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KAMARAJAR HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, NKL -19.

CHEMISTRY NEET EXAMINATION


Date: 27.11.17 Test - 3 Marks: 180
1. Set of iso electronic ions among the following is
a) Na+, Cl-, O-2 b) K+, Ca+2, F- c) Cl-, K+, S-2 d) H+, Be+2, Na+
2. The band spectrum is caused by
a) Molecules b) Atoms
c) Any substance in solid state d) Any substance in liquid state
3. Which is not an atomic orbital?
a) 2d b) 5p c) 3p d) 4d
4. The number of angular and radial nodes of 4d orbital respectively are
a) 3,1 b) 1,2 c) 3,0 d) 2,1
5. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p orbitals respectively are
a) 0.2 b) 2,0 c) 1,2 d) 2,1
6. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an
atom?
a) n=3, l = 1, m =1, s=+ ½ b) n = 3, l=2, m=1, s = + ½
c) n = 4, l=0, m = 0, s = + ½ d) n =3, l = 0, m = 0, s = + ½
7. The max, number of electron that can be accommodated in all the orbitals for which
l=3 is
a) 2 b) 6 c) 10 d) 14
8. The orbital diagram in which the aufbau principle is violated is
2s 2p 2s 2p
a) b)

2s 2p 2s 2p
c) d)

9. Which one of the following pairs of ions have the same electronic configuration?
a) Cr+3, Fe+3 b) Fe+3, Mn+2 c) Fe+3, CO+3 d) Sc+3, Cr+3
10. An impossible set of four quantum number of an electron is
a) n=4, l =2, m = -2, s = + ½ b) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = + ½
c) n = 3, l = 2, m = -3, s = + ½ d) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = - ½
11. Match the Column-1 with Column -II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column-I Column-II
5.29 x n2
(A) Uncertainly of an object (i)
Z

h
(B) Bohr’s radius of an orbit (ii)
4πm

h
(C) Angular momentum (iii) of an electron
mv
h
(D) de Broglie wavelength (iv) n.

A B C D
1) iii iv i i
2) ii i iv iii
3) iv iii i ii
4) i ii iv iii
12. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass 1 g and velocity 100ms-1 is :
a) 6.63x 10-33 m b) 6.63x10-34 m c) 6.63 x 10-35 m d) 6.65 x10-35 m
14. The measurement of electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum
Which is equal to 1x10-18 g cms-1 . The uncertainty of electron velocity is :
(Mass of electron is 9x10-28 g)
a) 1x108 cms-1 b) 1x1011 cms-1 c) 1x109 cms-1 d) 1x106 cms-1
15. Which of the following ions has electronic configuration. [Ar]3d6?
a) Ni3+ b) Mn3+ c) Fe3+ d) Co3+
16. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom
(Z=37) 1 1 1 1
a) 5, 1, 1, + 2 b) 6, 0, 0 , + c) 5, 0, 0, + d) 5,1,0, +
2 2 2

17. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is:


a) 14 b) 16 c) 10 d) 12
18. Which is maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following set
of quantum numbers n = 3, l = 1 and m =-1?
a) 4 b) 2 c) 10 d) 12
19. The value of planck’s constant is 6.63x10 Js. The speed of light is 3x1017 nms-1.
-34

Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with


frequency 6x1015 s-1?
a) 50 b) 75 c) 10 d) 25
20. Two electrons occupying the same orbitals are distinguished by
a) Principal quantumnumber b) Magnetic quantumnumber
c) Azimuthal quantumnumber d) Spin quantumnumber
21. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes?
a) d z2 , dxz b) dxz, dyz c) d z2 , d x2 -y2 d) dxy, d x2 -y2

22. Which of the following conclusions could not be derived from Rutherford’s α-particle
scattering experiement?
a) Most of the space in the atom is empty
b) The radius of the atom is about 10-10 m while that of nucleus is 10-15 m.
c) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called orbits.
d) Electrons and the nucleus are held together by electrostatic forces of attraction.

23. n7 - n1 series is
a) Lyman b) Balmer c) Paschen d) Brackett
24. Which of the following statements about the electron is incorrect?
a) It is a negatively charged particle
b) The mass of electron is equal to the mass of neutron.
c) It is a basic constituent of all atoms.
d) It is a constituent of cathode rays.
25. Which of the following properties of atom could be explained correctly by Thomson
Model of atom?
a) Overall neutrality of atom b) Spectra of hydrogen atom
c) Position of electrons, protons and neutrons in atom. d) Stability of atom
26. Two atoms are said to be isobars if.
a) they have same atomic number but different mass number
b) they have same number of electrons but different number of neutrons
c) they have same number of neutrons but different number of electrons.
d) sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the number of protons is
different.
27. The number of radial nodes for 3p orbital is
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1
28. Number of angular nodes for 4d orbital is
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
29. Which of the following is responsible to rule out the existence of definite paths or
trajectories of electrons?
a) Pauli’s exclusion principle b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
c) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity d) Aufbau principle
30. The electronic configuration Cu
a) [Ar] 4s1 3d5 b) [Ar] 4s1 3d10 c) [Ar] 4s2 3d8 d) All the above
31. Orbital angular momentum depends on
a) l b) n and l c) n and m d) m and s
32. Isodiaphers are
a) 9F19, 11N23 b) 15P31, 16S32 c) 17Cl35, 17Cl37 d) 18Ar40, 19K40
33. The pair of ions having same electronic configuration is ___________
a) Cr3+, Fe3+ b) Fe2+, Mn2+ c) Fe3+, Co3+ d) Sc3+ , Cr3+
34. Match species given in Column I with the electronic configuration given in Column II.
Column I Column II
(i) Cr (a) [Ar] 3d8 4s0
(ii) Fe2+ (b) [Ar]3d10 4s1
(iii) Ni2+ (c) [Ar]3d6 4s0
(iv) Cu (d) [Ar]3d5 4s1
(e) [Ar]3d6 4s2

i ii iii iv
1) a b c d
2) d c a b
3) c a d b
4) b c a d

35. Match the quantum numbers with the information provided by these.
Quantum number Information provided
(i) Principal quantum number (a) orientation of the orbital
(ii) Azimuthal quantum number (b) energy and size of orbital
(iii) Magnetic quantum number (c) spin of electron
(iv) Spin quantum (d) shape of the orbital
i ii iii iv
1) b a d c
2) b d a c
3) a c d b
4) a b c d
36. No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of all four quantum numbers.
a) Pauli’s Principle b) Hund’s Rule c) Aufbau Principle d) All
88
37. Find out the number of neutrons Sr
38

a) 40 b) 50 c) 20 d) 30
38. Which of the following statement is not correct about the characteristics of cathode
rays
a) They start from the cathode and move towards the anode
b) They travel in straight line in the absence of an external electrical or magnetic
field.
c) Characteristics of the cathode rays do not depend upon the material of electrodes in
cathode ray tube
d) Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of gas present in the
cathode ray tube
14
39. Calculate the no.of protons , neutron and electrons in N3- ion
7

a) 7,7,7 b) 7,8,10 c) 7,7,10 d) 7,8,12


40. The molecules with same atomicity and same number of electrons are called
a) isosters b) isotones c) isobars d) isotopes
41. The shape of a d-orbital is
a) double b) double dumb bell c) spherical d) none
42. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be
a) 2 b) 4 c) 9 c) 3
43. The number of nodal planes in a Px is
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Zero
44. The four quantum numbers of the valence electron of potassium are
a) 4,1,0 and ½ b) 4,0,1 and ½ c) 4,0,0 and + ½ d) 4,1,1 and ½
45. The maximum number of unpaired electrons with parallel spins
a) Pauli’s Principle b) Hund’s Rule c) Aufbau Principle d) All
KAMARAJAR HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, NKL -19.
PHYSICS NEET EXAMINATION
Date: .11.17 Marks:
1. The errors which are estimated by statistical methods are
a) systematic errors b) random errors c) theoritical errors d) gross errors
2. A physicist performs an experiment and takes 200 readings. He repeats the same
experiment and now takes 800 readings. By doing so
a) the probable error remains same b) the probable error is four times
c) the probable error is halved d) the probable error is reduced by a factor ¼
3. If Y = a+b, the maximum percentage error in the measurement of Y will be
Δa Δb Δa Δb
a) + x100 b) a+b + a+b x100
a b

Δa Δb Δa Δb
c) - x100 d) a+b - a+b x100
a b

4. If Y=a x b, the maximum percentage error in the measurement of Y will be


Δa Δb Δa Δb
a) x100 / b x100 b) a + b x100
a

Δa Δb Δa Δb
c) x100 x b x100 d) a - b x100
a
5. Out of the following the dimensionless error is
a) Systematic error b) Gross error c) Random error d) Relative error
6. The number of significant figures in 0.007 is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1
7. If E = energy, G = gravitational constant, I = impulse and M = mass, the dimensions of
GM2/E2 are same as that of
a) time b) mass c) length d) force
8. The physical quantity having the same dimensional formula as that of force is
a) Torque b) work c) pressure d) thrust
9. If P is the X-rays unit and Q is micron then P/Q is
a) 10-5 b) 105 c) 107 d) 10-7
10. The frequency (n) of vibration of a string is given as n = ½ √t/m , where T is tension,
and l is the length of the vibrating string, then the dimensional formula for m is
a) ML0T0 b) M1L-1T0 c) M0L0T0 d) M0L1T1
11. Which of the following is dimensionless?
ν2 ν2 νg
a) b) c) d) υ2rg
rg r r
12. 1 a.m.u is equal to
a) 1.66x10-24g b) 1.66 x 10-27 g c) 1.66 x 1024 g d) 1.66 x 1027 g
13. Modulus of Elasticity is dimensionally equivalent to
a) Stress b) Surface tension c) Strain d) Coefficient of viscosity
14. Dimensions of solar constant are
a) [M0L0T] b) [M1L1T-2] c) [M'L-1T-2] d) [M1T-3]
15. The unitless quantity is
a) Velocity gradient b) Pressure gradient
c) Displacement gradient d) Force gradient
16. Atto is ________________
a) An instrument used to measure gradient
b) An instrument used to measure the altitude
c) 1018
d) 10-18
17. N ms-1 is the unit of
a) Pressure b) Power c) Potential d) Pressure gradient
18. Position of a body with acceleration α is given by x = Ka t . Here t is time. Find the
m n

dimension of m and an
a) m=1, n=1 b) m=1, n=2 c) m=2, n=1 d) m = 2, n =2
19. The heat produced in a long wire is characterized by resistance, current and time for
which the current passes. If the errors in measuring these quantities are respectively
1% 2% and 1% then total error in calculating the energy produced is
a) 4% b) 6% c) (4/3)% d) 8%
20. Which one of the following represents the correct dimensions of the coefficient of
viscosity?
a) [ML-1T2] b) [MLT-1] c) [ML1T-1] d) [ML-2T-2]
21. Stefan’s constant has the unit as
a) J s-1 m-2 K4 b) Kg s-3 K4 c) W m-2 K-4 d) Nms-2 K-4
22. The ratio between pico and giga is
a) 1021 b) 10-21 c) 1014 d) 108
23. 1 micron = _______nanometer
a) 10-6 b) 10-10 c) 103 d) 10-3
24. Which of the following has smallest value?
a) peta b) femto c) kilo d) hector
25. If m is the mass of drop of a liquid of radius ‘r’ then mg has the same dimensions of :
πr

a) Surface tension b) Tension c) Young’s Modulus d) Coefficient of viscosity


26. The intensity of a wave is defined as the energy transmitted per unit area per second.
Which of the following represents the dimensional formula for the intensity of the
wave?
a) [ML0T-2] b) [ML0T-3] c) [ML0T-1] d) [ ML4T]
a
27. P + (V-b) = RT is Van der Waal’s equation where symbols have their usual
2
V
meaning and a, b are constants. The dimensions formula for constant α is
a) [ML-1T2] b) [ML-3T-1] c) [ML4T-2] d) [ML5T-2]
28. One shake is equal to
a) 108 s b) 10-9 s c) 10-10 s d) 109 s
29. A pair of physical quantities having the same dimensional formula are
a) Force and Work b) Work and energy c) Force and Torque d) Work and Power
30. Dimensions of C x R (Capacity x Resistance) is
a) frequency b) energy c) time period d) current
31. The dimensional formula for Magnetic induction is
a) [MT-1 A-1] b) [MT-2A-1] c) [MLA-1] d) [MT-2 a]
μ0
32. What are the units of

a) NA-1m2 b) NA-2 c) Nm2C2 d) unitless
Permeability
33. will have the dimensional formula of :
Permittivity

a) [M0L0T0A0] b) [M2L2T4A2] c) [M2L4T-6A-4] d) [ M-2L-4T6A4]


34. Siemen is the S.I unit of
a) Electrical conductance b) Electrical conductivity
c) Potential difference d) Inductance
35. If length and breadth of a plate are (40 ± 0.2) cm and (30± 0.1)cm, the absolute error
in measurement of area is
a) 10cm2 b) 8cm2 c) 9cm2 d) 7cm2
36. If L1 = (2.02±0.01) m and L2 = (1.02±0.01)m then L1 + 2L2 is (in m)(4.0±0.04)s. The
velocity of the body is
a) (5.0±0.4)ms-1 b) (5.0±0.2) ms-1 c) (5.0±0.6)ms-1 d) (5.0±0.1)ms-1
37. The dimensions of L/RCV are L = self inductance, V = voltage, R = resistance, C =
capacitance
a) charge b) charge -1 c) current d) current-1
38. The number of significant figures in 6.023x1023 mole-1 is
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 23
39. With due regard to significant figures, the value of (46,7 - 10.04) is
a) 36.7 b) 36.00 c) 36.66 d) 30.6
40. The dimensional formula for the product of two physical quantities P and Q[ML2T-2].
The dimensional formula of P is [MT-2]. Then P and Q respectively are (2001 M)
Q

a) Force and velocity b) Momentum and displacement


c) Force and displacement d) Work and velocity energy
41. The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula as that of is
mass x length
a) Force b) Power c) Pressure d) Acceleration
42. A small steel ball of radius r is allowed to fall under gravity through a column of a
viscous liquid of coefficient of viscosity η. After sometime the velocity of ball attains
a constant value known as terminal velocity, νT. The terminal velocity depends on (i)
the mass of the ball m (ii) n (iii) r (iv) acceleration due to gravity g. Which of the
following relations is dimensionally correct?
mg ηr mgr
a) νT α b) νT α c) νT α ηrmg d)νT α
ηr mg η

43. The magnitude of force is 100 N. What will be its value if the units of mass and time
are doubled and that of length is halved?
a) 25 b) 100 c) 200 d) 400
44. If the units of length and force are increased by four times the unit of energy will be
increased by
a) 16% b) 1600% c) 1500% d) 400%
45. The equation which is dimensionally correct among the following is
a) v = u +at2 b) s = ut + at2 c) s = ut + at2 d) t = s + av
KAMARAJAR HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, NKL -19.
ZOOLOGY NEET EXAMINATION
Animal Kingdom
Date: 27.11.17 Marks: 180
1. The canal system is found in following animal phyla
a) Mollusca b) Protozoa c) Coelenterata d) Porifera
2. the following animal phyla exihibit tissue grade organisation
NCERT
a) Coelenterata b) aschelminthes c) platyhelminthes d) porifera
3. Planaria is a turbellarian and it possesses high capacity of --------------- NCERT
a) metamorphosis b) regeneration
c) alternation of generation d) bioluminescence
4. Which one of the following groups of animals exlusive habitat and reproduction?
NCERT
a) Cnidaria b) Porifera c) Protozoa d) Ctenophora
5. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not
correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct? NCERT
a) Pila (i) Body segmented (ii) Mouth with radula Mollusca
b) Asterias (i) Spiny skinned (ii) Water vascular system Echinodermata
c) Sycon (i) Pore bearing (ii) Canal system Porifera
d) Periplaneta (i) Jointed appendages (ii) Chitinous exoskeleton Arthropoda
6. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry
in the adult stage, belong to the phylum. NCERT
a) annelida b) mollusca c) cnidaria d) echinodermata
7. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regard to bilateral symmetry?
a) Body can be divided into two equal halves by a single plane only. NCERT
b) The organisms that show bilateral symmetry have paired body organs that occur
on the two sides of a central axis.
c) It is found in all invertebrates and few vertebrates
d) Spider and crab show bilateral symmetry.
8. Diploblastic and triploblastic are terms that describe NCERT
a) the number of invaginations during embryonic development
b) the number of heads during embryonic development
c) the number of germinal layers during embryonic development
d) the number of cell types during development.
9. The figures below show the types of coelom. Identify them and select the correct group
of organisms which possess them. NCERT

A B C
a. Annelids Ascheminthes Platyhelminthes
b. Molluscs Arthropods Platyhelminthes
c. Echinoderms Aschelminthes Annelids
d. Echinoderms Arthropods Platyhelminthes
10. Study carefully the given flowchart and fill in the blanks (a), (b), (c), (d) and (E).
NCERT

A B C D E
a Cellular level Bilateral Radial Pseudo-coelomates Coelomates
symmetry symmetry
b Cellular level Radial symmetry Bilateral Coelomates Pseudo-
symmetry coelomates
c Cellular level Bilateral Radial Coelomates Pseudo-
symmetry symmetry coelomates
d Cellular level Radial symmetry Bilateral Pseudo-coelomates Coelomates
symmentry

11. Select the correct matching of animals. their symmetry organisation and coelom type
NCERT
Animals Symmetry Organisation Coelom type
a. Ctenophores Radial Diploblastic Pseudocoelomates
b. Echinoderms Bilateral Triploblastic Coelomates
c. Platyhelminthes Bilateral Triploblastic Acoelomates
d. Annelids Biradial Diploblastic Coelomates

12. Match the animal names listed under Column-I with the zoological names given under
Column-II select the correct option from the codes given below. NCERT
Column-I Column-II
Common name Zoological name
A. Starfish (i) Sepia
B. Jellyfish (ii) Astropecten
C. devilfish (iii) Aurelia
D. Cuttlefish (iv) Octopus
(v) Hippocampus
a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(v)
b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) d) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
13. Which of the following option / options is / are not a correct match of animal and its
habitat? NCERT
a) Hydra vulgaris - sea water
b) Adamsia - freshwater
c) Obelia - sea water
d) Physalia - sea water
a) a,b b) b,c c) c,a d) a,d
14. Which of the following have porous body and are diploblastic? NCERT
a) Aurelia and Obelia b) Adamsia and Euplectella
c) Leucosolenia and Spongilla d) Sycon and Hydra
15. Which of the following is a characteristic features of Coelenterates? NCERT
a) Tissue level of organization b) Presence of stinging cells
c) Gastravascular cavity d) All the above
16. The figures (A-D) show animals. Select the correct option with respect to a common
characteristic of two of these animals. NCERT

a) A and D respire mainly through body wall b) B and C show radial symmetry
c) A and B have cnidoblasts for self-defence d) C and D have a true coelom
17. Which of the following statements are incorrect? NCERT
i) Parapodia are lateral appendages in arthropods used for swimming.
ii) Radula in moluscs are structures involved in excretion.
iii) Aschelminthes are dioecious.
iv) Echinoderm adults show radial symmetry.
v) Ctenophorans are diploblastic
a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iii) c) (i), (iv) and (v) d) (iii) and (v)
18. the following animals shows cellular level organization
a) Porifera b) coelenterate c) platyhelminthes d) mollusca
19. Match the following and select the correct option from the codes given below.NCERT
Column-I Column-II
A. Physalia (i) Sea anemone
B. Meandrina (ii) Brain coral
C. Gorgonia (iii) Sea fan
D. Adamsia (iv) Portuguese man-of-war
a) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv) b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
c) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
20. Identify the figures A, B and C and select the correct option. NCERT

A B C
a. Sycon Euspongia Spongilla
b. Euspongia Spongilla Sycon
c. Spongilla Sycon Euspongia
d. Euspongia Sycon Spongilla

21. The type of symmetry in the given animals is NCERT


A B
a. Bilateral Asymmetrical
b. Bilateral Bilateral
c. Radial Bilateral
d. Radial Radial
22. Stinging capsules (nematocysts) are found in NCERT
a) wasp and honeybee b) scorpion and cobra
c) sea pen and sea fan d) cactus and Venus fly trap
23. The characters given below are shown by NCERT
(i) Extracellular and intracellular digestion
(ii) Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic, tissue level of organization
(iii) Bisexual, fertilization external and indirect development
(iv) No asexual reproduction. Presence of comb plates
a) Cnidaria b) Porifera c) Ctenophora d) Rotifers
24. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given
below. NCERT
Column-I Column-II
a. Hirudin (i) Hydra
b. Canal system (ii) Echinodermata
c. Nematocysts (iii) Leech
d. Feather star (iv) Sponges
e. Insects (v) Termites
a. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(v) b. A-(v), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(ii)
c. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii), E-(v) d. A-(ii), B-(i), c-(iv), D-(v), E-(iii)
25. Identify the figures A,B,C and D and select the correct option. NCERT

a) A-Liver fluke ; B-Male roundworm ; C-Hirudinaria; D-Nereis


b) A-Liver fluke ; B-Female roundworm ; C-Hirudinaria; D-Nereis
c) A-Liver fluke ; B-Male roundworm ; C-Nereis; D-Hirudinaria
d) A-Liver fluke ; B-Female roundworm ; C-Nereis; D-Hirudinaria

26. Given below are the statements regarding Aschelminthes. NCERT


(i) They are bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic
(ii) They are dioecious
(iii) All are plants or animals parasites.
(iv) Complete gut with muscular pharynx
Select the option that has both the correct statements,
a) (i), (ii) & (iii) b) (i) , (iii) ,(iv) c) (ii) , (iii), (iv) d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
27. Which of the following is commonly called “Pearl oyster”? NCERT
a) Limulus b) Dentalium c) Pinctada d) Aurelia
28. Which of the following are correct? NCERT
(i) Sponges: Cellular level of organization with loose cell aggregation
(ii) Cnidaria : Tissue level of organization
(iii) Platyhelminthes: Organ level of organization
(iv) Annelids, Arthropods, Molluscs, Echinoderms and Chordates: Organ system
level of organization.
a) All are correct b) (ii) and (iv) only c) (ii) and (iii) only d) (i) and (ii) only
29. Match the columns and select the correct option. NCERT
Column-I Column-II
Animals Locomotory organ
A. Neries (i) Parapadea
B. Hydra (ii) Comb plates
C. Ctenoplana (iii) Tentacles
D. Astereas (iv) Tubefeet
a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) b) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
c) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv) d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
30. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best described as NCERT
a) unicellular or acellular
b) multicellular without any tissue organization
c) multicellular with a gastrovascular system
d) multicellular having tissue organization, but no body cavity
31. In which of the following animal nerve cell is present but brains is absent? NCERT
a) sponge b) Earthworm c) Cockroach d) hydra
32. spiny skinned dermis found in following phylum
a) echinodermata b) ctenophora c) mollusca d) porifera
33. An animal consists terminal mouth & ventral genital pore and flat body with bilateral
symmetry it belong to -------------------
a) Annelida b) Aschelminthes c) platyhelminthes d) Arthropoda
34. The common feature between coclenterata & ctenophore
a) Organisatian b) cnidoajtes c) Bodywall d) Reproduction
35. In psuedocoelomates the body cavity derived from ----------------
a) mesoderm b) blastocoels c) Ectoderm d) Endoderm

36. The Characteristic feature of ctenophore is


a) Presence of eight combplates for locomotion (swimming)
b) Absence of nematocysts ( cnidoldasts)
c) presence of lasso cells on the tentaches for capturing food.
d) All of the above
37. The closed type circulation found in all except.
a) Annelida b) cephalopoda c) Vertebrata d) Tunicata
38. Fragmentation process in poriferans (sponges) belongs to -----------
a) Sexual reproduction b) asexual reproduction c) Digestion d) Budding
39. Coral polyps belongs to the phylum.
a) porifera b) mollusca c) Echinodermata d) Coelenterata
40. The following are all hermaphrodites except --------------------
a) Earthworm b) Leech c) Taenia d) Asscaris
41. The psuedometamerism in tapeworm is caused by ------------------
a) Segmentation b) proglatids c) Body wall d) psuedocoelom
42. Solenocytes are the main execratory strictures in
a) Echinodrmates b) Platyhelminthes c) Annelids d) Mollucs
43. The higher complex level of organisation is present in -----------
a) porifera b) platyhelminthes c) coelenterate d) Annelida
44. The following animals consists radial symmetry.
a) sponges, hydra, crabs b) coelenterates, ctenophores, echinoderms
c) Annelids, Arthropids d) Chordater, Platyhelminthes, Nematodes
45. The following is basic feature is common for all animals without Exception.
a) Presence of nervous system b) nutrition c) Locomotion d) multicellulanity
10. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of coelenterates ?
a) Tissue level of organization b) Presence of stingihg cells
c) Extracellular & Intracellular Digestion d) Both A & B
11. Identify the figures A, B and C and select the correct option.

12. The type of symmetry in the given animals is


A B
a. Bilateral Asymmetrical
b. Bilateral Bilateral
c. Radial Bilateral
d. Radial Radial
13. Stinging capsules (nematocysts) are found in
a) wasp and honeybee b) scorpion and cobra
c) sea pen and sea fan d) cactus and Venus fly trap
14. The characters given below are shown by
i) Extracellular and intracellular digestion
ii)Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic, tissue level of organization
iii) Bisexual, fertilization external and indirect development
iv) No asexual reproduction. Presence of comb plates.
a) Cnidaria b) Porifera c) Ctenophora d) Rotifers
15. Given below are three statements regarding Aschel minthes.
i) They are bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic
ii) They are dioecious.
iii) All are plants or animals parasites
Select the option that ahs both the correct statements,
a) (i) and (ii) b. (i) and (iii) c. (ii) and (iii) d) None of these
16. Which of the following
KAMARAJAR HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, NKL -19.
CHEMISTRY NEET EXAMINATION
Date: 14.11.17 Marks: 180
1. In which of the following molecules/ions the central atom does not involve a d-
orbital in the hybridization process?
a) NH4+ b) SF6 c) SF4 d) PCl5
2. The pair of elements which forms compounds with maximum ionic character are
a) K, Cl b) Na, I c) Cs, F d) Mg, Br
3. Total no of Antiboding electrons present in O2 will be
a) 6 b)8 c)4 d) 2
4. A does not existing molecule among the following is
a) Be2 b) C2 c) B2 d) Li2
5. The order of dipole moment for o-dichlorobenzene (II) is
a) m > o> p b) o>m>p c) p > m> o d) m> p > o
6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
List I List II
(A) XeF4 (1) sp2
(B) NH4 (2) sp3 d2
(c) I3 (3) sp3
(d) BF3 (4) sp3d

a) 2 3 4 1 b) 1 2 3 4 c) 2 1 4 3 d) 2 1 3 4
3
7. The triatomic molecule which undergoes sp d hybridization among the following is
a) SO2 b) XeF2 c) CO2 d) H2O
8. The species having same magnetic moment as B2 is
a) C2 b) LI2 c) He2 d) O2
9. Which of the following is not a property of covalent compounds
a) They have low melting points b) They are not electrical conductors
c) They exhibit space isomerism d) They undergo chemical reactions quickly
10. Which of the following has no multiple bonds
a) HCN b) C2H4 c) C2H6 d) C2H2
11. Ionic compounds do not exhibit space isomerism because
a) They are solids b) The ionic bond is non-directional
c) They are electrolytes d) they contain ions
12. Which of the following unit conversion of dipole moment is correct?
a) ID = 3.3356 C.m b) ID = 3.3356x10-30 C.m
c) 1C m = 3.3356 D d) 1C m = 3.3356x 10-30D
13. The unit of dipole moment is
a) Einstein b) Dalton c) Debye d) Curie
14. Shape of PCl5 molecule is
a) Octahedron b) Square pyramid c) Trigonal bipyramid d) Pyramidal
15. Which is not a linear molecule
a) CO2 b) C2H2 c) HCN d) H2O
16. The s-character in the hybrid orbital of the central atom, present in a molecule
having the shape of an octahedron is
a) 25% b) 75% c) 40% d) 16.66%
17. Hybridisation involves
a) Addition of an electron pair b) Combination and redistribution of atomic orbitals
c) Removal of an electron pair d) Separation of orbitals
18. Co-ordinate covalent bond is formed by
a) Transfer of electrons b) Sharing of electrons
c) donatin of electrons d) None of these process
19. The types of bonds present in CuSO4. 5H2O are
a) Electrovalent and covalent
b) Electrovalent and co-ordinate covalent
c) Electrovalent, covalent, co-ordinate covalent and hydrogen bond
d) Covalent and co-ordinate covalent
20. An atom A has 2K, 8 L and 3M electrons. Another atom B has 2K and 6L electrons.
The formula of the compound formed between A and B is
a) AB b) A2B3 c) A3B2 d) AB2
21. Which of the following is a favourable factor for cation formation?
a) Low ionization potential b) High electron affinity
c) High electronegativity d) Small atomic size
22. Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds?
a) NH4Cl b) HCN c) H2O2 d) CH4
23. Hybridisation of iodine in iodine hepta fluoride molecule is
a) sp3 b) sp3d3 c) sp3d2 d) dsp2
24. Which of the following cannot be formed?
a) He2+ b) He+ c) He d) He2
25. Which of the following pairs have identical bond order?
a) N2, O2+ b) N2, O-1 c) N2, O2 d) O2+ , N2
26. Match List I (Molecules) with List II (Bond order) and select the correct answer using
the codes.
List - I List - II
I. Li2 A.3
II. N2 B. 1.5
III. Be2 C. 1.0
IV. O2 D. 0
E.2
1) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-E 2) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-E
3) I-D, II-A, III-E, IV-C 4) I-C, II-B, III-E, IV-A
27. Among the following, electron deficient compound is
a) CCl4 b) PCl5 c) SiF4 d) BCl3
28. Which of the following ion has not bond order of 2.5?
a) O2 b) O2 c) N2 d) N2
29. Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?
a) B2 b) Li2 c) Be2 d) Be2
30. The pair of species with the same bond order is
a) O2, NO+ b) NO+, CO c) N2, O2 d) All
31. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by
a) O2 b) O2 c) O3 d) O2
32. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
a) O2 b) CN- c) NO+ d) CO
33. Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?
a) SO3 NO3 b) ClO3, SO2-3
c) CO2- , SO3 d) ClO3 , CO3
34. How many σ, π bonds C2H2
a) 0,1 b)1,2 c) 3, 2 d) 2,5
35. How many σ, π bonds C2H4
a) 0,1 b)1,2 c) 3,4 d) 5,1
36. How many π bonds CO2
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
37. The bond order is 3
a) N2 b) H2 c) N+ d) N-
38. The bond order is shame
a) N2 CO b) N2 H2 c) N2 C3 d) N2 C4
39. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
a) NO2 b) N2O c) N2O3 d) N2O5
40. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2, NO3 and NH4 respectively
are
a) sp2, sp and sp3 b) sp, sp3 and sp2 c) sp2, sp3 and sp d) sp, sp2 and sp3
41. Predict the correct order among the following:
a)lp, lp, >lp, bp>bp bp b) 1p<lp, lp<bp
c) lp<lp , lp>bp, bp>pb d) All
42. The hybridizations CH4 Moliculas is
a) sp b) sp2 c) sp3 d) sp3d
43. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
a) O2 b) CN- c) NO+ d) CO
44. Which of the follo wing is diamagnetic
a) N2 b) O2 c) a&b d) S2
45. Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment?
a) NF3 b) CO2 c) CH4 d) NH3
KAMARAJAR HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, NKL -19.
PHYSICS NEET EXAMINATION
Date: 11.11.17 Marks:
1. The distance travelled by a particle in a straight line motion is directly proportional to
t ½ , where t = time elapsed. What is the nature of motion?
a) Increasing acceleration b) Decreasing acceleration
c) Increasing retardation d) Decreasing retardation
2. If a body starts from rest, then the time in which it covers a particular displacement with
uniform acceleration is
a) inve rsely proportional to the square root of the displacement
b) inversely proportional to the displacement
c) directly proportional to the displacement
d) directly proportional to the square root of the displacement
3. A particle starting from point A, travelling upto B with a speed, S, then upto point ‘C’
with a speed 2S and finally upto ‘A’ with a speed 3S, then find its average speed.
C
1200 B

A
a) 2s b) 1.8s c) 4s d) 6s
4. When the speed of a car is u, the minimum distance over which it can be stopped is s.
If the speed becomes nu, what will be the minimum distance over which it can be
stopped during the same time?
a) s/n b) ns c) s/n2 d) n2s
5. A particle is at x = +5 m at t =0, x = -7 at t = 6s and x = 2m at t = 10s. Find the average
velocity of the particle during the interval (a) t = 0 to
t = 6s; (b) t = 6s to t = 10s, (c) t = 0 to t = 10s.
a) 2ms-1 , 2.25ms-1, 0.3ms-1 b) 2ms-1 , 0.3ms-1 , 2.25ms-1
c) 0.3ms-1, 2.25ms-1 , 2 ms-1 d) 2.25ms-1, 2ms-1 , 0.3 ms-1
6. Mark the incorrect statement for a particular going on a straight line.
a) If the velocity and acceleration have opposing sign, then the object is slowing
down.
b) If the position and velocity have opposite sign then the particle is moving
towards the origin.
c) If the velocity is zero at an instant, then the acceleration should also be zero at that
instant.
d) If the velocity is zero for a time interval, that the acceleration is zero at any instant
within the time interval.
7. At the maximum height of a body thrown vertically up.
a) Velocity is not zero but acceleration is zero
b) acceleration is not zero but velocity is zero
c) both acceleration and velocity are zero
d) both acceleration and velocity are not zero.
8. The average velocity of freely falling body numerically equal to half of the acceleration
due to gravity. The velocity of the body as it reaches the ground is
2 g
a) g b) g c) d) 2g
2
9. A particle is dropped from certain height. The time taken b it to fall through successive
distances of 1 m each will be
a) all equal, being equal 2/g second
b) in the ratio of the square roots of the integers 1,2,3,…..
c) in the ratio of the difference in the square roots of the integers, i.e.,
1, ( 2 - 1 ), ( 3 - 2), ( 4 - 3 ), ………..
d) in the ratio of the reciprocals of the square root of the integers, i.e.,
1 1 1
, , , ……..
1 1 1
10. If a particle moves in a circle describing equal angles in equal intervals of time, then
the velocity vector
a) remains constant b) changes in magnitude
c) changes in direction d) changes both in magnitude and direction
11. A lift is coming from 8 floor and is just about to reach 4th floor. Taking ground floor
th

as origin and positive direction upwards for all quantities, which one of the following
is correct?
a) x<0, v<0, a>0 b) x>0, v<0, a<0 c) x>0, v<0, a>0 d) x>0, v>0, a<0
12. A body completes one round of a circle of radius ‘R’ in 20 second. The displacement
of the body after 45 second is
R
a) b) 2 c) 2 R d) 2R
2
13. If a body covers first half of its journey with uniform speed v1 and the second half of
the journey with uniform speed v2, then the average speed is
2v1 v2 v1 v2
a) v1 + v2 b) c) d) v1v2
v1 + v2 v1 + v2
14. A car is moving along a straight line, say OP in figure. It moves from O to P in 18s
and return from P to Q in 6s. What are the average velocity and average speed of the
car in going from O to P and back to Q?
O Q P
-80 -40 0 40 80 120 160 200 240 280 320 360 400

a) 10 ms-1, 20 ms-1 b) 20ms-1, 10 ms-1


c) 10ms-1 , 10ms-1 d) 20 ms-1, 20ms-1
15. For a body moving with uniform acceleration ‘a’, initial and final velocities in a time
interval ‘t; are ‘u’and ‘v’ respectively. Then, its average velocity in the time interval
‘t’ is
v+u at
a) (v + at) b) c) (v - at) d) u - 2
2
16. If Sn = 3+0.4n find initial velocity and acceleration
a) 3.2 units, 0.4 units b) 2.1 units, 0.3 units
c) 1.2 units, 0.4 units d) 2.2 units, 0.3 units
17. A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity ‘u’ and uniform acceleration
‘a’. If the sum of the distances travelled in tth and (t+1)th second is 100cm, then its
velocity after ‘t’ seconds in cm/s is
a) 20 b) 30 c) 80 d) 50
18. A particle is moving with uniform acceleration along a straight line ABC. Its velocity
at ‘A’ and ‘B’ are 6 m/s and 9 m/s respectively. If AB : BC =5: 16 then its velocity at
‘C’is
a) 0.6 m/s b) 12 m/s c) 15 m/s d) 21. 5 m/s
19. A car moving on a straight road accelerates from a speed of 4.1 m/s to a speed
of 6.9 m/s in 10 s. Then its average acceleration is
a) 0.5m/s2 b) 0.6m/s2 c) 0.28m/s2 d) 0.65m/s2
20. A ball is thrown straight upward with a speed v from a point h meter above the
ground. The time taken for the ball to strike the ground is

v 2hg v 2hg
a) 1+ 1+ b) 1- 1-
g v2 g v2

v 2hg v 2hg
c) 1- 1+ d) 2+ 2+
g v2 g v2
21. A body falling from rest has a velocity ‘v’ ter it falls through a distance ‘h. The
distance it has to fall down further, for its velocity become double, is ... times ‘h’.
a) 5 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
22. For a train that travels from one station to another at a uniform speed of 40kmh- 1 and
returns to final station at speed of 60 kmh-1, then its average speed is _______ms-1
a) 98.4 b) 0 c) 50.62 d) 13.33
23. A body starting with a velocity ‘v’ returns to its initial position after ‘t’ second with
the same speed, along the same line. Acceleration of the particle is
-2v v t
a) b) zero c) d)
t 2t 2v
24. A body starts from rest and moves with an uniform acceleration. The ratio of distance
covered in the nth second to the distance covered in ‘n’ second is
2 1 1 1 2 1 2 1
a) - b) - c) - d) +
n n2 n n2 n2 n n n2
25. Speeds of two identical cars are U and 3U at a specific instant. The ratio of the
respective distances in which the two cars are stopped from that instant is
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 4 c) 1 : 8 d) 1 : 9
26. Check up only the correct statement in the following.
a) A body has a constant velocity and still it can have a varying speed
b) A body has a constant speed but it can have a varying velocity
c) A body has a constant velocity speed cannot have any acceleration.
d) None of these.
27. Mr. Verma drives his car at uniform speed from bottom of a mountain to the top in 30
minutes along a helical path as shown.
y Final Position

4 km Mountain
Initial position
x
3km

At the beginning the speedometer of his car shows 6225 km, while on reaching the top
it reads 6285 km. (Take up ward as positive y-axis and positive x-axis towards right)
The total distance covered is
a) 30 km b) 20km c) 60 km d) cannot be determined
28. In previous question, his displacement vector during the journey is:-
a) (-3i + 4j) km b) 3km c) 5km d) none of these
29. In Q.28, the average velocity during the journey is:
a) (-6i + 9j) km/h b) (-6i+8j) km/h c) (-9i + 12j) km/h d) None of these
30. A moving car possesses average velocities of 5 ms-1, 10 ms-1 and 15 ms-1 in the first,
second and third seconds respectively. What is the total distance covered by the car in
these three seconds?
a) 15 m b) 30m c) 55m d) None of these
31. A body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of distance
covered by the body in nth second to that covered in n second is
1 n2 2n-1
a) b) 2n-1 c) d)
n n2 2n-1 2n2
32. A particle is moving along a straight line with constant acceleration. At the end of
tenth second its velocity becomes 20m/s and in tenth second it travels and distance of
10m. Then the acceleration of the particle will be
a) 10 m/s2 b) 20 m/s2 c) 1/5 m/s2 d) 3.8 m/s2
33. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for some time, after which it decelerates
at a constant rate β and comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, then the maximum
velocity acquired by the car is
α2+β2 α2 - β2 (α+β)t αβt
a) t b) t c) d)
αβ αβ αβ α+β
34. A ball is thrown straight up in the air. For which situation are both the instantaneous
velocity and the acceleration zero?
a) on the way up b) at t he top of its flight path
c) halfway up and halfway down d) none of the above
35. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h meters. It takes T seconds to
reach the ground. What is the position of the ball in T/3 seconds?
a) h/9 meters from the ground b) 7h/9 meters from the ground
c) 8h/9 meters from the ground d) 17h / 18 meters from the ground
36. A ball is thrown upward with such a velocity ν that it returns to the thrower after 3 s.
Take g= 10ms-2. Find the value of ν.
a) 15 m/s b) 20 ms-1 c) 10m/s d) 5 m/s
37. An object is dropped from a height h, then the distance travelled in times t, 2t, 3t are in
the ratio
a) 1:2:3 b) 1:4:9 c) 1:3:5 d) 1:9:5
38. A body is allowed to fall from a height of 100m. If the time taken for the first 50 m is
t1 and for the remaining 50 m is t2 then:
a) t1 = t2 b) t1 > t2 c) t1 < t2 d) depends upon the mass
39. The three initial and final position of a man on the X-axis are given as
(i) (-8m, 7m) (ii) (7m, -3m) and
(iii) (-7m, 3m)
which pair gives the negative displacement
a) i b) ii c) iii d) (i) and (iii)
40. The displacement of a body along X-axis depends on time as x = t+1. Then the
velocity of body.
a) Increases with time b) Decreases with time
c) Independent of time d) None of these
41. A particle starts It’s motion from rest under the action of a constant force. If the
distance covered in first 10 seconds is s1, and that covered in the first 20 seconds is s2,
then
a) s2 = 2s1 b) s2 = 3s1 c) s2 = 4s1 d) s2=s1
42. Which of the following is a one-dimensional motion.
a) Landing of an aircraft b) Earth revolving around the sun
c) Motion of wheels of moving train d) Train running on a straight track
43. If the particle moves with an acceleration, then which of the following can remain
constant
a) Both speed and velocity b) Neither speed nor velocity
c) Only the velocity d) only the speed
44. To reach the same height on the moon as on the earth, a body must be projected
Up with
a) High velocity on the moon. b) Lower velocity on the moon.
c) Same velocity on the moon and earth. d) it depends on the mass of the body.
45. At a metro station, a girl walks up a stationary escalator in time, t1. If she remains
stationary on the escalator, then the escalator take her up in time t2. The time taken by
her to walk up on the moving escalator will be
a) (t1 + t2) / 2 b) t1t2 / (t2 - t1) c) t1t2 / (t2+t1) d) t1-t2
1. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 40 s.
What will be his displacement at the end of 2 min 30 s?
a) 2r b) 2 r c) r d) zero
2. If the position of a particle along Y axis is represented as a function of
time t by the equation y(t) =t3 then find displacement of the particle
during the period t to t +t
a) t2 + t b) 3t2 . t + 3t (t2) + (t)3 c) t3 d) zero
3. A particle starting from point A, travelling upto B with a speed, S,
then upto point ‘C’ with a speed 2S and finally upto ‘A’ with a speed
3S, then find its average speed.
C
1200 B

A
a) 2s b) 1.8s c) 4s d) 6s
4. For a man who walks 720 m at a uniform speed of 2 m/s, then runs at
a uniform speed of 4 m/s for 5 minute and then again walks at a speed
of 1 m/s for 3 minutes. His average speed is
a) 2ms-1 b) 8ms-1 c) 10ms-1 d) 2.5 ms-1
5. A particle is at x = +5 m at t =0, x = -7 at t = 6s and x = 2m at t = 10s.
Find the average velocity of the particle during the interval (a) t = 0 to
t = 6s; (b) t = 6s to t = 10s, (c) t = 0 to t = 10s.
a) 2ms-1 , 2.25ms-1, 0.3ms-1 b) 2ms-1 , 0.3ms-1 , 2.25ms-1
c) 0.3ms-1, 2.25ms-1 , 2 ms-1 d) 2.25ms-1, 2ms-1 , 0.3 ms-1
6. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is
a) always less than 1 b) always greater than 1
c) always equal to 1 d) may be less than 1 or equal to one
7. The location of a particle is changed. What can we say about the
displacement and distance covered by the particle?
a) Both cannot be zero b) one of the two may be zero
c) Bothe must be zero d) Both must be equal
8. Consider the motion of the tip of the minute hand of a clock. In one
hour
1) the displacement is zero 2) the distance covered is zero
3) the average speed is zero 4) the average velocity is zero
a) a &b are correct b) a,b & correct
c) a & d are correct d) b,c & d are correct
9. The numerical value of the ratio of average velocity to average speed
is
a) always less than one b) always equal to one
c) always more than one d) equal to or less than one
10. If a particle moves in a circle describing equal angles in equal
intervals of time, then the velocity vector
a) remains constant b) changes in magnitude
c) changes in direction d) changes both in magnitude and direction
11. A body is moving along the circumference of a circle of radius ‘R’
and completes half of the revolution. Then the ratio of its
displacement to distance is
a)  : 2 b) 2:1 c) 2: d) 1:2
12. A body completes one round of a circle of radius ‘R’ in 20 second.
The displacement of the body after 40 second is
a) R b) 2 R c) 2 R d) 2R
2
13. If a body covers first half of its journey with uniform speed v1 and the
second half of the journey with uniform speed v2, then the average
speed is
2v1 v2 v1 v2
a) v1 + v2 b) c) d) v1v2
v1 + v2 v1 + v2

14. A car is moving along a straight line, say OP in figure. It moves from
O to P in 18s and return from P to Q in 6s. What are the average
velocity and average speed of the car in going from O to P and back to
Q?
O Q P
-80 -40 0 40 80 120 160 200 240 280 320 360 400

a) 10 ms-1, 20 ms-1 b) 20ms-1, 10 ms-1


c) 10ms-1 , 10ms-1 d) 20 ms-1, 20ms-1
15. For a body moving with uniform acceleration ‘a’, initial and final
velocities in a time interval ‘t; are ‘u’and ‘v’ respectively. Then, its
average velocity in the time interval ‘t’ is
v+u at
a) (v + at) b) c) (v - at) d) u -
2 2

16. A body moves from one corner of an equilateral triangle of side


10 cm to the same corner along the sides. Then the distance and
displacement are respectively.
a) 30 cm & 10 cm b) 30 cm & 0 cm
c) 0 cm & 30 cm d) 30cm & 30 cm
17. For a train that travels from one station to another at a uniform speed
of 40 kmh-1 and returns to final station at speed of 60 kmh-1, then its
average speed is
a) 98 km/hr b) 0 km /hr c) 50 km/hr d) 49 km / hr
18. If the distance between the sun and the earth is 1.5x1011 and velocity
of light is 3x108 m/s, then the time taken by a light ray to reach the
earth from the sun is
a) 500s b) 500 minute c) 50 s d) 5x103 s
19. Match the following
Column I Column II
dv
a) p) Acceleration
dt

dv
b) q) Magnitude of acceleration
dt

dr
c) r) Velocity
dt

dr
d) d) magnitude of velocity
dt
a) a p, b q, c r, d s b) a q, b p, c r, d s
c) a p, b q, c s, d r d) a q, b p, c s, d r
20. Statement I : An object may have varying speed without having
varying velocity.
Statement II : If the velocity is zero at an instant, the acceleration
may not be zero at that instant.
a) Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is the correct
explanation for Statement I.
b) Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not the
correct explanation for Statement I.
c) Statement I is true, Statement II is False.
d) Statement I is False, Statement II is true.

21. Statement I : A bus moving due north takes a turn and starts moving
towards east with same speed. There will be no change
in the velocity of bus.
Statement II : Velocity is a vector quantity.
a) Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is the correct
explanation for Statement I.
b) Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not the
correct explanation for Statement I.
c) Statement I is true, Statement II is False.
d) Statement I is False, Statement II is true.
22. A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He takes five steps
forward and three steps backward and so on. Each step is 1m long
and takes 1 second. There the a pit on the road 11 m away from the
starting point. The drunkard will fall into the pit after
a) 29 seconds b) 21 s c) 37 s d) 31 s
23. A man goes 10 m towards north then 20 m towards east then
magnitude of displacement is
a) 22.5 m b) 25m c) 25.5 m d) 30
24. A particle moves along a semi circle of radius 10m in 5 seconds. The
average velocity of the particle is ___________
a) 2  ms-1 b) 4 ms-1 c) 2ms-1 d) 4ms-1
25. Which of the following option is correct for the object having a
straight line motion represented by the following graph
D
C
t B

A
O S
a) The object moves with constantly increasing velocity from O to A
and then it moves with constant velocity.
b) Velocity of the object increases uniformly
c) Average velocity is zero
d) The graph shown in impossible
KAMARAJAR HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, NKL -19.
CHEMISTRY NEET EXAMINATION
Date: 01.11.17 Marks: 180
1. The law of triad is applicable to a group of
a) Cl, Br; I b) C,N,O c) Na, K, Rb d) H,O,N
2. The atomic number of element Unq is:
a) 102 b) 103 c) 104 d) 105
3. Eka silicon is now called as
a) Gallium b) Scandium c) Germanium d) Indium
4. The number of elements present in the fourth period is
a) 32 b) 18 c) 8 d) 2
5. The general electronic configuration of elements of carbon family
a) ns2 np4 b) ns2 np3 c) ns2np1 d) ns2np2
6. The element with electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10
4s2 4p5 belongs to
a) 4th period, VA group b) 5th period, IVA group
c) 4th period, VIIA group d) 7th period, IVA group
7. Atomic number of next inert gas to be discovered will be
a) 87 b) 104 c) 118 d) 132
8. Ce-58 is a member of
a) s-block b) p-block c) d-block d) f-block
9. Which one of the following has the largest radius.
a) Na+ b) Mg 2+ c) O2- d) Al 3+
10. Which one is the correct order of the size of the iodine species?
a) I > I+ > I- b) I > I- > I+ c) I+ > I- > I d) I- > I > l+
11. Vander waal’s radius is used for
a) Molecular substances in gaseous state only
b) Molecular substances in liquid state only
c) Molecular substances in solid state only
d) Molecular substances in any state
12. Which set represents isoelectronic species?
a) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl- b) Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F-
b) K+, Cl- , Mg2+, Sc3+ d) K+, Cl-, Ca2+, Sc3+
13. Which of the following pairs of ions have the same electronic
configuration.
a) Cr+3, Fe+3 b) Fe+3, Mn+2 c) Fe+3, Co+3 d) Sc+3, Cr+3
14. The element with highest ionization potential is
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Helium d) Neon
15. Which of the following elements has the lowest ionization potential?
a) N b) O c) F d) Ne
16. Which of the following species has the highest ionization potential
a) Li+ b) Mg+ c) Al+ d) Ne
17. The decreasing order of electron affinity of halogen’s is
a) F > Cl > Br > I b) F<Cl < Br < I
c) F < Cl > Br < I d) Cl > F>Br>I
18. The electronegati vity of Be is same as that of
a) Al b) Mg c) Na d) Li
19. Diagonal relationship is shown by
a) B-S b) Li - Mg c) Mg - Ca d) S - Se
20. The element having electronic configuration [Kr] 4d 4f14 5s2 5p6
10

5d2 6s2 belongs to


a) s-block b) p-block c) d-block d) f-block
21. An atom with atomic number 21 belongs to the category of
a) s-block elements b) p-block elements
c) d-block elements d) f-block elements
22. The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is
a) Li+ > Be2+ > Na+ > Mg 2+ b) Na+ > Mg2+ > Li+ > B2+
c) Li2+ > Na+ > Mg 2+ > Be 2+ d) Mg 2+ > Be2+ > Li+ > Na+
23. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?
a) Mg 2+ b) H+ c) Li+ d) Na+
24. Column - I Column -II
(Atomic no. of elements) (IUPAC name)
(A) 105 (P) Uun
(B) 107 (Q) Uns
(C) 109 (R) Unp
(D) 110 (S) Une
A B C D
1) R P S Q
2) P R S Q
3) R Q S P
4) Q R S P
25. Match the following
List - 1 List -2
(High value is observed for)
A) Ionisation potential 1) Chlorine
B) Electro positivity 2) Caesium
C) Electron affinity 3) Helium
D) Oxidation state 4) Fluorine
5) Osmium
The correct match is
A B C D
1) 4 3 2 1
2) 3 2 1 5
3) 1 2 3 4
4) 2 1 4 5

26. The order of screening effect of electrons of s,p,d and f orbitals of a


given shell of an atom on its outer shell electrons is:
a) s > p > d > f b) f > d > p > s c) p < d < s < f d) f > p > s > d
27. Which of the following has zero electronegativity
a) Ar b) Si c) N d) F
28. The stable oxidation sate (+8) is exhibited by
a) Co & Ni b) Ru & Os c) Cl & I d) Te & I
29. Pair of ions with similar polarizing power
a) Li+, Mg2+ b) Li+, Na+ c) Mg2+, Ca2+ d) Mg2+, K+
30. Which of the following combinations contains only isoeletronic ions?
a) N3-, O2- , C1-, Ne b) F-, Ar, S2-, C1-
c) P3- , S2- , C1-, Ar d) N3-, F-, O2-, Ar
31.Which among the following is an amphoteric oxide?
a) Al2O3 b) CaO c) Na2O d) SO2
32. Which is not a neutral oxide
a) Co b) No c) N2O d) P2O3
33. Which among the following constitutes a group of iso electronic
species.
a) CN-, N2, O22- C22- b) C22-, CN-, NO+, N2
c) CO, NO+,O2+ C22- d) N2+ N2-
34. Elements of group 15 are also called
a) Pnicogens b) chalcogens c) Noble gases d) Halogens
35. Which of the following elements forms an acidic oxide
a) K b) Al c) Ca d) S
36. The element f=11 has been discovered recently. If will belong to
which of the following families / group and electronic can figuration
a) Halogen family [Rn] 5f14 6d10 fs2 7 p5
b) Carbon family [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p2
c) oxygen family [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p4
d) Nitrogen family [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6
37. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented?
a) H+ > H > H- b) H- > H > H+ c) H+ > H- > H d) H > H > I-
38. Which one of the following ions will be smallest size
a) Na+ b) mg 2+ c) F- d) O2-
39. Among the following the one which is most basic is
a) Cs2O b) Mgo c) Al2O3 d) N2O5
40. d- block Electronic configuration is ____________
a) [n-2] d1-10 ns0-2 b) (n-1) d1-10 ns0-2
c) (n-1)d 1-14 ns0-2 d) (n-1) d-10 ns14
41. Which of the following represent a pair of metalloids
a) Na, Al b) Cl, Br c) C, N d) Ge, As
-
42. Which of the following is not iso electronic with Cl is
a) P3- b) Ca2+ c) S2- d) Ne
43. Noble gasess Electronic configuration is
a) ns2np5 b) ns2np4 c) ns2np6 d) ns2np3
44. Electron Affinity can be Measured by
a) carbon cycle b) Born - Haber cycle c) Nitrogen cycle d) All
45. Vander walls radii of Cl is 3.6 A° __________
a) 1.7A° b) 1.8A° c) 1.29° d) 1.4A°
01/11/17
Answer Keys
a c c b d c c d c d
c d b c b a d a b c
c b c c b a a b a c
d d c b b

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