70230

General Subjects Related To Administration Apprentice (6 Items)

1. Who is responsible in the administration of an office or unit?

a. Director for Operations

b. Director for Administration/Personnel
c. Director for Maintenance
d. Squadron Commander
2. What AFP AGO form is issued to records leave/furlough granted to military personnel and
determines leave/furlough balance?

a. AFP AGO form 141

b. AFP AGO form 5
c. AFP AGO form 30
d. AFP AGO form 1

3. The Informal Communication between two (2) offices of the same headquarters requiring
no reply is usually made by?

a. Disposition Form
b. Memo Routing Slip
c. Message Form
d. Morning Report

4. What is AFP AGO Form Nr 1?

a. Airman Military Record

b. Morning Report
c. Clothing Record Form
d. Clearance Form

5. What kind of PAF Form is the Personnel Action Request?

a. PAF Form 1098

b. PAF Form 110
c. PAF Form 623
d. PAF Form 1

6. What AFP circular that can apply for EP Promotional System in the AFP?

a. GHQ Circular Nr 13 dtd 15 Jul 1991

b. GHQ Circular Nr 01 dtd 02 Jan 2008
c. GHQ Circular Nr 03 dtd 31 Jan 1990
d. GHQ Circular Nr 14 dtd 10 Jul 1990

Mission, Function and Organization Related To Administration

Apprentice (9 Items)

7. How do you perform administrative task in support of the Air Force administration mission
and functions?

a. Administration Apprentice
b. Career Advisory Management Apprentice
c. Personnel Apprentice
 d. Training Apprentice

8. Who have the duty and responsibility to operate the Base Information Transfer (distribution)
Center (BITC)?

a. Letter of Reprimand
b. Reports of Investigation
c. Administration Apprentice
d. Airman Separation Actions

9. Who is the primary staff to CG, PAF that is responsible in all matters pertaining to
administration and management of personnel?

a. A-1
b. A-2
c. A-3
d. A-4
10. It prescribes the organic structure and equipment of military units, the strength and function
of which are not subject to frequent.

a. Table of Distribution and Allowances

b. Table of Organization and Equipment
c. Technical Order
d. Unit Manning Document

11. It is a table which prescribes the organizational structure of personnel and equipment
authorization and requirement of a military unit to perform a specific mission to which there
is no appropriate TOE.

a. Table of Distribution and Allowances

b. Table of Organization and Equipment
c. Technical Order
d. Unit Manning Document

12. What principle of organization that requires the responsibilities assigned to individuals that
must carry with the necessary authority?
a. Deligation of authority
b. Homogenous assignment
c. Unity of Command
d. Span of Control

13. What do you call the primary task assigned to an individual, unit or force?

a. Mission
b. vision
c. Function
d. responsibility

14. What is that management document prepared by the unit themselves as authorized in the
MAV. It’s a table which prescribes the functional element of a unit, authorized designation
or position of personnel (military and civilian), their ranks.

a. Master Manning Document

b. Manpower Authorization Voucher
c. Troops Strength
d. Unit Manning Document
 15. What office is responsible in supervision, coordination and direction of the PAF
records?

a. OAFA
b. OAJA
c. OAFIG
d. OESPA

Security and Safety Related To Administration Apprentice (9 Items)

16. The classification of information and material which the unauthorized disclosure would be
injurious to the interest or prestige of the nation or be advantage of foreign nation.

a. restricted
b. top secret
c. confidential
d. secret

17. What form is this that defines restricted information regardless of its physical
characteristics?
a. security
b. order of battle
c. document
d. Classified material

18. What do you call to the material or information necessary for safeguarding in the internal of
national security and are classified for such purpose by a responsible authority?

a. document
b. classified material
c. confidential material
d. Unclassified material

19. What is that protected condition of classified matter which prevents unauthorized persons
from obtaining information of direct and indirect military value?

a. safety
b. courtesy
c. security
d. Military justice

20. What form is this that defines restricted information regardless of its physical
characteristics?

a. security
b. order of battle
c. document
d. Classified material

21. What will you do if you have a classified document visible to a visiting
AF Colonel, you will cover it or turn it over, because the Colonel May?

a. Maybe an enemy agent

b. Might read enough to talk about it inspire of his security clearance
c. Has not shown a right and need to know
d. May have an invalid security clearance
 22. The authorized disclosure of any material or information would cause on exceptionally
grave damage to the nation politically, economically and militarily should be classified as:

a. top secret
b. order of battle
c. secret
d. Restricted

23. The basic rule for dissemination of classified information is to:

a. Disseminate it to a few people as possible.

b. Release it only to those with need to know.
c. Release it to those with a right to know.
d. Disseminate it only to those with both a right and a need to know.

24. It is the practice of identifying, classifying, achieving, preserving and destroying records.

a. Record management
b. Record management system
c. Standard Operating procedure
d. Classification system

Supply and Publications Related To Admin Apprentice (30 Items)

25. What is the lowest echelon of Command that is authorized to publish General Order?

a. Group of Comparable Level

b. Division Level
c. Wing Level
d. Squadron Level

26. Which of the following equipments will be indispensable to you?

a. personal computer
b. bond paper
c. printer
d. All of the above

27. It is a military communication that concerns any subject and takes many form and styles. It
is composed mostly of letters, endorsements and messages.

a. Correspondence
b. Disposition Form
c. Subject to Letter
d. Military Correspondence

28. The following publication has no restriction upon the number that maybe issued in
one day, EXCEPT:

a. General Orders
b. Letter Orders
c. Special Orders
d. Personnel Orders

29. All administrative orders shall contain three major components, what are those
components?
 a. Salutation, Body, Closed
b. Heading, Body, Authentication
c. Letter Head, Date, Designation
d. Heading, Salutation, Closed

30. What do you call the publications which are normally use to promulgate directions affecting
such as promotions, assignment, transfer, leave and furlough?

a. Personnel Orders
b. General Orders
c. Special Orders
d. Letter Order

31. Directives which contain instructions, more or less general in application but temporary in
duration are published in the form of:

a. Supplement
b. SOP
c. Letter Order
d. Circular

32. What type of administrative orders you are going to publish pertaining reassignment,
leave/furlough, enlistment and reenlistment of military personnel?

a. Special Orders
b. General Orders
c. Personnel orders
d. Letter Orders

33. What type of order is issued to announce the result of trial of an individual the initial action
of the convening authority to effect remission, vacation of all or a part of a sentence?

a. Court Martial
b. General Orders
c. Reserve Orders
d. Special Orders

34. Official communication issued by higher headquarters of subordinated unit by which

commanders announce policies, state procedures and furnish instructions to units and personnel of
their commands are known as:

a. Requisitions
b. Publications
c. Directives
d. Circular

35. A set of instruction giving the procedure to be followed as a matter of routing is published in the
form of:

a. PAF Manuals
b. Standard Operating Procedure
c. Letter
d. Pamphlets

36. It is obligation of an individual for the proper care, safeguarding, use and disposition of property
entrusted to him whether issued, receipt or not.
 a. Supply Discipline
b. Pecuniary liability
c. Supervisory
d. Property Responsibility

37. Whenever possible an order shall be limited to:

a. One page only

b. Three pages only
c. Two pages only
d. All of the above

38. A request for material from accountable/responsible office to a source of supplies or approving
authority.

a. accountability
b. requisition
c. responsibility
d. Supply management

39. The obligation imposed by law or lawful order or regulation of an officer or person for
keeping accurate records of property fund.

a. accountability
b. requisition
c. responsibility
d. Supply management

40. It is the obligation of an individual for the proper custody care and safekeeping of property and
fund entrusted to his possession or under supervision.

a. accountability
b. requisition
c. responsibility
d. Supply management

41. What do you call the message procedure listed in the order of their importance?

a. Flash, Emergency, Immediate and Routine

b. Immediate, Flash, Priority and Routine
c. Flash, Immediate, Priority and Routine
d. Flash, Priority, Immediate and Routine

42. It is defined as the need or demand for personnel equipment, supplies, resources,
facilities or services.

a. distribution management
b. storage
c. procurement
d. requirement

43. It is the process of holding and caring for supplies prior to issue.

a. distribution management
b. storage
c. procurement
 d. Requirement

44. It is the acquisition of supplies, materials and equipment including non-personnel services,
which are necessary to carry out the program of government by written order or contract, thru
bidding or negotiation or by transfer under prescribed laws, procedures, rule and regulation.

a. distribution management
b. storage
c. procurement
d. Requirement

45. It is the control of stocks in storage, due in and due out for the entire distribution system on
both a quantitative and monitory basis.

a. distribution management
b. storage
c. procurement
d. Requirement

46. Like any other administrative orders, letter orders contains the following component
EXCEPT:

a. Heading
b. Body
c. Signature Element
d. Command and authority line

47. A plan for a military operation or a series of connected operations to be carried but
simultaneously or in succession.

a. Operation Order
b. Order of battle
c. Operation Plan
d. Letter directives

48. What orders that the awards and decorations are published?

a. Special Orders
b. General Orders
c. Office Orders
d. Letter Orders

49. How many words must not exceed to the SUBJECT body of the letter?

a. 5 words
b. 10 word
c. 15 words
d. 8 words

50. Files that have not been retired to the control records depot and to which frequent
references is made in the conduct of administrative works.

a. Records
b. Current files
c. Non-current files
d. Retirement
 51. A method used to transmit or reply to a military communication by writing on the incoming
communication itself rather than preparing a new communication.

a. Address
b. Paragraphing
c. Endorsement
d. Text

52. A message which has a wide standard distribution is called?

a. Single address message

b. Book message
c. General message
d. multiple address messages

53. If an officer below the grade of Brigadier General and the letter was not addressed to
a member of his command, the command of authority line used is?

a. By command of Brigadier General

b. For the Commanding General
c. By order of COLONEL REYES
d. FOR THE COMMANDING OFFICER

54. What is the highest precedence that an administrative message may have?

a. Priority
b. Urgent
c. Secret
d. Routine

Training Related To Administration Apprentice (60 Items)

55. What is the closest synonym of the word administration from the given words
below if applied to the aforementioned AFSC?

a. Field
b. Paperwork
c. Technical
d. Personnel

56. What is the closest synonym of the word Apprentice from the given
words below if applied to the aforementioned AFSC?

a. Semi-skilled
b. Authority
c. High quality
d. Adviser

57. From numbers 1 and 2, which of the given words above will best define the word
Administration?

a. field adviser
b. high-quality personnel
c. paperwork beginner
d. technical authority
 58. When filing alphabetically, which one of the following names would be placed
first?

a. B. Baltazar Rentero
b. Baltazar Rentero
c. B.B. Rentero
d. B. Rentero

59. What type of training is given to qualify an AM in an AFS not in the

same progression pattern of his currently awarded AFSC?

a. Normal UGT
b. Proficiency Training
c. Lateral Training
d. On-the-job Training

60. What do you call the classify Air Force Operations force to cover combat
operations furnish logistical air such to army and provide air transport for the
armed forces?

a. Responsibility
b. Function
c. Mission
d. Objective

61. What award is given after 20 yrs of active military service?

a. Gold Cross
b. Long Service Medal
c. Bronze Cross
d. Gawad sa Kaunlaran

62. It is a type of promotion which is governed by the authorized strength of

enlisted personnel.

a. temporary promotion
b. regular promotion
c. special promotion
d. on the spot promotion

63. It is a type of leave intended for the recovery period from sickness or disability.

a. Sick leave
b. Maternity leave
c. Convalescent leave
d. Paternity leave

64. It provides limited financial assistant to deserving PAF Military personnel who are
CDD retirement, died in line of duty and others.

a. PAF education Fund Inc

b. AFP Provident Trust Fund
c. Hero Foundation
d. Scholarship of son/ daughter of AFP EP
 65. It provides educational assistance to qualified AFP personnel and their dependents
according to its priority.

a. PAF Educational final

b. AFP provident test final
c. Hero Foundation
d. Scholarship of son/ daughter of AFP EP

66. It is used if the Commander does not sign the letter and only officer duty authorized
to do so by the said commander.

a. Complimentary ending
b. Channels
c. Command line
d. Addresses

67. Which of the following elements is included in a nonmilitary letter?

a. Authentication section
b. Official section
c. Complementary Close
d. Distribution symbol

68. Circular # 01 GHQ, AFP dated 02 January 2008 is known as ______

a. Permission to study
b. Permission to marry
c. Officer Promotion system
d. EP Promotion system in the AFP

69. What is the required Tenure-in-Grade for E 6?

a. 8yrs
b. 7yrs
c. 6 yrs
d. 5yrs

70. It is a test to determine the knowledge, skills and abilities peculiar to the career as
specialty of as EP.

a. General examination
b. SKT
c. Psychological test
d. PROMEX

71. A test on basic military skills and knowledge that is common to all EP.

a. General examination
b. SKT
c. Psychological test
d. PROMEX

72. In EP Promotion system, the maximum point for EPEM is _________.

a. 8 points
b. 6 points
c. 10 points
 d. 12 points

73. Where should be the page nr placed to the second and succeeding pages of a
military letter?

a. Centered, and on the second line from bottom of page

b. Centered, and on inch from the bottom of the page
c. Flush with the left margin on the fourth line
d. Flush with the right margin one inch from the bottom of the page

74. It pertains to career training of an EP preparing him for duty assignment of an E-6.

a. Advance NCO course

b. Basic NCO course
c. Sergeant major course
d. none of the above

75. AFP AGO Form No 110 is commonly known as ____________.

a. Personnel Action Form

b. Pass Form
c. Personal Action Form
d. JAGO Form

76. AFP AGO Form No 110 will be used in the following manner, EXCEPT:

a. To request
b. To communicate
c. To recommend
d. To reply

77. ________ is the accepted format for military correspondence with other command
both or and off the post, addressed to the Commander or higher Headquarters or to
the subordinate unit.

a. MSTL
b. DF
c. Radio Message
d. Form 110

78. It is part placed on the margin, two spaces below the letterhead in line with the date.

a. Letter Head
b. Subject
c. File Reference
d. Channel

79. The main responsibility for seeing to it that the machines are in good operating
condition lies to whom?

a. Maintenance personnel
b. Operator
c. Repair depot
d. Unit Supervisor

80. When giving a new model of a machine to operate, what is the first thing you should do?
 a. Start operate it, you already knew its hazard.
b. Consult a fellow worker about its safety hazard.
c. Read the technical order for operating instruction
d. Ask your supervisor to explain its safety hazard.

81. Who is the Staff Officer duly designated in the signature or authentication of orders in
behalf of the Commander?

a. Adjutant Officer
b. Executive Officer
c. Pers Officer
d. Officer assuming command

82. A supervisor of OJT can best gain in understanding of his responsibilities thru:

a. Formal Schooling
b. On-the-Job-training
c. Close Coordinating with trainers
d. knowing OJT directives and policies

83. What is the system used for the filing/arrangement of correspondence and/or
communication?

a. numerical
b. chronological
c. subjective
d. Alphabetical

84. What do you call to the process of changing the assignment of an individual from the
organization to another?

a. transfer
b. assignment
c. reassignment
d. Endorsement

85. Correspondence should normally bear office symbols, these symbols always appear at
what part of the page?

a. upper right corner

b. upper left corner
c. above the date
d. immediate after the letter head

86. In general, how many years the time in grade of an A2C to be promoted to
A1C?

a. 6 months
b. 2 years
c. 1 year
d. 1 ½ years

87. Morning Report form is called:

a. PAF Form 299

 b. AFP AGO Form 1
c. PAF Form 298
d. PAF AGO Form 623

88. For the purpose of personnel management, this word means ‘to function harmoniously’.

a. Controlling
b. Directing
c. Coordinating
d. Organizing

89. Lack of proper training of the worker, is results to?

a. Poor quantity to work

b. Inability to work without supervision
c. Lack quantity to worker patient
d. All of the above

90. Which of the following would not logically be an objective of a training program to
improve work habits?

a. To increase quality
b. To increase skill
c. To promote better team work
d. To promote better safety

91. The records of events in the Morning Report is entered every:

a. everyday
b. 10 days
c. 0800H everyday
d. Month

92. Routing Slip is primarily aimed at transmitting papers from office to office within a headquarters
or branch to branch within the office, which of the following is the use of the Routing Slip?

a. Speed up transmittal correspondence direct to action within using a DF or a formal

endorsement
b. Inter-Office routing in a headquarters for the purpose indicated to the remarks printed on the
form
c. Give the additional information regarding the basic letter
d. All of the above

93. It is a system of concentric barriers applied or placed between potential intruder and the
matter to be protected.

a. Personnel Security
b. Document Security
c. Physical Security
d. Communication Security

94. How many months should an applicant for reenlistment will file his application for
reenlistment prior to his ETE?

a. Two months
b. Three months
c. Five months
 d. Six months

95. An enlisted personnel detached service (DS) with other unit is enlisted
upon, what unit of expiration for his term of enlistment?

a. his mother unit

b. PAFHC
c. unit where he is DS
d. both a & c are correct

96. Inventory of classification document should be done?

a. Quarterly
b. Annually
c. Semi-annually
d. Monthly

97. What is the purpose of Airman qualifying Examination (AQE)?

a. Evaluate enlistee’s aptitude clusters

b. Determine the individual career preference
c. Eliminate those unsuited to a military career
d. Motivate the enlistee to do his best in his career

98. Which listed option is to one of your aptitude cluster derived from the nine tests
is the Airman Qualifying Examination (AQE)?

a. General Aptitude
b. Modern Language Aptitude
c. Mechanical Aptitude
d. Administrative Aptitude

99. What is the most concise practical chart?

a. Functional Chart
b. Division of department chart
c. Position as title chart
d. Organization chart

100. What is the easiest to read and the most used font in all military letters?

a. calibri
b. arial
c. times new roman
d. Lucida

101. The following are requirements for Longevity Pay EXCEPT:

a. Statement of Service
b. Enlisted Personnel Evaluation Mark
c. Last Order of Long Pay
d. Basic Request from Unit.

102. How many copies of Morning Report you are going to submit to OTAG, GHQ, AFP?

a. 1
b. 3
 c. 2
d. 4

103. What are you going to place to the heading of Morning Report?

a. day
b. year
c. month
d. All of the above

104. Who are not included in the preparation of entry in the Morning Report?

a. organic personnel
b. attached from other organization
c. civilian personnel
d. attached unassigned

105. In what column of morning report should you place an individual who is absent from the unit
or station of assignment performing duty incident to regular duties and being administered
by the organization to which assigned or attached unassigned?

a. detached service
b. temporary duty
c. sick
d. AWOL

106. A change in administrative orders which refers to the invalidation as soon as publish.

a. cancelled
b. Changed
c. revoked
d. Exclusion areas

107. The term of enlistment or reenlistment of enlisted personnel is after how many
years?

a. 3yrs
b. 2 ½ yrs
c. 5 yrs
d. 4 yrs

108. In accomplishing OER, the ________ is the immediate supervisor of the rated
officers.

a. Rates
b. Rater
c. Endorser
d. Commander

109. The initial three (3) years of continuous commissioned military service of officers with
pay and allowances?

a. Inactive duty
b. Active Duty
c. Extended Tour of Active Duty
d. Call to Active Duty
 110. Refers to a satisfactory and continuous active commissioned service of officers covering
the period from 10 yrs service without the benefit of ETAD up to the time of compulsory
retirement.

a. ETAD
b. Security of Tenure
c. CAD
d. All of the above

111. All of the material above the first line of the body of the letter is termed as?

a. content
b. body
c. Heading
d. Margin

112. How many months should an applicant for reenlistment will file his
application for reenlistment prior to his ETE?

a. Two months
b. Three months
c. Five months
d. Six months

113. Orders are constructed to prove sufficient copies when:

a. Published as arise
b. Never Published
c. Seldom Published
d. Always published

114. The person who composes the message is?

a. Drafter
b. First Sergeant
c. Endorser
d. Rater

EP Career Field Related To Administration Apprentice (30 Items)

115. What do you call an AFSC in which a person is most highly qualified to perform duty?

a. Awarded AFSC
b. Duty AFSC
c. Interim AFSC
d. Primary AFSC

116. What do you call that system computer program (or set of program) used to track or store
records?

a. Record management
b. Record management system
c. standard operating procedure
d. classification system
 117. What is PAF Form 299?

a. retraining
b. OJT
c. UGT
d. None of the above

118. This is a comprehensive multiple choices written tests designated to measure

technical knowledge in semiskilled, skilled or advanced AFSs.

a. Airman’s Qualifying Exam

b. Technical Written Test
c. Promotional Test
d. Specialty Knowledge Test

119. It is a group of specialty officer and non-commissioned officers convened by the appointing
authority for the purpose of recommending personnel classification actions.

a. Air Force Specialty

b. Air Force Personnel Classification Board
c. Air Force Specialty Board
d. Primary Air Force Specialty Board

120. It is the identification by mean of a title and alphabetical designator, of an ability or skill not
restricted to a single utilization field or career field.

a. Awarded Air Force Specialty Code

b. Air Force Specialty Prefix
c. Additional Air Force Specialty Prefix
d. Air Force Specialty Shredout

121. It is an identification of part of an AFSC by means of a little and alphabetical suffix to the
appropriate AFSC to designate specific equipment or function embraced in an AFSC.

a. Air Force Specialty Prefix

b. Air Force Specialty Shredout
c. Air Force Specialty Code
d. Additional Air Force Specialty Code

122. It is the authorized manning document AFSC, which identifies the position to which an
individual has been officially assigned.

a. Air Force Specialty Prefix

b. Air Force Specialty Code
c. Duty Air Force Specialty Code
d. Primary Air Force Specialty Code

123. It is four to five digits and a title used to identify authorization and persons, which are not
identifiable elsewhere in the classification.

a. Specialty Description
b. Reporting Code
c. Position
d. Air Force Specialty Code

124. A person who has been awarded the semiskilled level of an AFSC based on prior civilian for
military occupation, experienced or schooling.
 a. Career Ladder Specialist
b. Bypassed Specialist
c. Specialty Specialist
d. Skill Specialist

125. It is vertical arrangement of AFS on a Career Field Chart within, or comprising a career field
subdivision to indicate skill distinction and progression.

a. Career Field Subdivision

b. Career Field ladder
c. Skill Level
d. Career Field

126. OJT Training are neither required nor expected to be professionally qualified educators,
nevertheless, it is expected that they are able to employ certain methods and techniques
which are known to be effective in training situation. These amendments are:

a. Completely True
b. Completely false
c. Partiallty True
d. Partially false

127. Job breakdown in OJT is used to break down:

a. Jobs into steps

b. Tasks list
c. Tasks into Jobs
d. Operation List

128. While the trainee is in the learning process, the trainer must always emphasize which of the
following?

a. Speed and accuracy

b. Speed and safety
c. Skill and speed
d. Safety and accuracy

129. A grouping of position that requires common qualification and is identified by a title and
code.

a. Air Force Specialty

b. Primary Air Force Specialty Code
c. Air Force Specialty Prefix
d. Additional Air Force Specialty Code

130. It is an awarded AFSC in which a person is most highly qualified to perform duty.

a. Air Force Specialty Prefix

b. Air Force Specialty Shredout
c. Air Force Specialty Code
d. Primary Air Force Specialty Code

131. It is an awarded AFSC other than the primary AFSC.

a. Air Force Specialty Shred out

b. Additional Air Force Specialty Code
 c. Air Force Specialty Code
d. Primary Air Force Specialty Code

132. An AFSC established to identify individuals performing duty on new equipment or

engaged in specialized activities when it has been determined that immediate identification is
necessary and the function performed cannot be identified.

a. Interim Air Force Specialty

b. Duty Air Force Specialty Code
c. Primary Air Force Specialty Code
d. Air Force Specialty Code

133. It is a description of an AFS which includes the titles, code summary, duties, qualification,
other specialty data and shred out, if appropriate.

a. Position
b. Specialty Description
c. Reporting Code
d. Air Force Specialty Code

134. What type of code is established to effect airman/airwoman assignments and to assist in
the identification and control of training requirements?

a. Career Field Ladder

b. Career Field
c. Skill Level
d. Control Air Force Specialty Code

135. It is a division of a Career Field in which closely related AFS's are arranged in one or more
ladder to indicate functional relationship, emerging at the advance or superintendent
skill level.

a. Career Field Subdivision

b. Career Field Ladder
c. Skill Level
d. Career Field

136. It is a grouping of related AFS’s involving basically similar knowledge and skills.

a. Career Ladder
b. Career Field
c. Skill Level
d. Career Field Subdivision

137. It is a comprehensive multiple choice written tests designed to measure technical

knowledge in semi- skilled, skilled or advanced AFSCs.

a. Aptitude Test
b. Airmen Qualifying Examination
c. Specialty Training Standard
d. Specialty Knowledge Test

138. While the trainee is in the learning process, the trainer must always emphasize which of the
following?

a. Speed and accuracy

 b. Speed and safety
c. Skill and speed
d. Safety and accuracy

139. The first objective of OJT is to qualify trainee to:

a. His present UMD position

b. All phases listed supervisor by the trainer
c. Passing the SKT
d. The entire AFS as outline in the STS

140. Learning through performance in On-The-Job Training is by the help of?

a. Little help free the instructor

b. An effective supervisor by the trainer
c. Supervision by students of above average
d. Demonstration prior to performance

141. This form established policies and procedures governing classification related to Officer
and Enlisted Personnel.

a. PAFM 13-12
b. PAFM 13-1
c. PAFM 30-1
d. PAFM 36-1

142. An AM or AW will be required to face a Personnel Classification Board if he or she does not
complete his OJT within the time allocated, in order for him/her to recommend for what
evaluation period?

a. 1st evaluation period

b. 3rd evaluation period
c. 2nd evaluation period
d. 4th evaluation period

143. What appropriate form will be used if you are going to retrain from your PAFSC to another
AFSC?

a. PAF Form 1098

b. PAF AGO Form 1
c. AFP Form 623
d. AFP AGO Form 1

144. It is the basic understanding of what computer is and how it can be used as a resource.

a. Computer Professional
b. Computer Literacy
c. None of the above
d. Computer Knowledge

Computer Literacy Related To Administration Apprentice (6 Items)

145. Which of the following Microsoft office application tool will be mostly utilized in preparation
of military letters?

a. publication
b. Excel
 c. word
d. PowerPoint

146. Which of the following statement is correct about Recycle Bin?

a. Once a file has been sent to the Recycle Bin, it cannot be restored.
b. Files in the Recycle Bin can be restored from the file Restore menu but they are sent to
the Windows Temp Directory.
c. Files in the Recycle Bin can be restored from the file Restore Menu and they are
sent back to their original directory (where they were located before deletion)
d. There is no way to specify the size of the Recycle Bin.

147. What do you think is the quickest way to select all the columns on a worksheet?

a. Click the column heading of the first column, press Shift then click on the column
heading of the last column.
b. Click on the column heading of the first column, press Ctrl then click on the
column heading of the last column.
c. Choose Edit → Select all from the main Menu.
d. Click on the gray rectangle on the upper left corner of the worksheet where the
column headings and row headings meet.

148. What procedure do we use in inserting tables in document?

a. Click table from the upper tool bar then click create.
b. Click table from the upper tool bar then click insert.
c. Click table from the upper tool bar then click draw.
d. Click table from the upper tool bar then click merge.

149. In saving a new document, what steps do we follow?

a. Click office button from the tool bar and click save.
b. Click office button from the tool bar and click new document.
c. Click office button from the tool bar and click save as.
d. Click office button from the tool bar and click open.

150. Which procedure do you execute in order to copy a word or a phrase?

a. Highlight the selection then right click it then choose cut.

b. Highlight the selection then right click it then choose paste.
c. Highlight the selection then right click it then choose copy.

d. a and c