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anip I

Medical Entrance Exam·

Solved Paper 20 2

1. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken thorough the 5. Which quantity is increased in step-down
theromodynamic states A -> B ~ C -> D via the transformer?
paths shown in the figure. If V A, VB, V c and V D (a) Current (b) Voltage
represent the internal energy of the gas in states (c) Power (d) Frequency
A, B, C and D respectively, then which of the 6. Beyond which frequency, the ionosphere bends
following is not true? any incident electromagnetic radiation but do
not reflect it back towards the earth?
(a) 50 MHz (b) 40 MHz
~ 2p

----------ACJB- (c) 30 MHz (d) 20 MHz

a.. p ---------- 7. In intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature

DI1 1
C number of electrons and holes are
(a) equal (b) zero
(c) unequal Cd) infinite
T 2T
Temperature _ _ 8. What should be the velocity of an electron so
(a) V A =V D (b) VB < V A
that its momentum becomes equal to that of a
(c) VB =V c (d)Vc>VD
photon of wavelength 5200 A?
(a) 700 mls (b) 1000 m/s
2. The external diameter of a 314 m long copper
(c) 1400 mls (d) 2800 mls
tube is 1.2 cm and the internal diameter is 1 cm.
Calculate its resistance if the specific resistance 9. A radioactive element has half-life period of
of copper is 2.2 x 10-8 n-m 600 yr. After 3000 yr, what amount will remain?
(a) 5.0 x 10-2 n (b) 4.4 x 10-2 n (a) ~ (b) 2.
2 16
(c) 3.14 x 10-2 n (d) 2.2 x 10-2 n
(c) ~ (d) 2.
3. A voltmeter of range 2 V and resistance 300 n 8 32
cannot be converted into ammeter of range
10. An electric motor runs on DC source of emf
(a) 1 A (b) 1 rnA
200 V and draws a current of 10 A. If the
(c) 100 rnA (d) 10 rnA
efficiency be 40%, then the resistance of
4. If a magnet is suspended at an angle 30° to the armature is
magnetic meridian, the dip needle makes angle (a) 2n (b) 8n
of 45° with the horizontal. The real dip is (c) 12 n (d) 16n
(a) tan- 1 (.)312) (b) tan- 1 (.)3)
11. A capacitor having capacity of 2.0 /-IF is charged
(c) tan- 1 (3/.J2) (d) tan- 1 (21.)3) to 200 Vand then the plates of the capacitor are
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2 I Manipal CMed.) Solved Paper 2012

connected to a resistance wire. The heat 16. The potential of a large liquid drop when eight
produced in joule will be liquid drops are combined is 20 V. Then, the
(a) 2 x 10-2 (b) 4 x 10-2 potential of each single drop was
(c) 4 x 10 4 Cd) 4 x 1010 Ca) 10 V Cb) 7.5 V
Cc) 5 V Cd) 2.5 V
12. In the Wheatstone's network given, P := 100,
17. Water lises in plant fibres due to
Q = 200, R = 150, S:= 300, the current
Ca) capillarity (b) viscosity
passing through the battery (of negligible
internal resistance) is (c) fluid pressure Cd) osmosis
18. During an adiabatic process, the cube of the
pressure is found to be inversely proportional to
the fourth power of the volume. Then, the ratio
of specific heats is
(a) 1 (b) 1.33
(c) 1.67 Cd) 1.4
19. The volume of a nucleus is directly proportional
(a) A
-=t1 f-I_---..J (c) -fA
6V (where, A := mass number of the nucleus)
(a) 0.36 A (b) zero 20. A Carnot's engine has an efficiency of 50% at
Cc) 0.18 A (d) 0.72 A sink temperature 50°C. Cillculate the
13. Two tangent galvanometers A and B have coils temperature of source.
of radii 8 cm and 16 cm respectively and (a) 133°C (b) 143°C
resistance 8 ° each. They are connected in
parallel with a cell of emf 4 V and negligible
(c) 100"C Cd) 373°C
21. What is the Q-value of the reaction?
internal ressistance. The deflections produced p + 7Li __> 4He + 4He
in the tangent galvanometers A and Bare 30°
and 60° respectively. If A has 2 turns, then B The atomic masses of 1 I-~ 4 He and 7 Li are
must have 1.0078254u, 4.0026034u and 7.016004u
(a) 18 turns (b) 12 turns respectively
(c) 6 turns Cd) 2. turns (a) 17.35 MeV (b) 18.06 MeV
14. A current of 5 A is passing through a metallic (c) 177.35 MeV Cd) 170.35 MeV
wire of cross-sectional area 4 x 10-. 6 m 2. If the 22. The water of volume 4 m3 at the height 20 m is
density of charge carriers of the wire is pressed by 2 x lOs N pressure. The work done by
5 x 10 m- 3 , the drift velocity of the electrons motor is
will be (a) 8 x10 s J (b) 16 x lOS J
(a) 1 x 10 2 ms- 1 Cb) 1.56 x 10-2 ms- 1 (c) 12x10 s J (d) 32xl0 5 J
(c) 1.56 x 10-3 ms- 1 Cd) 1 x 10-- 2 ms- 1 23. The wavelength of Ko. line in copper is 1.5 A.
15. A single slit Fraunhofer diffraction pattern is The ionisation energy of K electron in copper is
formed with white light. For what wavelength (a) 11.2 x 10. 17 J (b) 12.9 x 10- 16 .J
of light, the third secondary maximum in the (c) 1.7 xlO-IS.J (d) 10 xl0- 16 .J
diffraction pattern coincides with the second
secondary maximum in the pattern for red light 24. A proton is moving in a uniform magnetic field B
of wavelength 6500 A7 in a circular path of radius a in a direction
(a) 4400 A (b) 4100 A perpendiCUlar to Z axis along which tleld B
(c) 4642.8 A Cel) 9100 A exists. Calculate the angular momentum. If the
radius is a and charge on proton is c.

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Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012 I3
Be 32. If two soap bubbles of different radii are
(a) 2"
a connected by a tube, then
(c) a2eB Cd) aeB (a) air flow from bigger bubble to the smaller
bubble till sizes become equal
25. Curie-Weiss law is obeyed by iron
(b) air flow from bigger bubble to the smaller
(a) at curie temperature only
bubble till sizes are interchanged
(b) at all temperatures
(c) air flow from smaller bubble to bigger
(c) below curie temperature (d) there is no flow of air
(d) above curie temperature
33. The hardness of X-rays by coolidge tube
26. When light is incidence on a diffraction grating,
depends upon
then the zero order maximum will be
(a) filament current
(a) spectrum of the colours
(b) air pressure in tube
(b) white
(c) material of target
(c) one of the component colours
Cd) potential between target and cathode
(d) absent
27. The wavelength of first line of Balmer series is 34. A launching vehicle carrying an artificial
6563 A. The wavelength of first line of Lymen satellite of mass m is set for launch on the
series will be surface of the earth of mass M and radius R. If
(a) 1215.4 A (b) 2500 A the satellite is intended to move in a circular
(c) 7500 A (d) 600 A orbit of radius 7R, the minimum energy
requirlOcl to be spent by the launching vehicle on
28. The reactance of inductance at 10 4 Hz is 10 4 n.
the satellite is
Its reactance at 2 x 10 4 Hz will be
(Gravitational constant = G)
(a) 104 n (b) 2x10 4 n (a) GMm 13GMm
(b) -,--,--
(c) 3 x 10 4 n (d) 4 x 10 4 n R 14R
29. In adiabatic process, the work done by system is (c) CiMn!. (d) GMm
7R l4R
50 J, then
(a) the temperature of the system will be 35. The displacements of two particles of same mass
increase 50 J executing SHM are represented by the
(b) the temperature of the system will be equations
(c) the internal energy of the system will be Xl = 4 Sin( lOt + -~) and x2 = Scos(wt).
increase 50 J
(d) the internal energy of the system will be The value of (0 for which the energies of both the
decrease 50 J particles remain same is
(a) 16 unit (b) 6 unit
30. The ozone layer is important because
(c) 4 unit (d) 8 unit
(a) it prevents the cooling of each at night
(b) it prevents the IR rays coming from the 36. The excess pressure inside a spherical soap
space bubble of radius 1 cm is balanced by a column
(c) it prevents UV rays from the meteors of oil (specific gravity = 0.8), 2 mm high, the
coming from the space surface tension of the bubble is
(d) it prevents the UV rays and micro rays the (a) 3.92 N/m (b) 0.0392 N/m
coming from the space (c) 0.392 N/m (d) 0.00392 N/m
31. If resonant frequency is f and capacity become 37. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards
4 times, then resonant frequency will be
with initial velocity 4 ms- 1. The cross-sectional
(a) 1 (b) 2f area of the tap is A. The flow is steady and
pressure is constant throughout the stream of
(c) f (d) 1 water. The distance h vertically below the tap,
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41 Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012

where the cross-sectional area of the stream 44. The path difference, time difference and phase
becomes (~) A, is (g == 10 m/s2)
difference between two successive zones will be
'A T
(a) -, - and 11: (b) 'A, T and n
(a) 0.5 m (b) 1 m 2 2
(c) 1.5 m (d) 2.2 m 'A T 11: 'A T
(c) - - and- (d) -, - and 2n
2' 2 2 2 2
38. The diameter of objective of a telescope is 1m.
Its resolving limit for the light of wavelength 45. At what speed should a source of sound move so
4538 A, will be that stationary observer finds the apparent
(a) 5.54 x 10- 7 rad frequency equal to half of the original
(b) 2.54 x 10-4 rad v
(a) - (b) 2v
(c) 6.54 x 10-7 rad 2
(d) None of the above (c) v (d) v
39. The potential difference between two parallel 4
plates is 10 4 V. If the plates are separated by 46. At inductance 1 H is connected in series with an
0.5 cm, the force on an electron between the AC source of 220 V and 50 Hz. The inductive
plates is resistance (in ohm) is
(a) 32 x 10- 13 N (b) 0.32 x 10- 13 N (a) 211: (b) SOn
(c) lOOn (d) 1000n
(c) 0.032 X 10-13 N (d) 3.2 x 10- 13 N
47. If the pressure of an ideal gas contained in a
40. A body of mass '19. '" 4 kg moves at Sf mls and closed vessel is increased by 0.4%, the increases
another body of mass m2 == 2 kg moves at in temperature is 1°C. The initial temperature of
lOi m/s.The kinetic energy of centre of mass is the gas is
(a) 300 J (b) 500 J (a) 25°C (b) 250°C
3 3 (c) 250 K (d) 2500°C
(c) 400 J (d) ~OO J
3 3
48. If a van der Waal's gas expands freely, then final
temperature is
41. Two block of masses of 1 kg and 2 kg are (a) less than the initial temperature
connected by a metal wire going over a smooth
(b) equal to the initial temperature
pulley. The breaking stress of metal is
(c) more than the initial temperature
~~ x 10 6 N/m2 . What should be the minimum (d) less or more than the initial temperature
depending on the nature of the gas
radius of wire used if it should not break?
(g==10m/s 2 ). 49. The de-Broglie wavelength of a proton
(a) 0.5 mm (b) 1 mm (charge == 1.6 x 10- 19 C,mass
(c) 1.5 mm (d) 2 mm '" 1.6 x 10-27 kg) accelerated through a
42. In the Young's double slit experiment, potential difference of 1 kV is
intensities of black and bright fringes are 1 and (a) 600 A (b) 0.9 x 10-12 m
4 respectively, the ratio of amplitudes of sources (c) 7 A (d) 0.9 nm
will be
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 50. A radioactive element forms its own isotope
(c) 3: 1 (d) 1: 4 after 3 consecutive disintegrations. The
particles emitted as
43. If inductance and resistance of chocke coil are
(a) 3p-particles
XL and R respectively, then
(b) 2P -particles and 1 a.-particle
(a) XI. ==R (b) XL »R
(c) 2p-particles and 1 y-particle
(c) XL«R (d) X L ",=
(d) 2a.-particles and 1 p-particle

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51. A step-down transformer reduces the voltage of (a) 9 min (b) 7 min
a transmission line from 2200 V to 220 V. The (c) 5 min (d) 3 min
power delivered by it is 880 Wand its efficiency 56. The term liquid crystal refers to a state that is
is 88%. The input current is intermediate between
(a) 4.65 rnA (b) 0.045 A (a) clystalline solid and amorphous liquid
(c) 0.45 A (d) 4.65 A (b) crystalline solid and vapour
52. If Al and A2 are the wavelengths of the first (c) amorphous liqUid and its vapour
members of the Lyman and Paschen series (d) a crystal immersed in a liquid
respectively, then "I : A2 is 57. A wave travelling in air falls on a glass plate. It is
(a) 1: 3 (b) 1: 30 partly reflected and partly refracted. The phase
(c) 7: 50 (d) 7: 108 difference between the reflected and refracted
53. Identify the operation performed by the circuit waves is
given below (a) zero (b) IT
A---d~'\ A (c) IT (d) 2IT
58. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of
_ ,L// intensities f and 4f are superposed. The
S'-.'~ maximum and' minimum possible resulting
Bo---C=:L/ intensities are
(a) Sf and 0 (b) Sf and 3f
(a) NOT (b) AND
(c) 9f and f (d) 9f and 31
(c) OR (d) NAND
54. In a transistor, the collector current is always 59. The light of wavelength 5000 'A falls on a
less than the emitter current because photosensitive plate of work function 1.9 eV.
(a) collector side is reverse biased and the The kinetic energy of the emitted
emitter side is forward biased photoelectrons is
(b) a few electrons are lost in the base and only (a) 0.58 eV (b) 2.48 eV
remaining ones reach the collector (c) 1.24 eV (d) 1.18 eV
(c) collector being reverse biased, attracts less
electrons 60. A galvanometer can be converted into a
(d) collector side is forward biased and emitter voltmeter by connecting
side is reverse biased (a) low resistance in parallel
55. A rectangular vessel when full of water, takes (b) low resistance in series
10 min to be emptied through an orifice in its (c) high resistance in parallel
bottom. How much time will it take to be (d) high resistance in series
emptied when half filled with water?

1. Benzaldehyde condenses with N,N-dimethyl (a) diketones (b) carboxylic acids
aniline in the presence of anhydrousZnC1 2 to give (c) diols (d) dialdehydes
(a) azodye (b) malachite green 3. Which of the following is used widely in the
(c) buffer yellow (d) None of these manufacture of lead storage battery?
2. The general formula C nH 21P 2 could be for open (a) Arsenic (b) Lithium
chain (c) Bismuth (d) Antimony

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61 Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012

4. On passing 3A of electricity for 50 min 1.8 g 12. The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of
metal deposits. The equivalent mass of metal is sodium ferrocynanide is
(a) 9.3 (b) 19.3 (a) 12 x 10 23 (b) 26 x 1023
(c) 38.3 (d) 39.5 (c) 34 xI 0 23 (d) 48 x 10 23
5. Saturated solution of KNO 3 is used to make salt 13. Which of the following statement in relation to
bridge because the hydrogen atom is correct?
(a) velocity of K+ is greater than that of N0 3 (a) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same
(b) velocity of N0 3 is greater than that of K'· energy.
(b) 3$ and 3p-orbitals are of lower energy than
(c) velocity of both K+ and N0 3 are nearly
same (c) 3p-orbital is lower in energy than 3d-orbital.
(d) KN0 3 is soluble in water (d) J.,-orbital is lower in energy than3p-orbital.
6. For which order half-life period is independent 14. Which of the following is not tetrahedral?
of initial concentration? (a) BF4 Cb) NH;;
(a) Zero (b) First (c) C01- (d) SO~-
(c) Second (d) Third
15. Considering x-axis as the internuclear axis,
7. Sodium phenoxide reacts with CO 2 at 400 K and which out of the following will not form a sigma
4-7 atm pressure to give . bond.
(a) cathechol (b) . salicylaldehyde (a) Is and Is (b) Is and 2px
(c) salicylic acid (d) sodium salicylate (c) 2py and 2py Cd) Is and 2s
8. The rate constant for the first order reaction is 16. The chlorination of methane is an example of
60 s--1. How much time will it take to reduce the (a) addition (b) elimination
(c) substitution (d) chain reaction
concentration of the reactant to ~th value?
16 17. Reactivity towards nucleophilic addition
(a) 4.6 x 10-2 S (b) 4.6 x 10 4 s reaction of (I) HCHO (II) CH:P-IO (III)
(c) 4.6 x 10 2 s (d) 4.6 x 10-4 s
(a) II> III> I (b) III> II> I
9. The rate of reaction (c) I> II> III Cd) 1> II <III
CCl 3 CHO + NO ---7 CHCl 3 + NO + CO 18. Which of the following is active species in
is equal to rate == k[CCI 3 CI-IO][NO]. If sulphonatiol1 of benzene?
concentration is expressed in mol L- l , the unit (a) S03 (b) S03
of k is Cc) S03 CeI) HS04:
(a) L mor-ls l (b) mol 1;-1 s-1 19. Which of the following can't be used in
(c) L2 mor- 2 s-1 (d) s--1 Friedel-Craft's reaction?
(a) FeCI 3 (b) FeBr2
10. When phenolic ether is heated with HI it yields (c) AlCl 3 (d) NaCl
(a) alkyl halide + aryl halide + water
20. The order of reactivities of methyl halide in the
(b) alkyl halide -I- phenol
formation of Grignard reagent is
(c) alcohol + aryl halide
(a) CH 3Cl> CH 3Br > CH31
(d) None of the above
(b) CH3I> CH3Br> CH 3CI
11. Which of the following is not correct? (c) CH3Br> CH3I > CH 3CI
(a) Milk is naturally occurring emulsion (d) CH3Br> CH 3Cl > CH3I
(b) Gold sol is a lyophilic sol 21. The product formed when toluene is heated in
(c) Physical adsorption decreases with rise in light with Cl 2 and in absence of halogen carrier is
temperature (a) chlorobenzene (b) gammexene
(d) Chemical adsorption is unilayered. (c) benzotrichloride Cel) DDT

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Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012 I&7
22. If the pressure on a NaCI structure is increased, (a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (ii), (iii),,(iv)
then its coordination number will (c) (i), (iii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(a) increase (b) decrease 30. A litre of solution is saturated with AgCI. To this
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) remain the same solution if 1.0 x 10-4 mole of solid NaCl is
23. If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X 2 and added, what will be the [Ag+] assuming no
Y2 (all diatomic molecules) are in the ratio of volume change?
1 : 1 : 0.5 and !lH f for the formation of XY is (a) More (b) Less
-200 kJ mol-I, the bond dissociation energy of (c) Equal (d) Zero
X 2 will be 31. Aqueous solution of sodium cyanide is
(a) 400 kJ mor- 1 (b) 300 kJ mol- 1 (a) acidic (b) amphoteric
(c) 200 kJ mol- 1 (d) 800 kJ mol- 1 (c) basic (d) neutral
32.. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
24. The enthalpies of all the elements in their
standard states are S03(g) ~ S02(g) -I-~ 02(g)
(a) unity 2
(b) zero is KG == 4.9 X 10- . The value of Kc for the
(c) < 0 reaction
(d) different for each element 2S0 2 (g) + 02(g) ~ 2S0 3 (g)
25. A reaction, A -I- B ----7 C -I- D -I- q is found to will be
have a positive entropy change. The reaction
will be (a) 416 Cb) 2.40 x 10- 3
(a) possible at high temperature (c) 9.8 x 1Q:-2 Cd) 4.9 x 10-2
(b) possible only at low temperature 33. In the reaction,
(c) not possible at any temperature
Agj) + Hj)2 - 1 2Ag -I- Hj) -I- 02
Cd) possible at any temperature
Hj)2 acts as
26. Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to CO 2 is (a) a reducing agent (b) oxidising agent
393.5 IeJ mol-I. The heat released upon (c) bleaching agent (d) None of these
formation of 35.2 g of CO 2 from carbon and 34. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other
dioxygen gas is (molar mass of they unites to form one cube. Which of the
CO 2 = 44 g mol-I) following forces are responsible to hold them
(a) 3.148 kJ (b) 31.48 kJ together?
(c) 314.810 (d) 3148 kJ (a) Ionic interaction
27. Work done during isothermal expansion of one (b) van del' Waal's forces
mole of an ideal gas from 10 atm to 1 atm at (c) Covalent interaction
300 K is (el) Hydrogen bond formation
(a) 4938.8 J (b) 4138.8 J 35. Red lead is
(c) 5744.1 J (d) 6257.2 J (a) PbC0 3 (b) Pb 30 4
28. Which of the follovving is not a conjugate (c) PbO z Cd) PbS0 4
acid-base pair? 36. Which gas is liberated when At[C 3 is
(a) I-IPO~-, P01- (b) H 2P0 4, HPO~­ hydrolysed?
(c) H 2P0 4, HS P0 4 (d) HZP0 4, PO~- (a) CH 4 (b) C 2H z
(c) C 2H 6 (d) CO 2
29. Which of the following will not function as a
buffer solution? 3'7. When zeolite which is hydrated sodium
(i) NaCI and NaOH aluminium silicate is treated with hard water,
(ij) NaOH and NH 4 0H the sodium ions are exchanged with
(iii) CH 3 COONH 4 and HCI (a) H+ ions
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81 Manipal (Med.) *' Solved Paper 2012

(c) Ca 2+ ions
(d) both Ca 2+ and Mg2+ «) ~ t~OOH
38. A codon has a sequence of A and specifies a

particular B that is to be incorporated in to C
What are A, B, C?
(a) 3 bases amino acid carbohydrate

(b) 3 acids carbohydrate protein
(c) 3 bases protein amino acid
(d) 3 bases amino acid protein Cd)
39. Proteins when heated with conc. HN0 3 give a
yellow colour. This is
(a) Hoppe's test (b) acid base test
(c) Biuret test (d) xanthoprotic test 44. Which of the following is a natural dye?
(a) Alizarin (b) Malachite green
40. Codon is present in
(a) t-RNA (b) m-RNA (c) Phenolphthalein Cd) Martius yellow
(c) fats (d) r-RNA 45. Mn 2+ can be converted into Mn 7 + by reacting
41. Amylopectin is a polymer of
(a) Pb0 2 (b) SnC1 2
(a) CI.-D glucose (b) CI.-D fructose
(c) S02 (d) Cl 2
(c) lactose (d) amylose
46. Which of the following compounds show optical
42. Which one of the following statements is isomerism?
wrong? (a) [Co(CN)6]3- (b) [Cr(Cz0 4 h]3-
(a) The repeating monomer units in bakelite
are phenol and formaldehyde (c) [ZnCl 4]2- (d) [CuCNH 3 )4]2+
(b) Low density polythene is an example of 47. Which of the following represents a chelating
branched chain polymers
(c) Homopolymer contains a single type of
(a) HzO (b) Cl-
(d) Vulcanization is the process of heating (c) ow (d) DMG
natural rubber with carbon 48. When alkyl halide is heated with dry AgzO, it
43. Parkinson's disease is linked to abnormalities in produces
the levels of dopamine in the body. The (a) ester (b) ether
structure of dopamine is (c) ketone Cd) alcohol

49. The best reagent to convert pent-3-en-2-ol into
pent-3-en-2-one is
(a) pyridinium chlorochromate
(,) (b) chromic anhydride in glacial acetic acid
(c) acidic dichromate
OH (d) acidic permanganate
50. During the process of electrolytic refining of

copper, some metals present as impurity settle
as "anode mud". These are
(a) Fe and Ni
(b) Ag and Au
(c) Pb and Z11
OH Cd) Se and Ag

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Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012 9
51. Which of the following is not a peroxy acid? (a) 3: 4 (b) 1: 2
(a) Perphosphoric acid (c) 1: 4 (d) 1: 1
(b) Pernitric acid LiAlH4
(c) Perdisulphuric acid ----'-';> A + CH 3COOH
(d) Perchloric acid H 0+
52. Chlorine is liberated when we heat ~ B+HzO
(a) KMn04 + NaCI In the above reactions A and B respectively are
(b) Pb 2(N0 3 )4 + Mn02 (a) CH3COOC 2Hs, C 2HsOH
(c) KzCrz07 + Mn02 (b) CH3CHO, C2HsOH
(d) K2Crz07 + HCI (c) C 2HsOH, CH 3CHO
53. In which case Raoult's law is not applicable? (d) C2HsOH, CH 3 COOC 2Hs
(a) 1 M NaCI (b) 1 M urea 58. Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of CH3Mg1
(c) 1 M glucose (d) 1 M sucrose followed by treatment with a saturated solution
54. Increasing the temperature of an aqueous of NH 4CI gives
solution will cause (a) acetone
(a) decrease in molarity (b) acetamide
(b) decrease in molality (c) 2-methyl-2-propanol
(c) decrease in mole fraction (d) acetyl iodide
(d) decrease in % w/w 59. Reaction of aniline with acetyl chloride in the
55. To neutralize completely 20 mL of 0.1 M presence of NaOH gives
aqueous solution of phosphorus acid (H 3P0 3 ), (a) acetanilide
the volume of 0.1 M aqueous KOH solution (b) p-chloroaniline
required is (c) red dye
(a) 20 mL (b) 30 mL (d) aniline hydrochloride
(c) 40 mL (d) 50 mL 60. Which of the following is a biodegradable
56. 138 g of ethyl alcohol is mixed with 72 g of polymer?
water. The ratio of mole fraction of alcohol to (a) Polythene (b) Bakelite
water is (c) PHBV Cd) PVC

1. Striped muscles are (c) proto nephridia
(a) syncytial (b) uninucleate (d) Malpighian tubules
(c) binucleate (d) anucleate 4. Which of the following structure is related with
2. Regarding blood circulation, it may be said that vision in rabbits?
in Pheretima the dorsal vessel is a (a) Hippocampus
(a) collecting vessel in first two segments and (b) Corpus albicans
distributing vessel in other (c) Corpus callosum
(b) distributing vessel in the first five segments (d) Corpora quadrigemina
and collecting vessel in other 5. Which of the following cells are useful for
(c) collecting vessel in thirteen segments and feeding in sponges?
distributing vessel in intestinal region
(a) Thesocytes (b) Collar cells
(d) distributing vessel in first thirteen segments
(c) Pinacocytes (d) Sclerocytes
and collecting vessel in intestinal region
6. The methods of dispersal in Amoeba is
3. Flatworms excrete through
(a) locomotion (b) sporulation
(a) kidney
(c) encystment
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7. Which of the following factors has little effect on 15. What is true for individuals of same species?
blood flow in arteries? (a) Live in same niche
(a) Heart beat (b) Live in same habitat
(c) Blood pressure (c) Interbreeding
(c) Skeletal muscle contraction (d) Live in different habitat
(d) Total cross sectional area of vessel 16. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used
8. Telomerase is an enzyme, which is a is
(a) repetitive DNA (b) RNA (a) methophillic bacteria
(c) simple protein (d) ribonucleoprotein (b) butyric acid bacteria
(c) Helicobacter pylori
9. Synapsis occur between
Cd) Streptococcus lactis
(a) a male and female gamete
(b) mRNA and ribosomes 17. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between
(c) spindle fibres and centromere tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein
(d) two homologous chromosomes
(a) Neomycin
10. What is not true for genetic code? (b) Streptomycin
(a) A codon in mRNA is read in a (c) Tetracycline
non-contiguous fashion Cd) Erythromycin
(b) It is nearly universal
18. Earthworms have no skeleton but during
(c) It is degenerate
burrowing, the anterior end becomes turgid and
(el) It is non-ambiguous
acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to
11. A sequential expression of set of human gene (a) coelomic fluid (b) blood
occurs when steroid molecule binds to the (c) gut peristalsis Cd) setae
(a) transfer RNA (b) Messenger RNA 19. Senescence as an active developmental cellular
(c) DNA sequence (d) ribosome process in the growth and functioning of a
12. Sidde cell anaemia is flowering plant, is indicated in
(a) leaf abscission
(a) an autosomallinkecl dominant trait
(b) annual plants
(b) caused by substitution of valine by glutamic (c) floral parts
acid in the f)-globin chain of haemoglobin (d) All of the above
(c) caused by a change in base pair of DNA
20. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in
(d) characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs (a) presence of oxygen
with a nucleus (b) low CO 2 concentration
13. A common test to find the genotype of a (c) high CO 2 concentration
hybrid is (d) absence ofCO z
(a) crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent 21. Which one occurs both eluring cyclic and
(b) crossing of one Fz progeny with female non-cyclic modes of photophosphorylation?
parent (a) Involvement of both PS-I and PS-II
(c) studying the sexual behaviour of Ii (b) Formation of ATP
progenies (c) Release of O 2
(d) crossing of one [i. progeny with recessive Cd) Formation of NADPH
22. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve
14. Phenetic classification is based on tube members is supported by
(a) sexual characteristics (a) P-proteins
(b) the ancestral lineage of existing organisms (b) mass flow involving a carrier and ATP
(c) observable characteristics of existing (c) cytoplasmic streaming
organisms Cd) root pressure and transpiration pull
(d) denelogram based on DNA characteristics

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Manipa! (MedJ Solved Paper 2012 11
23. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs' cycle and 33. In which of the following there is no defect in
the electron transport system is the formation of the sex chromosome?
(a) ATP in small stepwise units (a) Turner's syndrome
(b) ATP in one large oxidation reaction (b) Down's syndrome
(c) sugars (c) Colour blindness
(d) nucleic acids Cd) Klinefelter's syndrome
24. Tendons or ligaments are 34. When a cell is fully turgid, which of the
(a) connective tissue (b) vascular tissue following will be zero?
(c) epithelial tissue (d) skeletal tissue (a) Wall pressure
(b) Osmotic pressure
25. DaJwin's finches represent (c) Turgor pressure
(a) morphological variation (d) Water potential
(b) geographical isolation
35. Embryo development from nucellus and
(c) climatic variation
integument is lmown as
(d) reproductive isolation
(a) apospOly
26. Territoriality occurs as a result of (b) apogamy
(a) predation (b) parasitism (c) apomixis
(c) symbiotism (d) competition Cd) adventive embryol1Y
27. The type of joint between humerus and radius 36. Acid rain is due to increase in atmospheric
bone is called concentration of
(a) gliding joint (b) saddle joint (a) Ozone
(c) pivot joint (d) hinge joint (b) CO 2 and CO
(c) S03 and CO
28. The nucleus is separated from surrounding
cytoplasm by a nuclear membrane, which is (d) S02 and nitrogen oxide
(a) single layered with pores 37. Which of the given is a long day plant?
(b) single layered without pores (a) Glycine max (b) Spinach
(c) double layered with pores (c) C!lIysanthemum Cd) Tobacco
Cd) double layered without pores 38. Life span of A.scaris is
29. In mammals, histamine is secreted by (a) 3 to 6 months (b) 9 to 12 months
(a) fibroblasts (b) histiocytes (c) 1 year (d) 2 to 5 months
(c) lymphocytes (d) mast cells 39. Which of the following is false fruit?
30. Species is a (a) Mango (b) Apple
(a) group immediately below a phylum (c) Banana Cd) Jack fruit
(b) closely related interbreeding population 40. FAD acts as an e- acceptor in between
(c) taxonomic division of similar genera (a) fumaric and malic acid
(d) closely related non-breeding population (b) succinic and fumaric acid
31. The use of DDT is banned now-a-days because it (c) malic and oxaloacetic acid
is Cd) citric and isocitric acid
(a) very costly 41. Pigment iodopsin is contained in
(b) not available (a) rod cells
(c) inflammable (b) cone cells
(d) not degraded easily (c) anacrine cells
32. Which of the following represents Klinefelter's (d) horizontal cells
syndrome? 42. Sexual dimorphism is absent in
(a) XX (b) XO (a) Ascomycetes (b) Deuteromycetes
(c) XY Cd) TransWeb
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121 Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012

43. Botanical name of peat moss is 53. Which of the following is not correctly
(a) Sphagnum (b) Funaria matched?
(c) Anthoceros (d) Polytrichum (a) Glossina pa/palis - Sleeping sickness
44. The flowers of OxaZis open during the day and (b) Culex - Filariasis
close at night. Such type of movement is (c) Aedes aegypti - Yellow fever
(a) photonasty (b) nyctinasty (d) Anopheles culifacies - Leishmaniasis
(c) phototropic (d) seismonastic 54. A free living nitrogen fixing cyanobacterium
45. Silent valley is tropical evergreen forest located which can also form symbiotic association with
in the aquatic fern Azolla is
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka (a) Tolypothrix (b) Chlorella
(c) Maharashtra (d) Odisha (c) Nostoc Cd) Anabaena
55. Which of the follo~ing hormones is not a
46. Vitamin-C was first vitamin to be produced by
fermentation process using
secretion product of human placenta?
(a) Penicillium
(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(b) E. coli
(b) Prolactin
(c) Yersenia pestis
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Acetobactor
(d) Progesterone
47. The functional unit of DNA molecule that codes
for particular gene product is 56. The fangs of python which pulled out can
(a) cistron (b) exon (a) not come again
(c) intron (d) gene (b) come again with half the length
48. Total number of biodiversity hot spots in the (c) come again with same length
world are (d) come again with double length
(a) 24 (b) 12 57. The wings of bat, locust and pigeon are the
(c) 34 (d) 52 examples of
49. Which of the following is exotic species? (a) vestigial organs
(a) Parthenium (b) Lantana (b) analogous organs
(c) Eichhornia (d) All of these (c) homologous organs
50. In transgenics, expression of trans gene in target (d) exoskeletal structures
tissue is determined by 58. Heart lacks sinus venosus in
(a) enhancer (a) fishes
(b) transgene
(b) mammals
(c) promotor
(c) amphibians
(d) reporter gene
(d) echinoderms
51. When CO 2 concentration in blood increases,
breathing becomes 59. Krebs' cycle takes place in
(a) shallower and slow (a) cytoplasm
(b) there is no net effect on breathing (b) chloroplast
(c) slow and deep (c) nucleus
(d) faster and deeper (d) mitochondria
52. Cancer cells can easily be damaged by radiation 60. In which of the following plants, leaf apex
than normal cells because they are changes into tendril?
(a) starved on mutation (a) Gloriosa
(b) undergoing rapid division (b) smilax
(c) different in structure (c) Pisum sativum
(d) non-dividing (d) Australian Acacia

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Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012 113
61. The plants having vascular tissue but lacking (c) duplication
seeds are placed under (d) transcription
(a) algae 71. The pigment sensitive for red and far red light is
(b) bryophytes (a) chlorophyll (b) phytochrome
(c) pteridophytes (c) cytochrome (d) carotene
(d) gymnosperms
72. Lemon is sour due to the presence of
62. The rate of transpiration in plants is dependent (a) acetic acid
upon (b) carbonic acid
(a) temperature and soil (c) citric acid
(b) light and temperature (d) sulphuric acid
(c) wind, temperature and light
73. The type of vertebrae in the sub order Ophidia is
(d) light, temperature, atmospheric humidity
and wind (a) acoelous
(b) procoelous
63. A plant hormone used for inducing Cc) heterocoelous
morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is
(d) amphicoelous
(a) ethylene (b) gibberellin
(c) cytokinin (d) abscisic acid 74. Removal of anthers at the time of plant breeding
is called
64. Which of the following minerals helps in N2 (a) emasculation
(b) antherris
(a) Copper (b) Zinc
Cc) pollination
(c) Manganese (d) Molybdenum
(d) fertilization
65. What is the similarity between fly, mosquitoes
75. Haemoglobin is a
and cockroach?
(a) protein
(a) All have 13 chambered heart
(b) fibrous protein
(b) All have 4 pairs of legs
(c) globular protein
(c) All have closed circulatory system
Cd) enzyme
(d) All belong to class-Insecta
76. LPP-1 is a
66. Protein present in cartilage is
Ca) bacterium Cb) fungus
(a) chondrin (b) oesein
(c) bacteriophage Cd) cyanophage
(c) cartilagin (d) ossein
77. Hormogonia are vegetative reproductive
67. Insectivorous plants usually survive in
structures of
(a) water rich soil
Ca) Ulothrix Cb) Oscillatoria
(b) N2 deficient soil
(c) Spirogyra Cd) Cham
(c) N2 rich soil
(d) sugar deficient medium 78. Evolutionary history of an organisms is known
68. Spore of Funaria, on germination gives rise to (a) Phylogeny (b) Ancestry
(a) protonema (b) embryo
(c) Palaeontology (d) Ontogeny
(c) antheridia (d) archegonia
79. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary
69. The function of a vessel is hormone known as
(a) conduction of food (a) FSH (b) GH
(b) conduction of water and minerals (c) prolactin Cd) LH
(c) conduction of hormones
80. In which of the following fruits, the edible part
(d) All of the above
is the aril?
70. Multiplication of DNA is called (a) Apple Cb) Pomegranate
(a) translation (c) Orange (d) Litchi
(b) replication
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141 Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012

Directions (0. Nos. 1-5) In the following questions 12. Ancestors
some of the sentences have errors and some have none. (a) extinct tribes (b) relatives
Find out which part of the sentence has. an error. The (c) forefathers (d) old people
letter of that part is your answer. If there is no en'or, the 13. Embrace
answer is (d).
(a) impress (b) except
1. Last night I dream (a)/1 was a Sheikh on the (c) embarrass Cd) accept
169td floor (b)/ofBUIj Khalifa. (c)/No error. (d)
2. As soon as (a)/the lion saw the deer (b)/he 14. Meek
began to run after it. (c)lNo error. Cd) (a) light hearted Cb) serious
3. The police asked us (a)labout our movements Cc) submissive Cd) begins
(b)/on a night of the crime. (c)/No error. (d) 15. Sufficient
4. Did he tell you (a)/why he hasn't (b)lcome (a) full (b) complete
yesterday? (c)lNo enOL (d) (c) enough Cd) less
5. It was a pleasant (a)lfour hours drive (b)/from Direction (0. Nos. 16-20) In the following questions
Pune to Nakhik. (c)/No error. (d) choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Directions (0. Nos. 6-10) In the following questions 16. Gloomy
sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an (a) radiant (b) fragrant
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for (c) melodious (d) illusory
each question. Choose for con'ect alternative out of the four.
17. Bleasing
6. He travelled all ...... the world when he was
(a) dull (b) curse
eighty years old.
(c) hurt (d) harsh
(a) in (b) over
(c) with (d) of 18. Accomplish
7. Dr. Sharma concluded his speech ...... stressing (a) fail (b) improper
on 'Buddha's teachings of the importance of (c) disagreeable Cd) scatter
charity. 19. Famous
(a) by (b) with (a) obscure Cb) eminent
(c) at (d) in (c) lenient (el) fabulous
8. Shivaji Maharaj fought ...... every kind of 20. Orderly
aggression. (a) unclear (b) valueless
(a) against (b) to (c) chaotic (d) incomplete
(c) with .cd) at
9. Don't depend ...... others; you must stand on
Directions (0. Nos. 21-25) In the following questions
your own feet.
four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed
in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which
(a) upon (b) on
best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
(c) to (d) for
10. Our life promises a lot ...... pleastlre and we 21. Helena was over head and ears in love with
must learn to enjoy it. Demetrius.
(a) with (b) for (a) carefully (b) completely
(c) of (d) at (c) brilliantly (d) cautiously
22. Gopi work by fits and starts.
Directions (0. Nos. 11-15) In the following questions
(a) consistently (b) irregularly
out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the given word. (c) in high spirits (d) enthusiastically
23. Naresh Goyal had to stand on his feet very
11. Benevolent
early in his life.
(a) beneficial (b) kind
(a) to be physically strong
(c) helpful (d) supportive (b) to l'e independent

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Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012 115
(c) to stand erect 30. He will come instantaneously.
(d) to be successful (a) just now (b) presently
24. The possession of Jerusalem is a bone of (c) instantly (d) No improvement
contention between Israrel and Palestine. Directions (0. Nos. 31-35) In the following questions
(a) a subject of peace out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
(b) a subject of trade substituted for the given words/sentence.
Cc) a subject of dispute 31. Instruments to measure atmospheric pressure
Cd) a subject of exports (a) metronome (b) compass
25. My friend turned a deafear to my tale of loss (c) pedometer (d) barometer
and refused to help me. 32. One who tends to take a hopeful view of life
(a) paid no heed (a) magnate (b) creator
(b) went for away (c) pacifist (d) optimist
(c) listened carefully
33. Belonging to all parts of the world
(d) turned his ear away
(a) common (b) universal
Directions (0. Nos. 26-30) In the following questions a (c) worldly (d) international
part of the sentence is printed in bold. De/aware given
alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) 1Vhch 34. To be known for bad acts
may improve the sentence. Choose the correct (a) famous (b) notorious
alternative. In case no improvement is needed your (c) criminal (d) terrorist
answer is (d). 35. Words of similar meaning
26. The strong breeze blew his hat away. (a) homonyms (b) pseudonyms
(a) The strong air (b) The strong breath (c) antonyms (d) synonyms
(c) The strong wind (d) No improvement Directions (0. Nos. 36-40) In the following questions
27. The Japanese are hardly working people. groups offour words are given. In each group, one word
(a) Ii hard working people is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
(b) a hardJy working people 36. (a) onvelope (b) envelope
(c) hard working people (c) envalope (d) envelap
(d) No improvement 37. (a) character (b) charecter
28. The monkey was seated at the foot of a tree. (c) character (d) chaerecter
(a) bottom (b) end 38. (a) dnmkeness (b) drunkenness
(c) root (d) No improvement (c) durnkness (d) drunkennes
29. My father lives on Delhi. 39. (a) surprise (b) supprise
(a) in Delhi (b) at Delhi (c) suprise (d) surprize
(c) inside Delhi (d) No improvement 40. (a) comitee (b) committee
(c) committie Cd) commitee

1. (b) 2. C') 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. Cc) 9. Cd) 10. (c)
11. Cb) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (e) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (el)
31. (a) 32. (e) 33. Cd) 34. (b) 35. (el) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. Cb) 44. (a) 45. (el) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. Cc) 52. Cd) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (e) 59. (a) 60. (d)
"'No option is correct.
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16 i Manipal (Med.) II/J Solved Paper 2012

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. Ce) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. Ca) 9. Ca) 10. Cb)
11. (b) 12. Cd) 13. (a) 14. Ce) 15. Ce) 16. Ce) 17. (e) 18. (a) 19. Cd) 20. (b)
21. (e) 22. Ca) 23. (d) 24. Cb) 25. (d) 26. Ce) 27. (e) 28. Cel) 29. Ca) 30. (b)
31. (e) 32. Ca) 33. (a) 34. Cd) 35. (b) 36. Ca) 37. (d) 38. Cd) 39. Cd) 40. Cb)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. Ca) 45. Ca) 46. Cb) 47. Cd) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. Ca) 55. (e) 56. Ca) 57. Cd) 58. Ce) 59. (a) 60. Ce}

1. (a) 2. Cd) 3. Ce) 4. (d) 5. Cb) 6. (e) 7. Cel) 8. (d) 9. Cd) 10. Ca)
11. (e) 12. Cb) 13. (d) 14. (e) 15. Ce) 16. (b) 17. (e) 18. Ca) 19. Cd) 20. (b)
21. Cb) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. Cel) 27. (d) 28. Ce) 29. Cd) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. Cd) 33. Cb) 34. Ce) 35. (d) 36. (el) 37. Cb) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. Cb)
41. Cb) 42. (b) 43. Ca) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. Cd) 47. (a) 48. (e) 49. Cel) 50. Cel)
51. Cd) 52. Cb) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. Ce) 57. (b) 58. Cb) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (e) 62. (d) 63. (e) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. Ca) 67. Cb) 68. (a) 69. Cb) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (e) 73. (b) 74. Cal 75. (e) 76. Cd) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (d)

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. Ce) 4. (b) 5. Cb) 6. (b) 7. Ca) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. Ce)
11. (b) 12. Ce) 13. (d) 14. Ce) 15. (e) 16. Ca) 17. Cb) 18. (a) 19. Ca) 20. (e)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (e) 25. (a) 26. (e) 27. Ce) 28. (e) 29. (a) 30. Cel)
31. (d) 32. Cd) 33. (b) 34. Cb) 35. Cd) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (b)

Hints & Solutions

1. Internal energy of a gas U B =U c

U =:? nRT U B >U A

U c >U D
where, R is constant.
2. Given, length 1= 314 m
Thus, for a given number of moles of the same
gas Specific resistance p = 2.2 X 10- 8 Q-m
U=T External diameter Dl = 1.2 X 10-2 m
From the graphs, we conclude that
Internal diameter D2 = 1 X 10-2 111
U A =U D

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Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012 117
As resistance of tube R = Pl. 8. Momentum, p = mv = I
or R = pi or v=-
n[Dl- D~] mA
6.62 x 10-34
R= 4x2.2x10-8 x314 v=------~--------~
or 9.1 X 10-31 Xi 5.2 x 10-7
n[(1.2)2 - (1.0)2] X 10-4
6.62x 104
=0.2Q => v=------
9.1 x 5.1
3. [ =2A => v = 1400 mls
g 300
9. We know that
=2x1000mA t
300 n=-
=20 rnA Given, t = 3000 yr, T = 6000 yr
n = 3000 = 5
Ig = 6.67 rnA 600
As range of ammeter cannot be decreased but
can be increased only, therefore, the instrument
cannot be converted to measure the range 1 rnA.
:0 =Gr
5:' tan 0
tanv = - -
:0 =(~r =:2
to. Input power = VI = 200 x 10
tan 45°
= 2000 W
cos 30°
Output power = - x 2000 = 800 W
tan 0' = d
Power loss in heating the armature
2 = 2000 - 800
-J3 = 1200 W

0' = tan- 1
(~) [2R = 1200

5. In step-down transformer, voltage decreases
and corresponding current increases.
10 x 10
6. The ionosphere can reflect electromagnetic
waves of frequency less than 40 MHz but do not or R =12Q
reflect electromagnetic waves of frequency 11. Heat produced in a wire is equal to energy
more than 40 MHz. stored in capacitor.
7. At room temperature, due to thermal vibrations, H = .!CV2
the few bonds of intrinsic semiconductor are
broken and producing equal number of = .! x (2 x 10-6 ) x (200i
electrons and holes in the semiconductor.
= 10-6 x 200 x 200

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18 i Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012

8 xl 16 x..fi
F3 x 2 == N-;;--
12. The balanced condition for Wheatstones bridge
P R NB ==12turns
is --=-
as is obvious from the given values. 14. Drift velocity, va == _1_
No, current flows through galvanometer is zero.
Now, P and R are in series, so 5
Resistance, Rl == P + R va ==------
(5 x 10 26 ) x (1.6 x 10-- 19 ) x (4 x 10- 6 )
== 10 + 15= 2512
== 1.5b x 10-2 ms- 1
Similarly, Q and S are in series, so
(2n + l)AD
Resistance R 2 == R + S 15. x==----
= 20 -I- 30= son . (4+1)D
For red lIght x == - - - - x 6500
Net resistance of the network as Rl and R 2 are in 2a
parallel For unknown wavelength of light,
i == V == 0.6 == 0.36 A x == (6 + l)D x A
R 50 2a
13. Current in tangent glavanometer Accordingly,
2rH 5 x 6500 :=: 7 x -A
1==--- tan 8 ... (i)
!loN A ==~ x 6500
=4642.8 A
16. Volume of 8 drops == Volume of big drop

l-:3 3) x 8 == :34 reR 3


2r==R ... (i)

According to charge conservation
Here, Rl and R2 are in parallel 8q=Q ... (ij)
1 1 1 We have
R net Rl R2
RIR2 8x8
or 1.1:=2
R net == 4.(2 V2 11

I-rence, I==V=='±==lA 20 21'

R 4 =>
V2 I'
From Eq. (i), we get
=> V2 == 10V
~- tan_~ == !lo~
N 2H 17. The rise or fall of liquids in vertical capillary
tubes is called capillarity. Water in plant fibres
"4. ~.<:n 8 A == 1i3 taI~ 8 B
rises due to same phenomenon.

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Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012 119
18. Equation of an adiabatic process is 21. The total mass of the initial particles
p VY constant ... (i) mi = 1.007825 + 7.016004
3k = 8.023829 u
Given, p = V4
and the total mass of final particles
p3 V 4 = Ie (constant) mf = 2 x 4.002603
pV 4 / 3 = k ... (ij) 8.005206 u

Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Difference between initial and final mass of
Y = - = 1.33 t.m = mi mf
= 8.023829 - 8.005206
19. Radius of nucleus R = RoAl/3
= 0.018623 u
where, Ro = 1.2 x 10-15 m
The Q-value is given by
Volume of nucleus (V) = 4 rrR 3
3 Q = (t.m)c 2

= 2 n[R oA1!3]3 0.018623 x 931.5

3 0 22. Work W = mgh + t.pV
VocA = Vpgh + t.pV
Net work done per cycle =4xl03 x10x20+(2x10s)x4
20. '1 = --- - -
Total amount of heat absorbed per cycle =16x10sJ
or 11=-- . d'lOmsatwn
23. ReqUIre . . energy E = he
QJ . Ie
Q1 - (22 6.6 x 10- 34 x 3 x 10 8
QJ 1.54 x 10- 10
or lF1 Q2 = 12.9 x 10-- 16 J
24. Under uniform magnetic field, force evB acts on
as proton and provides the necessary centripetal
mv 2
force - -
11 = 1 ... (i) a
mv 2
where, T 2 is temperature of sink and Tl is the --=evB
temperature of the sources.
Here, 11 50% v=-_·-
'1'2 = SO°C == 273 + 50 Now, angular momentum
= 323K J = r xp
Putting these values in Eq. (i), we get =axmv
50 = 1- 323 aeB\
100 '1'} J=axm ( -;-j
'1' = 646 K= 373°C
J = a2eB
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20 I Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012

25. Ferromagnetic substance obeys Curie-Weiss law 34. The energy of artificial satellite at the surface of
above its curie temperature. the earth
26. When light is incident on a diffraction grating, GMm
then zero order principal maximum will have R
only white colour. When the satellite is intended to move in a
circular orbit of radius 7 R, then energy of

ALymen (12 -~2) 5 artificial satellite

ABaimer = (11
2-~2) = 27 E2 =_! GMm
2 7R
The minimum energy required
E =E1 -E2
= _ GMm + ! (GMm)
5 R 2 7R
ALymen = 27 x /cBalmer
-14GMm + GMm
~ x 6563 14R
27 13GMm
= 1215.4 A 14R

28. XL = coL = 2rcfL 35. The equation of displacement

XL ocf Xl = 4 sin (lOt + ~)
If frequency is double, thet). rehctance will be
double. The energy of this equation

29. From first law of thermodynamiCs EI =!2 mrolal

dQ =dU + dW
For adiabatic process dQ = 0 = mxl0xl0x4x4
dU + dW = 0 The second equation of displacement
dU =-50 J x2=5cos(cot)
Therefore, the internal energy of system will The energy of this equation
decrease. 1 2 2
E2 = - mro2a2
30. The ozone layer is important because it prevents 2
the UV rays and micro rays coming from the 1 2
= - mro2 x 5 x 5
space. 2
1 According to question
31. Frequency, f = ~
2rc-vLC El =E 2
When capacitance 4C, then 1 2 1
- mcu2 x 5 x 5 = m x 10 x 10 x 4 x 4
f' 1 f 2 2
= 2rc.J4LC 2: 2 10xl0x4x4
CO2 =
32. Air flow from smaller bubble to bigger as the
pressure in smaller bubble is higher. cu~ = 2 x2 x4 x4
33. The hardness of X-rays depends upon the its or CO2 = ~2 x 2 x 4 x 4
wavelength. Which depend upon potential 2 x 4 8 unit
difference between target and cathode.

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Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012 I 21
36. The excess pressure of soap bubble drr d12
I1q -- + m2--
4T 40. vCM = dt dt
p= rl1r + m2
4T 4 x 5i + 2 x 10i
or hpg = - C': p = hpg)
R 4+2
T = Rhpg 40i 20;
4 vCM = 6 =3 1
1 x 10-2 x 2 x 10-3 x 0.8 x 10 3 x 9.8
The kinetic energy
= 0.0392N/m
K .! mv 2
37. The equation of continuity 1 20 x 20
= - x C4 + 2) x - - - -
2 3x3
A11'l = A 2v 2

A x4 =
A xV2
=.! x 6 x 20 x 20
3 2 3x3

v2 6 ms- 1 K = 400 J
From Bernoulli's theorem,
41. Breaking stress £.
pg~ + .! P1'l2 = P + pgh2 + .! pv~
p+ A
2 2
= 40 x106 N/m2
or gCh1 - h2 ) 2.1 CV22 2
VI) 3rc
According to question
g xh = 1 [(6i C4i] [.: hI - h2 = h] 40 x106 = 3 x10
2 3rc rcr2
1 9-
10xh=-[36-16] r2 --
2 4 x 10 6
or h = 20
r=1.5x10- 3 m
1m =1.5mm
38. Resolving limit 42. E = ka

de = 1.22A => E oca 2

af El
1.22 x 4538 x 10- 10 a~ = E2
1 1
= 5.54 x 10-7 rad 4
al 1
eV or
39. The force F = - a2 2
1.6 x 10-19 x 10 4 43. Inductance and resistance of choke coil are high
and low respectively.
0.5 x 10-2
Therefore, XL »R
= 3.2 x 10- 13 N
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221 Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012

44. The phase difference, path difference and time 51. Efficiency of transformer,
difference between two successive zone are IT, ~ 11=
Output power
2 Input power
and !.- respectively. 88 880
2 => --=--
100 Pi
45. Here, frequency n'
2 Pi =1000 W
We have,
Input current, I p = ...z.
or =2 2200
=0.45 A
or v, =v
52. For first line of Lyman series,
46. Inductive reactance XL = O)L
111 = 1 and 112 = 2
=- 21t x 50 xl .. ~l =R (!2- 2~)
100 IT

47. We have, p ocT =R (1 ~)

p T
~+ (f~~) p T+1
For first line of Paschen series
T 250°C
III = 3 and 112 = 4
48. On free expansion of van der Waal's gases, final
temperature will be less than initial :; ~ R (;2 - 4~)
49. According to de-Broglie hypothesis R (J:.9 -..!..)
A =!:.p 7R
h h
leI 7R 4
=-J2rr:ri = 72mqV -=----x
A2 144 3R
6.6 x 10--34 7
) x 1000 108

6.6 x 10-34 53. The output of the circuit is,

7.16-x 10-='22 y=A+B

=- 0.9 x 10 .. 12 m =A-B
50. To form its own isotope atomic number (Z) =A·B (.: A =A and B =B)
should remain same. which is the OUtpllt of an AND gate.
So, the emission of one a-particle and two 54. Due to forward bias at the emitter-base
l3-particles will maintain the Z same. junction, the majority charge carrier electrons of
where, o.-partide = 2He 4 ; l3-particle = _1l3° emitter get repelled from the negative terminal
and move towards base. Some of these electrons

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Manipal (Med.) 0» Solved Paper 2012123
combine with the majority charge carrier holes IT. Therefore, phase difference between
present in the base and most of the electrons reflected wave and refracted phase is again IT.
reach the collector, crossing the collector-base
junction. This implies that collector current is
58. Maximum intensity, Imax = cji; + .jT~·i
always le~;s than the emitter current due to the eJi + 141)2
reason (b).
== 91
55. If Ao is the area of orifice at the bottom below
Minimum intensity Imin = cji; - .jT;)2
the free surface and A that of vessel, time t taken
to be empited the tank, = (J] - .J4i )2

:of! 59. The energy of photon E =


= 123~~ eV
:z -~H~~2 E = !.?37~
~=J2 = 2.48 eV
The kinetic energy of equation of photoelectric
tz J2 Ek =E - W
= 0.58 eV
10 r
= r;:; = 5,,2 60. To convert a moving coil galvanometer into a
",7 min voltmeter a high resistance is connected in
series with it.
57. TL.e incident wave and reflected wave are
always in phase whereas incident wave and
refracted wave has phase different of IT.

1. C6 H SC=O + 2
0 N<
Acid -
Ester -
Benzaldehyde CH 3 3. Antimony is used in making lead storage
N,N dimethyl aniline batteries because lead containing antimony is
harder and more resistant to the action of acids
N<CH than ordinary lead.
CH3 Eit
4. Wmetal
3 96500
Ex 3 x 50 x 60
CH 3
Malachite green
E =2..6500 xw
2. Cn H2rP2 is the general formula for open chain 3 x 50 x 60
carboxylic acid and ester. e.g., if E = .?6500 xJ.~ 19.3
n = 3=> C 3 H 60 2 3 x 50 x 60
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241 Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012

5. Velocity of both K+ and N0 3 is nearly the same. = 2 x4 x 6.023 xl0 23

6. For first order reaction, t1/2 is independent of = 48 x 10 23 atoms

initial concentration.
13. Hydrogen atom is in lsI and the 3s, 3p and
tl/2=-- 3d-orbitals will have the same energy W.r.t. Is
14. In CO~- ion, the C-atom undergoes sp2
© + CO2

Sodium phenoxide
400 K
4-7 atm
Sodium salicylate

This reaction is known as Kolbe's reaction.

hybridisation. It has triangular planar structure
while BE!, NH4: and SO ~- have tetrahedral
15. 2py and 2py will not form a cr-bond because on
taking x-axis as internuclear axis 2py and 2py
8. t = 2.303 log [A]o
k [A] orbitals overlap sideway (lateral overlapping)
resulting in the formation of a IT-bond.
If[A]O = 1 then [A] = - 16. Halogenation of alkanes in the presence of
. 16
sunlight or heat is an example of free radical
t = 2.303 log 16
= 4.6 x 10-2 s 17. Aldehydes and ketones readily undergo
nucleophilic addition reaction. The reactivity
9. Rate = dx = k[CCI 3CHO][NO] decreases as the + I effect of alkyl group
dt increases.
dt x[CCI 3CHO][NO] H) C=O> H~> C=O> ~C> C=O
mol L- 1
S-l x mol L- 1 x mol L- 1 18. Sulphonation of benzene is carried out by S03
= L mol- 1 s-1 (electrophile) .

10. Alkyl halide and phenol is obtained. 19. FeCI 3, FeBr2 and AlCI 3 are used in
Friedel-Craft's reaction because they act as
Lewis acid since they are electron deficient in
nature. However cations such as Na+, K" have a
+ CH31 very little tendency to accept electrons due to
iodide inert gas configuration. Therefore, can't be used
in Friedel-Craft reaction.
11. Gold sol is a lyophobic sol.
20. Order of electronegativities of halogens are
12. Sodium ferro cyanide, Na4[Fe(CN)6] contains F> CI > Br> 1.
four sodium atoms.
Hence, the order of reactivities of methyl halide
Number of Na atoms = Number of moles x
number of atoms per molecule x Avogadro in the formation of Grignard reagent is
number CH3I> CH3Br > CH 3Cl.

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Manipal (Med.) " Solved Paper 2012 125

Heat released in the formation of

h::, • ~CI -~~I I

44gCO z 393.51<J
21. Heat released in the formation of
35.2 CO = 393.5 kJ x 35.2g
Toluene g z 44g
= 314.8 kJ
27. W = 2.303 nRT log Pi
= 2.303 x 1 x 8.314 x 300 x log 10
Benzotrichloride Benzal = 5744.1 J
28. Acid1 + Basez ~ Acid z + Bas~

High P HPO§-- + HzO ~ H30+ + PO~--

22. NaCI structure ~ CsCI structure
6 : 6 coordination '760 K 8 : 8 coordination HzP0 4 + HzO ~ H30+ + HPO~­
number number
H3 P0 4 + HzO ~ H30+ + HzP0 4
23. X z + Yz -~ 2XY
29. Because buffer solutions are mixture of weak
Ali = (BE)x_x + (BE)y_y - 2(BEh_y
acid or weak base and their salts.
If BE of (X - Y) = a
30. AgCI ~ Ag + + CI-
then BE of (X -X) = a X x
a After NaCI is added -X X + 1 x 10-4
and BE of (Y - Y) = -
2 That's why Ag+ will be less.
Ali f = (X-Y) = 200 kJ
31. Basic, because it is a salt of strong base and
a weak acid.
.. - 400 (for 2 moles XY) = a+ 2a
32. Equilibrium constant for the reaction,
-400 =-~
2 SOz(g)+.!Oz(g)~ S03(g)
or a = + 800 kJ
[( = ___1__
24. The enthalpies of all elements in their standard c 4.9 x 10-z
states are taken as zero. The standard state of an
elementary substance means the most stable and for 2S0 z(g) + 0z(g) ~ 2S0 3 (g)
form of that substance at 298 K temperature and
1 bar pressure. [( _ ( 1 JZ
c - 4.9 x10-z
25. f:..G= Ali -Tf:..S
For the given reaction, Ali = - ve as it is = --z = 416.49
exothermic, f:..S = + ve then f:..G = - ve. So, the
reaction will be spontaneous at all the (Reduction, oxidising agent)
temperatures. t
33. AgzO + HzO z -> 2Ag + HzO + 02
26. C (s)+ 0z(g) ~ COz(g);
44g I t
(Oxidation, reducing agent)
MI = -393.5 kJ mol- 1
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2s1 Manipal (Med.) 'B Solved Paper 2012

34. Two ice cubes when pressed over each other get 48. Alkyl halide on reaction with dry silver oxide
unite due to H-bond formation. gives ether.
35. Pb 30 4 is red lead (sindur). 2~Y + AgP -----+ R-O-R + 2AgX
Alkyl halide ether
36. AI 4C 3 on treating with water gives methane
(CH 4 ) gas. 49. CH 3 - H-CH=CH-CH 3 - >
37. Zeolite when treated with hard water exchange
Ca 2+ and Mg2+ ions (present in hard water)
CH 3 -C -CH=CH--CH 3
with Na + ions. II
38. A codon is a specific sequence of 3 adjacent
bases on a strand of DNA or RNA that provides
Only suitable reagent is chromic anhydride in
genetic code information for a particular amino glacial acetic acid. Other will also affect
acid. )C =C< bond.
39. Proteins which consists of a-amino acid
50. During electrolysis, noble metals like Ag, Au and
containing benzene ring e.g., tyrosine give
Pt are not affected and separate as anode mud
xanthoprotic test.
fTOm impure anode.
40. Codon is present in mRNA. It is responsible for
translation. 51. Perchloric acid is not a peroxy acid while other
given acids are examples of peroxy acids.
41. Amylopectin is a polymer of a-D glucose. It
consists of branched chains of a-D glucose 52. K2Cr207 + 14HCI -----+ 2KCI + 2CrCI 3
involving about 1000 or more units per + 7Ht) + 3CI 2
53. Raoult's law is not applicable if the total number
42. Vulcanization is the process of heating natural of particles of solute changes in the solution due
rubber with sulphur in order to develop some to association or dissociation.
specific qualities such as abrasion resistance, 54. An increase in temperature increases the
heat resistance and elasticity. volume of the solution and thus, decreases its
43. Dopamine is produced in several areas of brain. molarity.
If the amount of dopamine increases in the 55. H3 P0 3 is a dibasic acid.
brain, the patient: may be affected with
Nl \'1 (acid) N 2V2 (base)
Parkinson's disease.
0.1 x 2 x 20 = 0.1 x 1 x V2
44. Alizarin is a natural dye. 0.1 x 2 x 20
V2 = -_._------
45. Strong oxidising agents such as Pb0 2 oxidise 0.1 xl
Mn 2+ to MnO:) or Mn+7.
=40 mL
46. [Cr(C 20 4 )3]3- shows optical isomerism
56. Number of moles of C 2Hc,OH = 13~ 3
because its mirror image is not superimposable. . 46

47. DMG is a polydentate ligand which binds the

Number of moles of H20 = -- 4
central atom nickel forming a ring like structure. 18

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Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012127

Mole fraction, XC2H OH =-~ 58. CH3-?J-Br + CH3MgI -------1 CH3--?J-CH3

5 3+ 4
o 0
Acetyl bromide
CH 3
Mole fraction, 4_
XHzO = __ =2 I
3+ 7 7 CH-3 -C-OMgI
. I
XC21!SOH = ,}!2 = 2 CH 3
xH20 417 4
CH 3
CH 3 -C-OH
H 0+
CH 3
CH3CH;PH + CH 3COOH ~ CH 3 COOC 2 HS 2-methyl-2-propanol
(A) (B)

+ H 20

60. PHBV is a biodegradable polymer.

1. The term 'syncytial tissue' refers to animal part of midbrain. In rabbit, it is associated with
tissues formed by fusion of cells, commonly vision.
during emblyogenesis, to form multinucleate
5. The choanocyte (also called collar cells) line the
masses of protoplasm. In striated muscle, such
cavity of water canal of sponges. These are
syncytium is present in the form of cylinder.
ovoid cells with one end embedded in the
2. Dorsal blood vessel of earthworm is the largest mesophyil and the other exposed. The exposed
blood vessel. It occurs mid dorsally above the end bears a flagellum, surrounded by a coilar,
alimentary canal and nll1S from one end of the which is made up of adjacent microvilli. The
body to other. It collects blood from various microvilli are connected to each other by
parts behind the 13th segment, however in the delicate micro-fibrils, forming the fine filtration
first thirteen segments, it behaves a distributing device for straining food particles from the
channel. water.
3. Protonephridia are probably the earliest type of 6. During unfavourable conditions, Amoeba starts
nephridia and are found in flatworms also. forming the cysts, this process is known as
These consist of a network of fine tubles which encystment During encystment, a number of
run along the length of the animal at each side organelles such as cillia and flagella are
and open to the surface by minute reabsorbed and the Goigi apparatus secretes the
nephrid ipores. cyst wall material, which is carried to the
surface of Amoeba in vesicles. Cyst of Amoeba
4. Corpora quadrigemina, are two pairs of
blown far and wide along the wind where
spherical optic lobes, representing the dorsal
Amoeba hatch out of these in favourable
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2s1 Manipal (Med.) 'Solved Paper 2012

whereas skeletal muscle contraction mainly aids 15. According to the biological concept of species, a
the blood flow in veins. species is a group of organisms which can
8. Telomerase is an enzyme composed of both interbreed freely in nature and produce fertile
RNA and protein, and as such may be an
evolutionary link between systems using 16. Retting is a controlled microbial clecomposition
ribozymes and those using purely protein of pectin without simultaneoustlecomposition
enzymes. of fibres. Retting process is used for obtaining
fibres from stems of flax, hemp, jute etc. For this
9. In zygotene of prophase-I, homologous
chromosome pair up. This is called synapsis purpose, stems of fibre yielding plants are
immersed in water for long period where
during which one chromosome of the pair
decomposition sets in. Retting is facilitated by
comes from male parent and the other from
anaerobic butyric acid bacteria such as
female parent.
Clostridium botulinum, Clostridium tetani and
10. The general features of genetic code are Clostridium perfringens. These bacteria
(i) The genetic code is written in linear form, primarily decompose the plant pectin thus,
using the ribonucleotide bases that freeing the fibres. If process of retting continues
compose mRNA molecule as letters. for a long time then cellulose fermenting
(ii) Each word of codon consists of three bacteria develop and destroy the fibres.
letters, i.e., the codon is triplet.
(iii) The genetic code inside the cell medium is 17. Tetracycline interferes with the attachment of
said to be non-ambiguous. tRNA carrying the amino acid to the
(iv) The code is degenerate, i.e., a given mRNA-ribosome complex preventing the
amino acid can be specified by more than addition of amino acids to the growing
one codons. polypeptide chain. Streptomycin interferes
(v) The codon contains start and stop with the initial steps of protein synthesis by
signals. changing the shape of 30 S proton of 70 S
(vi) The code is said to be commaless prokaryotic ribosome.
(vii) The code is non-overlapping. Erythromycin reacts with 50 S portion of the
70 S prokaryotic ribosome.
11. Sequencial expression of gene occurs when
steroid binds to DNA. It acts as an inducar. HBE 18. The body cavity (coelom) of earthworm is filled
element is present known as hormone binding with an alkaline, colourless or milky coelomic
element. fluid containing water, salts some proteins and
four types of coelomic corpuscles,
12. Sickle-cell anaemia is caused by a change in a i.e., phagocytes, mucocytes, circular nucleated
single base pair of DNA (substitution of valine cells and chloragogen cells. During burrowing,
by glutamic acid in the ~-globin chain of the coelomic fluid becomes turgid and acts as
haemoglobin). It is a genetic disease reported hydraulic skeleton.
from negroes. The individuals of siclde-cell
anaemia are immune to malaria. 19. Senescence can be defined as "the sum of
deteriorative processes, which naturally
13. Test cross, i.e., crossing of Ii progeny to the terminate the functional life of an organisms".
recessive parent is used to find genotype of the Senescence is not confined only to whole plant,
progeny. it may be limited to a particular plant organ
such as leaf and flower or cells such as pholem
14. Phenetics is also known as numerical
taxonomy. It dictates taxonomic affinities and xylem. Abscission is natural shedding of
entirely on the basis of measurable similarities leaves, foliage branches, fruits, floral parts etc.
and differences. According to Leopold (1967) abscission is a
senese nee phenomenon.

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Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012129
20. Light causes photosynthesis which leads to 29. Mast cells are special cells found is connective
reduction in CO 2 concentration -> synthesis of tissue. They secrete three substances
glycolate -> oxidation of glycolate -> ATP heparin-anticogulant, histamine-vasodilator
synthesis -> activation of K+ pump -> movement and serotonin-vasoconstrictor.
of K+ in guard cells -> movement of water into
30. According to the biological concept of sepcies, a
guard cells -> swelling of guard cells -> opening
species is a group of organisms which can
of stomata.
interbreed freely in nature and produce fertile
21. Cyclic photophosphorylation is that type of offsprings which rarely breed with organisms of
light energised ATP synthesis in which electron other species in a natural environment.
expelled by excited photo centre is returned to it
after passing over a chain of electron carriers. 31. DDT (Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloroethane)
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation is that type either does not degrade or degrade extremely
of light energised ATP synthesis in which slowly in the natural environment. DDT is still
electron expelled by excited photo centre does detected after 24 years. It's half life period is up
not return to them. It involves two to 10 years. So, the use of DDT is banned
Photochemical Systems (PS-I and PS-II) and now-a-days.
produces assimilatOlY power (ATP and 32. Dr. HF Klinefelter in 1942 described
NADPH.) Klinefelter'S syndrome. It occurs in men due to
22. According to mass flow hypothesis, the an extra 'X' chromosome thus, having genetic
transport of organic solutes takes place from constitution 'XXY'. This is trisomy but of sex
source to sink, this transport also depends on chromosome or allosome. It usually results
metabolic energy. from non-disjunction and is expressed by small
23. Glycolysis, Krebs' cycle and electron transport penis, absence of body hairs, gynaecomastia etc.
system are meant for ATP synthesis in different
33. Down's syndrome (mongolian idiocy) is a
steps. ATP is the energy currency of cell.
congenital disorder caused by trisomy of
24. Tendons are white fibrous connective tissues, chromosome 21, often by non-disjunction. It is
made up of collagen protein and connect bones characterised by mental retardation, simian
with skeletal muscles. palm, as mongoloid facial features.
Ligament is a modified elastic connective
Turner's syndrome is due to monosomy of sex
tissue, which is made up of elastic yellow fibres.
chromosome, i.e., XO. It was described by
Ligaments form connection between bone to
bone. Turner 1938.

25. There are thirteen types of finches described by Colour blindness is a recessive sex linked (X)
Darwin. They are geographically isolated and trait in which affected individual can not
found in Galapagos Island of South Pacific. distinguish red colour from green colour.
26. The social interaction of competitors result in Klinefelter's syndrome is due to an extra
the establishment of territory or territoriality by X-chromosome to man (male), i.e., trisomy of
the successful competition. The territory sex chromosome.
distribution depends on feeding, mating, caring
of young ones also. 34. When a cell becomes turgid, the increase in
turgor pressure resists the entry of water into
27. The joint between humerus and radius bone is the cell.
hinge joint. The movement in this joint is
unidirectional. This joint is also called as \jf cell- TP cell = - OP cell
gingul um. \1' cell = TP cell- OP cell
28. The nuclear membrane of the nucleus which At equiliblium
separates nucleus and cytoplasm is double ~J cell = TP cell- OP cell = zero.
membrane and porous.
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30 I Manipal (Med.) Solved Paper 2012

35. The development of an embryo directly from 45. Silent valley is located in Kerala. The area under
any diploid sporophytic cell (e.g., cell of this was historically explored in 1847 by
nucellus, integument etc.,) is called adventive botanist Robert Weight.
46. Acetobactar are of commercial importance. They
36. Acid rain is caused by large scale emission of are used in the production of vineger by
nitrogen oxides (NO x ), sulphur oxides (SOx), converting ethanol in wine to acetic acid.
volatile organic carbons and HCI from thermal
47. The term cistrol1 is used to describe the locus
power plants, industries and automobiles.
responsible for generating a protein. It can also
Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur combine with
be defined as the segment of DNA that contains
water and oxygen and form nitric acid and
all infonnation for production of single
sulphuric acid, respectively.
2NO -I- - 02 ---)- N£)s 48. A biodiversity hot spot is biogeographic region
with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is
N20 S -I- H20 ---)- 2HN0 3 threatened with destruction, high levels of
(Nitric acid)
species richness and high degree of endemism.
2S0 2 + 02 ---)- 2S0 3 Initially, 25 biodiversity hotspots were
identified but subsequently nine more have
2S0 3 -I- 2H£) ---)- 2H~04 been added to the list, bringing the total number
(Sulphuric acid)
of biodiversity hotspots in the world to 34.
37. Long day plants flower in photoperiod more 49. All of these are exotic species.
than critical day length, e.g., Hyacyamus niger,
50. Reporter genes are used to determine whether
radish, Beta vulgaris, Spinacea (spinach) lattuce,
a particular DNA construct has been successfully
introduced into a cell.
38. Lifespan of Ascaris in the host is 9 to 12 months.
51. When CO 2 concentration is blood increases,
39. False fruits are developed when some other breathing becomes faster and deeper. The effect
floral parts participate in the formation of fruits, of increased CO 2 is to decrease the affinity of
e.g., in apple, thalamus is modified to form a
fruit. Mango is drupe.
haemoglobin for 2'°
52. Cancer is caused by loss of control over cells
40. FAD acts as an e- acceptor in between succinic reproduction capacity so easily damaged by
and fumaric acid. radiation.

41. Cone cells contain the light sensitive pigment 53. Leishamaniasis or kala azar is caused by
iodopsin. It is found in retina of all diurnal Leishmania. donovani. It spreads by sand fly. It is
vertebrates. Cones are specialised to transmit also known as dum-dum fever.
infcrmation about colour and responsible for 54. Anabaena is a free living N 2 fixing
visual activity of eye. cyanobacterium which can form symbiotic
42. Sexual dimorphism is absent in association with the qua tic fern Azalia.
Deuteromycetes. 55. Prolactin is secreted by anterior pituitary gland.
43. Sphagnum is known as peat mass. The partially It stimulates mammary gland development
decomposed Sphagnum accumulates to form during pregnancy and lactation after child birth.
compressed mass called peat. 56. Fangs of python arc maxillary teeth located on
44. Photonasty is the response produced by plants maxilla. If the fangs are once taken out, they can
in response to availability of light. come out again with the same length.

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Manipal (Med.) 'iP Solved Paper 2012 I 31
57. The organs which have different embryonic 63. Cytokinin is also known as cell division
origin but perform same function are called as hormone as it brings about the process of cell
analogous organs, e.g., wings of bat and division in plants. The ratio of cytokinin to auxin
insects. control the process of cell differentation.
The organs which have same embryonic origin A higher cytokinin to auxin ratio brings about
but adapted to perform different functions are the shoot formation while a higher auxin to
known as homologous organs, e.g., wing of bat cytokinin ratio brings about root development.
and forelimb of humans. When both of these are present in relatively
equal quantities although the cells divide but
58. Sinus venosus refers to the chamber of heart
fail to differentiate.
present between veins and right atria. In
mammals, it has disappeared as it has been 64. The enzyme complex nitrogenase has two
absorbed in right atrium. components, (a) a large Mo-Fe protein
conslstmg of four subunits (enzyme
59. In aerobic respiration, the pyruvic acid which is
nitrogenase) (b) a smaller Fe protein consisting
produced as a result of glycolysis is further
of two subunits (nitrogenase reductase).
oxidized into CO 2 and water after passing
through a series of reactions. This series of 65. Cockroach, housefly, mosquitoes etc., all belong
reactions takes place in the matrix of to class Insecta of the phylum- Arthropoda.
mitochondria and is known as Krebs' cycle, These contain three pairs of legs (total six) for
after the name of it's discoverer. locomotion.
60. In wild pea (Lathyrus aphaca) , whole leaf is 66. Cartilage is the most important vertebrate
transformed into tendril. In Pisum sativum, connective tissue. The cells of cartilage, called
terminal leaflet, while in Gloriosa, leaf apex is chondrocytes are surrounded by an amorphous
transformed into tendril. matrix which is known as chondrin. Chondrin
contains glycoproteins, basophilic chondroitin
61. Pteridophyta is a group of non-seed forming,
and fine coll;::gen fibres.
vascular cryptogams, i.e., these contain vascular
tissues for the conduction of minerals and water 67. Insectivorous plants can survive in N2 deficient
but do not produce seeds. soil as they trap N2 from the insects.

The main plant body of these plants is diploid 68. Spore of Funaria on germination, gives rise to
called sporophyte which produces spores after protonema.
meiosis. These spores on germination give rise 69. Vessels present in xylem are responsible for
to gametophytic plant which produces gametes. conduction of water and minerals from soil to
Fusion between male and female gametes the top of the plant.
produces a diploid zygote which produces 70. Multiplication of DNA is called replication.
diploid sporophytic stage. Replication means formation of equal and
62. Transpiration is a physical as well as opposite form or carbon copy. Duplication is
physiological process in which water is formation of exactly same type. Transcription is
evaporated in the form of vapour ftom aerial writing the message of DNA in the form of
parts of plants, particularly with the help of mRNA and translation means decoding the
structures known as stomata. Stomata usually message of mRNA into proteins.
open during day time (i.e., light). Increase in
71. Phytochrome is the pigment of activity of red
temperature increases the rate of transpiration.
and far red light. The activity results in
High atmospheric humidity reduces the process photoperiodism.
of transpiration and moving air (wind)
increases the rate of transpiration. 72. Citric acid present in lemon is responsible for its
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321 Manipal (Med.) ~) Solved Paper 2012

73. The vertebrae of the members of the order 78. Phylogeny is the origin and diversification of
squamata are procoelous. The order includes any taxon or the evolutionary history of its
two sub-orders-Sauria (lizards), Ophidia ongm and diversification. It is usually
(snakes). represented as diagrammatic phylogenetic tree,
i.e., dendrogram.
74. Emasculation means removal of anthers or
stamens or killing of pollen grains of a flower Palaentology is the study of fossils, ontogeny is
without affecting in any way, the female the whole course of an individual's development
reproductive organs. It is done to prevent the and life history.
self-fertilization pollination means falling of 79. Sertoli cells are the cells that line the
pollen grain on the stigma of flower. seminiferous tubules in the testis. These cells
Fertilization means fusion of male gamete and protect the spermatids and convey nutrients to
female gamete and anthesis means flowering both the developing and mature spermatozoa.
(opening of floral buds). Sertoli cells are regulated by FSH as FSH
receptors are confined to Sertoli cells.
75. Haemoglobin is a globular protein. It is carrier
of oxygen in blood. 80. Aril is the edible part in the fruit of litchi. The
aril is an accessory seed covering often formed
76. LPP-l is the first cyanophage, discovered by
from the outgrowth at base of the ovule.
Safferman and Morris. It Infects Lynbya,
Phromidium and Plectonema (blue-green algae). Fleshy thalamus is the edible part of apple
(Pyrus malus).
77. Oscillatoria is a myxophycean alga which Juicy testa is the edible part of pomegranate
reproduces by means of hormogonia. (Prmica granatum).
Hormogonia are broken filaments which give
Endocarpic juicy hairs are the edible part of
rise to new filaments under favourable
orange (Citrus sp).

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