3M0-250

3Com Certified Enterprise Lan Post-Sales Expert

Version 1.0
QUESTION NO: 1
Which file system command displays the directory entries on a 3Com switch?

A. dir /all
B. cd dir /all
C. display dir
D. display dir /all
E. dir display /all
F. mkdir display /all

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
What is the purpose of the RIP View command network network_address?

A. Enables RIP on all switches with this network address

B. Enables RIP on the switch that is configured with this IP address
C. Displays all RIP routes associated with this network address or with a subnet of this address
D. Enables RIP on all interfaces that are configured with this network address or with a
subnet of this address

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two are Super-VLAN configuration requirements/limitations on the Switch 8800?
(Choose
two.)

A. Up to 64 ports can be assigned to a Super-VLAN

B. Up to 64 Sub-VLANs can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
C. ARP, VRRP and DHCP are not supported on Super-VLANs
D. Sub-VLANs terminate at a router and are isolated at Layer 3
E. Super-VLANs are assigned an IP address; Sub-VLANs may not be assigned an IP address

Answer: B, E

QUESTION NO: 4
Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?

A. Switch 5500-EI
B. Switch 5500-SI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
What is the result of the command boot boot-loader file-url?

A. Reboots the switch using the file-url for the operational code
B. Updates the switch BootROM with the file-url on the system flash
C. Reboots the switch fabric only using the file-url for the operational code
D. Specifies the switch to use file-url for the operational code on the next boot

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6
Exhibit:

Which Switch 7700 command shows all the hardware and software information on the modules?

A. [SW7700] display device

B. [SW7700] display version
C. [SW7700] display interfaces
D. [SW7700] display current-configuration
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 7
Exhibit:

What can be determined from the output of the display ip routing-table (based on the IP
routingtable information shown in the exhibit)?

A. The default route is 200.0.0.1

B. Switch interface 1.0.0.2 is connected to network 1.0.0.0/24
C. VLAN-interface3 has two IP networks configured on the single switch
D. The most desired paths for forwarding packets are IP network 25.0.0.0 and 30.0.0.0

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 8
Which two methods can be used for day-to-day copying of switch configuration and software
files on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose two.)

A. USB port with a flash drive

B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
C. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 9
Which Switch 5500 command would display the status of the front panel Ethernet port
#13 on switch unit #2?

A. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/13

B. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/0/13
C. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/1/13
D. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 13/0/2

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
What is the reason to connect the p port on the bottom Switch 5500 in the stack to the
down port of the top Switch 5500 in the same stack?

A. Reliability - creates a resilient topology

B. Security - prevents an unauthorized user from connecting to the switch stack
C. Performance - creates the 48-Gbps eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric
D. Management - enables Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR) on the Switch 5500-SI

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 11
Exhibit
Why is it important to enable Interface Tracking for VRRP routers (based on the VRRP
diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. If a link failure occurs, the path to the virtual gateway will be blocked
B. If a link failure occurs, it takes longer for the VRRP routers to reconfigure the virtual
gateway
path
C. If a link failure occurs, the master router can configure a new physical link to the
virtual gateway
D. If a link failure occurs, a less efficient network path may be used to forward packets
to the Internet or connectivity to the Internet may be lost altogether

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 12
Exhibit:
How many OSPF areas are configured on the Switch 8800 (Router ID 1.1.1.1) (based on
the set of OSPF commands and diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 13
Exhibit:

Which IP static route command would configure Switch A with a path to Host C (based
on the network diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.1.2

B. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.3.2 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
C. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
D. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.5.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 14
What does a slow (once per second) flashing RUN LED indicate on the Switch 7700
Fabric I/O module?

A. The fabric module is faulty

B. The fabric module is running normally
C. The fabric module is faulty or out of position
D. The fabric module is booting or has not registered successfully

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15
What is the result of configuring a switch port that permits traffic from all Virtual LANs (VLANs),
i.e., configured as a Trunk Port?

A. All VLANs will be tagged

B. All VLANs will be untagged
C. VLAN 1 will be tagged; all other VLANs will be untagged
D. VLAN 1 will be untagged; all other VLANs will be tagged

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 16
Which two multicast protocols cannot be enabled on the Switch 5500/7700/8800, if
IGMP snooping is enabled on the VLAN interface? (Choose two.)

A. IGMP
B. PIM-DM/PIM-SM
C. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF)
D. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 17
How do you configure Ethernet ports on the Switch 5500/7700/8800 families?

A. Use the thernet command to enter the Ethernet Port View

B. Use the Portview command to enter the Ethernet Port View
C. Use the Interface command to enter the Ethernet Port View
D. Use the Configure command to enter the Ethernet Port View

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
How would you stop a specific port interface, which has no router attached, from
sending and receiving RIP updates?

A. From the interface view, issue the ndo network command

B. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip work command
C. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip input command
D. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip output command

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 19
You have already configured and enabled individual switch ports for IEEE 802.1X Network
Login. What is required for authentication to be activated on the ports?

A. From the System View, enable 802.1X Network Login

B. From the Ethernet Port View, set the port access control mode
C. From the System View, configure the authentication method for 802.1X users
D. From the Ethernet Port View, configure the authentication method, i.e., chap, pap, eap, etc.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 20
Protocol Independent Multicast - Sparse Mode (PIM-SM) only delivers multicast traffic to
network segments with active receivers that have explicitly requested the data.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 21
Which best defines the mechanism of IEEE 802.1X Network Login?

A. An authenticator requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces

authentication before allowing access to the network and validates the supplicant on
behalf of the authenticator
B. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authenticator enforces
authentication before allowing access to the network; the authentication server validates
the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
C. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces
authentication before allowing access to the network; the authenticator validates the
supplicant on behalf of the authentication server

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
How would you configure the Switch 5500/7700/8000 to ensure DHCP clients can
communicate with the DHCP server, regardless of which network the client and server
reside on?

A. Configure the switch for UDP Helper

B. Configure the switch for DHCP Relay
C. Configure all the switches as DHCP servers
D. Configure both the DHCP master and DHCP slave

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 23
Which best describes the result of the command 5500-EI-Ethernet1/0/1]traffic-priority inbound
ipgroup 3010 cos video where video is defined at priority 5 in the IEEE 8021.p priority table?

A. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets

B. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
C. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all outbound packets identified by ACL 3010
D. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
identified by ACL 3010

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 24
You have previously configured a switch port as port link-type trunk. You now want the
port to support packets without tagging from multiple VLANs with untagged packets?

A. Use the port link-type hybrid command

B. Use the port link-type access command
C. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type trunk command
D. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type hybrid command

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 25
Which three are properties of the OSPF Designated Router (DR)? (Choose three.)

A. It speaks for all of its adjacent routers in its area

B. All DRs on a network must have the same Router ID
C. The router with the lowest MAC address is elected DR
D. A router with a priority of zero will never become the DR
E. It is responsible for generating and flooding network link advertisements

Answer: A, D, E
QUESTION NO: 26
Exhibit:

Which best describes the configuration of the voice VLAN on the switch (based on the
information shown in the exhibit)?

A. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled at both the System View and Port View; and
all IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
B. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled only at the System View; and 3Com and
Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
C. The voice VLAN ID is 2; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the
VLAN 2; and the switch filters out all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN whose source MAC
does
not match the OUI
D. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it was automatically configured; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will
be recognized by the switch; and the switch allows all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN
that are not OUI-based frames

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 27
What is the primary purpose for using Q-in-Q VLANs (on the Switch 7700/8800, it is referred
to as VLAN-VPN)?

A. To provide a VLAN tunneling technique that is transparent to the Internet Service

Provider
(ISP)
B. To interconnect multiple VLANs to allow packets to be sent between the VLANs without
the requirement of a router
C. To create QoS profiles that can be assigned to multiple VLANs vs. configuring each
VLAN's parameters individually
D. Enables a Service Provider to offer transport services that preserve and extend customers'
VLAN topology over a metropolitan-area network (MAN)

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 28
Which three steps are required to configure and enable an ACL on the Switch
5500/7700/8800? (Choose three.)

A. Define the ACL

B. Create the ACL rules
C. Apply the ACL to the switch
D. Apply the ACL to an interface
E. Apply the user-defined flow template to the ACLs

Answer: A, B, D

QUESTION NO: 29
What is a key reason for using Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) vs. Rapid Spanning
Tree Protocol (RSTP) on a network with multiple VLANs?

A. MSTP supports fast-forwarding configuration on edge ports

B. MSTP supports load balancing Virtual LANs (VLANs) across multiple data paths
C. MSTP allows you to choose the root bridge so you can eliminate the need to use
VLANs on a Layer 2 network
D. MSTP allows you to configure more than one switch to be the Primary Root for a
Multiple Spanning Tree Instance (MSTI) to provide better resilience when VLANs are
used

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 30
Exhibit:
Which best describes the Switch 5500-EI Link Aggregation configuration (based on the
output of the display link-aggregation verbose command shown in the exhibit)?

A. The LA group contains two links, the links were manually configured and load sharing
has been turned off for the LA group
B. The LA group contains two links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing
has been turned on for the LA group
C. The LA group contains four links, the links were manually configured and load sharing
has been turned on for the LA group
D. The LA group contains four links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing
has been turned off for the LA group

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 31
Exhibit:
Which best describes the result of executing the set of Virtual LAN (VLAN) commands on
the Switch 7700 (based on the VLAN commands shown in the exhibit)?

A. Creates a static VLAN with ID 33 for Ethernet ports 3 and 9 on module #1

B. Creates a static VLAN with ID 33 for Ethernet ports 3 through 9 on module #0
C. Creates a static VLAN with ID 33 for Ethernet ports 3 through 9 on module #1
D. Creates a dynamic VLAN with VLAN ID 33 for Ethernet ports 3 through 9 on module #1

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 32
Each Multiple Spanning Tree Instance (MSTI) has its own spanning tree topology and root bridge.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 33
Why would you create a user-defined flow template on a Switch 8800 interface?

A. The flow template defines the actual ACL rules for the switch interface
B. The flow template defines the protocols or protocol fields that can be used in ACL rules
that are not defined in the default flow template
C. The flow template must be defined on the switch interface before an ACL can be
applied or enabled on the interface
D. The flow template defines what type of ACLs can be used on the switch, i.e., Layer 2,
Basic Layer 3 or Advanced Layer 3 ACLs

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 34
Exhibit:
Which best describes the result of executing the set of commands on a Switch 7700
(based on the commands shown in the exhibit)?

A. Creates two groups of Aggregated Links between two switches

B. Configures an Aggregated Link on the switch using Gigabit Ethernet ports 1 and 2 on
module
#1
C. Configures an Aggregated Link using Gigabit Ethernet port 1 on module #1 and
Gigabit Ethernet port 1 on module #2
D. Creates an Aggregated Link between two switches, using Gigabit Ethernet port 1 on
module #1 on one switch and Gigabit Ethernet port 2 on module #1 on the second switch

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 35
Which type of Virtual LAN (VLAN) created on a switch provides limited network access to a
user who does not have a username and password configured on an Authentication,
Authorization and Accounting (AAA) server?

A. A Guest VLAN
B. An IP protocol-based VLAN
C. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) VLAN
D. A VLAN on each port with limited network access

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 36
Which three best describe how multicast packets are forwarded on a network? (Choose three.)

A. The destination address is used to select the forwarding path

B. The source sends packets to a group of destinations identified by the multicast address
C. Traffic is routed through the network along a single path from the source to the
destination
host
D. Multicast routers use a technique called Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) to forward
multicast traffic away from the source
E. Multicast routers determine which direction is upstream/downstream and send a copy
of the multicast packet down each appropriate downstream path
Answer: B, D, E

QUESTION NO: 37
What is the result of the following two Virtual LAN (VLAN) Switch 8800 commands SWA-
mstpregion] instance 0 vlan 201 202 and SWA-mstp-region] instance 1 vlan 211 212?

A. Creates four VLANs on the switch - VLAN 201, 202, 203 and 204
B. Instantly creates two VLANs that will be eliminated when the switch is rebooted
C. Configures the VLAN mapping table, creating multiple paths for VLAN 201, 202, 203 and 204
D. Configures the VLAN mapping table, creating two distinct paths - one for VLAN 201/202
and the other for VLAN 211/212

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 38
What is the primary purpose of a Backup Designated Router (BDR) in an OSPF-based network?

A. It reduces the time of traffic disruption if the DR fails

B. It takes on the responsibility of polling other routers in the OSPF area
C. It sends Link State Advertisements (LSAs) to adjacent OSPF areas?routers
D. It provides load balancing when the DR reaches the user-defined utilization

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 39
Exhibit:

Why was IGMP snooping disabled on the Switch 5500 SWA VLAN Interface 1
(based on multicast commands shown in the exhibit)?

A. IGMP snooping and PIM-DM cannot be active on the same VLAN

B. IGMP snooping and PIM-DM cannot be active on the same switch
C. IGMP snooping and PIM-DM cannot be active on the same network
D. PIM-DM does all the functions of IGMP snooping and more, so IGMP snooping
creates unnecessary overhead

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 40
What is a primary purpose of the master VRRP router on a network?

A. Is responsible for actually routing all traffic

B. Configures hosts to use the virtual default gateway
C. Provides Link State Advertisements to the other VRRP routers
D. Redirects traffic from the default gateway to the virtual gateway

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 41
Exhibit:

What must be done to enable load sharing on a subnet with multiple master VRRP routers
(based on the VRRP network diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. Configure each router with multiple IP addresses

B. Configure the subnet switches for STP - DISABLE
C. Configure each router with multiple VLANs to the default gateway
D. Configure the hosts in the same subnet to point to different default gateways

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 42
Exhibit:
Which best describes the multicast network configuration (based on multicast
commands and network diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. SWB is responsible only for forwarding multicast packets for this network
B. SWB is responsible only for collecting and advertising the information about all
multicast Candidates Rendezvous Points (RPs)
C. SWB is responsible for forwarding multicast packets for this network and for collecting
and advertising the information about all multicast candidates Rendezvous Points (RPs)
D. SWB is responsible for forwarding multicast packets for VLAN2 only and for collecting
and
advertising the information about multicast candidates?Rendezvous Points (RPs) for
VLAN2
only

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 43
Which two are reasons to use OSPF as your network routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A. OSPF scales to support larger networks by establishing multiple areas

B. Although RIP provides faster network convergence than OSPF, OSPF provides
greater link reliability
C. OSPF uses less network bandwidth than RIP by using IP multicast to send advertisements
D. OSPF updates the network topology by forwarding the entire routing table,
minimizing the need for multiple reconfigurations
E. OSPF only maintains the information on the best path or fastest link, reducing the size
of the table and therefore network utilization

Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO: 44
Quality of Service (QoS) commands can be used in conjunction with ACLs on the
Switch 5500/7700/8800.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 45
How would you view the configuration information that is running on a switch?

A. Use the display startup command

B. Use the display version command
C. Use the display saved-configuration command
D. Use the display current-configuration command

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 46
Why is it critical to support IGMP snooping on a network with a high degree of
video conferencing?

A. It eliminates all multicast traffic

B. It configures the host sending the video broadcast to forward one packet for all users
C. It eliminates the need for hosts receiving the broadcast to confirm receipt of the packet
D. It directs the Layer 2 switches on the network to forward multicast traffic to the
specific member ports only

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 47
Which two are general Link Aggregation (LA) configuration rules that must be followed
when creating an LA group? (Choose two.)

A. A member link port can only belong to one LA group

B. Aggregated links are mutually exclusive with roving analysis and mirror ports
C. A port must be configured for resilient links before it can be configured as a member of
an LA group
D. LA ports can only be configured if Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is enabled on
the switches

Answer: A, B
QUESTION NO: 48
Which Switch 8800 Fabric Status LED condition indicates the Fabric Module is powered-up
and operating normally?

A. SFS LED is on
B. ACT LED is green
C. RUN LED is green
D. ACT LED is blinking green
E. RUN LED is blinking green

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 49
Which two are required to define an ACL on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose two.)

A. Create the ACL exception table

B. Enable the ACL on the switch port
C. Enter the ACL view and add the ACL rule(s)
D. For numbered ACL, specify the ACL number
E. For Layer 2 ACLs, configure the IP source/destination address

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 50
What is the effect of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) switch command
nmpagent target-host trap address udp-domainWhat is the effect of the Simple Network
Management
Protocol (SNMP) switch command ?nmp-agent target-host trap address udp-domain
129.102.149.23 udp-port 5000 params securityname 3comprivate?

A. Configures the switch with a default community string name of 3comprivate

B. Enables the SNMP trap functions on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
C. Configures the switch SNMP agent to send traps to the network management
station at IP address 129.102.149.23
D. Enables the SNMP trap functions and sets the default community string name of
3compublic on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23

Answer: C