90. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation, which of the following


should always be considered?
A. The buoy is nearly always well anchored and can be considered to
be in its charted position.
B. The buoy may not be in its charted position.
C. If the light is showing its correct characteristic it is in its right
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position.
D. If no radio navigation warning has been issued concerning the
buoy, it can be assumed to be in its correct position.
91. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15 To underkeel clearance.
Coming full astern from full ahead , how will your course change
compared with deep water ?

A. Large change at first then changing slightly.


B. The heading will not change.
C. The heading will change only slightly.
D. The heading will most likely change by a large amount.

92. What would you say about a ship which is course unstable ?
A. She will require large rudder angles to maintain course.
B. When you apply rudder, she will take time before answering.
C. When you apply rudder, she will continue to turn long after the
rudder is returned to amidships.
D. When you put rudder amidships, she will quickly return to a
straight course.
93. You want to stop your ship as quickly as possible without too much
change in the heading. What can you do to achieve this?
A. Make a complete turning circle.
B. Put the engines full astern.
C. Do a zigzag manoeuvre.
D. Use the rudder hard over both sides while reducing engine speed.

94. What shape of hull does a course stable ship usually have?
A. A long, slim hull.
B. A shod, wide hull.
C. A long, wide hull.
D. A shod, slim hull.

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95. A ship turns around a point called the 'pivot point". What is the
position of this point when the ship is stopped in the water ?
A. At the ship's centre of gravity.
B. Outside of the ship's centre line.
C. Near the ship's stern.
D. Near the ship's bow.

96. What will be the stopping distance of your ship when proceeding
with 8 knots and reversing to full astern?
A. 2000m.
B. Check the information posted on the bridge.
C. 800m.
D. 8 ship lengths.

97. You are drifting with a loaded VLCC in open sea. Can you do
anything to change your direction and rate of drift ?
A. No.
B. You can apply rudder.
C. You can change the angle of heel.
D. You can trim the ship by the stem.

98. You are on a VLCC and are approaching shallow water with an
underkeel clearance of 15%. What speed should you have when entering
and when should you slow down ?
A. About 6-7 knots, slow down 30 minutes before entering.
B. About 10 knots, slow down 15 minutes before entering.
C. Reduce to slow or less in due time before entering.
D. Maintain normal sea-speed, no need to slow down.

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99. You are on a power driven vessel when you suddenly run into a fog
bank. What action would you take ?
A. Call the master and wait for him to arrive before taking any action.
B. Reduce speed to slow ahead and call the master.
C. As the radar is clear, proceed as normal for the time being as the
fog may lift up.
D. Commence sounding the fog signals, call a lookout and call the
master.

100. What is most noticeable about a ship with good course keeping
stability ?
A. She will maintain course until large rudder angles are applied.
B. When you apply rudder, she will take time before answering.
C. When you apply rudder, she will continue to turn for sometime
after the rudder is put amidships.
D. When you put rudder amidships, she will quickly return to a
straight course.

101. When will we notice the effect of shallow water?


A. When your underkeel clearance is 50% or less.
B. When your underkeel clearance is 10% or less.
C. When your underkeel clearance is 15% or less.
D. When your underkeel clearance is 75% or less.

102. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15 % underkeel clearance.


How will your stopping distance and turning circle change compared
with deep water ?
A. Stopping distance & turning circle will remain the same.
B. Stopping distance shorter & turning circle smaller.
C. Stopping distance longer & turning circle larger.
D. Stopping distance same & turning circle larger.

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103. In which direction will the bow of a vessel move, with a single fixed
pitch right-handed propeller which is turning astern ?
A. Forwards
B. Backwards.
C. To starboard.
D. To port.

104. You are in the confined waters. Is there any danger in this situation
if you should loose engine power ?
A. You will drift to port but rather slowly.
B. You will sheer to starboard rather quickly with possible
consequence of grounding.
C. You will loose headway, but there should be no immediate danger.
D. You will sheer to port.

105. Your engine is going astern and you pickup sternway. The rudder is
midships and you are operating on a single, right-handed fixed screw.
How will your ship react?
A. You will go straight astern.
B. You will change heading to starboard.
C. Your stern will be pushed to starboard.
D. You will change heading to port.

106. A ship turns around a point called the pivot point. What is the
position of this point when the ship is at full sea speed ?
A. At about 1/4 of the ship's length from the stern.
B. Amidships.
C. At the stern.
D. At about 1/4 of the ship's length from the bow.

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107. You are berthed with a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots. This
wind suddenly increases to 60 knots. When this happens, the force
pushing the vessel off the berth will be ..
A. Quadrupled.
B. Tripled.
C. Doubled.
D. Quintipled.

108. Which of these is NOT a synthetic fibre ?


A. Propylene.
B. Nylon
C. Polythene
D. Polypropylene

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10. Monitor the loading, stowage, securing, care during the voyage and the
unloading (Memantau kegiatan pemuatan, penyusunan, pengikatan dan
pemeliharaan muatan selama pelayaran, dan pembongkaran muatan)

1. What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses.


A. Gnomonic
B. Routeing
C. Passage planning
D. Instructional

2. What is a chronometer used for? Indicating


A. LMT
B. SMT
C. GMT
D. CST

3. A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called?
A. Great circle
B. Latitude
C. Longitude
D. Small circle

4. If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour circle
passing through a heavenly body s called:
A. Local hour angle
B. Greenwich hour angle
C. Sidereal hour angle
D. Tight ascension

5. What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ?


A. The date line
B. Equator
C. Rhumb line
D. Greenwich meridian

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6. What is the angle of depression which the direction of sight to the visible
horizon makes with the plane of the true horizon called ?
A. dip
B. height of eye
C. index error
D. error of parallax

7. When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when :
A. at the equator
B. the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles
C. the course is ti-S
D. the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings

8. Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth?


A. Mesosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Ionosphere

9. What is the true shape of the earth?


A. a perfect sphere
B. rectangle
C. an oblate spheroid
D. square

10. The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called :
A. aphelion
B. perihelion
C. apogee
D. perigee

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11. What is the extent of zone zero?
A. from 0 deg to 7.5 deg E
B. from 7 deg E to 7 deg W from Greenwich
C. From 7.5 deg E to 7.5 deg W from Greenwich
D. From 0 deg to 7.5 deg W

12. The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called:
A. geographical mile
B. sea mile
C. none of the given options
D. statue mile

13. As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude?


A. Reduces
B. Remains constant
C. Always zero
D. Increases

14. Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called:
A. Observer's Principle vertical
B. Vertical circles
C. Observer's Prime vertical
D. Small circles

15. The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the:
A. solstical point
B. first point of aries
C. first point of libra
D. celestial pole

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16. To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp =
A. sin late x cos dec
B. sin dec x cos lat
C. sin lat x sec dec
D. sin dec x sec lat

17. Longitudinal zones of the earths surface, each 15deg in extent, measured
eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called:
A. Time zones
B. Zone time
C. Separation zones
D. Fixed zones

18. An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow


measurement of altitude of celestial bodies is called :
A. apparent horizon
B. sensible horizon
C. artificial horizon
D. visible horizon

19. the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the
earth contained between the observers zenith and the centre of the body is
called:
A. Attitude of the celestial body
B. Declination of the celestial body
C. True zenith distance of the celestial body
D. Calculated zenith distance

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20. If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct?
A. The vessel will after course frequently depending on her position and
bearing to destination
B. The vessel sails on the same course through out
C. The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the
intermediate course is
D. None of the other options

21. Right ascension is measured:


A. Westward from aries
B. Westward from Greenwich
C. Eastwards from aries
D. Wrestward from the observer

22. What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ
by 90 deg.?
A. Quadrature
B. Conjunction
C. Opposition
D. None of the given options

23. The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the
earth's surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's
sensible horizon is called?
A. Parallax in attitude
B. True attitude
C. Horizontal parallax of a celestial body.
D. Apparent altitude

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24. What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ?
A. 4 1/5 deg
B. 5 1/4 deg
C. 1 4/5 deg
D. 1 5/4 deg

25. Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are
called
A. both<Option 1> and C
B. celestial meridians
C. meridians
D. neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>

26. If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is:


A. multiplied
B. subtracted
C. there is no correction
D. added

27. What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a
constant rate equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the
ecliptic called?
A. Mean sun
B. True sun
C. Apparent sun
D. All of these.

28. What are planets which are closer to the sun called?
A. Inferior planets
B. Small planets
C. Large planets
D. Superior planets

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29. What type of motion do planets have around the sun?
A. retrograde
B. direct
C. southward
D. northward

30. Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time?


A. no
B. only for the period when the sun and moon are in conjunction
C. yes
D. only for the period when sun and moon are in opposition

31. A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun?
A. Superior planets
B. Small planets
C. Inferior planets
D. Large planets

32. What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages
called?
A. A minute
B. An hour
C. A day
D. A second

33. The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg.
below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when
the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called :
A. nautical twilight
B. civil twilight
C. astronomical twilight
D. sunrise

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34. Every day a star rises, sets, culminates:
A. 4 min later
B. 4 min. earlier
C. 10 min later
D. 40 min earlier

35. When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is
below the horizon, it is called:
A. sunrise
B. moon rise
C. sunset
D. twilight

36. In which case is augmentation necessary:


A. Sun
B. Stars
C. Moon
D. Planets

37. The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith
contained between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle
passing through that body when the body is on the observer's rational
horizon is
A. Amplitude
B. Horizontal sextant angle
C. Vertical sextant angle
D. Azimuth

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38. What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears
to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting
in the west called?
A. Diurnal motion
B. Diurnal inequality
C. Diurnal circle
D. Diurnal arc

39. The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg
around the earth is called?
A. Rotational period of the moon
B. Revolutionary period of the moon
C. Synodic period of the moon
D. Sidereal period of the moon

40. What is the diameter about which the earth rotates?


A. Axis
B. Prime meridian
C. None of the other options
D. Equator

41. What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from the
observer's meridian called?
A. Greenwich sidereal time
B. Local mean time
C. Local sidereal time
D. Greenwich apparent time

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42. What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of
the sun and the center of that body?
A. Elongation of a celestial body
B. Attitude of a celestial body
C. Horizontal parallax
D. parallax in attitude

43. Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called:


A. Isothermic line
B. Isobaric line
C. Isogonic line
D. isobathic line

44. When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the
three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be
A. in opposition
B. in Perihelion
C. in Aphelion
D. in conjunction

45. What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude
shortly before and after it has crossed the meridian?
A. Longitude by chronometer
B. Ex-meridian altitude
C. Intercept
D. Latitude by meridian altitude

46. The geographical mean between two latitudes is called:


A. Mean latitude
B. Middle latitude
C. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>
D. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>

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47. The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a
celestial body is called:
A. azimuth
B. true bearing
C. amplitude
D. relative bearing

48. The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called:
A. Datum
B. Calibration point
C. Date line
D. Danger line

49. How do planets moue when they are closer to the sun as compared to when
they are further away from the sun?
A. Do not moue
B. Constant rate
C. Faster
D. Slower

50. When is a body said to be circumpolar?


A. Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90
B. Observer's latitude & body's declination are of the same name.
C. Neither <Option 2> nor <Option 3>
D. Both <Option 2> and <Option 3>

51. How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W
at 0 deg?
A. partly curved and partly straight
B. straight
C. neither <option 1> nor <option 2>
D. curved

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52. To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply:
A. both <Option 2>and <Option 3>
B. sun
C. stars
D. coon

53. Latitude scale is obtained as:


A. long scale x cosec fat
B. long scale x cos lat
C. long. Scale x sec lat
D. long scale x sin lat

54. At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is
A. 23 deg
B. 12 deg
C. 0 deg
D. 23.5 deg

55. At the horizon, refraction:


A. Is moderate
B. Does not exist
C. Is maximum
D. Is minimum

56. Refraction correction must always be:


A. Divided
B. Added
C. Subtracted
D. Multiplie

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57. What is the interval in time between two successive meridian passages of
the true sun over the same meridian?
A. Mean solar day
B. Sidereal day
C. none of the other options
D. Apparent solar day

58. As height of eye increases, Dip:


A. increases
B. remains constant
C. doubles
D. decreases

59. Which of these is an inferior planet?


A. Mercury
B. Uranus
C. Jupiter
D. Saturn

60. What are the points where the moons orbit intersect the ecliptic called?
A. 1 st point of aries
B. 1 st point of libra
C. Nodes
D. Antinodes

61. How many time zones are there?


A. 36
B. 24
C. 48
D. 12

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62. At the horizon refraction is =
A. 0 min
B. 1min
C. 34 min
D. 16min

63. The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea is
called:
A. Observer's sensible horizon
B. None of the other options
C. Observer's visible horizon
D. Observer's rational horizon

64. What is the average distance of the sun from the earth?
A. 9,300 million miles
B. 930million miles
C. 93 million miles
D. 9.3 million miles

65. The Prime meridian is at:


A. 80 deg long
B. 90 deg long
C. 45 deg long
D. 0 deg long.
66. Augmentation at the horizon is
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.2
D. 0

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67. The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible
horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called:
A. ht of eye
B. Sextant altitude
C. dip
D. Apparent altituden

68. What is the maximum declination of the sun?


A. 26 deg N or S
B. 26 deg 23.7min N or S
C. 23 deg 26.7min N or S
D. 23 deg N or S

69. A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the terrestrial
poles is known as
A. latitude
B. equator
C. equinoxial
D. meridian

70. Which of these is a morning and evening star?


A. Venus
B. Mars
C. Saturn
D. Jupiter

71. Either of the two points at which the sun crosses the equator is called :
A. zenith
B. first point of aries
C. equinox
D. first point of libra

536
72. What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as?
A. Plane sailing
B. Composite sailing
C. Parallel track sailing
D. Rhumb line sailing

73. Where can the correction for altitude of celestial bodies be obtained from?
A. Sight reduction tables
B. Nautical alamanac
C. Tide tables
D. Reeds distance table

74. What does the term culmination mean?


A. The greatest and least altitudes of a celestial body when crossing the
meridian
B. When the celestial body is about to set
C. When the celestial body just starts rising
D. Max declination of a celestial body

75. What is total correction tabulated against?


A. Observed attitude
B. True altitude
C. Sextant altitude
D. Apparent attitude

76. What is the day gained in crossing the 180deg meridian when sailing
westward called?
A. Antipodean day
B. Astronomical day
C. Solar day
D. Sidereal day

537
77. When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant, it is
called:
A. Index error
B. error of perpendicularity
C. side error
D. error of collimation

78. A chronometer is said to be loosing if :


A. if it is slow one day and less slow next day
B. it is fast one day and more fast the next day
C. if it is slow one day and fast the next day.
D. it is correct on GMT one day and is slow next day

79. What should be the correct position of the sun when checking compass error
by amplitude?
A. Centre of the body should be on the rational horizon of the observer
B. Centre of the body should be on the visible horizon of the observer
C. Any one of the other options.
D. Centre of the body should be on the celestial horizon of the observer

80. When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the sextant, it is
called
A. index error
B. error of collimation
C. side error
D. error of perpendicularity

81. What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects?


A. Reflection plotter
B. Cursor
C. Sextant
D. Azimuth circle

538
82. What is the apparent increase in the semi-diameter of the moon called?
A. Refraction
B. Augmentation
C. Horizontal parallax
D. Parallax

83. The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance between
two objects is known as :
A. angle of inclination
B. Angle of repose
C. Vertical sextant angler
D. Horizontal sextant angle

84. What is the relation between azimuth and attitude in higher latitudes?
A. Any change in attitude will change the azimuth by the same amount.
B. A small change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth
C. A large change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth
D. A small change in altitude results in a small change in Dazimuth

85. What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum north
declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day and
shortest night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere?
A. Winter solstice
B. Vernal equinox
C. Autumnal equinox
D. Summer solstice

86. Once Index error is applied to the sextant altitude, it is called


A. Apparent altitude
B. True altitude
C. True zenith distance
D. Observed altitude

539
87. In taking a vertical sextant angle to determine the distance of an object,
where would you find the height of the object :
A. from the chart
B. chart 5011
C. from the chart catalogue
D. guide to port entry

88. What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ?


A. position of the observer
B. observer's latitude
C. observer's longitude0
D. none of the other options

89. When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant , it is
called :
A. side error
B. index error
C. error of collimation
D. error of perpendicularity

90. When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and distances
run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of celestial
observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called :
A. DR
B. EP
C. Plot
D. Fix

91. On which day does a solar eclipse occur?


A. Full moon day
B. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
C. Both new and full moon day
D. New moon day

540
92. For lunar eclipse to occur, what should be the position of the sun and the
moon?
A. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
B. Sun and moon must be in opposition
C. Sun and moon must be in conjunction
D. It is possible in both cases. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2'>

93. What is pelorus used for?


A. For assessing visibility
B. For identifying stars
C. Taking bearings
D. For ascertaining the signal strength of radio waves

94. Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides?


A. Moon
B. Comets
C. Stars
D. Planets

95. If an observer is in the surrounding area where only the penumbra reaches,
the observer will only see a part of the sun covered , in this case, what kind
of an eclipse will he be experiencing?
A. Annular solar eclipse
B. Total solar eclipse
C. Partial lunar eclipse
D. Partial solar eclipse

96. Where can the correction for parallex be obtained from?


A. Nautical tables
B. Reeds distance table
C. Nautical alamanac
D. Sight reduction tables

541
97. When the index mirror and the horizon glass are not exactly parallel to each
other, it is called :
A. side error
B. error of collimation
C. index error
D. error of perpendicularity

98. In a sextant, what is the mirror mounted on the upper end of the index bar,
perpendicular to the plane of the limb called?
A. Horizon glass
B. Index glass
C. Horizon shade
D. Index shade

99. What is the index nor?

A. 3'40"
B. 4'40"
C. 40"
D. 5'40"

100. For H.E 8.6 what is the correction (Dip)

A. 5.2
B. 5.1
C. 5.25
D. 5.15

542
11. Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and
ballast tanks (Memeriksa dan melaporkan cacat, kerusakan pada ruang muat,
tutup palka dan tangki tolak bara)

1. What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses.


A. Gnomonic
B. Routeing
C. Passage planning
D. Instructional

2. What is a chronometer used for? Indicating


A. LMT
B. SMT
C. GMT
D. CST

3. A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called?
A. Great circle
B. Latitude
C. Longitude
D. Small circle

4. If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour circle
passing through a heavenly body s called:
A. Local hour angle
B. Greenwich hour angle
C. Sidereal hour angle
D. Tight ascension

5. What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ?


A. The date line
B. Equator
C. Rhumb line
D. Greenwich meridian

543
6. What is the angle of depression which the direction of sight to the visible
horizon makes with the plane of the true horizon called ?
A. dip
B. height of eye
C. index error
D. error of parallax

7. When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when :
A. at the equator
B. the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles
C. the course is ti-S
D. the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings

8. Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth?


A. Mesosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Ionosphere

9. What is the true shape of the earth?


A. a perfect sphere
B. rectangle
C. an oblate spheroid
D. square

10. The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called :
A. aphelion
B. perihelion
C. apogee
D. perigee

544
11. What is the extent of zone zero?
A. from 0 deg to 7.5 deg E
B. from 7 deg E to 7 deg W from Greenwich
C. From 7.5 deg E to 7.5 deg W from Greenwich
D. From 0 deg to 7.5 deg W

12. The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called:
A. geographical mile
B. sea mile
C. none of the given options
D. statue mile

13. As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude?


A. Reduces
B. Remains constant
C. Always zero
D. Increases

14. Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called:
A. Observer's Principle vertical
B. Vertical circles
C. Observer's Prime vertical
D. Small circles

15. The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the:
A. solstical point
B. first point of aries
C. first point of libra
D. celestial pole

545
16. To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp =
A. sin late x cos dec
B. sin dec x cos lat
C. sin lat x sec dec
D. sin dec x sec lat

17. Longitudinal zones of the earths surface, each 15deg in extent, measured
eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called:
A. Time zones
B. Zone time
C. Separation zones
D. Fixed zones

18. An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow


measurement of altitude of celestial bodies is called :
A. apparent horizon
B. sensible horizon
C. artificial horizon
D. visible horizon

19. the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the
earth contained between the observers zenith and the centre of the body is
called:
A. Attitude of the celestial body
B. Declination of the celestial body
C. True zenith distance of the celestial body
D. Calculated zenith distance

546
20. If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct?
A. The vessel will after course frequently depending on her position and
bearing to destination
B. The vessel sails on the same course through out
C. The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the
intermediate course is
D. None of the other options

21. Right ascension is measured:


A. Westward from aries
B. Westward from Greenwich
C. Eastwards from aries
D. Wrestward from the observer

22. What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ
by 90 deg.?
A. Quadrature
B. Conjunction
C. Opposition
D. None of the given options

23. The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the
earth's surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's
sensible horizon is called?
A. Parallax in attitude
B. True attitude
C. Horizontal parallax of a celestial body.
D. Apparent altitude
24. What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ?
A. 4 1/5 deg
B. 5 1/4 deg
C. 1 4/5 deg
D. 1 5/4 deg

547
25. Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are
called
A. both<Option 1> and C
B. celestial meridians
C. meridians
D. neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>

26. If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is:


A. multiplied
B. subtracted
C. there is no correction
D. added

27. What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a
constant rate equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the
ecliptic called?
A. Mean sun
B. True sun
C. Apparent sun
D. All of these.

28. What are planets which are closer to the sun called?
A. Inferior planets
B. Small planets
C. Large planets
D. Superior planets

29. What type of motion do planets have around the sun?


A. retrograde
B. direct
C. southward
D. northward

548
30. Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time?
A. no
B. only for the period when the sun and moon are in conjunction
C. yes
D. only for the period when sun and moon are in opposition

31. A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun?
A. Superior planets
B. Small planets
C. Inferior planets
D. Large planets

32. What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages
called?
A. A minute
B. An hour
C. A day
D. A second

33. The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg.
below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when
the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called :
A. nautical twilight
B. civil twilight
C. astronomical twilight
D. sunrise

34. Every day a star rises, sets, culminates:


A. 4 min later
B. 4 min. earlier
C. 10 min later
D. 40 min earlier

549
35. When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is
below the horizon, it is called:
A. sunrise
B. moon rise
C. sunset
D. twilight

36. In which case is augmentation necessary:


A. Sun
B. Stars
C. Moon
D. Planets

37. The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith
contained between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle
passing through that body when the body is on the observer's rational
horizon is
A. Amplitude
B. Horizontal sextant angle
C. Vertical sextant angle
D. Azimuth

38. What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears
to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting
in the west called?
A. Diurnal motion
B. Diurnal inequality
C. Diurnal circle
D. Diurnal arc

550
39. The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg
around the earth is called?
A. Rotational period of the moon
B. Revolutionary period of the moon
C. Synodic period of the moon
D. Sidereal period of the moon

40. What is the diameter about which the earth rotates?


A. Axis
B. Prime meridian
C. None of the other options
D. Equator

41. What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from the
observer's meridian called?
A. Greenwich sidereal time
B. Local mean time
C. Local sidereal time
D. Greenwich apparent time

42. What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of
the sun and the center of that body?
A. Elongation of a celestial body
B. Attitude of a celestial body
C. Horizontal parallax
D. parallax in attitude

43. Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called:


A. Isothermic line
B. Isobaric line
C. Isogonic line
D. isobathic line

551
44. When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the
three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be
A. in opposition
B. in Perihelion
C. in Aphelion
D. in conjunction

45. What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude
shortly before and after it has crossed the meridian?
A. Longitude by chronometer
B. Ex-meridian altitude
C. Intercept
D. Latitude by meridian altitude

46. The geographical mean between two latitudes is called:


A. Mean latitude
B. Middle latitude
C. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>
D. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>

47. The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a
celestial body is called:
A. azimuth
B. true bearing
C. amplitude
D. relative bearing

48. The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called:
A. Datum
B. Calibration point
C. Date line
D. Danger line

552
49. How do planets moue when they are closer to the sun as compared to when
they are further away from the sun?
A. Do not moue
B. Constant rate
C. Faster
D. Slower

50. When is a body said to be circumpolar?


A. Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90
B. Observer's latitude & body's declination are of the same name.
C. Neither <Option 2> nor <Option 3>
D. Both <Option 2> and <Option 3>

51. How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W
at 0 deg?
A. partly curved and partly straight
B. straight
C. neither <option 1> nor <option 2>
D. curved

52. To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply:


A. both <Option 2>and <Option 3>
B. sun
C. stars
D. coon

53. Latitude scale is obtained as:


A. long scale x cosec fat
B. long scale x cos lat
C. long. Scale x sec lat
D. long scale x sin lat

553
54. At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is
A. 23 deg
B. 12 deg
C. 0 deg
D. 23.5 deg

55. At the horizon, refraction:


A. Is moderate
B. Does not exist
C. Is maximum
D. Is minimum

56. Refraction correction must always be:


A. Divided
B. Added
C. Subtracted
D. Multiplie

57. What is the interval in time between two successive meridian passages of
the true sun over the same meridian?
A. Mean solar day
B. Sidereal day
C. none of the other options
D. Apparent solar day

58. As height of eye increases, Dip:


A. increases
B. remains constant
C. doubles
D. decreases

554
59. Which of these is an inferior planet?
A. Mercury
B. Uranus
C. Jupiter
D. Saturn

60. What are the points where the moons orbit intersect the ecliptic called?
A. 1 st point of aries
B. 1 st point of libra
C. Nodes
D. Antinodes

61. How many time zones are there?


A. 36
B. 24
C. 48
D. 12
62. At the horizon refraction is =
A. 0 min
B. 1min
C. 34 min
D. 16min
63. The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea is
called:
A. Observer's sensible horizon
B. None of the other options
C. Observer's visible horizon
D. Observer's rational horizon
64. What is the average distance of the sun from the earth?
A. 9,300 million miles
B. 930million miles
C. 93 million miles
D. 9.3 million miles

555
65. The Prime meridian is at:
A. 80 deg long
B. 90 deg long
C. 45 deg long
D. 0 deg long.
66. Augmentation at the horizon is
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.2
D. 0
67. The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible
horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called:
A. ht of eye
B. Sextant altitude
C. dip
D. Apparent altituden

68. What is the maximum declination of the sun?


A. 26 deg N or S
B. 26 deg 23.7min N or S
C. 23 deg 26.7min N or S
D. 23 deg N or S
69. A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the terrestrial
poles is known as
A. latitude
B. equator
C. equinoxial
D. meridian
70. Which of these is a morning and evening star?
A. Venus
B. Mars
C. Saturn
D. Jupiter

556
71. Either of the two points at which the sun crosses the equator is called :
A. zenith
B. first point of aries
C. equinox
D. first point of libra
72. What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as?
A. Plane sailing
B. Composite sailing
C. Parallel track sailing
D. Rhumb line sailing
73. Where can the correction for altitude of celestial bodies be obtained from?
A. Sight reduction tables
B. Nautical alamanac
C. Tide tables
D. Reeds distance table
74. What does the term culmination mean?
A. The greatest and least altitudes of a celestial body when crossing the
meridian
B. When the celestial body is about to set
C. When the celestial body just starts rising
D. Max declination of a celestial body
75. What is total correction tabulated against?
A. Observed attitude
B. True altitude
C. Sextant altitude
D. Apparent attitude

76. What is the day gained in crossing the 180deg meridian when sailing
westward called?
A. Antipodean day
B. Astronomical day
C. Solar day
D. Sidereal day

557
77. When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant, it is
called:
A. Index error
B. error of perpendicularity
C. side error
D. error of collimation

78. A chronometer is said to be loosing if :


A. if it is slow one day and less slow next day
B. it is fast one day and more fast the next day
C. if it is slow one day and fast the next day.
D. it is correct on GMT one day and is slow next day

79. What should be the correct position of the sun when checking compass error
by amplitude?
A. Centre of the body should be on the rational horizon of the observer
B. Centre of the body should be on the visible horizon of the observer
C. Any one of the other options.
D. Centre of the body should be on the celestial horizon of the observer

80. When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the sextant, it is
called
A. index error
B. error of collimation
C. side error
D. error of perpendicularity

81. What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects?


A. Reflection plotter
B. Cursor
C. Sextant
D. Azimuth circle

558
82. What is the apparent increase in the semi-diameter of the moon called?
A. Refraction
B. Augmentation
C. Horizontal parallax
D. Parallax

83. The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance between
two objects is known as :
A. angle of inclination
B. Angle of repose
C. Vertical sextant angler
D. Horizontal sextant angle

84. What is the relation between azimuth and attitude in higher latitudes?
A. Any change in attitude will change the azimuth by the same amount.
B. A small change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth
C. A large change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth
D. A small change in altitude results in a small change in Dazimuth

85. What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum north
declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day and
shortest night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere?
A. Winter solstice
B. Vernal equinox
C. Autumnal equinox
D. Summer solstice

86. Once Index error is applied to the sextant altitude, it is called


A. Apparent altitude
B. True altitude
C. True zenith distance
D. Observed altitude

559
87. In taking a vertical sextant angle to determine the distance of an object,
where would you find the height of the object :
A. from the chart
B. chart 5011
C. from the chart catalogue
D. guide to port entry

88. What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ?


A. position of the observer
B. observer's latitude
C. observer's longitude0
D. none of the other options

89. When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant , it is
called :
A. side error
B. index error
C. error of collimation
D. error of perpendicularity

90. When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and distances
run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of celestial
observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called :
A. DR
B. EP
C. Plot
D. Fix

91. On which day does a solar eclipse occur?


A. Full moon day
B. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
C. Both new and full moon day
D. New moon day

560
92. For lunar eclipse to occur, what should be the position of the sun and the
moon?
A. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
B. Sun and moon must be in opposition
C. Sun and moon must be in conjunction
D. It is possible in both cases. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2'>

93. What is pelorus used for?


A. For assessing visibility
B. For identifying stars
C. Taking bearings
D. For ascertaining the signal strength of radio waves

94. Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides?


A. Moon
B. Comets
C. Stars
D. Planets

95. If an observer is in the surrounding area where only the penumbra reaches,
the observer will only see a part of the sun covered , in this case, what kind
of an eclipse will he be experiencing?
A. Annular solar eclipse
B. Total solar eclipse
C. Partial lunar eclipse
D. Partial solar eclipse

96. Where can the correction for parallex be obtained from?


A. Nautical tables
B. Reeds distance table
C. Nautical alamanac
D. Sight reduction tables

561
97. When the index mirror and the horizon glass are not exactly parallel to each
other, it is called :
A. side error
B. error of collimation
C. index error
D. error of perpendicularity

98. In a sextant, what is the mirror mounted on the upper end of the index bar,
perpendicular to the plane of the limb called?
A. Horizon glass
B. Index glass
C. Horizon shade
D. Index shade
99. What is the index nor?

A. 3'40"
B. 4'40"
C. 40"
D. 5'40"

100. For H.E 8.6 what is the correction (Dip)

A. 5.2
B. 5.1
C. 5.25
D. 5.15

562
12. Ensure compliance with pollution prevention requirements (Menjamin
pemenuhan persyaratan pencegahan pencemaran)

1.

An Oil Record Book, Part 1,shall be provided to every


ship of 400 tons gross tonnage and above to record
machinery space operations.Out of below mentioned
operations, it is compulsory to record:

A. Bunkering of bulk lubricating oil.


B. Transfer of oil from settling - to daytank.
C. Discharge of water from Aft, Peak Tank.
D. Purification of HFO.

2. Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall


be fitted with oily-water separating equipment for the
control of machinery space bilges.What kind of
equipment is required in this connection?

A. Either Oil fitting equipment , or Oily-water separating equipment , or


combination of both.
B. Oil fitting equipment only.
C. Sludge separating tank.
D. Oily-water separating equipment only.

563
3. Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we
can pump overboard on the sea voyage?

A. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full


cargo on the ballast voyage.
B. Maximum is 60 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full
cargo on the ballast voyage.
C. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/10000 part of full
cargo on the ballast voyage.
D. There isnt any restrictions of pumping sludge from ships outside special
areas

4. For how long time must the printout from the


Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME)
be retained onboard?

A. Three years
B. Six months
C. Two years
D. Four years

564
5. If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the
water, what would the chemicals do?

A. Disperse or dissolve the oil into the water


B. Absorb the oil for easy removal
C. Remove the oil from the water
D. Contain the oil within a small area

6. In case of a pollution in US waters, who shall


notify the cleaning up contractor (OPA-90)

A. Qualified Individual
B. Emergency response team
C. The Master
D. The shipowner

7. In which areas is plastic material accepted for


overboard disposal?

A. Not permissible any where.


B. 100 n.m. from shore line.
C. In specially designated areas (ref. MARPOL).
D. In coastal waters.

565
8. Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is
forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues?

A. There are special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or
oil residues
B. There are 3 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, and Black
Sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
C. There are 4 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea and
Black Sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
D. There isnt any special area where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge
or oil residues

9. MARPOL - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain


heading for Singapore. 2 days after departure, you would
like to empty your machinery space bilges. What will be
the correct procedures in this connection?

A. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge
overboard through oily water separating and filtering equipment.
B. Discharge overboard through oily-water separating and filtering
equipment without calling the bridge.
C. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge
directly overboard.
D. Wait till after darkness and discharge in most convenient way.

566
10. MARPOL - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an
approved sewage treatment plant certified by the
Administration. During discharge, while vessel is
awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding
water is iscoloured. What kind of action would be
appropriate to take?
A. Stop discharge.
B. Continue discharge since the treatment plant is of an approved type.
C. Reduce discharge rate in order to have less discolouration of surrounding
water.
D. Continue discharge since Annex IV of MARPOL is internationally not
yet in force.

11. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside


"Special Areas". After unpacking spares, you are left
with a limited amount of packing materials. Is this
prohibited, if not, what will be the nearest distance to
land for disposal into the sea of these materials?

A. This is prohibited
B. 3 miles
C. 12 miles
D. 25 miles

567
12. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage. Your
vessel in the Red Sea (Special Area) and the Chief
Cook is requesting to have some food waste burned in
the incinerator. Due to problems with incinerator, you
decide to have the waste ground in the Grinder (Lump
size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is this
prohibited, if not, how far from nearest land is this legal?
A. 12 miles
B. This is prohibited
C. 3 miles
D. 25 miles

13. Most minor oilspills are caused by:

A. Human error
B. Equipment failure
C. Major casualties
D. Unforeseeable circumstances

568
14. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July
93 stating that the previous instantaneous rate of
discharge of oil content (60 litters per nautical mile)
was changed to:

A. 30 litters per nautical mile


B. 25 litters per nautical mile
C. 20 litters per nautical mile
D. 10 litters per nautical mile

15. Notification logging procedures .(OPA-90)

A. Every report or message must be logged including time and date


B. Only initial reports to be logged
C. Only verbal reports for documentation
D. Only communication with USCG

16. Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out


at least (OPA-90):

A. Once a month
B. Once a week
C. Once a year
D. Once every six months

569
17. Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, shall be
fitted with oil filtering equipment, complying with
Reg.14 (7) of MARPOL for the control of machinery
space bilges. What would be the maximum oil content of
oily-water mixture to pass through the filter?

A. 15 ppm
B. 100 ppm
C. 30 ppm
D. 60 ppm/n.m

18. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going


overboard by doing what?

A. Plugging the scuppers


B. Driving wooden plugs into the vents
C. Closing the lids on the vents
D. Plugging the sounding pipes

19. The OPA-90 notification requirement is:

A. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill, or threat of a spill


B. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of a spill exceeding 10 gallons of
oil
C. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be responsible
D. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be tracked and charged

570
20. What does the term DISCHARGE mean, as used
in the Oil Pollution Regulations?

A. All the other alternatives


B. Spilling
C. Leaking
D. Dumping

21. What is definition on clean ballast as per MARPOL


Annex 1?

A. Ballast with an oil content of less than 15 ppm


B. Ballast with an oil content of less than 45 ppm
C. Ballast with an oil content of less than 1 %
D. There isnt any definition on clean ballast

22. What is the best way to avoid pollution from smalloil-


spills aboard a ship?

A. Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship


B. Rig an oil boom around the ship
C. Have dispersing chemicals ready for use in case of oil-spill
D. Have sawdust ready for use

571
23. What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an
oilspill on the water?

A. The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water
B. The water gets a white colour, which makes it easy to detect the oil-spill
C. It is difficult to apply the chemicals if the oil drifts away from the ship's
side
D. It is difficult to apply chemicals if there is any wind

24. What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil


Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ?

A. To prove that oil has been pumped overboard according to regulations


B. To prove that the O.D.M.E. system has been used
C. To prove fault conditions in the O.D.M.E
D. None of the mentioned

25. What should you do with the ashes from your


vessels incinerator which had burned garbage
containing plastics?

A. Discharge to a shore facility only


B. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 25 miles offshore
C. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 12 miles offshore
D. Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary

572
26. What would be the preferred colour to use
when maintaining the paint on shell, plating,
structure and bottom/tanktopp in the engine
room?

A. White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed and
dealt with.
B. Dark brown/red colour to camuflage any minor leakages and oil spills.
C. Whatever paint is available.
D. The same colour as machinery and equipment.

27. When a pollution incident occurs there is a


plan for actions to be undertaken. State which
following priority sequences to be considered:

A. Stop pumps - report - clean up?


B. Clean up - report - stop pumps?
C. Report - stop pumps - clean up?
D. Stop pumps - clean up - report?

28. Which of the connections you are shown, are the


dedicated shore connection (MARPOL-
connection) for discharging of sewage ?

A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

573
29. Which of the following would be considered
pollution, when discharged overboard, under the US
water pollution laws?

A. All of the mentioned


B. Garbage
C. Hazardous substances
D. Oil

30. Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge


Water" overboard?

A. 15 PPM
B. 100 PPM
C. 50 PPM
D. 0 PPM

31. Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill?

A. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill


B. It is not covered by the pollution law
C. It does little harm to marine life
D. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil

574
32. Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any
potential polluting operation?

A. To avoid pollution.
B. To relieve the master.
C. To inform the authorities.
D. To restrict pollution.

33. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast


of Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you
allowed to dump food waste overboard?

A. No, food waste can not be dumped overboard


B. Yes, all kind of food waste can be dumped overboard
C. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting
particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings
D. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting
particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings

34. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast


of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to dump
empty glass bottles overboard ?

A. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting
particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings
B. No, glass bottles can not be dumped overboard
C. Yes, glass bottles can be dumped overboard
D. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting
particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings

575
35. You are onboard a vessel off the West African
coast. You want to dump a mixture of food
waste, glass bottles and floating packing
materials. Is this allowed? and if so, how far off
the coast would you have to be?

A. This is prohibited
B. 3 nautical miles off the coast
C. 12 nautical miles off the coast
D. 25 nautical miles off the coast
36. You are taking fuel on your vessel in the US
when you notice oil on the water around your
vessel. You are to stop taking fuel and:

A. Notify the US Coast Guard


B. Begin clean up operations
C. Leave the area
D. Notify the Corps of Engineers

37. The discharge of oily mixtures is not allowed within special areas unless,
with exemption of processed engine room bilge water, unless certain
conditions are satisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied ?
A. II, IV, V, VII, VIII

B. I, IV, V, VIII, IX

C. I, IV, VI, VII, IX

D. II, III, V, VIII, IX

576
38. The oil record book for machinery
space operations shall be
completed on a tank to tank basis
whenever which of these
operations take place ?

A. III, IV,VI, VII

B. I, II, III, VII

C. I, II, IV, V

D. II, IV, V, VI

39. Amongst other things, Part 1 of the Oil Record Book shows which of these ?
A. Period over which the IOPP certificate is valid

B. Period from . To ..

C. Operational procedures and remarks

D. Master's name as well of the person relieving him against date

40. Which of these items must be


recorded in the Oil Record Book -
Part I, concerning the disposal of
oil residues (Sludges) ?

A. II, III, IV

B. I, II, VI

C. I, Ill, VI

D. I, II

577
41. Which of these items concerning
non-automatic discharge overboard
of bilge water from machinery
spaces must be recorded in the Oil
Record Book - Part I ?

A. I, Ill, VI

B. III, IV,V

C. II, III

D. II, VI

42. Which of these items


concerning the operation of
machinery spaces must be
recorded in the Oil Record
Book - Part I ?

A. III, VI, VII

B. II, III, V, VII

C. II, V, VI

D. II, IV, VI, VII

578
43. Which of these items concerning
automatic discharge overboard
of bilge water from machinery
spaces must be recorded in the
Oil Record Book - Part I ?

A. I, II, V, VI

B. I, IV, V, VII

C. II, IV, VI, VII

D. II, Ill, V, VII

44. Mat entries must be made in the Oil Record Book - Part I (machinery space
operations) about the condition of the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control
system ?
A. The time when the system was started and the time when the system was
stopped

B. The time when the system was started and stopped, the ships speed and
the ppm of the affluent discharged

C. The time of system failure, the time that it was made operational again
and the reason for failure

D. The time when the system was started and the time when it was stopped
and the ppm of the effluent discharged

579
45. Which of these items
concerning accidental or other
exceptional discharges of oil
must be recorded in the Oil
Record Book - Part I ?

A. I, II, V,VII

B. I, II, III, V

C. I, III, IV,VI

D. I, II, V, VI

46. Handling fuel oils without proper care can lead to


A. Overflow, pollution and gas formation.

B. Gassing up, asphyxia and explosion.

C. Fire or overflow.

D. Explosion, fire and pollution.

47. Basic procedures for bunkering operations on all ships require


thatshould personalty supervise all bunkering operations.
A. The 2nd engineer

B. The master

C. The chief engineer

D. A responsible person

48. Bunkering procedures for all ships require that communication should be
maintained with the shorelbarge staff in charge of the transfer ?
A. Continuous

B. Intermittent

C. Frequent

D. Occasional

580
49. Bunkering procedures on all ships require that the deck officer on watch be
informed prior to the starting of bunkering. This is because
A. The bunkering flag has to be hoisted and the oil spill recovery team put
on stand-by.

B. Appropriate precautions have to betaken by the deck department

C. The time needs to be recorded exactly.

D. The is responsible for all communication with the shore or barge.

50. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been
detained because
A. The oily water separator filters were found dirty.

B. The sludge tank was found full level.

C. The engine room bilges were found dirty.

D. The engineroombilgelineswerefounddirty.

51. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been
detained because
A. An oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge
water separator.

B. Oil was found leaking from the main/auxiliary engines crankcase doors.

C. An oily mixture was found in the internals of the bilge pump.

D. Lubricating oil was transferred in port.

52. What maximum oil content must oiliwater separators generally discharge?
A. 600ppm

B. 1000ppm

C. 100ppm

D. 50ppm

581
53. What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'?
A. 0ppm

B. 25ppm

C. 50ppm

D. l5ppm

54. Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in


'Special Areas'?
A. Only in a case of emergency.

B. If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out.

C. When proceeding Full Ahead.

D. During the hours of darkness.

55. What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable
level?
A. A visible alarm.

B. The discharge is dumped to the bilge

C. An audible alarm.

D. The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.

56. What pollution certification must deep-sea vessels possess?


A. Safety Construction certificate.

B. IOPP certificate

C. MCA pollution certificate.

D. Lloyd's Machinery survey certificate

582
57. What is the purpose of the Oil Record Book?
A. Record fuel consumption.

B. Record quantity of fuel onboard.

C. Record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges.

D. Record oily bilge levels.

58. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions
are satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that.
A. The tanker is within a Special Area.

B. The tanker is not within a Special Area

C. The tanker is within a Designated Zone

D. The tanker is not within a Designated Zone

59. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions
are satisfied. One of these conditions for an oil tanker is that
A. The tanker is more than 50 nautical mites from the nearest land.

B. The tanker is more than 25 nautical miles from the nearest land.

C. The tanker is more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest land.

D. The tanker is more than 100 nautical miles from the nearest land.

60. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions
are satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that .
A. The tanker is en route.

B. The tanker is in ballast condition.

C. The tanker is tank cleaning.

D. The tanker is loaded.

583
61. For existing tankers the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea should
be no more than ..of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which
the residue formed part.
A. 1/25000

B. 1/100000

C. 1/15000

D. 1/50000

62. The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a tanker shall not
exceed
A. 120 litres per nautical mile

B. 100 litres per nautical mile

C. 75 litres per nautical mile

D. 30 litres per nautical mile

63. For new tankers, the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea shall not
exceed .. of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue
formed part.
A. 1/10000

B. 1/15000

C. 1/25000

D. 1/30000

64. What is the meaning of the term "Combination Carrier " ?


A. A ship designed to carry either oil products or crude oil in bulk or in
parcels

B. A cargo ship that has product oil tanks, example Palm Oil Tanks

C. A general term for vessels carrying more than one kind of cargo, example
reefer-container, log-bulk etc.

D. A ship designed to carry either oil or solid cargoes in bulk

584
65. According to Marpol, what does the term "oil "mean ?
A. Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse
and refined products

B. Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil

C. Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products

D. Any grade of crude oil

66. 30. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture " ?
A. A mixture with oil content above 100 ppm

B. A mixture with oil content above 50 ppm

C. A mixture with any oil content

D. A mixture with oil content above 15 ppm

67. Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker ?


A. Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk

B. Yes, when it is carrying petrochemicals

C. Yes

D. No

68. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel" ?
A. A cargo of Heavy Fuel Oil , Intermediate Fuel or Diesel Oil

B. A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree C

C. Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary
machinery

D. A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery or


boilers

585
69. Does the definition of an "oil tanker "applies to a gas carrier ?
A. Yes, when carrying chemicals or petrochemicals

B. No, it is not

C. Yes, it is

D. Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk

70. According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean ?
A. A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage of
construction after 30 June 1976

B. A ship for which the building contract was placed after 31 December
1995

C. A ship which was delivered after 31 December 1979

D. All of these.

71. What does the 'instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content "mean
according to Marpol ?
A. The total quantity of oil discharged at any moment

B. The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant divided by the
speed of the ship in knots at the same instant

C. The total quantity of oil discharged divided by the mileage covered


during the time of discharge by the ship

D. The total rate of oil discharged per hour divided by 3600

586
72. What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol ?
A. An area with a particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions
are required

B. A sea area where for recognised oceanographical and ecological


conditions and in view of traffic special prevention is required

C. An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged


at anytime

D. A sea area where in view of its particular dense traffic no


overboarddischarged of any oily mixture is allowed

73. What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol ?


A. A tank used for tank cleaning provided with heating coils

B. The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fated centre
tank

C. Any tank where slops or sludges are collected

D. A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank D drainings,


washings or other oily mixtures

74. Which description given below is nearest to the description of clean ballast
as defined by Marpol ?
A. Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible
traces on the shore lines.

B. Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon
the surface of the water or emulsion beneath the water surface.

C. Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces
on adjoining shorelines, nor emulsion in the sea.

D. If discharged from a ship stationary in clean calm water on a clear day


will not produce visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion
below

587
75. Which answer is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast ?
A. The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines
by the clean ballast pump

B. Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for
which cargo pumps cannot be used

C. The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank via the segregated ballast
pump

D. The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated


from cargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast

76. In order for a tanker to be called a "new oil tanker "according to Marpol, the
date on its building contract would read
A. After 1st January 1981.

B. After 31st of December 1980.

C. After 1st June 1982.

D. After 1st June 1979.

77. Marpol defines Crude Oil as .


A. Aliquid hydrocarbon from which certain distillate fractions were
removed.

B. Liquid hydrocarbon to which certain distillate fractions ere added.

C. A non-treated liquid hydrocarbon mixture from which C neither distillate


fractions were removed nor added.

D. A liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally whether treated or not


irrespective of whether distillate fractions were removed or added.

588
78. Every oil tanker of .. tons gross tonnage and above and every other
ship of tons gross tonnage and above shall be subject to Marpol (IOPP)
surveys.
A. 500,1000

B. 400, 700

C. 150, 400

D. 250, 500

79. The initial Marpol (10PP) survey carried out before a ship enters service in
order to ensure compliance with the applicable regulations shall include

A. Acomplete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks, stop tanks.

B. A complete survey of the associate pumping and piping systems,


including oil-discharging monitoring system, oil tittering and separating
systems.

C. Acomplete survey of all piping.

D. Acomplete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems


arrangements and materials in so far as the ship is covered by this Annex.

80. Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by


the administration. These intervals are not to exceed..
A. Two and a half years.

B. Three years.

C. Two years.

D. Five years.

589
81. At least one survey must to be carried out during the validity of the IOPP
certificate. This shall ensure that the equipment, pumps and piping systems
including ODME are in order. What is this survey called ?
A. The Annual survey

B. The Special survey

C. The Intermediate survey

D. The Midterm survey

82. Marpol permits additional inspections in order to ensure that the ship and its
equipment remain in all respects satisfactory for service. What are these
inspections called ?
A. Annual Inspections

B. Unscheduled inspections

C. Obligatory inspections

D. Special surveys

83. If Mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will
it effect unscheduled Inspections carried out according to Marpol ?
A. The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory

B. Only one unscheduled inspection per year is required

C. Unscheduled inspections are required once every two years

D. Two unscheduled inspections are required during a 5-year period

84. Who may carry out MARPOL surveys ?


A. Approved ship's officers

B. Port-State Control Inspectors

C. Coast Guard Inspectors

D. Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organisations recognised by


Administrations

590
85. Who may carry out Marpol Inspections ?
A. Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port
in which the ship is located, generally referred to as Port State Inspectors.

B. All of these.

C. Surveyors nominated by recognised organisations.

D. Coast Guard officers.

86. What is the meaning of a harmful substance" under Marpol ?


A. Petroleum products and petrochemicals

B. Hydrocarbons in any form

C. Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage


amenities.

D. Oils and fuels

87. What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful substances as defined


by Marpol ?
A. Dumping or disposal from the ship

B. Spilling, leaking or escape from the ship

C. Pumping, emptying or emitting from a ship

D. Any release how ever caused

88. What is the meaning of an incident" according to Marpol ?


A. The actual discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents
containing such substances

B. The probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture

C. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or


effluents containing such substances

D. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture

591
89. Penalties under the Law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be..
A. Adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe
irrespective of where the violation occurs.

B. Imposed by all countries, the severity depends on where the violation


occurs.

C. Imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution.

D. In all cases most severe.

90. To what administrative matter must you comply with if an incident under
Marpol occurs ?
A. A report shall be made without delay to the fullest extent in accordance
with Marpol Protocol 1.

B. A report of the incident is to be made to the vessel's Administration.

C. You are to write a full report of the incident to the vessels owners or
managers.

D. You are to note this incident in the Log Book.

91. A new oil tanker of less than 20,000 tons deadweight may be designated
as
A. Aproduct / chemical carrier

B. A crude oil I product carrier

C. Aproduct carrier

D. Acrude oil tanker

92. A new oil tankers of 20,000 tons deadweight and above which satisfy the
requirements for Segregated Ballast Tanks with Protective location as well
as COW may be designated as a
A. Product carrier

B. Crude oil / product carrier

C. Crude oil tanker

D. Petrochemical / product carrier

592
93. A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above satisfying the requirements SBT
and PL, but not fitted with COW should be designated as a ...on the
IOPP certificate.
A. Crude oil 1 product carrier

B. Crude oil tanker

C. Product carrier

D. Petrochemical tanker

94. New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above but less than 30,000 tons dwt
NOT fitted with SBT and PL should be designated as a .on the IOPP
certificate.
A. Crude oil tanker

B. Crude oil / product carrier

C. Petrochemical tanker

D. Product carrier

95. Stew oil tankers of 70,000 dwt and above satisfying the requirements of
SBT may be designed as a .on the IOPP certificate.
A. Crude oil /product carrier

B. Product oil carrier

C. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker

D. Crude oil tanker

96. How would existing oil tankers of less than 40,000 tons dwt be designated
on the IOPP certificate ?
A. As a product carrier

B. As a crude oil tanker

C. As a crude oil / product carrier

D. As a crude oil / petrochemical tanker

593
97. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above satisfying the
requirements of SBT, what should their designation be on the IOPP
certificate ?
A. Product carrier

B. Crude oil tanker

C. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker

D. Crude oil / product carrier

98. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above fitted only with a COW
system, what should their designation be on the IOPP certificate ?
A. Product carrier

B. Crude Oil / product carrier

C. Crude oil tanker

D. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker

99. Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery space bilges of tankers are
prohibited except when, amongst other requirements, which of the following
equipment is fitted ?
A. An Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment

B. Interface oily water detector

C. A 50 ppm Bilge Water Separator with alarm system

D. A 15 ppm oily bilge water separator with alarm system

100. When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid ?


A. Any one of these

B. If significant alterations have taken place to materials without sanction

C. If significant alterations have taken place for fittings, equipment or


arrangements without sanction

D. If significant alterations have taken place in the ships construction


without sanction

594
101. When alterations to ships construction, equipment, materials , fittings or
arrangements are carried out without sanction the IOPP certificate ceases to
be valid. What is the exception ?
A. Improvement in ships construction

B. The direct replacement of equipment and fittings

C. Modification of arrangements as long as purpose and ay-out does not


deviate from Marpol requirements

D. Replacement of monitoring equipment as long as it is approved by the


Administration

102. What are the consequences if an IOPP intermediate survey is not carried out
as specified ?
A. The IOPP certificate remains valid, but when the overdue survey is
carried out, the stringency will depend on the duration of the elapsed time

B. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid and a survey corresponding to


the requisite survey is to be carried out .

C. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid when the C survey is 3


months overdue

D. The IOPP certificate remains valid, however an unscheduled inspection


is to be carried out by the Port State inspection of the country of call

103. Amongst other requirements, what kind of arrangement is required for a


tanker in order to be allowed to discharge oily mixtures into the sea ?
A. Segregated ballast tanks

B. 15 ppm oil filtering equipment

C. Double hulls

D. A slop tank arrangement

595
104. An oil tanker is prohibited from
discharging oily mixtures into the sea
except when certain conditions are
satisfied. Which of the conditions
mentioned here must be satisfied ?

A. II, III, V, VII, IX, X, XI

B. II, III, VIII, IX, X, XII

C. II, IV , VI, VIII, X, XII

D. I, IV, V, VII, VIII, X, XII

105. A ship other than tanker


of 000grt and above, but
less than 10,0000, cannot
discharge oily mixtures
from machinery spaces,
unless certain conditions
are satisfied. Which of
these conditions must be
satisfied ?
A. II, IV, VIII

B. II, V, VII

C. II, III,VI

D. I, IV, VI

596
106. What is the oil content of a mixture which may be discharged into the sea
when the ship is not in a special area ?
A. 100 ppm

B. 50 ppm

C. less than 15 ppm

D. 15 ppm

107. Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply other chemical treatment to


oily mixtures prior to discharge these into the sea ?
A. Concentration of chemicals only 100 ppm

B. Not allowed at all

C. Oil dispersants are allowed

D. Dillutants are allowed

108. Ships other than tankers of less than z100grt cannot


discharge oil or oily mixtures while within a special
area, except for the discharge of processed bilge water.
To do this which of these conditions must be satisfied ?

A. II, IV, V, IX

B. II, V, VI, IX

C. I, Ill, VI, VIII

D. I, IV, VII, VIII

597
109. Are the Marpol regulations governing discharge of oily mixtures applicable
to issues of safety at sea ?
A. They remain in force, only Government Organisations can decide to lift
same in case of emergencies.

B. They are not applicable when oil is released for the purpose of securing
the safety of a ship or saving life at sea.

C. They do not apply when life can be saved at sea at the cost of releasing
oil in the water

D. They remain in force at all times, they help promote safety as well.

110. The Marpol regulations prohibit


discharges oil mixtures at sea. The
regulations will not apply if the
discharge is the result of damage
arising from which items in this
list?
A. I, IV

B. IV, V

C. II, V

D. III, VI

111. Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture discharges at sea. The regulations
do not apply if the discharge is the result of damage to the ship or its
equipment. What is the exception ?
A. Damage to ship and equipment due operational error

B. Crew negligence

C. Intent to cause damage, or recklessly and with knowledge that damage


could probably result

D. Collision or groundings

598
112. It is possible to discharge
substances containing oil,
approved by the Administration,
(eg. oil dispersants) for the
purpose of combating specific
pollution incidents, into the sea.
Under which of these
conditions?

A. II IV V

B. I, II, V

C. I, III

D. III, IV

113. For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt


and above, the capacity of the
segregated ballast tanks shall be such
hat, at any part of the voyage, the
ships draught and trim meet which of
these requirements ?

A. I, Ill, IV, VI

B. I, II, IV, V

C. I, II, IV. VII

D. I, IV, V, VII

599
114. New tankers of 20,000 dwt and
above shall in no case carry ballast
water in cargo tanks, except when
which of these circumstances arise
?

A. IV, V

B. II, V

C. III, V

D. II, V

115. For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in
tankers, which tanks may be Included ?
A. Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks

B. Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams.

C. Segregated ballast tanks only

D. Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks

116. Under which conditions are Fore Peak tanks, After Peak tanks and
cofferdams allowed to be included in the total capacity determination of
Cars for tankers ?
A. Provided the protective location of the tanks is ensured

B. Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast


water system

C. Provided an oily separating system of 15 ppm is to be fitted on board

D. Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop when


15 ppm level is exceeded is to be fitted

600
117. If a tanker with separate independent piping and pumps for CBT and
operating with COW is to change its designation to product carrier and vice
versa, which provisions will apply ?
A. Two IOPP certificates are issued, only one valid at the time. No survey is
required prior switching trades. Manual for both procedures required.

B. The tanker needs to be surveyed each time its switches trade

C. Crude oil is not allowed to be carried in tanks designated CBT in the


crude oil trade

D. The COW system needs to be blanked

118. If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its machinery modified to
immobilise the ship, what are the requirements for SOT, COT, PL and COW
?
A. The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply

B. The requirements for SBT do not apply

C. The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply

D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply

119. Hi an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are the
requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW ?
A. The requirement for SET does not apply

B. The requirements for SBT, PI and CET do not apply

C. The requirement for SBT and PL do not apply

D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply

601
120. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean
Ballast shall be that it is e quipped with.
A. Acrude oil washing system.

B. Two separate slop tanks.

C. Segregated ballast tanks and PL.

D. An oil content meter.

121. The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply
if the tanker is engaged in specific trades provided reception facilities are
existing in ports. What document is to be endorsed ?
A. The oil record book

B. The bill of lading

C. The charter party

D. The ship's IOPP certificate

122. Existing oil tankers which


complies at all times with
SBT draught and trim
requirements without the use
of ballast water, may be
considered to comply with
SBT requirements in full provided which of these items apply ?
A. II, IV V

B. I, II, VI

C. II, V, VI

D. III, IV VI

602
123. What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules for Protective Location of
Segregated Ballast Tanks on Oil Tankers ?
A. To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in event of
grounding or collision

B. To facilitate trim and draught corrective operations on tankers

C. To reduce the bending moments on tankers

D. To reduce the shear forces on tankers

124. For Protective Location


of Segregated ballast
tanks, which of these
items apply ?

A. III, V VI, VIII

B. I, II, VI, VIII

C. II, IV, VI, VII

D. I, III, VI, VII

125. Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast water shall be carried in any
fuel oil tank. What is the exception ?
A. Ships with special nature of trade which stay for long time at sea, for
example: tugs, fishing boats

B. For exceptional long voyages, when the ships bunkers are depleted and
weather conditions are deteriorating

C. If the double bottom fuel tank is ruptures, the fuel tank may be filled with
ballast if stability requires this

D. In case of voyage repairs being carried out on board ships

603
126. Under Marpol, can a ship carry oil in the Fore Peak Tank ?
A. Only tugs

B. No, not on any vessel

C. Only fishing vessels

D. Only tug boats and fishing vessels

127. Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity to retain the slop generated
by tank washings, oil and dirty ballast residues. Their total capacity shall not
be less than .. % of the tank capacity.
A. 2.5

B. 5

C. 3

D. 1

128. In an existing tanker, which tanks can be designated as slop tanks ?


A. Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast
residue and tank washings from the cargo tanks.

B. Any tank separated form the ships' side by a distance of at least 3 metre

C. Any tank fitted with overboard discharge facilities.

D. Any tank closed to the atmosphere and fitted with an oily water
separation filter.

129. At least two slop tanks are required for..


A. New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above.

B. New oil tankers of 70,000 tons dwt and above.

C. New and existing oil tankers above 150,000 tons dwt.

D. New oil tankers of 4.0,000 tons dwt and above.

604
130. Which of these are the
requirements for an Oil
Discharge Monitoring and
Control System ?

A. I, II, Ill, IV, VI, VII

B. I, II III, V, VI, VII, VIII

C. I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX

D. II, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII

131. An Instruction Manual for Oil Retention and Oil Discharge Monitoring is
required on board. This manual must mention all operations and ..
A. Instructions to ensure that at no time oil shall be discharged.

B. Shall be approved by the Administration.

C. All automatic operations. The manual shall be approved by the


Administration.

D. Shall be approved by the Administration. It must contain instructions to


ensure that no oil can be discharged except in compliance with
regulations

605
132. No oil discharge
monitoring equipment is
to be fitted on tankers if
trading in specific areas
or within 50 miles from
the nearest land provided
that which of these items
apply ?

A. I, Ill, IV, V, VIII

B. I, II, III, IV, V

C. I, II, Ill, IV, VII

D. I, II, Ill, V, VII

133. Under Marpol, any ship of


10,000 tons gross and
above shall be fitted with
which of these items of
equipment for oily-water
separation and oily mixture discharges ?
A. I

B. Ill

C. II

D. IV

606
134. Any ship of 400 tons gross and above but less than 10000 tons, which does
not carry ballast water in fuel oil tanks shall be fitted with a .oil
filtering equipment for engine bilge discharge.
A. 100 ppm

B. 15 ppm

C. 30 ppm

D. 150 ppm

135. Which of these design


requirements must be met by
oil filtering equipment fitted on
ships of 10,000 grt and above ?

A. II, Ill, V, VII

B. I, Ill, VI, VII

C. I. III, V, VI

D. I, II, III, IV

136. Must the ship's Oil Record Book (part I or part II) be of Standard Format
and/or may it be part of the ship's official Log Book ?
A. It may be part of the ships official Log, its format is not standard but
must contain the required information.

B. It is no part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified.

C. It is not part of the ship's official Log, its format is not standard but must
contain all required information.

D. It may be part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified.

607
137. In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges (for example allowed
discharge in order to save life), a statement shall be made in the oil record
book explaining what ?
A. The amount and the specifications of the oil discharged

B. The circumstances of and the reasons for the discharge

C. The report of the accident indicating precautions

D. The amount discharged and the reasons for it

138. Each operation as specified by regulations must be noted in the oil record
book without delay and....
A. The Chief Officer is to sign when the operations are completed and be
countersigned by the Master.

B. The entries match operations completed after which it is signed by the


Master.

C. When the operations are completed will be signed by the Officer or in


charge during the time of the operation.

D. Will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operation and


each completed page will be signed by the Master.

139. Where is the Oil Record Book to be kept on board ?


A. At a place where it is readily available

B. In the ship's office

C. On the bridge

D. I the Master's cabin

608
140. Who can certified true copies of Oil Record Books ?
A. A Notary Public

B. The Master

C. The Officers of the Flag State

D. Port Authorities

141. Of the four categories


of discharges
associated with the
operation of offshore
platforms for which
type or types is
Marpol 73.(03
applicable ?
A. Type, I, Ill and IV

B. Type I only

C. Type IV only

D. Type I and Type IV

142. Which of the following oils is not an asphalt solution ?


A. Roofers Flux

B. Blending Stocks

C. Straight run residue

D. Solvent

609
143. Which of the following products is not listed under "oils" in Appendix I of
Marpol Annex I ?
A. Clarified

B. Road Oil

C. Automotive

D. Spindle oil

144. The following products is not listed as "gasoline blending stock" in


Appendix I of Marpol AnnexI?
A. Reformates

B. Polymer fuel

C. Flashed feed stock

D. Alkylates fuel

145. Which of the following products is not listed under "gasolines" in Appendix
I of Marpol AnnexI?
A. Fuel oil No 1 D

B. Fuel oil No 1

C. Fuel oil No 4

D. Fuel oil No 2

146. The Record of Construction and Equipment, has a chapter about Tanks for
Oil Residues (Sludges). What information is recorded in this chapter ?
A. The location and capacity of the sludge tanks

B. The total tank capacity in m3 and the means for disposal of oil residue in
addition to the provision of sludge tanks

C. The number and capacity of sludge tanks and means of connection to


open deck sludge connection

D. The capacity of the sludge tanks and the pumping arrangements

610
147. The Record of
Construction and
Equipment for ships other
than tanker contains
information in Chapter II
about oil discharge from
the machinery space and
fuel tanks. Which of these
item are included ?

A. II, Ill, IV, VI, VII

B. I. II, Ill, IV, V, VI, VII

C. I, II, Ill, IV, VI, VII

D. I, II, Ill, IV, V, VII

148. If ships other than tankers have spaces constructed and utilised to carry oil
in bulk of a capacity of .or more, the regulations of Annex I for
oil tankers applies.
A. 100 T

B. 400 T

C. 500 cubic metres

D. 200 cubic metres

611
149. There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73R8 (Annex Ito VI). They dealing with
pollution caused by ..
A. I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged
substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution.

B. I = Garbage, II = Air pollution, Ill = Sewage, IV = Harmful


packaged substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil.

C. I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, Ill = Oil, IV = Harmful


packaged substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage.

D. I= Oil, II = Sewage, Ill = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged


substances, V = Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution.

150. Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with


A. The construction, ballast procedures, category of ballast and the
operational procedures of petroleum tankers

B. The pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangementsfor


discharge of cargo residues

C. The labeling and packaging of harmful substances carried as packages

D. The handling and discharge of garbage

151. Annex IV of Marpol, deals with Sewage. How does it affect shipboard
operations concerning processing and treatment of sewage ?
A. Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the time being

B. It is required by the United States only and an approved sewage plant


must be installed on board

C. Discharge is for the time being allowed anywhere as long a sewage plant
is on board

D. The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countries
have adapted them and have stingent regulations

612
152. How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relation to national or port
regulations ?
A. Only Japan and the United States have additional regulations to be
complied with

B. Only Australia has additional regulations to be complied with

C. They are the same for any country which has ratified the Marpol
convention

D. National regulations in the ports visited may be more tingent and must be
complied with

153. Marpol Annex IV concerning


sewage is not yet in force, but
a number of countries
(example USA) have adapted it
and have stringent regulations.
The regulations concern which
of these items ?

A. II, Ill, IV, V, VI

B. I, II, IV, VI, VIII

C. I, Ill, V, VII, VIII

D. I, II, Ill, V, VII

154. Which of these waters are the Special Areas as


defined by Marpol Annex V ?

613
A. I, II, III, IV, VI, VIII, X, XIII

B. I, II, III, V, VII, VIII, X, XIII

C. I, III, IV, V, VII, IX, X, XIII

D. I, II, IV, V, VIII, X, XII, XIII

155. According to Annex V of Marpol , no garbage can be thrown overboard


inside the Special Areas. Which is the exception ?
A. Paper, metal and glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles
offshore

B. Glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore

C. Comminuted (ground up) food waste may be thrown overboard beyond


12 miles offshore

D. Paper ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 12 miles offshore

156. Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special Areas specify that
within 3 miles from the nearest land and in all inland waters.
A. You cannot throw plastics overboard.

B. You cannot throw anything overboard.

C. You cannot throw plastics, dunnage, lining and packing materials that
float overboard.

D. You cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal or food overboard
unless ground to less than 25 mm.

614
157. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that dunnage,
lining and packing materials that float .
A. Maybe thrown overboard outside 3 miles offshore.

B. May not be thrown overboard at anytime.

C. May be thrown overboard outside 12 miles offshore.

D. May be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore.

158. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper,
crockery, rags, metal , glass and food may be thrown overboard within 3 to
12 miles offshore, provided it is ground to less than in size.
A. 5mm

B. 10mm

C. 30 mm

D. 25 mm

159. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that plastics.
A. Cannot be thrown overboard at anytime

B. Cannot be thrown overboard within 12 miles offshore

C. Cannot be thrown overboard within 3 miles offshore

D. Cannot be thrown overboard within 25 miles offshore

160. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper,
crockery, glass, metal, food and rags, bigger in size than 25 mm may only
be thrown overboard outside . miles offshore.
A. 3

B. 25

C. 12

D. 10

615
161. Marpol Annex V garbage disposal regulations outside special Areas specify
the type of garbage which can be thrown overboard at a given distance
offshore. Is this universally accepted ?
A. Yes, except food, some countries have restrictions

B. Yes, accepted by all states and regions

C. Regional or state variations can further restrict the disposal of garbage

D. Yes, except dunnage

162. Outside special areas


there are three ways of
disposing of garbage
produced on board
ships. From this list,
choose the 3 ways ?

A. II, Ill, V

B. I, IV, V

C. I, II, IV

D. I, III, VI

163. Why is on board training important in relation to pollution prevention ?


A. Because pollution related incidents are on the increase and all efforts are
needed to reduce them

B. Because many schools and training facilities are considered sub-standard

C. Because MARPOL is not compulsory taught in nautical schools

D. Because each ship has her own characteristics and equipment with which
the new crew member must become familiar

616
164. How can an on board pollution prevention training program help the new
crew member know clearly what is expected of him ?
A. By teaching and pointing out to the new crew members which are the
weak spots which may cause pollution

B. By composing a realistic training program with special emphasis on the


personal responsibilities and duties of the trainee

C. By teaching the new crew member the requirements of Marpol


concerning pollution of the seas

D. By teaching him the risks of oil transferring operations (bunkers as well


as cargo)

165. For on board pollution prevention training to work, it is important that


..
A. Aquite considerate amount of time is spent with the incoming new crew
member for the first week on board

B. The Master puts up a rigid discipline.

C. The trainees have an adequate background in pollution control

D. It is continuous and stresses safe, pollution free operations

617
166. Which of these items
should be included in an
on board pollution
prevention training
program?

A. I. III, V, VI

B. I, IV, VI, VII

C. I, II, V, VII

D. II, Ill, IV, VI

167. Which of these items can help make


on board pollution prevention
training effective ?

A. II, IV, V, VI, VIII

B. I, II, IV, V, IX

C. I, Ill, V, VII, IX

D. I, III, V, VII, VIII

618
168. To prevent pollution you
should look at how the
operations that may lead to
pollution are conducted on
board of your ship and ask
yourself 3 questions. What
are these questions ?
A. I, III, V

B. I, II, III

C. II, IV, VI

D. I, II, V

169. Pick the flue


operations, from this
list, which when
conducted on cargo
ships may lead to a
pollution incident ?

A. II, IV, V, VI, VII

B. I, II, Ill, IV, VI

C. I, III, V, VII, VIII

D. II, IV, V, VII, VIII

619
170. Permanently posted information and procedures concerning bunkering and
transfer procedures should be available on board in a place where they can
be easily seen and used. Where on board?
A. Either on the bunker manifold values OR in the engine control room OR
near the fuel oil transfer pumps

B. Either on the bridge OR on deck, OR by the manifolds

C. Either in the alleyways near the main entrance OR near the bunkers
emergency shut off valves OR in the cargo control room

D. Either in the engine control room OR near the fuel transfer pumps OR in
the emergency headquarters

171. There is potential for pollution when starting taking ballast on non-SBT
tankers because oil may backflow into the sea via the sea chests. In order to
prevent this a notice should be placed on the ballast pump. Which one ?
A. FLUSH PIPING THROUGH PRIOR TO TAKING BALLAST

B. START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION

C. ENSURE PIPING IS CLEANED PRIOR STARTING PUMP

D. START PUMP WITH DISCHARGE VALVES CLOSED

620
172. Containment is critical
when oil has spilled on
deck. Pollution can be
avoided if prompt action
and careful preparation
for containment is
carried out. Which three
of these items are vital ?
A. I, II, IV

B. I, III, IV

C. I, III, V

D. II, IV, V

173. In order to contain oil spills Gutter Bars (Fish Plates) should be regularly
inspected to make sure that..
A. The fastenings are not worn.

B. The coating is intact.

C. They have not developed cracks or holes.

D. They are correctly fitting

621
174. Tank overflows while loading oil
cargo or bunkering are one of the
most common cases of oil
pollution. Which flue of these
items are the main preventive
measures against tank overflow ?

A. II, IV, V, VI, VII

B. I. Ill, IV, V, VI

C. I, II, Ill, VI, VII

D. I, Ill, V, VI, VII

175. Topping off procedures during oil


cargo loading or bunkering is a most
critical operation. Which fire of these
precautions or actions must be taken
?

A. I, II, III, V, VIII

B. II, IV, VI, VII, VIII

C. I, Ill, V, VI, VII

D. II, III, V, VI, VIII

622
176. Here are FIVE items
concerning topping off
procedures during oil cargo
loading and bunkering. Which
one of these is not true ?

A. III - is not true

B. II - is not true

C. V - is not true

D. I- is not true

177. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been
detained because ..
A. No electrical drawing of the oily bilge separator alarm was posted.

B. No instructions to operate the oily bilge water separator were posted.

C. No pollution placards were posted.

D. No up to date deck port log was kept.

623
178. These items are standard
inspection items for Marpol as
given in guidelines to inspectors
and surveyors. Which item does
not belong ?

A. Item VII - does not belong

B. Item VI - does not belong

C. Item II - does not belong

D. Item V - does not belong

179. An Oil Record Book, Part 1,shall be provided to


every ship of 400 tons gross tonnage and above to
record machinery space operations.Out of below
mentioned operations, it is compulsory to record:

A. Bunkering of bulk lubricating oil.


B. Transfer of oil from settling - to daytank.
C. Discharge of water from Aft, Peak Tank.
D. Purification of HFO.

624
180. Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall
be fitted with oily-water separating equipment for the
control of machinery space bilges.What kind of
equipment is required in this connection?

A. Either Oil fitting equipment , or Oily-water separating equipment , or


combination of both.
B. Oil fitting equipment only.
C. Sludge separating tank.
D. Oily-water separating equipment only.

181. Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we


can pump overboard on the sea voyage?

A. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full


cargo on the ballast voyage.
B. Maximum is 60 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full
cargo on the ballast voyage.
C. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/10000 part of full
cargo on the ballast voyage.
D. There isnt any restrictions of pumping sludge from ships outside special
areas

625
182. For how long time must the printout from the
Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME)
be retained onboard?

A. Three years
B. Six months
C. Two years
D. Four years

183. If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the


water, what would the chemicals do?

A. Disperse or dissolve the oil into the water


B. Absorb the oil for easy removal
C. Remove the oil from the water
D. Contain the oil within a small area

184. In case of a pollution in US waters, who shall


notify the cleaning up contractor (OPA-90)

A. Qualified Individual
B. Emergency response team
C. The Master
D. The shipowner

626
185. In which areas is plastic material accepted for
overboard disposal?

A. Not permissible any where.


B. 100 n.m. from shore line.
C. In specially designated areas (ref. MARPOL).
D. In coastal waters.

186. Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is


forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues?

A. There are special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or
oil residues
B. There are 3 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, and Black
Sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
C. There are 4 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea and
Black Sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
D. There isnt any special area where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge
or oil residues

627
187. MARPOL - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain
heading for Singapore. 2 days after departure, you
would like to empty your machinery space bilges.
What will be the correct procedures in this connection?

A. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge
overboard through oily water separating and filtering equipment.
B. Discharge overboard through oily-water separating and filtering
equipment without calling the bridge.
C. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge
directly overboard.
D. Wait till after darkness and discharge in most convenient way.

188. MARPOL - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an


approved sewage treatment plant certified by the
Administration. During discharge, while vessel is
awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding
water is iscoloured. What kind of action would be
appropriate to take?
A. Stop discharge.
B. Continue discharge since the treatment plant is of an approved type.
C. Reduce discharge rate in order to have less discolouration of surrounding
water.
D. Continue discharge since Annex IV of MARPOL is internationally not
yet in force.

628
189. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside
"Special Areas". After unpacking spares, you are left
with a limited amount of packing materials. Is this
prohibited, if not, what will be the nearest distance to
land for disposal into the sea of these materials?

A. This is prohibited
B. 3 miles
C. 12 miles
D. 25 miles

190. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage. Your


vessel is in the Red Sea (Special Area) and the Chief
Cook is requesting to have some food waste burned in
the incinerator. Due to problems with incinerator, you
decide to have the waste ground in the Grinder (Lump
size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is this
prohibited, if not, how far from nearest land is this legal?
A. 12 miles
B. This is prohibited
C. 3 miles
D. 25 miles

191. Most minor oilspills are caused by:

A. Human error
B. Equipment failure
C. Major casualties
D. Unforeseeable circumstances

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192. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July
93 stating that the previous instantaneous rate of
discharge of oil content (60 litters per nautical mile) was
changed to:

A. 30 litters per nautical mile


B. 25 litters per nautical mile
C. 20 litters per nautical mile
D. 10 litters per nautical mile

193. Notification logging procedures .(OPA-90)

A. Every report or message must be logged including time and date


B. Only initial reports to be logged
C. Only verbal reports for documentation
D. Only communication with USCG

194. Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out


at least (OPA-90):

A. Once a month
B. Once a week
C. Once a year
D. Once every six months

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195. Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, shall be
fitted with oil filtering equipment, complying with
Reg.14 (7) of MARPOL for the control of machinery
space bilges. What would be the maximum oil content of
oily-water mixture to pass through the filter?

A. 15 ppm
B. 100 ppm
C. 30 ppm
D. 60 ppm/n.m

196. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going


overboard by doing what?

A. Plugging the scuppers


B. Driving wooden plugs into the vents
C. Closing the lids on the vents
D. Plugging the sounding pipes

197. The OPA-90 notification requirement is:

A. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill, or threat of a spill


B. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of a spill exceeding 10 gallons of
oil
C. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be responsible
D. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be tracked and charged
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198. What does the term DISCHARGE mean, as used in
the Oil Pollution Regulations?

A. All the other alternatives


B. Spilling
C. Leaking
D. Dumping

199. What is definition on clean ballast as per MARPOL


Annex 1?

A. Ballast with an oil content of less than 15 ppm


B. Ballast with an oil content of less than 45 ppm
C. Ballast with an oil content of less than 1 %
D. There isnt any definition on clean ballast

200. What is the best way to avoid pollution from small oil-
spills aboard a ship?

A. Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship


B. Rig an oil boom around the ship
C. Have dispersing chemicals ready for use in case of oil-spill
D. Have sawdust ready for use

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201. What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oil-
spill on the water?

A. The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water
B. The water gets a white colour, which makes it easy to detect the oil-spill
C. It is difficult to apply the chemicals if the oil drifts away from the ship's
side
D. It is difficult to apply chemicals if there is any wind

202. What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil


Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ?

A. To prove that oil has been pumped overboard according to regulations


B. To prove that the O.D.M.E. system has been used
C. To prove fault conditions in the O.D.M.E
D. None of the mentioned

203. What should you do with the ashes from your


vessels incinerator which had burned garbage
containing plastics?

A. Discharge to a shore facility only


B. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 25 miles offshore
C. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 12 miles offshore
D. Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary

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204. What would be the preferred colour to use
when maintaining the paint on shell, plating,
structure and bottom/tanktopp in the engine
room?

A. White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed and
dealt with.
B. Dark brown/red colour to camuflage any minor leakages and oil spills.
C. Whatever paint is available.
D. The same colour as machinery and equipment.

205. When a pollution incident occurs there is a plan


for actions to be undertaken. State which of
following priority sequences to be considered:

A. Stop pumps - report - clean up?


B. Clean up - report - stop pumps?
C. Report - stop pumps - clean up?
D. Stop pumps - clean up - report?

206. Which of the connections you are shown, are the


dedicated shore connection (MARPOL-
connection) for discharging of sewage ?

A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

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207. Which of the following would be considered
pollution, when discharged overboard, under the
US water pollution laws?

A. All of the mentioned


B. Garbage
C. Hazardous substances
D. Oil

208. Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge


Water" overboard?

A. 15 PPM
B. 100 PPM
C. 50 PPM
D. 0 PPM

209. Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill?

A. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill


B. It is not covered by the pollution law
C. It does little harm to marine life
D. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil

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210. Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any
potential polluting operation?

A. To avoid pollution.
B. To relieve the master.
C. To inform the authorities.
D. To restrict pollution.

211. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast


of Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you
allowed to dump food waste overboard?

A. No, food waste can not be dumped overboard


B. Yes, all kind of food waste can be dumped overboard
C. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting
particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings
D. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting
particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings

212. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the


coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to
dump empty glass bottles overboard ?

A. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting
particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings
B. No, glass bottles can not be dumped overboard
C. Yes, glass bottles can be dumped overboard
D. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting
particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings
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213. You are onboard a vessel off the West African
coast. You want to dump a mixture of food
waste, glass bottles and floating packing
materials. Is this allowed? and if so, how far off
the coast would you have to be?
A. This is prohibited
B. 3 nautical miles off the coast
C. 12 nautical miles off the coast
D. 25 nautical miles off the coast

214. You are taking fuel on your vessel in the US


when you notice oil on the water around your
vessel. You are to stop taking fuel and:

A. Notify the US Coast Guard


B. Begin clean up operations
C. Leave the area
D. Notify the Corps of Engineers

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13. Maintain seaworthiness of the ship

1. A vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo deck will be


assigned the class notation:
A. Ro-Ro
B. Tanker
C. Container
D. Bulk Carrier

2. The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with


machinery aft is:
A. Five
B. Four
C. Six
D. Three

3. The transverse curve of the deck is called:


A. Camber
B. Rake
C. Flare
D. Tumble home

4. Moulded beam is the measurement taken to the:


A. Inside of the Plating
B. Inside of the Ceiling
C. Inside of the Frames
D. Outside of the Plating

5. The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery space of a crude
tanker is called:
A. A Ballast Tank
B. A Cofferdam
C. A Deep Tank
D. An Escape Trunk

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6. The longitudinal curve of the deck is called:
A. Rise of floor
B. Sheer
C. Rake
D. Freeboard

7. The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h.


measured from the bottom is:
A. 0.25 h
B. 0.5 h
C. 0.1 h
D. 0.33 h

8. Istortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called"


A. Racking
B. Pounding
C. Heaving
D. Slamming

9. Panting stresses are most severe:


A. Between the Bulkheads
B. Forward
C. Aft
D. Amidships

10. The condition in which the greatest pounding stresses are liable to occur is:
A. In ballast, beam sea
B. Loaded, head sea
C. In ballast, head sea
D. Loaded, beam sea

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11. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of:
A. Side Girders
B. Deck Girders
C. Stringers
D. Bulkheads

12. The vessels structure foreside the collision bulkhead is stiffened to resist:
A. Panting & Racking
B. Water Pressure
C. Hogging & Sagging
D. Panting & Pounding

13. The connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads is
designed to resist:
A. Sagging
B. Pounding
C. Hogging