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CURRENT ELECTRICITY

1. What are the minimum requirements to cause the flow of current? A. A voltage source, an ammeter,
a conductor and an insulator
B. A voltage source, a switch and a resistor
C. A voltage source and a conductor
D. A voltage source, a conductor and an insulator

2. Out of the following, select the best conductor of electricity.


A. Graphite B. China clay C. Porcelain D. None of these

3. Which of the following statements is correct?


A. The resistance does not play an important role in electrical engineering.
B. The resistance of a wire does not depend upon its material.
C. The resistance of most of the materials is independent of the temperature.
D. The resistance of conductor is the hindrance by which the conductor opposes the flow of the
current.

4. Resistance of a conductor increases when A. its length increases


B. its area increases
C. both length and area increases
D. specific resistance is kept constant
5. The specific resistance ρ depends upon
A. The area of cross-section and the length of the conductor
B. The material of the conductor, its area of cross-section and length
C. The nature of the material of the conductor only
D. The area of cross-section of the conductor
6. The specific resistance ρ is defined as
A. resistance of a conductor which has a length of 1 m and cross-section of 1 m 2 at
20oC
B. resistance of any conductor at 25oC
C. resistance of any conductor at 20oC
D. resistance of a conductor which has a length of 1 m and cross-section of 1 cm 2 at 20oC

7. The resistance of a conductor, when its temperature is increased


A. remains constant B. increases
C. varies D. decreases

8. It was experimentally found by James Prescott Joule that the heat produced in a current carrying
conductor is proportional to
A. the square of the current B. square of resistance
C. the current D. inversely proportional to time

9. The value of Joule’s mechanical equivalent of heat, J, is equal to


A. 4.2 calories per Joule B. 2.4 Joules per calorie
C. 4.2 Joules per calorie D. 4.2 Joules
10. Temperature coefficient of a conductor is defined as the
A. increase in resistance per ohm per degree centigrade
B. increase in resistance per degree centigrade
C. increase in resistance per degree absolute
D. decrease in resistance per ohm per degree centigrade

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CURRENT ELECTRICITY

11. When current flows in a conductor, heat is produced because A. heat α I2


B. of electronic collision
C. of interatomic collision
D. of Joule’s law

12. Heating effect of current has undesirable side effect in


A. electric oven B. electric iron C. immersion heater D. vacuum cleaner

13. The resistance of carbon (filament in carbon-filament lamps) when its temperature is decreased
A. increases B. decreases
C. remains the same D. increases enormously

14. The curve representing Ohm’s law is


A. a parabola B. linear C. sine function D. a hyperbola

15. The condition in Ohm’s law is that A. ratio V/I should be constant
B. current should be proportional to voltage
C. the temperature should remain constant
D. the temperature should vary

16. Ohm’s law does not apply to


A. conductors
B. conductors when there is change in temperature
C. semiconductor
D. a.c. circuit

17. Ohm’s law is applicable to


A. electric arc B. rectifying devices
C. gas discharge lamps D. none of these

18. Ohm’s law can be applied with certain reservations to


A. rectifying devices B. semiconductors
C. electrolytes D. thermionic valves

19. The presence of an electric current is made known by


A. flashing B. effects produced
C. cracking D. electric shock

20. An electric current can neither be _______ nor _______.


A. felt, seen B. seen, touched
C. seen, produced any effect D. produced, felt

21. The presence of the current is only made known by the effect it produces. Three important effects
are
A. heating, electric shock and generation
B. generation, chemical and electric shock
C. heating, magnetic and electric shock
D. heating, magnetic and chemical

22. Voltage applied across a circuit, acts as

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CURRENT ELECTRICITY

A. mass of electrons B. negative ions


C. a component of current D. a force

23. In a series circuit the current is


A. constant B. always zero
C. proportional to the resistance D. different in different resistors

24. In a parallel circuit the potential difference across the resistance


A. varies B. is different from the applied voltage
C. is sometimes constant D. is always constant

25. The resistance R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The ratio of values of resistance R 1 : R2 is 4 : 1.
The currents in R1 : R2 will be equal to
A. 1 : 4 B. 1 : 1 C. 4 : 1 D. 4 : 4

26. A resistance of 4 ohms is connected across 100 V supply. When another resistor ‘R’ ohms is
connected in parallel with 4 ohms, the total current taken from supply was found to be 50 A. The
value of resistance ‘R’ is
A. 2 ohms B. 3 ohms C. 5 ohms D. 4 ohms

27. The voltage applied across an electric press was reduced by 50%. The power consumed by the press
will be reduced by
A. 25% B. 75% C. 60% D. 50%

28. Two electric presses are connected in parallel. The resistance of the first press is 100 ohms and that
of the second is 300 ohms. The total current taken by both the presses is 4 A. The ratio of current
taken by first : second will be equal to
A. 2 : 3 B. 1 : 3 C. 3 : 1 D. 1.2 : 3

29. Three elements having conductance G1, G2 and G3 are connected in parallel. Their combined
conductance will be
1
A. G1 + G2 + G3 B.
G
G1 + 2 + G3
C. G1G2 + G2G3 + G3G1 D. 1

G1 + G2 + G3 1+1+1
G1 G2 G3

30. Four resistances R1, R2, R3 and R4 are connected in series against 220 V supply. The resistances are
such that R1 > R2 > R3 > R4. The least power consumption will be in
A. resistor R1 B. resistor R4
C. resistor R3 D. resistor R2
31. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because
A. supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
B. current through supply line flows at slower speed
C. supply wires are made of superior material
D. resistance of heater coil is more than that of supply wires

32. Resistors commonly used in power circuits are

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CURRENT ELECTRICITY

A. carbon resistors B. etched circuit resistors


C. wire wound resistors D. deposited metal resistors

33. International ohm is defined in terms of resistance of


A. a column of mercury B. a cube of carbon C. unit length of metal wire D. a
cube of copper

34. Which of the following has negative coefficient of resistance?


A. wire wound resistor B. non-metals
C. thermistor D. metals

35. The current carrying capacity of the fuse material depends on


A. length B. material
C. cross-sectional area D. all of these

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ELECTROLYSIS AND STORAGE BATTERIES

1. Electrochemical equivalent is
A. ratio of atomic weight of an element to atomic weight of hydrogen
B. mass of the element liberated per unit quantity of hydrogen
C. ratio of atomic weight of valency
D. none of the above

2. The mass of material deposited over an electrode is


A. proportional to voltage
B. proportional to time only
C. proportional to current only
D. proportional to quantity of electricity and electrochemical equivalent

3. The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity
which passes through the electrolyte. The above statement is associated with
A. Gauss’s theorem B. Laplace law
C. Weber and Ewing’s theory D. laws of electrolysis

4. In electroplating, the positive electrode is called the


A. cathode B. anode C. terminal D. iontrap

5. Impurities in an electrolyte can cause an internal short circuit condition called


A. depolarization B. electrolysis C. local action D. polarization

6. Distilled or approved water is used in electrolytes because it A. prevents or slows down local action
B. speeds up electrochemical
action
C. improves specific gravity
D. prevents polarization

7. The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of its


A. current value B. specific gravity C. acid content D. voltage output

8. One factor affecting voltages of the primary cell is the


A. area of the plates B. distance between the plates
C. types of plates and electrolyte D. thickness of the plates

9. Local action in the primary cell can be rectified by


A. charging the cell
B. amalgamating the zinc electrode with mercury
C. using the cell for just few minutes
D. dry cell

10. The action of a dry cell is to change A. chemical action to mechanical energy
B. chemical action to electrical energy
C. electrical energy into mechanical energy
D. electrical energy into magnetic energy

11. Polarization in dry cell can be got rid of by


A. coating the electrodes of the cell B. chemical means
C. discharging the cell D. disposing the cell
12. The two main defects of the primary cell are

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ELECTROLYSIS AND STORAGE BATTERIES
A. polarization and sulphation B. local action and polarization
C. buckling and polarization D. sulphation and buckling

13. The average dry cell gives an approximate voltage of


A. 1.3 V B. 1.5 V C. 1.1 V D. 1.7 V

14. To obtain a high voltage of about 1.9 V from a dry cell, one would use
A. Western standard cell B. Leclanche cell
C. Nickel cadmium cell D. Magnesium cell

17. Cells are connected in parallel to


A. increase the internal resistance B. decrease the current capacity
C. increase the current capacity D. increase the voltage output

18. Cells are connected in series to


A. decrease the voltage output B. increase the voltage output
C. decrease the internal resistance D. increase the current capacity

19. The function of the depolarizer in carbon zinc cell is that


A. it converts the produced hydrogen into water
B. it prevents the fast chemical action on the zinc container
C. it synthesizes the decomposed electrolyte
D. it absorbs the oxygen produced in the cell

20. Which of the following acts as depolarizer in dry cell?


A. manganese dioxide B. zinc chloride
C. ammonium chloride D. carbon powder

21. One advantage of a secondary cell is that it


A. can be recharged B. can be used for portable equipment
C. it is compact, easy to carry D. cannot be recharged

22. The composition of a secondary cell is


A. zinc, copper and dilute sulphuric acid
B. zinc, carbon and dilute sulphuric acid
C. lead, lead peroxide and dilute sulphuric acid
D. zinc, copper and dilute boric acid

23. Nickel-cadmium dry cell is becoming popular in power supplies to electronic calculators because
A. it has a standard shape B. it is dry
C. it is rechargeable D. it is easily manufactured

24. Secondary cell can produce large amounts of power for a


A. short time and can be recharged
B. long time and can be recharged
C. short time and cannot be recharged D. long time and cannot be recharged

25. Gassing occurs in the process of


A. charging an accumulator B. charging a dry cell
C. discharging an accumulator D. discharging a dry cell

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26. The condition of a secondary cell can be determined by
A. its terminal voltage
B. the color of the electrolyte
C. the level of the electrolyte
D. the terminal voltage and strength of the electrolyte

27. The lead acid accumulator should be recharged when the specific gravity of the electrolyte is about
A. 1.15 B. 1.80 C. 1.25 D. 1.35

28. Other types of accumulators besides the lead acid type are
A. alkaline batteries only B. alkaline and solar batteries
C. alkaline and dry batteries D. nickel-cadmium batteries

29. Electrolyte of a storage battery is formed by adding


A. water to hydrochloric acid B. sulphuric acid to water
C. hydrochloric acid to water D. water to sulphuric acid

30. When the electrolyte of a storage battery is low it is usually proper to


A. add a special weak acid solution
B. top up with distilled water
C. charge the battery for a short time before adding an electrolyte D. drain the battery completely and
fill it with fresh electrolyte

31. The ampere hour capacity of battery depends on


A. the thickness of the plates B. the area of the plates
C. the strength of the electrolytes D. the distance between the plates

32. To keep the terminals of a lead acid storage battery free from corrosion, it is advisable to
A. clean the terminals frequently B. charge for battery at frequent intervals C. keep the
electrolyte level low D. apply petroleum jelly

33. The internal resistance of a discharged battery compared with a charged one
A. is more B. is less
C. remains the same D. is negative

34. It is not desirable to leave a lead storage battery in a discharged state for a long time mainly because
A. electrolyte will attack the container B. plates will become sulphated C.
electrolyte will become weak D. acid will evaporate

35. A partially discharged lead storage battery may be brought back to full charge by
A. adding sulphuric acid B. adding distilled water
C. applying ac voltage across the terminals D. applying dc voltage across the terminals

36. Which of the following is a primary cell


A. mercury oxide B. lead-acid
C. nickel-iron-alkaline D. nickel-cadmium-alkaline

37. Charging a lead-acid cell causes the electrolyte to become


A. stronger B. stable C. weaker D. water

38. Separators in storage battery cell are designed to prevent the plates from
A. touching the electrolyte B. touching the container

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ELECTROLYSIS AND STORAGE BATTERIES
C. shorting together D. shorting to the sediment

39. Which of the following affects the capacity of a lead-acid battery?


A. temperature B. discharge time C. specific gravity D. all of these

40. During the charging period of a lead-acid battery, the charging rate is lowered to prevent violent
gassing because
A. the gasses given off are explosive
B. evaporation of the electrolyte will weaken its effect
C. the cells will be subjected to excessive pressure
D. violent gassing tends to wash the active material from the plates

41. A fuel cell converts _______ energy into electrical energy.


A. mechanical B. magnetic C. chemical D. solar

42. A cell which is used as voltage reference source for instrument calibration is
A. solar cell B. dry cell
C. mercury-cadmium cell D. nickel-cadmium cell

43. The advantage of the iron-nickel battery over the lead-acid battery is that
A. it has a much higher efficiency
B. it needs less maintenance
C. the cell voltage of the iron-nickel battery is higher
D. it is much cheaper

44. While charging accumulators, one should


A. check the acid level with a lighted match B.
short the cells to see if they are full charged
C. keep them in a well-ventilated space
D. connect and disconnect them with the supply on

NETWORK THEOREMS

1. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is not valid for a non-linear network.


A. True B. False C. Partly true Partly False

2. Kirchhoff's law is applicable to


A. AC circuits only B. passive networks only
C. AC as well as DC circuits D. DC circuits only

3. An ideal current source has zero


A. voltage on no load B. internal resistance
C. internal conductance D. current

4. A closed path made of several branches of the network is known as


A. loop B. junction C. branch D. division

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5. An ideal voltage source is that which
A. has terminal voltage in proportion to current
B. has zero internal resistance
C. has terminal voltage in proportion to load
D. has terminal voltage in proportion to power

6. A passive network has


A. no source of emf
B. no source of current
C. neither source of current nor source of emf
D. none of these

7. Which of the following is an active element of a circuit?


A. ideal current source B. resistance
C. inductance D. capacitance

8. The relationship between voltage and current is same for two opposite directions of current in case
of
A. bilateral network B. active network
C. unilateral network D. passive network

9. Which of the following statement is not correct?


A. voltage source is an active element B. current source is a passive element C.
resistance is a passive element D. conductance is a passive element

10. A network is said to be non linear if it does not satisfy


A. homogeneity condition B. superposition condition
C. both A and B D. associative condition

11. Which of the following statement is not correct?


A. Ideal voltage source is one whose internal conductance is zero.
B. Ideal current source is one whose internal conductance is zero.
C. Ideal voltage source is one whose internal resistance is zero.
D. Ideal voltage source is one whose generated voltage is equal to the available terminal
voltage.
12. Which of the following is not a non-linear element?
A. diode B. transistor C. heater coil electric arc with unlike
electrodes

13. Which of the following theorems enables a number of voltage (or current) source to be combined
directly into a single voltage (or current) source?
A. compensation theorem B. reciprocity theorem
C. superposition theorem D. Millman’s theorem

14. Thevenin’s theorem is applicable to network of


A. ac circuit only B. dc circuit only
C. ac and dc circuit both D. none of the above

15. For open circuited condition of Thevenin’s theorem, all sources of emf in the network are replaced by
A. their internal impedance B. their internal resistance

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C. as a total a big source of emf D. their internal reactance

16. The current in any branch of a network in case of Thevenin’s theorem is the same as if it were
connected to a generator of
A. different rating B. emf E 1 and internal impedance Z1 C. low rating D. emf E 1 and internal
impedance zero

17. In order to find Z in Thevenin’s theorem


A. all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited
B. all independent voltage sources are short circuited and independent current sources are open
circuited
C. all independent current sources are short circuited and independent voltage sources are open
circuited
D. all independent voltage sources are open circuited and independent current sources are open
circuited

18. Regarding Thevenin’s equivalent, which of the following is not correct?


A. The voltage source in the Thevenin equivalent circuit is the open circuit voltage of the
network when load is disconnected.
B. The Thevenin equivalent resistance (impedance) is the resistance (impedance) of the
network when all voltage sources are short circuited.
C. Thevenin equivalent resistance is calculated when all voltage sources are open circuited.
D. Thevenin equivalent is the voltage equivalent of the network.

19. Regarding Norton’s equivalent, which of the following is not correct?


A. Norton’s equivalent is the voltage equivalent of the network.
B. Norton’s equivalent is the current equivalent of the network.
C. Norton’s equivalent resistance is the same as the Thevenin equivalent resistance.
D. The load is connected in parallel to the Norton equivalent resistance and Norton's equivalent
source.

20. Reciprocity theorem is valid for


A. active network only B. passive network only
C. active and passive network both D. none of the above

21. For reciprocity theorem to be applicable to a network in which


A. generators are present B. capacitor is present
C. inductor is present D. generators are not present

22. In compensation theorem a network containing generator can be replaced by


A. its zero internal impedance B. its infinite impedance
C. another generator D. L.C. circuit

23. The most important feature of superposition theorem application is


A. that the process is eased very much
B. to find d.c. level in e network that has both sources
C. that number of equations needed to be solved is reduced very much
D. none of the above

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24. Open circuit voltage is the potential difference between two points when the impedance between
these points is
A. infinity B. reactive C. zero D. capacitive

25. Norton’s theorem reduces a two terminal network to


A. a constant voltage source and an impedance in parallel
B. a constant voltage source and an impedance in series
C. a constant current source and an impedance in parallel
D. a constant current source and an impedance in series

26. For the same original network end load, Thevenin’s and Norton’s equivalent circuits are related by
A. Eth = InZth = InZn B. Eth = IthZn = IthZth
C. Zn = Eth/Ith D. Zth = En/In

27. If an electrical network having one or more than one voltage source, is transformed into equivalent
electrical network with a single voltage source (which is short circuit current of previous circuit) with
parallel internal resistance of the network with all current source replaced by their internal resistance.
The above illustration is called
A. Thevenin’s theorem B. Reciprocity theorem
C. Norton’s theorem D. Superposition theorem

28. The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are
A. meshes B. nodes C. sources D. all of the above

29. For maximum power transfer, according to maximum power transfer theorem, source impedance
A. must be very much large as compared to the load impedance B. must be complex conjugate
of load impedance
C. must be equal to load impedance
D. must be very small as compared to the load impedance

30. In case of delta connected circuit, when one resistor is open, power will be
A. unaltered B. reduced by 1/3 C. reduced to 1/9 D. reduced to 1/16

31. A source V has an internal impedance Z in = (R + jX) when it is connected Z L = R – jX the power
transferred is
A. V2/4R2 B. V2/4R C. V2/R D. V2/2R
32. The superposition theorem is applicable to
A. linear responses only
B. linear and non-linear responses only
C. linear, non-linear and time variant response
D. non-linear responses only

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