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Q.1 A stone of mass 4kg is attached to a string of 10 m length and is whirled in a horizontal circle. The
string can withstand a maximum tension of 160 N. Calculate the maximum velocity of revolution that
can be given to the stone without breaking the string.
a. 10 m/s
b. 20 m/s
c. 30 m/s
d. 5 m/s
Q.2 Three identical particles are joined together by a thread as shown in the figure. All the three particles
are moving on a smooth horizontal plane about point O. If the speed of the outermost particle is v 0 ,
then the ratio of tension in the three sections of the string is (Assume that the string remains straight
and OA = AB = BC)
a. 3 : 5 : 7
b. 3 : 4 : 5
c. 7 : 11 : 6
d. 3:5:6
Q.3 A ball of mass 0.1 kg is suspended by a string 30 cm long. Keeping the string always taut, the ball
describes a horizontal circle of radius 15cm. The angular speed is
a. 20.2 rad/s
b. 8 rad/s
c. 6.14 rad/s
d. 3.14 rad/s
Q.4 A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a string of length while the other end is fixed to a
point h meter above the horizontal table. The particle is made to revolve in a circle on the table so as
to make P revolution per second. The maximum value of P if the particle is to be in contact with the
table, will be
a.
b.
c.
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d.
Q.5 A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light spring of force constant k and un stretched length .
The system is rotated about the other end of the spring with an angular velocity in gravity free
space. The increase in length of the spring is
a.
b.
c.
d. none of these
Q.6 For a body in circular motion with a constant angular velocity, the magnitude of the average
acceleration over a period of half a revolution is ............times the magnitude of its instantaneous
acceleration.
a.
b.
c.
d. 2
Q.7 A particle moves in the plane so that it’s tangential acceleration = a, and its normal acceleration w n =
bt4 , where a and b are positive constants, and t is time. At the moment t = 0, the particle was at rest.
The curvature radius R of the point’s trajectory and the total acceleration w depend on the distance
covered s as
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a. R = a3 / bs,
b. R = a3 / 2bs,
c. R = a3 / 4bs,
d.
Q.8 A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 40 MHz travels in free space in the X-direction. At some
point and at some instant, the electric field has its maximum value of 750 N/C in Y-direction. The
a. 3.5 m
b. 5.5 m
c. 7.5 m
d. 9.5 m
Q.9 The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is :
Q.11 Soft iron is used to make the core of transformer, because of its:
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a. paramagnetic
b. diamagnetic
c. ferromagnetic
d. non magnetic
Q.13 Among the following properties describing diamagnetism identify the property that is wrongly stated:-
Q.14 Which of the following material has zero magnetic moment of single atom:-
a. Paramagnetic
b. Ferromagnetic
c. Diamagnetic
d. All
Q.15 Correct relation between magnetic field B, Magnetic intensity H and magnetism M is:-
a. B= 0 (H + M)
b. M = 0 (B + H)
c. H = 0 (B + M)
d. B = 2H(1 + M)
Q.16 If the relative permeability of a material is 0.9999 then its nature will be :-
a. Paramagnetic
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b. Diamagnetic
c. Ferromagnetic
d. Non–magnetic
a. Ferromagnetism
b. Diamagnetism
c. Paramagnetism
d. Non–magnetism
Q.18 The coercivity of a bar magnet is 100A/m. It is to be demagnetised by placing it inside a solenoid of
length 100 cm and number of turns 50. The current flowing the solenoid will be :-
a. 4A
b. 2A
c. 1A
d. zero
Q.19 The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic material at –73°C is 0.0075 then its value at –173°C will
be :-
a. 0.0045
b. 0.0030
c. 0.015
d. 0.0075
Q.20 If a diamagnetic material is placed in a magnetic field, the flux density inside the material compared to
that outside will be :
a. Slightly less
b. Slightly more
c. Very much more
d. Same
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Q.21 To protect a sensitive instrument from external magnetic jerks, it should be placed in a container made
of :-
Q.22 Substances in which the magnetic moment of a single atom is not zero, are known as:-
a. Diamagnetic
b. Ferromagnetic
c. Paramagnetic
d. Non magnetic
Q.23 When a diamagnetic substances is inserted in a current carrying coil, then magnetic field is:-
a. Decreased
b. Unchanged
c. Increased
d. Increased or decreased depending upon the relative volume of the substance
a. Zero
b. Infinity
c. 1
d. –1
Q.25 A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It:
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Q.26 A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet executes
oscillations with a time period of 2 sec in earth's horizontal magnetic field of 24 microtesla. When a
horizontal field of 18 micro tesla is produced opposite to the earth's field by placing a current carrying
wire, the new time period of magnet will be :
a. 4s
b. 1s
c. 2s
d. 3s
a. Between the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field and magnetic meridian
b. Between the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field and geographical meridian
c. Between the earth’s magnetic field direction and horizontal direction
d. Between the magnetic meridian and the geographical meridian
Q.28 A particle of mass m slides on a frictionless surface ABCD, starting from rest as shown in figure. The
part BCD is a circular arc. If it losses contact at point P, find the maximum height attained by the
particle from point C is
a. 3R
b.
c.
d. 2R
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Q.29 The work done in rotating a magnet of magnetic moment M by an angle of 90° from the external
magnetic field direction is 'n' times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60°.
Where 'n' gives by
a. 1/2
b. 2
c. 1/4
d. 1
a.
b.
c.
d. none of these
a. Isopropyl alcohol
b. 3- methyl – 2- butanone
c. Isobutyl alcohol
d. Ethyl methyl ketone
a. All of these
b. I and III
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c. III only
d. I and II
Q.33 18 g glucose (C6 H12 O6 ) is added to 178.2 g water. The vapour pressure of water ( in torr) for this
aqueous solution is :
a. 7.6
b. 76.0
c. 752.4
d. 759
a. A fertilizer
b. Biodegradable pollutant
c. Non – biodegradable pollutant
d. Greenhouse gas
Q.36 Which one of the following reagents is not suitable for the elimination reaction ?
a. Nal
b. NaOEt / EtOH
c. NaOH / H2 O
d. NaOH / H2 O – EtOH
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Q.37 The solubility of N2 in water at 300 k and 500 torr partial pressure is 0.01 g L1 . The solubility (in g L1 ) at
750 torr partial pressure.
a. 0.0075
b. 0.005
c. 0.02
d. 0.015
Q.39 The non – metal that does not exhibit positive oxidation state is :
a. Chlorine
b. Iodine
c. Fluorine
d. Oxygen
a. Finkelstein reaction
b. Swart’s reaction
c. Free radical fluorination
d. Sandmeyer’s reaction
Q.41 An aqueous solution of salt MX2 at certain temperature has a Van’t Holf factor of 2. The degree of
dissociation for this solution of the salt is :
a. 0.50
b. 0.33
c. 0.67
d. 0.80
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a. 1 – chloropentane
b. 2 – chloropentane
c. 1 – chloro – 2- methylpentane
d. 3-chloro-2-methylpentane
a. 2 – chloropropanal
b. 2 – chloropentane
c. 2 – chlorobutane
d. 2 – chloro – 2 – methylbutane
Q.45 The vapour pressure of acetone at 20 C is 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was
dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20 C. Its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass (g mol1 ) of
the substance is :
a. 128
b. 488
c. 32
d. 64
Q.46 The molecular formula of a commercial resin used for exchanging ions in water softening is
C8 H7 SO3 Na (Mol. Wt. 206). What would be the maximum uptake of Ca2+ ions by the resin when
expressed in mole per gram resin?
a.
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b.
c.
d.
Q.47 Assertion : Among the carbon allotropes diamond is an insulator whereas graphite is a good
conductor of electricity.
Reason : Hybridization of carbon in diamond and graphite are sp 3 and sp2 , respectively.
a. Both assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion
b. Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion
c. Both assertion and reason are incorrect
d. Assertion is incorrect statement but the reason is correct.
Q.48 A compound A with molecular formula C10 H13 Cl gives a white precipitate on adding silver nitrate
solution. A on reacting with alcoholic KOH gives compound B as the main product. B on ozonolysis
gives C and D gives Cannizzaro reaction but not aldol condensation. D gives aldol condensation but
not Cannizzaro reaction. A is :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Q.49 A solution at 20 C is composed of 1.5 mol of benzene and 3.5 mol of toluene. If the vapour pure
benzene and pure toluene at this temperature are 74.7 torr and 22.3 torr respectively, then the total
vapour pressure of the solution and the benzene mole fraction in equilibrium with it will be
respectively.
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Q.50 From the following statements regarding H2 O2 , choose the incorrect statement.
a. Alkenes
b. Alkyl copper halides
c. Alkanes
d. Alkenyl halides
Q.52 The major organic compound formed by the reaction of 1, 1, 1 – trichloroethane with silver powder is :
a. 2 – butene
b. Acetylene
c. Ethene
d. 2 – butyne
Q.53 Determination of the molar mass of acetic acid in benzene using freezing point depression is a
affected by :
a. Dissociation
b. Association
c. Partial ionization
d. Complex formation
a. Boiling
b. Ion exchange method
c. Calgon’s method
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Q.55 The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. Mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of water is
1.15 g/mL. The molarity of this solution is:
a. 1.78 M
b. 1.02 M
c. 2.05 M
d. 0.50 M
Q.56 In SN 2 reactions the correct order of reactivity for the following compounds:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Q.57 A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing n- heptanes and ethanol. Which one of the following
statements is correct regarding the behavior of the solution?
Q.58 Compound (A) gives a white precipitate when warmed with alcoholic . Oxidation
of (A) gives an acid (B), . (B) easily forms anhydride on heating. Identify the Compond (A).
a.
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b.
c.
d.
Q.59 A solution of (-) – 1- chloro – 1- phenylethane in toluene racemises slowly in the presence of a small
amount SbCl5 , due to the formation of :
a. Free radical
b. Carbanion
c. Carbene
d. Carbocation
Q.60 A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol, CH3 OH is supplied. What is the mole fraction of
methyl alcohol in the solution?
a. 0.100
b. 0.190
c. 0.086
d. 0.050
Q.61
Sum of n term of the series
a.
b.
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c.
d.
Q.62 Let f(x) be a polynomial function of second degree. If f (1) = f (-1) and a, b, c are in A.P, then f’ (a), f' (b),
f' (c) are in:
a. G.P
b. H.P
c. A.G.P
d. A.P
Q.63 If three positive real numbers a,b,c are in A.P. such that abc = 4, then the minimum possible value of b
is:
a. 23/2
b. 22/3
c. 21/3
d. 25/2
Q.64 If a1 ,a2 ….an are in H.P. then the expression a1 a2 + a2 a3 +… + an-1 an is equal to:
a. (n - 1)a1 an
b. n(a1 – an )
c. (n -1) (a1 – an )
d. na1 an
Q.65 Suppose a, b, c are distinct real numbers such that a, 2b, 3c are in A.P. and a, b, c are in G.P. The
common ratio of G.P. is.
a. 2
b. 1/2
c. 1/3
d. 3
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a. A.P.
b. G.P.
c. H.P.
d. None of these
Q.67 If a, b, c is three distinct positive numbers in G.P. and a + b + c = xb, then value of x lies in:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Q.68 If G1 and G2 are two geometric means and A is the arithmetic mean inserted between two positive
a. A/2
b. A
c. 2A
d. None of these
Q.69 The harmonic mean and geometric mean of two positive numbers are in the ratio 4 : 5, then two
numbers are in the ratio:
a. 4:1
b. 3:1
c. 2:1
d. 1:3
Q.70 The sum of integers from 1 to 100 that are divisible by 2 or 5 is:
a. 3050
b. 3150
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c. 3250
d. None of these
Q.71
If A = , then
a. A is an orthogonal matrix
b. A is a symmetric matrix
c. A is a skew – symmetric matrix
d. none of these
Q.72 If A is an invertible matrix and B is an orthogonal matrix, of order same as that of A, then C = A -1 BA
is:
a. an orthogonal matrix
b. symmetric matrix
c. skew – symmetric matrix
d. none of these
a. AB is a skew-symmetric matrix
b. AB is a symmetric matrix
c. AB is a symmetric matrix if A and B commute
d. None of these
is singular is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of these
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Q.75 The number of 3 3 matrices A whose entries are either 0 or 1 and for which the system of equations,
a. 0
b. 511
c. 1024
d. 5
Q.76
a. a = -3, b 1/3
b. a = 2/3, b 1/3
c. a 1/4, b = 1/3
d. a -3, b 1/3
Q.77
If A =
a. (-6, 11)
b. (-11, 6)
c. (11, 6)
d. (6, 11)
Q.78
Let A = and B =
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Q.79
Let A = and x, y R such that A2 + xA + yI = 0 then (x, y) equals:
a. (-9, -14)
b. (9, -14)
c. (-9, 14)
d. (9, 14)
Q.80
If x = -2 and :
a. 8
b. -8
c. 4
d. -4
a.
b.
c. -5
d. 4
Q.82
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a. a, b, c are in A.P.
b. a, b, c are in H.P.
c. x- is a factor ax2 + 2bx +c
d. x - is a factor of ax2 +bx +c
Q.83
If :
a. 0
b. 3abc
c. 6abc
d. 2(a3 + b3 + c3 )
Q.84
If x, y, z are different from zero and then the value of the expression
is:
a. 0
b. -1
c. 1
d. 2
a. -2
b. 1
c. 2
d. Either -2 (or) 1
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Q.86
Let
Then
a.
b.
c. 1
d. 0
Q.87
If
a. a + b + c
b. –(a + b + c)
c. abc
d. 0
Q.88
equals:
a. –p/q
b. 1/q
c. p2 /q
d. 0
Q.89
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Let :
a. (x – 1) (y – 1) (z – 1)
b. (x – y) (y – z) (z – x)
c. abc (x – y) (y – z) (z – x)
d. None of these
Q.90
a. x = 1, y = -1
b. x = -1, y = 1
c. x =2, y = -1/2
d. None of these
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