Question Bank (PG 1-58)

1 Matter
Objective Questions
4
1. Alpha particles, 2 He2+, are emitted when a radioactive nucleus disintegrates. Which of the
following species has the same number of electrons as one alpha particle?
A H+ C Li+
–
B H D H2
2. In a mass spectrum, the peak at m/e 22 is caused by

A CO2+ C CO+
2+
B CO2 D CO2+
3. A sample of oxygen gas which contains atoms of two isotopes 16O and 18O is analysed in a mass
spectrometer. Which of the ions below will be deflected most in the magnetic field?
A 16O2+ C 16O – 18O+
B 18O2+ D 16O22+
4. The mass spectrum of a metal Q is shown below.
What is the relative atomic mass of Q?

(85 23) + (87 7.5) (85 23) + (87 7.5)
A ——————————————— C ———————————————
100 23 + 7.5
(85 21.5) + (87 8.5) (85 21.5) + (87 8.5)
B ———————————————— D ————————————————
100 21.5 + 8.5
5. When potassium chlorate(V) is heated strongly at its melting point, a mixture of potassium
chlorate(VII), KClO4 and potassium chloride is produced. The equation for the reaction is
4KClO3(s) → 3KClO4(s) + KCl(s)
What amount of potassium chlorate(V) must be used to produce 0.075 mol of potassium
chlorate(VII)?
A 0.05 mol
B 0.10 mol
C 0.15 mol
D 0.20 mol
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Ace Ahead Chemistry (Question Bank) 5th (19/2/08).indd 1 2/20/08 11:30:12 AM

6. The reaction between sulphur dichloride dioxide, SCl2O2 and water is represented by the
chemical equation:
SCl2O2 + 2H2O → H2SO4 + 2HCl
What is the volume (in dm3) of 2.0 mol dm–3 NaOH required to neutralise completely the
reaction products when 2.0 mol of sulphur dichloride dioxide reacts with excess water?
A 4 C 8
B 6 D 12
A B C D
1 only is correct 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3
are correct are correct are correct
7. Which of the formulae given below can be used to calculate the value of the Avogadro constant,
L?
Mass of one mole of hydrogen gas
1 L=— — ——— ——————— ————— ——— —
—— ——— —
Mass of two atoms of hydrogen
Volume of one mole of hydrogen gas (cm3)
2 L=——
— ———
— ——— ——————— —— ——————— ———— ————
Volume of one molecule of hydrogen (cm3)
Mass of one mole of carbon–12
3 L=—
———— —— ————— ————— ————————
Mass of one atom of carbon–12
8. Which of the following compounds contain(s) the same number of atoms as 1.0 mol of oxygen
gas?
1 1.0 mol of nitrogen gas
2 0.5 mol of ammonia gas
3 0.5 mol of carbon monoxide
Structured Questions
1. The mass spectrum for an element is shown below.
50
relative abundance %
40
30
20
10
90 91 92 93 94 m/e
(a) Calculate the relative atomic mass of this element.

(b) With the help of the Periodic Table, identify the element.
2. A sample of hydrogen chloride molecules consists of the isotopes 1H, 35Cl and 37Cl. The relative
abundance of 35Cl and 37Cl isotopes are 75% and 25% respectively.
(a) Write down the formulae of all the different ions produced in the ionisation chamber of the
mass spectrum.
2 © Oxford Fajar Sdn. Bhd. (008974-T) 2008

(b) Sketch the mass spectrum of this sample of hydrogen chloride molecules, ignoring the peak
at m/e 1.
(c) Comment on your answer in (b).
(d) Calculate the relative molecular mass of the hydrogen chloride in this sample.
Essay Question
1. The mass spectrum of rhombic sulphur is shown below.
(a) (i) Explain why the mass spectrum of rhombic sulphur consists of a number of peaks.
(ii) Identify the species which is most abundant in the sample of sulphur vapour.
(iii) From the mass spectrum, deduce the formula of rhombic sulphur.
(b) Cisplatin, Pt(NH3)2Cl2, is used to treat certain types of cancer. It is prepared by the following
reaction
K2PtCl4(aq) + 2NH3(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + Pt(NH3)2Cl2(aq)
The percentage yield for the reaction is 93.2% where
actual yield from experiment
percentage yield = —
—————— —————— ———
— —————— —
——— 100
—
theoretical yield
If a student wants to prepare 5.72 g of Pt(NH3)2Cl2, what is the mass of K2PtCl4 he should
use?

ANSWER
CHAPTER 1 Matter 2. (a) 1H+, 35Cl+, 37Cl+

1
H – 35Cl+, 1H – 37Cl+
Objective Questions (b)
1. A Alpha-particles are helium nuclei, 42 He2+ 100
Number of Number of
Species
relative abundance
80
protons electrons
Helium nuclei 2 0 60
+
H 1 0
40
H– 1 2
Li+ 3 2
20
H2 2 2
2. B 30 35 40 m/e
+ 2+ + 2+
Ion CO 2
CO2 CO CO (c) m/e 35 : 35Cl+; m/e 37 : 37Cl+
m/e 44/1 44/2 28/1 28/2 Relative heights of these two lines: 3 : 1
= 44 = 22 = 28 = 14 m/e 36 : 1H – 35Cl+; m/e 38 : 1H – 37Cl+.
Relative heights of these two lines: 3 : 1
3. D 16O22+ has the smallest mass and highest charge. (36 × 3) + (38 × 1)
(d) Mr of HCl = — ——— ———— ——— ———— = 36.5
4. D 3+1
5. B From the equation,
3 mol of KClO4 is obtained from 4 mol of KClO3 Essay Question
0.075 mol KClO4 is obtained from
1. (a) (i) The mass spectrum of sulphur molecules
4 is caused by the formation of molecular
0.075 — = 0.10 mol KClO3
3 ions and fragmented molecular ions.
6. A SCl2O2 + 2H2O → H2SO4 + 2HCl (Note: The mass spectrum of sulphur as
2 mol of SCl2O2 produces 2 mol of H2SO4 and shown in the question is not caused by
4 mol of HCl, that is, 8 mol of H+ ions. the isotopes of sulphur).
H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) (ii) The most abundant species is the
Number of moles of NaOH required = 8.0 fragmented ion, 32S2+ (or 32S – 32S+) which
8.0 = MV = 2.0 V produces the peak at m/e 64.
V = 4 dm3 (iii) From the mass spectrum, Mr of sulphur
7. D 1 mol of H2 gas = L × 2 hydrogen atoms = 256
(1 correct) The relative atomic mass of sulphur = 32
Number of atoms in 1 molecule of
1 mol of H2 gas = L molecules of H2
rhombic sulphur
Volume of 1 mol of H2 = L volume of
1 molecule of H2 (2 correct) 256
=— — — =8
1 mol of carbon = L atoms of carbon (3 correct) 32
8. B 1.0 mol of O2 contains 2 (6.02 1023) Thus, the structure of rhombic sulphur
oxygen atoms. is made up of simple molecules. Each
1.0 mol of N2 contains 2 (6.02 1023) molecule contains 8 atoms, that is, the
nitrogen atoms. (1 correct) molecular formula of sulphur is S8.
0.5 mol of NH3 contains 0.5 x (6.02 1023) 5.72
(b) 92.3 = — — — —
—— —— —— —— 100
nitrogen atoms and (3 0.5) (6.02 1023) theoretical yield
hydrogen atoms. (2 correct) Theoretical yield = 6.20 g
0.5 mol of CO contains 0.5 (6.02 1023) Mr of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 = 195 + 2 (17) + 2
carbon atoms and 0.5 (6.02 1023) oxygen (35.5) = 300
atoms. (3 incorrect) Mr of K2PtCl4 = 2 (39) + 195 + 4 (35.5)
= 415
Structured Questions 6.20
Number of moles of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 = — ——
300
1. (a) Relative (90 52) + (91 9) + (92 12) = 0.0207
atomic + (93 14) + (94 13) 1 mol of K2PtCl4 → 1 mol of Pt(NH3)2Cl2
= —— —— ——————— ————— ——————— ——
——
mass 52 + 9 + 12 + 14 + 13 Number of moles of K2PtCl4 needed = 0.0207
= 91.3 Mass of K2PtCl4 needed = 0.0207 415
(b) Zirconium (Zr) = 8.59 g

2 The Gaseous State
Objective Questions
1. A gaseous hydride of nitrogen, X, contains 87.5 % by mass of nitrogen. The relative molecular
mass of X is 32.
When X is heated, it gives off a mixture of nitrogen gas and hydrogen gas. What is the total
volume of the mixture of gases produced when 100 cm3 of X is heated?
A 200 cm3 C 400 cm3
3
B 300 cm D 600 cm3
2. A closed container at s.t.p. contains 11 g of P (carbon dioxide) and 8 g of Q (oxygen). Which of

the following statements is true?
A The average kinetic energy of P is higher than the average kinetic energy of Q.
B The partial pressure of P is higher than the partial pressure of Q.
C The partial pressure for each gas becomes 0.5 atm when 1 dm3 of P is mixed with 1 dm3 of
Q.
D P and Q do not contain the same number of molecules.
ρ
3. The graph of — against p for a gas, X, at 273 K is shown below.
p
(ρ = density of gas in g dm–3; p = gas pressure in atm; R = gas constant)

What is the relative molecular mass of X at a pressure of p = 0 and a temperature T = 273 K?
273Y
A 273 RY C — —— —
R
273Y RY
B — ——— D — ——
R 273
4. A gaseous mixture contains 64 g of methane, 64 g of oxygen and 64 g of sulphur dioxide. The

gaseous mixture exerts a pressure of 210 kPa. What is the partial pressure of methane?
[Relative atomic mass: C, 12, O, 16, S, 32]
A 30 kPa
B 60 kPa
C 70 kPa
D 120 kPa
5. A 1.0 dm3 flask contains oxygen at 114 kPa and a 2.0 dm3 flask contains nitrogen at 67.5 kPa.
The two flasks are connected and the two gases allowed to mix. What is the total pressure of the
gaseous mixture?
[The temperature is assumed to remain constant.]
A 7 kPa
B 38 kPa
C 45 kPa
D 83 kPa

A B C D
6. Which of the following formulae represent(s) the properties of an ideal gas?

(ρ = density; m = mass of gas; M = relative molecular mass)
ρ
1 p =— — RT 3 pV = MrRT
Mr
RT
2 pV = —
—
ρ
7. A 10.0 dm3 glass bulb contains 2.0 g of hydrogen, 9.98 g of argon and 3.42 g of oxygen.
We can deduce that
1 the amount of moles of oxygen in the mixture is 0.214 mol.
2 the total amount of gases in the mixture is 1.357 mol.
3 the total pressure of the gaseous mixture is 3.34 atm.
(Relative atomic mass: H, 1.0; Ar, 39.9; O, 16; temperature = 27 °C)
8. A gaseous mixture contains 0.8 mol of Cl2, 0.8 mol of PCl3 and 0.2 mol of PCl5. At 423 K, the
pressure of the mixture is 96 000 Pa.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
1 The partial pressure of chlorine is 10 667 kPa.
2 The partial pressure of PCl3 is 42 667 kPa.
3 The partial pressure of PCl5 is 10 667 kPa.
9. Which of the following graphs represent(s) the behaviour of an ideal gas?

1 p 2 p 3 p
1
0 V 0 v 0 t (°C)
1. (a) Explain why a decrease in the volume of a gas causes an increase in its pressure.
(b) State the law that shows the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas.
(c) A sample of chlorine gas occupies a volume of 45.2 dm3 at a pressure of 340 kPa and a
temperature of 57 °C. Calculate the mass of chlorine gas in the sample.
2. Nitric oxide reacts rapidly with oxygen as represented by the following equation
2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g)
The apparatus shown below can be used to carry out this reaction.
NO O2
2 dm3
4dm3 1.0 atm
0.5 atm
When the tap T is opened, a fast reaction occurs. Calculate

(a) the amount (in moles) of NO and O2 present before the reaction.
(b) the amount (in moles) of NO2 produced in the reaction.
(c) the number of moles of gases remaining after the experiment.
(d) the partial pressure for every gas in the resultant mixture.

Essay Question
1. (a) Describe qualitatively in terms of kinetic theory the essential difference between the
gaseous, liquid and solid states.
(b) Explain why the behaviour of a real gas differs from that predicted by the ideal gas
behaviour.
(c) When a gas is collected over water, it is saturated with water vapour. A sample of hydrogen
(45.5 cm3) was collected over water at 25 °C and 0.992 atm. The vapour pressure of water at
25 °C is 0.0313 atm.
What is the amount (in mol) of hydrogen collected in this experiment?

ANSWER
CHAPTER 2 The Gaseous State 2.0

7. C nhydrogen = —
—— = 1.0
2.0
Objective Questions 9.98
nargon = —
———— = 0.25
1. B 39.9
3.42
Element N H noxygen = —
———— = 0.107 (1 incorrect)
32
Mass 87.5 100 – 87.5 = 12.5
Total number of moles = 1.0 + 0.25 + 0.107
No. of moles 87.5 12.5 = 1.357 (2 correct)
——— = 6.25 ——— = 12.5
14 1 nRT 1.357 0.0821 300
PT = ————
—= — —————————
— —————
— ———
— —
—
Mole ratio 6.25 12.5 V 10.0
———= 1 ———= 2
6.25 6.25 = 3.34 atm (3 correct)
8. C Total number of moles = 0.8 + 0.8 + 0.2 = 1.8
Empirical formula of X is NH2.
0.8
nNH2 = 32 Partial pressure of Cl2 = ——— 96 000
1.8
n(14 + 2) = 32
= 42 667 kPa
n=2
(1 incorrect)
Molecular formula of X is N2H4.
N2H4 → N2 + 2H2 0.8
Partial pressure of PCl3 = —— — 96 000
1 mol → 1 mol + 2 mol = 3 mol 1.8
1 vol → 3 vol = 42 667 kPa
100 cm3 → 300 cm3 (2 correct)
2. C 0.2
11 Partial pressure of PCl5 = — —— 96 000
11 g of P (CO2) = — — = 0.25 mol 1.8
44
= 10 667 kPa
8
8 g of Q (O2) = — — = 0.25 mol (3 correct)
32
9. D Graphs 1 and 2 are different representations of
mRT ρRT Boyle’s law. Graph 3 represents the effect of
3. A Mr = — —— —= — ———
pV p temperature on pressure. As the temperature
ρ increases, the kinetic energy of the gaseous
where p = 0; T = 273, — = Y
p particles increases and the frequency of collisions
Mr = YRT = 273RY on the walls of the container increases. Thus,
4. D Relative molecular mass: the pressure increases. (1, 2, 3 correct)
CH4 = 16, O2 = 32, SO2 = 64
64 Structured Questions
Number of moles of CH4 = — — =4
16
1. (a) According to the kinetic theory of gases, the
64 pressure of a gas is caused by the collisions of
Number of moles of O2 = — — =2
32 gaseous particles on the walls of the container.
64 When the volume of the gas decreases,
Number of moles of SO2 = — — =1 the number of molecules per unit volume
64
increases. This increase causes the molecules
7 mol of gases exert a pressure of 210 kPa.
to collide more frequently with the walls and
4
4 mol of CH4 exert a pressure of — 210 therefore increases the pressure.
7
(b) Boyle’s law: The volume of a given mass of
= 120 kPa.
gas is inversely proportional to its pressure if
5. D p1V1 = p2V2
the temperature of the gas is kept constant.
114 1.0
Partial pressure of O2 = — ———— ——
——— = 38 kPa (c) pV = nRT
3
pV (340 103) (45.2 10–3)
67.5 2.0 n=— ——= — ————— ——————— —
— ————— —
——
Partial pressure of N2 = — ———— ——
——— = 45 kPa RT 8.31 (273 + 57)
3 = 5.60 mol
Total pressure = 38 + 45 = 83 kPa Mass of chlorine = 5.60 71
6. A = 397.6 g
mRT ρRT 2. (a) Before reaction
Mr = — ————= — ————
pV p Number of moles of nitrogen oxide (NO)
ρ pV 0.5 4 2
p = (—— —)RT (1 correct) = —— = —
———— —= ——
Mr RT RT RT

Number of moles of oxygen (O2) causes an increase in the average kinetic
1.0 2 2 energy of the particles.
=— ——— ———= — — —
RT RT
(b) Amount of NO2 produced Gaseous state
2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) Molecules are in constant motion (vibrational,
2 rotational and translational motion).
——— mol of nitrogen oxide (NO) reacts with Molecules are more widely separated.
RT
1 Molecules have very high energy content.
——— mol of oxygen (O2) to produce
RT
2 Liquid state
——— mol of nitrogen dioxide (NO2). Molecules have vibrational, rotational and
RT
translational motion.
(c) After the experiment
Molecules in the liquid state are much closer
Number of moles of O2 remained
together than in gases.
2 1 1
=— ——– — ——= — — — … (1) Greater intermolecular forces restrict molecular
RT RT RT
movement.
Number of moles of NO2 produced
2 Solid state
=— —— … (2)
RT Molecules have vibrational and rotational
(d) pV = nRT motion but no translational motion.
For oxygen The particles are close together and are
Volume of oxygen after mixing = 2 + 4 = 6 dm3 arranged in a definite pattern, held together
1 by strong intermolecular forces. Molecules
Partial pressure of oxygen 6 = — — RT
RT have lowest energy content.
From equation (1) (b) The behaviour of a real gas differs from the
1 behaviour of an ideal gas because of
Partial pressure of oxygen = — = 0.167 atm
6 • the existence of attractive forces between
the gaseous molecules and
For nitrogen dioxide • the volume occupied by the gas molecules.
Volume of NO2 after mixing = 6 dm3 At high pressures, the volume is decreased.
Partial pressure of nitrogen dioxide 6 The volume occupied by the molecules and
From equation (2) the attractive forces cannot be ignored. Hence
2
=— — RT real gases do not obey the ideal gas equation,
RT pV = nRT.
2 (c) Total pressure = 0.992 atm
Partial pressure of nitrogen dioxide = —
6 0.992 = Phydrogen + Pwater vapour
= 0.33 atm Phydrogen = 0.992 – 0.0313
= 0.961
Essay Question Volume = 45.5 cm3
1. (a) Kinetic theory: all matter is composed of tiny = 0.0455 dm3
particles in constant motion. pV = nRT
The essential distinction between the gaseous, 0.961 0.0455
n=— — ——— ———— — ———
liquid and solid states is the energy content 0.0821 298
of the molecules. An increase in temperature = 1.79 10–3 mol

3 The Liquid and Solid States
Objective Questions
1. The phase diagram for iodine is shown below.
C
16
15
14
pressure (kPa)
B
13
12
O
11
A
temperature (°C)
100 110 120 130 140
Which of the following statements is true?

A The line OC represents the effect of pressure on the melting point of iodine.
B Point C is the critical temperature.
C At point B, solid iodine and liquid iodine exist in equilibrium.
D Iodine sublimes when heated from room temperature to 120 °C at a constant pressure of 14 kPa.
2. A “permanent” gas is a gas that cannot be liquefied at 25 °C. A “non-permanent gas” is a gas that
can be liquefied at 25 °C. Which of the following gas is a permanent gas?
Substance Critical temperature (K) Critical pressure (atm)
A Methane 191 46
B Hydrogen chloride 324 82
C Sulphur dioxide 431 78
D Water 647 218
3. Which of the following does not exhibit allotropy?

A Chlorine C Phosphorus
B Ozone D Carbon
4. Diamond and graphite
A have the same bond length.
B have delocalised electrons in their lattice structure.
C produce carbon dioxide and water on combustion.
D contain covalent bonds between carbon atoms.
A B C D
5. When a few crystals of ice are added to supercooled water at –5 °C,

1 more ice is precipitated. 3 the temperature of water increases.
2 the vapour pressure increases.
6. Dry ice is used as refrigerant in the food industry because
1 its melting point is well below 0 °C.
2 it is non-toxic and non-carcinogenic.
3 it does not melt to form a liquid at room conditions.

7. Which of the following statements is/are true?
1 The combustion of fullerene in excess oxygen produces carbon dioxide only.
2 Fullerene and graphite have similar bonding and structure.
3 Fullerene is a macromolecule with thousands of carbon atoms.
8. The crystal structure of an iodine crystal is shown below.
What conclusion(s) can be made about the iodine crystal?

1 The iodine crystal has a face-centred cubic lattice.
1
2 Each unit cell has — I2 molecule at each corner.
8
1
3 Each unit cell has — I2 molecule at each face.
2
Structured Question
1. The phase diagram for water is shown below.
C
P (N m–2)
612
O
D
0.0076
(a) Name the points O and A.

(b) Name the phases in equilibrium
(i) at the point O, (ii) along OA, (iii) within AOC.
(c) What is the significance of
(i) the point A, (ii) the point D.
(d) Explain why the line OC slopes to the left.
(e) Explain what happens if ice at point X is gently heated, keeping the pressure constant.
Essay Question
1. (a) (i) Define freezing point.
(ii) Explain freezing using simple kinetic molecular theory.
(b) Describe the structure of fullerene.

ANSWER
CHAPTER 3 The Liquid and Solid States Hence, increase in pressure favours the
formation of water.
Objective Questions (e)
1. A When solid iodine at room temperature is pressure
heated to 120 °C at a constant pressure of 14
kPa, it changes from solid to liquid.
2. A A gas can be liquefied only at temperatures (I) (II)
below its critical temperature. For methane, its X
critical temperature is 191 K (–82 °C).

3. A
4. D Diamond and graphite contain carbon atoms
only. Therefore, the combustion of diamond temperature
and graphite gives carbon dioxide only.
5. D A supercooled liquid is metastable. The At condition X – water exists in the solid
presence of ice-crystals or even dust particles state (in the form of ice).
will cause ice-crystals to be precipitated. This At condition (I) – ice melts. Equilibrium
process is called seeding. (1 correct) exists between ice and water.
The vapour pressure and temperature increase as Between (I) and (II) – only water is present.
more ice-crystals are formed. (2 and 3 correct). At (II) – water evaporates. Equilibrium exists
6. D (1, 2, 3 correct) between water and water vapour.
7. A Fullerene is an allotrope of carbon. (1 correct) At temperatures above (II), only water vapour
8. D Each of the six faces has I2 molecules at the is present.
centre. (1correct)
Each I2 molecule at the corner of the unit cell Essay Question
is shared between eight unit cells. (2 correct)
1. (a) (i) The freezing point is the temperature
Each I2 molecule on the face of the unit cell is
at which a solid and a liquid exist in
shared between two unit cells. (3 correct)
equilibrium.
(ii) When the temperature of a liquid is
Structured Question
lowered,
1. (a) O : triple point • the kinetic energy of the particles
A : critical point decreases,
(b) (i) Solid, liquid and vapour • the motion of particles in the liquid is
(ii) Liquid and vapour slowed down.
(iii) Liquid At the freezing point, the attractive
(c) (i) Point A corresponds to the critical forces can hold the particles together
temperature and pressure of the substance. in a fixed position
At higher temperatures and pressures and the liquid freezes (change from
beyond this point, the liquid phase and liquid state to solid state).
vapour phase are indistinguishable. (b) Fullerenes: carbon allotropes, cage-like
(ii) The H2O(s) H2O(l) system at point hollow carbon molecules whose atoms are
D is metastable. bonded into structures having hexagonal and
(d) OC shows the effect of increasing pressure on the pentagonal faces.
melting point of ice. The line OC slopes towards Carbon atom uses sp2 hybridised orbitals to
the left because there is a decrease in volume form C – C bonds.
when ice (solid) changes into water (liquid). Hence, fullerenes contain π electrons.

4 The Electronic Structure of Atoms
Objective Questions
1. The figure below shows the lines in the Lyman series of the hydrogen spectrum.
The line M is caused by the transition of electrons

A from n = 3 to n = 1
B from n = 6 to n = 1
C from n = 4 to n = 1
D from n = 3 to n = 2
2. The electron configuration of a species which is isoelectronic with H2O is

A Li+ C N3–
2–
B S D Cl–
3. Which of the following elements have all the electrons in the p valence shell orbitals unpaired?
A Nitrogen
B Oxygen
C Sulphur
D Fluorine
4. An element forms a stable ion of charge +2. Which of the following electronic configuration
represents this element?
A 1s22s22p4
B 1s22s22p63s23p63d14s2
C 1s22s22p63s23p2
D 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s2
5. In the emission spectrum of hydrogen, how many lines are formed due to electron transitions
involving energy levels n = 1 and n = 6?
A 5 C 10
B 6 D 15
Structured Question
1. (a) Draw the non-directional orbital which are found in an atom with the proton number 6.
(b) Write the electronic configuration for the following:
(i) Fe in FeSO4
(ii) Mn in MnO2
(c) Write the valence electronic configuration of S in SF6 by using the box diagram and arrows
to repesent the electrons.
Essay Question
1. (a) The frequencies of the first six lines in the Lyman series (1014 Hz) are:
24.7, 29.3, 30.9, 31.6, 32.0 and 32.2. Sketch a labelled energy level diagram to show the
electron transitions responsible for forming the lines. By using the above frequencies, draw
a suitable line graph that will enable you to calculate the ionisation energy of hydrogen.
(b) By using an energy level diagram of orbitals, show the electronic configuration of Fe in
Fe2O3. Explain why it is difficult to find Fe(IV) compounds in nature.

ANSWER
CHAPTER 4 The Electronic Structure of Essay Question

Atoms 1. (a)
1. C The Lyman line series are formed when n=7
n=6
electrons return to the lowest energy level n=5
n = 1. M is the third line. Therefore it involves
energy (kJ mol–1)

n=4
electron transition from n = 4 to n = 1.
n=3
2. C The total number of electrons in H2O
= 2(1) + 8 = 10
n=2
Nitrogen has 7 electrons and it receives 3 more
electrons to form N3–. Therefore there are 10
electrons in N3–. n=1
3. A The valence shell of nitrogen has the electronic
24.7 29.3 30.9 31.6 32 32.2
configuration 2s22p3. Therefore each of the three
frequency (X 1014 Hz)
2p orbitals have a single unpaired electron.
f (x1014 Hz) 24.7 29.3 30.9 31.6 32.0 32.2
∆f 4.6 1.6 0.7 0.4 0.2 –
2s 2p
4. D The element must be from Period 4, Group 12

as shown by the electronic configuration. It is 4
zinc. Zinc only has a +2 charge.
5. D Total number of lines = 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15 3
2
Structured Question
1. (a) Carbon has proton number 6. Electronic 1
configuration of carbon is 1s22s22p2. The non- 33.1
directional orbitals are 1s and 2s. f (x1014 Hz)
z z
y y From the graph above, the frequency of the
convergence limit is 33.1 1014 Hz.
∆E = hfNA
x x = 6.63 10–34 33.1 1014 6.02 1023
= 1321.1 103 J/mol–1
= 1321.1 103 /1000 kJ mol–1
= 1.32 103 kJ mol–1
1s 2s (b) Fe in Fe2O3 has a charge of +3. The electronic
(b) (i) Fe in FeSO4 has +2 charge. The configuration of Fe in Fe2O3 is
electronic configuration of Fe2+ is
1s22s22p63s23p63d 6.
3d 5
(ii) Mn in MnO2 has + 4 charge. The
3p 6
electronic configuration of Mn4+ is
3s 2
1s22s22p63s23p63d 3.
(c) S has electronic configuration 1s22s22p63s23p 4.
energy
In SF6, the 3s and 3p electrons are excited

to the empty 3d orbitals. Hence there are six 2s 2
2p 6
unpaired electrons which will share electrons
with an electron of each of the six fluorine
1s 2
atoms. The valence electronic configuration
of S in SF6 is:
To form iron(IV), the electron has to be
removed from the Fe3+ ion.
Fe3+ → Fe4+ + e–
3s 3p
Fe3+ has the electronic configuration 1s22s22p6
3s23p63d 5. It is stable because it has half-
filled 3d orbitals. So it is difficult to remove
3d an electron from the stable Fe3+ ion.

5 The Periodic Table
Objective Questions
1. A metal X has only one oxidation state in all its compounds. Atom X is most likely to have the
electronic configuration of
A 1s2 2s2 2p3 C 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
2 2 5
B 1s 2s 2p D 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1
2. Beryllium (Be), carbon (C), fluorine (F) and lithium (Li) are Period 2 elements. Which element
has the lowest melting point and which element has the highest melting point?
Lowest melting point Highest melting point

A Be C
B Be Li
C F C
D F Li
3. In which of the following pairs is the atomic size of the first atom larger than the second atom?
A Na, Mg C Li, Na
B Al, Mg D F, Cl
4. Which of the following pairs of elements will form a compound with the highest ionic
character?
A Cs and F C Ba and F
B Li and I D Ba and I
5. The successive energies (in kJ mol–1) of an element, X, are shown below.

1020 (1st), 2150, 3400, 4650, 7080, 27 300, 32 100
This element is expected to form an ion with the formula
A X 2+ C X 2–
3+
B X D X 3–
6. Which of the following pairs of elements has giant structures?

A Carbon and phosphorus
B Boron and silicon
C Silicon and sulphur
D Boron and phosphorus
A B C D
7. Which of the following properties increases on going across Period 3 (sodium to chlorine)?
1 Atomic size 3 First ionisation energy
2 Electronegativity
8. On descending from beryllium to barium in Group 2 of the Periodic Table,

1 the first ionisation energy decreases.
2 the metallic character increases.
3 the metallic radius increases.

9. Which of the following graphs correctly represent(s) the variation of electronegativity against
proton number?
1 2 3 C
electronegativity
electronegativity
electronegativity
C
N
B
Li O
Be Na
K F
Li
0 3 4 5 6 0 5 10 15 20 0 4 5 6 7
proton number proton number proton number
1. The physical properties of four elements, P, Q, X and Y are shown below.
Element P Q X Y
Melting point (°C) 937 650 1535 –7.2
First ionisation energy 762 736 762 1140
(kJ mol–1)
Electrical conductivity Poor Good Good Non-conductor
(25 °C)
(a) Which element is a

(i) Group 2 element?
(ii) Group 15 element?
(iii) Group 17 element?
(iv) d-block element?
Give a reason for your choice.
(b) Identify the s and p elements from the list.
2. (a) The electronic configuration of an ion, X2+, is shown below.

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6
(i) What is the proton number of element X?
(ii) Write the electronic configuration of element X.
(iii) Classify element X as s-, p-, d- or f-block element.
(b) (i) Using aluminium as an example, explain what is meant by first ionisation energy.
(ii) State the factors that influence ionisation energy.
(c) Explain the trend in the first ionisation energy on going down Group 1 elements.
Essay Question
1. (a) Explain the term first ionisation energy using chlorine as an example.
(b) Explain the factors that influence the ionisation energy of an atom.
(c) Explain the variation of first ionisation energy for the first row d-block elements.

ANSWER
CHAPTER 5 The Periodic Table X is a d-block element because it has a

very high melting point.
Objective Questions (b) s-block element: Element Q
p-block elements: Elements P and Y
1. C Group 1 and Group 2 metals have only one 2. (a) (i) 38
oxidation state. There are 36 electrons in X2+ ion. Thus
2. C Fluorine: Simple covalent molecule there are 38 electrons in element X.
(lowest melting point) (ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 5s2
Carbon: Giant covalent molecule (iii) X is a s-block element.
(highest melting point) (b) (i) The first ionisation energy is the
3. A Atomic size decreases across Periods 2 and 3. energy required to remove one mole of
Atomic size increases down a group. electrons from one mole of atoms in the
4. A Cs is the most electropositive, compared to Li gaseous state.
and Ba. F is the most electronegative, compared Al(g) → Al+(g) + e–;
to I. ∆H = First ionisation energy of
Hence, the ionic compound, CsF has the highest aluminium
ionic character. (ii) The nuclear charge, that is, the number
5. D of protons in the nucleus.
1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th The screening effect, that is, the effect
1020 2150 3400 4650 7080 27 300 32 100 of shielding of the outermost electrons
1130 1250 1250 2430 20 220 4800 from the attraction of the nucleus by the
↑ repelling effect of the electrons in the
It is Group 15 element.
inner shells.
Since the 1st I.E. is very high, it is expected
(c) On going down Group 1 elements, the first
to be a non-metal. A Group 15 non-metal will
ionisation energy decreases. This is because
tend to form the X3– ion.
of
6. B The elements, phosphorus and sulphur have
• the increase in atomic radius. The further
simple covalent structures.
the electron is from the nucleus, the weaker
7. C
is the force of attraction of the nucleus
8. D
on the electron and the more easily the
9. B Electronegativity increases across periods but
electron can be removed.
decreases down a group.
• the increase in the shielding effect. This
causes the electron to be held less strongly
by the nucleus.
1. (a) (i) Q
Reason: Q is a Group 2 element because Essay Question
Group 2 elements are metals, with low
1. (a) The first ionisation energy is the minimum
first ionisation energy, good conductor
energy required to remove one mole of electrons
in the solid state and relatively low
from one mole of atoms in the gaseous state.
melting point.
(ii) P Cl(g) → Cl+(g) + e–
Reason: P is a metalloid (poor (b) Ionisation energy is influenced by the atomic
conductivity and fairly high melting size, the nuclear charge and the screening effect.
point). The larger the atomic size, the lower the
P is Group 15 element. On going down ionisation energy.
Group 15, the metallic character changes The higher the nuclear charge, the higher the
from non-metals, to metalloid to metals. ionisation energy.
(iii) Y The higher the screening effect, the lower the
Reason: Y is a non-metal (high first ionisation energy.
ionisation energy and non-conductor). (c) The first ionisation energy remains fairly
Y is a Group 17 element such as chlorine, constant.
which has a very low melting point. The slight increase in ionisation energy is due
(iv) X to the fact that the effect of increased nuclear
X is a metal (low first ionisation energy, charge is roughly cancelled by the increasing
good conductor in the solid state). shielding effect of the inner 3d electrons.

6 Chemical Bonding
Objective Questions
1. The diagram shows the effect of a charged rod on a liquid flowing out a burette.
polar liquid
charged rod (positive or negative)
jet of deflected liquid
Which of the following liquids will be deflected by the charged rod?

A Br2 C SiCl4
B BCl3 D PCl3
2. The formula of sodium peroxide is Na2O2. Which of the ‘dot-and-cross’ diagrams represents the
structure of the peroxide ion?
[Key: o = electron from first oxygen atom, x = electron from second oxygen atom,
• = electron from sodium atom]
A C
B D
3. Which of the following pairs contains both molecules that have linear shape?
A CS2 and XeF2
B SCl2 and SO2
C CS2 and SCl2
D XeF2 and SO2
4. Which of the following molecules has six bonding electrons?

A NF3 C C2H4
B CO2 D H2O
5. Chloromethane forms a carbonium ion R+ when it reacts with aluminium chloride as shown in
the chemical equation below.
CH3Cl + AlCl3 → CH3+ + AlCl4–
This reaction occurs because
A AlCl3 is a simple covalent molecule.
B the aluminium atom in AlCl3 does not have eight electrons in the valence shell.
C the chlorine atom in AlCl3 does not have eight electrons in the valence shell.
D the chlorine atom in CH3Cl has an empty p orbital.

A B C D
6. Which of the following compounds contain(s) ionic bonds?

1 Sodium chloride, NaCl
2 Aluminium chloride, AlCl3
3 Silicon(IV) chloride, SiCl4
7. Iron forms a complex with the formula, [Fe(CN)6]Cl3. This complex contains
1 electrovalent bond
2 covalent bond
3 coordinate bond
8. Which of the following molecules contain(s) both sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds?
1 NH3
2 CO2
3 C2H4
9. Tetraethyllead has the formula (C2H5)4Pb. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1 It is soluble in water.
2 It is a covalent compound.
3 It has a tetrahedral shape.
1. (a) Show the ‘dot-and-cross’ structures for the following species:
(i) CO
(ii) IF3
(iii) H3O+
(b) Describe and explain the molecular shape of (i) IF3 and (ii) H3O+?
(c) The carbonyl group, C = O, contains a σ-bond and a π-bond. With the help of a diagram,
explain the terms (i) σ-bond and (ii) π-bond.
2. Consider the elements and compounds given below:

potassium, silicon, helium, trichloromethane, sodium bromide
Select from this list, an element or a compound that shows the following properties:
(a) A monatomic gas
(b) A giant molecule that consists of atoms covalently bonded
(c) A polyatomic molecule with low boiling point
(d) A solid that conducts electricity in molten state but not in solid state
(e) A substance that contains delocalised electrons
Essay Question
1. (a) The structure of propanoic acid is shown below.
OH
⏐
a
CH3 – bCH2 – cC = O
Describe the hybridised orbitals used by the carbon atoms marked a, b and c to form
covalent bonds.
(b) Explain the effect of temperature on the electrical conductivity of (i) iron, (ii) silicon.

ANSWER
CHAPTER 6 Chemical Bonding (ii)

x x x x
x x
x F x I x F x
Objective Questions x x x x x
x x
x F x
1. D Br2 (linear), BCl3 (trigonal planar) and SiCl4 x x
(tetrahedral) have symmetrical shapes. PCl3
(pyramidal shape) has resultant dipole. (iii) +
2. D In the peroxide ion, each oxygen atom carries H xO H

a negative charge, –O – O–. x
Hence each oxygen atom receives one electron H

from each sodium atom.
3. A x x x x
(b) (i) F
x x x x
x S C S x
x x F I
Linear shape
F
The XeF2 molecule
Xe : 8e– (Group 18) T – shaped
2F : 2e–
Explanation: IF3 is T – shape because
Total : 10e– the iodine atom is surrounded by three
The geometry of the electron-pairs and the bond pairs of electrons and two lone
shape of the molecule is shown below: pairs of electrons.
(ii)
+
O
H H H
pyramidal structure
4. A x x x x Explanation: H3O+ has a pyramidal

x x structure because the oxygen atom
x F xN x F x
x x x x x is surrounded by three bond pairs
F of electrons and one lone pair of
5. B The central Al atom in AlCl3 is surrounded electrons.
by six electrons. So, it can accept 2 electrons (c) (i) A σ-bond is a covalent bond formed
from Cl– ion to complete the octet. due to the head-on overlapping of two
atomic orbitals.
• •
+
+
+
+
+
+
• • or
++
++
++
++
+
• •
+
+
+
+
+
+
(ii) A π-bond is a covalent bond formed

by the sideways overlapping of atomic
orbitals.
6. A AlCl3 and SiCl4 are covalent compounds.
7. D Electrovalent bond between [Fe(CN)6l3+ and
Cl– ions.
Covalent bond between C and N in CN– ion.
Coordinate bond between Fe3+ and CN– ion.
8. C σ- and π-bonds are found in a double bond.
O = C = O and CH2 = CH2 contain double bonds.
9. C (C2H5)4Pb is a covalent compound. The C – H
and C – Pb bonds are covalent bonds.
Covalent compounds are insoluble in water. 2. (a) Helium
(b) Silicon
Structured Questions (c) Trichloromethane
(d) Sodium bromide
1. (a) (i) x
C x O
x x (e) Potassium

Essay Question The sp2 hybrid orbitals are formed when the
a one 2s orbital combines with two 2p orbitals.
1. (a) CH3 – sp3 hybrid orbitals
b (b) (i) Iron is a metal. Electrical conductivity
CH2 – sp3 hybrid orbitals.
decreases with increase in temperature.
Carbon atom in the excited state:
Reason: Vibration of ions in the metal
2s2 2s1 2px1 2py1 2pz1 lattice impede the free movement of
The sp3 hybrid orbitals are formed when the electrons in the conduction band.
one 2s orbital combines with three 2p orbitals. (ii) Silicon is a metalloid. Electrical
conductivity increases with increase in
H
temperature.
⏐
c Reason: More electrons in the valence
C = O – sp2 hybrid orbitals
band gain thermal energy and are able
Carbon atom in the excited state: to move into the conduction band.
2s2 2s1 2px1 2py1 2pz1.

7 Intermolecular Forces of Attraction
Objective Questions
1. The compound that has the highest boiling point is
A CH3CH2CH2OH C CH3 – O – CH3
B (CH3)2CHOH D CH3CH2CH2Cl
2. Which of the following organic liquids dissolves most readily in water?

A CCl4 C CH3(CH2)4COOH
B CH3CH2CH2OH D C6H5OH
3. What is the intermolecular bonding that is present in dry ice (solid carbon dioxide)?
A Ionic bond
B Covalent bond
C Van der Waals forces
D Hydrogen bond
4. The structure of an amino acid, H2NCH2COOH is shown below. Which of the hydrogen atoms,
labelled as I, II or III can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
H H O
⏐ ⏐
H– N–C–C–O–H
(I) ⏐ (III)
H
(II)
A I only C I and II only
B II only D I and III only
A B C D
5. Which of the following pairs of liquids are miscible?

1 Water with methanol
2 Benzene (C6H6) with methylbenzene (C6H5CH3)
3 Benzene with water
6 Hydrogen bonding exists in

1 liquid ammonia 3 liquid methane
2 liquid hydrogen chloride
7. Which of the following can be explained in terms of hydrogen bonding?

1 The density of ice is less than water.
2 NH3 has a higher boiling point than PH3.
3 HI has a higher boiling point than HCl.
8. Which of the following organic compounds are polar molecules?

1 Chloromethane, CH3Cl
2 Trichloromethane, CHCl3
3 Tetrachloromethane, CCl4

1. The boiling points of some organic compounds are shown below.
Compound I II III IV
Structural formula CH3(CH2)3CH3 CH3(CH2)4CH3 CH3 CH3
⏐ ⏐
CH3 – C – CH3 CH3 – C – CH3
⏐ ⏐
CH3 OH
Boiling point (oC) 36.3 68.7 9.5 82.5
Explain why the boiling point of

(a) compound II is higher than compound I.
(b) compound I is higher than compound III.
(c) compound IV is higher than compound II.
2. Water, ethanol, CH3CH2OH and 1-propanol, CH3CH2CH2OH are compounds containing the
–OH group and can form intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
(a) Which of these compounds forms the strongest hydrogen bonds.
(b) Explain your choice in (a).
Essay Question
1. (a) Which of the molecules, Br2 or ICl, is expected to have a higher boiling point? Explain your
answer.
(b) The standard enthalpy of vaporisation, ∆Hvap for four compounds are shown below.
Compound H2Se H2S H2O RbCl
–1
∆Hvap (kJ mol ) 19.9 18.7 41.1 154
Explain the trend of the standard enthalpy of vaporisation of these four compounds in terms
of chemical bonding and intermolecular forces.

ANSWER
CHAPTER 7 Intermolecular Forces of smaller molecular size and therefore weaker

Attraction van der Waals forces.
(c) Compound IV contains the –OH group.
Objective Questions Hence, intermolecular hydrogen bonding is
present in compound IV.
1. A CH3CH2CH2OH is a straight chain alcohol
2. (a) Water molecules
with hydrogen bonding.
(b) Water has the highest boiling point compared
2. B The –OH group is hydrophilic and causes organic
to ethanol and 1-propanol. Hence it has the
compounds to be soluble in water through
strongest hydrogen bond.
hydrogen bonding. The hydrocarbon chain is
Water molecules do not contain the alkyl
hydrophobic which decreases the solubility
groups, whereas ethanol and 1-propanol
of organic compounds in water. The organic
contains the alkyl groups. The van der Waals
compound becomes less soluble as the length
forces of attraction between ethanol molecules
of the carbon chain increases.
or between 1-propanol molecules weakens
3. C The bond within CO2 is covalent bond. The bond
between CO2 molecules is van der Waals forces. the hydrogen bonds in these molecules.
4. D A hydrogen atom attached to a carbon atom
cannot form hydrogen bond. Essay Question
5. B Water and methanol molecules have the 1. (a) Mr of Br2 = 160
same type of intermolecular forces, hydrogen Mr of ICl = 162.5
bonding. Hence they are miscible. They have similar relative molecular mass.
Benzene and methylbenzene molecules have But Br2 is non-polar and ICl is polar and has
the same type of intermolecular forces, van a dipole moment. Hence, ICl should have a
der Waals forces. Hence they are miscible. higher boiling point.
Benzene and water molecules have different (b) RbCl has the highest ∆Hvap because it is an
types of intermolecular forces. Hence they are ionic compound. Ionic bond is a very strong
immiscible. bond.
6. A H2Se, H2S and H2O are simple covalent
7. B Hydrogen bonds do not exist in HI and HCl. molecules. The intermolecular forces are
8. B CCl4 has symmetrical shape. It has polar bonds much weaker than ionic bond. Hence, the
but the molecule is non-polar. values of ∆Hvap are much smaller.
The molecular size of H2Se > H2S. Hence the
Structured Questions van der Waals forces in H2Se are stronger.
1. (a) Compounds I and II are simple covalent Hence,
molecules. The van der Waals forces in H2Se has a higher value of ∆Hvap.
compound II is stronger because it has a Hydrogen bonds exist between water
larger molecular size. molecules. Hydrogen bonds are stronger than
(b) Compounds I and III are isomers. Compound van der Waals forces. Hence, H2O has a much
III is a branched isomer. Hence it has a higher value of ∆Hvap than H2Se or H2S.

8 Kinetics
Objective Questions
1. The rate equation for a reaction is given as follows
Rate = k [A]2 [B]
Which of the following is the unit of the rate constant, k?
A s–1 C mol–1 dm3 s–1
B mol dm3 s–1 D mol–2 dm6 s–1
2. The table below shows the result of an experiment for the reaction at 25 °C.
X(aq) + Y(aq) → Z(aq)
No. of experiment [X] [Y] Initial rate of reaction

1 x y r
2 2x y 8r
3 2x 3y 24r
What is the rate equation for the reaction?

A Rate = k [X] [Y] C Rate = k [X]3 [Y]
2
B Rate = k [X] [Y] D Rate = k [X]3 [Y]2
3. The mechanism of the reaction between diazonium ions with iodide ions is given below.
slow
C6H5N2+ ⎯⎯→ C6H5+ + N2
fast
C6H5+ + I– ⎯⎯→ C6H5 – I
Which of the following is true of the reaction between diazonium ions with iodide ions?
A The unit of the rate constant is time–1.
B The reaction is first order with respect to diazonium ions and iodide ions.
C The rate is doubled when the concentration of iodide ions is doubled.
D The half-life of the reaction is inversely proportional to the initial concentration of
diazonium ions.
4. Iodine reacts with propanone in the presence of dilute acids as represented by the following
equation: I2 + CH3COCH3 → HI + ICH2COCH3
The graph of the concentration of iodine in the reaction mixture measured at regular time
intervals is given as follows
[I2]
time
Based on the graph, which of the following statements is true of the reaction above?
A The half-life of the reaction is a constant.
B The rate of reaction is inversely proportional to [I2].
C The rate-determining step in the reaction mechanism is independent of I2.
D The reaction is first order with respect to I2.

A B C D
5. Which of the following statements is true about the rate constant, k in the equation of a reaction?
1 k will increase when the temperature is increased.
2 k will increase when the activation energy is increased.
3 k will increase when the concentration of the reactants is increased.
6. Which of the following statement is true about a catalysed reaction?

1 A catalyst provides a different mechanism for the reaction.
2 A catalyst changes the order of the reaction in the rate equation.
3 A catalyst reaction speeds up the forward reaction more than the backward reaction.
1. The table below shows the results of an investigation of the rate of reaction between hydroxide
ion, OH– and phosphinate ion, PH2O2– at 80 °C. The overall reaction is
PH2O2–(aq) + OH–(aq) → PHO32–(aq) + H2(g)
No of Initial concentration Initial rate for the production of

experiment –
[PH2O ] (mol dm–3) [OH–] (mol dm–3) hydrogen gas (dm3 min–1)
2
1 0.1 6.0 14.4

2 0.3 6.0 43.2
3 0.6 1.0 2.4
4 0.6 2.0 9.6
(a) What is the order of reaction with respect to phosphinate ion?

(b) What is the order of reaction with respect to hydroxide ion?
(c) What is the overall order of reaction?
(d) Write down the rate equation for the reaction above.
(e) Calculate the value of the rate constant at 80 °C.
(f) Predict the rate of production of hydrogen gas when the initial rate of phosphinate ions and
hydroxide ions are 0.6 mol dm–3 and 3.0 mol dm–3 respectively.
2. Trichloromethane, CHCl3 reacts with sodium hydroxide solution as represented by the following
equation: 2CHCl3 + 7OH– → CO + HCOO– + 6Cl– + 4H2O
The reaction is first order with respect to each reactant.
(a) Write the rate equation for the reaction between trichloromethane and sodium hydroxide.
(b) Determine the rate of production of chloride ions at 28 °C when the rate of loss of
trichloromethane is 2.0 10–5 mol s–1.
(c) If the rate of reaction is r when the concentrations of both trichloromethane and sodium
hydroxide are both 2.0 mol dm–3, what is the rate of reaction in terms of r when half of the
hydroxide ion is reacted?
(d) Sketch a graph of the rate of reaction against the concentration of trichloromethane if
sodium hydroxide is in excess such that the hydroxide ion concentration remains practically
constant in the reaction mixture.

Essay Question
1. (a) Explain what is meant by the rate-determining step of a reaction mechanism.
(b) Nitrogen monoxide reacts with fluorine to produce the compound nitrosyl fluoride, NOF as
represented the equation
2NO(g) + F2(g) → 2NOF(g)
It is found the reaction is first order with respect to both nitrogen monoxide and fluorine.
Suggest a two-step mechanism for the reaction if the free radical fluorine, F is identified as
an intermediate for the reaction.
Justify your answer in terms of reaction kinetics.
(c) Describe and explain how the initial rate of reaction in (b) is affected by
(i) an increase in temperature,
(ii) an increase of 100 % of partial pressure of each reactant.

ANSWER
CHAPTER 8 Kinetics 3 = 3n
n=1
Objective Questions ∴ The reaction is first order with respect to
phosphinate ion.
unit of rate (b) Rate = k[PH2O2–]n[OH–]m
1. D Unit of k = ———— ——— —— ——— —
—
[unit of reactant]3 By substituting the values of rate, [PH2O2–]
mol dm–3 s–1 and [OH–] from the results of experiments 3
=—
——— ———
— — — and 4:
(mol dm–3)3
= mol–2 dm6 s–1 9.6 k[0.6]n[2.0]m
— —= — —— ————— ——
2.4 k[0.6]n[1.0]m
Experiment 2 8r k (2x)n(y)m 4 = 2m
2. C —
———— ——————= —
—= ——— ——— ——
Experiment 1 r k (x)n (y)m m= 2
8 = 2n ∴ The reaction is second order with respect
n = 3 to hydroxide ion.
(c) The overall order of reaction is third order.
Experiment 3 24r k (2x)n(3y)m (d) The rate equation is rate = k[PH2O2–] [OH–]2
—
———— ——————= —
— —= —
— ———— —— —
Experiment 2 8r k (2x)n(y)m (e) By substituting the values of rate, [PH2O2–]
3 = 3m and [OH–] from the results of experiment 1
m = 1 in the rate equation
Rate = k [X]3 [Y]1 14.4 = k[0.1]1 [6.0]2
3. A Since the first step is the slowest step, it is the 14.4 dm3 min–1
rate-determining step. Hence the rate is first k =— — ——— ——— —— ——
—— ———
(0.1 36) mol3 dm–9
order with respect to diazonium ions only (B
= 4 mol–3 dm12 min–1
and C incorrect). The unit of the rate constant
(f) By substituting the values of k, [PH2O2–] and
of a first order reaction is time–1 (A correct).
[OH–] into the rate equation:
The half-life of a first order reaction is a
Rate = 4 0.6 (3.0)2
constant (D incorrect).
= 21.6 dm3 min–1
4. C The graph of [I2] against time is a straight
2. (a) The rate equation is: Rate = k[CHCl3] [OH–]
line indicating that the gradient (which is the
rate of reaction) is constant. Hence the rate is 1 d[CHCl3] 1 d[Cl–]
(b) Rate = — ————— —
—= — —
— —— —
independent of [I2]. The rate is zero order with 2 dt 6 dt
respect to I2. (C correct; A, B and D incorrect).
5. A k will increase when the temperature is d[Cl–]
—— ——— = 3 2.0 10–5 mol s–1
increased (1 correct) and when the activation dt
energy is decreased (2 incorrect) according to = 6.0 10–5 mol s–1
the Arrhenius equation: (c) When half of the hydroxide ion is reacted,
k = A e–Ea/ RT [OH–]remaining = 2.0 ½ = 1.0 mol dm–3
k is the proportional constant in the rate equation According to the equation, 7 mol of OH– ions
and is independent of the concentration of the react with 2 mol of CHCl3.
reactants (3 incorrect). When 1.0 mol of OH– ions has reacted,
6. B A catalyst will provide an alternate mechanism 2
number of moles of CHCl3 reacted = — 1.0
which involves a lower activation energy 7
(1 correct). The rate-determining step in the
reaction mechanism is different, hence the 2
12
[CHCl3]remaining = 2.0 – — 1.0 = ——
7 7
order of reaction will be different (2 correct).
A catalyst speeds up the forward reaction and By substituting the values of r, [CHCl3] and
the backward reaction by the same amount (3 [OH–] into the rate equation:
incorrect). Rate = k [CHCl3] [OH–]
and assuming the rate of reaction when half
Structured Questions of the hydroxide ion is reacted is r’
1. (a) Rate = k[PH2O2–]n[OH–]m r’ k (12/7) (1.0)
—=—— —— ——— ——— —
By substituting the values of rate, [PH2O2–] r k (2.0) (2.0)
and [OH–] from the results of experiments 1
and 2: 3r
r’ = —
—
7
43.2 k[0.3]n[6.0]m (d) Graph of the rate of reaction against the
—
—— —= —
— ———— —— ——
14.4 k[0.1]n[6.0]m concentration of trichloromethane.

rate of reaction The rate of reaction increases when the
(mol dm-3 time-1)
rate constant, k is increased.
According to the Boltzman distribution
curve, the fraction of molecules having
a kinetic energy equal or greater than
the activation energy, Ea is very much
larger at the higher temperature.
Shaded area = fraction of molecules with E > Ea
[CHCI3] (mol dm-3) At higher temperature, T2, fraction of molecules with E > Ea increases
significantly
Essay Question
1. (a) The rate-determining step is the slowest
step of a reaction mechanism. The order of
reaction with respect to the reactant in the
rate equation is determined by the number of
moles of reactants in the slowest step.
(b) The two-step mechanism:
slow
NO + F2 ⎯→ NOF + F
fast
F + NO ⎯→ NOF Graph of fraction of molecules with a particular energy at
The slowest step of the mechanism involves two different temperatures
one mole of NO and one mole of F2. This is (ii) Partial pressure is directly proportional
consistent with the rate equation in which the to the number of moles of the reactant.
order of reaction is first order with respect An increase in 100% of partial pressure
to NO and also first order with respect to F2: of each reactant will result in a doubling
Rate = k [NO] [F2]. of the concentration of each reactant.
(c) (i) When temperature increases, the rate According to the rate equation: Rate =
constant, k increases as represented by k [NO] [F2]; when [NO] increases by 2
Arrhenius equation: times and [F2] also increases 2 times,
k = A e–Ea/RT the rate will increase by 4 times.

9 Chemical Equilibrium
Objective Questions
1. The graph below shows the yield of gas X at different temperatures and pressures.
Based on the graph only, what conclusion can be drawn?

A There is a decrease in volume when the forward reaction proceeds.
B The forward reaction is endothermic.
C The reaction rate increases in the presence of a catalyst.
D Pressure has no effect on the position of equilibrium.
2. A mixture of iron and steam is allowed to reach equilibrium at 800 K:

3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
The equilibrium pressures for hydrogen and steam are 3.5 kPa and 2.4 kPa respectively. The
equilibrium constant, Kp, for the reaction is
A 1.46
B 4.5
C 6.0
D 9.0
3. Hydrogen and carbon dioxide react as represented by the equation:

H2(g) + CO2(g) CO(g) + H2O(g)
When 4 mol of hydrogen and 0.9 mol of carbon dioxide were used for this reaction, 0.1 mol of
CO2 was found in the equilibrium mixture. Calculate Kc for the experiment.
A 0.4
B 0.8
C 2.0
D 2.4
4. Consider the following equilibrium:

2NO2(g) N2O4(g)
At 350 K and 7000 kPa pressure, an equilibrium mixture contains 48 % by volume of N2O4.
What is the value of Kp for the equilibrium?
A 2.54 10–3 (kPa)–1
B 2.54 10–4 (kPa)–1
C 3.92 102 kPa
D 3.92 103 kPa

5. 2.0 mol of sulphur dioxide was allowed to react with 1.0 mol of oxygen at 10 atm pressure and at
a fixed temperature. When equilibrium was achieved, 1.0 mol of sulphur dioxide was converted
to sulphur trioxide.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
Calculate Kp for the reaction.
A 0.5 atm–1
B 1.0 atm–1
C 3.0 atm–1
D 4.0 atm–1
A B C D
6. For the reaction:

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
the equilibrium constant, Kp, is 1.3 10–15 at 298 K and 5.5 10–2 at 2000 K. These data show that
1 the forward reaction is endothermic.
2 the value of Kp depends on the amount (in mol) of nitrogen used.
3 the value of Kp increases as the pressure exerted on the system increases.
7. For the reversible reaction,

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) ; ∆H = –198 kJ mol–1
the proportion of sulphur trioxide in the equilibrium mixture can be increased by
1 increasing the total pressure on the system.
2 increasing the temperature of the system.
3 using a catalyst.
1. In the Contact process for the production of sulphuric acid(VI), sulphur dioxide and oxygen are
converted into sulphur trioxide.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) ; ∆H = –198 kJ
(a) How would you expect the equilibrium position to vary with
(i) increasing temperature?
(ii) increasing pressure?
(iii) the presence of a catalyst?
(b) (i) What are the industrial conditions for this process?
(ii) Explain why these conditions are used.
2. The reaction as shown by the equation below represents the first step in the manufacture of
nitric(V) acid from ammonia.
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) ; ∆H = –909 kJ mol–1
(a) How would the yield of NO(g) be affected if
(i) the pressure is increased at constant temperature?
(ii) the temperature is increased at constant pressure?
(b) In the industrial process, a temperature of 900 °C is used. Based on your answer in (a)(ii),
suggest a reason for using this temperature.
(c) In the industrial process, the mixture of NH3(g) and O2(g) is allowed to pass through
platinum gauze.
(i) Suggest a reason why platinum is used in this reaction.
(ii) Give one advantage of using platinum in the form of platinum gauze.

Essay Question
1. (a) What is the effect of (i) temperature, (ii) pressure and (iii) catalyst on the equilibrium
constant for the reaction:
N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) ; ∆H° = +58 kJ mol–1
(b) At 25 °C, the equilibrium constant for the reaction,
CH3COOH(aq) + C2H5OH(aq) CH3COOC2H5(aq) + H2O(l)
is 4.0. Calculate the molar composition of the mixture at equilibrium at 25 °C starting from
(i) 1 mol of CH3COOH and 2 mol of C2H5OH,
(ii) 1 mol of CH3COOH, 1 mol of H2O and 2 mol of C2H5OH.
Comment on the results in terms of position of equilibrium.

ANSWER
CHAPTER 9 Chemical Equilibrium (b) (i) Temperature: 450 °C

Pressure: 1 or 2 atm
Objective Questions Catalyst: V2O5
(ii) Increase in pressure will increase the
1. A The graph shows that the yield is increased by yield of SO3 but the effect is small for
low temperatures and high pressures. this reaction. Hence, a pressure of 1 or
Hence, the forward reaction is exothermic and 2 atm is used to cut down the cost of
accompanied by a decrease in the number of maintaining high pressures.
molecules (that is, a decrease in volume). 2. (a) (i) The number of moles of products is more
pH 4
2. B Kp = — ——2
—
pH O
= (— 3.5
—
2.4

— )4 = 4.5
than the number of moles of the reactants.
Thus an increase in pressure will cause
2
the equilibrium position to shift to the left.
3. C Amount of CO2 reacted = 0.9 – 0.1 = 0.8 mol
That is, the yield of NO(g) will decrease.
Amount of CO/H2O formed = 0.8 mol
(ii) The reaction is an exothermic reaction.
Amount of H2 at equilibrium = 4 – 0.8
Thus, an increase in temperature will
= 3.2 mol
cause the equilibrium position to shift
H2(g) + CO2(g) CO(g) + H2O(g) to the left, that is, the yield of NO(g)
Initial 4 0.9 0 0 will decrease.
(mol) (b) If the temperature is lowered, the yield
Eqm 3.2 0.1 0.8 0.8 of NO(g) will increase. However, at low
(mol) temperatures, the rate of reaction is very
low. A temperature of 900 °C is used so that
0.8 0.8
Kc = ——— —
—— — = 2.0 a reasonable yield of NO(g) is obtained at a
3.2 0.1 relatively high rate of reaction.
4. B 2NO2(g) N2O4(g) (c) (i) Platinum is used as a catalyst in this
48 reaction to speed up the reaction.
pN O = —
— — 7000 = 3360 kPa (ii) Platinum gauze is used because it has
2 4 100
a larger surface area and this increases
100 – 48 the rate of catalytic reaction.
pNO = — —— ——
—— 7000 = 3640 kPa
2 100
pN O Essay Question
2 4 3360
Kp = — ——— —= — ———
(pNO )2 36402 1. (a) (i) In a reversible reaction, a change of
2
= 2.54 10–4 (kPa)–1 temperature will affect the rates of
5. A 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) both forward and reverse reactions,
Initally(mol) 2.0 1.0 0 but not necessarily to the same extent.
Equilibrium 2.0 – 1.0 1.0 – 0.5 1.0 Thus, equilibrium constant varies with
(mol) temperature.
Total number of moles at equilibrium The given reaction is an endothermic
= (2.0 – 1.0) + (1.0 – 0.5) + 1.0 = 2.5 reaction. For endothermic reaction,
1.0 the equilibrium constant increases as
pSO = — — — 10 = 4.0 atm
3 2.5 temperature increases.
(ii) A change in the total pressure on the
1.0
pSO = —
—— 10 = 4.0 atm system does not change the equilibrium
2 2.5 constant, even though the composition
0.5 of the equilibrium mixture is changed.
pO = — —— 10 = 2.0 atm
2 2.5 (iii) A catalyst increases the rates of both
(pSO )2 2
forward and reverse reactions to the
3 4.0 same extent.
Kp = — — —— ——— ——
—= — ——— —— —— = 0.5 atm–1
(pSO ) pO
2
4.0 2.0
2
Hence, the catalyst has no effect on the
2 2
6. A Kp increases as the temperature increases. equilibrium constant.
So, the forward reaction is endothermic. (b) (i) CH3COOH(aq) + C2H5OH(aq)
7. A Initial 1 2
(mol)
Structured Questions Eqm(mol) 1 – x 2–x
1. (a) (i) Equilibrium position shifts to the left CH3COOC2H5(aq) + H2O(l)
(ii) Equilibrium position shifts to the right Initial(mol) 0 0
(iii) No effect Eqm(mol) x x

x2 [CH3COOC2H5] [H2O]
4=— — ———— —— —— Kc = — — ———— ——— —— —
— ————— —
(1 – x)(2 – x) [CH3COOH] [C2H5OH]
x = 0.845 x(1 + x)
4 =— — ———— ——— —
Amount of CH3COOC2H5 = 0.845 mol (1 – x)(2 – x)
Amount of water = 0.845 mol x = 0.7427
Amount of CH3COOH = 1 – 0.845 Amount of CH3COOC2H5 = 0.743 mol
= 0.155 mol Amount of water = 1 + 0.743
Amount of alcohol = 2 – 0.845 = 1.743 mol
= 1.16 mol Amount of CH3COOH = 1 – 0.743
= 0.257 mol
(ii) CH3COOH(aq) + C2H5OH(aq)
Amount of C2H5OH = 2 – 0.743
Initial 1 2 = 1.26 mol
(mol) Comment: In the presence of H2O,
Eqm(mol) 1 – x 2–x equilibrium shifts to the left. Hence
CH3COOC2H5(aq) + H2O(l) amount of CH3COOC2H5 decreases
Initial(mol) 0 1 while the amounts of CH3COOH and
Eqm(mol) x 1+x C2H5OH increase.

10 Acid-base Equilibria and Buffer Solutions
Objective Questions
1. In the following reaction,
H2O(l) + NH3(g) NH4+(aq) + OH–(aq)
water acts as a
A Bronsted-Lowry acid
B Bronsted-Lowry base
C conjugate acid
D conjugate base
2. The acid dissociation constant of propanoic acid, CH3CH2COOH is 1.3 10–5 mol dm–3. What
is the concentration of H3O+ ions in 0.010 mol dm–3 propanoic acid?
1.3 10–5 2
A (— — —— —— — ) mol dm–3
—
102
1.3 10–5 ½
B (— — —— —— — ) mol dm–3
—
102
1.3 10–5
C (— — —— —— — ) mol dm–3
—
102
3 10–5 –2
D (— — —— —— — ) mol dm–3
—
102
3. When a monoprotic acid (in the conical flask) is titrated with a base, the pH changes abruptly
from 3 to 7 at the equivalence point. This shows that it is a
A strong acid-strong base titration
B strong acid-weak base titration
C weak acid-strong base titration
D weak acid-weak base titration
4. 25.0 cm3 of 1.0 mol dm–3 of ammonia solution is added to 25.0 cm3 of 1.0 mol dm–3 of
ammonium chloride solution. What is the pH of the mixture?
(Kb of ammonia is 1.75 10–5 mol dm–3)
A 3.5
B 6.4
C 9.2
D 12.0
A B C D
5. Name of indicator pH range of indicator

Congo red 3.0 – 5.0
Methyl yellow 2.9 – 4.0
Diphenol purple 7.0 – 9.0
Based on the information given above, we can infer that

1 Congo red is suitable for the titration of aqueous ammonia with ethanoic acid.
2 methyl yellow is suitable for the titration of aqueous ammonia with hydrochloric acid.
3 diphenol purple is suitable for the titration of aqueous sodium hydroxide with ethanoic acid.

6. In the following reaction,
8NH3 + 3Cl2 → N2 + 6NH4Cl
ammonia acts as a
1 Lewis acid
2 Lewis base
3 reducing agent
7. The graph below shows the changes in pH for the titration between a monoprotic acid and
aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1 Addition of 10.0 cm3 of sodium hydroxide produces an acidic buffer solution in the conical
flask
2 Addition of 20.0 cm3 of sodium hydroxide produces a basic buffer solution in the conical
flask
3 Addition of 40.0 cm3 of sodium hydroxide produces an acidic buffer solution in the conical
flask
8. Which of the following pairs of substance can act as a buffer solution?

1 CH3COOH and CH3COO–
2 NH4+ and NH3
3 HCO3– and CO32–
9. When a little acid is added separately to the following mixtures, which mixture will show a
marked change in pH?
1 A mixture of NaHSO4 and Na2SO4
2 A mixture of NaH2PO4 and Na2HPO4
3 A mixture of CH3CH2COOH and CH3CH2COONa
1. (a) The values of Kw for water at 10 °C, 30 °C and 40 °C are shown below.
Temperature (°C) 10 30 40
Kw 10 (mol dm )
14 2 –6
0.29 1.5 2.9
(i) From the data given, what inference can you make regarding the dissociation of water?
(ii) Calculate the pH of water at 40 °C.
(iii) Calculate Kc at 30 °C for the following equilibrium.
H2O H+ + OH–
(Assume the density of water at 30 °C = 1 g cm–3)

(b) The formula of an acid-base indicator can be represented by HIn.
HIn(aq) H+(aq) + In–(aq)
[In–]
(i) Show that pH = pKIn + lg — ———
[HIn]
(ii) An acid-base indicator has pKIn = 4.0. The colour of HIn(aq) is yellow and the colour
of In–(aq) is blue. Calculate the pH of a solution if the colour of the indicator in the
solution is green.
2. The graph below shows the changes in pH when 20.0 cm3 of saturated sulphur dioxide solution
are added to 1.0 mol dm–3 sodium hydroxide solution in a titration.
(a) Write the chemical equation for the reaction that occurs at (i) the first equivalence point and
(ii) the second equivalence point of the titration.
(b) Suggest a suitable indicator that can be used to show the first equivalence point.
(c) Write the chemical equation for the complete reaction between sulphur dioxide and sodium
hydroxide.
(d) Calculate the concentration in mol dm–3 for sulphur dioxide in the original solution.
Essay Question
1. (a) Define an acid based on (i) Arrhenius theory (ii) Bronsted-Lowry theory (iii) Lewis theory.
(b) Calculate the pH of a solution formed by mixing 49 cm3 of 0.1 mol dm–3 aqueous sodium
hydroxide with 51 cm3 of 0.1 mol dm–3 hydrochloric acid.
(c) Ammonia soluion is 4.2% dissociated at 25 °C in 0.01 mol dm–3 solution. Calculate pKb for
ammonia at this temperature.

ANSWER
CHAPTER 10 Acid-base Equilibria and 1000

[H2O] = — ——— = 55.6 mol dm–3
Buffer Solutions 18
1.5 10–14
Kc = —— ————— —
—
Objective Questions 55.6
= 2.7 10–16 mol dm–3
1. A H2O donates H+ to NH3(g)
(b) (i) HIn(aq) H+(aq) + In–(aq)
2. B For a weak acid, [H+] = Ka c
3. B At the equivalence point, an acidic solution is [H+(aq)][In–(aq)]
KHIn = — —— —
— —— — — ——— —
obtained. Hence it is a strong acid-weak base [HIn]
titration. By taking negative logarithm (lg) and
[salt] rearranging, we have
4. C pOH = – lg Kb + lg — — ——— [In–]
[base] – lg [H+] – lg — — — — = –lg KHIn
[HIn]
1.0 25.0
= – lg 1.75 10–5 + lg — — ————— — [In–]
1.0 25.0 pH = pKHIn + lg — — ——
[HIn]
= 4.76
(ii) A mixture of yellow and blue gives green.
pH = 14 – 4.76
Thus, green shows that
= 9.2
[HIn] = [In–] and pH = 4.0 + lg 1
5. C The pH range for Congo red and methyl
= 4.0.
yellow shows that they are indicators suitable
2. (a) (i) SO2(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaHSO3(aq)
for strong acid-weak base titration.
(ii) NaHSO3(aq) + NaOH(aq) →
For diphenol purple, the pH range shows that it
Na2SO3(aq) + H2O(l)
is suitable for weak acid–strong base titration.
(b) Methyl orange
6. C The formation of NH4+ in NH4Cl shows that
(c) SO2(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) →
NH3 acts as a Lewis base (an electron-pair
donor). Na2SO3(aq) + H2O(l)
NH3 reduces Cl2 to Cl–. Thus it is a reducing (M1V1)SO
2 1
agent. (d) — — —————— =—
(M2V2)NaOH 2
7. A The pH change shows that it is a strong base-
weak acid titration. Concentration of aqueous SO2
1.0 25.2
Before the end point, the solution in the conical =½— ——— ———— — = 0.63 mol dm–3
flask contains excess acid and salt of the weak 20
acid. Thus it is an acidic buffer solution.
After the end point, the solution contains excess Essay Question
alkali and salt of the weak acid. Hence, it is 1. (a) (i) An acid is a substance that dissociates
not a buffer solution. in water to produce H+ ions.
8. D (ii) An acid is a substance that can donate a
9. A A mixture of NaHSO4 and Na2SO4 is not a proton to a base.
buffer solution. (iii) An acid is a substance that accepts a
pair of electrons from a base.
Structured Question (b) 49 cm3 of 0.1 mol dm–3 would neutralise
1. (a) (i) H2O H+ + OH– 49 cm3 of 0.1 mol dm–3 HCl.
Kw = [H ][OH–]
+ 2 cm3 of 0.1 mol dm–3 HCl remained in
When the temperature is increased, the (49 + 51) = 100 cm3 solution.
value of Kw increases. This shows that Number of moles of H+ in 100 cm3 solution
more H+ and OH– ions are produced. 0.1 2
=— —
— —— — = 2 10–4
That is, equilibrium position shifts to 1000
the right. Thus, the dissociation of water 100 cm3 ≡ 0.1 dm3
is an endothermic process. (2 10–4)
[H+] = — —— ——— — = 2 10–3 mol dm–3
—
(ii) At 40 °C, Kw = 2.9 10–14 mol2 dm–6 0.1
pH = – lg (2 10–3) = 2.7
[H+] = (2.9 10–14)
α2c
= 1.7 10–7 mol dm–3 (c) Kb = — —— —
1–α
pH = – lg [H+] 0.0422 0.01
= – lg (1.7 10–7) =— — — ———— ————
1 – 0.042
= 6.8 = 1.84 10–5 mol dm–3
(iii) Kc = —
[H+][OH–]
———— —— —= —
Kw
—— — pKb = – lg (1.84 10–5)
[H2O] [H2O] = 4.74

11 Heterogeneous Ionic Equilibrium
Objective Questions
1. A metal forms a salt with formula M2X. If the solubility of the salt is s mol dm–3, its solubility
product is
A 2s2 mol2 dm–6 C 4s3 mol3 dm–9
2 2 –6
B 4s mol dm D 2s4 mol4 dm–12
2 At 15 °C, the solubility of lead(II) iodide, PbI2 is 0.6 g dm–3. What is the solubility product of
lead(II) iodide at this temperature? (Mr of PbI2 = 461)
0.6 3
A (— — — ) mol3 dm–9
461
0.6 3
B 2 (—
—— ) mol3 dm–9
461
0.6 3
C 4 (—
—— ) mol3 dm–9
461
461 3
D 4 (—
— — ) mol3 dm–9
0.6
3. A solution containing 7 10–7 mol dm–3 Ag+ ions is required for a reaction. Which of the
following saturated solution can be used for this purpose?
Saturated solution of the silver salt Ksp of the silver salt
A AgCl 2.0 10–10 mol2 dm–6
B AgBr 5.0 10–13 mol2 dm–6
C Ag2SO4 2.0 10–5 mol3 dm–9
D Ag2CrO4 1.3 10–12 mol3 dm–9
4. 150 cm3 of aqueous silver nitrate is added to 150 cm3 of 0.8 mol dm–3 aqueous sodium chloride.
What is the minimum concentration of aqueous silver nitrate needed to cause the precipitation
of silver chloride?
[Ksp of AgCl = 2.0 10–10 mol2 dm–6]
A 1.0 10–8 mol dm–3
B 2.0 10–8 mol dm–3
C 1.0 10–9 mol dm–3
D 2.0 10–9 mol dm–3
5. 50 cm3 of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 required 10 cm3 of 0.1 mol dm–3 HCl for complete
neutralisation. The solubility product of Ca(OH)2 is
1 1 1 2
A —— — (— — — ) mol3 dm–9
2 50 50
1 1 1 2
B ——— (—
—— ) mol3 dm–9
2 100 100
1 2 2
— (—
C — — — ) mol3 dm–9
50 50
1 2 2
— (—
D — —— ) mol3 dm–9
50 100

A B C D
6. Which of the following observations can be explained in terms of common ion effect?
1 BaSO4(s) is less soluble in dilute sulphuric acid than in water.
2 When solid NaCl is added to a saturated solution of silver chloride, AgCl will precipitate
out.
3 The concentration of OH– ions is increased when solid NH4Cl is added to ammonia
solution.
7. Silver chloride is sparingly soluble in water. When aqueous ammonia is added to silver chloride
in water, it dissolves to form a clear solution because
1 soluble silver hydroxide is formed.
2 the complex ion, [Ag(NH3)2]+ is formed.
3 the ionic product of silver chloride is less than its solubility product.
1. (a) Write an equation to show the equilibrium that exists in a saturated solution of barium
fluoride, BaF2.
(b) Write the solubility product expression for barium fluoride and state its units.
(c) A solution is 0.10 mol dm–3 with respect to both Ba2+ and Ca2+ ions. Sodium fluoride is
slowly added to precipitate BaF2.
(i) Calculate the concentration of F– ions at which BaF2 begins to precipitate.
(ii) Hence, calculate the concentration of Ca2+ ion that remains unprecipitated at this point.
[Ksp for BaF2 = 1.7 10–6 mol3 dm–9; Ksp for CaF2 = 1.7 10–10 mol3 dm–9]
2. (a) The solubility products at 298 K for AgCl, Fe(OH)2 and Mn(OH)2 are shown below.
Ksp for AgCl = 1.0 10–10 mol2 dm–6
Ksp for Fe(OH)2 = 8.0 10–16 mol3 dm–9
Ksp for Mn(OH)2 = 1.9 10–13 mol3 dm–9
Which of the following pairs of solution would produce a precipitate when the solutions are
mixed?
[Kb for ammonia = 1.8 10–5 mol dm–3]
(i) 25.0 cm3 of 1.0 10–3 mol dm–3 AgNO3(aq) and 50.0 cm3 of 1.0 10–5 mol dm–3
KCl(aq)
(ii) 25.0 cm3 of 3.0 10–3 mol dm–3 FeSO4(aq) and 75.0 cm3 of 1.0 10–4 mol dm–3
NaOH(aq)
(iii) 50.0 cm3 of 0.05 mol dm–3 NH3(aq) and 50.0 cm3 of 0.025 mol dm–3 MnSO4(aq)
(b) A saturated solution Z contains calcium hydroxide and calcium sulphate.
(i) If the pH of solution Z is 12.5, calculate the concentration of Ca2+ in solution Z.
[Ksp for Ca(OH)2 is 5.5 10–6 mol3 dm–9]
(ii) Calculate the concentration of SO42– ions in solution Z.
[Ksp for CaSO4 is 2.4 10–5 mol2 dm-6]

Essay Question
1. (a) The values of Ksp for iron(II) hydroxide and iron(III) hydroxide are shown below.
Compound Ksp at 298 K
Fe(OH)2 7.9 10–16 mol3 dm–9
Fe(OH)3 2.0 10–39 mol4 dm–12
Iron(III) compounds react with potassium iodide as represented by the equation

2Fe3+(aq) + 2I–(aq) 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(s)
When aqueous iodine is added to iron(II) hydroxide solid that contains a few drops of alkali
solution, the iodine solution is decolourised and iron(II) hydroxide is converted to iron(III)
hydroxide. Explain this observation.
(b) The concentration of Cl–(aq) ion in aqueous solution can be determined by titration with
silver nitrate. The indicator used is potassium chromate(VI). At the end point, a red
precipitate of silver chromate(VI), Ag2CrO4 is produced.
Ksp of AgCl = 1.0 10–10 mol2 dm–6 ; Ksp of Ag2CrO4 = 2.4 10–12 mol3 dm–9
(i) Calculate the minimum concentration of Ag+ required to cause precipitation of AgCl.
(ii) Calculate the minimum concentration of Ag+ required to cause precipitation of
Ag2CrO4.
(iii) Based on your answers in (b)(i) and (ii), describe what happens when silver nitrate
solution is run into a solution of chloride ions, using potassium chromate(VI) as
indicator.

ANSWER
CHAPTER 11 Heterogeneous Ionic Aqueous NH3 solution added causes [Ag+] and
Equilibrium [Cl–] to decrease hence ionic product
[Ag+] [Cl–] < Ksp. (3 correct)
Objective Questions
1. C M2X 2M + X
[M] = 2s, [X] = s 1. (a) BaF2(s) Ba2+(aq) + 2F–(aq)
Ksp = [M]2[X] = (2s)2(s) mol3 dm–9 (b) Ksp = [Ba ][F–]2 mol3 dm–9
2+
2. C Ksp for PbI2 = [Pb2+][I–]2 (c) (i) BaF2 begins to precipitate when ionic
0.6 0.6 2 product = Ksp (saturated solution).
=— —— (2 — —— ) mol3 dm–9
461 461 [Ba2+][F–]2 = 1.7 × 10–6
3. B [Ag+][Br-] = 5 10–13 mol2 dm–6 0.1 × [F–]2 = 1.7 × 10–6
[Ag+] = 5 10–13 = 7.1 10–7 mol dm–3 1.7 × 10–6
∴ [F–] = — —— —— — ——
Ag2CrO4 2Ag+ + CrO42– 0.1
+
Let [Ag ] = 2x = 4.1 × 10–3 mol dm–3
Ksp = [Ag+]2[CrO42–] (ii) [Ca ][4.1 × 10–3]2 = 1.7 × 10–10
2+
–10
1.3 10–12 = (2x)2(x) 1.7 ×— 10
[Ca2+] = — ——— — —— ——
–3 2
x = 6.9 10–5 (4.1 × 10 )
2x = 1.38 10–4 = 1.0 × 10–5 mol dm–3
[Ag+] = 1.38 10–4 mol dm–3 25
2. (a) (i) [Ag+] = — — × (1 × 10–3)
4. C [Cl–] after mixing = ½ 0.8 = 0.4 mol dm–3 75
(as volume is doubled) = 3.33 × 10–4 mol dm–3
For precipitation to occur, ionic product of 50
[Cl–] = — — × (1 × 10–5)
AgCl must exceed the Ksp of AgCl. 75
[Ag+] 0.4 = 2.0 10–10 = 6.67 × 10–6 mol dm–3
[Ag+] = 5 10–10 mol dm–3 Ionic product = (3.33 × 10–4) ×
M1V1 before mixing = M2V2 after mixing (6.67 × 10–6)
M1 150 = 5 10–10 (150 + 150) = 2.22 × 10–9 mol2 dm–6
M1 = 5 10–10 2 = 1.0 10–9 mol dm–3 Ionic product > Ksp
5. A OH– + HCl → H2O + Cl– ∴ Precipitation of AgCl occurs.
M1V1 = M2V2 25
(ii) [Fe2+] = — — — × (3.0 × 10–3)
0.1 10 100
Concentration of OH– = — ———— —— = 7.5 × 10–4 mol dm–3
50
1 75
=— — mol dm–3 [OH–] = — —— × (1 × 10–4)
50 100
Ca(OH)2 → Ca2+ + 2OH– = 7.5 × 10–5 mol dm–3
1 — 1— mol dm–3 Ionic product = (7.5 × 10–4) ×
Concentration of Ca2+ = — (7.5 × 10–5)2
2 50
Ksp = [Ca2+][OH–]2 = 4.2 × 10–12 mol3 dm–9
1 — 1— (— 1 )2 mol3 dm–9 Ionic product > Ksp
=— —
2 50 50
∴Precipitation of Fe(OH)2 occurs.
6. B BaSO4(s) Ba2+(aq) + SO42–(aq)
50
H2SO4(aq) → 2H+(aq) + SO42–(aq) (iii) [Mn2+] = — — — × 0.025
100
Common ion, SO42– causes BaSO4 to be less
= 0.0125 mol dm–3
soluble. (1 correct)
50
AgCl(s) Ag+(aq) + Cl–(aq) [NH3] = — —— × 0.050
NH4Cl(aq) → NH4+(aq) + Cl–(aq) 100
Common ion, Cl– shifts the AgCl equilibrium = 0.025 mol dm–3
–
to the left, hence AgCl precipitates out. [OH ] = Kb × c
(2 correct) = (1.8 × 10–5) × 0.025
NH3(g) + H2O(l) NH4+(aq) + OH–(aq) = 6.7 × 10–4 mol dm–3
NH4Cl(s) + water NH4+(aq) + Cl–(aq) Ionic product = 0.0125 × (6.7 × 10–4)2
The concentration of OH– decreased due to = 5.6 × 10–9 mol3 dm–9
common ion effect. (3 incorrect) Ionic product > Ksp
7. C Silver hydroxide is insoluble. (1 incorrect) ∴ Precipitation of Mn(OH)2 occurs.
AgCl(s) Ag+(aq) + Cl–(aq) (b) (i) pH = 14 + lg[OH–]
When aqueous NH3 is added, it reacts with lg[OH–] = 12.5 – 14
silver to form [Ag(NH3)2]+(aq). (2 correct) = –1.5

[OH–] = 0.032 mol dm-3 (ii) Ksp for Ag2CrO4 = 2.4 10–12 mol3 dm–9
Ksp for Ca(OH)2 = [Ca2+][OH–]2 [Ag+]2[CrO42–] = 2.4 10–12 mol3 dm–9
5.5 10–6 = [Ca2+] (0.032)2 Let concentration of Ag+ needed to
[Ca2+] = 0.0054 mol dm–3 precipitate Ag2CrO4 = x mol dm–3
(ii) Ksp = [Ca2+][SO42–] Ag2CrO4(aq)
2.4 10–5 2Ag+(aq) + CrO42–(aq)
[SO42–] = —— ————— = 0.0044 mol dm–3 [CrO42–] = ½ x mol dm–3
0.0054
x2 (½x) = 2.4 10–12
x3 = 4.8 10–12;
Essay Question
x = 1.69 10–4 mol dm–3
1. (a) In the presence of iodine, equilibrium shifts to If [Ag+] is higher than 1.69 10–4 mol
the left (le Chatelier’s principle) and Fe3+ ions dm–3, precipitation of Ag2CrO4 will
are produced. occur.
Fe3+ ions react with OH– ions from the alkali (iii) The answers in (b)(i) and (ii) show that a
to form Fe(OH)3. higher concentration of Ag+ ions is need
The Ksp for Fe(OH)3 is very much lower than to cause the precipitation of Ag2CrO4.
the Ksp for Fe(OH)2. When silver nitrate solution is run into
Thus, Fe(OH)3 can be precipitated more a solution of Cl– ions, Ag2CrO4 does
readily than Fe(OH)2. not precipitate until all the Cl– ions
(b) (i) Ksp for AgCl = 1.0 10–10 mol2 dm–6 have precipitated as AgCl. When the
precipitation of AgCl has completed,
[Ag+] = 1.0 10–10
the addition of one drop of silver nitrate
= 1.0 10–5 mol dm–3
will cause the precipitation of Ag2CrO4,
If [Ag+] is higher than 1.0 10–5 mol
which corresponds to the end point of
dm–3, precipitation of AgCl will occur.
the titration.

12 Phase Equilibrium
Objective Questions
1. Which of the following liquid mixture shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
A Hexane and heptane
B Ethanol and water
C Hydrogen bromide and water
D Nitric acid and water
2. Two miscible liquids X and Y form an ideal solution, containing 3 mol of X and 1 mol of Y. The
total vapour pressure at 20 °C is 48 kPa. The vapour pressure of pure X is 52 kPa at 20 °C. What
is the vapour pressure of pure Y at 20 °C?
A 36 kPa C 92 kPa
B 48 kPa D 192 kPa
3. The partition coefficient of butanoic acid (CH3CH2CH2COOH) between ether and water is 3.0.
If 1.0 g of butanoic acid is shaken with a mixture of water and ether until equilibrium is
established, what is the volume of 1 mol dm–3 sodium hydroxide solution required to neutralise
all the acid in the ether layer?
[Mr of butanoic acid = 88; the mixture contains equal volumes of water and ether]
A 2.84 cm3
B 8.52 cm3
C 17.1 cm3
D 28.4 cm3
4. When a mixture of compound X and water is steam distilled at a pressure of 97.1 kPa and a
temperature of 98 °C, a distillate containing compound X and water in the ratio of 0.188 : 1
(by mass) is obtained. If the vapour pressure of water at 98 °C is 94.5 kPa, what is the relative
molecular mass of X?
A 98 C 196
B 123 D 246
5. Which of the following solutions has the lowest vapour pressure at 30 °C?
A Distilled water
B 0.1 mol dm–3 MgSO4 solution
C 0.1 mol dm–3 MgCl2 solution
D A mixture of water and phenylamine
A B C D
6. When propanone (CH3COCH3) is mixed with chloromethane, heat energy is liberated and the
increase in temperature is ∆T1. If the experiment is repeated using CHCl3 and CCl4, the results
as shown in the table below are obtained. In each experiment, the volumes of both the organic
compounds are kept constant.
Mixture Increase in temperature

CH3COCH3 + CH3Cl ∆T1
CH3COCH3 + CHCl3 ∆T2
CH3COCH3 + CCl4 ∆T3

Which of the following relationships concerning the increase in temperature is/are correct?
1 ∆T1 = ∆T2 = ∆T3
2 ∆T1 < ∆T2
3 ∆T3 < ∆T2
7. A mixture of two liquids, X and Y shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law. This implies that
1 the two liquids are immiscible.
2 the vapour pressure-composition curve shows a maximum point.
3 the azeotropic mixture has a lower boiling point than pure X or pure Y.
8. The boiling point-composition diagram for a mixture of two miscible liquids, A and B, is shown
below.
temperature
r
ou
p
va
d
ui
liq
0% A X Y 100% A
100% B composition 0% B
Based on the diagram above, we can conclude that

1 pure A and pure B cannot be obtained from fractional distillation of mixture X.
2 fractional distillation of mixture Y produces pure B.
3 the mixture of A and B shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
1. (a) A mixture of water and methanol obeys Raoult’s law but a mixture of water and 1-propanol
forms an azeotropic mixture. Explain the behaviour of these two mixtures.
(b) Explain why water is immiscible with hexanol, CH3(CH2)5OH.
2. Butanedioic acid (HOOCCH2CH2COOH) is added to a separating funnel which contains equal

volumes of water and ether.
When equilibrium is established, the concentrations of the acid in aqueous and ether layers are
determined by titration. The results of four experiments are shown below.
Volume of alkali required to neutralise Volume of alkali required to neutralise
10 cm3 of the ether layer (cm3) 10 cm3 of aqueous layer (cm3)
1.4 9.0
1.8 12.0
2.0 13.5
2.5 17.5
(a) Name an alkali and a suitable indicator which can be used for the titration above.
(b) Is butanedioic acid more soluble in ether or in water? Justify your answer.
(c) Plot a graph and determine the partition coefficient of butanedioic acid between ether and
water from the graph.
(d) 1.0 g of butanedioic acid is dissolved in 20 cm3 water. The acid in the solution is extracted
by using 40.0 cm3 of ether. Calculate the percentage of butanedioic acid that still remains in
the aqueous layer after extraction.
(e) If the acid is extracted twice using two separate portions of 20 cm3 of ether, what is the mass
of ethanoic acid still remaining in water after the second extraction?

Essay Question
1. (a) The boiling point-composition diagram for hydrogen fluoride and water is shown in the
figure below.
120 vap
our
liqu
100 id
r
ou
80
vap
id
liqu
60
40
20
X
0 20 40 60 80 100 H2O
100 80 60 40 20 0 HF
(i) A solution with composition X is heated until boiling. What is the boiling point of this
solution?
What is the composition of the vapour at the boiling point?
(ii) Explain why a mixture of hydrogen fluoride and water shows negative deviation from
Raoult’s law.
(b) The liquids P and Q form an ideal mixture. At 30 °C, the vapour pressures of pure P and
pure Q are 120 kPa and 40 kPa respectively and the mole fraction of P in the solution is
0.60.
(i) Calculate the total vapour pressure for the liquid mixture at 30 °C.
(ii) Calculate the composition of vapour at equilibrium with the liquid mixture at 30 °C.

ANSWER
CHAPTER 12 Phase Equilibrium water molecules, between methanol molecules

and between water-methanol molecules
Objective Questions are almost the same. Hence, the mixture of
methanol and water obeys Raoult’s law.
1. B Hexane and heptane – ideal solution The intermolecular forces of attraction between
HBr/H2O – negative deviation 1-propanol and water in the mixture is weaker
HNO3/H2O – negative deviation than the intermolecular forces of attraction
3 between 1-propanol-1-propanol molecules
2. A Mole fraction of X = — = 0.75
4 and between water-water molecules. Hence,
Mole fraction of Y = 1 – 0.75 = 0.25 a mixture of 1-propanol and water shows
Vapour pressure of X = 52 0.75 = 39 kPa positive deviation from Raoult’s law and
Vapour pressure of Y = 48 – 39 = 9 kPa forms an azeotropic mixture with minimum
9 = PYo 0.25; PYo = 36 kPa boiling point.
3. B Let mass of butanoic acid in ether layer = x g (b) Two liquids are immiscible if the
∴ Mass of butanoic acid in water = (1.0 – x) g intermolecular forces in the liquids are vastly
x different. In water, the molecules are held
——— —— = 3.0
1.0 – x strongly by hydrogen bonds. Hexanol is a
∴ x = 0.75 g much bigger molecule than water. The van
Number of moles of butanoic acid der Waals forces in hexanol is very strong.
0.75 Hence, it is immiscible with water.
=— — — = 0.00852
88 2. (a) Sodium hydroxide solution; phenolphthalein
CH3CH2CH2COOH + NaOH → (weak acid – strong base titration).
CH3CH2CH2COONa + H2O (b) More soluble in water because more alkali is
∴ Number of moles of alkali required required for neutralisation as shown in the table.
= number of moles of acid present (c)
= 0.00852
MV 1V
0.00852 = — — ——=— — ———
1000 1000
∴ V = 8.52 cm3
mA pA MA
4. B — — ——=— —— —————
mH O pH O 18
2 2
0.188 (97.1 – 94.5) MA
— — ——=— ——— —————— ————— —
1 94.5 18
MA = 123
5. C MgCl2(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq)
MgCl2 solution contains the most number of
ions per dm3 solution.
6. C The stronger the intermolecular forces of
attraction, the greater the energy liberated
in forming a non-ideal solution. CHCl3 is the
most polar because it has three chlorine atoms AB
per molecule. Both CHCl3 and CH3Cl can Gradient = — ——
BC
form hydrogen bonding with CH3COCH3. CCl4
(2.42 – 1.60)
molecule does not contain hydrogen atom. Hence, =— —— ————— —— = 0.13
it cannot form hydrogen bonds with CH3COCH3. (17.0 – 10.5)
7. C (d) Let mass of butanedioic acid remaining in
8. B X is an azeotropic mixture. Its composition water = m g
and boiling point remains unchanged during ∴ Mass of butanedioic acid in ether
distillation. (1 correct) Fractional distillation = (1.0 – m) g
of Y produces pure B. (2 correct) The mixture (1.0 – m)
— —— —— ——
shows negative deviation. (3 incorrect) 40
0.13 = — —— ——— —
m
——
Structured Questions 20
1. (a) Both water and methanol molecules form m = 0.79
intermolecular hydrogen bonds. The 0.79
%=— — —— 100 = 79%
intermolecular forces of attraction between 1

(e) First extraction (ii) The intermolecular forces of attraction
Let mass of acid in water = x g between HF --- HF in pure HF and between
∴ Mass of acid in ether = (1.0 – x) g H2O --- H2O in pure H2O are hydrogen
(1.0 – x) bonds. In aqueous solution, HF
———— ———
20 dissociates to form H+ and F- ions. The
0.13 = — ——— ———
x ion-solvent attraction between H+ and F–
—— ions with water is stronger than hydrogen
20
x = 0.88 g bonds. Hence aqueous HF shows negative
deviation from Raoult’s law.
Second extraction (b) (i) Partial pressure of P = 120 0.6
Let mass of acid in water = y g = 72 kPa
∴ Mass of acid in ether = (0.88 – y) g Partial pressure of Q = 40 0.4 = 16 kPa
(0.88 – y) ∴Total vapour pressure = 72 + 16
—— ——— —
—
20 = 88 kPa
0.13 = — ———— ——
y 72
— — (ii) Mole fraction of P in the vapour = — —
20 88
y = 0.78 g = 0.82
16
Essay Question Mole fraction of Q in the vapour = — —
88
1. (a) (i) 60 °C; 8% H2O and 92% HF. = 0.18

13 Electrochemistry
Objective Questions
1. The standard electrode potential of some half-cells are given as follows:
Half-reaction E θ (V)
½ Cl2 + e– → Cl– +1.36
– –
½ Br2 + e → Br +1.07
½ I2 + e– → I– + 0.54
+ –
½ H2O2 + H + e → H2O +1.77
+ –
O2 + 2H + 2e → H2O2 + 0.68
Which of the following pair of reagents does not result in a chemical reaction under standard
conditions?
A H2O2 with Cl2
B H2O2 with Br2
C H2O2 with I2
D H2O2 with KI
2. The cell diagram of an electrochemical cell is given as

Pt(s) ⏐ Fe2+(aq), Fe3+(aq) Cr2O72–(aq), Cr3+(aq) ⏐ Pt(s)
Which of the following will increase the e.m.f. of the electrochemical cell?
A Increase the concentration of Fe3+ ions
B Increase the concentration of Cr3+ ions
C Increase the concentration of Fe2+ ions
D Decrease the concentration of Cr2O72– ions
3. The electrode potential of two half-cells are given below:

Fe3+(aq) + e– → Fe2+(aq) ; E θ = + 0.76 V
Fe(CN)63– + e– → Fe(CN)64– ; E θ = + 0.36 V
Which of the following statements is correct with regards to the cells above?
A Fe(CN)64– is more stable than Fe2+(aq).
B Fe(CN)63– is more stable than Fe3+(aq).
C Fe(CN)63– is a stronger oxidising agent than Fe3+(aq).
D Fe(CN)64– is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+(aq).
4. What is the total volume of gas produced at 25.0 °C when 0.20 A of current is passed through
dilute sulphuric acid for 4825 seconds? (Faraday constant is 9.65 104 C mol–1, molar volume
of gas at 25.0 °C is 24.4 dm3 mol–1)
A 0.061 dm3
B 0.122 dm3
C 0.183 dm3
D 0.244 dm3
5. Electrolysis is used to remove ions in industrial waste. Which of the following ions is removed
in the treatment of effluent using electrolysis?
A Al3+ ions
B Cr3+ ions
C PO43– ions
D Cr2O72– ions

A B C D
6. Chlorine gas is produced by electrolysis of brine in a diaphragm cell. Which of the following is
also produced besides chlorine in the electrolysis process?
1 Hydrogen gas
2 Sodium hydroxide
3 Sodium chlorate(I)
7. The electrode potential of two half-cells are given below:

Sn4+(aq) + 2e– → Sn2+(aq) ; E θ = + 0.15 V
Fe3+(aq) + e– → Fe2+(aq) ; E θ = + 0.77 V
Which of the following statement(s) is true of the electrochemical cell formed from these two
half-cells?
1 The cell diagram is represented by
Pt(s) ⏐ Fe2+(aq), Fe3+(aq) Sn4+(aq), Sn2+(aq) ⏐ Pt(s)
2 The e.m.f. of the cell produced is 0.62 V.
3 The cell e.m.f. will increase if the concentration of Sn4+ is decreased.
1. The half-equations and standard electrode potential at 25 °C for two half-cells are
Hg2Cl2(l) + 2e– → 2Hg(l) + 2Cl–(aq) ; E θ = + 0.24 V
Fe3+(aq) + e– → Fe2+(aq) ; E θ = + 0.77 V
(a) Write a cell diagram for the electrochemical cell constructed using the two half-cells above.
(b) Calculate the e.m.f. of the electrochemical cell at standard conditions.
(c) Name a substance that can be used as salt bridge for the cell above and explain how it
works.
(d) An oxidising substance Y is added to the Fe3+/Fe2+ half-cell and the e.m.f. of the cell is
observed. The e.m.f. of the cell can be calculated using the Nernst equation.
(i) Explain how the addition of the oxidising agent Y causes the change of the e.m.f. of the
cell.
(ii) Sketch a graph showing the change of e.m.f. versus the volume of oxidising agent Y
added into the Fe3+/Fe2+ half-cell.
[Fe2+]
(iii) Calculate the cell e.m.f. if the ratio of ———— is 1.00 10–3 while the concentration of
[Fe3+]
Cl– remains unchanged.
2. In an electrolysis experiment, two electrolytic cells cell A and cell B are connected in series as
show below. Cell A consists of two copper electrodes immersed in aqueous copper(II) sulphate
solution. Cell B consists of silver electrodes immersed in silver nitrate solution.
copper
electrodes
silver
electrodes
copper(II) silver nitrate

sulphate solution
solution
cell A cell B

When a current of 0.50 A is allowed to pass through the two cells for 20.0 min, the mass of
copper and silver deposited in cell A and cell B are 0.197 g and 0.672 g respectively. [Relative
atomic mass: Cu, 63.5, Ag, 108]
(a) Calculate the number of coulomb that passed through the two cells.
(b) Calculate the number of coulomb that is required to deposit 1.0 mol of
(i) copper atoms,
(ii) silver atoms.
(c) Comment on the results obtained in (b) in relation to the charge of the ions.
(d) If the charge of an electron is 1.60 10–19 C, calculate Avogadro’s constant using the result
obtained in (b)(i).
(e) Predict the number of coulomb that is required to deposit 1.0 mol of gold when AuCl3 is
electrolysed with gold electrodes using the result obtained in (b)(i).
Essay Question
1. (a) The overall chemical change taking place during the industrial electrolytic manufacture of
aluminium metal is represented by
2Al2O3 + 3C → 4Al + 3CO2
(i) Explain all the chemical changes that take place in the process that result in the overall
equation in the electrolyic process.
(ii) Using the electrode potential values, explain why aluminium metal cannot be produced
from the electrolysis of aluminium salt solutions using graphite electrodes.
(b) Explain what is anodisation. An aluminium object with a surface area of 100 cm3 is to be
anodised. Calculate the quantity of electricity (in coulomb) required to increase its oxide
layer by 1.00 10–4 cm in thickness. [Density of Al2O3 is 4.00 g cm–3]

ANSWER
CHAPTER 13 Electrochemistry positive Eθ value. Anions are not removed in

electrolysis.
Objective Questions 6. B The ions present in brine solution are H+, Na+,
OH– and Cl–.
1. C Cl2 + H2O2 → 2Cl– + O2 + 2H+; H+ ions are discharged at the cathode forming
∆Eθ = (+1.36 – 0.68) V H2 gas. (1 correct)
= + 0.68 V Cl– ions are discharged forming Cl2 gas, leaving
Br2 + H2O2 → 2Br– + O2 + 2H+ ; Na+ and OH– ions in the electrolyte forming
∆Eθ = (+1.07 – 0.68) V NaOH. (2 correct)
= + 0.39 V Cl2 and NaOH are prevented from reacting by
The difference of the standard redox potential, the diaphragm, hence NaClO is not formed.
∆Eθ of the overall reactions are positive. Hence (3 incorrect)
H2O2 will react with Cl2 and Br2. 7. C Sn4+/ Sn2+ will be the negative terminal of the
cell since it has a less positive Eθ value.
I2 + H2O2 → 2I– + O2 + 2H+;
The cell diagram is Pt(s) | Sn2+(aq), Sn4+(aq) ||
∆Eθ = (+ 0.54 – 0.68) V
Fe3+(aq), Fe2+(aq) | Pt(s). (1 incorrect)
= – 0.14 V
∆Eθ of overall reaction is negative. Hence E.m.f. of cell = (0.77 – 0.15) V
H2O2 does not react with I2. = 0.62 V (2 correct)
According to the Nernst equation:
2I– + H2O2 + 2H+ → I2 + 2H2O; 0.059 [Sn2+] [Fe3+ ]2
E = Eθ + — — —— log — ———— —— ———
∆Eθ = (– 0.54 + 1.77) V 2 [Sn4+][Fe2+]2
= + 1.23 V The cell e.m.f. will increase when [Sn4+] is
∆Eθ of overall reaction is positive. Hence H2O2 decreased. (3 correct)
will react with KI.
2. C The reaction that takes place in the Structured Questions
electrochemical cell is
6Fe2+(aq) + Cr2O72–(aq) + 14H+(aq) → 1. (a) Pt(s) | Hg(l),Hg2Cl2(l) || Fe3+(aq),Fe2+(aq) | Pt(s)
6Fe3+(aq) + 2Cr3+(aq) + 7H2O(l) (b) Eθcell = Eθ Fe3+ / Fe2+ – Eθ Hg+ / Hg
According to the Nernst equation: = + 0.77 – 0.24
0.059 [Fe2+]6 [Cr2O72–] = + 0.53 V
E = Eθ + — ——— log — — ——— — —
—— ——— —
6 [Fe3+]6[Cr3+]2 (c) Ammonium chloride / potassium chloride /
0.059 [reactants]x any suitable electrolyte.
Or: E = Eθ + — —— — log — ——— ————— The salt allows the movement of ions so as to
6 [products]y
maintain electrical neutrality of the two half-
Hence the increase in the concentration of the
cells and also prevent the electrolytes of the
reactants or the decrease in the concentration
two half-cells from mixing.
of the products will increase the E value.
(d) (i) The reaction of the cell is:
3. B A more positive E value indicates that Fe3+(aq)
2Hg(l) + 2Cl–(aq) + 2Fe3+(aq) →
has a higher tendency to be reduced to Fe2+
Hg2Cl2(l) + 2Fe2+(aq)
(aq) than Fe(CN)63– to Fe(CN)64– (C and D
According to the Nernst equation:
incorrect). Hence Fe(CN)63– is more stable
than Fe3+ (aq) and Fe2+ (aq) is more stable than 0.059 [Cl–]2 [Fe3+]2
E = Eθ + — — —— log — — — —
—— —— —
Fe(CN)64– (A incorrect, B correct). 2 [Fe2+]2
4. C Q = 0.20 A 4825 s The addition of the oxidising agent Y
= 965 C will increase the concentration of Fe3+
= 0.01 F ions and hence the e.m.f. of the cell is
At the cathode: 2H+ + 2e– → H2 increased.
0.01 F electricity will produce (ii) e.m.f of cell (V)
½ 0.01 24.4 = 0.122 dm3 of H2 gas.
At the anode: 4OH– → O2+ 2H2O + 4e–

0.01 F electricity will produce 0.53
¼ 0.01 24.4 = 0.061 dm3 of O2 gas.
Total volume of gas produced = 0.122 + 0.061
= 0.183 dm3 volume of Y (cm3)
5. B Heavy metal ions are removed from the effluent
using electrolysis under certain conditions. 0.059 [Cl–]2 [Fe3+]2
(iii) Ecell = Eθcell + ——— — log —— —— — ——— —
Al3+ ions are not discharged because of its very 2 [ Fe2+ ]2

0.059 1 with the carbon electrode to produce
= 0.53 + ——— — log ——— ——— —————
2 (1.00 10–3)2 carbon dioxide gas: C + O2 → CO2
= + 0.707 V …… (3)
2. (a) Number of coulomb = I t The overall equation = (1) 3 + (2)
= 0.50 20.0 60 4 + (3) 3
= 600 4Al3+ + 6O2– + 3C → 4Al + 3CO2
(b) (i) 0.197 g of Cu is deposited by 600 C. Or: 2Al2O3 + 3C → 4Al + 3CO2
l.0 mol of Cu is deposited by (ii) Al3+ + 3e– → Al ; Eθ = –1.66 V
63.5 2H+ + 2e– → Η2 ; Eθ = 0 V
— ——— 600 C = 193 000 C The electrode potential of Al3+/Al is
0.197
(ii) 0.672 g of Ag is deposited by 600 C. much more negative than that of H+/H2,
l.0 mol of Ag is deposited by resulting in a much higher discharge
108.0 potential for Al3+ ions to be discharged.
— ——— 600 C = 96 400 C Electrolysis of aluminium salt solutions
0.672
(c) 193 000 C is approximately equals to 2 using graphite electrodes will result in
96 400 C. H+ ions being discharged to produce
The number of coulomb required to deposit hydrogen gas instead of aluminium
1.0 mol of Cu is twice that required to deposit metal.
1.0 mol of Ag. This is because the charge of (b) Anodisation is a process in which the thickness
Cu2+ ions is twice of that of Ag+ ions. of aluminium oxide of an aluminium object is
193 000 thickened by electrolysis. In this process, the
(d) — —— —— — = NA e– aluminium object is made the anode, using
2
96 500 = NA 1.60 10–19 dilute sulphuric acid or chromic acid as the
NA = 6.03 1023 mol–1 electrolyte.
(e) Since Au3+ has a charge of 3/2 times of Cu2+, Volume of Al2O3 to be deposited on the
the number of coulomb to deposit 1.0 mol of aluminium object = 100 cm2 1.0 10–4 cm
Au is 3/2 193 000 C = 289 500 C = 0.01 cm3
Mass of Al2O3 to be deposited
Essay Question = density volume = 4.0 0.01 = 0.04 g
During anodising at the anode:
1. (a) (i) Aluminium is manufactured by the 4OH– → O2 + 2H2O + 4e–
electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide 1 mol of O2 to be formed requires 4 Faradays.
using graphite electrodes. O2 reacts with the aluminium anode object:
Molten Al2O3 dissociates into Al3+ ions 3O2 + 4Al → 2Al2O3
and O2– ions. 1 mol (102 g) of Al2O3 requires 4 3/2
The reactions that take place at the Faradays to be formed.
electrodes are 0.04 g Al2O3 requires
anode: 2O2– → O2 + 4e– …… (1)
cathode: Al3+ + 3e– → Al …… (2) 4 3/2 96 500
——————— ————
— —— 0.04 = 227 C
The O2 gas evolved at the anode reacts 102

14 Thermochemistry
Objective Questions
1. Which of the following chemical changes releases heat energy?
A O2(g) → 2O(g)
B O(g) + e– → O–(g)
C O–(g) + e– → O2–(g)
D Mg+(g) → Mg2+(g) + e–
2. The standard enthalpy change of neutralisation for dilute sulphuric acid and sodium hydroxide
is the heat liberated when
A 1.0 g of aqueous H2SO4 reacts with 1.0 g of aqueous NaOH.
B ½ mol of aqueous H2SO4 reacts with 1.0 mol of aqueous NaOH.
C 1.0 mol of aqueous H2SO4 reacts with ½ mol of aqueous NaOH.
D 1.0 mol of aqueous H2SO4 reacts with 2.0 g of aqueous NaOH.
3. The standard enthalpy change of formation of carbon monoxide is the standard enthalpy change
for the reaction
A C(s) + O(g) → CO(g)
B C(s) + ½O2(g) → CO(g)
C C(g) + O(g) → CO(g)
D C(g) + ½ O2(g) → CO(g)
4. Which of the following represents the correct ascending order of the lattice energies of ionic
compounds?
A NaBr < NaCl < NaI
B KI < LiF < NaCl
C KI < NaBr < LiCl
D KCl < KBr < KI
5. The second ionisation energy of magnesium is +1450 kJ mol–1.

Which of the following thermochemical equations represents the second ionisation energy of
magnesium?
A Mg+(g) → Mg2+(g) + e– ; ∆H = +1450 kJ mol–1
B Mg+(s) → Mg2+(g) + e– ; ∆H = +1450 kJ mol–1
C Mg(s) → Mg2+(s) + 2e– ; ∆H = +1450 kJ mol–1
D Mg(g) → Mg2+(s) + 2e– ; ∆H = +1450 kJ mol–1
6 Which of the following ions has the highest (most exothermic) enthalpy of hydration?
Ion A B C D
Charge +1 –2 +2 +2
Ionic radius (nm) 0.095 0.14 0.065 0.11
7. By using the following information, calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of ethanol.
Standard enthalpy of combustion of graphite = –393 kJ mol–1
Standard enthalpy of combustion of hydrogen = –286 kJ mol–1
Standard enthalpy of combustion of ethanol = –1367 kJ mol–1
A –191 kJ mol–1
B +191 kJ mol–1
C –277 kJ mol–1
D +277 kJ mol–1

A B C D
8. Which of the following processes is/are always exothermic?

1 Na+(g) + water → Na+(aq)
2 Cl(g) + e– → Cl–(g)
3 Na+(g) + Cl–(g) → NaCl(s)
9. Na(s) + ½Cl2(g) → Na(g) + ½Cl2(g) ; ∆H1 = +108 kJ mol–1

Na(g) + ½Cl2(g) → Na+(g) + Cl–(g) ; ∆H2 = +257 kJ mol–1
Na+(g) + Cl–(g) → NaCl(s) ; ∆H3 = -766 kJ mol–1
Based on the information given above, which of the following statements is/are true?
1 ∆H1 is the enthalpy of atomisation of sodium.
2 The enthalpy of formation of sodium chloride is -401 kJ mol–1.
3 ∆H2 is the sum of electron affinity for chlorine and the first ionisation energy for sodium.
1. (a) Each cyclohexene molecule, C6H10, has one C = C bond. 1 mol of cyclohexene reacts with 1
mol of hydrogen to form cyclohexane, C6H12.
C6H10 + H2 → C6H12 ; ∆H1
Calculate the value of ∆H1 from the following data:
Enthalpy of formation of cyclohexene = –36 kJ mol–1
Enthalpy of formation of cyclohexane = –156 kJ mol–1
(b) Benzene, C6H6 undergoes similar reaction with hydrogen to form cyclohexane.
C6H6 + 3H2 → C6H12 ; ∆H2
Predict the value of ∆H2 assuming that each benzene molecule contains three C = C bonds.
(c) The value of ∆H2 as determined by experiment is –207 kJ mol–1. What inference can you
make with regard to the stability of the benzene ring.
2. The enthalpies of hydration of some ions are shown below.

Ion Na+ Mg2+ Al3+ Cl– Br– I–
∆H (kJ mol–1) –390 –1891 – 4613 –381 –350 –307
(a) Why are the hydration energies of both anions and cations negative?
(b) What is the hydration energy of MgI2?
(c) Why does the hydration energy get progressively less exothermic for the series
(i) Cl–, Br –, I–
(ii) Al3+, Mg2+, Na+
(d) Given that,
NaCl(s) → Na+(g) + Cl–(g) ; ∆H = +776 kJ mol–1
Calculate the heat of solution of sodium chloride.

Essay Question
1. (a) When 0.20 g of magnesium powder is dissolved in dilute hydrochloric acid in a polystyrene
cup, the temperature of the solution increases by 8.6 °C.
In another experiment, the plastic cup and its contents are found to require 500 J of heat to
raise the temperature by 1 °C.
(i) Write a chemical equation for the reaction between magnesium and hydrochloric acid.
(ii) Calculate the heat liberated in the experiment.
(iii) Hence, calculate the enthalpy change of reaction for 1 mol of magnesium.
(b) In a similar experiment, it was found that when magnesium carbonate is dissolved in excess
hydrochloric acid, the enthalpy change is –90 kJ per mole of magnesium carbonate.
Use your results in (a)(iii) to calculate the enthalpy change of formation of magnesium
carbonate.
(Standard enthalpy changes of formation of water and carbon dioxide are –285 kJ mol–1
and –393 kJ mol–1 respectively.)
(c) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate decompose on heating. Which would
decompose at a higher temperature, calcium carbonate or magnesium carbonate? Explain
your answer.

ANSWER
CHAPTER 14 Thermochemistry ions while the O atoms (negative polarity)

of H2O are attracted to the positive ions.
Objective Questions The formation of ion-solvent bonds results
in a release of energy, known as hydration
1. B energy.
2. B ½ mol of H2SO4 contains 1 mol of H+ ions. (b) –1891 + 2 (–307) = –2505 kJ
3. B (c) The smaller the ionic size, the stronger the
4. C The ions in all these ionic compounds carry ion-solvent bond and the greater the energy
the same charge. released.
∴ Lattice energy is inversely proportional to (i) The ionic size decreases from I– to CI–.
interionic distance. Hence, hydration energy decreases from
Interionic distance decreases in the order: Cl– to I–.
KI > NaBr > LiCl (ii) The ionic size decreases from Na+ to
∴ Lattice energy increases in the order: Al3+.
KI < NaBr < LiCl Hence hydration energy decreases from
5. A Al3+ to Na+.
6. C The higher the charge, the higher the enthalpy (d) NaCl(s) → Na+(g) + Cl–(g) ;
of hydration. ∆H = +776 kJ mol–1
The smaller the ionic radius, the higher the Na+(g) + water → Na+(aq) ;
enthalpy of hydration. ∆H = –390 kJ mol–1
7. C C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O; Cl–(g) + water → Cl–(aq) ;
x 0 2 (–393) 3 (–286) ∆H = –381 kJ mol–1
∆H = –1367 kJ mol–1 NaCl(s) + water → Na+(aq) + Cl–(aq) ; ∆H
–1367 = [2 (–393) + 3 (–286)] – x
x = –277
8. D Na+(g) + water → Na+(aq) ; +776 kJ
–390 kJ –381 kJ
Hydration energy
Cl(g) + e– → Cl–(g) ;
First electron affinity
Na+(g) + Cl–(g) → NaCl(s) ; Na+(g) + CI–(g)
Lattice energy
9. B In equation (1), Na(s) → Na(g). Hence, ∆H1 is ∆H = (+776) + (–390) + (–381)
enthalpy of atomisation for sodium. (1 correct) = +5 kJ mol–1
On adding equations (1), (2) and (3), we have
Na(s) + ½Cl2(g) → NaCl(s) ; ∆H θf Essay Question
Thus, ∆H θf = (+108) + (+257) + (–766) 1. (a) (i) Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
= – 401 kJ mol–1 (2 correct) (ii) Heat liberated
½Cl2(g) → Cl–(g) is not electron affinity for = 500 8.6
chlorine. (3 incorrect) = 4300 J = 4.3 kJ
(iii) Number of moles of Mg
Structured Questions 0.2
=— — —
1. (a) C6H10 + H2 → C6H12 ; ∆H1 24.3
–36 0 –156 = 8.23 10–3
∴ Enthalpy change of reaction per
∆H1 = (–156) – [(–36) + 0]
mole of Mg
= –120 kJ mol–1
4.3
(b) ∆H2 = 3 (–120) =— — ——— ————
8.23 10–3
= –360 kJ mol–1
= 522.5 kJ mol–1
(c) The actual heat energy released is less than
That is,
the theoretical value. This implies that
benzene has a more stable structure than the Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) +
predicted structure with three C = C bonds. H2(g)
The structure of a benzene molecule is a ∆H1θ = –522.5 kJ mol–1 …… (1)
resonance hybrid of two Kekule structures. (b) Let the enthalpy change of formation of
The delocalised π electrons confer stability MgCl2, HCl and MgCO3 be x, y and z kJ
on the benzene ring. mol–1 respectively.
2. (a) In the hydration process, the H atoms (positive MgCO3 + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2O + CO2 … (2)
polarity) of H2O are attracted to the negative x 2y z –285 –393

∆H2θ = –90 kJ mol–1 x = –1110.5 kJ mol–1
∆Hθ of reaction That is, the enthalpy change of formation of
= Σ∆Hfθ (products) – Σ∆Hfθ (reactants) magnesium carbonate is –1110.5 kJ mol–1
∴ –90 = [z + (–285) + (–393)] – [x + 2y] (c) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2
That is x + 2y – z = –588 … (3) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
From equation (1), we have Ca2+ ion has a bigger ionic radius than
Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g) … (1) Mg2+ ion. Therefore Ca2+ ion has a weaker
0 2y z 0 polarising power. As a result, the polarisation
∆Hθ of reaction of CO32– ion by Ca2+ ion is weaker. Hence, it
= Σ∆Hfθ (products) – Σ∆Hfθ (reactants) is difficult to decompose the CO32– ion to give
–522.5 = z – 2y … (4) CO2 and O2– ions. This means that CaCO3 is
Substituting equation (4) into equation (3), stable towards thermal decomposition and
x + 522.5 = –588 decomposes at a higher temperature.

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1 Matter

2. In a mass spectrum, the peak at m/e 22 is caused by

4. The mass spectrum of a metal Q is shown below.

What is the relative atomic mass of Q?

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Ace Ahead Chemistry (Question Bank) 5th (19/2/08).indd 1 2/20/08 11:30:12 AM

(a) Calculate the relative atomic mass of this element.

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Ace Ahead Chemistry (Question Bank) 5th (19/2/08).indd 2 2/20/08 11:30:20 AM

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Ace Ahead Chemistry (Question Bank) 5th (19/2/08).indd 3 2/20/08 11:30:21 AM

CHAPTER 1 Matter 2. (a) 1H+, 35Cl+, 37Cl+

1. A Alpha-particles are helium nuclei, 42 He2+ 100

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Ace Ahead Chemistry (Question Bank) 5th (19/2/08).indd 4 2/20/08 11:30:21 AM

2. A closed container at s.t.p. contains 11 g of P (carbon dioxide) and 8 g of Q (oxygen). Which of

(ρ = density of gas in g dm–3; p = gas pressure in atm; R = gas constant)

4. A gaseous mixture contains 64 g of methane, 64 g of oxygen and 64 g of sulphur dioxide. The

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Ace Ahead Chemistry (Question Bank) 5th (19/2/08).indd 5 2/20/08 11:30:23 AM

6. Which of the following formulae represent(s) the properties of an ideal gas?

9. Which of the following graphs represent(s) the behaviour of an ideal gas?

When the tap T is opened, a fast reaction occurs. Calculate

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CHAPTER 2 The Gaseous State 2.0

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Ace Ahead Chemistry (Question Bank) 5th (19/2/08).indd 9 2/20/08 11:30:27 AM

Which of the following statements is true?

3. Which of the following does not exhibit allotropy?

5. When a few crystals of ice are added to supercooled water at –5 °C,

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Ace Ahead Chemistry (Question Bank) 5th (19/2/08).indd 10 2/20/08 11:30:28 AM

What conclusion(s) can be made about the iodine crystal?

(a) Name the points O and A.

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critical temperature is 191 K (–82 °C).

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Ace Ahead Chemistry (Question Bank) 5th (19/2/08).indd 12 2/20/08 11:30:29 AM

The line M is caused by the transition of electrons

2. The electron configuration of a species which is isoelectronic with H2O is

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CHAPTER 4 The Electronic Structure of Essay Question

energy (kJ mol–1)

4. D The element must be from Period 4, Group 12

In SF6, the 3s and 3p electrons are excited

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Lowest melting point Highest melting point

5. The successive energies (in kJ mol–1) of an element, X, are shown below.

6. Which of the following pairs of elements has giant structures?

8. On descending from beryllium to barium in Group 2 of the Periodic Table,

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Ace Ahead Chemistry (Question Bank) 5th (19/2/08).indd 15 2/20/08 11:30:33 AM

(a) Which element is a

2. (a) The electronic configuration of an ion, X2+, is shown below.