Questions ١-٢٠

١) If a stakeholder has any questions about project deliverables, as the PM, you should direct
him to the:

a) WBS

b) Project plan

c) Preliminary Scope statement

d) None of the above

٢) Your construction project was damaged by an earthquake. Your contractor says that he
cannot fulfil the terms of the contract due to a specific clause you both had signed in the
contract. He is referring to the:
a) Force majeure clause
b) Fixed price clause
c) Contract obligation terms
d) None of the above

٣) Your vendor has confirmed in writing that he will not be able to provide the products
contracted to him, in the time mentioned in the contract. You can terminate the contract and
sue for damages. This is a type of:
a) Minor breach
b) Anticipatory breach
c) Material breach
d) Fundamental breach

٤) As a PM, you manage multiple projects. One of your projects is over budget while the other
is under budget. You decide to transfer money from the latter to the former and report both
projects as within budget. This is against the PMI code of ethics and is called:
a) Unethical management
b) Budget tampering

c) Fraudulent reporting
d) Cost leveling

٥) Your brother can influence bids in the vendor company that has been contracted for your
project. You should:
a) Disclose the bid price that is most likely to make him win
b) Reject other vendors and award him the contract
c) Refrain from the decision-making process and make a full disclosure to stakeholders and wait
for their decision before you proceed
d) Pretend during meetings that you don't know your brother

٦) A project you are managing is about to be completed. But there is a minor defect in the
work produced by the contractor. You should:
a) Neglect the defect if it is trivial
b) Ask the contractor to fix according to SOW
c) Submit a change request
d) None of the above

٧) As a PM, you have identified some low priority risks. You should:

a) Neglect them as they will mostly not occur

b) Add them to a watch list and add to the risk register

c) Plan detailed response plans

d) None of the above

٨) One of your team members' A's father was sick when you were in the planning stage of your
project. A had informed you that he might have to leave to visit his father if the situation
arose. You had planned for this and spoke to the functional manager of your group to provide a
back-up resource, B to be used if necessary.

Now, A has left to see his father and B is filling in for him. But B is taking more than expected
time to get up to speed and this impacts project cost and schedule.

This is an example of a:

a) Residual risk

b) Secondary risk

c) Contingency plan

d) None of the above

٩) To motivate your team, you decided to reward a team member who performed well.
This hurt cohesion in the team. You should:

a) Reset award criteria

b) Modify reward strategy to be win-win for the team

c) Award only two people

d) Declare that there will be no rewards going forward

١٠) Your project uses a vendor who has completed ٥٠٪ of the contracted work. You are unsure
of how much to pay the vendor. You should refer to the:

a) Request for proposal

b) Contract

c) Response to bid

d) Statement of work

١١) When estimating time for activities, a PM should:

a) Use random guessing and estimate for all activities as there will be changes anyways

b) Involve people who will be doing the work to get estimates

c) Estimate for what the cost will allow and not include buffers

d) None of the above

١٢) When there are people from different countries and cultures in a team, the PM should:

a) Neglect the cultural differences

b) Deal with everyone with an iron hand

c) Recognize that there are cultural differences

d) Mentor each person

١٣) If your business sponsor has an important but minor change to the scope, and he requests
that you make the change without having to process a change request:

a) Accomodate the change

b) Refuse to make the change

c) Sneak the change in when no one is looking

d) Request the client that the change management process has to be followed
١٤) If a stakeholder directly asks a team member to make changes and the team member
accomodates it:

a) Admonish the team member during the team meeting so that other team members are also
aware

b) Inform the stakeholder that he should not talk to your team member

c) Talk to the stakeholder and team member in private, and emphasise gently that the
Integrated Change Control process should be followed

d) Pretend to not know about the change and let it happen

١٥) When your client is ready to accept the product your project has produced, you should:

a) Refer to the quality plan to see if the product meets specifications

b) Refer to project management plan

c) Obtain client sign off and follow administrative closure process

d) Let go off the project resources and assign them to other projects

١٦) Appreciating a team member's good work in front of the team results in:

a) Jealousy among other team members and should be avoided

b) Encouragement for the team member and motivation for other team members

c) Shouldn't be done as it shows preference

d) None of the above

١٧) As the project manager of an important project, you learnt many helpful tools and tips.
What should you do?

a) Keep them to yourself

b) Archive your learning in the project folder and share with other PMs

c) Sign a non-disclosure agreement

d) None of the above

١٨) You just found out that the company that you were planning to use in your project is known
for being late in delivering their products that can lead to losses to the project. You decide to
go with a different company to ______ the risk.
a) Mitigate

b) Reject

c) Transfer

d) Avoid

١٩) You are the project manager of a project that involves sensitive information. You are
inviting bids from vendors for some tasks on this project. Since the winning vendor will have
access to the sensitive information, you should:

a) Decide to drop the vendor and instead do the tasks using an internal team

b) Swear the vendor to secrecy

c) Ask the vendor to sign a non-disclosure agreement

d) Threaten to take the vendor to court

٢٠) A project is behind schedule. Two senior resources are added to help speeden work. The
result is:

a) Project will be completed on time

b) Project cost will not increase

c) Project may not be completed on time due to increased number of communication channels

d) None of the above

١ Questions ٢١-٤٠

٢١) Project scope statement is the output of:

a) Scope planning
b) Scope definition
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

٢٢) Requested changes to scope and recommended corrective action belong to which
process:
a) Scope verification
b) Scope definition
c) Scope control
d) All of the above
٢٣) Scope planning takes place:
a) After requirements are gathered
b) Early in the project
c) After scope is finalized
d) None of the above

٢٤) Project charter is

a) An output of Scope planning
b) Input to scope planning
c) Created after preliminary project scope statement
d) All of the above

٢٥) An example of organizational process asset is:

a) Company policy document
b) Organizational culture
c) Organization structure
d) Organization type

٢٦) Qualitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk
Management:
a) Planning
b) Executing
c) Monitoring
d) Controlling

٢٧) Quantitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk
Management:
a) Planning
b) Executing
c) Monitoring
d) Controlling

٢٨) Risk register is an output of:

a) Risk identification
b) Qualitative risk analysis
c) Quantitative risk analysis
d) Risk response planning

٢٩) Risk register update is a primary output of:

a) Quantitative risk analysis
b) Qualiitative risk analysis
c) Risk monitoring and control
d) All of the above

٣٠) Risk monitoring and control produces the following outputs:

a) Risk register updates
b) Recommended corrective actions
c) Recommended preventive actions
d) All of the above

٣١) Risk monitoring and control produces the following outputs:

a) Risk register updates
b) Risk management plan
c) Risk register
d) All of the above

٣٢) A risk is a bad event that will adversely impact the project. This statement is:
a) Always true
b) Always false
c) Sometimes true
d) None of the above

٣٣) The triple constraints in project management are:

a) Scope, Time, cost
b) Time, scope, performance
c) Scope, Time, plan
d) Scope, Time, quality

٣٤) Any changes to the project after the plan is prepared:

i) Have to be processed according to the Integrated Change Control process
ii) Have to be assessed for impact
iii) Can be done without impact analysis if the impact is zero or minimal
iv) Should not be done as they were not in the original plan

a) i, ii
b) i, ii, iii
c) i, ii, iv
d) None of the above

٣٥) Schedule development produces the following output:

a) Project schedule
b) WBS
c) Activity time
d) Project plan
٣٦) Critical path is:
a) The time it takes to finish the project completing only the critical activities
b) Difference between end time and start time of project
c) The longest time it takes to complete all project activities
d) The shortest time it takes to complete all project activities

٣٧) When there are multiple critical paths in a project:

a) The risk is less as it is divided between the paths
b) The risk is more as the risk of delay is more
c) Risk depends on how the critical path is calculated
d) There is no risk as the paths cancel it out

٣٨) Dummy activities are used in:

a) Activity on arrow diagram
b) Activity decomposition
c) Activity list
d) Activity duration estimates

٣٩) Software Project A took ٥ months to complete. Project B, very similar to Project A will
probably take about ٥ months to complete. This expert judgement technique is:
a) Analogous estimating
b) Critical path
c) Expert estimation
d) Compression

٤٠) Crashing:
a) Is a schedule compression technique
b) Increases cost
c) Is achieved by adding resources
d) All of the above

١٫١٫١
Questions ٤١-٦٠
٤١) Fast tracking:
a) Is a schedule compression technique
b) Does sequential activities in parallel
c) Increases risk of rework
d) All of the above
٤٢) Quality audit:
i) Is a tool in Perform quality assurance
ii) Checks the efficiency of the quality process
iii) Tries to improve product acceptance
iv) Reduce overall cost of quality

a) i, iii, iv
b) None of the above
c) All of the above
d) ii, iii

٤٣) Ishikawa diagrams are also called:

a) Fishbone diagrams
b) Causal diagrams
c) Stick diagrams
d) Bone diagrams

٤٤) Some managers believe that people do not work willingly and must be watched and
managed continuosly. They are of type:
a) Theory X
b) Theory Y
c) Theory XY
d) Theory V

٤٥) When an individual's lower level needs are met, the next level's needs are his
motivation. This forms the basis of:
a) Theory Y
b) Maslow's hierarchy
c) Theory X
d) None of the above

٤٦) Locating all team members in the same location is called:

a) War room
b) Collocation
c) Teleconferencing
d) Telecommuting

٤٧) Noise is:

a) Any interference in sending or comprehending a message
b) False information
c) Introduced in electronic signals
d) None of the above

٤٨) A project manager manages a team of ٥. The number of communication channels is:
a) ١٥
b) ١٠
c) ٥
d) None of the above

٤٩) Email communication is:

a) Formal style, written
b) Informal style, written
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

٥٠) A technique used to identify root causes of issues is:

a) Fish bone diagram
b) Quality check
c) Issue list
d) Defect review

٥١) A bar graph that shows resource assignments over time is:
a) Resource leveling
b) Resource histogram
c) Resource chart
d) Gantt chart

٥٢) Resource leveling:

i) Is the allocation of resources to resolve overallocation issues
ii) Helps resolve resource conflicts
iii) Can impact cost of project
iv) Can only be done with project management software

a) i, ii, iii
b) i, iv
c) ii, iii, iv
d) iii, iv

٥٣) An activity on the critical path has:

a) Non-zero float
b) Negative free float
c) Zero free float
d) None of the above

٥٤) If CPI=١٫٣, SPI=.٨, what's the status of the project?

a) Over budget and behind schedule
b) Under budget and behind schedule
c) Under budget and ahead of schedule
d) Over budget and ahead of schedule

٥٥) Project Scope management plan is an output of:

a) Scope planning
b) Scope definition
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

٥٦) Earned value=١٠٠, Planned value=١١٠, the schedule performance index is:
a) ١٫١
b) ٠٫٩١
c) -١٠
d) ١٠

٥٧) Earned value=١٠٠, Actual cost=١٢٠, the cost performance index is:
a) ٠٫٠١
b) ٢٠
c) ٠٫٨٣٣
d) -٢٠

٥٨) The four stages in team development are:

a) Forming, storming, norming, performing
b) Forming, storming, norming, reforming
c) Forming, norming, reforming, performing
d) Planning, forming, storming, performing

٥٩) Theory Y assumes employees:

a) Are self-motivated
b) Have to be micro-managed
c) Work only for money
d) Are not ambitious

٦٠) Low-priority risks should be:

a) Added to a watch list and the risk register updated
b) Removed from the watch list
c) Removed from the risk register
d) Informed to the customer

١٫١٫٢ Questions ٦١-٨٠

٦١) A technique used in Expert Judgement to determine probability of risk is:
a) Interviews with experts

b) Risk ranking

c) Risk register updates

d) Risk response plan

٦٢) Monte Carlo simulation is a technique used to perform:

a) Qualitative risk analysis

b) Quantitative risk analysis

c) Decision tree analysis

d) Risk response

٦٣) Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are:

a) Risk register

b) Risk management plan

c) Cost management plan

d) All of the above

٦٤) Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are:

a) Organizational process assets

b) Schedule management plan

c) Cost management plan

d) All of the above

٦٥) Tools/techniques to perform quantitative risk analysis are:

a) Expert judgement

b) Decision tree analysis

c) Modeling

d) All of the above

٦٦) 'Plan risk responses' process involves:

a) Planning to decrease threats to the project

b) Planning to benefit from possible opportunities

c) Both of the above

d) Only A

٦٧) Examine the statement-"A detailed risk response plan should be prepared no matter
how huge or trivial the risk is, irrespective of whether the effort is cost-effective or not, as
this is the process." This statement is:

a) Always true

b) Always false

c) Sometimes true

d) Sometimes false

٦٨) Positive risks are also called:

a) Good risks

b) Opportunities

c) Advantages

d) Project plusses

٦٩) The four strategies used to deal with negative threats are:

a) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept

b) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, reject

c) Accept, transfer, mitigate, reject

d) Accept, analyze, avoid, mitigate

٧٠) Scope verification and Scope control belong to:

a) Planning process group
b) Initiating proces group
c) Executing process group
d) Monitoring and Control process group

٧١) In a fixed price contract, the risk:

a) lies more with the vendor

b) lies more with the buyer

c) is the same for vendor and buyer

d) Can't say

٧٢) In a time-materials contract, the risk:

a) lies more with the vendor

b) lies more with the buyer

c) is the same for vendor and buyer

d) Can't say

٧٣) Purchasing insurance is a form of ______ risk:

a) Avoiding

b) Transferring

c) Mitigating

d) Working around

٧٤) The only output of the Identify Risks process is:

a) Risk analysis

b) Risk register

c) Risk monitor

d) Risk response plan

٧٥) The four strategies used to deal with positive threats are:

a) Exploit, share, enhance, accept

b) Exploit, share, enhance, adjust

c) Exploit, simulate, enhance, accept

d) Exploit, share, prototype, accept

٧٦) How to define, monitor and control risks in a project is documented in:

a) Expert judgement interview results

b) Risk register

c) Risk management plan

d) Workshops

٧٧) Tools/techniques used in Plan Procurements process are:

a) Make or buy analysis

b) Expert judgement

c) Contract types

d) All of the above

٧٨) Unclear scope definition in a project using Fixed price contract can lead to losses for:

a) the buyer

b) the vendor

c) both buyer and vendor

d) Neither as these are sunk costs

٧٩) Request for proposal, Request for Information, Invitation for bid are broadly called:
a) Procurement documents

b) Vendor documents

c) Bidding documents

d) Contract documents

٨٠) Create WBS belongs to:

a) Initiating
b) Executing
c) Closing
d) None of the above

١٫١٫٣
Questions ٨١-١٠٠
٨١) Closing a Project involves:
a) Updating organization process assets
b) Closing contract
c) Creating documentation, archives, and lessons learned
d) All of the above

٨٢) Administrative closure is an output of:

a) Project Administration process
b) Close Project process
c) Monitor project process
d) Risk management process

٨٣) 'Gold plating' is

a) Beating customer expectations
b) Producing excellent deliverables
c) Setting higher than possible expectations that introduce risk to the project
d) All of the above

٨٤) CPPC and fixed-price contracts are used in:

a) PO with standard item

b) PO with variable item

c) Request for proposal

d) Price-free contracts

٨٥) WBS is created in:

a) Scope management process
b) Risk management process
c) Planning process
d) Monitor and control process

٨٦) A tool/rechnique used in the Develop Human Resource plan process is:

a) Political factors

b) Organization chart

c) Personnel policies

d) Interpersonal factors

٨٧) RBS stands for:

a) Resource breakdown structure

b) Risk breakdown structure

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

٨٨) Which of the following is true?

a) RACI (Responsible-Accountable-Consult-Inform) is a type of RAM (Responsibility

Assignment matrix)

b) RAM shows the resources' responsibilities on the project

c) RAM and RACI are matrix-based charts

d) All of the above

٨٩) 'Scope' of project is:
a) Any work committed to orally with customer
b) Only work that has to be completed to successfully finish project
c) Any work that customer requires to be completed
d) Only work that can be completed within project duration

٩٠) Tools for Plan Quality are:

a) Cost-benefit analysis

b) Control charts

c) Benchmarking

d) All of the above

٩١) Crosby's cost of quality theory of 'zero defects' is based on:

a) Prevention

b) Correction

c) Conformance

d) Fitness for use

٩٢) Juran's fitness for use theory of cost of quality can be summarized as:

a) Continuous improvement

b) Making a product that meets or exceeds customer expectations

c) Making a product that is easy to use

d) Making a product with zero defects

٩٣) 'Budget at Completion' is also called:

a) Actual cost

b) Budgeted cost of work performed

c) Earned value

d) Planned value for the project

٩٤) Which of the following are examples of cost reimbursable contracts:

a) Cost plus incentive fee

b) Cost plus fixed fee

c) Cost plus fee

d) All of the above

٩٥) A critical activity is something that:

a) Is crucial for the project to be completed successfully

b) Needs to be signed of by the stakeholder

c) An activity on the critical path in the project schedule

d) An activity that cannot be substituted by a different activity

٩٦) A dummy activity has:

a) Infinite duration

b) Zero duration

c) No importance

d) All of the above

٩٧) Residual risk is a risk:

a) Found in reserve analysis

b) That remains after all risk responses have been implemented

c) That will be eliminated after applying the appropriate risk response

d) None of the above

٩٨) Scope planning and Scope definition belong to:

a) Planning process group
b) Initiating proces group
c) Executing process group
d) Monitoring and Control process group

٩٩) A room used for project planning, and where team members work on issue
resolution is called:

a) Conference room

b) Resolution room

c) War room

d) Video conferencing room

١٠٠) 'Estimate to Completion' can be calculated as:

a) EAC-AC

b) BAC-EAC

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

١٫١٫٤ Questions ١٠١-١٢٠

١٠١) An average PM spends ٥٠٪ of her time on:

a) Meetings

b) Issue resolution

c) Managing stakeholders

d) Risk analysis

١٠٢) The cost of a contractor is $٢٥ per hour. Two contractors working for ١٠ hours will
cost $٥٠٠. This is an example of:

a) Analogous estimating
b) Parametric estimating

c) Three-point estimating

d) Bottom-up estimating

١٠٣) Using PERT, calculate the time it takes for a task with the following information:

Pessimistic time=٥ hours, Optimistic time=٢ hours, Most likely time=٥ hours. The answer
is:

a) ٤٫٥ hours

b) ٣ hours

c) ٥ hours

d) ١٫٥ hours

١٠٤) The cost management plan can establish:

a) Control thresholds

b) Organizational procedure links

c) Earned value rules

d) All of the above

١٠٥) The revenue earned from doing a project is $١٠٠٠. The costs involved sum to $٥٠٠.
The benefit cost ratio is:

a) ٢

b) ٠٫٥

c) ٥٠٠٠٠٠

d) None of the above

١٠٦) If the Benefit cost ratio is > ١, then:

a) Costs are greater than benefits

b) Benefits are greater than costs

c) Cannot be determined

d) Depends on other factors

١٠٧) Budgeted cost of work performed=$١٠٠٠, Budgeted cost of work scheduled=$٢٠٠٠.

The schedule performance index is:

a) ٠٫٥

b) ٢

c) ١٠٠٠

d) None of the above

١٠٨) Earned value=$٢٠٠٠. Planned value=$٢٥٠٠. The schedule performance index is:

a) ٠٫٨

b) ١٫٢٥

c) ٥٠٠

d) None of the above

١٠٩) Budgeted cost of work performed=$١٠٠٠, Actual cost of work performed=$٢٠٠٠.

The cost performance index is:

a) ٠٫٥

b) ٢

c) ١٠٠٠

d) None of the above

١١٠) Budgeted cost of work performed=$١٠٠٠, Actual cost of work performed=$٢٠٠٠.

The cost variance is:

a) -١٠٠٠
b) ٢

c) ١٠٠٠

d) None of the above

١١١) Actual cost=$١٠٠٠, Budget at completion=$٨٠٠, cost performance index=٠٫٥,

Earned value= $٦٠٠, the variance can occur again. The estimate at completion is:

a) $١٠٠٠

b) $١٤٠٠

c) $٨٠٠

d) None of the above

١١٢) Actual cost=$١٠٠٠, Budget at completion=$٨٠٠, cost performance index=٠٫٥,

Earned value= $٦٠٠, the variance will not occur again. The estimate at completion is:

a) $١٠٠٠

b) $١٢٠٠

c) $٨٠٠

d) None of the above

١١٣) Phase-end reviews are called:

a) Phase exits

b) Stage gates

c) Kill points

d) All of the above

١١٤) The following is true about risk of failing:

a) It is higher inthe beginning as uncertainty is high and gets lesser as the project
continues
b) It remains the same thoughout the project

c) It is lesser inthe beginning as uncertainty is high and gets better as the project
continues

d) None of the above

١١٥) In a functional organization structure, the PM's authority is:

a) Little or none

b) Limited

c) Low

d) Moderate

١١٦) In a strong matrix organization structure, the PM's authority is:

a) High to almost total

b) Limited

c) Low to moderate

d) Moderate to high

١١٧) In a projectized organization structure, the PM's authority is:

a) High

b) Limited

c) High to almost total

d) Moderate to high

١١٨) In a balanced matrix, the project budget is controlled by:

a) Functional manager

b) Project manager
c) Mixed

d) None of the above

١١٩) Deming's cycle is used for continuous improvement of processes. The four-step
management method is:

a) Plan-Do-Check-Act

b) Plan-Act-Check-Do

c) Plan-Act-Do-Check

d) None of the above

١٢٠) 'Perform quality control' belongs to:

a) Monitoring process group

b) Executing process group

c) Controlling process group

d) Monitoring and controlling process group

١٫١٫٥
Questions ١٢١-١٤٠
١٢١) Administer procurements belongs to:

a) Initiating process group

b) Executing process group

c) Controlling process group

d) Monitoring and controlling process group

١٢٢) Which of these is a reason to start a project:

a) Problem

b) Market
c) Opportunity

d) All of the above

١٢٣) Which of the following is true about project charter:

a) Authorizes a project

b) Gives project manager authority

c) It is issued by the sponsor with the authority to fund

d) All of the above

١٢٤) The project charter contains:

a) Business needs

b) Risks

c) Quality plan

d) None of the above

١٢٥) Scope baseline includes:

a) WBS

b) WBS dictionary

c) Project scope statement

d) All of the above

١٢٦) Which of the following is true about project closure:

a) Contract closure is for each contract

b) Contract closure includes product verification and administrative closure

c) Administrative closure happens to close the project or each phase

d) All of the above

١٢٧) Administrative closure:

a) Happens once to close the project or each project phase

b) Needed to confirm that all deliverables have been provided

c) Ensures that official acceptance document has been obtained

d) All of the above

١٢٨) Which of the below are project selection methods:

a) Cost-benefit analysis

b) Payback period

c) Net present value

d) All of the above

١٢٩) WBS:

a) Prevents work from slipping through the cracks

b) Is the basis for estimates

c) Provides the team with an understanding of where their pieces fit in the project plan

d) All of the above

١٣٠) Principal sources of project failure:

a) Poorly identified customer needs

b) Poor planning

c) Poor control

d) All of the above

١٣١) Most change requests are because of:

a) An omission in defining product/project scope

b) A value-adding change

c) An external event

d) All of the above

١٣٢) Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique:

a) Brainstorming

b) Risk identification

c) Stakeholder creative communication

d) Powerpoint presentations

١٣٣) WBS includes all project work. Which of the following is also true about WBS?

a) It doesn't include product work

b) It does not include PM work

c) Total of work at lowest levels need not always roll up to higher levels as some extra
work may be completed

d) None of the above

١٣٤) Critical chain method and critical path method are tools and techniques used in
which process of the Project TIme management area?

a) Estimate activity resources

b) Control schedule

c) Develop schedule

d) Estimate activity durations

١٣٥) Resource leveling is a tool/technique used in which process in Project Time

Management overview?
a) Develop schedule

b) Control schedule

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

١٣٦) Project Time Management is a process needed to:

a) Ensure timely completion of project

b) Track time taken for each activity

c) Bill the client for each hour of work done

d) None of the above

١٣٧) The outputs of 'Activity Definition' and 'Create WBS' respectively are:

a) Activities and WBS

b) Components and Work pieces

c) Schedule activity and deliverable

d) None of the above

١٣٨) Arrow diagramming method does not use:

a) Float

b) Finish to start relationship

c) Lag

d) Activities

١٣٩) Which of the following is a discretionary dependency for schedule:

a) Preferential logic

b) Soft logic
c) Preferred logic

d) All of the above

١٤٠) Lead allows _____ of successor activity:

a) Acceleration

b) Deceleration

c) Tracking

d) Regression

١٫١٫٦
Questions ١٤١-١٦٠
١٤١) Lag results in _____ of successor activity:

a) Acceleration

b) Delay

c) Tracking

d) Regression

١٤٢) Contingency reserve is for:

a) Known unknowns

b) Remaining risk after risk response planning

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

١٤٣) Management reserve is for:

a) Unknown unknowns

b) Covered by cost budget

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b
١٤٤) Outputs of Monitor and control project work are:
a) Recommended corrective actions
b) Recommended preventive actions
c) Requested changes
d) All of the above

١٤٥) Crashing and Fast tracking are techniques used for:

a) Project management

b) Cost reduction

c) Schedule compression

d) Schedule estimation

١٤٦) Cost baseline is:

a) Used to monitor cost performance on the project

b) A time-phased budget

c) Used to measure cost performance on the project

d) All of the above

١٤٧) The difference between maximum funding and the end of cost baseline is:

a) Management reserve

b) Cost baseline

c) Cost overrun

d) None of the above

١٤٨) Identifying quality standards relevant to the porject and determing how to satisfy
them is:

a) Quality planning
b) Quality assurance

c) Quality control

d) Quality management

١٤٩) Applying planned, systematic quality activities to ensure that proejct employs all
processes needed to meet requirement is:

a) Quality planning

b) Quality assurance

c) Quality control

d) Quality management

١٥٠) Monitoring specific project results to determine whether they comply with relevant
quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance
is:

a) Quality planning

b) Quality assurance

c) Quality control

d) Quality management

١٥١) Choosing a part of a population of interest for inspection is:

a) Scatter diagram

b) Statistical sampling

c) Inspection

d) Defect repair

١٥٢) Inspections are also called:

a) Product reviews
b) Audits

c) Walkthroughs

d) All of the above

١٥٣) Staff Management Plan contains:

a) Staff acquisition

b) Release criteria

c) Training needs

d) All of the above

١٥٤) Tannenbaum and Schmidt continuum proposes:

a) Five stages of team development

b) Model-telling

c) Offering more freedom as the team matures

d) None of the above

١٥٥) Autocratic, consultative, Directing and Facilitating are examples of:

a) Leadership styles

b) Team building style

c) Planning style

d) None of the above

١٥٦) Which of the following can result in conflicts:

a) Schedule

b) Project priorities

c) Resources
d) All of the above

١٥٧) Power that a PM has on the basis of the special skills he possesses is:

a) Referent

b) Expert

c) Reward

d) Penalty

١٥٨) A conflict management technique that involves incorporating viewpoints from

everyone is?

a) Smoothing

b) Collaborating

c) Recognizing

d) Withdrawal

١٥٩) Which is the best technique to resolve conflicts in a team:

a) Confrontation

b) Accomodation

c) Compromise

d) Smoothing

١٦٠) The motivational theory that focuses onteam, lifetime employment and collective
decision making is:

a) Theory X

b) Theory Y

c) Theory Z

d) Maslow's hierarchy of needs

١٫١٫٧ Questions ١٦١-١٨٠
١٦١) Expectancy theory is based on motivation in terms of expectations people have
about:

a) Their ability to perform effectively on the job

b) The rewards they expect if they perform well

c) Satisfaction they will obtain from rewards

d) All of the above

١٦٢) In a communication model, the method used to convey the message is:

a) Email

b) Medium

c) Language

d) Decoding

١٦٣) Notes and memos are examples of communication type:

a) Formal written

b) Informal written

c) Formal verbal

d) Informal verbal

١٦٤) Some barriers to communication channels are:

a) Lack of clear communication channels

b) Physical distance

c) Environmental factors

d) All of the above

١٦٥) The management style that cultivates team spirit, rewards good work, and
encourages team to realize their potential is:

a) Facilitating

b) Promotional

c) Conciliatory

d) Authoritarian

١٦٦) A management skill that establishes direction, aligns people, motivates and inspires
team is:

a) Communicating

b) Leading

c) Influencing the organization

d) Problem solving

١٦٧) Tools used in risk identification are:

a) Delphi technique

b) Brainstorming

c) Interviewing

d) All of the above

١٦٨) Risk register as an output of risk identification contains:

a) Identified risks and responses

b) Risk categories

c) Root causes of risks

d) All of the above

١٦٩) Most of the project manager's time is spent on:

a) Project Planning

b) Communication

c) Risk management

d) Tracking

١٧٠) Most of a project's resources are spent on:

a) Direct and manage Project execution process
b) Project planning
c) Quality control
d) Risk management

١٧١) Output of Direct and manage project execution process is:

a) Project plan
b) Preliminary scope statement
c) Preliminary cost estimate
d) Deliverables

١٧٢) At what stage of your current project should you use the techniques you learnt on
your previous projects as PM?

a) Executing phase

b) Planning phase

c) Throughout the project

d) Monitoring and controlling phase

١٧٣) Administrative closure:

a) Can be omitted sometimes

b) Should always be done

c) Is the same as contract closure

d) None of the above

١٧٤) If you are implementing the risk response plan, you are in:

a) Planning phase
b) Initiating phase

c) Implementation phase

d) Closing phase

١٧٥) Interpersonal skills and Management skills are tools to:

a) Manage stakeholder expectations

b) Report performance

c) Distribute information

d) Plan communications

١٧٦) The tool that assigns a numeric weight, rates sellers based on total weight is:

a) Weighting system

b) Independent estimates

c) Screening system

d) Expert judgement

١٧٧) Bidder conferences are a tool to:

a) Meet with prospective sellers and ensure there is a clear understanding of

procurement needs

b) Screen contractors

c) Award contracts to the winning bidder

d) None of the above

١٧٨) You send a formal request to each vendor for a service. This is used as the basis
upon which the vendor prepares a bid for the requested service. The formal request you
sent is called:

a) Contract
b) Purchase Order

c) Procurement Document Package

d) None of the above

١٧٩) Monitor and control project work is essential to

a) Ensure project is being executed to plan
b) Prepare project plan
c) Prepare scope statement
d) Prepare WBS

١٨٠) Correspondence, Payment Schedules and Requests, Seller performance

evaluation documentation are examples of:

a) Organizational Process Assets

b) Request for proposal

c) Project management plan

d) None of the above

١٫١٫٨
Questions ١٨١-٢٠٠
١٨١) Project charter
i) Includes preliminary project budget at summary level
ii) Is created during the Develop Project Charter process
iii) Includes a milestone-level schedule
iv) Includes high level project requirements

a) None of the above

b) All of the above
c) a, b
d) a, b, c

١٨٢) A contract can end by:

a) Successful performance
b) Mutual agreement
c) Breach of contract
d) All of the above

١٨٣) A procurement audit is:

a) An evaluation of vendor's performance on contract
b) Evaluation of procurement process
c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

١٨٤) A type of 'Breach of Contract' is:

a) Material
b) Minor
c) Fundamental
d) All of the above

١٨٥) Project charter is created based on:

i) Business need
ii) Customer request
iii) Market force
iv) Project manager's requirements

a) All of the above

b) i, ii, iii
c) i, ii
d) ii only

١٨٦) With regard to Opportunity cost:

a) The smaller the cost, the better
b) The larger the cost, the better'
c) It depends on cost of materials
d) It depends on economic conditions

١٨٧) Preliminary project scope statement:

i) Is final and needs a change request to be changed
ii) Contains high-level cost estimates
iii) Sets an initial direction for the project
iv) Contains high-level scope estimates
a) All of the above
b) iii only
c) iv only
d) ii, iii, iv

١٨٨) The hygiene factors in Herzberg's motivation theory are:

a) Pay, Working conditions, Attitude of supervisor

b) Pay, Working conditions, Job satisfaction

c) Pay, Promotion, Job satisfaction

d) Pay, Promotion, Food

١٨٩) Variance analysis compares actual results to planned results. This can be done for:

a) Cost

b) Schedule

c) Quality

d) All of the above

١٩٠) Active listening is:

a) Being attentive when the speaker is talking

b) Asking questions when the speaker is not clear

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

١٩١) The longest path through the network that shows the shortest duration in which the
project can be completed is:

a) Critical path

b) Project schedule

c) Least possible time

d) None of the above

١٩٢) Who is responsible for identifying and managing risk?

a) Project manager

b) Team members

c) Project sponsor

d) Functional manager

١٩٣) Pareto principle is also known as:

a) ٨٠-٢٠ rule
b) Law of vital few
c) principle of factor sparsity
d) All of the above

١٩٤) Pareto efficiency states that:

a) ٨٠٪ of effects come from ٢٠٪ of causes
b) ٢٠٪ of effects come from ٨٠٪ of causes
c) ٨٠٪ of causes come from ٢٠٪ of effects
d) ٢٠٪ of causes come from ٢٠٪ of effects

١٩٥) Regarding control limits, which of the following is true:

a) If a point lies outside of the control limits, or seven consecutive points are on one side
of the mean but within control limits, the process is out of control
b) If a point lies outside of the control limits, or seven consecutive points are on either
side of the mean but within control limits, the process is out of control
c) If all but seven points lie within the control limits, and seven consecutive points are on
one side of the mean but within control limits, the process is in control
d) None of the above

١٩٦) Projects can end due to:

a) Addition, Starvation, Integration, Extinction
b) Deletion, Starvation, Integration, Extinction
c) Addition, Starvation, Disassociation, Extinction
d) Addition, Starvation, Integration, Promotion

١٩٧) The tools used in Develop Project Plan are:

i) Project Management methodology
ii) Project Management Information System
iii) Expert Judgement
iv) Project Plan

a) All of the above

b) None of the above
c) i, ii, iii
d) ii, iii, iv

١٩٨) Risk mitigation is:

a) Preventing the risk from occuring
b) Sharing the risk with another person/organization
c) Making someone else responsible for the risk
d) Reducing the impact or probability of occurrence of the risk

١٩٩) Using which of the below can you predict future performance of team:
a) Trend analysis
b) EMV
c) Control limits
d) Risk analysis

٢٠٠) Salary of full-time employees and cost of hardware bought specially for your project
count as:
a) Direct costs
b) Indirect costs
c) Project costs
d) None of the above

١٫١٫٩
Questions ٢٠١-٢٠٦
٢٠١) A Request for Proposal:
a) May invite suppliers to submit a proposal for a product
b) Indicates what product/service is required
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

٢٠٢) Top-down estimating is another name for:

a) Analogous estimating

b) Parametric estimating

c) Three-point estimating

d) PERT estimating

٢٠٣) Payback period is the time it takes to get back money invested in a project. Hence:

a) The longer the payback period, the better it is for the project
b) The shorter the payback period, the better it is for the project
c) Not enough information to decide
d) Depends on the present value of money invested

٢٠٤) Change control board is:

a) Board of directors

b) Group of stakeholders, team leads, executives who decide on which changes to

accept/reject

c) Team of project managers

d) None of the above

٢٠٥) Variance/trend analysis is done during:

a) Risk monitoring and control

b) Risk response

c) Risk analysis

d) Risk mitigation plan

٢٠٦) Budget at completion=$١٠٠٠, Earned value=٥٠٠, Cost performance index=٠٫٥.

Estimate to Completion is:
a) ١٠٠٠
b) ٥٠٠
c) ٢٠٠٠
d) None of the above
١٫١٫١٠
Answer Key
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٢a ٤٠d ٨٤a ١٢٨d ١٧٢c
٣b ٤١d ٨٥a ١٢٩d ١٧٣b
٤b ٤٢a ٨٦b ١٣٠d
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٩b ٤٧a ٩١a ١٣٥c ١٧٨c
١٠b ٤٨a ٩٢b ١٣٦a ١٧٩a
١١b ٤٩b ٩٣d ١٣٧c ١٨٠a
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١٥c ٥٣c ٩٧b ١٤١b ١٨٣c
١٦b ٥٤b ٩٨a ١٤٢c ١٨٤d
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١٨d ٥٦b ١٠٠a ١٤٤d ١٨٦a
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٢٠d ٥٨a ١٠٢b ١٤٦d
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٢٤b ٦٢b ١٠٦b ١٥٠c ١٩١a
٢٥a ٦٣d ١٠٧a ١٥١b ١٩٢a
٢٦a ٦٤d ١٠٨a ١٥٢d ١٩٣d
٢٧a ٦٥d ١٠٩a ١٥٣d
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٢٩d ٦٧b ١١١b ١٥٥a ١٩٥a
٣٠d ٦٨b ١١٢b ١٥٦d ١٩٦a
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٣٢c ٧٠d ١١٤a ١٥٨b ١٩٨d
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٣٤a ٧٢b ١١٦d ١٦٠c ٢٠٠a
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٨٠d ١٢٤a ١٦٨d
٨١d ١٢٥d ١٦٩b
٨٢b ١٢٦d ١٧٠a