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NAVOTAS NATIONAL SCIENCE HIGH SCHOOL

M. Naval St., Sipac, Navotas City

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FIRST PERIODIC TEST


BIOTECHNOLOGY
Directions: Read each question/ incomplete statement carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer.

1. How does an animal cell differ from a plant cell?


a. an animal cell has a big central vacuole while plant cell has a temporary vacuole
b. an animal cell has a cell membrane while plant cell has a definite cell wall
c. an animal cell has definite shape while a plant cell has irregular shape
d. an animal cell is small while a plant cell is big
2. Which of these organelles traps light energy for use in photosynthesis?

a. c.

b. d.
3. Which structures listed in the box are found in plant cell but not in animal cell?

1. cell wall 3. Lysosomes


2. Centrioles
4. Chloroplast

a .1 and 2 b.2 and 4 c.2 and 3 d.1 and 4

4. Plant and animal cells have similarity but also differ in other features. Animal cells are mainly soft and flexible but
plant cells are rigid. This rigidity in plant cells produce timber and lumber which become woodworks. What part
makes the rigidity of plant cells which cant be found in animal cell?
a.Cell membrane b. Cell wall c. Centrioles d. Vacuole
5. Cells are small because as cell size increases, the
a. volume and surface area decrease c. surface area increases faster than the volume
b. volume increases faster than the surface area. d. surface area and volume increase at the same rate.

6. Which of the following structures are found in both plant and animal cells?
I. mitochondria III. Cell wall
II. nucleus IV. Centrioles
a. I and II b. II and III c. III and IV d. I and IV

7. Look at the diagram below and find the correct part to label number one.

a. mitochondria
b. ER
c. nucleus
d. golgi body

8. Using the diagram of the cell below, choose the correct function for the part number one.
a. storage of materials
b. transport of materials
c. protein manufacturing
d. energy conversion

First Periodic Test RABautista


9. What would happen to the cell in figure below if part B is completely removed?
a. the cell will collapse
b. the cell will not recognize
c. the cell will not transport molecules
d. all of these

10. The following structures are absent in prokaryotic cell EXCEPT one.
Which is the exception?
a. chloroplast b. mitochondrion c. nucleus d. ribosome
11. Which of the following organelles are found in eukaryotes but NOT found in prokaryotes?
1. Cell membrane 3. Nuclear materials
2. Nuclear membrane 4. Nucleolus
a. 1 & 2 b. 2 & 3 c. 3 & 4 d. 2 & 4
12. If you met an accident like injury, breakage or spillage you should immediately
a. Report to teacher. b. Run. c. Hide. d. Leave the lab.
13. Which of the following is the BEST thing to do when a glassware becomes chipped or broken?
a. Dont do anything, just keep working.
b. Throw it in the trash can.
c. Put it up on the counter so that the teacher can dispose of it.
d. Notify the teacher immediately.
14. To safely smell a chemical in the lab
a. smell it slowly
b. inhale the fumes directly from the container
c. heat the substance before smelling
d. gently wave the fumes toward your nose using a wafting motion
15. Always point a test tube
a. away from you and toward others
b. away from you and others
c. toward you and others
d. toward you and away from others
16. When mixing acid and water
a. pour water into acid
b. let the teacher pour them
c. pour them at the same time
d. pour acid into water
17. A simple definition of biotechnology is
A. the use of non-living organisms to make other products, to improve animals or to develop microbes
B. the use of living organisms to make other products, to improve animals or to develop microbes
C. the use of chemicals to make other products, to improve animals or to develop microbes
D. the use of computers make other products, to improve animals or to develop microbes
18. Biotechnology is widely used in
A. medicine B. industry C. agriculture D. all of the above
19. Environmental biotechnology involves
A. bioremediation
B. the use of microbes to clean up the environment
C. the study of benefits and hazards of genetically modified microorganisms
D. all of the above
20. The use of living organisms to degrade environmental pollutants is known as
A. bioextraction B. bioremediation C. microremediation D. nanoremediation
21. One example of biotechnology is the process of making fuel from...
A. corn B. cheese C. oil spills D. stem cells
22. Which of these careers would a student studying biotechnology most likely pursue?
A. agricultural research B. astronomy C. electrical engineering D. geology

First Periodic Test RABautista


23. Which is a way the agricultural biotechnology industry could have a positive impact on the environment?
A. by making robots to replace large farm machines
B. by increasing the use of wind farms to produce electricity
C. by reducing the need for counties to import food
D. by producing crops that are virus resistant
24. Which project is most likely to interest a scientist working at a biotechnology company?
A. conservation of key species within an ecosystem C. prevention of sewage leaking into water supply
B. development of genetically modified corn plants D. study and reconstruction of fossilized bones
25. Plant biotechnology involves
A. production of valuable products in plants C. rapid clonal multiplication of desired genes
B. production of virus free plants D. all of the above
26. Strawberries have been genetically modified to resist frost. How is this a benefit to growers in NC?
A. a pest resistant berry C. a longer growing season
B. easier harvesting D. a larger berry
27. The first successfully cloned animal is a
A. dog B. cat C. mouse D. sheep
28. He noticed that all the bacteria in a radius surrounding a bit of mold in a petrie dish had died. The age of penicillin
thus began, although it would be almost 15 years before it was made available to the community for medicinal use.
Who was the scientist to discover penicillin?
A. Alexander Fleming B. Benjamin Franklin C. Edward Jenner D. Gregor Mendel
29. The first patent for a transgenic organism was awarded in 1988. Which organism was patented?
A. a yeast used in industrial processes
B. a bacterium able to metabolize components of crude oil
C. a mouse that manufactures human protein in its milk
D. none of the above
30. He isolated and employed a restriction enzyme to cut DNA by using ligase to paste two DNA strands together to form
a hybrid circular molecule resulting to the first recombinant DNA molecule.
A. Alexander Fleming B. Paul Berg C. Edward Jenner D. Gregor Mendel
31. Which of the following is the first ASEAN country to initiate a biotechnology regulatory program system that
provides specific and scientific standards in biotechnology?
A. China B. Japan C. Malaysia D. Philippines
32. The second biotech crop which was approved for cultivation in our country was the
A. corn B. papaya C. rice D. tomato
33. Animal biotechnology involves
A. alteration of genes to make it desirable
B. production of valuable products in plants using rDNA technology
C. rapid multiplication of microbes with desired genes
D. all of the above
34. What does DNA Stands for?
A.Deoxyribosenucleic acid B.Deoxyribonucleic acid C.Doxyribosenucleic acid D.Doxyribonucleic acid
35. Which among the following four nitrogen bases of the nucleotide does NOT belong to DNA?
A.Adenine B. Cytosine C. Thymine D. Uracil
36. What pentose sugar is present in DNA and RNA?
A. Arabinose and Deoxyribose C. Ribose and Ribulose
B. Deoxyribose and ribose D.Ribulose and Xylose
37. Who are the scientist that discover the shape of DNA?
A.Chadwick and Mendel B. Crick and Mendel C. Chadwick and Watson D. Crick and Watson
38. What is the shape of DNA?
A.Double Helix B. Helix C. Ladder D. Double Ladder
39. What organelle is known as the control system of the cell?
A.Cytoplasm B. Mitochondria C. Nucleus D. Ribosome
40. What type of organic compound is DNA?
A.Carbohydrate B. Fats and Lipids C. Nucleic Acid D. Protein

First Periodic Test RABautista


41. What is the repeating units of DNA?
A.Nucleolus B. Nucleotide C. Nucleus D. None of the above
42. Which among the organic compounds below stores genetic code?
A.Carbohydrate B. Fats and Lipids C. Nucleic Acid D. Protein
43. Nitrogen bases of nucleotide are classified into two. Which classification contains one carbon-nitrogen ring and two
nitrogen atoms?
A.Purine B. Pyrimidine C. Both A and B D. All of the above
44. The basic repeating units of a DNA molecule is known as
a. amino acids b. histones c. nucleoside d. nucleotide
45. Considering DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) structure, backbone outside double helix is made up of
a. sugar and nitrogen c. phosphate and sugar
b. nitrogen and carbon d. phosphate and nitrogen
46. The base thymine is always paired with ___.
a. Adenine b. Guanine c. Cytosine d. Thymine
47. Considering the structure of double stranded DNA, what kinds of bonds hold one complementary strand to the
other?
a. ionic b. covalent c. Van der Waals d. hydrogen
48. The lagging strand of a DNA molecule undergoing replication reads 3-CGCATGTAGCGA-5. What is the code of the
DNA that is the template for the complementary leading strand of this segment?
a. 5-GCGTACATCGCT-3 c. 3-CGCATGTAGCGA-5
b. 5-CGCATGTAGCGA-3 d. 3-GCGTACATCGCT-5
49. Complementary base pairing in DNA assures that only one of the following base pairs exists in DNA. Which of the
following shows a correct base pair?
a. Adenine - Adenine
b. Thymine - Adenine
c. Thymine - Guanine
d. Cytosine Thymine
50. Cell structures made of individual microtubule fibers that are involved in moving chromosomes during cell division
are called _____.
a. centrioles b. fertilizers c. spindles d. chromatids

First Periodic Test RABautista