1.

The PRIMARY purpose of professional certifications is to:

Provide the professional with additional education to enhance his or her knowledge,
A.
skills and abilities
B. Enhance a professional's resume for employment and/or higher compensation
Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of
C.
minimum competence
Confirm a candidate's understanding of key concepts following the complete of a
D.
bachelor's degree
2. Which of the following is WITHIN the scopr of practice for personal trainers?
Counseling clients through life experiences that negatively impact program
A.
adherence
B. Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design
C. Evaluating client injuries while designing rehabilitative exercise programs
D. Recommending effective supplements for clients who skip meals
3. Which of the following is OUTSIDE of the ACE-certified Personal Trainer scope of
practice?
Developing exercise programs for clients who have type 2 diabetes and medical
A.
clearance for exercise
Providing guidance, motivation, and feedback to empower individuals to adhere to
B.
their exercise programs
Implementing post-rehabilitative exercise programs for clients following their
C.
physicians recommendations
Conducting a VO2 max test to determine a client's need for referral to his or her
D.
physician
4. At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification (or any other
ACE certification) agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics?
A. While registering for an ACE certification exam
B. Once the candidate earns his or her first ACE certification
Upon receiving a printed copy of the ACE Code Of ethics with the printed ACE
C.
certification
D. When accepting his or her first job as an ACE-certified Personal Trainer
5. Ace certified Personal Trainers must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing
edcuation every 2 years to maintain their certifications. The PRIMARY reason ACE has
established this minimum continuing-education requirement is to help ACE Perosnal
Trainers to _____________________.
A. Earn promotions so they can advance their careers
Increase their earning potential by adding new specialties certifications to their
B.
resumes
C. Enhance their resumes to attract more clients
Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and
D.
health
6. Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE- certified Personal Trainer scope of
practice?
Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so
A.
they can make better choices
 Providing clients with recipes and shopping lists for four weeks to get them on track
B.
with healthful eating
Conducting 24-hour dietary recalls to help clients learn where they have micro-
C.
nutrient deficiencies
Educating clients about resting metabolic rate (RMR) and the need to consume fewer
D.
calories than RMR to lost weight
7. A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore
muscles can do so ONLY if __________.
A. The personal trainer has extensive knowledge about the benefits of massage
B. The client gives his or her consent for the massage
C. The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist
D. The massage therapist is not available and the personal trainer has some training
8. What do the credentials for registered dietitians (R.D.), occupational therapists (OTR),
athletic trainers (ATC), registered nurses (RN), and massage therapists (LMT) all have
in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise?
A. Each of them requires a bachelor's degree as a minimum eligibility requirement
B. They are all accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies
C. All of them require CPR, AED, and first aid as eligibility requirements
D. As allied healthcare professions, they share the same scope of practice
9. Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending
supplements to their cleints?
The personal trainer should only recommend those supplements covered under his or
A.
her professional liability insurance
Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an R.D. or M.D., he or she
B.
does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements
The personal trainer should become educated about the specific supplements before
C.
making any recommendations
Due to potential complications from taking supplements with other medications,
D.
personal trainers should recommend only plant-based supplements
10. ACE-certified Personal Trainer looking to advance their knowledge, skills, and
abilities beyond their ACE Personal Trainer Certification would be BEST served by
earning which of the following additional certifications?
A. A second NCCA-accredited personal-trainer certification
A certification covering sports nutrition and supplementation from a fitness industry
B.
organization
An additional personal-training certification from an organization that is not NCCA-
C.
accredited
An advanced fitness certification (e.g. ACE-AHFS, ACE -LWMC) that is NCCA-
D.
accredited
11. When comparing the medial epicondyle of the humerus to the lateral epicondyle of the
humerus, which of the following statements is correct?
a. The medial epicondyle is more toward the front of the body than the lateral
A.
epicondyle
b. The medial epicondyle is more toward the back of the body than the lateral
B.
epicondyle
C. c. The medial epicondyle is more toward the midline of the body than the lateral
 epicondyle
d. The medial epicondyle is more away from the midline of the body than the lateral
D.
epicondyle
12. Which of the following is NOT one of four types of tissue found in the human body?
A. Muscular
B. Nervous
C. Epithelial
D. Vascular
13. Which of the four components of blood carries hormones, food materials, ions, and
gases throughout the body?
A. Plasma
B. Red blood cells
C. White blood cells
D. Platelets
14. When blood is flowing through the heart, where does it go after passing through the
tricuspid valve?
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle
15. The average person’s breathing rate through the nose is equal to 20 to 30 liters per
minute while at rest.
A. True
B. False
16. Which of the following movements takes place in the frontal plane?
A. Depression of the scapulae
B. Flexion at the elbow
C. Extension at the hip
D. Supination at the wrist
17. Which of the following statements about flexibility is CORRECT?
A. As people age, flexibility naturally increases due to decreased collagen levels.
B. Males are generally more flexible than females.
C. Collagen is made up of proteins that limit motion and resist stretch.
D. The build-up of scar tissue after injury often increases flexibility.
18. Which pair of shoulder muscles is BEST strengthened by shoulder shrugs performed
with resistance?
A. Rhomboid major and rhomboid minor
B. Pectoralis minor and serratus anterior
C. Levator scapulae and trapezius
D. Teres major and latissimus dorsi
19. The birddog is an effective exercise for which of the following muscles that act at the
trunk?
A. Multifidi
B. Erector spinae
C. Rectus abdominis
D. Transverse abdominis
20. Which category of hip muscles is primarily responsible for hip adduction?
A. Anterior muscles
B. Posterior muscles
C. Medial muscles
D. Lateral muscles
21. What is the MOST important factor for an individual who is starting an exercise
program?
A. Strong support from family and friends
B. Convenience of the exercise facility
C. Readiness to change behavior related to exercise
D. Connecting with a personal trainer
22. Which personal attribute is the MOST reliable predictor of an indivdual's participation
in an exercise program?
A. Weight
B. Past exercise program participation
C. Age
D. Perceived time barriers
23. What is the MOST common excuse used by people when dropping out of an exercise
program?
A. Limited access to the exercise facility
B. A lack of support
C. Being too old to exercise
D. A lack of time
24. Which is the BEST strategy for personal trainers to implement to enhance the liklihood
that a client will continue working with them?
Designing the program so the client can work out without having to think much
A.
about the exercises
B. Motivating the client through extrinsic motivators to enhance self-efficacy
Encouraging client ownership of the program to facilitate development of intrinsic
C.
motivation
Creating an exercise coaching style based primarily on direction rather than
D.
education
25. A person who is confident that he or she can successfully participate reguarly in an
exercise program __________.
A. has good self-efficacy related to exercise
B. is in the contemplation stage of behavior change
C. has very strong self- esteem
D. is completely intrinsically motivated
26. Which of the following would be MOST liekly to enhance program particiaption and
goal attainment?
A. Setting a series of progressively attainable short-term goals
B. Helping clients keep a primary focus on never missing a session
C. Setting many goals to ensure some type of program success
D. Keeping clients focused on their primary long-term goals
27. A strong social support network can provide an individual with all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Improved program adherence
B. Extrinsic motivation
C. Relapse-prevention support
D. Intrinsic motivation
28. What type of exercise program would be expected to have the GREATEST drop-out
rate?
A. Small-group personal training
B. Vigorous-intensity exercise program
C. Home-based personal training
D. Moderate-intensity exercise program
29. Which of the following is generally considered to be unrelated to adherence levels in
supervised exercise settings?
A. Education
B. Age
C. Income
D. Gender
30. After completing one year of personal training, Gina said she had learned a great deal
from you and wanted to try to continue her program on her own. During the six
months that have followed, you have noticed Gina routinely coming into the gym to
exercise for one or two hours on four or five days of the week. When you talk with her
about it, she say that she "loves coming into the gym and feels great after her
workouts." This statement reflects GIna's strong ___________________.
A. Extrinsic motivation
B. Self-esteem
C. Intrinsic motivation
D. Program design skills
31. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of regular physical activity?
A. Decreased anxiety and depression
B. Improved lipid profile
C. Improved glucose control
D. Increased diastolic blood pressure
32. Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood pumped during each heart beat.
A. True
B. False
33. Very little of the __________ a person consumes is used for energy production.
A. Fat
B. Carbohydrate
C. Protein
D. Fiber
34. Which of the primary energy systems supplies enough energy for no more than 10
 seconds of all-out exertion?
A. Phosphagen system
B. Anaerobic glycolysis
C. Aerobic glycolysis
D. Beta oxidation
35. Low-intensity exercise is the best way to lose weight because it burns a higher
percentage of fat than exercise at a higher intensity.
A. True
B. False
36. At what stage of an exercise bout are phosphagen stores being replenished, remaining
lactate being removed from the blood, and the metabolic rate decreasing?
A. Immediately after the commencement of exercise
B. As the body approaches steady state
C. During steady-state training
D. After the cessation of exercise
37. Which of the following is an adaptation specifically seen with regular weightbearing
exercise?
A. Increase in respiratory capacity
B. Improved cardiac output efficiency
C. Increase in body density
D. Improved lean body mass
38. Which hormone promotes triglyceride breakdown to aid in maintaining blood glucose?
A. Vasopressin
B. Cortisol
C. Norepinephrine
D. Estrogen
39. Replacing body fluid as it is lost is an important guideline to follow whether exercising
in the heat or in the cold.
A. True
B. False
40. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary symptoms of altitude sickness?
A. Shortness of breath
B. Profuse sweating
C. Headache
D. Nausea
41. Most health benefits occur with at least ______minutes a week of moderate-intensity
physcial activity, suck as brisk walking. Additonal benefits occur with more physcial
activity.
A. 60 minutes
B. 75 minutes
C. 150 minutes
D. 180 minutes
42. Which of the following accounts for the unique position that personal trainers hold in
the allied healthcare continuum?
A. They are able to provide detailed dietary planning to combat chronic illnesses
They are at the top of the allied healthcare pyramid due to the extended time they
B.
spend with clients
They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians'
C.
general recommendations
D. They are licensed professionals who can prescribe specific exercise programs
43. What is the primary purpose of a fitness certification?
A. To protect the public from harm
B. To prove mastery of the profession
C. To increase one's earning potential
D. To provide hands-on experience
44. Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of "scope of practice"?
A. The legal range of services that professional in a given field can provide.
B. The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace
C. The setting in which the services can be provided
D. Guideline or parameters that must be followed
45. According the general scope of practice for fitness professionals, personal trainers can
rehabilitate clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries.
A. True
B. False
46. As a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow _______ of study time to
adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification exam.
A. 1-3 months
B. 3-6 months
C. 6-9 months
D. 9-12 months
47. Diagnosing the cause of a client's lordosis posture and prescribing an exercise to treat
it is within a personal trainer's scope of practice
A. True
B. False
48. To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified Professionals must
complete a minimum of ___ hours of continuing education credtis and maintain a
current certification in _____________ and, if living in North America, automated
external defibrillation.
A. 10; CPR
B. 20; risk management
C. 20; CPR
D. 30; risk management
49. What should a personal trainer do if a client insists on using dietray supplements
desipte the trainer's assurance that his or her fitness goals can be met without them?
A. Refer the client to the health club's sales team
B. Refer the client to a registered dietitian or physician
C. Check that the facility's insurance policy covers the sale of these products
D. Stop training the client until he or she agrees to stop using these products
 50. Which of the following is an appropriate response to a client who mentions being sore
following a weekend tennis tournament?
A. Recommending the use of over-the counter anti-inflammatory medications
B. Recommending the use of a creatine supplement prior to his or her next tournament
C. Providing deep tissue massage to help relieve the soreness
D. Discussing the proper technique for icing affected areas
51. Adherence is defined as the psychological drive that gives behavior direction and
purpose.
A. True
B. False
52. More than _____% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first 6
months.
A. 25
B. 50
C. 60
D. 75
53. Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary categories of potential
determinants for physical activity?
A. Personal attributes
B. Physical attributes
C. Environmental factors
D. Physical-activity factors
54. General trends reveal that members of which of the following populations are MOST
LIKELY to be performing higher levels of physical activity in unsupervised settings?
A. Older adults
B. Men
C. Those with fewer years of education
D. Those is lower socioeconomic brackets
55. What is arguable the most important and influential personal attribute variable when
predicting adherence to physical activity?
A. Activity history
B. Obesity level
C. Cardiovascular disease status
D. Social support network
56. _________________ is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping
out of an exercise program.
A. Perceived lack of time
B. Lack of access to facilities
C. Lack of social support
D. Lack of improvement
57. Which of the following individuals is MOST liekly to adhere to a supervised physical
activity program?
A highly motivator beginner who elects to begin a vigorous-intensity exercise
A.
program
 An individual who perceives his health to be poor and had been encouraged by his
B.
doctor to exercise
As obese man who is motivated by a fear of adverse health conditions that are
C.
common in his family
A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control
D.
over his health
58. Which of the following terms is defined as the belief in one's own capabilities to
successfully engage in a behavior?
A. Intrinsic motivation
B. Self-efficacy
C. Extrinsic motivation
D. locus of control
59. When developing SMART goals, which of the following types of goals should be
AVOIDED?
A. Long-term goals
B. Outcome goals
C. Negative goals
D. Performance goals
60. What is the most important tool when dealing with a client who is at risk for relapse?
A. Enhancing the client's assertiveness
B. Developing a system of social support
C. Planning ahead and being prepared
D. Signing behavioral contracts
61. Which of the following presents the four stages of the cleint-trainer relationship in
their proper order?
A. Investigation, planning, action, rapport
B. Rapport, investigation, planning action
C. Rapport, planning, investigation, action
D. Planning, rapport, investigation, action
62. A loud, tense voice communicates and professionalism when speaking to a new client.
A. True
B. False
63. Which of the following body positions may be interpreted by a client as aggressiveness
on the part of the trainer?
A. Standing with an open body position
B. Seated while leaning slightly forward
C. Standing with hands on hips
D. Seated behind a desk with legs crossed
64. What personality style does a client have if he scores high on the sociabilty scale and
low on the dominance scale?
A. Deliberator
B. Director
C. Collaborator
D. Expressor
 65. When working with a client whose personality style is classified as "expressor," which
of the following approaches would be the BEST option for a personal trainer?
A. Offer incentives and rewards; stimulate the client's thoughts and provoke ideas
Be clear, concise, and business-like; appeal to the need for action and problem-
B.
solving
C. Be candid, open and patient, personally interested and supportive, and goal oriented
Provide consistent, accurate follow-ups; supply information to supply the need for
D.
detail
66. A personal trainer who is seeking clarification from a client by trying to restate the
main points and feelings in a client's communication is using which method of
effective listening?
A. Encouraging
B. Paraphrasing
C. Reflecting
D. Summarizing
67. "I will perform a full-body resistance-training workout twice every week" is an
example of which type of goal?
A. SMART goal
B. Process goal
C. Product goal
D. Time-bound goal
68. Motivational interviewing is most commonly done during which stage of the client-
trainer relationship?
A. Rapport
B. Investigation
C. Planning
D. Action
69. The three components of properly phrased feedback are BEST presented in what
order?
Correct errors; provide reinforcement for what was done well; motivate clients to
A.
continue practicing and improving
Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to
B.
continue practicing and improving
Motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for
C.
what was done well; correct errors
Correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide
D.
reinforcement for what was done well
70. Clients who are beginning the basics of a particular movement and are ready for
specific feedback are in which stage?
A. Cognitive
B. Associative
C. Autonomous
D. Affective
71. Which of Newton's laws of motion is described as follows" A body at rest will stay at
rest and a body in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity)
 unless acted upon by an external force.
A. Law of gravity
B. Law of reaction
C. Law of inertia
D. Law of acceleration
72. Which of the following is an example of a multiplanar movement from the anatomical
position?
A. Depression of the scapulae
B. Pronation of the forearm
C. Dorsiflexion of the ankle
D. Opposition of the thumb
73. Assuming a client is lifting the same amount of weight, he or she can create more
resistance by moving the weight closer to the working joint.
A. True
B. False
74. A muscle with which of the following muscle arrangements has the LOWEST force
production, but the HIGHEST speed of contraction?
A. Unipennate
B. Bipennate
C. Multipennate
D. Longitudinal
75. Static balance exercises often involve____________.
A. Widening the base of support
B. Narrowing the base of support
C. Shifting the line of gravity outside the base of support
D. Shifting the line of gravity through rotary motion
76. What muscles are strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts with the
lower leg?
A. Adductors
B. Abductors
C. Internal rotation
D. External rotation
77. The soleus, gastrocnemius, and plantaris are located in which compartment of the
lower leg?
A. Anterior tibial compartment
B. Posterior tibial compartment
C. Deep posterior compartment
D. Superficial posterior compartment
78. When evaluating a new client's posture, a personal trainer notices a long outward curve
of the thoracic spine with an accentuated lumbar curve and a backward shift of the
upper truck. What postural deviation does this client have?
A. Kyphosis
B. Lordosis
C. Flat Back
D. Sway back
79. Which of the following muscles play a vital role (with the mulitfidi) in providing
feedback to the central nervous system about spinal joint position before dynamic
forces in the extremities destabilize the spine?
A. Transverse abdominis
B. Rectus abdominis
C. Internal obliques
D. External obliques
80. "Shoulder girdle" is the formal term for the ___________.
A. S/C joint
B. A/C joint
C. S/T articulation
D. G/H joint
81. Which of the following is an example of correctly phrased feedback:
“Don’t hard your breath as the exercise gets harder. Your breathing and timing were
A. just right on the first four lifts. You’ll find the work easier now that you are learning
how to breather correctly.”
"Your breathing and timing were just right on the first four lifts. Remember to keep
B. breathing, even as the exercise starts to feel harder. You’ll find the work easier now
that you are learning how to breather correctly.”
"Great job! You’ll find the work easier now that you are learning how to breather
C.
correctly. But remember to keep breathing, even as the exercise starts to feel harder.”
82. Which of the following would help a trainer develop rapport with a client during the
initial session?
Looking away from the client frequently to prevent staring while sitting with good
A.
posture and a slight forward lean
Speaking in a soft, friendly voice while leaning against the chair armrest with
B.
forearms cross calmly
Direct, friendly eye contact while always maintaining a smile and enthusiasm
C.
throughout the session
Speaking in a firm voice with confidence, using fluid hand gestures while speaking
D.
and quiet hands while listening
83. Providing a more detailed description of the process by which resistance training helps
to preserve bone desity would be MOST effective with which personality style?
A. Deliberator
B. Director
C. Collaborator
D. Expressor
84. Implementing a system of rewards for each goal reached would be MOST effective
with which personality style?
A. Deliberator
B. Director
C. Collaborator
D. Expressor
85. Active listening allows a personal trainer to do which of the following effectively?
A. Formulate responses and counterpoints to the client's beliefs and concerns
B. Plan out the client's initial exercise program while expressing genuineness
C. Gain a better understanding of the client to facilitate rapport and program design
D. Record detailed notes about the client's exercise history and preferences
86. A client you have been working with for several months tells you that she believes her
husabnd may be having an affair? Which response would be MOST appropriate?
A. I'm so sorry. I can't imagine how difficult that must be for you.
Have you considered marriage counseling. Some of my clients have had great
B.
success with it.
C. I can't believe he would so something like that! How did you find out?
D. I'm so sorry. One of my clients is a counselor. Would you like to talk to him?
87. Which of the following is a SMART goal?
A. I will improve my cholesterol and blood pressure through better eating and exercise.
I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes,
B.
to prepare for a 5K in four months.
I will lose 20 lbs for my trip to Hawaii in 2 months by exercising 7 days a week to
C.
maximize results.
D. I will try a new group exercise class each week to avoid boredom.
88. What would be MOST effective in helping a client to develop program adherence?
A. Providing the client with regular feedback about exercise form
B. Having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal
C. Implementing a reward system for client goal attainment
D. Conducting fitness assessments every other week to measure progress
89. You are working with a client who is begining to perform basic bodyweight squats
with fairly decent form. She is now ready for more specific feedback to help her refine
her squatting technique. In which stage of moto learning would she be classififed for
this exercise skill?
A. Associative
B. Cognitive
C. Autonomous
D. Independent
90. Which of the following strategies should be AVOIDED when a personal trainer is
modeling the healthful lifestyle that he or she is trying to get clients to adopt?
A. Promoting the notion that regular exercise is important and worth the cost
B. Giving clients confidence that is can be done and they can reach their goals
C. Providing "negative" reasons for regular exercise such as losing weight
D. Displaying the attitude that physical activity can feel good and reduce stress
91. During your initial interview with a new client, you learn that his motivation to sign up
for personal-training sesions was based on a recent medical exam during which his
physican informed him that he was prehypertensive (BP= 137/88 mmHg) and has
dyslipidemia (total serum cholesterol = 227 mg/dL), and a fmaily history of
cardiovascular disease. Based on this information, hos motivation to exercise is MOST
likely associated with which of the following?
A. Health belief model
B. Transtheoretical Model
C. Operant conditioning
D. Cognitive behavioral techniques
92. While on an airplane, you are talking with the man next to you and tell him that you
are a personal trainer. This opens up a conversation during which the mans ask you a
number of questions about things he has read recently regarding exercise, nutrition,
and health. He says that he does not currently exercise, but he has been thiking about
joing a gym and asks you for recommendations. Based on this information, in what
stage of behavior change would he be categorized?
A. Precontemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
93. What is the MOST influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise?
A. Persuasive verbal feedback
B. Emotional state and mind
C. Past exercise performance
D. Vicarious exercise experiences
94. A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10k and half-marathon
running events before having twins. Although she had wanted to continue running, she
has not been active since her children were born 2 years ago. Now that they are in
daycare 3 days per week, she has begun walking a bit and wants to begin running, with
an eventual goal of completing her first marathon. Based on this information, what
stages of change has she gone through from pre-pregnany to meeting with you today.
A. Action -> Precontemplation -> Action
B. Maintenance -> Contemplation -> Action
C. Action -> Maintenance -> Preparation
D. Maintenance -> Contemplation -> Preparation
95. Which of the following is an example of an effective cognitive behavioral technique
that a personal trainer can implement to improve client exercise adherence?
A. Revisiting client goals only during reassessments so they reflect greater progress
Making primary decisions regarding each client's program so that they can focus on
B.
the exercises
Helping the clients to move from primarily external feedback to primarily internal
C.
feedback
Recording progress so clients can focus on the exercises without having to monitor
D.
their own progress
96. In the process of operant conditioning, which of the following consequences would be
BEST for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur
in the future?
A. Punishment
B. Positive reinforcement
C. Extinction of a positive stimulus
D. Negative reinforcement
97. Using reinforcement to help a client progress from doing a quarter lunge to performing
a full lunge and then eventually adding resistance is an example of which process?
A. Shaping
B. Operant conditioning
C. Cognition and behavior
D. Observational learning
98. Sending personal-training appointment reminder emails to clients would be an
example of which behavior-changes strategy?
A. Cognitions and behavior
B. Stimulus control
C. Cognitive behavioral techniques
D. Shaping
99. A new personal -training client tells you that she has little experience with exercise,
but has signed up for 8 weeks of personal training because she is ready to get fit and
lose weight. Based on this information, what would be the MOST effective way to
help her to become regularly active and work toward her goal?
A. Design a challenging program so she can experience the positive benefits of exercise
Inform her about different types of exercise and invite her to your group strength
B.
class
Provide her with initial positive exercise experiences and help her focus on
C.
consistency
Educate her about the risks of being inactive and commend her on the new
D.
commitment
100. Which of the following strategies should a trainer AVOID when trying to promote
ownership on the part of the client?
Having clients journal their thoughts, experiences, and emotions related to the
A.
program
B. Giving clients the information needed to determine the outcome of their programs
C. Helping clients to reinforce their own behaviors through internal encouragement
Providing clients with increasing amount of external feedback as the program
D.
progresses
101. Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a
health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health
problem?
A. Transthrorectical model of behavioral change
B. Health belief model
C. Self-efficacy model
D. Stages-of-change model
102. What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information?
A. Past performance experience
B. Imaginal experience
C. Vicarious experience
D. Emotional state
103. People with low self-efficacy are more liekly to choose non-challenging tasks that are
easy to accomplish.
A. True
B. False
 104. A prospective client tells you that he has been going for 2-mile walks a couple of
times each week for the past 2 months, and that he joined the gym because he is
finally ready to adopt a more structured workout regimen. What is this individual's
stage of change?
A. Contemplation
B. Preparation
C. Action
D. Maintenance
105. Which of the following intervention strategies would be LEAST APPROPRIATE
when working with someone in the precontemplation stage?
A. Make inactivity a relevant issues
B. Provide information about the risks of being inactive and the benefits of being active
Provide information from multiple sources (e.g. new posters, pamphlets, general
C.
health-promotion material)
Introduce different types of exercise activities to find something the individual
D.
enjoys
106. _________________ involves the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting
and/or maintaining an activity program.
A. Process of change
B. Self-efficacy
C. Operant conditioning
D. Decisional balance
107. Which of the following occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a
behavior is removed and the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased?
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Negative reinforcement
C. Extinction
D. Punishment
108. A client leaves a gym bag on the front seat of his car each morning as a reminder to
work out on his way home from work. What behavior-change strategy is he using?
A. Stimulus control
B. Observational learning
C. Shaping
D. Operant conditioning
109. When should behavior contracts and written agreements be revised or updated?
A. Whenever the client has a relapse into inactivity
B. After the client finishes his final purchase workout
C. Never; they should be permanent documents
D. When goals are met or programs are modified
110. After several month of working with a client, a personal trainer notes that the client's
self-efficacy and ability levels have improved. How should this affect the amount of
external feedback the trainer provides to the cleint?
A. The trainer should increase the amount of external feedback
B. The amount of feedback should not change
C. The trainer should taper the amount of external feedback
D. The trainer should immediately stop providing external feedback
111. Carbohydrates, which are the body's preferred energy source, contain how many
kilocalories per gram?
A. 2 kcal/g
B. 4 kcal/g
C. 7 kcal/g
D. 9 kcal/g
112. Contributing to cell membrane function, making bile acids essential for fat
absorption, metabolizing fat-soluble vitamins, and making vitamin D are all functions
of which nutrient?
A. Protein
B. Carbohydrate
C. Cholesterol
D. Omega-3 fatty acids
113. Which of the following MUST be consumed in the diet?
A. Vitamin K
B. Biotin
C. Vitamin D
D. Folate
114. A client who just found out she is pregnant asks what foods to eat to increase her
intake of folic acid. What would be the BEST response?
A. Green leafy vegetables, organ meats, dried peas, beans, and lentils
B. Citrus fruits, berries, and vegetables
C. Green leafy vegetables, fruit, dairy, and grain products
D. Milk, liver, eggs, and peanuts
115. Which of the following minerals has a recommended dietary allowance (RDA) that is
more than twice as high for women than it is for men?
A. Zinc
B. Iron
C. Phosphorus
D. Copper
116. A client must achieve a 1,000- calorie deficit per day in order to lose 1lbs per week.
A. True
B. False
117. Which of the following is NOT among the 10 insights gleaned from the experiences
of the National Weight Control Registry?
A. Eat breakfast
B. Be mindful
C. Avoid the scale
D. Be optimistic
118. In most caes, athletic performance will improve when the individual is on a low-fat
diet where fat intake is below 15% of total calories.
A. True
B. False
119. A client with which of the following conditions should receive comprehensive
nutrition counseling before beginning an exercise program?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes
120. A client who is also a high school soccer player is interested in using the glycemic
index to guide hims as he "refuels" after practices and matches. Which of the
following would be the BEST snack choice?
A. Dried fruit
B. Rye bread
C. Oatmeal
D. Starwberries
121. The sinoatrial node (SA node), which is sometimes called the pacemaker of the heart,
is located in which chamber of the heart?
A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Left ventricle
122. Which of the following is NOT a method the body uses to preserve blood volume
during steady-state exercise?
A. increasing heart rate
B. increasing stroke volume
C. increasing vasoconstriction in non-working muscles
D. releasing vasopressin and aldosterone
123. Tidal volume decreases after an exerciser crosses the second ventilatory threshold
(VT2).
A. True
B. False
124. What hormone dilates the respiratory passages and reduces digestive activity and
bladder emptying during physical activity?
A. Insulin
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Cortisol
125. Which slow-acting hormones timulates the mobilization of free fatty acids from
adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver, and decreases the rate of
glucose utilization in the cells?
A. Growth hormone
B. Glucagon
C. Insulin
D. Cortisol
126. What is the only macronutrient whose stored energy generates adenosine triphosphate
 (ATP) anaerobically?
A. Protein
B. Fat
C. Cholesterol
D. Carbohydrate
127. Which mechanism of thermoregulation is the major contributor during exercise?
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Evaporation
D. Excretion
128. What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from
chronic cardiorespiratory exercise?
A. Decreased cardiac stress
B. Improved VO2 max
C. Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles
D. Reduced work environment for the heart
129. During what phase of the general adaptation syndrome will a clinet see progressive
increases in muscle size and strength?
A. Shock phase
B. Adaptation phase
C. Alarm phase
D. Exhaustion phase
130. An individual is using a resistance band to perform very short-duration (less than 2
seconds per stretch) hamstring stretches in sets of eight repetitions. What flexibility-
training technique is this person using?
A. Ballistic stretching
B. Dynamic stretching
C. Propriocetive neuromuscular facilitation
D. Active isolated stretching
131. What foundational element is the ACE IFT Model built upon?
A. Health improvement
B. Functional fitness
C. Developing rapport
D. Cardiorespiratory fitness
132. What assessments are essential according to the ACE IFT Model and should be
completed prior to an client beginning an exercise program?
A. Assessing posture, functional movement and muscular strength and endurance.
Collecting health-history data to identify contraindications for exercise and the need
B.
for referral
Assessing cardiorespiratory fitness using the submaximal talk test to determine HR
C.
at VT1
Measureing blood pressure, resting heart rate, body composition, and waist to hip
D.
ratio
133. Which of the following is MOST likely to create a barrier to fitness-related behavior
 change for some clients?
A. Identifying a client's readiness to change behavior
B. Creating early positive exercise experiences
C. Implementing strategies for working with clients based on their personality styles
D. Conducting initial comprehensive assessments of fitness and body composition
134. What are the five primary movements that are the focus of the movement-training
phase?
A. Squatting, lunging, swinging, throwing, and arching movements
B. Jumping, hopping, pushing, pulling, and arching movements
C. Squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling, and rotational movements
D. Jumping, hopping, swinging, throwing, and rotational movements
135. In what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the
ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if he has lumbar lordosis, limited
range of motion in the hips and shoulders, and performs resistance-training workouts
four days per week?
A. Phase 1: Stability and mobility training
B. Phase 2: Movement training
C. Phase 3: Load training
D. Phase 4: Performance training
136. Strength training, body building, and training for muscular endurance all fall under
which functional movement and resistance training phase of the ACE IFT Model?
A. Phase 1: Stability and mobility training
B. Phase 2: Movement training
C. Phase 3: Load training
D. Phase 4: Performance training
137. Performance training includes speed, agility, quickness, and reactivity drills that
would be MOST appropriate for which of the following clients?
A. 45-year old male, competitive tennis player
B. 33-year old female, marathon runner
C. 27-year old male, body builder
D. 52-year old female, competitive golfer
138. A regular group exercise participant with no competitive goals would be classified in
which phase of the cardiorespiratory training component of the ACE IFT Model?
A. Phase 1: Aerobic-base training
B. Phase 2: Aerobic-efficiency training
C. Phase 3: Anaerobic-endurance training
D. Phase 4: Anaerobic-power training
139. Personal trainers can use the talk test as an upper limit for exercise intensity to
determine if a client is exercising below which of the following cardiorespiratory
markers?
A. VO2max
B. The second ventilatory threshold (VT2)
C. Anaerobic threshold
D. The first ventilatory threshold (VT1)
 140. Cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 2 is performed at what intensity?
A. Below VT1
B. At or above VT1
C. From VT1 to just below VT2
D. At or above VT2
141. The following list presents the four phases of the functional movement and resistance
training component of the ACE IFT Model in their proper order. Stability and
mobility training Movement training Load training Performance training
A. True
B. False
142. During what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of
the ACE IFT Model is the application of external resistance to functional movement
patterns a primary focus?
A. Stability and mobility training
B. Movement training
C. Load training
D. Performance training
143. A client who is in the load-training phase of functional movement and resistance
training will be working in the anaerobic-endurance training phase of cardiorepiratory
training.
A. True
B. False
144. It is essential that personal trainers conduct assessments of muscular strength and
endurance before a new client begins a stability and mobility training program.
A. True
B. False
145. During which phase of the functional and resistance training component of the ACE
IFT Model should assessments of muscular strength and endurance be introduced?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
146. No assessments are recommended during aerobic-base training phase of
cardiorespiratory training.
A. True
B. False
147. What is a PRIMARY goal of introducing interval training during phase 2 of a client's
cardiorespiratory training program?
A. To improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise
B. To add variety to the program to avoid boredom
C. To help the client exercise at intensities beyond the first ventilatory threshold
D. To increase the client's adherence to the program by improving his or her mood state
148. A client who is in phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory component of the ACE IFT Model
 is beginning to utilize the three-zone training model based on ventilatory threshold.
Approximately what percentage of his time should be spent training between VT1
and VT2?
A. less that 80%
B. 70-80%
C. 10-20%
D. less that 10%
149. Clients working in the anaerobic-power training phase of the ACE IFT Model
generall have goals related to ___________.
A. Long-duration, moderate-intensity events requiring great endurance
B. Long-duration events of a nearly constant speed and intensity
C. Short-duration, high intensity efforts during longer endurance events
D. Short-duration, high intensity events requiring explosive power but little endurance.
150. What is the most important goal when working with special-population clientele?
To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through
A.
easily achieved initial successes
To move them through the various phases of the ACE IFT Model with the ultimate
B.
goal of improving fitness and performance
To reach the stage of resistance training during which external loads are introduced,
C.
as this will improve their performance of activities of daily living
To teach them the importance of daily exercise and continue with their programs
D.
even during times of illness or discomfort
151. What is the name of the essential attribute of successful relationships that is described
as "the ability to respect another person regardless of his or her uniqueness?"
A. Empathy
B. Warmth
C. Genuineness
D. Honesty
152. "When do you experience your low-back soreness?" is an example of what type of
interviewing technique?
A. Reflecting
B. Confronting
C. Informing
D. Probing
153. Use the following information to answer the question: Gender: Male Age: 47 years
Family history: Mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at age
59 Smoking: Quit smoking 20 years ago Current exercise: Walks dog 1-2 times per
day for 10 minutes per walk BMI: 29 kg/m2 Blood Pressure: 132/86 mmHg Total
serum Cholesterol: 216 mg/dL LDL cholesterol: 138 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 48
mg/dL Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg/dL Goals: Lose 20lb; increase muscle strength
and cardiorespiratory fitness What is this client’s “total score” for atherosclerotic
cardiovascular disease using the ACSM risk factor thresholds?
A. +1
B. +2
C. +3
D. +4
 154. Use the following information to answer the question: Gender: Male Age: 47 years
Family history: Mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at age
59 Smoking: Quit smoking 20 years ago Current exercise: Walks dog 1-2 times per
day for 10 minutes per walk BMI: 29 kg/m2 Blood Pressure: 132/86 mmHg Total
serum Cholesterol: 216 mg/dL LDL cholesterol: 138 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 48
mg/dL Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg/dL Goals: Lose 20lb; increase muscle strength
and cardiorespiratory fitness According to the ACSM risk stratification, what is this
client's level of risk?
A. low risk
B. moderate risk
C. high risk
D. very high risk
155. Use the following information to answer the question: Gender: Male Age: 47 years
Family history: Mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at age
59 Smoking: Quit smoking 20 years ago Current exercise: Walks dog 1-2 times per
day for 10 minutes per walk BMI: 29 kg/m2 Blood Pressure: 132/86 mmHg Total
serum Cholesterol: 216 mg/dL LDL cholesterol: 138 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 48
mg/dL Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg/dL Goals: Lose 20lb; increase muscle strength
and cardiorespiratory fitness What are the recommendations regarding exercise
testing based on this client's risk stratification?
A. Trainer can perform submaximal fitness testing without a physician's supervision
Trainer can perform both submaximal and maximal fitness testing without a
B.
physician's supervision
C. A physician should be present for all submaximal and maximal fitness testing
A medical exam and graded exercise test are required prior to beginning an exercise
D.
program.
156. Use the following information to answer the question: Gender: Female Age: 39 years
Family history: Father has type 1 diabetes; Mother just diagnosed with type 2
diabetes Smoking: Never smoked Current exercise: swims 3-4 days per week for 30-
45 minutes BMI: 31 kg/m2 Blood Pressure: 128/82 mmHg Total serum Cholesterol:
224 mg/dL LDL cholesterol: 122 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 64 mg/dL Fasting plasma
glucose: 95 mg/dL Goals: Lose 30 lbs; enhance exercise program and improve diet to
prevent diabetes What is this client's "total score" for artherosclerotic cardiovascular
disease using the ACSM risk factor thresholds?
A. 0
B. +1
C. +2
D. +3
157. Use the following information to answer the question: Gender: Female Age: 39 years
Family history: Father has type 1 diabetes; Mother just diagnosed with type 2
diabetes Smoking: Never smoked Current exercise: swims 3-4 days per week for 30-
45 minutes BMI: 31 kg/m2 Blood Pressure: 128/82 mmHg Total serum Cholesterol:
224 mg/dL LDL cholesterol: 122 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 64 mg/dL Fasting plasma
glucose: 95 mg/dL Goals: Lose 30 lbs; enhance exercise program and improve diet to
prevent diabetes What are the recommendations regarding the intensity of the
cardiorespiratory exercise program and the need for a medical examination and
graded exercise test based on this client's risk stratification?
 The trainer can design a program with the client performing moderate-intensity
A. exercise, but a medical exam and exercise test would be recommended prior to
vigorous-intensity exercise
The trainer can design a program with the client performing moderate-or vigorous
B.
intensity exercise without the client needing a medical exam or exercise test
An exercise test is recommended prior to moderate-intensity exercise, and a medical
C.
exam and exercise test are recommended prior to vigorous-intensity exercise
A medical exam and graded exercise test are required prior to beginning an exercise
D.
program.
158. Your new client is a 57-year old woman who plays golf, tennis, and squash avidly.
Her health risk-risk appraisal reveals only one positive risk factor (age) and that she
has a heart murmur. According to the ACSM risk stratification, what is this client's
level of risk?
A. low risk
B. moderate risk
C. high risk
D. very high risk
159. Which evaluation form does a client sign to acknowledge that he or she has been
educated about and understands, the risks associated with being active?
A. Agreement of release of liability waiver
B. medical release
C. exercise history and attitude questionnaire
D. informed consent
160. A personal trainer could design an exercise program without requiring a physician's
release prior to participation for which of the following?
A. 42-year old female client who has lumbar lordosis
B. 54-year old male client who has an abdominal hernia
C. 61-year old female client who takes a calcium channel blocker
D. 35-year old male client who has asthma
161. Which of the following observations would be notes as a postural deviation?
A. Left and right iliac crests are at same height
B. The ASIS and pubic bone are in line vertically
C. The cheek bone is forward of the collar bone
D. Plumb line passes just anterior to the mastoid process
162. A client should be reffered to his or her physician if whcih of the following is found
during assessments?
A. Lordosis and kyphosis during postural screening
B. Limited range of motion during "cobra pose" clearing test
C. Pain during the shoulder impingement clearing test
D. Forward - head position during postural screening
163. Which of the following postural deviations indicates that a client has medially
(internally) rated shoulders?
A. Front view: backs of hands are visible
B. Posterior view: scapular winging visible
C. Side view: upper back has an exaggerated curve
D. Front view: Sternum not in line with plumb line
164. During the bend and lift screen, which observation would indicate that the client has
tight planterflexors?
A. Hamstrings touch calves
B. Squat initiated at knees
C. Knees falls inward
D. Heels raise off the floor
165. During the hurdle step screen, you observe a client exhibiting an anterior pelvic tilt
and a forward torso lean as he steps forward. What is the compesation MOST
indicative of?
A. Weak gluteus medius and maximus
B. Tight stance-leg hip flexors
C. Weak stance-leg hip adductors
D. Tight ankle planterflexors
166. During the Thomas test, you observe that your client can easily lower her right thigh
to about 10 degrees above the table with the knee flexed at about 90 degrees. Based
on these observations, which of the following noted would you makes?
A. Right leg has normal range of motion
B. Tightness in the right rectus femoris
C. Limited range of motion in lumbar spine
D. Tightness in the right iliopsoas
167. Which of the following observations during the passive straight-leg raise represents
normal length of the hamstring?
A. Raised leg achieves 70 degrees of movement
B. Pelvis rotates posteriorly after the raised leg passes 70 degrees of movement
C. Raised leg stops just short of 90 degrees of movement
D. Opposite leg lifts off the mat as the raise leg approaches 80 degrees of movement.
168. While having a client perform the external and internal rotation test, you observe that
he can rotate the forearms internally and externally to about 70 degrees, or about 20
degrees off the mat. Based on these observations, which of the following notes would
you make?
A. Good mobility for both internal and external rotators
B. Tight internal rotators; good mobility for external rotators
C. Good mobility for internal rotators; tight external rotators
D. Tightness in both internal and external rotators
169. What is the purpose of stability and mobility training?
A. Restorative exercise to improve posture and movement compensations
B. Teaching correct squat, lunge, push, pull and rotational movement patterns
C. To prepare the body for sports conditioning and performance training
D. Rehabilitative exercise to restore function following injury or surgery
170. Scapular winging during the shoulder push stabilization screen would MOST likely
be due to ________________.
A. Weak core and low back
B. Scapulothoracic joint instability
C. Curved thoracic spine
D. Strong serratus anterior
171. Which response would warrant immediate termination of exercise testing?
A. Rating of perceived exertion (RPE) >14 (6 to 20 scale)
B. Heart rate (HR) >age predicted maxium
C. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) > 220 mmHg
D. Diastolic blood pressure (DBP) >115 mmHg
172. Which body-composition assessment method produces percent fat estimates that can
vary greatly from day to day based on the hydration status of the client being tested?
A. skinfolds
B. bioelectrical impedance analysis
C. hydrostatic weighing
D. duel energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
173. You are working with a client who weighs 180 lbs with a body-fat percentage of
20%. What will his approximate weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body fat,
assuming that his lean body mass remains constant?
A. 144 lbs
B. 149 lbs
C. 169 lbs
D. 175 lbs
174. Which assessment does not use predicted maximum HR or predicted VO2max, but
instead provides an actual measured heart rate that corresponds to the client's unique
metabolic response to exercise?
A. YMCA bike test
B. Bruce submaximal treadmill test
C. Submaximal talk test for VT1
D. Rockport fitness walking test
175. Which assessment would be MOST appropriate for a 54-year old male client who has
no contraindications for exercise but has not been regularly active in more than 10
years?
A. McArdle step test
B. Rockport fitness walking test
C. VT2 threshold test
D. Astrand-Ryhming cycler ergometer test
176. What has been shown to be the BEST predictor of back health?
A. Endurance of the core and postural muscles acting on the low back
B. Range of motion of spinal flexion and extension
C. Strength of the core and postural muscles acting on the low back
D. Range of motion of the spinal rotatores
177. Which ratio from McGill's torso muscular endurance test battery would be indicative
of a muscle imbalance that can lead to back pain?
A. Flexion:extension ratio of 1.05
B. Right side bridge: extension ratio of .68
C. Left-side bridge:flexion ratio of .74
D. Right-side bridge:left-side bridge ratio of .97
178. Which of the responses represents the predicted 1-RM bench press for a client who
can perform 10 reps of the exercise with 150lbs. with good form?
A. 188 lb
B. 200 lb
C. 214 lb
D. 224 lb
179. Which of the following is the BEST tool for assessing lower-body muscular
strength?
A. bodyweight squat test
B. 10-RM leg press test
C. standing long jump test
D. 1-RM squat test
180. Which of the following assesses anaerobic capacity?
A. 300-yard shuttle run
B. Vertical jump test
C. Pro agility test
D. 40-yard dash
181. The first objective when meeting a prospective client is to gather information on the
client's goals and objectives.
A. True
B. False
182. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary purposes of a pre-participation
screening?
A. Identifying the absence or presence of known disease
B. Identifying the individual's stage of behavioral change
Identifying individuals with medical contraindications who should be excluded from
C.
exercise or physical activity
Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in
D.
medically supervises programs.
183. Which of these follow-up actions would be most appropriate for an individual who
answers "yes" to the following questions on the PAR-Q? "Is your doctor currently
prescribing drugs for your blood pressure or heart conditions?" "In the past month,
have you had chest pain when you were not doing physical activity?"
A. Slowly and progressively start becoming more physically active
B. Take part is a fitness appraisal before beginning exercise
C. Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal
D. Delay becoming much more physically active until feeling better
184. Which of the following is considered a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic
cardiovascular disease?
A. Body mass index of 28 kg/m
B. HDL cholesterol of 66mg/dl
C. Serum cholesterol of 195 mg/dl
D. Systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg
 185. For which of the following clients would a medical exam and graded exercise test be
recommended before training begins?
A. low-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise
B. low-risk client wanting to perform vigorous exercise
C. moderate-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise
D. high-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise
186. Which of the following documents represents a client's voluntary abandonment of the
right to file a lawsuit against the personal trainer?
A. informed consent form
B. release of liability waiver
C. behavioral contract
D. medical release form
187. After how long a period of inactivity following an injury does disuse atrophy in the
muscle surrounding the injury begin?
A. two hours
B. two days
C. two weeks
D. two months
188. Which of these medications causes a does-related decrease in a person's reating,
exercise, and maximal heart rate?
A. beta blockers
B. antihistamines
C. antidepressants
D. diuretics
189. Which medications has no promary affect on heart rate, but can cause dangerous
cardiac arryhthmias due to water and electrolyte imbalances?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Diuretics
D. Bronchodilators
190. Which of the following must be included as part of every client's pre-participation
screening?
A. body-composition testing
B. movement screening
C. static posture assessment
D. health-risk appraisal
191. Which of the following is NOT cause to immediately stop a cardiorespiratory
exercise test?
A. Leg cramping
B. complaints of severe fatigue
C. nausea and lightheadedness
D. heavy breathing due to intense exercise
192. Which of the following is NOT a reason that the average resting heart rate for women
is hight than that of men?
A. smaller heart chamber size
B. lower sympathetic drive
C. lower blood volume
D. lower hemoglobin levels
193. ______________ represents the pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood
remains in the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle.
A. resting blood pressure
B. maximal blood pressure
C. systolic blood pressure
D. diastolic blood pressure
194. A client's blood-pressure reading is 124/78 mmHg. How should the presonal trainer
classify this client?
A. normal
B. prehypertension
C. stage 1 hypertension
D. stage 2 hypertension
195. Which of the following statements about the ratings of perceived scale is
CORRECT?
When using ratings of perceived exertion, men tend to underestimate exertion, while
A.
women tend to overestimate exertion.
B. When using the 0-10 scale, an RPE of 6 corresponds to a heart rate of 60 bpm
C. When using th 6-20 scale, an RPE of 11 is considered "somewhat hard"
Most deconditioned individuals find using the RPE scale to be very easy and
D.
intuitive.
196. Which of the following is a non-correctible factor related to postural deviations?
A. Side dominance
B. Structural deviations
C. Lack of joint stability
D. Lack of joint mobility
197. When designing an exercise program for a beginning exerciser, it is best to focus on
enhancing muscular strength before shifting the focus to improving client's posture.
A. True
B. False
198. Barring structural differences in the skeletal system, a pronated ankle ___________.
A. forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotation of the femur
B. causes a lengthening of the calf muscles and limits ankle dorsiflexion
C. has little effect on the rest of the body's kinetic chain
moves the calcaneus into inversion, lifting the inside of the heel slightly of the
D.
ground
199. The coupling relationship between tight _______________ and
___________________ is defined as the lower-cross syndrome.
A. Rectus abdominis; hamstrings
B. hip flexsors; erector spinae
C. rectus abdominis; erector spinae
D. hip flexsors; hamstrings
200. Which pelvic tilt screen may be invlaid if the individual exhibits well-developed
gluteal muscles?
A. The relationship of the ASIS and PSIS
B. The appearance of lordosis in the lumbar spine
C. The alignment of the pubic bone to the ASIS
D. The degree of flexion or hyperextension in the knees
201. An elevated shoulder may present with an overdeveloped or tight upper trapezius
muscle.
A. True
B. False
202. When performing a shoulder screen and observing the client from a posterior view, a
trainer notices an outward protrusion of the vertebral borders, but not the inferior
angles of the scapulae. What deviation is most likely being observed?
A. Scapular protraction
B. Kyphosis
C. Sway-back posture
D. winged scapulae
203. What is the objective of conducting clearning tests prior to the performance of
movement screens?
A. to determine the client's health and fitness level
B. to identify any movements that exacerbate pain
to identify clients who are unable to perform basic movements without losing
C.
balance
D. to address any static postural deviations prior to introducing movements
204. During the hurdle step screen, you observe that the client exhibits an anterior tilt with
a forward torso lean. What muscles should you suspect of being underactive or
weak?
A. stance-leg hip flexors
B. gluteus medius and maximus
C. hip addusts and tensor fascia latae
D. rectus abdominis and hip extensors
205. During the Thomas Test, you observe that when the client holds the back and sacrum
flat, the back of the lowered thigh touches the table, but the knee does not flex to 80
degrees. What muscle(s) should you suspect of being tight?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Illiopsoas
C. Primary hip flexors
D. Hamstrings
206. In your notes regarding a slient performing the external and internal shoulder rotation
tests, you recorded that the client displayed potential tightness in the infraspinatus
and teres major. What might you have observed during the test that led to that
conclusion?
A. client externally rotated the forearms 90 degrees to tough the mat
B. client displayed discrepancies between arms when externally rotating the forearms
C. client internally rotated the forearms 70 degrees toward the mat.
D. client displayed discrepancies between arms when internally rotating the forearms
207. Which of the following is NOT a reason to stop a client while he or she is performing
the sharpened Romberg test?
A. The client's feet move on the floor
B. The client's eye open
C. The client exceeds 30 seconds with good postural control
D. The client's arms move from the folded position
208. A amle client performs the stork-stand balance test and is able to hold the position for
46 seconds. How would you rate this client's performance?
A. Excellent
B. Good
C. Fair
D. Poor
209. Apley's scratch test is usually performed in conjuction with which of the following
paris of tests?
A. Sharpened Romberg test and stork-stand balance test
B. Thomas test and passive straight-leg raise test
C. Shoulder flexion-extension test and internal rotation test of the humerus
D. Blood pressure cuff test and muscle-length test
210. Which of the following joint movements from the anatomical position has an average
range of motion of 0 degrees in healthy adults?
A. lumbar rotation
B. elbow extension
C. subtalar inversion
D. hip extension
211. During a treadmill test, a client complains of leg cramping but feels that she will be
able to finish the test. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?
A. Monitor her progress closely and stop the test is her pain worsens
Allow her tom complete the test, as treadmill tests measure cardiorespiratory fitness,
B.
not muscular endurance
Stop the test immediately and possibly refer the client to her primary healthcare
C.
provider
Have her rest for a few minutes and rehydrate before continuing the test from the
D.
stopping point
212. Which of the following is NOT one of three sites used when performing the skinfold
measurements on a male client?
A. Chest
B. Thigh
C. Abdomen
D. Triceps
213. After performing skinfold measurements with a male-client, his body-fat percentage
is calculated to be 26%. How would you rank this client in terms of body-fat
percentage?
A. Athlete
B. Fitness
C. Average
D. Obese
214. Which of these assessments meausres a client's anaerobic capacity?
A. Rockport mile test
B. Vertical jump test
C. kneeling overhead toss
D. 300-yard shuttle run
215. What is the waist-to -hip ratio threshold at which a female client's health is
considered at risk?
A. .79
B. .82
C. .86
D. .95
216. Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of
___________ during maximal exercise.
A. blood oxygen levels
B. exhaled air
C. core temperatures
D. caloric expenditure
217. A personal trainer can accurately estimate VO2max froma client's heart-rate response
to exercise.
A. True
B. False
218. If an activity requires a functional capacity of 6 METs, what is the total oxygen
consumption of someone performing that activity?
A. 0.6 mL/kg/min
B. 6 mL/kg/min
C. 10.5 mL/kg/min
D. 21 mL/kg/min
219. Which of the following types of physiological assessment is contraindicated for a
client with asthma?
A. cycle ergometer test
B. treadmill test
C. ventilatory threshold test
D. step test
220. The end-point of the VT2 threshold test is determined by the client's ability to recite
the Pledge of Allegiance, or another memorized group of phrases.
A. True
B. False
221. Individuals who are short in statue may not be good candidates for which type of
testing?
A. cycle ergometer test
B. treadmill test
C. ventilatory threshold tests
D. step tests
222. Which of the three tests included in McHill's torso muscular endurance test battery is
a timed test involving a static, isometric contraction of the anterior muslces,
stabilizing the spine until the individual exhibits fatigue can can no longer hold the
assumed position?
A. trunk flexor endurance
B. trunk lateral endurance test
C. trunk extensor endurance test
223. A male client who weighs 190 pounds has a one-rep max of 225 pounds on the bench
press exercise. His relative strength for this exercise in ___________.
A. 225 pounds
B. .84
C. 35 pounds
D. 1.18
224. A competitive soccer player, whose sport requires an ability to accelerate, decelerate,
change direction, and then accelerate again, is interested in completeing an
assessment to serve as a baseline against which he can measure future improvements.
Which test will BEST measure these sports skills?
A. 300-yard shuttle run
B. 40 yard dash
C. pro agility test
D. Margaria-Kalamen stair climb
225. Which of the following joints is classified as favoring stability vs. mobility?
A. Scapulothorasic
B. Ankle
C. Thoracic spine
D. glenohumeral
226. A lack of hip-joint mobility is MOST likely to lead to which of the following?
A. hypermobility in the scapulothoracic joints and thorasic spine
B. Compromised stability in the knees and lumbar spine
C. hypermobility in the knee, ankle, and foot joints
D. compromised mobility in the knees and lumbar spine
227. Limited movement over an extended period of time, such as is seen with injury and
postural deviations, can result in muscle shortening on one side of a joint and muscle
lengthening on the other side of the joint. How do these length changes affect the
force-generating capasity of these muscles?
The lengthened muscles generally have a higher force production throughout the full
A.
range of motion, as muscles are strongest when they are longest
The shortened muscles will produce the same amount of force as they did at normal
B.
length, only as a faster rate of movement
The will have greater force-generating capacity at their new lengths, but diminished
C.
force-generating capacity at normal resting lengths
 They will have diminished force-generating capacity at their new lengths, but greater
D.
force-generating capacity at normal resting lengths
228. What force couple creates posterior pelvic rotation to pull the pelvis out of anterior
pelvic tilt?
A. hip flexors and erector spinae
B. hamstrings and erector spinae
C. hip flexors and rectus abdominis
D. hamstrings and rectus abdominis
229. The middle layer of torso muscles that are commonly refered to as "the core" consists
of the __________________.
multifidi, quadratus lumborum, transverse abdominis, deep fibers of the internal
A.
oblique, diaphragm, and pelvic floor musculature
erector spinae, external oblique, deep fibers of the inernal oblique, iliopsoas, rectus
B.
abdominis, and latissimus dorsi
C. Transverse abdominis, diaphragm, interspinali, intertransversarii, and rotatores
Quadratus lumborum, multifidi, external oblique, erector spinae, and pelvic floor
D.
musculature
230. Once a client can perform two sets of 10 reps of glute bridges, which exercise would
provide the MOST appropriate progression?
A. single leg glute bridge with a riser under the thoracic spine
B. stability ball single leg glute bridge with opposite knee to chest
C. single leg glute bridge with opposite knee to chest
D. stability ball single-leg glute bridge with opposite leg straight
231. When helping a client build scapulothoracic stability, which exercise should a trainer
have him or her perform FIRST to teach the client how to "pack" the scapula?
A. shoulder diagonals without resistance
B. supine-lying shoulder depression and shoulder retraction
C. prone arm lifts in I, Y, W and O formations
D. supine should internal and external rotation with tubing
232. Once a client can demonstration good static balance while standing on two feet, what
exercise could the trainer introduce that would provide the MOST appropriate
progression?
A. reducing points of contact (2 feet to 1 foot)
B. balancing on an unstable surface
C. raising arms overhead with eyes closed
D. narrowing the base of support
233. Which progression follows the part-to whole teaching strategy in helping a client
learn proper technique for the bedn and lift squatting movements?
Hip hinge-pelvic tilts and back alignment-lower extremity alignment- figure 4
A.
position
pelvic tilts and back alignment- figure 4 position - squats with varied foot positions -
B.
lunges
hip hinge-figure 4 position - squats with varied foot positions - squats with arm
C.
drivers
D. lower extremity alignment - figure 4 position - squats with arm drivers - lunge matrix
 234. once a client demonstrates good form while performing kneeling wood-chop spiral
patterns with short and long moment arms, what exercise would provide the MOST
appropriate progression?
A. standing wood-chops and hay bailers with full rotation
B. standing wood-chops and hay bailers with long moment arms
C. standing wood chops and hay bailers with 2kg medicine ball
D. standing wood-chop spiral patterns with short moment arms
235. Which of the following joints favors stability over mobility
A. ankle
B. knee
C. thoracic spine
D. glenohumeral
236. Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the anterior, inferior surface
of the pelvis in an effort to maintain a neutral pelvic positions?
A. erector spinae
B. hamstrings
C. rectus abdominis
D. hip flexors
237. When trying to meet the objective of the stability and mobility training phase by
reestablishing appropriate levels of stability and mobility through the kinetic chain, a
personal trainer should begin by trageting which region of the body?
A. lumbar spinae
B. thoracic spinae
C. hips
D. shoulders
238. After proximal stability is established in the lumbar spine, the focus of the stability
and mobility training phase shifts to establishing _____________.
A. static balance
B. mobility and stability in the distal extremities
C. stability of the scapulothoracic spine
D. mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine
239. Which stretching technique is MOST appropriate for deconditioned clients to perform
DURING a workout?
A. Dynamic stretching
B. Active isolated stretching
C. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
D. Myofascial release
240. Which stretching technique involves holding each stretch to the point of tension for
15-60 seconds?
A. Dynamic stretching
B. Static stretching
C. Active isolated stretching
D. Ballistic stretching
241. A skilled performace athlete who has established good flexibility would like to
 address functional flexibility during his pre-exercise stretching routine. What two
types of stretching would be the BEST choices for this client?
A. active isolated stretching and dynamic stretching
B. dynamic stretching and ballistic stretching
C. static stretching and proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
D. myofascial release and active isolated stretching
242. Which of the following muscles is part of the outer layer of the core?
A. multifidi
B. diaphragm
C. quadratus lumborum
D. latissimus dorsi
243. The stretching of weakened muscles should begin with the performance of 2 to 4
repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for 5 to 10 seconds at less
thatn 50% of maximal voluntary contraction in a supported, isolated environment.
A. True
B. False
244. A key role of the serratus anterior is to move the thorax toward a more fixed, stable
scapulae.
A. True
B. False
245. Which of the following techniques will reduce the balance challenge of an exercise?
A. narrowing the base of support
B. lowering the center of mass
C. looking up and down during the exercise
D. closing the eyes
246. Standing on a single leg and taking a step mandates stability in each of the following
regions EXCEPT the ____________
A. Stance leg
B. hip
C. torso
D. raised leg
247. Which type of movement has the GREATEST need for thoracic mobility?
A. pushing movements
B. bend and lift movements
C. rotational movements
D. pulling movements
248. Which of the following exercises BEST addresses the rotational movement patterns
during the movement training phase?
A. Wood-chop
B. Unilateral row
C. lunge
D. hip hinge
249. Which of the following terms is defined as the product of muscular strength and
movement speed?
A. muscular endurance
B. muscular power
C. absolute strength
D. relative strength
250. Which of the following is a skill-related parameter that might be addressed in a
client's exercise program?
A. balance
B. flexibility
C. body composition
D. aerobic capacity
251. Training frequency is inversely related to both training _____________ and
training_____________.
A. volume; type
B. type; intensity
C. volume; intensity
D. type; duration
252. A client's resistance-training regimen involves performing four sets of each exercise,
with each set containing four repetitions. This training volume BEST addresses which
training goal?
A. muscular hypertrophy
B. muscular endurance
C. muscular strength
D. general muscle fitness
253. What is the first progression made when utilizing the double-progressive training
protocol.
A. adding resistance in 5% increments
B. adding reps to the set
C. adding sets to the workout
D. reducing the rest intervals
254. According to the principle of reversibility, a client who stops performing resistance
will lose strength at about _______ that it was gained.
A. The same rate
B. twice the rate
C. one-tenth the rate
D. one-half the rate
255. After progressing to the load-training phase of the ACE IFT Model, a client has
mastered the stablity and mobility exercises from the previous phases and no longer
needs to include them in each workout.
A. True
B. False
256. What aspect of muscular fitness is BEST addressed by a client adhering to the
following regimen? Frequency: Provide at least 72 hours recovery time between
exercises for the same muscle groups Intensity: Between 70 and 80% of maximum
resistance, reaching fatigue between 50 and 70 seconds Reps: 8-12 Sets: 3-4 sets with
 30-60 seconds rest between successive training sets Type: A combination of
multijoint and single-joint exercises using various techniques, including breakdown
training and assisten training
A. muscular hypertrophy
B. muscular strength
C. muscular power
D. muscular endurance
257. A plyometric exercise program BEST addresses which aspect of muscular fitness?
A. muscular hypertrophy
B. muscular strength
C. muscular power
D. muscular endurance
258. Which of the following types of plyometric drills provides the highest intensity?
A. multiple linear jumps
B. jumps in place
C. hops and bounds
D. multidirectional jumps
259. Your new client is a 47 year old woman who wants to lose weight, but is a bit
apprehensive about resistence training because she does not want to "get big". Based
on this information, what response would BEST facilitate resistence-training program
adherence and motication
Design a program based on primarily cardio exercise with a light (40% 1 RM) circuit
A.
with high reps (15-25) sets to help her comfortably meet her goals
Tell her that has has nothing to worry about, as woman do not produce enough of the
B.
male hormone testosterone to "get big"
Show empathy for her concern about getting big and ensure her that you will design
C.
a program that will help her to get toned without getting big
Explain the average adult muscle tissue loss of 5lbs per decade, and how resistance
D.
training can help her restore lost muscle and raise resting metabolism.
260. Strength gains during the first several weeks of a resistence-training program are
primarily due to _______________.
A. muscle hypertrophy
B. improved neuromuscular function
C. enhanced mitochondrial density
D. increased myofibrils
261. Which of the following statements is true about the role of type I muscle fibers during
resistance-training exercies?
A. they are responsible for producing quick, high force movements
B. the are primarily active during lower levels of force production
C. the are oxidative and not active during resistance exercise
D. they are only active when performing 15 or more reps
262. Performing which combo of sets, reps, and load would result in the GREATEST total
training volume?
A. 2 sets x 8 reps with 110 pounds
B. 1 set x 12 reps with 150 pounds
C. 3 sets x 4 reps with 160 pounds
D. 2 sets x 12 reps with 90 pounds
263. You are working with a new client who wants to begin resistance training in prep for
a one-month backpacking trip he will be taking thorough the Rocky Mountains.
Which of the following training sets and reps ranges would be BEST for helping
prepare for the rigors of this multi-day trip?
A. 1-2 sets of 8-10 reps
B. 2-4 sets of 4-6 reps
C. 2-3 sets of 12-16 reps
D. 3-5 sets of 6-12 reps
264. What work -to-recovery ratio would be MOST appropriate to include in a resistance
training circuit for small group personal training sessions with clients who have
primary goals that require enhanced muscular endurance?
A. 75 sec work interval 15 sec recovery
B. 90 sec work interval 2-3 minute recovery
C. 90 sec work interval 60 sec recovery
D. 75 sec interval 3-5 minute recovery
265. The resistance training program you have design for a client has her performing 8-12
reps during each set, using a double prgressive training protocol for advancing
workload. She was able to perform 2 sets of 12 reps on the leg press with 200 lbs.
Based on this info, what would be the MOST appropriate progression for her on the
leg press exercise?
A. increase weight to 220lb and work toward 12 reps
B. continue with current weight until reaching 15 reps then increase by 10%
C. increase weight to 210lb and work toward 12 reps
D. raise weight to 240 lb and perform 8 reps
266. Which of the following programs would be MOST appropriate for a client who has a
primary focus on improving muscular strength?
2 sets of 4-8 reps for each major muscle group or movement pattern, utilizing a split
A. routine that allows 72-96 hours of recovery time before working the same muscle
group again
2 sets of 8-12 reps for each major movement pattern, utilizing a 3 day undulating
B. periodization model for full body training with 48 hours of recovery time between
workouts
3 sets of 8-10 reps for each major muscle group or movement pattern, utilizing a spilt
C. routine that allows 48-72 hours of recovery time before working the same muscle
group
3 sets of 3-5 reps on explosive, full-body exercises performed 3 days per week with
D.
48-72 hours of recovery
267. You are working with a client who wants to train for a specific athletic competition.
Before progressing this client to performance training (phase 4), what criteria should
he meet to allow for a safe and effective transition to this type of training?
successful completion of stability and mobility training followed by 12 weeks of load
A.
training
good postural stability, proper movement patterns, and relatively high levels of
B.
strength
C. successful completion of stability and mobility training and movement training
D. regular participation in resistance training for a least 3 consecutive years
268. What plyometric drills would provide the MOST appropriate progression for a client
who can successfully perform a predetermined number of vertical jumps and single
linear jumps?
A. depth jumps
B. multidirectional jumps
C. hops and bounds
D. multiple linear jumps
269. when performing steady state cardio respiratory exercise, which of the following is
LEAST likely to limit exercise duration?
A. Availability of oxygen
B. availability of energy from stored fat and/or free fatty acids
C. the willingness to continue
D. availability of energy from stored glycogen and/or blood glucose
270. What causes cardiovascular drift?
increased heart rate to compensate for reduced blood volume due to sweat production
A.
for thermoregulation
Decreased heart rate resulting from an inability to sustain cardiac output due to
B.
fatigue
increased stroke volume to compensate for reduced blood volume due to sweat
C.
production for thermoregulation
decreased stroke volume resulting from an inability to sustain cardiac output due to
D.
fatigue
271. What is the primary reason for having all clients perform an adequate cool-down?
A. To prevent delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)
B. to perform static stretching for enhanced flexibility
C. the enhance venous return to prevent blood pooling in the extremities
D. the maintain increased caloric expenditure to enhance weight loss
272. What is the GREATEST LIMITATION associated with using the heart-rate reserve
(HRR) to calculate exercise target heart rate?
A. Target heart rate must be calculated as a %HRR using the Karvonen formula
Accurate programming using HRR requires actual measured maximum heart rate
B.
(MHR) and resting heart rate
C. New MHR prediction equations are more accurate that MHR=220-age
D. Exercise percentages were established through population-based research
273. Which of the following weekly training plans would have a session RPE of 450
points?
A. 4 sessions x 25 minutes at an RPE of 5
B. 2 sessions x 30 minutes at an PRE of 5 and 2 sessions x 20 minutes at an RPE of 3
C. 3 sessions x 30 minutes at an RPE of 5
D. 2 sessions x 30 mnites at an RPE of 4 and 3 sessions x 20 mins at an RPE of 4.5
274. During cardiorespiratory exercise with progressively increasing intensity, the need for
additional oxygen is met initially through linear increases in minute ventilation (Ve).
The point at which the increased demands for oxygen can no longer be met by this
 linear increase, causing a nonlinear increase in ventilation is known as
______________________ and can be measure via a ___________________.
A. aerobic capacity; VO2 max test
B. second ventilatory threshold (VT@); VTS threshold test
C. Onset of blood lactate accumulations (OBLA); blood lactate analyzer
D. First ventilatory threshold (VT1) submaximal talk test for VT1
275. Which of the following corresponds with the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?
A. Talk test threshold
B. onset of blood lactate accumulation
C. aerobic capacity
D. the dividing point between zone 1 and zone 2
276. What is the PRIMARY focus of aerobic-base training in the ACE IFT Model?
creating positive experiences and early success through achievable zone 1 exercise of
A.
increasing duration
B. progressively increasing zone 2 intervals to intensities just below VT2
building a strong endurance base as part of a periodization plan for performance in
C.
long-distance events
D. transitioning from training for improved heal to training for improved fitness
277. Most fitness enthusiasts that exercise in a gym or at home on a regular basis on
multiple days per week will spend many years reaching their fitness goals through
aerobic-efficiency training. Research with these well-trained non-athletes has found
that they will spend as much as ______% of their total training time in zone 2.
A. 10
B. 25
C. 35
D. 50
278. Which of the following training scenarios would MOST likely result in overtraining
syndrome for an endurance athlete?
A. increasing the intensity of zone 3 intervals by 10% from one week to the next
decreasing the number of recovery days per week to accommodate additional interval
B.
work
C. increasing the duration of zone 1 training by 20% over the course of three weeks
decreasing the total time spent doing zone 2 internal work when increasing the
D.
intensity
279. Most health benefits occur with at least __________minutes a week of moderate-
intensity physical activity.
A. 60
B. 75
C. 150
D. 180
280. A client performs regular moderate-intenstiy activity at 85% of his maximum heart
rate. What is his fitness classification?
A. poor/fair
B. fair/average
C. average/good
D. good/excellent
281. During the talk test, a client is able to speak, but not very comfortable. At
approximately what intensity is this client working?
A. below VT1
B. just above VT1
C. just below VT1
D. above VT2
282. In which zone of the the 3 zone training model is an individual exercising if he or she
is working at a heart rate equal to his or her second ventilatory threshold?
A. zone 1
B. zone 2
C. zone 3
283. A client is performing 250 minutes of exercise each week and has a weekly caloric
expenditure of about 1700 caloreis. What is this client's physical fitness
classificiation
A. poor/fair
B. fair/average
C. average/good
D. good/excellent
284. Which exercise variable is it MOST appropriate for a personal trainer to manipulate
in the early stagges of an exercise program?
A. Duration
B. Intensity
C. Frequency
D. Type
285. During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a client
be wokring at an RPE of 3-4?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
286. During which cardio training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a trainer
administer the VT2 threshold test to determine HR at VT2?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
287. Stop and go game type activities are an appropriate choice for both youth and older
adult exercisers.
A. True
B. False
288. During which of the cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should
low zone 2 intervals be introduced into a client's program?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
289. What form of mind-body exercise is BEST described as a form of moving
meditation?
A. Nia
B. Yoga
C. Tai Chi
D. Pilates
290. Which type of progrma is BEST suited for individuals who are new to yoga?
A. Restorative yoga
B. Integral yoga
C. Bikram yoga
D. Ashtanga yoga
291. Which type of yoga is also known as "power yoga"?
A. anusara yoga
B. ashtanga yoga
C. viniyoga
D. kripalu yoga
292. Which term, also the name of a type of yoga, is synonymous with what is also called
"serpent power," of the coiled-up energy contained in the body?
A. Bikram
B. Kundalini
C. Kripalu
D. Anusara
293. Which form of tai chi is the most practiced in the West today?
A. Original Chen style
B. Chang style
C. Yang style
D. Wu style
294. An older adult client who is interested in trying mind-body exercise has decided that
tai chi might be the best fit for her needs and abilities. Which form of tai chi would
you recommend?
A. Original Chen style
B. Change style
C. Wu style
D. Sun style
295. Which contemporary form of mind-body exercise involves floor work and as well as
work done on a machine called a reformer?
A. Nia
B. Pilates
C. Alexander technique
D. Feldenkrais method
296. Which contemporary form of mind-body exercises includes a moderate-level aerobic
 component that fosters spontaneity?
A. Nia
B. pilates
C. Alexander methond
D. Feldenkrais method
297. One of the means of objectively assessing the success of a mind-body exercise
program is to record baseline and serial blood pressure measurements.
A. True
B. False
298. ____________ is the practice of voluntary breath control, consisting of conscious
inhalation, retention, and exhalation.
A. Asana
B. Sivananda
C. Viniyoga
D. pranayama
299. Which of the following benefits of regular participation in mind-body exercise will
have the GREATEST impact on improved program adherence?
A. increased self-efficacy
B. enhanced flexibility
C. improved muscular strength
D. enhanced balance
300. The affective and neurendocrine response to mind-body exercise is mediated through
the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (HPA) and results in a decreased prodiction
of which hormones that are associated with stress?
A. renin and ghrelin
B. insulin and glucagon
C. catecholamines and cortisol
D. serotonin and acetylcholine
301. Which of the following is considered a classical form of mind-body exercise (>200-
year heritage)?
A. tae kwon do
B. native american yoga
C. hatha yoga
D. feldenkrais method
302. What is a metabolic benefit of practicing yoga and tai chi on a regular basis?
A. increased glucose tolerance and insulin sensitivity
B. decreased stress hormones
C. increased maximum oxygen consumption
D. decreased resting oxygen consumption
303. What is frequently cited as the primary centering activity of mind-body exercise
programs?
A. breathwork
B. kinesthetic awareness
C. proper choreographic form
D. energycentric movement
304. What is the PRIMARY mothod for progressing the principal challenge in hatha yoga?
A. Adding an environmental challenge, such as heat
B. Incorporating a yoga block into the patterns
C. Adding weighted or external resistance
D. Increasing the complexity of the asanas
305. Which of the following program modifications would be MOST important when
teaching yoga to a client who is deconditioned or has chronic disease?
A. increase breath suspensions at the end of expiration to 4-5 seconds
B. minimize poses with the head below the heart
C. avoid slow transitions from one pose to the next
D. increased time holding Iyengar poses for clients with hypertension
306. Which form of mind-body exercise is fundamentally a form of movement re-
education that breaks inefficient movement patterns into components?
A. Iyengar yoga
B. Tai Chi
C. Qigong
D. Pilates
307. Which of the following is a characteristic of mind-body exercise programs that is
helpful to those with stable chronic disease?
A. increased real-time cognitive arousal
B. improved proprioception and kinesthesis
C. intensity levels ranging from 3-6 METS
D. improved aerobic capacity
308. How can a personal trainer MOST effectively incorporate mind-body exercise into
personal-training sessions for clients?
A. including some Iyengar poses and yogic-breathing during cool-down
B. enhancing power training through slow,controlled yogic breathing
adding yogic breathing to high-intensity intervals to facilitate greater minute
C.
ventilation
D. incorporating inverted poses as part of a comprehensive warm-up
309. You are working with a client who has osteoarthritis. He shows up to his lastest
session and tells you that he has been "experiences soreness in his right knee since
helping his daughter moce into a new apartment over the weekend." In which section
of this client's SOAP notes should this inforamtion be recorded?
A. subjective
B. objective
C. assessment
D. plan
310. You are working with a client who has hypertension and has been cleared by her
physician for exercise. Which of the following would be MOST appropriate for her
initial resistance-training program?
mostly bodyweight exercise with isometric contractions held initially for 10-15
A.
seconds, working up to 30 seconds
 two sets of 8-12 reps on 8-10 exercises addressing all major muscle groups using
B.
mostly cable and dumbbells at an intensity of 70-80% 1 RM
one set of 6-8 reps performed on 8-10 selectorized machines to address all major
C.
muscles groups at an intensity of 80-85% 1RM
circuit training consisting of 8-10 exercies using mostly tubing and bodyweight
D.
performed one time for 12-16 reps at 60-70% 1 RM
311. What effect does regular exercise have on dyslipidemia?
A. exercise alone will significantly reduce total cholesterol levels
B. reduce exercise can increase LDL levels
C. triglyceride levels are reduced for up to 12 hours following exercise
D. regular exercise can increase HDL
312. You are working with a client who has type 1 diabetes and checks his blood glucose
levels prior to each exercise session. Which of the following pre-exercise blood
glucose levels would make you postpone the exercise session until blood sugar is
under control?
A. 88 mg/dL
B. 110 mg/dL
C. 155 mg/dL
D. 215 mg/dL
313. You are designing an exercise program for a new client who has type 2 diabetes and a
physician's release for exercise as tolerated to lose weight and improve blood glucose
regulation. During the initial session, you learn that she has been sedentary for the
past few years. What initial cardiorespiratory program would be most appropriate for
her?
walking 5-6 days per week for 40 minutes at an RPE of 11-13, working up to 60
A.
minutes
Cycling 3-4 days per week for 40 minutes at an RPE of 13-15, working up to 60
B.
minutes
Walking 5-6 days per week for 10-20 minutes at an RPE of 11-13, working up to 40-
C.
60 minutes
Cycling 3-4 days per week for 10-20 minutes at an RPE of 13-15, working up to 40-
D.
60 minutes
314. Whhich of the following steps would be MOST appropriate for personal trainers to
take to reduce the risk of exercise-induced asthma (EIA) episodes when working with
clients who have asthma?
having clients with asthma us additional inhaler medication prior to all exercise
A.
sessions
B. keep exercise intensities low-to-moderate for all clients with asthma
C. include an extended warm-up and cool down
D. perform exercise sessions outside on hot, dry days
315. Which of the following repetition ranges is recommended to stimulate bone changes
in clients who have osteopenia and/or osteoporosis?
A. 6-8
B. 10-12
C. 12-16
D. 15-20
 316. Which of the following progressions is LEAST recommended for clients who have
osteoarthritis?
A. emphasizing body alignment and exercise techniques at all times
B. increasing the weight lifted instead of increasing the number of repetitions
C. utilizing a variety of low-impact activities to avoid overstressing the joints
D. increasing exercise duration instead of increasing exercise intensity
317. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding exercise for people who
have low-back pain?
developing low-back strength is more important for long-term back health than
A.
developing low-back endurance
B. low-back exercises have the most beneficial effect when performed on a daily basis
full ROM spinal movements with an external load are best performed shortly after
C.
rising from bed
supine double leg raises should be avoided, but prone double leg raises are beneficial
D.
for clients who have low-back pain
318. Which of the following is NOT a common manifestation of artherosclerosis?
A. stroke
B. arrhythmias
C. angina
D. heart attack
319. During a workout, you notice that a client displays a sudden lack of coordination and
balance and, when asked, reports trouble seeing. What is the MOST likely cause of
these symptoms?
A. myocardial infarction
B. claudication
C. diabetes
D. stroke
320. A male client brings a form from his PCP reporting the following test results: waist
circumference: 41 inches Triglycerides: 140 mg/dL HDL cholestoral: 38 mg/dL
Blood pressue: 128/80 mmHg Fasting blood glucose: 93 mg/dL This client currently
has metabolic syndrome.
A. True
B. False
321. A client's physician provides the following guideline regarding the mode of exercise
for a new client: "Swimming is the recommended mode of exercise; upper-body
resistance exercises are not appropriate." With which of the following conditions is
this client MOST likely coping?
A. osteoporosis
B. arthritis
C. asthma
D. fibromyalgia
322. Weightbearing and resistance-training activities are MOST important for clients with
which of the following diseases or disorders?
A. osteoporosis
B. diabetes
C. arthritis
D. low-back pain
323. For clients with which of the following disease or disorders is it MOST important to
develop a "regular" pattern of activity that does not result in post-activity malaise?
A. low-back pain
B. chronic fatigue syndrome
C. fibromyalgia
D. cancer
324. How often should low-back exercies be performed in order to yield the maximum
benefit?
A. 2-3 days per week
B. 4-5 days per week
C. 5-6 days per week
D. 7 days per week
325. When programming exercise to help a client reduce low-back pain, it is most
important to focus on muscular strength, as opposed to muscular endurance.
A. True
B. False
326. Overweight or obese clients who are seeking to lose weight should perform a
minimum of _____ minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week.
A. 120
B. 150
C. 225
D. 240
327. The most commonly reported knee injury involves damage to the _____________.
A. anterior cruciate ligament
B. medial collateral ligament
C. patellla
D. menisci
328. What type of injury can be classified as longitudial, oblique, transverse, or
compression?
A. stress fractures
B. sprains
C. bursitis
D. shin splints
329. What is the first phase of healing after an injury occurs?
A. remodeling
B. inflammation
C. proliferation
D. fibroblastic
330. Which of the following is an ABSOLUTE contraindication to stretching?
A. joint hypermobility
B. pain in the affected area
C. presence of osteoporosis
D. joint swelling
331. Lateral epicondylitis is commonly known as _________.
A. golfers knee
B. jumpers knee
C. tennis elbow
D. runners knee
332. A client complains of pain in the wrist during sleep and numbness and loss of grip
strength during exercise. What injury is the MOST liekly cause of these symptoms?
A. greater trochanteric bursitis
B. illiotibial band syndrome
C. medial epicondylitis
D. carpal tunnel syndrome
333. A client comes to you with reccomendations from her doctor regarding exercise with
greater trochanteric bursitis. One of the focuses of her training should be
strengthening which of the following muscle groups?
A. hamstrings
B. gluteals
C. quadriceps
D. illiotibial band complex
334. Which of the following injuries is primarily caused by training errors among
athletes?
A. patellofemoral pain syndrome
B. infrapatellar tendinitis
C. achilles tendinitis
D. illiotibial band syndrome
335. A client reports feeling terrible pain in the heel during his first steps each morning,
which then dissipates as he walks around the house. What is the MOST likely cause
of this pain?
A. plantar fascitis
B. achilles tendinitis
C. ankle sprains
D. infrapatellar tendinitis
336. When programming exercise fora client who is recovering from a lateral ankle
sprain, it is important to begin with side-to-side motions before progressing to
staright plan and then mutlidirectional motions.
A. True
B. False
337. Which of the following would be contraindicated for a client who has an acute
hamstring strain?
A. Educating the client about PRICE as an early intervention strategy
B. Modifying the workout focusing on the non-injured points of the body
C. Stretching the hamstring for up to 60 seconds per stretch
D. Recommending that the client see a physician if pain persists
 338. Where is the scapular plane?
A. in line with the frontal plane
B. 30 degrees lateral to the sagittal plane
C. in line with the sagittal plane
D. 30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane
339. An inflammation of the wrist extensors near their origin is commonly referred to
as________________.
A. medial epicondylitis
B. tennis elbow
C. golfers elbow
D. olecranon bursitis
340. Which nerve is commonly compressed due to carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. median nerve
B. ulnar nerve
C. radial nerve
D. musculocutaneous nerve
341. Clients returning to exercies following greater trochanteric bursitis should generally
avoid _________________.
A. prone exercise positions that press on the anterior superior iliac spines
B. stretching the IT band complex
C. side lying exercise positions that compress the lateral hip
D. strengthening the deep hip rotator muscles
342. When working with a client who has a history of IT band syndrome, which muscle
group acting on the hip joint is MOST likely to be weak?
A. hip flexors
B. hip extensors
C. hip adductors
D. hip abductors
343. Tightness in which of the following structures can be a cause of patellofemoral pain
syndrome due to its lateral fascial connections to the patella?
A. IT band complex
B. hamstrings
C. peroneus longus
D. biceps femoris
344. Stretching which muscles has been shown to help relieve symptoms associated with
medial tibial stress syndrome and/or anterior shin splints?
A. gastrocnemius, soleus, and peroneal group
B. soleus and anterior compartment of the lower leg
C. tibialis anterior and plantar fasica
D. tibialis posterior and lateral compartment
345. What exercises would be MOST important to include for a clinet who has recovered
from Achillies tendinitis and wants to prevent it from returning?
eccentric strengthening for the calf complex through controlled plantarflexion
A.
against gravity and stretching the calf muscles
 high-intensity strength training for the calf complex and strengthening of the flexor
B.
halllucis longus and tibialis posterior
eccentric strengthening for the calf complex through controlled dorsiflexion against
C.
gravity and stretching the calf muscles
comprehensive stretching and isometric strength-training program for the muscles of
D.
the lower limb
346. When working with a client who has a history of plantar fascitis, it would be MOST
important to include stretching exercies for the _______________________?
A. gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantar fascia
B. plantar fascia, peroneus longus, and peroneus brevis
C. gastroncnemius, tibialis posterior and tibialis anterior
D. plantar fascia, tibialis anterior, and flexor digitorum longus
347. What is the MOST important step a fitness facilty can take to minimize risks of
cardiovascular events?
A. Having each member complete a release of liability waiver and informed consent
B. requiring all members to have physical exams before beginning exercise programs
C. Having each member complete a medical history form
D. requiring all members to start programs at a low to moderate intensity
348. /Which of the following CORRECTLY describes the Health Insurance Portability
and Accountability Act of 1996
A. It ensures individual privacy by requiring confidentiality of health documents
B. It requires an individual to share health information with his or her physician
C. It requires an individual to share health information with his or her insurance agency
It ensures that individual health records are accessible at all times via an electronic
D.
database
349. What should you do FIRST with a person who suddenly falls to the floor while
exercising?
A. Ask the person what led to the injury
B. Check for any medical jewelry to determine the cause of the condition
C. Assess the person's pulse and blood pressure
D. Assess if the person is conscious and asking if her or she is oky
350. What is the PRIMARY reason people give for not attempting CPR in a cardiac
emergency?
A. Fear of lawsuits due to cracked ribs
B. Uncertainty about their ability to perform CPR correctly
C. Fear of performing CPR when it is not needed
D. Uncomfortable with putting their mouth on a stranger
351. What is the MOST common heart rythum during cardia arrest?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Atrial bradycardia
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Ventricular tachycardia
352. A heart attach is characterized by which of the following signs and symptoms?
A. A sudden, severe headache and weakness on one side of the body
B. sustained stabbing pain in and around the chest
C. sudden loss of consciousness, with no breathing and no pulse
D. a squeezing pressure in the chest hat can be mistaken for heart burn
353. How is a transient ischemic attack (TIA) different from a stroke?
A. a TIA is caused by a different physiological mechanism
B. a stroke is not treatable, but a TIA is
C. signs of TIA last less than one hour
D. a TIA feels less severe and is less frightening than a stroke
354. Which of the following are actions to take when you suspect a client is having a mild
hypoglycemic incident?
A. help the client sit down and give him a sugary drink if he can swallow
B. call EMS rescuers, start the steps of CPR and get an available AED
C. help the client sit down and give him insulin if he has it available
D. immediately call for EMS rescuers to respond and monitor the person
355. Which of the following is a critical indicator that someone is suffering from heat
stroke and in need of emergency treatment?
A. increased body temperature
B. altered mental status
C. red hot, sweaty skin
D. fatigue, weakness, and headache
356. Which treatment of soft-tissue injuries is within the personal trainer scope of
practice?
A. Recommending that the client take NSAIDs
B. Performing massage on the affected soft tissue
C. administering ultrasound to the affected soft tissue
D. educating the client on the proper administration of ice using PRICE
357. What should you do FIRST with a person who suddenly falls to the floor while
exercising?
A. Ask the person what let to the injury.
B. Check for any medical jewelry to determine the cause of the condition.
C. Assess the person's pulse and blood pressure
D. Assess if the person is conscious and asking if he or she is okay
358. What business structure puts a personal trainer at the GREATEST risk for losing
personal assests in the event of a lawsuit filed by a client for an incident related to
personal training services provided?
A. C-corporation
B. sole proprietorship
C. limited liability corporation
D. subchapter S-coporation
359. Which business structure combines the limited liability and flow-through taxation of
the S-corp with easier creation and operation requirements?
A. partnership
B. C-corporation
C. limited liability partnership
D. sole proprietorship
360. What is a personal trainer MOST likely to give up when switching from working as
an independent contractor to working as an employee of a fitness facility?
A. Social security taxes being withheld and matched by the facility
B. medical benefits covered by the facility
C. need for justification form the facility before being fired
D. flexibility to set own schedule and pricing
361. Which of the following business practices would be MOST liekly to put a facility at
risk for imporperly categorizing personal trainers as independent contractors?
A. Allowing independent contractors to set their own schedules
requiring all personal trainers to follow the same assessment and programming
B.
procedures
C. allowing independent contractors to set their own fee
D. Requiring all personal trainers to hold their own professional liability insurance
362. What is the BEST method for ensuring that all aspects of a client-personal trainer
relationship are properly established?
A. signed contract
B. informed consent
C. liability waiver
D. verbal agreement
363. In which scenario is the personal trainer MOST likely to be found guilty of
negligence?
A. The trainer suffers a low-back injury while spotting a client
B. The client gets injured on her way into the fitness facility for her training session
The trainer is talking with another club member while the client injuries himself due
C.
to poor form
The client follows his program but adds two more sets on all exercises and sustains
D.
an injury as a result
364. What is the legal term used to describe a situation where a trainer fails to act and a
client in injured, but the client is determined to have played a role in his or her own
injury?
A. contributory negligence
B. gross negligence
C. complete negligence
D. comparative negligence
365. What form is used to have the client acknowledge that he or she has been specifically
informed about the risks associated with the activity in which hor or she is about to
engage?
A. liability waiver
B. informed consent
C. agreement to participate
D. exculpatory clause
366. Personal trainers who provide training sessions to individuals and/or groups in clients'
homes or outdoor settings should check with their current insurance providers to see
if they are covered for training in these settings or if they need to add a ___________
 policy to their exisiting progessional liability insurance.
A. general liability insurance
B. keyman insurance
C. umbrella insurance
D. specific insurance rider
367. Which of the following would violate intellectual porperty laws?
using music specifically designed for use in fitness facilities during small-group
A.
personal training
B. ACE professionals using ACE certified logo on their business website or clothing
Allowing personal-training clients the option to bring their own music to be played
C.
during their training sessions
Using the ACE logo to promote nutritional products, DVDs or equipment sold by an
D.
ACE professional
368. Which of the following is NOT one of the potential benefits of a sole proprietorship?
A. There is minimal ongoing paperwork
B. All profits belong to the owner
C. The owner makes all final decisions
D. A corporate veil shields the owner from losses
369. When working in a general partnership with a family member, it is a good idea to
operate the business as a 50-50 partnership so that both partners have an equal say in
how the business is run.
A. True
B. False
370. A company experiences a yearly loss and one of the partners uses that loss to offset
profits from another business. This is an example of ___________.
A. double taxation
B. flow-through taxation
C. the corporate veil
D. limited liability
371. Which type of corporation is most typically used by personal -training business?
A. subchapter S-corporation
B. C-corporation
C. limited-liability corporations
D. limited-liability partnerships
372. Which of the following business structures has double taxation as one of its primary
disadvantages?
A. general partnership
B. franchise operation
C. C-corporation
D. LLC/LLP
373. Which of the following structures has been used when a plaintiff is prevented from
receiving remuneration folowing an injury due to the fact that he was found to have
played a minor role in his own injury?
A. gross negligence
B. comparative negligence
C. contributory negligence
D. vicarious negligence
374. Which of the following activities falls outside a personal trainer's scope of practice?
Using a health history form to screen a client for appropriate placement and or
A.
referral
Recognizing a client's physical or psychological problems that might interfere with
B.
safe and effective exercise
C. Administering appropriate fitness assessments
D. Providing progressive exercise prescriptions
375. An umbrella liability policy provides added coverage for all of the other insurance
that a person may have in place.
A. True
B. False
376. When training in a client's home, a personal trainer must use recording produced
specifically for sue in fitness facilities or risk being in violation of copyright law.
A. True
B. False
377. When evaluating the risk of injury associated with a particular activity, a personal
trainer finds that the frequency of occurance is low or seldom, and the severity of
injury is categorized as high or vital. What is the BEST course of action?
A. avoid
B. transfer
C. reduce
D. retain