Motivation Practice Exam

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Sample/practice exam 2014, questions and answers -

Chapters 1-13 - Test bank
Motivation (York University)
Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by Ella Martin (emeryivy@gmail.com)

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CHAPTER 1 - Test Bank

Overview: Conceptualizing and Measuring
Motivation and the Role of Evolution in
Motivation
[Note: After each question, the correct answer, the textbook page from which it comes,
and the question type is provided.]
1. Motivation can best be viewed as:

a. an on and off mechanism
b. a constant flow of behavior that can be directed in only one way
c. a constant flow of behavior that can be directed in many different ways
d. a state where one is either motivated or not motivated
[c 3 factual]
2. The concept of motivation is used to describe forces acting on or within an organism

that influence which of the following aspects of behavior?
a. initiation and direction
b. growth and maturation
c. speed and duration
d. verbal only
[a 4 factual]
3. A student studies hard to earn a slice of pizza. In this situation, studying might be
considered a _____ variable.
a. determination
b. persistence
c. performance
d. stimulus
[c 5 conceptual]
4. According to the stimulus-response analysis, motivation

a. can be measured directly
b. can be seen as an intervening variable
c. can be studied only in laboratory rats
d. can not be studied in humans
[b 5 factual]
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5. Which of the following is NOT a reason that motivation is difficult to study?

a. its presence must often be inferred rather than observed directly
b. it is often an intervening variable
c. it is a performance variable and therefore temporary in nature
d. it can usually be determined through a survey
[d 5 conceptual]
6. According to the authors of the text, two main characteristics of motivation are:
a. activation and inactivation
b. activation and direction
c. performance and intervention
d. persistence and performance
[b 6-7 factual]
7. Prof Psyche is studying motivation by examining how individuals make choices. This
approach involves which characteristic of motivation?
a. deprivation
b. direction
c. needs
d. activation
[b 7 conceptual]
8. Activation involves all of the following EXCEPT:

a. production of behavior
b. persistence of behavior
c. vigor of behavior
d. directionality of behavior
[d 7 factual]
9. A preference test can be a good indicator of:

a. directionality
b. vigor
c. activation
d. intervention
[a 7 factual]
10. A friend who persistently tries to find a date for the dance is displaying the _____
component of motivation.
a. vigor
b. nomothetic
c. activation
d. homeostasis
[c 7 conceptual]
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11. Going to a movie theater and selecting a romantic comedy indicates which
component of motivation?
a. direction
b. activation
c. persistence
d. vigor
[a 7 conceptual]
12. Preference may be considered an index of motivation because it shows:

a. activation of behavior
b. persistence of behavior
c. differences between several choices of behaviors
d. that persistence and activation are linked
[c 7 conceptual]
13. The nomothetic approach to the study of motivation involves the development of:
a. general or universal laws
b. ideas about individual differences
c. ideas about how learning causes behavior
d. ideas about how behavior is influenced by genetic factors
[a 7-8 factual]
14. Categories of analysis used in the study of motivation include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. nomothetic vs. idiographic
b. innate vs. acquired
c. internal vs. external
d. instinct vs. attribution
[d 8 factual]
15. Theorists who emphasized instincts in the past, or who advocate ethology today are
most likely to use which approach to the study of motivation?
a. cognitive
b. mechanistic
c. innate
d. acquired
[c 8 factual]
16. Needs are generally viewed as _____ sources of motivation, while goals emphasize
_____ sources of motivation.
a. internal; external
b. external; internal
c. mechanistic; cognitive
d. problematic; innate
[a 8 conceptual]
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17. The assumption that changes in specific factors activate circuits that in turn motivate
the organism to engage in appropriate behavior typifies which approach to the study of
motivation?
a. cognitive
b. mechanistic
c. internal
d. nomothetic
[b 9 factual]
18. Which of the following statements best represents the assumptions held by theorists
who advocate the cognitive approach?
a. "The manner in which information is interpreted influences motive states"
b. "Motive states are influenced by environmental factors acting on the organism"
c. "Instincts control most motive states"
d. "Motive states are controlled by needs that promote behaviors to reduce those needs"
[a 9 conceptual]
19. The example of the Olds and Milner (1954) experiment in which electrodes were
introduced into areas of a rat's brain best exemplifies which level of analysis?
a. philosophical
b. individual
c. physiological
d. social
[c 9 factual]
20. Which of the following is NOT a technique used in motivational research at the
physiological level?
a. electrical stimulation of the brain
b. chemical stimulation of the brain
c. electrical recording of brain cell activity via EEG
d. depriving a rat of food and observing how it's behavior changes
[d 9-10 conceptual]
21. Bandura's (1973) study with the Bobo doll is an example of which level of analysis?
a. individual
b. physiological
c. social
d. philosophical
[a 11 conceptual]
22. One reason why Bandura's (1973) study with the Bobo doll is important is that:
a. it shows how brain functions influence behavior
b. it shows that aggression may be learned through observation
c. it shows that children are naturally aggressive
d. it shows that some motive states are innate
[b 11 conceptual]
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23. Asch's (1952) studies on conformity are an example of which level of analysis?
a. physiological
b. individual
c. social
d. philosophical
[c 11 factual]
24. The social level of analysis deals with:

a. why individuals are aggressive
b. how individuals learn different motive states
c. how brain circuits mediate different motive states
d. how behaviors are influenced by situational factors or the presence of others
[d 11 factual]
25. At the philosophical level, one way that motivation can be viewed is as _____, as in
Freud's view.
a. an aversive state which behavior seeks to overcome
b. a positive state toward which people aspire
c. self-actualization
d. a situational factor
[a 12 factual]
26. Rogers and Maslow take the view that behavior is directed toward:
a. self-actualization
b. aversive states
c. situational factors
d. unconscious forces
[a 12 factual]
27. The analysis of Angie's problem with her anxiety in the text is an example that shows
the importance of:
a. the individual level of analysis
b. the physiological level of analysis
c. how none of the levels of analysis can adequately explain her problem
d. how all the levels of analysis contribute to a fuller explanation of the problem
[d 12 conceptual]
28. Most theories of motivation assume the existence of some source of _____ that drives
behavior.
a. philosophy
b. physiology
c. energy
d. cognition
[c 13 factual]
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29. In motivation, ideas such as energy, learning, heredity, social interaction and
cognitive processes are known as:
a. constructs
b. theories
c. philosophical assumptions
d. hypotheses
[a 13-14 factual]
30. Which of the following is NOT an example of the concept of cognitive processes?
a. Heider's balance theory
b. Olds's self-stimulation theory
c. Festinger's cognitive dissonance theory
d. Bem's self-perception theory
[b 14 conceptual]
31. The attempt of the brain to maintain the body at some optimal level is called:
a. homeostasis
b. hedonism
c. growth motivation
d. locus of control
[a 14-15 factual]
32. The idea that people are motivated by pleasure and pain is called:
a. homeostasis
b. hedonism
d. locus of control
[b 15 factual]
33. Both Rogers and Maslow attempted to explain human motivation in terms of:
a. the pleasure principle
b. homeostasis
d. hedonic motivation
[c 15 factual]
34. Which of the following are the two roots of psychology in general and the study of
motivation in particular?
a. science and medicine
b. philosophy and physiology
c. science and psychiatry
d. philosophy and applied medicine
[b 15 factual]
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35. The idea that all behavior is the result of conditions that precede the behavior is
called:
a. hedonism
b. free will
c. determinism
d. associationism
[c 16 factual]
36. The idea that the human mind is a blank slate at birth originally comes from _____
and was later used by _____.
a. Descartes; Aristotle
b. Aristotle; Locke
c. Galen; Locke
d. Aristotle; Descartes
[b 16-17 factual]
37. Descartes's ideas about the dualistic nature of man most strongly influenced which
psychological theories?
a. instinct
b. learning
c. genetic
d. cognition
[a 16-17 conceptual]
38. Psychologists who accept the idea of the "blank slate" would be likely to agree with
which of the following statements?
a. "Human behavior is caused by our genetic inheritance"
b. "Human behavior is caused by experience and learning"
c. "Human behavior is cause by an interaction of nature and nurture"
d. "Human behavior is not determined but is an expression of our free will"
[b 17 conceptual]
39. Locke and other British philosophers proposed a fundamental concept in psychology
called:
a. reductionism
b. association
c. innate ideas
d. free will
[b 17 factual]
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40. The idea that different nerve fibers carry different coded information to and from the
brain was known as the:
a. doctrine of interactive dualism
b. locus of function
c. doctrine of specific nerve energies
d. reflex arc of nervous activity
[c 18 factual]
41. One reason that Helmholtz's discovery of the speed of an electrical impulse along a
nerve is important is because it showed that:
a. the speed of a neural impulse is greater than 100 miles per hour
b. Galvani's ideas about nerve impulses was wrong
c. it is possible to experimentally study the function of the nervous system
d. instinct theories were wrong
[c 18 factual]
42. An example of a theory based on the idea of localization of function is:

a. Gall's theory of phrenology
b. Maslow's theory of self-actualization
c. Muller's doctrine of specific nerve energies
d. Galen's theory of separate motor and sensory neurons
[a 18 factual]
43. Gall's proposal that bumps on the skull correspond to specific mental abilities was
called:
a. instinct
b. depression
c. situational factors
d. phrenology
[d 18 factual]
44. Which of the following is NOT true about drive theory?

a. it was first introduced by Woodworth (1918)
b. it proposed that motivated behavior occurred in response to changing bodily needs
c. it was a precursor to research on how the brain controls behavior
d. it was strongly promoted by Freud in 1900
[d 20 factual]
45. Researchers such as Köhler and Tolman, in the early part of the 20th century argued
that:
a. behavior is the result of stimulus-response connections
b. behavior can be seen as the result of drives within the organism
c. organisms engage in active information processing
d. unconscious desires are the basis of human behavior
[c 20 conceptual]
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46. Two metaphors that have provided the framework for research in motivation are:
a. the machine metaphor and the Godlike metaphor
b. the drive metaphor and the cognitive metaphor
c. the sensory nerves and motor nerves metaphor
d. the ghost in the machine metaphor and the Andromeda metaphor
[a 20 factual]
47. The most fundamental process of life is

a. consciousness
b. mitosis
c. evolution
d. reproduction
[d 21 factual]
48. The mechanism for maintaining genetic information is called:

a. metabolism
b. reproduction
c. evolution
d. hedonism
[b 21 factual]
49. The process through which a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells is
called _____ ; the process through which two specialized cells combine to form a new
cell with genetic information from each cell is called _____.
a. mitosis; meiosis
b. meiosis; evolution
c. mitosis; recombination
d. reproduction; evolution
[a 21 factual]
50. Sexual reproduction has several evolutionary advantages. Which of the following is
NOT an advantage?
a. it increases genetic variability
b. it allows repair of genetic information within the gene pool
c. it allows rapid expansion of beneficial mutations within the gene pool
d. it limits the spread of new combinations of genetic information in the gene pool
[d 23 conceptual]
51. In humans and some other primates, such as Bonobos, sexual behavior:
a. almost always is linked to reproduction
b. is strictly regulated by female receptivity
c. often occurs for reasons not directly related to reproduction
d. rarely occurs for reasons of reproduction
[c 24 conceptual]
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52. Evolution can be defined as:

a. the progressive change of organisms through time
b. the continuity of species through time
c. survival of the fittest at a particular time
d. the sum total of experiences of an individual
[a 25 factual]
53. Natural selection influences all characteristics of genes except which of the
following?
a. viability
b. fertility
c. fecundity
d. activation
[d 26 factual]
54. _____ is to mating success as _____ is to number of offspring.

a. Viability; fecundity
b. Fertility; fecundity
c. Fecundity; viability
d. Fertility; viability
[b 26 conceptual]
55. Mating rituals in different species may be related to which of the following
characteristics of genes?
a. viability
b. fecundity
c. fertility
d. opportunity
[c 26 factual]
56. In some species bright coloration in males or elaborate male behaviors may be related
to which of the following?
a. viability
b. sexual selection
c. genetic packets
d. reproductive strategies
[b 27 factual]
57. When there is competition for mates among members of an animal species, usually
the female makes the choice of a sexual partner. This is called:
a. sexual selection
b. survival of the fittest
c. fecundity
d. viability
[a 27 factual]
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58. The finding that women are more attracted to men who have the necessary resources
for supporting both the women and any children they produce is predicted by the:
a. parental investment model
b. natural selection
c. fecundity
d. viability
[a 27-28 factual]
59. A genetically programmed bit of behavior that occurs when circumstances are
appropriate and that requires no learning of the behavior is called:
a. reproductive value
b. instinct
c. ethological action pattern
d. natural selection
[b 28 factual]
60. According to evolutionary psychology, reproductive value in human females is

associated with:
a. age and wisdom
b. youthfulness and health
c. wealth and social status
d. education and beauty
[b 28 factual]
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Genetic Contributions to Motivated Behavior
[Note: After each question, the correct answer, the textbook page from which it comes, and the
question type is provided.]
1. According to Eibl-Eibesfeldt (1972), the "eyebrow flick," or brief lifting of the eyebrows in
humans, signals:
a. recognition of someone who is familiar
b. recognition of someone who is a possible threat
c. the first move in an aggressive encounter
d. an intention of courtship
[a 35 factual]
2. A genetically programmed bit of behavior that occurs when circumstances are appropriate
and that require no learning is called:
a. habit
b. instinct
c. imprinting
d. inhabitation
[b 36 factual]
3. Among the problems with the early instinct theories was the idea of the nominal fallacy,
which means that:
a. labeling or naming something does not explain it
b. the idea of instincts was a fallacy; there are no such things as instincts
c. instincts are either inhibited or become habits
d. instincts are the same as learned behaviors
[a 36 factual]
4. Which of the following did William James NOT believe about instincts? Instincts were:
a. similar to reflexes
b. elicited by sensory stimuli
c. only seen in animals
d. occur blindly the first time
[c 36 conceptual]
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5. Which of the following was NOT a component of instincts, according to William

McDougall?
a. cognition
b. learning
c. emotion
d. conation
[b 37 conceptual]
6. According to William McDougall, which of the following is NOT true?

a. instincts consist of cognitive, affective and conative components
b. all behavior is instinctive
c. some instinctive behavior is purposive
d. instincts can never be changed or modified
[d 37 conceptual]
7. The anthropomorphic method of analysis used by McDougall:

a. stresses the continuity between humans and animals
b. clearly distinguished between instinct and learning
c. is recognized today as being too objective
d. could only be applied to animals
[a 38 conceptual]
8. Which of the following is NOT a valid criticism of early instinct theories?

a. arbitrary lists of instincts do not help us understand behaviors
b. scientists do not agree on how many types of instincts exist
c. behaviors are responses to both internal and external stimuli
d. the idea that behavior may come from genetic programs
[d 39 conceptual]
9. The branch of biology that concerns itself with the study of the evolution, development and
function of behavior of animals and humans in their natural habitats is called:
a. anthropology
b. psychology
c. ethology
d. ethnography
[c 39 factual]
10. A list of all behaviors observed in a species is called:

a. an ethogram
b. a species gram
c. a species list
d. an ethnographic list
[a 40 factual]
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11. According to Craig (1918), _____ is to well-coordinated, fixed patterns of responding as

_____ is to restless, searching, adaptive behavior.
a. consummatory; appetitive
b. appetitive; consummatory
c. taxis; fixed action pattern
d. displacement; taxis
[a 40 factual]
12. According to ethological theory, behaviors are inhibited by:

a. fixed action patterns
b. appetitive action patterns
c. innate releasing mechanisms
d. learned releasing mechanisms
[c 40 factual]
13. Environmental stimuli which act as keys to allow behavior to occur are called:
a. innate releasing mechanisms
b. sign stimuli
c. fixed action patterns
d. action specific energy
[b 40 factual]
14. In Tinbergen's study of mating in stickleback fish, the female triggers the male courtship
ritual. She would be called the:
a. social releaser
b. appetitive behavior
c. action specific energy
d. innate releasing mechanism
[a 40 conceptual]
15. An example of a _____ stimulus is when a bird prefers an egg that is larger than its normal-
size egg.
a. social
b. supernormal
c. subliminal
d. extraordinary
[b 40 conceptual]
16. Rowland's (1989) finding that female sticklebacks preferred dummy males who were larger
than normal male sticklebacks fits ethological theory because it shows how:
a. mate size is important in the mating behavior of sticklebacks
b. preference for a superoptimal male stimulus does not provide advantages
c. organisms' reactions to environmental stimuli are learned
d. males are able to interact with females
[a 40 conceptual]
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17. The response that a key stimulus releases is called the:

a. fixed action pattern
b. stimulation response
c. innate action pattern
d. superoptimal response
[a 41 factual]
18. Which of the following is NOT a property of a fixed action pattern? The fixed action pattern
is:
a. stereotyped
b. independent of immediate external control
c. entirely learned
d. spontaneous
[c 41-42 factual]
19. According to the text, the main difference between taxes and fixed action patterns (FAPs) is:
a. taxes are innate and FAPs are learned
b. FAPs are innate and taxes are learned
c. taxes are responsive to change, but FAPs are not
d. taxes are unresponsive to change, while FAPs are modifiable
[c 42 conceptual]
20. Low intensity, incomplete responses indicating that energy is beginning to accumulate in an
instinctive behavior system is typical of which type of behavior?
a. fixed action patterns
b. intention movements
c. prepared behaviors
d. appetitive behaviors
[b 43 factual]
21. In an encounter with another person, changing one's stance by shifting one's weight and
increasing one's distance from the other person is an example of:
a. an intention movement
b. an appetitive behavior
c. a fixed action pattern
d. a learned behavior
[a 43 factual]
22. If two or more sign stimuli are present simultaneously, which general type of behavior is
likely to result?
a. aggressive
b. conflict
c. dominant
d. displacement
[b 44 factual]
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23. The alternating between attack and escape responses of a male stickleback when it meets
another male intruding in its territory is an example of what type of behavior?
a. displacement
b. redirected behavior
c. simultaneous ambivalent behavior
d. successive ambivalent behavior
[d 44 factual]
24. When two equally strong motives are in conflict and are inhibiting each other, what type of
behavior is likely to occur?
a. displacement
[a 44 factual]
25. Which of the following is NOT a category of conflict behavior?

a. successive ambivalent behavior
c. reaction chain behavior
d. ethological displacement
[c 44 conceptual]
26. The arched back of a cat may be an expression of two motives (for example, to attack and to
flee), which would be an example of which type of behavior?
a. displacement
[c 44 factual]
27. If a person's boss yells at her at work, and she comes home and yells at her kids, it could be
an example of:
a. ethological displacement
b. simultaneous ambivalent behavior
c. redirected behavior
d. ethological enhancement activity
[c 44 conceptual]
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28. In the mating behavior of the stickleback, males and females perform certain behaviors in an
alternating sequence known as:
a. a reaction chain
b. a fixed action chain
c. a species-typical chain
d. imprinting
[a 44 factual]
29. A socialization process in which a young individual forms an attachment to its parents is
called:
a. imprinting
b. social learning
c. social signaling
d. instinctive attachment
[a 45 factual]
30. The object of attachment is _____, while the process of becoming attached is _____.
a. innate; learned
b. learned; innate
c. instinctive; innate
d. fixed; variable
[b 46 factual]
31. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of imprinting as described in the text?
Imprinting:
a. occurs most readily during a sensitive period of the organism's life
b. is permanent and irreversible
c. is independent of reinforcement
d. is only effective for females
[d 46 conceptual]
32. After hatching, a graylag goose follows the first moving object it sees, for example, a
person. Later, at sexual maturity, the goose shows no interest in conspecifics (other graylag
geese). This case would be an example of:
a. instinct
b. social learning
c. imprinting
d. reward
[c 46 conceptual]
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33. According to the text, the _____ program is genetically established and is modifiable, while
the _____ program is genetically established, but is not modifiable.
a. open; closed
b. closed; open
c. variable; fixed
d. open; fixed
[a 48 factual]
34. According to Seligman (1970), _____ behaviors are either instinctive or very easily learned,
while _____ behaviors involve the formation of associations between events and responses.
a. prepared; contraprepared
b. prepared; unprepared
c. contraprepared; prepared
d. unprepared; prepared
[b 48 factual]
35. Trying to teach a dog to yawn for food is apparently impossible. Seligman would classify
this behavior as:
a. unprepared
b. contraprepared
c. prepared
d. unprepared
[b 48 conceptual]
36. Organisms with short life spans would be more likely to have _____ programs, while
longer-lived organisms would be more likely to benefit from _____ programs.
a. closed; open
b. open; closed
c. short; long
d. fixed; flexible
[a 48 factual]
37. According to Eibl-Eibesfeldt (1972) and other researchers, many facial expressions in
humans:
a. are learned at an early age
b. are extremely variable from culture to culture
c. cannot be properly interpreted by scientists
d. may signal recognition or other social communication
[d 49 factual]
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38. An important aspect of the shyness studies of Kagan and colleagues (1988) is that it shows:
a. that certain traits like shyness are entirely genetic, regardless of environment
b. that certain traits like shyness are entirely learned, regardless of genetics
c. shyness is due entirely to cultural norms
d. how nature and nurture interact to produce some behaviors
[d 50 conceptual]
39. According to ethologists, which of the following is NOT true about eye contact?
a. it may signal a potential threat
b. it may indicate liking or attraction
c. it may provide information or communicate feelings
d. it is relevant only in close interpersonal relationships
[d 52 conceptual]
40. Which of the following is NOT a function of intraspecific aggression?

a. to spread conspecifics out over a larger physical area
b. to provide the strongest animals with the best territories
c. to provide protection of the young from predators
d. to allow the weakest animal to be killed, insuring "survival of the fittest"
[d 54 conceptual]
41. Studies done by Ekman and others indicate that

a. many human facial expressions might be considered universal
b. human facial expressions vary from culture to culture around the world
c. facial expressions are not important for communication among humans
d. appeasement gestures help initiate violent or aggressive behaviors between people
[a 50 conceptual]
42. Human adults tend to retain juvenile traits into adulthood more than other primates. This is
called:
a. juvenile plasticity
b. neoteny
c. stereotypy
d. appeasement
[b 51 conceptual]
43. “Hair flipping” behavior in human females, ritualized flight, and smiling then looking away
can all be construed as what type of behavior?
a. dominant
b. submissive
c. flirting
d. aggressive
[c 52 conceptual]
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44. According to Mattingly and others, speech and language:

a. may serve as both a representation of our experiences and as a phonetic releaser system
b. have no genetic component, only learned components
c. are entirely innate
d. can be learned only during a critical period from birth to two years of age
[a 53 factual]
45. Three major types of intraspecific aggression mentioned by Lorenz in his book, On
Aggression, are:
a. predatory attack, mobbing behavior, and critical reaction
b. quiet biting attack, mobbing behavior, and critical reaction
c. defensive attack, mob attack, and predatory attack
d. group attack, group reaction, and mobbing behavior
[a 54 factual]
46. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of intraspecific aggression?

a. encourages mobbing behavior
b. spreads animals out
c. strongest animals get best territories
d. protects young from predators
[a 54 conceptual]
47. According to ethologists and evolutionary psychologists,

a. no links exist between sexual and aggressive behaviors.
b. aggressive motivation and sexual motivation appear to be closely related
c. aggression has always been maladaptive throughout our evolutionary history
d. aggression is the dominant force of nature for all animals
[b 56 conceptual]
48. Researchers who investigate how animals interpret information, or who study whether or not
animals have conscious awareness, most likely would be in the field of:
a. cognitive neuroscience
b. animal development
c. cognitive ethology
d. experimental psychology
[c 57 factual]
49. A relatively new field of research, defined as "the analysis of the human mind as a collection
of evolved mechanisms, the contexts that activate those mechanisms and the behavior generated
by those mechanisms" is known as:
a. cognitive neuroscience
b. evolutionary psychology
c. biological psychology
d. positive psychology
[b 58 factual]
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50. Evolutionary psychologists are interested in evolved mechanisms that helped resolve
specific _____ concerned with survival or reproduction.
a. interspecific aggression
b. intraspecific aggression
c. fixed action patterns
d. adaptive problems
[d 58 factual]
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Physiological Mechanisms of Arousal
1. The arousal approach to motivation argues that we can best understand behavior by
understanding how the organism:
a. is stressed
b. displays homeostasis
c. becomes activated
d. the Yerkes-Dodson law
[c 62 factual]
2. According to the inverted-U function, performance:

a. peaks at some midrange level of arousal
b. peaks at low levels of arousal, only
c. peaks at high levels of arousal, only
d. is not related to arousal level
[a 62-63 factual]
3. Bremer (1937) found that if the brain stem is cut between the medulla and the spinal cord, the
animal:
a. sleeps constantly
b. goes through its normal wake-sleep cycle
c. is no longer able to sleep
d. cannot perform the inverted-U function
[b 63 factual]
4. Sue has very high arousal (stress) this week. According to the inverted-U function, her
performance in class will probably be:
a. the best of her life
b. good
c. excellent
d. poor
[d 63 conceptual]
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5. Moruzzi and Magoun (1949) found that stimulation of the reticular activating system caused:
a. beta wave activity
b. alpha wave activity
c. sleep
d. sexual behavior
[a 64 factual]
6. According to Hebb's theory, sensory information serves two functions, which are:
a. arousal and direction
b. cue and arousal
c. stimulation and direction
d. cue and stimulation
[b 65 factual]
7. According to studies by Ekman and others:

a. no changes in autonomic activities are discernible for emotions such as disgust or anger
b. autonomic changes may be triggered by contractions of specific facial muscles
c. there is no relationship between measures of behavioral, cortical and autonomic arousal
d. emotional reactions are not fully measureable physiologically
[b 67 conceptual]
8. John wakes at the same time each morning, even without an alarm clock. What BEST explains
this finding?
a. circadian rhythm
b. solar eclipse
c. hormone levels
d. neurotransmitters
[a 69 conceptual]
9. Sleep can be described as

a. a state of no arousal
b. a state of no behavior
c. having a strong relationship to motivation
d. the absence of behavior and arousal
[c 68 conceptual]
10. According to current research, sleep

a. is totally controlled by dreams
b. is controlled by a circadian process that determines when we wake up
c. deprivation leads to severe mental health problems or death in humans
d. is a state of complete relaxation
[b 68-69 conceptual]
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11. Which stage or stages of sleep are called NREM?

a. stages 1 through 4
b. stage 1 only
c. stages 2 and 3 only
d. stage 4
[a 70 factual]
12. Mary is dreaming. What stage of sleep is she MOST likely in?
a. REM
b. stage 2
c. stage 3
d. NREM
[a 70 conceptual]
13. The stage of sleep that contains a mix of theta, beta, and alpha waves is:
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stage 4
d. REM
[d 70 factual]
14. Snoring commonly occurs during

a. REM sleep
b. NREM sleep
c. stage 1 sleep
d. any stage of sleep
[b 71 factual]
15. What is the normal portion of sleep time spent in REM sleep in adults?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d. 50%
[c 71 factual]
16. Most REM sleep occurs:

a. when we first fall asleep
b. early in the night
c. in the middle of the night
d. later in the night
[d 71 factual]
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17. The best outward indicator of REM sleep is:

a. a combination of rapid eye movements and tense muscles
b. snoring
c. loss of muscle tone (temporary paralysis)
d. slow, deep breathing
[c 72 factual]
18. Research has shown that:

a. most dreams have a short duration, but can last up to an hour
b. most dreams tend to involve positive emotions
c. dreams later in the night tend to draw on events of the previous day
d. the average person spends 300 minutes dreaming each night
[a 72 conceptual]
19. Paradoxical sleep is another name for:

a. NREM sleep
b. daydreaming
c. REM sleep
d. narcolepsy
[c 72 factual]
20. Domhoff argues that:

a. there is continuity between waking thoughts and dreams
b. dreams tend to be totally independent from each other
c. waking thoughts and dreams are unrelated
d. dreams depend largely on the hindbrain
[a 73 conceptual]
21. Revonsuo proposed that dreaming functions to simulate threatening events and to allow us to
rehearse behaviors associated with perceiving threats and avoiding them. This is called the:
a. conscious threats and avoidance theory
b. threat simulation theory
c. simulation of fear approach
d. simulated fear law
[b 73 factual]
22. Webb (1986) found that sleep deprivation leads to:

a. decline in ability to sustain performance on short, simple tasks
b. decline in the ability to sustain performance on long, complex tasks
c. decline in accuracy
d. heightened awareness during thought problems
[b 74 factual]
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23. Modest amounts of sleep deprivation of depressed patients tends to:

a. act as an antidepressant
b. make them angry
c. make them suicidal
d. reduce their REM sleep once they are allowed to sleep
[a 74 factual]
24. Dement reported that when sleepers are repeatedly awakened during REM sleep:
a. they learn not to dream
b. there is no change in their dreaming pattern
c. there is a slight increase in dreaming
d. REM rebound occurs
[d 74 factual]
25. All of the following neurotransmitters promote arousal EXCEPT:

a. acetylcholine
b. norepinephrine
c. GABA
d. serotonin
[c 75-76 conceptual]
26. Which of the following is NOT evidence that adenosine may be involved in the chemical
induction of sleep?
a. adenosine is produced by brain activity
b. adenosine inhibits the RAS
c. adenosine has an inhibitory effect on neurons than maintain arousal
d. caffeine blocks the receptor sites for adenosine
[b 78 conceptual]
27. Which of the following is most strongly suggested as the main neurotransmitter promoting
sleep?
a. adenosine
b. acetylcholine
c. norepinephrine
d. histamine
[a 78 factual]
28. When the body is forced to cope with or adapt to a changed situation, it is called:
a. coping
b. situational adjustment
c. bodily physical changes
d. stress
[d 82 factual]
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29. Hormones are described by the authors as;

a. chemical signals that act near their point of release in the body
b. chemicals which changed the rate of other chemical reactions in the body
c. chemical signals which operate by reaching receptors across a synapse
d. chemical signals that regulate or coordinate the activity of distant organs
[d 83 factual]
30. The master gland within the endocrine system is the:

a. pituitary gland
b. adrenal gland
c. thyroid gland
d. hypothalamus
[a 83 factual]
31. Among the major effects of stress is the activation of the:

a. parasympathetic nervous system
b. exocrine glands
c. endocrine glands
d. reticular formation
[c 83 factual]
32. The general effect of release of epinephrine and hydrocortisone into the blood stream is:
a. decreasing blood sugar, heart rate, and blood pressure
b. increasing blood sugar, decreasing heart rate, and blood pressure
c. increasing blood sugar, heart rate, and blood pressure
d. decreasing blood sugar, increasing heart rate, and blood pressure
[c 84 factual]
33.. Selye named the initial stage of our response to a stressor the:
a. resistance stage
b. alarm reaction
c. refractory stage
d. exhaustion stage
[b 84 factual]
34. The General Adaptive Syndrome is defined as how the body reacts to:
a. all stressors
b. only infectious diseases
c. only violence and abuse
d. environmental pollution, such as toxic chemicals
[a 84 factual]
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35. The General Adaptive Syndrome:

a. is always beneficial
b. shows different expression of stage sequence in different individuals
c. sometimes results in specific diseases of adaptation
d. is always of short duration
[c 85 factual]
36. According to the Social Readjustment Rating Scale, which of the following events would
have the highest score?
a. divorce
b. Christmas
c. beginning school
d. marriage
[a 86 factual]
37. In studying the effects of life-change on illness, some studies involved individuals who had
experienced suspect stress related illness being asked to indicate when specific life changes and
specific illnesses occurred. This type of study is generally called a:
a. cohort study
b. retrospective study
c. double blind study
d. prospective study
[b 86 factual]
38. Which of the following is the most important criticism of life-change research?
a. there is no correlation between life-change and disease
b. predictions of disease or health are subjective and not scientific
c. individuals vary greatly in their ability to withstand stress
d. everyone shows the same responses to stress
[c 98 factual]
39. Which of the following is NOT a possible buffer for the disease causing effects of stress?
a. having a humorous expressive style
b. having a pessimistic explanatory style
c. hardiness
d. having alternate plans ready
[b 89 conceptual]
40. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hardiness?

a. consideration
b. commitment
c. control
d. challenge
[a 89 conceptual]
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41. Social support theory:

a. has shown that social support may be more effective for men than for women
b. explains why stress is harmful to social relationship
c. proposes that social relationships help buffer the effects of stress
d. has shown that social support may be more effective for women than for men
[a 90 conceptual]
42. Some studies suggest that social support as a buffer for stress related disease is:
a. equally effective for men and women
b. more effective for women
c. more effective for men
d. less effective for the young than for the old
[c 90 factual]
43. Explanatory style concerns _____, whereas expressive style concerns _____.
a. the ways we explain events; the ways we express our reaction to events
b. humor vs. crying; optimism vs. pessimism
c. way of coping; attributions
d. how men cope; how women cope
44. A field of psychology that deals with relationships between behavior and health/illness is
called:
a. behavioral psychology
b. behavioral pharmacology
c. medical psychology
d. health psychology
[d 92 factual]
45. Psychoneuroimmunology is a discipline that studies the relationship between:

a. behavior and cancer
b. behavior, the nervous system and the immune system
c. mental health the immune system
d. exercise and the immune system
[b 92-93 factual]
46. An inert substance that people report makes them feel better is referred to as a:
a. relaxant
b. mood swing
c. placebo
d. psychoimmune function
[c 95 factual]
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47. A refractory period of 10 to 30 minutes in the human sexual response cycle is most
characteristic of:
a. older women
b. older men
c. younger women
d. younger men
[d 96 factual]
48. Masters and Johnson have identified ____ stages of sexual arousal:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2
[a 96 factual]
49. Myotonia refers to:

a. a decrease in muscle tone throughout the body
b. an increase in muscle tone throughout the body
c. the concentration of blood in certain areas of the body
d. the draining of blood from various locations in the body
[b 96 factual]
50. Mary has lost her sexual desire, a condition termed:

a. hypoactive sexual desire
b. arousal deviation
c. refractory contingent
d. plateau evasion
[a 97 conceptual]
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CHAPTER 4 – Test Bank

Physiological Mechanisms of Regulation
1. Which of the following is NOT a taste receptor on the tongue?

a. sweet
b. sour
c. vegetable
d. umami
[c 101 conceptual]
2. The finding that an individual exposed to an unchanging diet will eat less than if an individual
had access to a varied diet is called:
a. variability hypothesis
b. sensory specific satiety
c. sameness sensory theory
d. dietary need for change
[b 103 factual]
3. Questions concerning why we ingest food or water may involve studying all of these
EXCEPT:
a. homeostatic mechanisms
b. memory processes
c. stimulus qualities of food
d. the cerebellum
[d 103 conceptual]
4. The observation that an animal or person exposed to an unchanging diet will eat less than if
they had access to a variety of foods has been called the:
a. Ziegarnik effect
b. Law of effect
c. Yerkes-Dodson Law
d. sensory specific satiety
[d 103 factual]
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5. Three components of food are:

a. carbohydrates, fats, proteins
b. carbohydrates, amino acids, proteins
c. triglycerides, cholesterol, glucose
d. amino acids, lipids, glucose
[a 103 factual]
6. Which of the following is NOT true of the local theory of motivation?

a. it assumes that signals controlling hunger and thirst are produced by the brain
b. it was based on Cannon and Washburn's experiments with swallowed balloons
c. it assumes signals controlling hunger are produced in the peripheral organs of the body
d. it has been shown to be inadequate to explain hunger and thirst
[a 105 conceptual]
7. A _____ theory of motivation assumes that signals that control motives such as hunger are
produced in the peripheral body organs.
a. central
b. controllable
c. local
d. hypothalamic
[c 105 factual]
8. A specific brain structure known to be involved in regulating such behaviors as feeding,

drinking, sexual behavior, fear, and aggressiveness is the:
a. cerebellum
b. thalamus
c. pituitary gland
d. hypothalamus
[d 106 factual]
9. The _____ model assumes that regulatory mechanisms exist within the body that sample the
internal environment and when the body moves away from optimum generates motivation to
return to a balanced state.
a. balanced
b. homeostatic
c. central
d. localized
[b 107 factual]
10. A homeostatic mechanism that controls when we eat and how much we eat is called:
a. long-term regulation
b. generativity regulation
c. sensitivity selection
d. short-term regulation
[d 107 factual]
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11. In animals, research has shown that lesions to the ventromedial hypothalamus:
a. help the animal maintain optimal weight
b. produce hyperphagia
c. cause the animal to become anorexic
d. produce adipsia
[b 108 factual]
12. Animals with lesions to the lateral hypothalamus show:

a. hyperphagia
b. aphagia
c. dyskinesia
d. aphasia
[b 108 factual]
13. Which of the following is NOT true about the assumptions of the glucostatic theory of
hunger?
a. receptors in the hypothalamus are sensitive to changes in levels of blood glucose
b. decreases in blood sugar detected by receptors in the LH trigger eating
c. increases in blood sugar detected by receptors in the VMH inhibit eating
d. the LH has sole control over hunger and eating
[d 109 conceptual]
14. Relative to the glucostatic theory of hunger all of the following are true about research
EXCEPT that research has:
a. shown that a dual system of excitatory and inhibitory centers controls eating behavior
b. failed to uphold the idea of a dual system of excitatory and inhibitory centers
c. shown that lesions to the LH result in other behavior deficits
d. shown that the LH and VMH are involved to some extent in regulating hunger motivation
[a 109 conceptual]
15. Stretch receptors, which signal motivation to turn off hunger, have been located in the:
a. hypothalamus
b. liver
c. duodenum
d. stomach
[d 110 factual]
16. Research has shown that the hormone _____ acts as an appetite stimulant whereas the
hormone _____ acts as an appetite suppressant.
a. ghrelin; obestatin
b. CCK; ghrelin
c. obestatin; ghrelin
d. CCK; GLP-1
[a 110 conceptual]
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17. The hormone CCK is:

a. found in greater than normal amounts in genetically obese rats
b. missing entirely in genetically obese rats
c. about one-quarter the amount of normal in genetically obese rats
d. the chief neurotransmitter in the pancreas
[c 112 factual]
18. Research shows that the hormone _____, which is secreted by the upper intestine in
response to food, signals the brain to stop eating.
a. CCK
b. insulin
c. amylin
d. 2-deoxyglucose
[a 112 conceptual]
19. Which of the following statements about short-term regulation of feeding is NOT correct?
Short term regulation of feeding:
a. is probably controlled by a glucose-sensitive system
b. is probably accomplished by receptors in the duodenum and/or liver
c. may be influenced by a feedback system between the liver and the hypothalamus
d. is influenced by the level of CCK in the blood
[c 112 conceptual]
20. The set-point theory of long-term regulation of body weight is:

a. a glucostatic theory
b. a lipostatic theory
c. an internal theory
d. an external theory
[b 113 factual]
21. Research by Keesey and others has shown that after lesions to the LH, animals:
a. are unable to eat or drink
b. regulate their eating to maintain a lower body set-point
c. eat more to make up for previous lack of eating
d. gain weight to match their new set-point
[b 113 conceptual]
22. Long-term regulation of eating behavior most likely:

a. is impossible to understand based on current research
b. involves a system capable of detecting changes in the body's fat stores
c. involves a system that detects blood glucose levels
d. depends on stretch receptors in the stomach
[b 113 factual]
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23. A hormone produced by fat cells and released into the bloodstream in direct proportion to
the amount of energy available in the fat stores is:
a. ghrelin
b. leptin
c. CCK
d. obestatin
[b 114 factual]
24. Three examples of failure of homeostatic regulation of food intake are:

a. aphasia, hyperphagia, dyskinesia
b. anorexia nervosa, bulimia, obesity
c. anorexia nervosa, hyperphagia, major affective disorder
d. dyskinesia, dysphoria, anorexia nervosa
[b 115 factual]
25. All of the following are symptoms of anorexia nervosa except:

a. loss of at least 15% of body weight due to restriction of food intake
b. amenorrhea
c. chronic bingeing and purging
d. intense fear of gaining weight
[c 116 factual]
26. Which of the following are physiological changes that occur during anorexia nervosa?
a. dangerous drop in blood pressure and breathing rate
b. atrophy of brain tissues and enlargement of fluid-filled spaces in the brain
c. increase in heart rate and breathing
d. impairment of various endocrine system functions
[c 118 conceptual]
27. Abnormal levels of the neurotransmitter _____ have been associated with anorexia nervosa.
a. dopamine
b. serotonin
c. norepinephrine
d. CCK
[b 118 factual]
28. Explanations for anorexia nervosa have changed from time to time. Today the best
explanation seems to be:
a. anorexia is purely physiological
b. anorexia is purely psychological
c. both physiological and psychological mechanisms are involved
d. anorexia cannot be explained
[c 120 conceptual]
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29. A primary difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia is that anorexia patients:
a. refuse to eat while bulimia patients eat enormous amounts of food in short periods of time
b. are overly concerned with food while bulimia patients do not show any concern for food
c. cannot control their eating while bulimia patients carefully control their food intake
d. have a significantly higher IQ compared to bulimia patients
[a 120 conceptual]
30. Which of the following is NOT true concerning the diagnostic criteria for bulimia?
a. recurrent episodes of binge eating
b. feeling of lack of control over eating behaviors
c. regular use of laxatives or self-induced vomiting to prevent weight-gain
d. losing at least 15% of body weight
[d 120 conceptual]
31. Among bulimic women, which of the following is NOT true? They tend to:
a. report more negative affective states than normal women
b. have difficulty handing emotions
c. be dependent on drugs such as alcohol or cocaine
d. come from lower socioeconomic conditions
[d 120 conceptual]
32. Studies of the relationship of anorexia nervosa and bulimia to major affective disorder have
suggested that:
a. depression can cause anorexia or bulimia
b. changed eating patterns are a variant of major affective disorder
c. eating disorders are not correlated with major affective disorder
d. major affective disorders develops after the onset of the eating disorder
[d 121 conceptual]
33. Mary has bulimia. Which of the following is MOST likely a precipitating factor in her binge
eating?
a. loss of object
b. difficulty handling emotions
c. conflict with boss
d. lack of confidence
[b 121 conceptual]
34. Among the theories of bulimia, which emphasizes that idea that bulimia develops as a result
of unrealistic social norms for body shape and appearance?
a. sociocultural theory
b. clinical/psychiatric theory
c. epidemiological/risk factors theory
d. physiological factors theory
[a 122 factual]
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35. A person who has problems with body image, sex role confusion, heavy life stressors and
emotional instability could be at risk for developing bulimia as predicted by which theory?
a. sociocultural theory
b. clinical/psychiatric theory
c. epidemiological/risk factors theory
d. physiological factors approach
[c 122 conceptual]
36. According to Goldbloom and Garfinkel (1990), bulimia may be the result of:
a. increased levels of serotonin in the brain
b. underactivity of serotonin in the brain
c. social learning
d. genetic predisposition
[b 123 factual]
37. The energy a person consumes every day just to maintain bodily functions at rest is called:
a. basal metabolism
b. aerobic metabolism
c. basic energy metabolism
d. anaerobic metabolism
[a 125 factual]
38. Which of the following is the MOST likely factor contributing to increase in body fat as we
age?
a. overeating as a child
b. being female
c. increase in stress
d. reduction in basal metabolism
[d 125 factual]
39. Which of the following factors does NOT help promote obesity, according to Rodin (1981)?
a. dieting
b. having higher than normal insulin levels
c. being sedentary rather than active
d. maintaining a lean body mass
[d 127 conceptual]
40. Hyperinsulinemia contributes to obesity by:

a. increasing the amount of energy stored as fat
b. decreasing hunger
c. inducing binge and purge cycles
d. increasing metabolism rate
[a 127 factual]
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41. Volumetric thirst is associated with _____ while osmometric thirst is associated with _____.
a. homeostatic drinking; nonhomeostatic drinking
b. beer drinking; sweating
c. fluid loss from cells; fluid loss from extracellular spaces
d. fluid loss from extracellular spaces; fluid loss from cells
[d 130-132 factual]
42. ADH is released by the _____ and causes _____.

a. kidney, water retention
b. kidney, diabetes insipidus
c. pituitary, water reabsorption
d. hypothalamus, water retention
[c 131 factual]
43. Blood loss, diarrhea and vomiting can all lead to _____.
a. loss of extracellular fluid or hypovolemia
b. loss of cellular fluid and diabetes insipidus
c. loss of cellular fluid and thirst
d stimulation of the hypothalamus
[a 131 factual]
44. The brain structure that monitors angiotensin levels and stimulates thirst is the:
a. hypothalamus
b. cerebellum
c. thalamus
d. subfornical organ
[d 134 factual]
45. When food is eaten _____ is released by stomach cells leading ultimately to an increase in
drinking.
a. leptin
b. histamine
c. obestatin
d. sodium
[b 135 factual]
46. Which of the following is NOT a male gender specific sexual behavior?
a. intromission
b. thrusting
c. attractivity
d. ejaculation
[c 136 conceptual]
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47. The _____ of the anterior hypothalamus is important in sexual behavior of both males and
females.
a. ventromedial
b. lateral area
c. medial preoptic area
d. serotonin area
[c 138 factual]
48. The hippocampus, hypothalamus, cingulate gyrus, and amygdala are part of the:
a. cerebral cortex
b. sympathetic nervous system
c. limbic system
d. emotional system
[c 140 factual]
49. Which of the following is NOT a type of aggression according to Moyer (1971)?
a. playful
b. predatory
c. territorial
d. irritable
[a 142 conceptual]
50. Aggression that is learned and then maintained through reinforcement is called:
a. inter-male aggression
b. territorial defense
c. instrumental aggression
d. irritable aggression
[c 143 factual]
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Learned Motives: Classical, Instrumental, and
Observational Learning
1. In Pavlov's experiment, removing the UCS and only presenting the CS will eventually lead to:
a. motivation
b. reinforcement
c. extinction
d. learning
[c 150 factual]
2. In Pavlov's classical conditioning experiments, the meat powder was the:

a. UCS
b. CS
c. CR
d. UCR
[a 150 factual]
3. In classical conditioning, the organism is relatively:

a. active
b. alert
c. passive
d. unconscious
[c 151 factual]
4. In an experiment by Pavlov, dogs were required to make finer and finer discriminations
between circles and ellipses. When the dogs could no longer reliably discriminate, they:
a. behaved randomly
b. became passive and depressed
c. became vicious and aggressive
d. developed "neurotic" behavior
[d 152 factual]
5. Pavlov's work with experimental neurosis showed that:

a. instrumental conditioning can lead to motivated behavior
b. classical conditioning can lead to motivated behavior
c. neither classical nor instrumental conditioning is involved in motivated behavior
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d. people can be conditioned to be neurotic

[b 152 conceptual]
6. In Watson's and Rayner's experiment with the infant "Little Albert":

a. the white rat was the UCS causing fear
b. the loud noise caused by striking the metal bar was the UCS for fear
c. the white rat became the CS for fear
d. Watson became the CS for fear
[b 153 factual]
7. Wolpe's therapeutic technique called systematic desensitization:

a. is a type of instrumental conditioning
b. uses an anxiety hierarchy
c. pairs relaxation and real anxiety producing people and activities
d. is based on operant conditioning
[b 154 factual]
8. As it relates to systematic desensitization, the term counterconditioning means:

a. to condition with an aversive stimulus
b. to extinguish a previously acquired response
c. a conditioning procedure in which a negative CS is paired with a positive UCS
d. to condition with an internal CS
[c 154 factual]
9. The research of Mary Cover Jones (1924) demonstrated that:

a. fear can be eliminated through classical conditioning
b. fear is permanent
c. fear is easy to develop
d. instrumental conditioning can reduce fear
[a 154 factual]
10. In intero-exteroceptive conditioning:

a. both the UCS and CS are applied externally but the response is internal
b. both the UCS and CS are applied internally but the response is external
c. the CS is applied internally and the UCS externally
d. the UCS is given internally and the CS is given externally
[c 154 factual]
11. Which of the following is not true of interoceptive conditioning?

a. it requires conscious experience or awareness of the conditioning
b. it is usually unavoidable
c. it can lead to maladaptive behaviors
d. it is more permanent than external classical conditioning
[a 154-155 factual]
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12. In the experiment with the "tasty" and "bright-noisy" water, the footshock group:
a. associated the tasty water with the shock
b. did not associate the tasty water with the shock
c. did not associate the bright-noisy water with the shock
d. did not show any preferences in the study
[b 156 factual]
13. Taste aversion learning is best viewed as:

a. modeling learning
b. classical conditioning
c. instrumental conditioning
d. operant conditioning
[b 156 factual]
14. In the experiment by Garcia and Koelling (1966), a group of rats was exposed to a taste cue
followed by X-rays which made the rats feel sick. Later, these rats:
a. avoided light and sound cues
b. did not avoid the taste cue
c. avoided the taste cue
d. were neutral in their behavior toward the taste cue
[c 156 factual]
15. Taste aversion studies suggest that:

a. organisms are prepared to make some associations more readily than others
b. learned associations are the same across species
c. learned associations are all basically unprepared
d. prepared, unprepared, and contraprepared associations are all accomplished in the same way
[a 157 conceptual]
16. Which one of the following is NOT included in Seligman's preparedness hypothesis?
a. unprepared
b. very prepared
c. contraprepared
d. prepared
[b 157 conceptual]
17. Chemotherapy patients sometimes eat less than they should. Research suggests that this lack
of eating may be caused by:
a. a pre-existing case of anorexia nervosa
b. changes in the nervous system due to the effects of chemotherapy
c. the direct action of the chemotherapy drugs on satiety signals from the stomach
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d. a learned aversion to food eaten near the time of chemotherapy treatment

[d 158 factual]
18. The situation of a child who learns to work hard at school in order to get praise from his
teachers and parents would be an example of:
a. classical conditioning
b. instrumental conditioning
c. interoceptive conditioning
d. latent learning
[b 160 factual]
19. Thorndike (1913) found that the consequences of a response strengthen the connection
between that response and some stimulus in the environment. He called this strengthening the:
a. law of effect
b. Thorndike's learning hypothesis
c. classical conditioning law
d. preparedness hypothesis
[a 160 factual]
20. According to Bolles's (1975) theory of amount of reinforcement effect (AOR):

a. there is a positive relationship between the quality of reinforcement and performance
b. there is a positive relationship between the quantity of reinforcement and performance
c. the amount of reinforcement affects performance is a curvilinear manner
d. greater amounts of reinforcement produce greater persistence of behavior
[b 161 factual]
21. When Crespi (1942) gave rats different amounts of reinforcement for running, he found that:
a. larger rewards slowed the rats down
b. smaller rewards produced the fastest running
c. larger rewards produced faster running
d. amount of reward did not influence running speed
[c 161 factual]
22. A greater quality of reinforcement has which of the following effects upon performance?
a. generally decreases the amount of performance
b. generally improves performance
c. does not alter performance
d. makes performance more resistant to extinction
[b 161-162 factual]
23. In an experiment on the effects of reinforcement on running speed, when a large reward that
the rats had been receiving was changed to a medium reward, their performance declined to
below a group that always received a medium reward. This is called:
a. negative contrast
b. positive contrast
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c. diminishing reward effect

d. quality of reward effect
[a 162 factual]
24. Secondary reinforcers:
a. are intrinsically reinforcing due to their very nature
b. come to control responding due to their association with other reinforcers
c. are such things as water, food, avoidance of pain
d. usually involve a form of latent learning
[b 163 factual]
25. A generalized conditioned reinforcer is:

a. an unlearned reinforcer
b. a reinforcer that conditions people to respond to many situations
c. a reinforcer that only maintains behavior under certain general conditions
d. a stimulus that previously has been paired with several different primary reinforcers
[d 163 factual]
26. A _____ increases the probability of the response that it follows.

a. stimulus
b. motivation
c. reinforcer
d. latent investment
[c 163 factual]
27. A _____ reinforcer is effective because of its very nature, while a _____ reinforcer is
effective only after it has been associated with a primary reinforcer.
a. large; small
b. generalized; automatic
c. primary; conditioned
d. learned; instinctive
[c 163 factual]
28. In a token economy, tokens:

a. replace all reinforcers
b. can be exchanged for other reinforcers at a later time
c. can be used only with humans
d. have been shown to be ineffective in producing desirable results
[b 164 factual]
29. A _____ serves as a reminder of the other reinforcers it can buy.

a. generalized reinforcer
b. token
c. stimulus
d. reinforcing stimulus
[b 164 factual]
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30. In a long-term study of the effects of a token economy on mining safety, results showed that:
a. tokens influenced safety at first, but had no long-term effects
b. tokens generally were not valued by the miners
c. lost-time injuries were reduced significantly at both mines in the study
d. lost-time injuries were reduced at one mine, but not at the other
[c 164-165 factual]
31. In _____ training, a rat is taught the bar press a lever on a schedule of reinforcement. Then
independently the rat is subjected to parings of time and shock. Afterward, the rat will suppress
bar pressing when the tone is on (with no shock).
a. classical conditioning
b. aversion test
c. conditioned emotional response
d. operant conditioning
[c 168 factual]
32. Which of the following is NOT true according to results of Seligman's experiment in which
dogs were given unavoidable shocks? The dogs given unavoidable shocks:
a. were much slower to learn to avoid the shock in a new "controllable" situation
b. were less aggressive in aversive and competitive conditions
c. got better with time
d. could not be prevented from developing learned helplessness
[d 169 conceptual]
33. Which of the following has research on learned helplessness NOT shown?
a. control over the environment is crucial for avoiding helplessness
b. "inoculating" subjects against helplessness can prevent helplessness from developing
c. both rats and humans easily learn to be helpless
d. animals can be taught to gain control over their environments
[c 169 conceptual]
34. According to Seligman (1976), all of the following are symptoms of helplessness EXCEPT:
a. passivity
b. retardation of learning
c. decrease in aggressiveness or competitiveness
d. increase in helplessness with time
[d 170 conceptual]
35. An animal that exhibited symptoms such as slowness to learn new responses, passivity, and
failure to compete effectively for resources might be characterized as displaying _____, according
to Seligman.
a. passive-aggressive tendencies
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b. depression
c. interoceptive conditioning
d. learned helplessness
[d 170 conceptual]
36. According to Bandura, human behavior results from:

a. internal, conflicting forces
b. control from the environment, i.e., reinforcement and punishment
c. interactions between behaviors and the conditions that control the behaviors
d. cognitive factors only
[c 172 factual]
37. Vicarious learning means:

a. learning by observing others
b. classical conditioning
c. emotional learning
d. no schedule of reinforcement
[a 172 factual]
38. According to Bandura's social learning theory, the primary function of reinforcement is:
a. to reduce a social need
b. motivational and informational
c. only motivational
d. only informational
[b 173 factual]
39. The importance of vicarious reinforcement situations is that they show that:
a. we alter our behavior as a result of observing consequences of behavior of others
b. reinforcement lowers inhibitions
c. motivational aspects of reinforcement are not important
d. classical conditioning is essential for pleasure
[a 173 factual]
40. According to Bandura, which of the following is NOT a modeling process in observational
learning?
a. attention
b. retention
c. regulation
d. reproduction
[c 173 conceptual]
41. Little Johnny is watching his father shave. Which modeling process is he exhibiting?
a. attention
b. reproduction
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c. regulation
d. retention
[a 173 conceptual]
42. In a study of human aggressive behavior, Berkowitz and LePage (1967) found that the
presence of a gun:
a. was not noticed by most subjects
b. increased the intensity of shocks given by one subject to another
c. had no influence on the intensity of shocks given by one subject to another
d. served as a situational cue that elicited reduced aggression
[b 175 conceptual]
43. The situation in which an individual reacts aggressively almost without thinking is what
Berkowitz called:
a. instinctive aggression
b. impulsive aggression
c. unconscious aggression
d. learned aggression
[b 175 factual]
44. Studies of rats that learn to go to the correct arm of a T-maze, or to press a lever for the
opportunity to kill a mouse suggest that aggressive behavior:
a. itself may be reinforcing
b. occurs if it is rewarded
c. is caused by genetic predisposition in some rats
d. is influenced only by reinforcement
[a 176 conceptual]
45. When Bandura and his associates conducted experiments on aggression in children, they
found:
a. children do not act aggressively until age five
b. children learn to model aggressive behaviors that they observe in others
c. observing aggressive behavior seems to inhibit the children's own aggression
d. only males were aggressive
[b 176 conceptual]
46. In Bandura's modeled aggression study, children's aggressive behavior toward the _____ was
measured.
a. other children
b. adult bystander
c. Bobo doll
d. experimenter
[c 176 factual]
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47. Research on aggression has shown all of the following EXCEPT:

a. aggression is a basic instinct in humans
b. people who are reinforced for aggressive behavior tend to continue to be aggressive
c. aggression may be due, in part, to classical conditioning
d. individuals can learn to be aggressive by observing aggressive behavior in others
48. Pfaus and colleagues (2001) stated that rats prefer a location that has previously been paired
with a mate for copulation. This phenomenon is called:
a. classical conditioned sex
b. mating location preference
c. sexual habituation
d. conditional place preference
[d 178 factual]
49. The concept of "sexual values" implies that:

a. acceptable sexual behaviors are the same from one culture to another
b. acceptable sexual behaviors depend upon the culture in which one is raised
c. what constitutes acceptable sexual behavior changes as a person ages
d. sexual behavior is often considered valuable
[b 178 conceptual]
50. According to Luria and colleagues (1987), most people learn the rules of sexual behavior
during:
a. early childhood
b. just before puberty
c. adolescence
d. early adulthood
[c 179 factual]
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Incentive Motivation
1. An incentive usually describes some _____ that motivates us.

a. goal object
b. pleasurable event
c. innate urge
d. learned reaction to a stimulus
[a 181 factual]
2. Incentives:
a. motivate behavior
b. are instinctive
c. can be thoughts
d. are only relevant for adults
[a 182 factual]
3. In Crespi's (1942) study, rats that suddenly received smaller rewards for running slowed
down, and rats that suddenly received larger rewards ran faster. These results show that:
a. Hull's concept of drive is true
b. incentives influence learning
c. incentives influence performance
d. incentives are the same as motivation
[c 182 conceptual]
4. Incentive motivation may be thought of as a _____ between the stimulus characteristics of

some goal object and the responses that are directed toward that object.
a. bridge
b. mediator
c. midway point
d. instinctive urge
[b 182 factual]
5. Crespi's research on the effect of the size of reward shows that:

a. large rewards lead to faster learning
b. large rewards lead to slower learning
c. the size of the reward influenced learning, but not performance
d. the size of the reward influenced performance, but not actual learning
[d 182-183 conceptual]
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6. Motivation theorists have taken the position that incentive motivation may be a mediator (M)
between a goal object and the responses that are directed toward that goal object. Which of the
following is NOT one of the ways in which the properties of M have been studied?
a. energizing properties of M
b. emotional properties of M
c. information properties of M
d. transformational properties of M
[d 182 conceptual]
7. According to Amsel's research, partially reinforced animals have:

a. one source of incentive motivation
b. two sources of incentive motivation
c. three sources of incentive motivation
d. four sources of incentive motivation
[b 185 factual]
8. Amsel called the concept that motivation generated by the frustration of nonreward gets
channeled into the response that causes the frustration:
a. conditioning
b. counterconditioning
c. emotion
d. incentives
[b 185 factual]
9. Amsel proposed that the partial frustration responses and their associated stimulus feedback
become _____ to the responses the organism is making.
a. extinguished
b. motivationally exhausted
c. counterconditioned
d. blind
[c 185 factual]
10. The fractional anticipatory goal response mechanism:

a. is currently thought to involve peripheral responses
b. relies on classical conditioning and stimulus feedback for its development
c. assumes anticipatory thought processes
d. has substantial evidence for its existence
[b 185 factual]
11. A rat is reinforced for some of its lever pressing behaviors, but not of others. We could say
that it is on a _____ reinforcement schedule.
a. partial
b. lower level
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c. unfulfilled
d. variable
[a 185 conceptual]
12. The fractional anticipatory response mechanism may be relevant in explaining which of the
following?
a. the cognitive aspects of behavior
b. how incentive motivation develops
c. why certain behaviors persist once they have begun
d. how goals are developed
[c 185 factual]
13. Every time Johnny's dog brings the ball back to him, she gets a reward. The dog is on a(n)
_____ reinforcement schedule.
a. intermittent
b. partial
c. competing
d. continuous
[d 185 conceptual]
14. On a _____ reinforcement schedule the individual is reinforced for every response; but on a
_____ reinforcement schedule, the animal is only reinforced for only some responses.
a. partial; continuous
b. variable; same
c. continuous; partial
d. same; variable
[c 185 conceptual]
15. According to Amsel's theory, what occurs if an individual is unrewarded for a response for
which it was previously rewarded?
a. an unlearned frustration response
b. a learned frustration response
c. an unlearned aggressive response
d. learned helplessness
[a 185 factual]
16. In an experiment by Amsel and Roussel (1952), rats were sometimes fed in one goal box
and then allowed to run to a second goal box where they were also fed. On other trials they
received nothing in the first goal box, but then were fed in the second goal box. On the latter
trials the rats:
a. ran slower to the second goal box
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b. refused to eat in the second goal box

c. ran faster to the second goal box
d. ran at the same speed as in the trials where they were fed at the first goal box
[c 186-187 factual]
17. According to Mowrer's theory of incentives, the emotion of _____ is associated with any
increase in drive, while the emotion of _____ is associated with any decrease in drive.
a. hope, fear
b. fear, hope
c. relief, disappointment
d. disappointment, relief
[b 188 factual]
18. Which of the following are the four primary emotions generated by incentives as described
by Mowrer?
a. fear, hope, love, despair
b. disappointment, despair, fear, relief
c. fear, hope, relief, disappointment
d. anger, frustration, love, hope
[c 188 factual]
19. Mowrer's view of incentive motivation suggests all of the following EXCEPT:
a. rewards and punishment generate motivation
b. four basic emotions are associated with incentive motivation
c. increases in drive lead to fear, while decreases in drive lead to hope
d. latent learning is often the result of incentives
[d 189 conceptual]
20. Mowrer suggests that _____ stimuli generate _____ that in turn lead to approach or
withdrawal behavior in the situation.
a. affective; perceptions
b. perceptual; affective impulses
c. informational; emotions
d. emotional; motivational impulses
[c 189 conceptual]
21. According to Mowrer's theory, incentives generate _____, while according to Tolman's
theory, incentives provide _____.
a. emotions; information
b. emotions, conditioning
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c. information; emotions
d. rewards; reinforcement
[a 190 conceptual]
22. Studies of latent learning conclude that:

a. drive reduction is necessary for learning to occur
b. reinforcement is necessary for learning to occur
c. incentives are necessary for learning that has occurred to become apparent
d. incentives are necessary for learning to occur
[c 190 conceptual]
23. The theories of Hull, Spence and Mowrer can be seen as _____ models, while Tolman's
theory can be seen as a more _____ model.
a. reductionist; mechanical
b. mechanical; rationalist
c. reductionist; holistic
d. cognitive; mechanical
[c 190 factual]
24. An individual that has had several experiences with a goal can be said to have developed a
_____ about the goal, according to Tolman.
a. frustration response
b. conditioned emotional response
c. cognitive expectation
d. dependency
[c 190 factual]
25. Tolman viewed behavior as:

a. purposive
b. having emotional contexts
c. endproduct of reductionism
d. mechanistic
[a 190 factual]
26. The finding that learning that is not acted on until motivation is present is what Tolman
termed:
a. latent learning
b. motivated learning
c. emotional-motivation connection
d. hidden learning
[a 190 conceptual]
27. Which of the following did Tolman stress in his theory of incentive motivation?
a. a holistic point of view
b. a reductionism viewpoint
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c. behaviorism in overt situations

d. emotions
[a 190 factual]
28. According to Tolman, which of the following is NOT true about latent learning?
a. reinforcement is necessary for learning to occur
b. learning may take place in the absence of reinforcement
c. performance, not learning, is influenced by reinforcement
d. learning may not be apparent at the time it occurs
[a 190 conceptual]
29. According to Bolles and Moot, _____ motivate ongoing behavior and reinforce completed
responses.
a. perceptual indications
b. predictive cues
c. emotions
d. incentives
[b 191 factual]
30. Secondary reinforcers are:

a. ineffective at motivating behavior
b. innate motivators
c. stimuli that are not as important as primary reinforcers
d. stimuli consistently associated with reinforcement
[d 192 factual]
31. Bindra's model of motivation includes both _____ and _____ as components of a central
motive state.
a. drives; cognitive maps
b. habits; drives
c. drives; incentives
d. cognitions; expectancies
[c 193 factual]
32. Bindra proposed a model of behavior that emphasized the production of the _____ that
activates goal-directed behaviors toward incentive objects.
a. central motive state
b. emotional motivation
c. energized field
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d. self-induced motivational conditioning

[a 193 factual]
33. For incentives, _____ incentives generate approach behavior, and _____ incentives generate
withdrawal behavior.
a. motivation; punishment
b. positive; negative
c. weak; strong
d. positive; negative
[d 193 conceptual]
34. In Klinger's model of human motivation, _____ provide meaning to one's life.
a. drives
b. incentives
c. strivings
d. expectancies
[b 194 factual]
35. Klinger views a goal that a person is willing to expend effort in order to obtain as:
a. a current concern
b. an incentive
c. work
d. a drive
[a 195 factual]
36. In Klinger's model of disengagement, the _____ phase follows the phase of aggression.
a. depression
b. hope
c. acceptance
d. fear
[a 195 factual]
37. Which of the following is NOT one of Klinger's disengagement phases?

a. intimacy
b. primitization
c. aggression
d. depression
[a 195 conceptual]
38. If a person whose goal was to win a science prize instead was the first runner-up and the
person decided to work even harder to win the prize the next year, he or she might be in which of
Klinger's phases of disengagement?
a. recovery
b. depression
c. invigoration
d. aggression
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[c 195 conceptual]
39. In Klinger's theory, mourning can be viewed as:
a. the result of a lost incentive
b. the result of expectancies
c. the result of hopelessness
d. the result of learned helplessness
[a 196 factual]
40. Pheromones are:

a. chemical signals
b. a type of sexual neurotransmitter
c. scents that are produced by males only
d. received by females only
[a 196 factual]
41. The _____ receives pheromone information and sends it to the accessory olfactory bulb to
affect sexual behaviors.
a. olfactory epithelium
b. pheromone cortex
c. primary olfactory stem
d. vomeronasal
[d 197 factual]
42. Martha McClintock (1971) found that pheromones caused women living together to:
a. synchronize menstrual cycles
b. become close friends
c. become more aggressive
d. eliminate menstrual cycles
[a 197 factual]
43. A primary factor in sexual attractiveness is:

a. physical attractiveness
b. social status of each person
c. intellectual ability
d. emotionality
[a 199 factual]
44. According to Symons (1979), all of the following characteristics of females contribute to
their sexual attractiveness to males EXCEPT:
a. youth
b. social status
c. novelty
d. health
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[b 199 conceptual]
45. The human sexual signaling system seems to consist of _____ at a distance and _____ close
up.
a. visual stimuli; touch
b. auditory stimuli; olfactory stimuli
c. pheromones; visual stimuli
d. touch; smell
[a 199 factual]
46. The Coolidge effect illustrates which characteristic of sexual attractiveness?

a. novelty
b. skills
c. appearance
d. youth
[a 201 factual]
47. The idea that women are innately attracted to high-status males is known as the:
a. Coolidge effect
b. Bruce effect
c. selection rule
d. rule of money
[c 201 factual]
48. The one physical trait of males that seems to be innately attractive to women is:
a. large eyes
b. white teeth
c. height
d. muscular back
[c 201 factual]
49. Robinson and Berridge (2001) report that addiction can be understood as being generated
by:
a. pleasure produced by the drug
b. pain caused by withdrawal from the drug
c. craving for the drug
d. opportunity to use the drug
[c 202 factual]
50. Although several neurotransmitters may be involved, one that is often mentioned for its role
in addiction due to its role in producing “reward” in the brain is:
a. acetylcholine
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b. norepinephrine
c. dopamine
d. GABA
[c 203 factual]
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Hedonism: Stimulus Properties of Motivation
1. The phrase "If it feels good, do it" is a simple definition for:

a. feedback
b. drive
c. hedonism
d. homeostasis
[c 206 factual]
2. Philosophers who have been concerned with hedonism do not include:

a. Hobbes
b. Darwin
c. Epicurus
d. Spencer
[b 206 factual]
3. Josh believes that happiness is obtained by seeking pleasure and avoiding pain. His
philosophy represents:
a. free spiritedness
b. homeostasis
c. pleasure drive
d. hedonism
[d 206 conceptual]
4. Troland (1932) divided stimulation into three categories. Which of the following was NOT
one of Troland's categories?
a. antiception
b. neutroception
c. beneception
d. nociception
[a 207 factual]
5. According to Troland's classification for stimuli, those which are pleasant are referred to as:
a. antiception
b. neutroception
c. beneception
d. nociception
[c 207 factual]
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6. Linda loves ice cream. Troland would classify ice cream as:
a. neutroception
b. sugarception
c. beneception
d. nociception
[c 207 conceptual]
7. When Linda is enjoying eating ice cream, the reaction is pleasant. Beebe-Center would call
this reaction:
a. nociception
b. dull pressure
c. sweet pressure
d. bright pressure
[d 207 conceptual]
8. An example of a nociceptive stimulus would be:

a. the smell of a rose
b. a strongly bitter taste
c. a soft sound
d. a pastel painting
[b 207 conceptual]
9. In Young's hedonic theory, a preference test can be used to measure:

a. power
b. duration
c. intensity
d. sign
[c 207 factual]
10. Which of the following is NOT one of the three properties proposed by Young for the
hedonic continuum?
a. power
b. intensity
c. duration
d. sign
[a 208 factual]
11. The best known of modern hedonic theorists is:

a. Spencer
b. Hobbes
c. Young
d. Pfaffmann
[c 208 factual]
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12. Which of the following is NOT a pathological pain state?

a. painalgia
b. causalgia
c. peripheral neuralgia
d. phantom limb pain
[a 210 conceptual]
13. The modulation of pain at the gates within the spinal cord is most probably controlled by:
a. growth hormone from the pituitary
b. acetylcholine
c. adrenaline from the adrenal medulla
d. endogenous opiates
[d 211 factual]
14. Melzack and Wall (1965) proposed the _____ theory of pain that emphasized the role of
higher brain processes in controlling the experience of pain.
a. causalgia pain
b. endogenous pain
c. gate control
d. regulatory
[c 211 factual]
15. A number of studies dealing with novelty, curiosity, and exploration have indicated that:
a. novelty and curiosity initiate internal drives, but exploration is motivated by external stimuli
b. changes in the sensory qualities of the environment lead to motivational changes
c. all motivation is the result of physiological changes
d. changes in the internal environment are totally responsible for motivational changes
[b 213 factual]
16. In Harlow's study with monkeys manipulating puzzles, the reward was:
a. food
b. water
c. opportunity to socialize with other monkeys
d. opportunity to manipulate the puzzles
[d 213 factual]
17. Which of the following is NOT a term used to describe the motive state generated by
external stimuli?
a. curiosity
b. exploratory drive
c. motive state excitement
d. need for stimulation
[c 213 conceptual]
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18. Berlyne suggested that factors such as novelty and uncertainty have motivational properties
because they:
a. stimulate curiosity
b. increase arousal
c. explain surroundings
d. produce relaxation
[b 213 factual]
19. Which of the following statements do not agree with the observations of Berlyne?
a. small changes in arousal are unpleasant
b. small changes in arousal are pleasant
c. arousal is increased by novelty and uncertainty
d. individuals attempt to maintain an optimum level of arousal
[a 213 factual]
20. Hebb suggests that moderate changes in arousal are:

a. reinforcing
b. habituated
c. extinguished
d. discouraged
[a 214 factual]
21. Which of the following is NOT true about early sensory restriction?
a. it may result in convulsive behaviors
b. it may change brain functioning from normal
c. it can produce hyperexcitability
d. its effects are brief rather than long-lasting
[d 214-215 factual]
22. Which of the following did Riesen not see in his dark-reared cats?
a. hyperexcitability
b. increased likelihood of convulsive disorders
c. lethargy
d. localized motor impairment
[c 215 factual]
23. In studies of attachment, which kind of stimulation did investigators find to be most
important?
a. providing contact
b. providing food
c. providing warmth
d. providing movement (rocking)
[a 216 factual]
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24. In Harlow's surrogate mother experiments with infant rhesus monkeys, which of the
following "mothers" was most preferred?
a. terry cloth body
b. wire body with nourishment
c. wire body without nourishment
d. wooden body
[a 216 factual]
25. Harlow reported that baby monkeys developed a strong attachment to the _____ mother as a
result of the _____ provided.
a. wire; cloth
b. cloth; contact comfort
c. cloth; verbal interaction
d. wire; verbal interaction
[b 216 conceptual]
26. Harlow found that regardless of which surrogate mother fed the infant, most time was spent
with the _____ mother.
a. real
b. cloth
c. adult
d. wire
[b 218 factual]
27. When young children are separated from their parents, they will go through a specific series
of behaviors. Which of the following is NOT one in the series?
a. ambivalence
b. protest
c. curiosity
d. detachment
[c 218 factual]
28. Which of the following is NOT a behavioral change that children who are separated from
parents go through?
a. elation
b. protest
c. despair
d. detachment
[a 218 conceptual]
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29. What is the correct sequence of behaviors observed by Bowlby when children are separated
from a parent?
a. detachment, ambivalence, protest, despair
b. arousal, uncertainty, calm
c. protest, despair, detachment, ambivalence
d. despair, protest, ambivalence, detachment
[c 218 factual]
30. Deprivation dwarfism sometimes develops as a result of children being neglected or abused
by their parents. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of deprivation dwarfism?
a. apathy
b. lethargy
c. reduced bone growth
d. normal height
[d 219 factual]
31. Deprivation dwarfism is caused by:

a. a genetic defect of the endocrine system
b. a virus
c. abuse or neglect resulting in decreased growth hormone
d. insufficient food during early development
[c 219 factual]
32. Which of the following is NOT true about the McGill University sensory deprivation
experiments?
a. sensory deprivation consisted of reduction of visual, auditory and tactile stimuli
b. subjects displayed impaired thinking, hallucinations and changes in EEG recordings
c. subjects reported pleasant, dream-like experiences
d. subjects could not tolerate the experimental condition for more than a few days
[c 220 conceptual]
33. Results of the McGill University sensory deprivation experiments show all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. adequate sensory stimulation seems to be necessary for efficient human functioning
b. reduced stimulation has aversive effects for most people
c. decreased performance on cognitive tasks occurs during the experiment
d. reduced stimulation was relaxing
[d 221 conceptual]
34. A cognitive interpretation of effects of isolation offered by Bruner includes the idea that:
a. deprivation of varied environments prevent development of models for evaluating information
b. social contact are not important in developing information evaluation models
c. isolation allows for a richer, more varied imagination to develop in children
d. models for evaluating information develop in adulthood
[d 222 conceptual]
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35. In studies of jet pilots, Bennett and others have found all of the following EXCEPT:
a. in adults, sensory deprivation disrupts the information evaluation process
b. jet pilots flying at high altitudes on a straight, level course may become disoriented
c. disorientation is reduced if a person to talk to is present
d. having enough rest prior to flying reduces disruptions
[d 222 conceptual]
36. According to Goldberger and Holt, individuals who are emotionally secure:
a. can withstand long periods of stimulus deprivation with no problems
b. are more sensitive to stimulus deprivation side-effects than neurotic individuals
c. show minimal harmful effects due to short term stimulus deprivation
d. can profit from isolation experiences if not protracted or severe
[d 222 factual]
37. Many studies of sensory restriction indicate:

a. that sensory restriction is usually a pleasant experience
b. that adults attempt to keep stimulation levels very low
c. that sensory restricted subjects are less reactive than others
d. that lack of adequate stimulation is motivating
[d 223 factual]
38. The Sensation Seeking Scale (SSS):

a. has proven to be a reliable measure of differences in the level of stimulation that people seek
b. has proven unreliable as a measure of sensation seeking behavior
c. is routinely given as part of IQ tests
d. includes ten subscales in addition to the overall score
[a 223 conceptual]
39. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Suedfeld's REST technique?

a. smoking
b. overeating
c. shyness
d. hypertension
[c 223 conceptual]
40. Which of the following is NOT a subscale of Zuckerman's Sensation Seeking Scale?
a. thrill and adventure seeking
b. enabling seeking
c. experience seeking
d. boredom susceptibility
[b 223 conceptual]
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41. The two most influential factors in sensation seeking behavior are:
a. age and gender
b. previous sensation seeking experience and age
c. extraversion and age
d. introversion and age
[a 224 factual]
42. Which of the following statements about sensation seeking is NOT true?
a. men show higher sensation seeking
b. sensation seeking decreases with age
c. low sensation seeking is related to being social
d. high sensation seeking is related to taking risks
[c 224 conceptual]
43. Which of the following is NOT true of people who score high on the Sensation Seeking
Scale?
a. tend to be shy
b. are more emotionally expressive
c. are more likely to use drugs
d. tend to have risky vocations
[a 224 conceptual]
44. High sensation seekers rate situations as _____ risky than do low sensation seekers.
a. more
b. less
c. equally
significantly more
[b 224 factual]
45. According to opponent-process theory:

a. the intensity of hedonic state A is reinforced and increased by hedonic state B
b. after an initial peak, hedonic state A is reduced in intensity by hedonic state B
c. hedonic state B quickly decays
d. hedonic state A slowly decays
[b 226 factual]
46. The opponent-process theory appears to be useful in explaining:

a. drug abuse
b. attachment
c. thrill seeking
d. all of the above
[d 226 factual]
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47. According to opponent-process theory, habitual drug abusers need higher doses because:
a. their bodies become habituated to the effects of the drugs
b. stimuli associated with use of the drug act to trigger the after-reaction
c. they want to experience greater effects of the drug
d. they want to experience greater after-reactions
[b 226 factual]
48. A possible explanation based in opponent-process theory for people who enjoy dangerous or
frightening activities is:
a. the strong state B which occurs as an after reaction to the activity
b. the strong state A which is generated in the individual by the reaction
c. peer pressure
d. the initial increased arousal caused by fear
[a 227 factual]
49. Which of the following has NOT been studied by the opponent-process theory?
a. thrill seeking
b. drug addiction
c. curiosity
d. social attachment
[c 227 conceptual]
50. The study of social attachment conducted by Starr suggests that:

a. sufficient time is necessary for state B to decay for attachment to occur
b. state A must happen enough to prevent state B from decaying for attachment to occur
c. high intensity state A leads to rapid state B decay
d. social attachment is due to increased intensity and duration of state B
[a 228 factual]
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Cognitive Motivation: Expectancy-Value Approaches
1. Motivational states that are best explained in terms of rational thought processes are called:
a. reasoned action
b. rational social theories
c. cognitive theories
d. rational thinking
[c 232 factual]
2. According to Tolman, characteristics of molar behavior include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. it is persistently goal-directed
b. it forms a consistent pattern
c. it shows a selectivity of routes
d. it is arranged hierarchically
[d 233 conceptual]
3. For Tolman, whether the behavior is of a rat or a human, it is characterized by _____ and
_____.
a. purpose; drive
b. cognition; heredity
c. drive; purpose
d. cognition; purpose
[d 234 conceptual]
4. The _____ is best explained by Tolman's statement that learning can occur in the absence of
any behavioral change, but motivation is necessary for learning to be translated into
performance.
a. learning continuum
b. learning-performance distinction
c. cognitive purposive expression
d. learning and performance drive expectation
[b 234 factual]
5. As we learn that particular behaviors lead to particular goals, _____ are established.
a. drives
b. cognitive disciplines
c. expectancies
d. motivational drives
[c 234 factual]
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6. According to Tolman, a _____ suggests that behavior will be rewarded and that the reward
can be found in specific locations.
a. humanistic drive
b. behavioristic view point
c. learning-performance distinction
d. cognitive map
[d 235 factual]
7. In their experiment on place learning, Tolman, Ritchie, and Kalish (1946) found that:
a. response learning was faster than place learning
b. place learning was faster than response learning
c. place and response were learned at the same speed
d. neither place nor response learning occurred quickly
[b 235 factual]
8. One of Tolman's major contributions to psychology was that:

a. his theory led to greater emphasis on the study of cognitive processes.
b. the usefulness of his theory in making precise predictions
c. his emphasis on strict stimulus-response models
d. his emphasis on individual responses rather than on goals
[a 236 factual]
9. Lewin's _____ theory emphasizes that the reaction of an object is the result of all the forces
acting upon that object within the field containing it.
a. social learning
b. person-object
c. field
d. behavioristic
[c 236 factual]
10. Lewin argued that human behavior is a function of two major components, the _____ and the
_____.
a. learning; performance
b. person; psychological environment
c. force; field
d. gestalt; action
[b 236 conceptual]
11. A concept common to the theories of both Tolman and Lewin is their belief in _____ as
important determinants of behavior.
a. stimulus-response units
b. tension
c. cognitive factors
d. needs
[c 236 conceptual]
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12. Lewin's force field theory emphasizes which of the following ideas?
a. tension as an internal motivational force
b. tension as an external motivational force
c. the role of stimulus-response units as motivators
d. the intrinsic value of goals
[a 237 factual]
13. Lewin would argue that the need for food would be a _____ need, whereas the need for
concert tickets would be a _____ need.
a. central; peripheral
b. primary; secondary
c. basic; fun
d. motivational; learned
[a 237 conceptual]
14. In Lewin's model, tension can be alleviated through a process in which some particular
region of the psychological environment dissipates the tension. This is termed:
a. repression
b. locomotion
c. quasi-need reduction
d. dehydration
[b 237 factual]
15. In Lewin's theory, all of the psychological facts that a person is aware of make up the:
a. conscious motivation
b. core region
c. inner boundary
d. psychological environment
[d 238 factual]
16. According to Lewin, _____ determines which psychological facts are most attractive as a
way of satisfying a need.
a. importance
b. primary need
c. valence
d. tension
[c 238 factual]
17. According to expectancy-value theory, motivated behaviors result from the value:
a. a goal has for the individual
b. of a goal as determined by society
c. of previous goals
d. of a need as determined by society
[d 240 factual]
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18. Motivated behavior results from the combination of individual needs and the value of the
goals available in the environment, according to the basic idea underlying:
a. value and humanistic psychologists
b. expectancy-value theory
c. behavioral expectations approach
d. physiological theory
[b 240 factual]
19. The _____ theory attempts to explain the internal and external (social) factors that influence
the acquisition and regulation of behavior.
a. social learning
b. acquisition-regulation
c. valence
d. conscious-unconscious
[a 240 factual]
20. According to Rotter, our preference for an event is determined by that event's _____, which
is its desirability to us.
a. situation factors
b. subjective estimates
c. reinforcement value
d. generalized value
[c 240 factual]
21. Which of the following is NOT one of Rotter's four concepts of expectancy-value in his
social learning theory?
a. generalized expectations
b. situational factors
c. subjective estimates
d. information processing
22. In order to calculate the probability of the occurrence of a particular behavior, Rotter
provides which of the following formulas?
a. B = f (P + E)
b. B = H x D
c. B = E x V
d. B = Ms x P
[c 241 factual]
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23. According to Rotter, in situations where more than one behavior is possible, we should
choose the behavior with the largest combination of:
a. reinforcement and need
b. expected success and value
c. need and opportunity
d. primary and secondary needs
[b 241 factual]
24. In Rotter's theory, _____ individuals perceive rewards and punishments as resulting from
their own actions, and _____ individuals perceive rewards and punishments as resulting from
sources beyond their control.
b. external; unconscious
c. strong; weak
d. external; internal
[a 241 conceptual]
25. Linda believes if she studies hard for a test, she will earn a good grade. Rotter would classify
her as a(n) _____ individual.
a. external
b. conscientious
c. hard-working
d. internal
[d 241 conceptual]
26. Jim does not study for the test because he believes his grade will just be a matter of luck.
Rotter would classify him as a(n) _____ person.
a. internal
b. external
c. situational
d. superstitious
[b 241 conceptual]
27. Rotter developed a test that assessed a person's internality-externality called the _____ scale.
a. internality-externality circumstances
b. sensation seeking
c. locus of control
d. reinforcement contingency
[c 242 factual]
28. A person who scores high on achievement-oriented tasks would probably:

a. perceive an external locus of control
b. perceive an internal locus of control
c. believe him/herself to be controlled by the environment
d. believe that luck or fate determines what happens to him/her
[b 242 conceptual]
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29. In general, individuals taking Rotter's test who score high in the ___ direction do not do as
well as individuals who score high in the _____ direction.
b. internal; superstitious
c. external; internal
d. conscientious; unreliable
[c 242 conceptual]
30. Research on locus of control has found that _____ individuals tend to get lower grades in
school, have problems staying on a diet, and fail to comply with medical advice.
a. internal
b. competitive
c. paternalistic
d. external
[d 242 factual]
31. According to Murray (1938), the need for achievement involves:

a. always being the best at every task
b. doing a difficult task well and quickly
c. being recognized by winning awards
d. being able to get what you want
[b 243 factual]
32. Which of the following has been used to measure achievement motivation?
a. TAT
b. Stanford-Binet IQ test
c. 16PF
d. MMPI
[a 243 factual]
33. Murray defined _____ as a recurrent concern for a goal state.

a. internal-external
b. need
c. need for achievement
d. thematic apperception
[b 243 factual]
34. David McClelland and John Atkinson are most closely associated with research on:
a. achievement motivation
b. locus of control
c. internal-external measurement in children
d. sensation seeking
[a 243 conceptual]
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35. The technique in which participants are asked to make up a story based on ambiguous
pictures is called:
a. locus of control test
b. thematic apperception test
c. sensation seeking scale
d. predictive hypothesis testing
[b 243 factual]
36. Which of the following is NOT a variable that contributes to the tendency to approach
achievement situations?
a. motive for success
b. motive to avoid failure
c. motive for internality
d. probability of success
[c 245 conceptual]
37. Which of the following is NOT a criticism that has been made against need achievement
theory?
a. achievement motivation is multidimensional
b. need achievement scores are situational
c. reliability of the TAT is low
d. TAT only predicts female behavior
[d 247 conceptual]
38. Tommy tends to choose tasks that are either very easy or very difficult. According to
achievement theory, he probably has a high:
a. motive for success
b. incentive value
c. probability of success
d. motive to avoid failure
[d 247 conceptual]
39. Dweck and Elliot (1983) identified two types of motivational goals, _____ goals (increasing
personal competence), and _____ goals (comparing one's own competence with others).
a. mastery; performance
b. personal; social
c. performance; mastery
d. individual; group
[a 248 conceptual]
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40. Sally is most concerned about how her test scores compare to other students. Dweck and
Elliot would call her motivation type:
a. learning
b. external
c. performance
d. mastery
[c 248 conceptual]
41. Sam is motivated by factors such as money and scholarships. We might call Sam's
motivation:
a. money-motivated
b. locus of control
c. extrinsic
d. performance
[b 250 conceptual]
42. Researchers see _____, which are positive or negative evaluations of an object, event, or
idea, as predictors of behavior.
a. attitudes
b. feelings
c. locus of control
d. extrinsic ideas
[a 250 factual]
43. According to Ajzen, a strong predictor of behavior is one's _____ to perform or not
performance a particular action.
a. motivation
b. ability
c. genetic composition
d. intention
[d 251 factual]
44. According to Ajzen, a(n) _____ is what a person thinks to be true, and a(n) _____ is a
positive or negative evaluation of something.
a. attitude; prejudice
b. opportunity; requirement
c. belief; attitude
d. attitude; belief
[c 252 factual]
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45. The observation that working collectively provides members of a group the chance to “slack
off” based on the expectancy that the rest of the group will do the work is called:
a. the slacker mentality
b. social loafing
c. social slacking
d. social facilitation
[b 254 factual]
46. When working in a group, individuals have the opportunity to slack off based on the
expectancy the rest of the group will work hard enough to accomplish the goal. This is called:
a. individual-group difference
b. social loafing
c. group effect
d. reasoned action
[b 254 factual]
47. Latané and colleagues (1979) found that groups of participants decreased their effort as the
size of the group increased. This finding is called:
a. social loafing
b. group facilitation
c. groupthink
d. social laziness
[a 255 factual]
48. The observation that individual performance within a group decreases as the number of
people in a group increases is known as:
a. the Ringelmann effect
b. the group size effect
c. the social slacking effect
d. the law of effect
[a 255 factual]
49. Research indicates all of the following EXCEPT:

a. the Ringelmann effect was first observed for rope-pulling tasks
b. social loafing is observed in many contexts and cultures
c. the term social loafing has replaced the term Ringelmann effect
d. the Ringelmann effect is measured by the TAT
[d 255 conceptual]
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50. The theory by Latané and colleagues (1979) that states that performance in a group
decreases because the pressure to work is dispersed among members of the group is called the
_____ theory.
a. social expectation
b. collective effect
c. locus of control
d. social impact
[d 261 factual]
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Cognitive Consistency and Social Motivation
1. The first _____ theory was developed by Fritz Heider.

a. cognitive consistency
b. social facilitation
c. serial loafing
d. helping
[a 266 factual]
2. In Heider's _____ theory, relationships between people and objects may be positive or
negative.
a. social facilitation
b. positive fitting
c. balance
d. social loafing
[c 266 factual]
3. Which of the following is an unbalanced relationship?

a. 3 positive
b. 2 negative, 1 positive
c. 3 negative
d. 2 positive, 1 negative
[d 266 conceptual]
4. Cognitive consistency theories assume all of the following EXCEPT:

a. that individuals are motivated to decrease or eliminate inconsistencies
b. that inconsistencies are unpleasant
c. that rationalization is used to decrease inconsistencies
d. individuals enjoy the variety of inconsistencies
[d 266 conceptual]
5. A relationship is said to be unbalanced if a married couple:

a. wants to buy different houses
b. wants to buy the same house
c. wants to buy different houses and at least one doesn't care about the other's opinion
d. does not want to buy a house
[c 267 conceptual]
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6. Cognitive dissonance is aroused when:

a. an individual's behavior is controlled by outside forces
b. cognitions are consistent
c. cognitions are inconsistent
d. an individual does not care
[c 268 factual]
7. According to Festinger, which of the following is NOT one of the ways cognitions about
ourselves and the world can be related?
a. irrelevant
b. relevant
c. consonant
d. dissonant
[b 268 conceptual]
8. People who reduce their fat intake to reduce dissonance associated with diet and heart disease
are using which of the following dissonance reducing techniques?
a. behavior change
b. attitude change
c. rationalization
d. distorted perception
[a 268 conceptual]
9. According to Festinger, the method most chosen to reduce cognitive dissonance is:
a. the cheapest
b. the quickest
c. the easiest
d. the most logical
[c 268 factual]
10. Festinger developed _____ theory to explain cognitive consistency motivation.

a. social loafing
b. rationalization
c. cognitive dissonance
d. cognitive balanced
[b 268 factual]
11. Charlie smokes but believes smoking causes cancer. In order to reduce cognitive
dissonance, he decides that smoking does not really cause cancer. What has he changed to
reduce dissonance?
a. behavior
b. cognition
c. emotion
d. social behavior
[b 268 conceptual]
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12. In Festinger and Carlsmith's study, the $1 group had insufficient _____ for engaging in
behavior contrary to their attitudes about the experiment, thus causing them to enjoy the
experiment more.
a. justification
b. money
c. time
d. social loafing
[a 269 factual]
13. In Festinger and Carlsmith's experiment, which group rated the experiment ass the most
enjoyable?
a. participants paid $20
b. control groups
c. participants paid $1
d. participants paid $100
[c 269 factual]
14. Festinger and Carlsmith performed and experiment in which students were paid either
nothing, $1, or $20 to lie about a boring task. Which of the following is NOT true about the
results of that experiment? The students who were paid:
a. nothing did not change their minds about the experimental task
b. $1 did change their minds about the experimental task
c. $20 did not change their minds about the experimental task
d. $1 did not change their minds about the experimental task
[d 269 conceptual]
15. In the Aronson and Carlsmith (1963) experiment, the threat of _____ punishment was more
effective than the threat of _____ punishment at reducing children's desire to misbehave.
a. strong; mild
b. mild; strong
c. extremely severe; moderate
d. moderate; extremely severe
[b 270 factual]
16. Individuals who expend more effort than others to achieve a desired goal are:
a. more likely to experience a decrease in perceived value of the goal
b. unlikely to experience a change in perceived value of the goal
c. more likely to experience an increase in perceived value of the goal
d. affected by social facilitation more strongly
[c 270 factual]
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17. Studies of postdecisional dissonance and selective exposure to information demonstrate all
of the following EXCEPT:
a. commitment to choice is not necessary for postdecisional dissonance
b. postdecisional dissonance most often leads to regret of choice
c. postdecisional dissonance most leads to seeking information that supports the rejected choice
d. postdecisional dissonance never lends to regret of choice
[b 270 conceptual]
18. According to Festinger's report on a group which prophesied that a flood would destroy their
city, when the prophecy failed:
a. the beliefs of the group members grew stronger
b. the group disbanded
c. the group leader confessed that she was wrong
d. the group joined with other groups in protest
[a 272 factual]
19. Which of the following is NOT a major criticism of the cognitive dissonance theory?
a. other explanations for behaviors are not ruled out
b. the theory is too vague
c. there are several ways to reduce dissonance
d. there is only one way to reduce dissonance
[d 273 conceptual]
20. According to Bem's self-perception theory:

a. a state of tension exists which must be resolved
b. we observe our behavior as an outsider
c. we behavior based upon our perception of emotion
d. none of the above
[b 273 factual]
21. An Olympic athlete's tendency to do better when competing against others directly than
when practicing alone is due to:
a. coaction effect
c. audience effect
d. group conformity
[b 276 conceptual]
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22. In social facilitation research, the energizing of behavior as a result of the presence of others
doing the same thing is called the _____, and when it is the result of the presence of others just
watching is called the _____.
a. coaction effect; audience effect
b. energy motivation; observation motivation
c. similar hypothesis; dissimilar hypothesis
d. social hypothesis; achievement hypothesis
[a 276 factual]
23. The example of cockroaches running faster down a runway in the presence of other
cockroach “observes” is called:
a. social loafing
b. audience effect
c. bystander intervention
d. social running
[b 276 factual]
24. In social facilitation, _____ tends to trigger whatever response is dominant.

a. unique stimuli
b. arousal
c. familiar stimuli
d. friends
[b 277 factual]
25. Blascovich and colleagues (1999) developed a model to explain social facilitation in terms
of _____ and _____ motivation.
a. challenge; threat
b. dominant; recessive
c. audience; coactor
d. social; individual
[a 277 factual]
26. A change in one's beliefs or behaviors as a result of real or imagined pressure from a group
or individual is called:
a. compliance
c. conformity
d. social loafing
[c 278 factual]
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27. Asch found in his line comparison experiment that about _____ percent of participants
conformed at least once.
a. 20
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80
[d 279 factual]
28. Asch found in his line comparison study some participants assumed their judgment was
incorrect, which is called _____ social influence.
a. informational
b. perceptual
c. normative
d. disruptive
[a 279 factual]
29. In Asch's line comparison study, some participants did not appear different than other
participants, called _____ social influence.
a. distortion
b. normative
c., perceptual
d. informational
[b 279 factual]
30. In Asch’s studies, he did NOT find that participants who conformed:
a. suffer perceptual distortion
b. experience distortion of judgment
c. experience distortion of action
d. thought they were always right in judgment
[d 279 conceptual]
31.. One way in which an individual can yield to conformity is by assuming that the group is
right and that he or she is incorrect. This is called:
a. perceptual distortion
b. distortion of judgment
c. distortion of action
d. facilitation of conformity
[b 279 factual]
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32. Which of the following did Asch NOT find was a factor that affected conformity
motivation?
a. degree of ambiguity
b. group unanimity
c. age of participants
d. group size
[c 280 conceptual]
33. Other people seek our _____ when they want us to change our behavior in response to a
direct request.
a. compliance
b. conformity
c. social facilitation
d. social preference
[a 282 factual]
34. If we compare conformity with compliance we find:

a. there is no appreciable difference between them.
b. conformity is more related to authority.
c. compliance is more related to a direct request to change behavior.
d. we are "asked" or "told" to conform but we "want" to comply.
[c 282 factual]
35. The idea that people are sometimes more likely to consent to a large request if they had
previously agreed to a smaller, related request is called the:
a. social facilitation hypothesis
b. door-in-the-face effect
c. foot-in-the-door effect
d. conformity hypothesis
[c 283 factual]
36. The most frequent explanation for the foot-in-the-door effect is:
a. social facilitation theory
b. self-perception theory
c. social loafing hypothesis
d. molar behavior theory
[b 283 factual]
37. Presenting people with very large requests, followed by a second smaller request is called
the:
a. door-in-the-face effect
b. social facilitation hypothesis
c. obedience to authority effect
d. foot-in-the-door effect
[a 283 factual]
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38. Cialdini and colleagues (1975) found that students who were first asked to volunteer for two
years, and then asked to volunteer for a two hour trip to the zoo with juvenile delinquents were
significantly more likely to agree to the zoo, request than were students just asked to do the zoo
trip. They labeled this the:
a. foot-in-the-door effect
b. low balling
c. social conformity
d. door-in-the-face effect
[d 284 conceptual]
39. Cialdini and colleagues (1975) concluded that the door-in-the-face effect was due to a
motive called:
a. social conformity
b. reciprocal concessions
d. revenge
[b 284 factual]
40. A change in behavior in response to a direct order is called:

a. social compliance
b. obedience
d. conformity
[b 285 factual]
41. When you go to your boss to ask for a raise, you begin negotiations by asking for a huge
raise that is sure to be rejected. You are using the:
a. door-in-the-face technique
b. social facilitation method
c. foot-in-the-door technique
d. social manipulation technique
[a 285 conceptual]
42. Milgram argues that the basis for obedience or compliance is:
a. one's ability to view oneself as simply an instrument carrying out the orders of someone else
b. one's desire to do what is morally correct
c. fear of punishment
d. lack of empathy
[a 287 factual]
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43. When is an individual most likely to be compliant with directions to do something he or she
feels is wrong?
a. when there is a sound scientific reason for doing so
b. when the responsibility can be placed on someone else
c. when they can be identified as the one who complied
d. when they are angry
[b 287 conceptual)
44. In Milgram's original obedience study, _____ out of 40 participants went all the way to 450
volts.
a. 16
b. 36
c. 26
d. 56
[c 287 factual]
45. In Milgram's initial compliance experiments, what percentage of Yale undergraduates were
willing to shock subjects with 450 volts?
a. 15
b. 35
c. 65
d. 100
[c 287 factual]
46. In Milgram's studies of compliance, he found evidence for all of the following EXCEPT:
a. deindividuation
b. detached responsibility
c. importance of presence of an authority figure
d. social facilitation
[d 287 conceptual]
47. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors Milgram identified in his obedience study?
a. personal responsibility
b. characteristics of the authority figure
d. context of the experiment
[c 287-288 conceptual]
48. Upon what does bystander intervention LEAST depend?

a. size of the group around the emergency
b. personality characteristics of the helper
c. characteristics of the emergency situation
d. presence or absence of a friend of the helper
[b 290 factual]
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49. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for not helping in an emergency?
a. don't want to show off
b. amount of commitment
c. don't know what to do
d. emergencies occur suddenly
[a 290 conceptual]
50. Which of the following is NOT one of the five steps to helping, according to Latané and
Darley?
a. notice situation
b. fear of taking action
c. define as emergency
d. accept responsibility to help
[b 290 conceptual]
51. In an emergency, everyone looks to others, who are looking to them, and thus everyone
appears calm so we think it is not an emergency. Latané and Darley call this:
a. coactor continuation
c. social exhaustion
d. pluralistic ignorance
[d 291 factual]
52. According to the experiments by Latané and Darley:

a. presence of a stranger causes one to react more quickly to an emergency
b. presence of a stranger causes one to react more slowly in an emergency
c. presence of a friend reduces the probability that a person will aid another
d. people who were alone were the least likely to react quickly to an emergency
[b 291 factual]
53. Which of the following is NOT a concept by which Latané and Darley would explain the
lack of intervention in emergency situations?
a. reduction of attention
b. diffusion of responsibility
c. pluralistic ignorance
d. uncaring attitude
54. In a situation the presence of others takes the responsibility from the individual. Latané
calls this:
a. diffusion of responsibility
b. obedience to authority
d. pluralistic ignorance
[a 292 factual]
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55. Reduced helping in the presence of others is called:

b. independence
c. bystander effect
d. defiance
[c 293 factual]
56. In helping behavior situations with high danger to the victim, the bystander effect:
a. is increased slightly
b. is increased significantly
c. is significantly reduced
d. is not affected at all
[c 293 factual]
57. When Princeton University seminary students were used in an experiment on giving aid:
a. students who thought they were early for an appointment were most likely to give aid
b. students who were to talk about the "Good Samaritan" were most likely to give aid
c. time constraints had little or no effect upon aid giving
d. older, more mature students were more likely to give aid
[a 294 factual]
58. Research shows that the motivation for acts of helping is due to:
a. altruistic feelings, only
b. egoistic feelings, only
c. both altruistic and egoistic feelings
d. neither altruistic or egoistic feelings
[c 294 factual]
59. In Darley and Batson's (1976) study of seminary students, the level of helping was most
influenced by:
a. the topic of their talk
b. the person needing help
c. the reward offered
d. the amount of time they had
[d 294 factual]
60. Alice donated $1,000 to a charity anonymously. We would likely conclude that her
behavior was:
a. selfish
b. altruistic
c. normal
d. obedience
[b 294 conceptual]
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CHAPTER 10 - Test 4. Which of the following is NOT one of

Bank the basic assumptions of attribution theory?
a. all behavior is dispositional
b. people attempt to determine the causes of
Cognitive Motivation: their own behavior and that of others
c. rules exist which can explain how people
Attribution Approaches attribute behavior
d. the causes attributed to particular
[Note: After each question, the correct behaviors will influence subsequent
answer, the textbook page from which it behaviors
comes, and the question type is provided.] [a 301-302 conceptual]
1. The study of how we make decisions 5. Heider developed a _____ psychology to
about the events that we experience is investigate how the average person decides
called: on the causes of behavior.
a. attribution theory a. decision-making
b. decision making theory b. behavioral
c. hypothesis testing c. naïve
d. attribution style hypothesis d. causation
[a 300 factual] [c 302 factual]
2. People tend to attribute behavior to 6. Which of the following terms is
consistent personality characteristics, or associated with situational influences rather
_____, or to the social _____ of the persons than dispositional influences?
involved. a. ability
a. individual situation; environmental b. task difficulty
situation modification c. intention
b. abilities; status d. locus
c. dispositions; situation [b 302 factual]
d. situations; disposition
[c 301 conceptual] 7. Dispositional attributions include all of
the following EXCEPT:
3. Which of the following is a basic a. luck
assumption of attribution theory? b. abilities
a. most causes of behavior are dispositional c. intent
in nature d. exertion
b. people try to determine causes of the [a 302 conceptual]
behavior of themselves and others
c. people tend to behave randomly much of 8. Heider stated that a person could
the time attribute behaviors to forces within an
d. people are only interested in the causes of individual, called _____, or to forces
their own behavior external to an individual, called _____.
[b 301 factual] a. helpful forces; lucky forces
b. dispositional factors; situational factors
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c. individual; social
d. situational factors; dispositional factors
[b 302 conceptual]
13. According to Jones and Davis,
9. For Heider, _____ include abilities and attributions usually are formed by observing:
motivation, whereas _____ include task a. neutral behaviors
difficulty and luck. b. behaviors most important to us
a. individual beliefs; social beliefs c. the common aspects of behaviors
b. intelligence strengths; effort strengths d. the unique components of behavior
c. dispositional attributions; situational [d 305 conceptual]
attributions
d. environmental attributions; personal 14. Nonconforming (non-normative)
attributions behavior is likely to be attributed to which
[c 302 conceptual] type of characteristics?
a. socially desirable
10. The student next to you does well on a b. situational
test. You might attribute it to the person c. dispositional
being smart. This would be: d. social
a. dispositional attribution [c 305 factual]
b. luck of the draw
c. situation attribution 15. Kelly's attribution theory proposes that
d. task difficulty people choose the "best fit" explanation for:
[a 303 conceptual] a. other's behavior, but not their own
b. their own behavior, but not that of others
11. The tendency to attribute behavior to c. both their own behavior and that of others
stable, internal characteristics has been d. only situations they don’t understand
called: [c 306 factual]
a. situational attribution
b. fundamental attributional error 16. All of the following principles of
c. personal preference thinking attribution have been proposed by Kelly
d. naïve psychology except:
[b 303 factual] a. covariation
b. hedonic relevance
12. Which of the following is NOT one of c. distinctiveness
Jones and Davis (1965) influences on d. consensus
making a dispositional attribution? [b 306 conceptual]
a. behavior must reflect choice
b. behavior should have low social 17. Which of the following is NOT a
desirability dimension in Kelley's covariation attribution
c. behavior should be not common or unique theory?
d. behavior is forced in the particular a. distinctiveness
environment b. permanence
[d 304 conceptual] c. consensus
d. consistency
[b 306 conceptual]
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18. In Kelley's attribution theory, _____ is [a 308 factual]

the degree to which the behavior is unique,
and _____ is the frequency with which the 23. Task difficulty may be judged primarily
actor engages in the specific behavior. by:
a. distinctiveness; consistency a. social norms
b. consistency; consensus b. comparison with other cultures
c. consensus; distinctiveness c. how well we did on the task
d. consistency; distinctiveness d. what we have been told about the task.
[a 306 conceptual] [a 308 factual]
19. In Kelley's covariation attribution 24. Tom had an argument with his
theory, behaviors low in distinctiveness tend instructor. He has had arguments with other
more to lead to _____ attribution. instructors in the past. No one else argues
a. situational with this instructor. And he has argued with
b. conformity this instructor in the past. According to
c. external Kelley's attribution theory, this suggests a
d. dispositional _____ attribution.
[d 306 factual] a. dispositional
b. aggressive
20. In Kelley's attribution theory, high c. situational
distinctiveness, high consensus, and high d. temporary
consistency is likely to result in _____ [a 308 conceptual]
attribution.
a. temporary 25. Which of the following is NOT one of
b. situational the elements in Weiner's theory of an
c. internal achievement oriented event?
d. dispositional a. age
[b 307 factual] b. ability
c. effort
21. According to Weiner, which factor is d. luck
NOT important in our interpretation of an [a 308 conceptual]
achievement-related event?
a. ability 26. Weiner found that we perceive that we
b. effort have expended more effort on a task when:
c. luck a. we have extra time to reflect
d. intention b. the task is very difficult
[d 308 conceptual] c. we are frustrated
d. we are successful
22. Weiner argued that inferences we make [d 308 factual]
about our abilities result primarily from:
a. our past experiences 27. According to Weiner, people tend to
b. what our parents tell us judge task difficulty by:
c. information about how well others did on a. time to completion
a task b. frustration level
d. our innate sense of what our abilities are c. social comparison
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d. prior personal experience c. task difficulty

[c 308 factual] d. achievement recognition
[a 309 factual]
28. Which of the following is NOT one of
Weiner's causal dimensions? 33. Which of the following is not one of
a. locus Weiner's elements that is important relative
b. effort to attributions applied to achievement
c. stability motivation?
d. controllability a. ability
[b 308 conceptual] b. effort
c. personalism
29. In Weiner's attribution theory, ability d. luck
and effort are _____ characteristics, and task [c 309 factual]
difficulty and luck are _____ factors.
a. internal; external 34. In attribution, the tendency to take
b. stability; controllability credit for success and to avoid responsibility
c. unstable; stable for failure is called the:
d. situational; dispositional a. attribution style
[a 308 conceptual] b. fundamental attribution error
c. self-serving bias
30. In Weiner's attribution theory, ability d. success-failure ratio
and task difficulty are _____ factors, and [c 312 factual]
effort and luck are _____ factors.
a. external; internal 35. In one study, teachers whose students
b. situational; dispositional performed well attributed the outcome to
c. stable; unstable their teaching ability and teachers whose
d. locus; controllable students performed poorly attributed the
[c 309 conceptual] outcome to student inability. This
represents the:
31. In Weiner's attribution theory, ability a. self-serving bias
and luck are _____ factors, and task b. attribution style
difficulty and effort are _____ factors. c. situational attribution
a. external; internal d. locus of control
b. locus; stability [a 312 conceptual]
c. situational; dispositional
d. uncontrollable; controllable 36. One explanation for the self-serving
[d 309 conceptual] bias is the motive to maintain a positive self-
image, called the motive for:
32. In Weiner's attribution theory, a. grandiosity
achievement-related results initially produce b. self-controllability
the _____ effect, in which the outcome itself c. self-enhancement
triggers happiness or sadness, depending on d. positive emotional bias
success or failure. [c 312 factual]
a. attribution independent
b. uncontrollable attribution
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37. In attribution, the tendency to believe

that most other people think and act the 41. If we observe someone donating to a
same way that we do is called the: charity during the holiday season, we
a. self-serving bias probably assume she is a generous person.
b. false consensus effect This is called the:
c. misinterpret tendency a. false consensus hypothesis
d. locus of control bias b. actor-observer bias
[b 313 factual] c. self-serving bias
d. locus of control effect
38. Research on attribution theory suggests [b 314 conceptual]
that:
a. actors tend to make dispositional 42. The "fundamental attribution error"
attributions for their own behavior refers to:
b. actors tend to attribute their own behavior a. the fact that attributions are biased toward
to situational factors dispositional explanations
c. observers tend to attribute the behavior of b. the fact that attributions are biased toward
an actor to situational factors situational explanations
d. observers tend to focus on internal rather c. the fact that most attributions are wrong
than external factors d. the fact that attribution theory is based on
[b 314 factual] fundamental errors in reasoning
[a 316 factual]
39. In attribution theory, the tendency to
infer dispositional attributions of other's 43. The tendency to attribute behavior to
behavior but situational attributions of our internal, stable characteristics is called:
own behavior is called the: a. naive psychology
a. actor-observer bias b. nonnormative attribution
b. selective exposure effect c. the fundamental attribution error
c. locus of control tendency d. psychological error attribution
d. self-serving bias [c 316 factual]
[a 314 factual]
44. A man robbed a liquor store. If we say
40. If another student drops his books, we he did it because he is a bad person or a
perceive him to be clumsy, but if we drop criminal type person, we are making a
our books, we perceive something in the _____ attribution.
environment caused us to do so. This is a. dispositional
referred to as: b. situational
a. self-serving bias c. mistaken
b. locus of control effect d. personal
c. actor-observer bias [a 316 conceptual]
d. false consensus hypothesis
[c 314 conceptual]
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45. A student fails a test. If we say the

reason the student failed was that the test 49. In achievement attribution studies,
was unfair, we are making a _____ Diener and Dweck (1978) suggest that
attribution. individuals with a _____ orientation set
a. dispositional challenging goals, and individuals with a
b. personal _____ orientation avoid challenging goals.
c. situational a. challenging; withdrawing
d. stable b. positive; negative
[c 316 conceptual] c. mastery; helpless
d. social; individual
46. The tendency to attribute the behavior [c 321 conceptual]
of others to stable, internal characteristics
and underestimate the influence of 50. Dweck (1986) suggested that helpless
situational factors, is called the: individuals seek _____ goals and mastery-
a. locus of control hypothesis oriented individuals seek _____ goals.
b. self-serving bias a. performance; learning
c. fundamental attribution error b. failure; success
d. false consensus effect c. helpful; helper
[c 316 factual] d. global; individual
the steps in attribution suggested by Gilbert 51. Dweck and colleagues (1993) suggest
and Malone (1995)? that some people are _____ theorists and
a. retrospective memory view themselves and others as acting on the
b. situation perception basis of fixed traits, and other people are
c. behavioral expectation _____ theorists and view themselves and
d. attribution others as acting on basis of malleable traits.
[a 318 factual] a. environmental; hereditary
b. entity; incremental
48. Sabini and colleagues (2001) suggest c. internal; external
the reason for fundamental attribution error d. incremental; global
is a tendency to underestimate the power of [b 322 conceptual]
motives (such as motive to 'save face')
called: 52. According to Dweck's research on
a. self-serving attributional motives helpless versus mastery oriented individuals:
b. channel factors a. mastery oriented individuals seek learning
c. global recognition goals
d. locus of control motives b. mastery oriented individuals seek
[b 320 factual] performance goals
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c. helpless individuals seeks learning goals [b 324 factual]

d. mastery oriented individuals believe that
their intelligence is unchangeable
[a 322 factual]
53. Fixed traits are to _____ theorists as

malleable traits are to _____ theorists. 57. Wortman and Brehm (1975) proposed
a. entity; incremental that the initial reaction to a loss of control is
b. incremental; entity a resistance to the loss of control with
c. dispositional; situational subsequent increased effort, which they
d. situational; dispositional called:
[a 322 factual] a. depression
b. anger
54. The _____ model of learned c. reactance
helplessness relies on the type of attribution d. resolve
the person makes to overcome problems. [c 324 factual]
a. old
b. social conformity 58. Mikulincer, based on his study of the
c. reformulated conditions under which learned helplessness
d. individual or reactance occurs, has found that:
[c 323 factual] a. only reactance occurs
b. only learned helplessness occurs
55. According to reformulated learned c. neither reactance nor learned helplessness
helplessness theory, if we believe we lack occurred under the conditions he studied
characteristics possessed by others that d. both reactance and learned helplessness
allow them to control their situations, this occurred depending upon conditions
_____ of personal helplessness will lead to [d 324-325 conceptual]
lower self-esteem.
a. attribution 59. Which of the following describe the
b. observation properties of both ability and task difficulty?
c. globalization a. stable
d. experience b. unstable
[a 323 factual] c. internal
d. external
56. Seligman suggests that helplessness that [a 325 factual]
is perceived as the result of _____ factors
will greatly extend the time course of the 60. The reformulated learned helplessness
helplessness. model states that:
a. objective a. lowered self-worth results from
b. stable attributions of universal helplessness
c. personal b. attributions of "unstable helplessness"
d. temporary lead to a longer duration of depression
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c. lowered self-worth results from

attributions of personal helplessness
d. "specific" attributions of helplessness lead
to general depression
[c 325 factual]
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Cognitive Motivation: Competence and Control
1. Researchers who study the persistent motive within individuals to become competent in the
environment follow the tradition of:
a. humanistic psychology
b. motivation psychology
c. social psychology
d. experimental psychology
[a 328 factual]
2. Carl Rogers calls the striving to become fully functioning the:

a. conditional positive regard
b. personal causation hypothesis
c. actualizing tendency
d. self determination theory
[c 329 factual]
3. Rogers's idea that a person is accepted and loved regardless of behavior is called:
a. acceptability hypothesis
b. unconditional positive regard
c. motive for competence
d. conditional positive regard
[b 329 factual]
4. An element common to the theories of Maslow, Rogers, White, and Deci is:
a. an emphasis on classical and instrumental conditioning in determining behavior

b. the idea that all humans, in some way, strive to reach their potential
c. the importance of cognitive decision-making
d. the importance of internal conflicts that drive behavior
[b 329 factual]
5. How many human motives has Rogers identified?

a. one
b. two
c. twenty
d. over fifty
[a 329 factual]
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6. The actualizing tendency, according to Rogers, creates:

a. physiological and psychological needs.
b. homeostatic needs
c. needs for positive regard and positive self-regard
d. needs for conditional positive regard
[c 329 factual]
7. According to Rogers:
a. conditional positive regard leads to full functioning
b. conditional positive regard leads to maladaptive behaviors
c. unconditional positive regard leads to maladaptive behaviors
d. whether positive regard is conditional or unconditional has no bearing on future behavior
[b 329 conceptual]
8. According to Rogers, we must have unconditional positive regard to be a _____ individual.

a. competent
b. human agency
c. fully functioning
d. successful
[c 330 factual]
9. Which of the following is NOT one of Rogers' characteristics in a fully functioning

individual?
a. safety
b. openness to experience
c. sense of freedom
d. creativity
[a 330 conceptual]
10. According to Maslow, the striving for perfection as the ultimate purpose of behavior is
called:
a. personal causation
b. self-actualization
c. human agency
d. fully functioning individual
[b 331 factual]
11. Which of the following is not a criticism of Rogers's theory?

a. many of his terms are not operationally defined
b. it has generated a lot of research and discussion
c. it is unclear which conditions enhance growth and which hinder it
d. it is weak empirically and difficult to test
[b 331 factual]
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12. The first two stages in Maslow's hierarchy of needs are:

a. physiological and safety needs
b. physiological and belongingness needs
c. deprivation and growth needs
d. esteem and sense of worth needs
[a 332 factual]
13. For people living in war zones, which needs of Maslow's hierarchy would be most
immediately important?
b. belongingness
c. esteem
d. physiological and safety
[d 332 conceptual]
14. According to Maslow, preferences for familiar surroundings, secure jobs, and insurance
illustrate the _____ needs.
a. physiological
b. belongingness
c. esteem
d. safety
[d 332 factual]
15. The physiological, safety, love or belongingness, and esteem needs are what Maslow called:
a. being needs
c. deprivation motivation
d. human agency
[c 333 factual]
16. All of the following would be classified by Maslow as growth needs except:
a. beauty
b. esteem
c. goodness
d. truth
[b 334 conceptual]
17. According to Maslow:

a. most people reach the stage of self-actualization during adolescence
b. self-actualization is a well-defined state of happiness and fulfillment
c. higher-level needs will not be tended to until lower-level needs are adequately satisfied
d. higher-level needs always take precedence over lower-level needs
[c 334 factual]
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18. Which of the following would NOT be a deprivation need, according to Maslow?
a. beauty
b. esteem
c. safety
d. belongingness
[a 334 conceptual]
19. Which of the following does not belong with the other terms?
a. being needs
b. deprivation needs
c. metamotivation
d. growth motivation
[b 334 conceptual]
20. According to Maslow, about what percentage of the population in our society reaches self-
actualization?
a. 1%
b. 10%
c. 50%
d. nearly 100%
[a 334 factual]
21. For some self-actualized people, called transcenders, _____ may become the most important
aspect of their lives.
a. problem solving
b. interpersonal relationships
c. peak experiences
d. unconditional positive regard
[c 334 factual]
22. The _____ individual is motivated by motives such as truth, honesty, beauty, and goodness,
according to Maslow.
a. happy
b. self-actualized
c. competent
d. fully functioning
[b 334 factual]
23. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of Maslow's theory?

a. only observed in humans
b. problem of reliability
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c. criticized as being elitist

d. vagueness in language
[a 335 conceptual]
24. The "Jonah Complex" would cause people to be:

a. nontranscenders
b. afraid of their own abilities
c. growth motivated individuals
d. afraid of large marine animals
[b 335 factual]
25. Two characteristics of the self-actualized person, as measured by Shostrom's inventory, are:
a. self-efficacy and peak experiences
b. time competence and flow
c. perceived control and synergy
d. time competence and less restrictive social pressures than others.
[d 335 factual]
26. Peak experiences, peak performance and flow are concepts that share some characteristics,
although differing in others. Which of the following is the common quality shared by each of
these events that is mentioned in the text?
a. specialness of the experience
b. the person remains passive during the experience
c. the person must be active during the experience
d. the person focuses attention on the experience or is absorbed by the experience
[d 336 factual]
27. Privette found that _____ is a quality common to peak experience, peak performance, and
flow.
a. competence
b. happiness
c. absorption
d. hard effort
[c 336 factual]
28. Kenrick and colleagues (2010) have proposed a reformulated needs hierarchy. Which one of
Maslow's needs did they not include in their theory?
a. physiological needs
c. esteem
d. safety
[b 337 factual]
29. Kenrick and colleagues (2010) proposed a reformulated theory based on the theory of:
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a. Bandura
b. Maslow
c. Seligman
d. Rogers
[b 337 factual]
30. Kenrick and colleagues (2010) added three mating needs at the top of their hierarchy. From
an _____ viewpoint, successful propagation of one's genes is the ultimate goal.
a. humanistic
b. genetic
c. behavioral
d. evolutionary
[d 337 factual]
31. Which of the following is NOT an analysis of each need in the Kenrick and colleagues
(2010) reformulation of Maslow's need hierarchy?
a. learned social behavior
b. evolutionary significance
c. development trajectory
d. environmental stimuli that trigger each need
[a 337 conceptual]
32. Robert White (1959) defined _____ as the capacity to interact effectively with one's
environment.
a. competence
c. confidency
d. exploration
[a 338 factual]
33. DeCharms (1968) suggested that _____ was the underlying principle of all motivated
behaviors.
b. personal causation
c. personal regard
d. extrinsic motive
[b 339 factual]
34. According to White, the intrinsic need to deal competently with the environment is called
_____ motivation:
b. effectance
c. internal
d. efficiency
[b 339 factual]
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35. White and deCharms share which of the following ideas?

a. rewards and punishments are important for the control of behavior
b. everyone strives for self-actualization
c. everyone needs to feel that they have an effect on their environment
d. everyone wants to have an external locus of control
[c 339 conceptual]
36. Origins are to _____ as Pawns are to _____.

a. noncontrol, control
b. control, noncontrol
c. intrinsic, extrinsic
d. extrinsic, intrinsic
[b 339 conceptual
37. A key concept in Bandura’s theory is:

a. reciprocal determinism (causation)
b. origins and pawns
c. self-actualization
d. self-fulfilling prophecy
[a 340 factual]
38. According to Bandura, the idea that “capacity to exercise control over the nature and quality
of one’s life” is called:
a. personal causation
b. competence
c. reciprocal determinism
d. human agency
[d 340 factual]
39. According to Bandura, which of the following is NOT a core feature of human agency?
a. intentionality
b. forethought
c. self-reactiveness
d. self-determination
[d 340 conceptual]
40. According to Bandura, the complex interplay between behavior, cognition, and
environmental factors is due to:
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b. competence
c. reciprocal causation
d. positive self-regard
[c 340 factual]
41. Which of the following is NOT one of Bandura's core features of human agency?
a. self-regard
b. intentionality
c. forethought
d. self-reflectiveness
[a 340 conceptual]
42. Which of the following deals mainly with agency from the perspective of the individual?
a. proxy
b. reciprocal
c. collective
d. personal
[d 341 factual]
43. The three modes of Bandura’s concept of human agency include:

a. personal, proxy, and collective agency
b. reciprocal, self, and personal agency
c. competence, relatedness, autonomy agency
d. personal, relational, collection agency
[a 341 factual]
44. Deci and Ryan have identified which of the following as three basic human needs?
a. competence, self-determination, relatedness
b. ability, autonomy, self-determination
c. competence, relatedness, autonomy
d. competence, control, ability
[c 342 factual]
45. According to self-determination theory, the development of intrinsic motivation may be

facilitated by:
a. meeting one’s needs for autonomy, competence and relatedness
b. getting extra rewards for engaging in specific behaviors
c. meeting one’s needs for extrinsic motivation
d. feeling controlled by the desires of other people
[a 342 conceptual]
46. _____ motivation emphasizes the goals toward which an activity is directed, while _____
motivation refers to the value or pleasure associated with an activity.
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a. Internal; external
b. External; internal
c. Intrinsic; extrinsic
d. Extrinsic; intrinsic
[d 343 factual]
47. Which of the following is not one of the three basic needs identified by Deci and Ryan?
a. competence
b. autonomy
c. relatedness
d. self-determination
[d 343 factual]
48. The motivation theory developed by Deci and Ryan is known as _____ theory.
a. self-determination
c. self-direction
d. self-absorption
[a 343 factual]
49. Research by Deci and Ryan has shown that when psychological needs are satisfied, all of the
following are true EXCEPT that the individual:
a. is motivated towards growth and development
b. becomes lazy and depressed
c. has a sense of control over his or her life
d. develops intrinsic motivation
[d 343 conceptual]
50. When rewards are given for behavior that was previously intrinsically motivated, all of the
following are true EXCEPT:
a. intrinsic motivation can be undermined
b. intrinsic motivation is unaffected
c. the person’s sense of autonomy may be reduced
d. extrinsic motivation increases
[b 343 conceptual]
51. In the self-determination theory of Deci and Ryan, the value or pleasure associated with an
activity is called:
a. extrinsic motivation
b. self-actualizing motivation
c. intrinsic motivation
d. reward
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[c 343 factual]
52. According to the self-determination theory, behavior that was once the result of _____
factors can become _____ motivated, provided the external motives become internalized, or
integrated into one's sense of self.
a. extrinsic; intrinsically
b. social; personally
c. controlling; personally
d. intrinsic; extrinsically
[a 344 conceptual]
53. According to Seligman and Csikszentmihalyi, a shortcoming in the field of psychology has
been too much emphasis on:
a. research
b. how to treat people who are mentally ill
c. training clinical psychologists
d. developing standardized testing
[b 345 conceptual]
54. One concept that is central to the theories of Rogers, Maslow, White, DeCharms, Bandura,
and Deci and Ryan, is the focus on:
a. happiness
b. social learning
c. human growth
d. heredity
[c 345 factual]
55. A new area in psychology that focuses on how people can become happy, fulfilled and
psychologically healthy is called:
a. flow psychology
b. clinical psychology
c. positive psychology
d. psychoanalysis
[c 346 factual]
56. According to Seligman, aspects of human character that are valued universally are called:
a. universal truths
b. peak experiences
c. common emotions
d. virtues
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[d 346 factual]
57. Martin Seligman and Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi (2000) argued that psychology has been
dominated by attempts to _____ rather than nurturing _____ individuals.
a. globalize; personalize
b. develop large theories; sick
c. treat disease; healthy
d. overcome prejudice; diseased
[c 346 conceptual]
58. Which one of the following is NOT one of Seligman's aspects of human functioning?
a. positive outlooks
b. positive emotions
c. positive individual traits and virtues
d. positive institutions
[a 346 conceptual]
59. The process of focusing one's attention on the moment rather than engaging in pleasure-
inducing activity automatically is called:
a. gratification
b. mindfulness
c. hedonia
d. positive psychology
[b 346 factual]
60. Which of the following is NOT of Seligman's core virtues?

a. wisdom
b. courage
c. honesty
d. humanity
[c 347 conceptual]
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4. Prior to William James's 1884 article on

CHAPTER 12 - Test emotion, the arousal of behavior was viewed
Bank as the last of a three step process as follows:
a. perception of a stimulus, cognitive
analysis of that stimulus, arousal of behavior
The Emotions as b. reception of a stimulus, perception of the
stimulus, arousal of behavior
Motivators c. perception of a stimulus, development of
an emotion, arousal of behavior
[Note: After each question, the correct d. reception of a stimulus, focus of attention
answer, the textbook page from which it on the stimulus, arousal of behavior
comes, and the question type is provided.] [c 356 factual]
1. Originally the word emotion meant: 5. According to the James-Lange theory:
a. to be motivated a. emotion is a result of our bodily responses
b. to feel to a stimulus.
c. to touch b. emotion is a direct result of an external
d. to move stimulus.
[d 353 factual] c. emotion can occur without a prior
stimulus.
2. Darwin's principle which states that d. emotion is not a factor in the arousal of
opposite emotions result in the expression of behavior.
opposite types of behavior is known as the [a 356 factual]
principle of:
a. serviceable associated habits 6. The _____ theory of emotion suggested
b. direct action that emotion occurred as a result of our
c. antithesis bodily responses to an object.
d. balanced emotions a. Cannon-Bard
[c 355 factual] b. Schachter Cognitive-Physiological
c. James-Lange
3. According to Darwin, _____ were d. Bandura-Ekman
learned behaviors that became innate [c 356 factual]
because of their usefulness.
b. serviceable associated habits
c. direct action on the nervous system
d. inherited actions
[b 355 factual]
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7. Which of the following was NOT one of 11. Cannon believed that emotion is
W. B. Cannon's criticisms of the James- associated with:
Lange theory of emotion? a. activation of internal organs
a. changes occurring in the internal organs b. activation of the sympathetic nervous
are too slow to provide the experience of system
emotion. c. activation of the muscles
b. bodily changes are very different d. activation of motivations
depending upon the emotion shown. [b 358 factual]
c. bodily changes could be eliminated
without disturbing the emotions of an 12. Which of the following structures is
organism. most important in controlling emotion,
d. artificial induction of an aroused according to Cannon?
emotional state does not lead to an a. thalamus
emotional "feeling". b. cerebellum
[b 357 conceptual] c. hippocampus
d. cerebellum
8. Which portion of the autonomic nervous [a 358 factual]
system is most active when energy stores of
the body are being expended? 13. The cognitive-physiological theory of
a. parasympathetic emotion in which it is assumed that both
b. central physiological arousal and a cognitive label
c. peripheral are necessary for the full experience of
d. sympathetic emotion was proposed by:
[d 358 factual] a. Cannon
b. Hebb
9. The _____ nervous system is most active c. Schachter
when the body is in the process of storing d. Lange
energy for future use. [c 359 factual]
a. sympathetic
b. somatic 14. According to Schachter, emotion:
c. parasympathetic a. involves both bodily movement and
d. automatic feedback from internal organs.
[a 358 factual] b. Involves cognitive factors, alone.
c. involves both physiological arousal and
10. Cannon believed that emotion was cognitive appraisal.
associated with activation of which d. involves basic, genetically determined
portion(s) of the nervous system? responses.
a. both the parasympathetic and sympathetic [c 359 factual]
nervous systems
b. the parasympathetic nervous system, 15. _____ saw the expression of emotion as
alone simultaneous with activation of the body.
c. the cerebellum a. Freud
d. the sympathetic nervous system, alone b. James
[d 358 factual] c. Cannon
d. Ekman
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[c 359 factual]
20. Papez proposed a system of structures
16. The _____ theory of emotion proposes that were concerned with emotional
that both physiological arousal and cognitive expression. These structures have come to
attributions are necessary for the full be known as the:
experience of emotion. a. emotional brain system
a. cognitive attributional b. limbic system
b. cognitive-physiological c. hypothalamic-thoracic circuit
c. physiological-attribution d. cingulate cortex connection
d. bodily reaction cognition [b 364 factual]
[b 359 factual]
21. Currently the _____ has been
17. According to Eibl-Eibesfeldt, defined implicated as the primary brain structure
behavior patterns that have become concerned with the production and
differentiated into signals are called: governance of the expression of emotion.
a. behavioral signals a. medulla
b. motivated signals b. cerebellum
c. expressive movements c. hippocampus
d. inherited movements d. amygdala
[c 363 factual] [d 364 factual]
18. According to Buck's studies of human 22. Studies of nonverbal expression of

facial expressiveness: emotion by Haith, Rosenthal, and Buck
a. men are more facially expressive than support the idea that:
women. a. nonverbal cues are unreliable indicators
b. women are more facially expressive than of emotion
men. b. men are better emotional communicators
c. men are better at reading facial expression than women
than women. c. humans are sensitive to nonverbal
d. men and women are equally skilled at communication
displaying and reading facial expression. d. none of the above
[b 363 factual] [c 364 factual]
19. According to the work of Buck and 23. Which of these brain structures provides
Rosenthal, women are _____ than men in input to the amygdala about the social
sending and receiving nonverbal context of emotions?
information. a. hypothalamus
a. better b. cingulate gyrus
b. worse c. hippocampus
c. significantly worse d. orbital frontal cortex
d. no better or worse [d 365 factual]
[a 363 factual]
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24. Phineas Gage is most well-known 28. Bandura argued that emotionality can
because: be learned through observation of others.
a. he was a brilliant neuroscientist who Such learning is called:
discovered the importance of the limbic a. observational hypothesis
system b. modeling
b. he survived a brain injury and underwent c. artificially-induced learning
personality changes due to the brain damage d. independent learning
c. he invented the MRI, a technology for [b 368 factual]
imaging brain structures
d. he was born without the ability to express 29. The _____ is crucial for the reinforcing
emotion effects of natural as well as drug-related
[b 365 factual] reinforcers.
a. nucleus accumbens
25. Research indicates the _____ is b. hippocampus
important to the behavioral, autonomic, and c. cerebellum
hormonal changes that occur in emotional d. medulla
situations. [a 368 factual]
a. hippocampus
b. amygdala 30. Both natural and artificial (drug)
c. cortex reinforcers stimulate the release of _____ in
d. cerebellum the nucleus accumbens.
[b 366 factual] a. histamine
b. serotonin
26. The _____ nucleus of the amygdala c. dopamine
appears to be important for the association d. adrenaline
of conditioned stimulus and unconditioned [c 368 factual]
stimulus in conditioned fear situations.
a. basolateral 31. Seligman suggested that:
b. ventral medial a. emotional learning is unprepared
c. anterior b. all phobias are a result of classical
d. posterior conditioning
[a 367 factual] c. emotion is independent of learning
d. emotional learning is prepared
27. According to Bandura, emotionality: [d 370 factual]
a. can be learned through observation of
others 32. According to Seligman, a phobia is an
b. cannot be learned through observation of example of _____ learning in humans.
others a. contraprepared
c. is totally innate b. unprepared
d. none of the above c. prepared
[a 368 factual] d. ultra prepared
[c 370 factual]
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33. Cognitive approaches to understanding 37. According to Snyder, people who are
emotion stress importance of cognitive _____ self-monitors are motivated to change
_____, according to Lazarus. behavior to meet demands of the situation,
a. appraisal while _____ self-monitors are motivated to
b. interpretation engage in behavior that is consistent with
c. perception their internal state.
d. learning a. moderate; high
[a 371 factual] b. low; high
c. low; moderate
34. Which of the following is generally true d. high; low
of phobias? [d 373 conceptual]
a. phobias are arbitrary
b. phobias are not resistant to extinction 38. Zajonc argued that emotion is
c. phobias are generally reactions to independent of, and can occur prior to,
naturally occurring objects cognition. This is called the:
d. phobias require repeated exposure to a. emotional independence hypothesis
develop b. primacy of affect
[c 371 factual] c. cognitive interpretation of emotion
d. social learning approach
35. Theories which include the idea that [b 374 factual]
emotion is the result of an appraisal of the
present condition of stimuli suggest that: 39. Which of the following is NOT one of
a. emotions do not require cognition Zajonc's arguments for primacy of affect?
b. emotions are universal a. emotions are inescapable
c. emotions require cognition b. affect is basic
d. emotions are innate c. emotional reactions are difficult to
[c 371 factual] verbalize
d. emotion requires cognition
36. Valins conducted a study of male [d 374 conceptual]
college students. They viewed slides of
seminude females and were provided with 40. Zajonc contends that a physiological
false heartbeat feedback information. Which explanation of the finding that emotion can
of the following did he find? occur quickly and without cognition is the
a. slides associated with a decrease in direct ling between the thalamus and the:
heartbeat rate were preferred. a. hypothalamus
b. slides associated with an increase in b. amygdala
heartbeat rate were preferred. c. hippocampus
c. slides associated with a change in d. cerebellum
heartbeat rate (either up or down) were [b 374 factual]
preferred.
d. there was no correlation between change 41. Which is NOT one of the reasons that
in heartbeat rate and preference. Zajonc argued that emotions are universal?
[c 372 factual] a. emotions are difficult to verbalize
b. emotions must be preceded by cognition
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c. emotions are difficult to alter

d. emotions are inescapable
[b 374 factual] 46. According to Tomkins, every society
puts constraints on the expression of
42. According to Zajonc, emotion is: emotions. These voluntarily modified
a. genetically predetermined emotions are called:
b. independent of, and can occur prior to, a. display rules
any cognition b. feedback emotions
c. dependent on cognitive factors in the c. social emotions
individual d. backed-up emotions
d. culturally determined [d 376 factual]
[b 374 factual]
43. According to Tomkins' model, which of Izard's basic emotions?
the following statements would be true? a. interest
a. there is an unlimited number of emotions b. love
b. emotions are learned c. happiness
c. communicative behaviors associated with d. anger
emotions are preprogrammed [b 377 conceptual]
d. emotions have little to do with external
stimuli 48. According to Izard, _____ emotions are
[c 375 factual] innate, evolutionarily adaptive, automatic
responses to stimuli, and short in duration.
44. _____ argued that we communicate our a. schema
emotional state to others through facial b. complex
expressions and voice inflections and we c. basic
experience emotion as a result of feedback d. cognitive
from these responses. [c 377 factual]
a. Tomkins 49. Russell proposed the _____ model of
b. Zajonc affect, which classifies emotions along two
C. Lazarus dimensions, with emotional words
d. Bandura describing a circle around the dimensions.
[a 375 factual] a. circumplex
b. dimensional
45. Which of the following is NOT one of c. adaptive circular
the assumptions of Izard's original d. learned
differential emotions theory? [a 378 factual]
a. emotion is inherently adaptive
b. emotions are discreet 50. According to the circumplex model of
c. emotions are learned in social situations emotion, emotional labels bay be arranged:
d. emotions interact with each other a. into a rectangular shape around three
[c 376 conceptual] dimensions
b. into a conical shape around three
dimensions
c. in a circular shape around two dimensions
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d. in a hierarchy
[c 378 factual]
51. According to Russell, _____ is the 55. According to Ekman, _____ are learned
aspect of emotional experience that can be early in life and determine which emotional
mapped on the dimensions of pleasantness expressions are appropriate in particular
and arousal. situations.
a. circumplex dimensionality a. core emotions
b. core affect b. basic emotions
c. emotional schema c. custom emotions
d. basic emotion adaptation d. display rules
[b 380 factual] [d 383 factual]
52. Ekman and his colleagues conducted 56. When an individual does not display a
research which indicates that: universal facial expression in the presence
a. facial expressions of emotion are of an authority figure, the inhibition of that
universal expression is due to:
b. facial expressions of emotion are learned a. cultural constraint
in infancy b. display rules
c. facial expressions are culturally c. innate response
determined d. display blocking
d. facial expressions do not correlate [b 383 factual]
strongly with emotional state
[a 382 factual] 57. In comparative studies of true smiles
(with emotion of happiness) and lie smiles
53. Tomkins and Izard have both stressed (without emotion of happiness), it was found
the importance of _____ in both experience that:
and the communication of emotion. a. there was no difference between the two
a. physiology and learning b. children are better at producing lie smiles
b. social circumstances than adults
c. facial changes c. the main difference was in the use of
d. development and learning facial muscles around the eyes
[c 382 factual] d. the main difference was in the use of
facial muscles around the mouth
54. Currently cross-cultural research [c 384 factual]
defends Ekman's idea that some emotions
are: 58. The idea that our movements allow us
a. universal to experience particular emotions is called:
b. not developed until adolescence a. the circumplex model of emotion
c. totally unique to the environmental b. the facial feedback hypothesis
d. unreliable in public c. the differential emotions theory
[a 382 factual] d. display rules
[b 384 factual]
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59. The _____ proposes that the emotion

we experience is influenced by feedback
from facial muscles or skin.
a. feedback principle
b. facial network proposal
c. facial feedback hypothesis
d. physiological-feedback initiative
[c 384 factual]
60. Strack found that when subjects were

forced to adopt a facial posture similar to
smiling while rating the humor of cartoons,
the cartoons were rated:
a. equally humorous independent of the
facial posture
b. as more humorous when the face was held
in a "smile"
c. as less humorous when the face was held
in a "smile"
d. as funny or not funny depending on the
personality of the participants
[b 385 factual]
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Conclusions
1. The study of motivation can be said to:

a. involve only a small portion of psychology
b. be primarily practical, but not theoretical
c. be primarily theoretical, but not practical
d. cut across all areas of psychology, both theoretical and applied
[d 395 factual]
2. The need to continue one's genetic information on to the next generation is called:
a. generational drive state
b. generational motivation
c. genetic coding hypothesis
d. primary operating principle
[d 395 factual]
3. Motive states such as hunger, thirst, aggression, and sexual behavior are perhaps best viewed
from a _____ perspective.
a. physiological
b. humanistic
c. group
d. experiential
[a 395 factual]
4. The activation of behavior to maintain the body at an optimum level is called:

a. arousal
b. optimum hypothesis
c. homeostasis
d. activation theory
[c 396 factual]
5. Typically _____ motivation is concerned with environmental objects or goals that stimulate
and guide our behavior.
a. humanistic
b. incentive
c. arousal
d. evolutionary
[b 396 factual]
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6. The amygdala, frontal cortex, and nucleus accumbens contribute to _____ learning.
a. emotional
b. group
c. developmental
d. observational
[a 396 factual]
7. The _____ approaches to motivation propose that inconsistencies in our thoughts trigger
motivation that brings those thoughts back into consistent relationships with one another.
a. precisely balanced system
b. adequate
c. humanistic
d. consistency
[d 396 factual]
8. The many studies on motivation can be best summarized by the statement:

a. "motivation is a biological process"
b. "motivation is a cognitive process"
c. "motivation is learned"
d. "motivation is multidimensional"
[d 397 factual]
9. The fully functioning individual and self-actualization are _____ approaches to motivation.
a. group
b. humanistic
c. social learning
d. attribution
[b 397 factual]
10. The experience of emotion is influenced by the _____ nervous system.

a. sympathetic
b. cerebellar
c. parasympathetic
d. somatic
[a 397 factual]
11. Our _____ capacities allow us to make inferences about why others behave the way that
they do.
a. genetic
b. biological
c. cognitive
d. perceptual
[c 398 factual]
TB13 - 2

Motivation Practice Exam

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Sample/practice exam 2014, questions and answers -

Motivation (York University)

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CHAPTER 1 - Test Bank

1. Motivation can best be viewed as:

2. The concept of motivation is used to describe forces acting on or within an organism

4. According to the stimulus-response analysis, motivation

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5. Which of the following is NOT a reason that motivation is difficult to study?

8. Activation involves all of the following EXCEPT:

9. A preference test can be a good indicator of:

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12. Preference may be considered an index of motivation because it shows:

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24. The social level of analysis deals with:

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42. An example of a theory based on the idea of localization of function is:

44. Which of the following is NOT true about drive theory?

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47. The most fundamental process of life is

48. The mechanism for maintaining genetic information is called:

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52. Evolution can be defined as:

54. _____ is to mating success as _____ is to number of offspring.

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60. According to evolutionary psychology, reproductive value in human females is

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CHAPTER 2 - Test Bank

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5. Which of the following was NOT a component of instincts, according to William

6. According to William McDougall, which of the following is NOT true?

7. The anthropomorphic method of analysis used by McDougall:

8. Which of the following is NOT a valid criticism of early instinct theories?

10. A list of all behaviors observed in a species is called:

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11. According to Craig (1918), _____ is to well-coordinated, fixed patterns of responding as

12. According to ethological theory, behaviors are inhibited by:

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17. The response that a key stimulus releases is called the:

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25. Which of the following is NOT a category of conflict behavior?

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40. Which of the following is NOT a function of intraspecific aggression?

41. Studies done by Ekman and others indicate that

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44. According to Mattingly and others, speech and language:

46. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of intraspecific aggression?

47. According to ethologists and evolutionary psychologists,

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CHAPTER 3 - Test Bank

2. According to the inverted-U function, performance:

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7. According to studies by Ekman and others:

9. Sleep can be described as

10. According to current research, sleep

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54. _ is to mating success as _ is to number of offspring.

42. ADH is released by the _ and causes _.