Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

Problem 1 — Quantum Dirac Field

Part (i)
The argument in Peskin and Schroeder following Eq. (3.93) glosses over a subtlety, which
we attempt to treat carefully. In order to solve this problem, we will have to use
e−iP·x ap eiP·x = ap eip·x
which is Eq. (2.48) in the book. But, to derive this equation, we needed to know how
the Hamiltonian H commutes with the creation/annihilation operators, which was in turn
derived from the commutation relations for ap and a†p . So, are we already implicitly using
the commutation results, but then eventually showing that these operators anti-commute?
This logic sounds circular and inconsistent.
The resolution of the problem is as follows. We first note that the Hamiltonian consists
of 2 creation-annihilation operators (∼ a† a). Then, by a simple property of commutators,
[A, BC] = [A, B] C + B [A, C]
= [A, B] C − B [C, A]
But, also
[A, BC] = {A, B} C − B {C, A}
Therefore, the commutator [ap , H] is the same, independent of the fact whether we impose
commutation relations or anti-commutation relations. Therefore, even without knowing how
to interchange ap and a†q , we know how they transform under translations. The same logic
holds for the angular momentum operator, and thus rotations.
We can now go through the problem. Assuming that the vacuum state is invariant under
translations and rotations,
h0|arpas† r s† iP·x
q |0i = h0|ap aq e |0i
= h0|eiP·x e−iP·x arp eiP·x e−iP·x as†
qe
iP·x
|0i
Using the transformation property of ap and a†q ,

h0|arp as†
q |0i = e
i(p−q)·x
h0|eiP·x arp as†
q |0i

= ei(p−q)·x h0|arp as†

q |0i

This means that the matrix element is zero, unless p = q. Therefore,

(3)
h0|arp as†
q |0i ∝ δ (p − q)

To obtain the factor of δ rs , we assume that the spin quantization direction is along the boost
direction (say z). In this case, the boost does not affect the spin states. Since the matrix
element is only non-zero if the momenta are the same, we can go to the rest frame (where
p = q = 0) and do the computation there. Consider rotations about the z-axis,
h0|ar0as† r s† iJz θ
0 |0i = h0|a0 a0 e |0i
= h0|eiJz θ e−iJz θ ar0 eiJz θ e−iJz θ as†
0 e
iJz θ
|0i

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Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

For infinitesimal θ, this can be written in terms of commutators,

h0|ar0 as† r s† r s† r s†
0 |0i = h0|a0 a0 |0i + iθh0|a0 [a0 , Jz ]|0i + iθh0|[a0 , Jz ]a0 |0i

⇒ 0 = iθh0|ar0 [as† r s†
0 , Jz ]|0i + iθh0|[a0 , Jz ]a0 |0i

We will explicitly evaluate the commutator in Part(iii). For now, we just accept the result
that acting on vacuum, the commutator gives,
1 s†
[as†
0 , Jz ]|0i = ∓ a0 |0i
2
1
h0|[a0 , Jz ] = ± h0|as0
s
2

The postive or negative sign depend on whether ξ s is the positive or negative eigenstate of
σ 3 . Now,

iθh0|ar0 [as† , Jz ]|0i + iθh0|[ar0 , Jz ]as†

0 |0i = 0
 0 
1 r s† 1 r s†
⇒ iθ ∓ h0|a0 a0 |0i ± h0|a0 a0 |0i = 0
2 2

If r = s, then the signs on the two terms above are opposite, and the equation is satisfied
trivially. But if r 6= s, then that implies that h0|ar0 a0s† |0i = 0. Hence, the matrix element
must be proportional to δ rs . Thus, the matrix element can be written as,
3 3
h0|arpas† rs
q |0i = (2π) δ (p − q)δ A(p)

For the norm of the Hilbert space state to be positive, we demand A(p) > 0. Also, since
h0|ψ(x)ψ̄(y)|0i should be boost invariant (which is easily seen to be the case because the
vacuum is invariant under Λ 1 ), A should only depend on p2 (= m2 ). Hence, A is a positive
2
constant.

Part (ii)
Peskin and Schroeder shift notation here slightly. The transformations described here are
passive transformations (change of a reference frame). Hence the Λ−1 1 ψ(Λx) instead of
2
Λ 1 ψ(Λ−1 x)
2

d3 p 1 X
Z
−1 s s −ip·x s† s ip·x

−1
Uψ(x)U = U ap u (p)e + bp v (p)e U
(2π)3 2Ep s
p

Now, by definition,

U(Λ)|p, si = |Λp, si

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Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

where we have chosen our spin quantization to be in the direction of the boost. Using the
fact that the vacuum is invariant under Lorentz transformations,

U(Λ)as†
pU
−1
(Λ)|0i = U(Λ)as†
p |0i
1
= U(Λ) p |p, si
2Ep
1
= p |Λp, si
Ep
s
EΛp s† −1
= U(Λ) a U (Λ)|0i
2Ep Λp

Rewrite the integral,

d3 p 1 X p
Z 
−1 s s −ip·x
p s† s ip·x
Uψ(x)U = U 2Ep ap u (p)e + 2Ep bp v (p)e U −1
(2π)3 2Ep s

Note that the prefactor can be written as

Z
d4 p δ 4 (p2 − m2 )p0 >0


and is Lorentz invariant. Hence,

d3 p 1 X  p
Z 
s† s
−1 s s −ip·x
p ip·x
Uψ(x)U = 2EΛ p aΛp u (p)e + 2EΛ p bΛp v (p)e
(2π)3 2Ep s

Rewrite the expression in terms of q = Λp,

d3 q 1 X  p
Z
−1 −1
Uψ(x)U = 3
2Eq asq us (Λ−1 q)e−iΛ q·x
(2π) 2Eq s

iΛ−1 q·x
p
+ 2Eq bs† q v s
(Λ −1
q)e

Finally, note that Λ−1 q.x = q.Λx, since the dot product is Lorentz invariant.

d3 q 1 X p
Z
−1
Uψ(x)U = 2Eq asq us (Λ−1q)e−iq·Λx
(2π)3 2Eq s
p 
+ 2Eq bs† q v s
(Λ −1
q)eiq·Λx

The classical spinors transform via Λ 1 . So, us (Λ−1 q) = Λ−1 s

1 u (q). Therefore,
2 2

Uψ(x)U −1 = Λ−1
1 ψ(Λx)
2

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Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

Part (iii)
The z-component of the angular momentum operator for a particle at rest,
1
Z
Jz = d3 xψ † Σ3 ψ
2
Z 3 3 ′
1
Z
dpd p ′
= d3 x 6
p e−i(p − p)·x
(2π) 4Ep Ep′

X r′ † ′ 1  
ap′ ur † (p′ ) + br− p′ v r (−p′ ) Σ3 arp ur (p) + br†
′ ′ r†
× −p v (−p)
r,r ′
2

Now, since Jz |0i = 0,

Jz as† s†
0 |0i =[Jz , a0 ]|0i
Z 3 3 ′
1
Z
3 dpdp −i(p′ − p)·x
= dx e
(2π)6
p
4Ep Ep′
     
X r′ † ′
r† ′ 1 3 r r r′ r′ ′ 1 3 r r s†
× ap′ u (p ) Σ ap u (p) + b− p′ v (−p ) Σ ap u (p), a0 |0i
′
2 2
r,r

The other terms commute with as† 0 . Acting on the vacuum state, only one term survives,
Z 3 3 ′
1
Z
s† 3 dpdp ′
Jz a0 |0i = d x 6
p e−i(p − p)·x
(2π) 4Ep Ep′
   
X r′ † ′
r† ′ 1 3 r r s†
× ap′ u (p ) Σ ap u (p), a0 |0i
′
2
r,r
Z 3 3 ′
1
Z
3 dpdp ′
= dx 6
p e−i(p − p)·x
(2π) 4Ep Ep′
 
X ′ 1 3
× ur † (p′ ) Σ ur (p)(2π)3 δ 3 (p′ )ar† rs
0 δ |0i
r,r ′
2
Z 3  
d p 1 i p · x X s† 1 3
Z
= dx 3
e u (p) Σ ur (p)ar†
0 |0i
(2π)3 2Ep r
2

Integrating over x gives another delta function in momentum,

Z 3  
s† d p 1 X s† 1 3
Jz a0 |0i = 3
u (p) Σ ur (p)ar† 3 3
0 |0i(2π) δ (p)
(2π) 2Ep r 2
 
1 X s† 1 3
= u (0) Σ ur (0)ar†0 |0i
2m r 2

Using the expression for us (0),

 √ 
s p · σξ s
u (p) = √
p · σ̄ξ s

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Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

X σ3 r
Jz as†
0 |0i = ξ s† (0) ξ (0)ar†
0 |0i
r
2
 
r 3 r 1
When ξ is an eigenstate of σ , with ξ =
0

1 X s†
Jz as†
0 |0i = ξ (0)ξ r (0)ar†
0 |0i
2 r
1 X rs r†
= δ a0 |0i
2 r
1
= as† |0i
2 0
 
r 0
Clearly, for ξ =
1

1 s†
Jz as†
0 |0i = − a0 |0i
2

Thus, as† 1
0 |0i are eigenstates of Jz with eigenvalues ± 2 . The same calculation follows through
for bs†0 |0i. As noted in Peskin and Schroeder, the only difference is that instead of getting
a [a a, a] type commutator, we get a [bb† , b] type commutator, and
†
 hence
 an additional
1
negative sign. This negative sign means that for the spinor η s = , the eigenvalue is
0
− 21 . Therefore, bs† 1
0 |0i are eigenstates of Jz with eigenvalues ∓ 2 .

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Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

Problem 2— Majorana Fermions

Note: This problem deals with 2 different physical systems. We can (obviously) write the
familiar Dirac Lagrangian in terms of 2-component fields. We can also write a new Majorana
Lagrangian, which has a new type of mass term, and is physically different from the Dirac
Lagrangian. The problem goes through both systems, so it’s good to keep the distinction in
mind. We start with the Majorana equation.

Part (a)
We know that Λ 1 is a block diagonal matrix,
2
 
ΛL 0
Λ1 =
2 0 ΛR
The upper two components of a 4-component Dirac spinor transform via ΛL , i.e. like left
handed fields. From Peskin and Schroeder, Eq. (3.37), under a rotation θ and a boost β,
σ σ
χ → ΛLχ = (1 − iθ · − β · )χ
2 2
The complex conjugate field transforms like,
σ∗ σ∗ ∗
χ∗ → Λ∗L χ∗ = (1 + iθ · −β· )χ
2 2
The original equation is,
iσ̄ · ∂χ(x) − imσ 2 χ∗ (x) = 0
We take the active transformation convention of Peskin and Schroeder. The fields transform,
but the co-ordinates are left unchanged. Thus, the lhs of the transformed equation can be
written as,
iσ̄ · ∂ ΛL χ(Λ−1 x) − imσ 2 Λ∗L χ∗ (Λ−1 x)

= iσ̄ µ ΛL∂µ χ(Λ−1 x) − imσ 2 Λ∗L χ∗ (Λ−1 x)

= iσ̄ µ ΛL (Λµν )−1 (∂ ν χ) (Λ−1 x) − imσ 2 Λ∗L χ∗ (Λ−1 x)

To proceed, we need to derive the 2-component identity corresponding to Λ−1 µ

1 γ Λ1 =
2 2
Λµν γ ν . In 2-component language, the identity can be written as,
 −1   
−1 µ ΛL 0 0 σµ ΛL 0
Λ1 γ Λ1 =
2 2 0 Λ−1 R σ̄ µ 0 0 ΛR
−1 µ
 
0 ΛL σ ΛR
=
Λ−1
R σ̄ µ
Λ L 0
Hence,
Λ−1 µ µ ν
R σ̄ ΛL = Λν σ̄
⇒ σ̄ µ ΛL = ΛR Λµν σ̄ ν

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Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

The transformed lhs now becomes,

iΛR Λµν (Λµν )−1 σ̄ ν ∂ ν χ − imσ 2 Λ∗L χ∗

= iΛR σ̄ ν ∂ ν χ − imσ 2 Λ∗L χ∗

Now, using the identity σ 2 σ ∗ = −σσ 2 , consider,

σ∗ σ∗
σ 2 Λ∗L = σ 2 (1 + iθ · −β· )
2 2
σ σ
= (1 − iθ · + β · )σ 2
2 2
2
= ΛR σ

The transformed lhs is now,

ΛR iσ̄ · ∂χ − imσ 2 χ∗

If the original field satisfies its equation of motion, then the above expression is also zero.
Therefore, the Lorentz-transformed field satisfies the same equation of motion as the original
field. (Note: The fact that the above expression is evaluated at Λ−1 x is irrelevant, because
the equation of motion is satisfied at every point in spacetime).
To get the Klein-Gordon equation, multiplying the lhs of the Majorana equation by σ ν ∂ν ,

iσ ν σ̄ µ ∂ν ∂µ χ − imσ ν σ 2 ∂ν χ∗
= iσ ν σ̄ µ ∂ν ∂µ χ − imσ 2 (σ̄ ν )∗ ∂ν χ∗

using the fact σ µ σ 2 = σ 2 (σ̄ µ )∗ . The Majorana equation for χ∗ can be obtained by complex
conjugating the equation for χ,

−iσ̄ ∗ · ∂χ∗ + im(σ 2 )∗ χ = 0

Plugging the value of σ̄ ∗ · ∂χ∗ back into the previous expression,

iσ ν σ̄ µ ∂ν ∂µ χ − imσ 2 (m(σ 2 )∗ χ)
= i({σ ν , σ̄ µ } + [σ ν , σ̄ µ ])∂ν ∂µ χ + im2 χ
= i(g µν + [σ ν , σ̄ µ ])∂ν ∂µ χ + im2 χ

Since ∂ν ∂µ are symmetric, the contraction with the commutator gives zero. (This can be
either easily checked explicitly, or seen more elegantly in 4-component language). Thus, if
the Majorana equation is satisfied, so is the Klein-Gordon equation,

(∂ 2 + m2 )χ = 0

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Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

Part (b)
We first prove that the action is real. Given the action,
Z  
4 † im T 2 † 2 ∗


S = d x χ iσ̄ · ∂χ + χ σ χ−χ σ χ
2

∗
Z  
∗ 4 † im T 2 † 2 ∗
S = d x χ iσ̄ · ∂χ + χ σ χ−χ σ χ
2

∗
Z  
4 ∗ im 2 ∗ 2 ∗
= d x χi iσ̄ij · ∂χj + χi σij χj − χi σij χj
2
Z  
4 ∗ µ ∗ ∗ im ∗ 2 ∗ ∗ ∗ ∗

2 ∗


= d x − (χi ∂ χj ) i(σ̄µ )ij − (χi χj ) (σ )ij − χi χj (σ )ij
2

Using the fact that (αβ)∗ = β ∗ α∗ for Grassman numbers, and that (σ 2 )∗ = −σ 2 ,

Z  
4 im
∗ µ
χ∗j )χi i(σ̄µ )∗ij χ∗j χ∗i (−σ 2 )ij 2


S = d x −(∂ − − χj χi (−σ )ij
2
Z  
4 im 2 2
= d x −(∂ µ χ∗j )χi i(σ̄µ )∗ij − ∗ ∗


χj (σ )ij χi − χi (σ )ij χj
2
Z  
4 im † 2 ∗ T 2
= d x −(∂ µ χ∗j )χi i(σ̄µ )∗ij −


χ σ χ −χ σ χ
2
Z  
4 im T 2 † 2 ∗
= d x −(∂ µ χ∗j )χi i(σ̄µ )∗ij +


χ σ χ−χ σ χ
2

We can integrate the first term by parts, noting that the surface term does not contribute,
since physical fields should go to zero at infinity.
Z  
∗ 4 ∗ µ ∗ im T 2 † 2 ∗


S = d x χj (∂ χi )i(σ̄µ )ij + χ σ χ−χ σ χ
2
Z  
4 ∗ ∗ µ im T 2 † 2 ∗


= d x χj i(σ̄µ )ij (∂ χi ) + χ σ χ−χ σ χ
2

Since σ̄µ is Hermitian, σ̄µ∗ = σ̄µT .

 Z 
∗ ∗ 4 µ im T 2 † 2 ∗


S = d x χj i(σ̄µ )ji(∂ χi ) + χ σ χ−χ σ χ
2
Z  
4 † µ im T 2 † 2 ∗


= d x χ iσ̄µ ∂ χ + χ σ χ−χ σ χ
2
=S

To arrive at the Majorana equation, we write the Euler-Lagrange equations for the above
action. We note that the Lagrangian does not contain any derivatives of χ∗ , so, the Euler-

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Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

Lagrange equation is simply,

δL
=0
δχ∗k
δ im
⇒ ∗ χ∗i iσ̄ij · ∂χj + χi σij2 χj − χ∗i σij2 χ∗j = 0


δχk 2
δ ∗ δ im ∗ 2 ∗


χ iσ̄ ij · ∂χj + −χ i ij j = 0
σ χ
δχ∗k i δχ∗k 2
δ im
−χ∗i σij2 χ∗j = 0


iσ̄kj · ∂χj + ∗
δχk 2
 
im δ ∗ 2 ∗ ∗ 2 δ ∗
iσ̄kj · ∂χj + (−χi ) σij χj − (−χi ) σij ∗ (χj ) = 0
2 δχ∗k δχk
The additional negative sign in the chain rule on the second term arises from the fact that
these are Grassman numbers, so we get a negative sign when we move the derivative through
the first χ∗ .

im 2 ∗ 2
χj − (−χ∗i ) σik


iσ̄kj · ∂χj + −σkj =0
2
Again, using the fact that (σ 2 )ik = (−σ 2 )ki,

iσ̄ · ∂χ − imσ 2 χ∗ = 0

These identical steps can be carried out for the variation with respect to χ, being careful
to insert a minus sign whenever two Grassman variables are commuted through.
Euler-Lagrange equation for χ,
 
δL δL
∂µ − =0
δ(∂µ χk ) δχk
µ 2
∂µ (−χ∗i iσ̄ik ) − imσkj χj = 0
µ ∗ 2 ∗
∂µ (−χ∗i i(σ̄ki ) ) + im(σkj ) χj = 0
−iσ̄ ∗ · ∂χ∗ + im(σ 2 )∗ χ = 0

Part (c)
The Dirac Lagrangian,

L = ψ̄ (i∂µ γ µ − m) ψ
      
¯ ¯

0 σµ m 0 ψL
= ψL ψR i∂µ −
σ̄ µ 0 0 m ψR
       
† †

0 1 0 σµ m 0 ψL
= ψL ψR i∂µ −
1 0 σ̄ µ 0 0 m ψR
= ψR† i∂µ σ µ ψR + ψL† i∂µ σ¯µ ψL − m(ψR† ψL + ψL† ψR )

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Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

In terms of χ1 and χ2 ,
 
L = (iσ 2 χ∗2 )† i∂µ σ µ (iσ 2 χ∗2 ) + χ†1 i∂µ σ¯µ χ1 − m (iσ 2 χ∗2 )† χ1 + χ†1 (iσ 2 χ∗2 )
 
= χT2 σ 2 σ µ σ 2 i∂µ χ∗2 + χ†1 i∂µ σ¯µ χ1 + im (χT2 σ 2 )χ1 − χ†1 (iσ 2 χ∗2 )
 
T 2 µ 2 ∗ † ¯µ T 2 † 2 ∗
= χ2 σ σ σ i∂µ χ2 + χ1 i∂µ σ χ1 + im (χ2 σ )χ1 − χ1 (σ χ2 )

Using σ µ σ 2 = σ 2 (σ̄ µ )∗ ,
 
L = χT2 (σ̄ µ )∗ i∂µ χ∗2 + χ†1 i∂µ σ¯µ χ1 + im χT2 σ 2 χ1 − χ†1 σ 2 χ∗2

To put the first term into a more familiar form, we can add a full derivative to the Lagrangian,
and move the derivative to act on χ. The steps involved are exactly the ones we use above
to demonstrate that the action is real.
 
L = χ†1 iσ̄ · ∂χ1 + χ†2 iσ̄ · ∂χ2 + im χT2 σ 2 χ1 − χ†1 σ 2 χ∗2

The kinetic terms in the Lagrangian correspond to two 2-component fermions. The Dirac
mass term, however, couples the two fermions together. Compare this with the Majorana
Lagrangian we used above to arrive at the Majorana equation. There, we just needed one
2-component field to write down the mass term. But, to describe a fermion with a Dirac
mass, we need both χ1 and χ2 (or ψL and ψR ).

Part (d)
The global symmetry in the Dirac Lagranigian above is,
χ1 → eiα χ1 χ2 → e−iα χ2
χ∗1 → e−iα χ∗1 χ∗2 → eiα χ∗2
For infinitesimal transformations, the change in fields are given by,
α(δχ1 ) = iαχ1 α(δχ2 ) = −iαχ2
α(δχ∗1 ) = −iαχ∗1 α(δχ∗2 ) = iαχ∗2
Therefore, the Noether current is given by,
δL δL δL δL
Jµ = (δχ1 )j + (δχ2 )j + ∗
(δχ∗1 )j + + ∗
(δχ∗2 )j
δ(∂µ χ1 )j δ(∂µ χ2 )j δ(∂µ χ1 )j δ(∂µ χ2 )j
= −χ†1 iσ̄ µ (iχ1 ) − χ†2 iσ̄ µ (−iχ2 )
= χ†1 σ̄ µ χ1 − χ†2 σ̄ µ χ2
There is a negative sign when we move the (Grassman) functional derivative across a Grass-
man variable. Also note that this symmetry is just the ordinary ψ → eiα ψ symmetry of the
Dirac Lagrangian. We can explicitly evaluate the divergence of this current,
∂µ J µ = (∂µ χ†1 )σ̄ µ χ1 + χ†1 σ̄ · ∂χ1 − (∂µ χ†2 )σ̄ µ χ2 − χ†2 σ̄ · ∂χ2

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Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

In this notation, the Dirac equation (Eq. 3.43 in Peskin) is,

iσ̄ · ∂χ1 − m(iσ 2 χ∗2 ) = 0
iσ · ∂(iσ 2 χ∗2 ) − mχ1 = 0
Using these equations (and their complex-conjugated and transposed counterparts),
∂µ J µ = (mχT2 σ 2 )χ1 + χ†1 (mσ 2 χ∗2 ) − (mχT1 σ 2 )χ2 − χ†2 (mσ 2 χ∗1 )
= m (χ2 )i (σ 2 )ij (χ1 )j + (χ∗1 )i (σ 2 )ij (χ∗2 )j − (χ1 )i (σ 2 )ij (χ2 )j − (χ∗2 )i (σ 2 )ij (χ∗1 )j

Note now, that we get one negative sign from flipping the indices on σij2 , but also another
negative sign from anti-commuting the Grassman variables,
∂µ J µ = m (χ2 )i (σ 2 )ij (χ1 )j + (χ∗1 )i (σ 2 )ij (χ∗2 )j − (χ2 )i (σ 2 )ij (χ1 )j − (χ∗1 )i (σ 2 )ij (χ∗2 )j

=0
We now look at the following current in the Majorana theory,
J µ = χ† σ̄ µ χ
The divergence of this current is,
∂µ J µ = (∂µ χ† )σ̄ µ χ + χ† σ̄ µ ∂µ χ
= m(χT σ 2 χ + χ† σ 2 χ∗ )
Therefore, this theory does not have a U(1) symmetry, unless m = 0. This is why Majorana
particles do not have (electric) charge. The mass term explicitly “breaks electric charge”.
To write a theory of N massive fields, related by an O(N) symmetry, consider the follow-
ing,
 
χ1
 χ2 
Ψ =  .. 
 
 . 
χN

im  T 2 
L = Ψ†i iσ̄ · ∂Ψi + Ψi σ Ψi − Ψ†i σ 2 Ψ∗i
2
The transpose and the sigma matrices act on the individual χ fields, and the O(N) operations
apply on a completely orthogonal space. It is trivial to see that under a O(N) rotation, terms
like Ψi Ψi will remain invariant.
Ψi → Aij Ψj
Ψi Ψi → Aij Ψj Aik Ψk
= (AT A)jk Ψj Ψk
= Ψj Ψ j

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Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

Part (e)
Since the Majorana equation implies the Klien-Gordon equation, we can look for plane wave
solutions for the equation. Following the same line of reasoning as for the Dirac equation,
let’s try and look for positive frequency solutions (p0 > 0) to the Majorana equation,

χ(x) = u(p)e−ip·x

Plugging this into the Majorana equation,

σ̄ µ pµ u(p)e−ip·x − imσ 2 u∗ (p)eip·x = 0

Since the co-efficients of eip·x and e−ip·x should be independently zero, we already see that
this approach yields a trivial solution. The problem is the following: there are both forward
propagating (∼ e−ip·x ) and backward propagating (∼ e−ip·x ) parts in the Majorana equation,
and we cannot in general demand an independent solution which just propagates forward in
time. Let’s generalize our solution to include both positive and negative frequency solutions,

χ(x) = u(p)e−ip·x + v(p)eip·x

Where the coefficients are still independent functions of p.

σ̄ µ pµ u(p)e−ip·x − imσ 2 u∗ (p)eip·x − σ̄ µ pµ v(p)eip·x − imσ 2 v ∗ (p)e−ip·x = 0

Therefore, setting the coefficients of e−ip·x to zero, and specializing to the center of mass
frame, where pµ = p0 = (m, 0),

mu(p0 ) − imσ 2 v ∗ (p0 ) = 0

⇒ u(p0 ) = iσ 2 v ∗ (p0 )

Thus, as expected, the forward propagating and backward propagating solutions are not
independent. This equality holds in the center of mass frame. In any other frame, we would
have to boost u(p) and v(p). It’s easily seen that there will be additional matrix factors in
the equation in general.

ΛLu(p0 ) = iσ 2 Λ∗L v ∗ (p0 )

But the important proportionality of u(p) to the complex conjugate of v(p) is retained, which
helps us write down the Fourier expansion for the quantum Majorana field.

d3 p 1 X s s
Z
−ip·x s† s ip·x


χ(x) = ap u (p)e + ap v (p)e
(2π)3 2Ep s
p

There is only one set of ladder operators above. The Majorana particle is its own anti-
particle. By the usual computation, we can show that the creation-annihilation operators
obey anti-commutation rules,

{χa (x), χ†b (y)} = δ 3 (x − y)δab ⇔ {arp , as† 3 3

q } = (2π) δ (p − q)δ
rs

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Phys624 Homework 4 Solutions 3rd Dec ’08

To construct a Hamilotonian, the conjugate momentum to the field,

δL
πk =
δ(∂0 χk )
= iχ†k

Therefore, the Hamiltonian is given by,

Z Z
d x H = d3 x π∂0 χ − L
3

Z  
3 † im T 2 † 2 ∗


= d x χ iσi ∂i χ − χ σ χ−χ σ χ
2

We have already seen that the mass term is real (Hermitian when χ is promoted to an
operator in the Fock space) from the action. So,

†
Z Z  
3 † 3 † im T 2 † 2 ∗
d x H = d x χ iσi ∂i χ − χ σ χ−χ σ χ
2
Z  
3 †

† im T 2 † 2 ∗


= d x χ iσi ∂i χ − χ σ χ−χ σ χ
2
Z  
3 † im T 2 † 2 ∗


= d x −∂i χ iσi χ − χ σ χ−χ σ χ
2
Z  
3 † im T 2 † 2 ∗


= d x χ iσi ∂i χ − χ σ χ−χ σ χ
2
Z
= d3 x H

where we have used integration by parts in the last step. The Hamiltonian we have con-
structed is Hermitian. Note that we could have just used the results obtained by Peskin and
Schroeder for the Dirac Lagrangian, noting that setting χ1 = χ2 in Part(c) gives two copies
of the Lagrangian from Part(b). It is easy to check that that approach yields the same ex-
pansion of χ(x). For the rest of the analysis, we just use this correspondence, because there
is no additional physical insight over the Dirac case. Therefore the Hamiltonian in terms of
creation-annihilation operators is given by,

d3 p X
Z
Ep as† s


H= 3 p ap
(2π) s

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