It Officer E Book

TOPIC COVERED:
1)DBMS
2)ORACLE
3)COMPUTER NETWORKS
4)DATA STRUCTURE
5)SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
6)C/C++
7)OPERATING SYSTEM
8)WEB TECHNOLOGY
9)COMPUTER FUNDAMENTAL
10)MIXED QUESTIONS
studyregular.blogspot.in
Study Regular IT Officer Question Bank Ebook
DBMS SET-1
1. Rows of a relation are called ______________
(A) Entity
(B) Degree
(C) tuples
(D) None of the above
2. In SQL, Which of the following is a Data Manipulation Language

(DML) Command?
(A) Create
(B) Alter
(C) Merge
(D) Drop
3. Which of the following categories of the data integrity RDBMS

will enforce specific business rules?
(A)Entity Integrity
(B)Domain Integrity
(C)User-Defined Integrity
(D)None of the above
4. The number of tuples in a relation is termed as_____________

(A) Cardinality
(B) Entity
(C) Column
Copyright By Study Regular studyregular.blogspot.in Page 2

5. ……. is a top- down approach in which one higher level entity can
be divided into two lower level entities
(A) Aggregation
(B) Specialization
(C) Generalization
6. E-R modeling technique is a ___________

(A) top-down approach
(B) bottom-up approach
(C) User –Defined
7. In E-R diagram, attribute is represented by …….

(A)Rectangle
(B)Square
(C)Double Rectangle
(D)Eclipse
8. The number of attribute in a relation is called its __________

(A) Row
(B) Column
(C) Degree
9. In a relational database, each tuple is divided into fields called

(A) Relations
(B) Domains
(C)Queries

10. Which of the following is a part of the Oracle database system
(A)Free lists
(B) Front end
(C) Network
11. Which of the following is used with database?

(A)ATM
(B)Payment gateway
(C)Data mining
12. In SQL, TCL stands for ___________

(A) Transmission control Language
(B) Transaction Central Language
(C) Ternary Control Language
(D) Transaction Control Language
13. Dr. E.F Codd represented…… rules that a database must obey if
it has to be considered truly relational.
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 14
(D) 12
14.In E-R diagram, attribute is represented by …….

(A)Rectangle
(B) Square
(C) Double Rectangle
(D) Eclipse

15. A collection of conceptual tools for describing data, relationships, semantics
and constraints is referred to as ………
(A) Data Model
(B) E-R Model
(C) DBMS
(D) All of the above
16. In E-R Diagram, weak entity is represented by…..

(A) Rectangle
(B)Square
(C)Double Rectangle
(D) Circle
17. ……is a bottom –up approach in which two lower level entities
combine to form a higher level entity.
(A) Aggregation
(B) Specialization
(C) Generalization
18. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a
primary key, is a …..
(A) Primary entity set
(B) Weak Entity set
(C)Strong Entity set
19. An entity that is related with itself is known as …….

(A) Binary relationship
(B) Recursive relationship
(C)Ternary relationship

20. Which SQL command delete all the records and does not remove
the structure?
(A) Drop
(B) Insert
(C)Truncate
21. In …. Database, data is organized in the form of trees with

nodes.
(A) Hierarchical
(B) Relational
(C) Network
22. Which command is used to retrieve records from one or more

table?
(A) Delete
(B)Insert
(C)Drop
(D) Select
23. Which of the following constraint is used to limit the value range
that can be placed in a column?
(A) Check
(B) Default
(C) Unique
24. Command is used to retrieve records from one or more table?

(A) Delete
(B) Insert
(C) Drop
(D) Select

25.Which of the following is a data definition language (DDL)
Command?
(A) Delete
(B) Insert
(C) Drop
(D) None of these
26._________ allows a unique number to be generated when a new

Record is inserted into a table.
(A) Insert into select
(B) Insert into
(C) Select Into
(D) Auto increment
27. This method of online analytical processing stores data in both a

relation and a multi-dimensional database.
(A) HOLAP
(B) ROLAP
(C) OLAP
(D) UDA
28.Which concept would a data model NOT be expected to know?

A Class
(B) Object
(C) UML
(D) FMP
29. A Foreign key in one table points to a ________________key in

another table .
(A) Alternate
(B) Default
(C) Primary Key

30. Which of the following tree structure is unique in that the tree organization
varies depending on which nodes are most frequently accessed?
(A) B-tree
(B) binary tree
(C) quad tree
(D) splay tree
31. The basic unit of this SQL variant is called a block.

(A) PL/SQL
(B) XQL
(C) SQLJ
(D) TMQL
32. A Database management system (DBMS) may be used by , or

combined with, this type of transaction manager.
(A) DB2
(B) CICS
(C) Oracle
(D) Cognos
33. Encapsulation, types , classes, inheritance, overriding combined with

late Binding, and extensibility are all features of this type of data base
(A) multidimensional database
(B) object – oriented
(C) open source
(D) relational database
34. A programming using this type of middleware might need the

Interface Definition Language (IDL).
(A) RPC
(B) ORB
(C) MUD

35. The acronym ACID is a used in reference to _________
(A) transactions
(B) CRM analytics
(C) data integrity
(D) stubs
36. This is a standard interactive and language or getting

Information from and updating a database.
(A) dynamic data exchange
(B) Structured Query language
(C) ASCII
(D) Erlang programming language
37. In creating a database this is the process of organizing it into tables

in such a way that the results of using the data base are always
unambiguous.
(A) probability
(B) normalization
(C) data modeling
(D) query by example
38. This is collection of data items organized as asset of formally-

described Tables from which data can be accessed or released in
many different or reassembled in many different ways Without
having to recognized the database tables.
(A) relational
(B) array
(C) file allocation table
(D) splay tree

39. This family of products is IBM‘s cross-platform relational database
management system .
(A) DBA
(B) DB2
(C) PHP
(D) RDF
40. This is an opened standard application programming interface (API)

for accessing a database .
(A) Universal data access
(B) open database connectivity
(C) topic map query language
(D) Open Data Link Interface
41. This is a collection of descriptions about data objects that is

created for the benefit of programmers and others who might
need to refer to them.
(A) data dictionary
(B) stored procedure
(C) Virtual File Allocation table
(D) Catalog
42. This term is used to describe the process of forecasting , or simply

discovering patterns in data that can lead to predictions about the
future.
(A) Customer relationship management
(B) PERT chart
(C) enterprise risk management
(D) Data mining

43. In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as:
(A) Number of tuples.
(B) Number of attributes.
(C) Number of tables.
(D) Number of constraints
44.This term, used to describe a database that occupies magnetic

storage in the terabyte range , describes a database that contain
billions of table rows.
(A) Very Large Database
(B) holographic Storage
(C) Cold Fusion
(D) giant
45. The view of total database content is

(A) Conceptual view.
(B) Internal view.
(C) External view
(D) None
46. Which type of file is part of the oracle database ?

(A) Control file
(B) Password files
(C) Parameter file
(D) Archived log file
47. Relational calculus is a_______

(A) Procedural language.
(B) Non- Procedural language.
(C) Data definion language.
(D) High level language.

48. Which statements are use to UNLOCK the user?
(A) Alter use Scott account lock
(B) Modified user Scott account unlock;
(C) Alter user Scott account unlock;
(D) Alter user Scott unlock
49. The DBMS language component which can be embedded in a

program is
(A) The data definition language (DDL).
(B) The data manipulation language (DML).
(C) The database administrator (DBA).
(D) A query language.
50. For which two constraints are indexes created when the constraint is
added?
(A) Primary key
(B) Unique
(C) Not null
(D) Both (A) & (B)
51. When is the SGA created in an Oracle database environment?

(A) When the database is created
(B) When a user process is started
(C) When the database is mounted
(D) When the instance is started
52. Which password management feature ensures a user cannot reuse a

password for a specified time interval?
(A) Account Locking
(B) Password History
(C) Password Veification
(D) Password Expirtion and Aging

53. What type of failure occurs when Oracle fails due to an operating
system or computer hardware failure?
(A) Application failure
(B) Instance Failure
(C) Media Failure
(D) Rollback failure
54. Which privilege is required to create a database?

(A) SYSDBA
(B) DBA
(C) SYSOPER
(D) RESOURCE
55. The users who use easy to use menu are called
(A) Sophisticated end users
(B) Naïve users
(C) Stand-alone-users
(D) Casual end users
56. DML is provided for

(A) Description of logical structure of database.
(B) Addition of new structures in the database system.
(C) Manipulation & processing of database.
(D) Definition of physical structure of database system.
57. What is the type of Oracle backup in which all uncommitted changes
have been removed from the Data files?
(A) Full backup
(B) Consistent backup
(C) Inconsistent backup
(D) Differential backup

58. AS clause is used in SQL for
(A) Selection operation.
(B) Rename operation.
(C) Join operation.
(D) Projection operation
59. ODBC stands for

(A) Object Database Connectivity.
(B) Oral Database Connectivity.
(C) Oracle Database Connectivity.
(D) Open Database Connectivity.
60. The database environment has all of the following component

except:
(A) Users.
(B) Separate files.
(C) Database.
(D) Database administrator
61. The language which has recently become the de-facto standard for
interfacing application programs with relational database system is
(A) Oracle.
(B) SQL.
(C) Dbase.
(D) None
62. In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by

(A) rectangle.
(B) Square.
(C) Ellipse.
(D) Triangle.

63. In an E-R diagram an entity set is represented by a
(A) Rectangle.
(B) Ecllipse
(C) Diamond box.
(D) Circle.
64. Domain constraints, functional dependency and referential integrity

are special forms of _________
(A) Foreign key
(B) Primary key
(C) Referential constraint
(D) Assertion
65. 4NF stands for ______

(A) Fourth Normal File
(B) Fourth Normal Form
(C) Fourth Normal Fraction
(D) Fourth Negative File
66. Which of the following field type is used to store photograph of

employees?
(A) Memo
(B) Picture
(C) OLE
(D) Photo
67. _________ statement is used in conjunction with the aggregate

functions to group the result-set by one or more columns.
(A) Select
(B) Group by
(C) Distinct

68. Which of the following method can be used to add more tables in a
database?
(A) Design View
(B) Table Wizard
(C) Both A and B
69. Which of the following field type is the best to store serial numbers?
(A) Number
(B) Auto Number
(C) Text
(D) Memo
DBMS SET-2
1. _____ is the process of using graph theory to analyse he node and connection
structure of a Web site.
(A)Web structure mining
(B)Web content mining
(C)Web usage mining
2. The information gathered through web mining is evaluated by using ________

(A)Clustering
(B)Classification
(C)Association
(D)All of the above
3.________is a type of data mining used in Customer Relationship Management(CRM)

(A) Clustering
(B)Web mining
(C)Both (A) and (B)

4.Which of the following is used to examine data collected by search engine and web
spider?
(A)Web structure mining
(B)Web content mining
(C)Web usage mining
5.The process of grouping a set of objects into classes of similar objects is called
_________
(A)Clustering
(B)Classification
(C) Association
6. Which parameter is used to discover patterns in data can lead to reasonable predictio
about the future?
(A)Clustering
(B)Classification
(C)Association
(D) Forecasting
7. _________ a special type of computational cluster that is specifically designed for

storing and analyzing large amount of unstructured data
(A)Hadoop Cluster
(B)Failover Cluster
(C)Both (A) and (B)
(D)None of the Above
8.Which of the following is the process for detecting and correcting the wrong data?
(A)Data Selection
(B)Data Cleaning
(C)Data Integration
9. An important purpose of the shared pool is to cache the executive version of _______
statements.
(A)SQL
(B)PL/SQL
(C)Both (A) and (B)
10.Which of the following is/are main component(s) of the shared pool?

(A)Library Cache
(B)Dictionary Cache
(C)Both (A) and (B)
11.Which of the following is the process of combining data from different resources?
(A)Data Selection
(B)Data Cleaning
(C)Data Integration
12.Which stores the executives(parsed) forms of SQL cursors and PL/SQL

(A)Library Cache
(B)Dictionary Cache
(C)Both (A) and (B)
13.Information stored in dictionary cache includes _________

(A)User names
(B)Profile data
(C) Table space information
(D)All of the above
14.Oracle Database segregates a small amount of the shared pool for large objects(over
5kb).The segregated area of the shared pool is called _______
(A)Fixed Pool
(B)Reserved Pool
(C)Allocated Pool
15.When a query is submitted to oracle server for execution, oracle checks if same quer
has been executed previously. If found the same then this event is known as _______
(A)Library cache hit
(B)Soft parsing
(C)Both (A) and (B)
16.Shared pool size is an important factor is _________ applications.

(A)On line Transaction Processing (OLTP)
(B)Decision support systems (DSS)
(C)Both (A) and (B)
17.If the parsed form of the statement is not found in the shared pool hen new statement
is parsed and its parsed version is stored is Shared SQL area.This is known as ________
(B)Soft parsing
(C)Hard parsing
18.Reuse of shared SQL for multiple users running the same applications avoids
________
(B)Soft parsing
(C)Hard parsing
19.Which of the following is/are feature(s) of Oracle 9i?

(A)Scalability
(B)Reliability
(C)One Development model
(D)All of the above
20.The shared pool is also able to support _________ in data warehousing applications.
(A)Shared SQL
(B)Stored SQL
(C)Unsorted SQL
(D)Unshared SQL
21.Which of the following is an example for Embedded SQL Statement?

(A)ROLLBACK
(B)SETROLE
(C)ALTER SYSTEM
(D)RETCH
22. ________ Database is the only database specifically designed as an Internet

development
and deployment platform
(A)Oracle 6i
(B)Oracle 7i
(C)Oracle 8i
(D)Oracle 9i
23.Oracle 9i can scale tens of thousands of concurrent users support up to __________

peta bytes data
(A)124
(B)256
(C)512
(D)624
24.Oracle 9i Reports gives us __________ options for building a Web report.

(A)Two
(B)Three
(C)Four
(D)Five
25.__________ is a tool for entering and running ad-hoc based database statements.
(A)mySQL
(B)PL/SQL
(C)SQL*PLUS
26. Oracle 9i Reports is the solution of ________

(A)Paper publishing
(B)Web publishing
(C)Both (A) and (B)
27.The ____________ process is used for inter-instance locking in Real Application

Clusters.
(A)Front Manager Server
(B)Back Manager Server
(C)Lock Manager Server
28.__________ is a tool for entering and running ad-hoc based database statements.
(A)mySQL
(B)PL/SQL
(C)SQL*PLUS
29. The __________ performs process recovery when a user process fails.
(A)Log Writer(LGWR)
(B)Checkpoint(CKPT)
(C)System Monitor(SMON)
(D)Process Monitor(PMON)
30.What type of failure occurs when Oracle fails due to an operating system or compute
hardware failure?
(A)Application Failure
(B)Instance Failure
(C)Media Failure
(D)Roll back Failure
31.The ____________ performs recovery when a failed instance starts up again.

(A)Log Writer(LGWR)
(B)Checkpoint(CKPT)
(C)System Monitor(SMON)
(D)Process Monitor(PMON)
32. Which Oracle backup and recovery file contains user and system data?
(A)Control file
(B)Data File
(C)Offline Redo file
33.When is the System Global Area (SGA) created in Oracle database environment?
(A)When the database is created
(B)When a user process is started
(C)When the database is mounted
(D)When the instance is started

34. Which type of file is a part of the Oracle database?
(A)Control file
(B)Password file
(C)Parameter files
(D)Log files
35.Which password management feature ensure a user cannot reuse a password for a
specified time interval?
(A)Account Locking
(B)Password History
(C)Password verification
36.What is the type of Oracle backup is which all uncommitted changes have been
removed from the data files?
(A)Full backup
(B)Consistent backup
(C)Inconsistent backup
(D)Differential backup
37. Which privilege is required to create a database?

(A)SYSDBA
(B)DBA
(C)SYSOPER
(D)RESOURCE
38. Which database level is the closest level to the users?

(A)Internet
(B)External
(C)Conceptual
39.Which Normal Form(NF) is considered adequate to normal relational database

design?
(A)2NF
(B)5NF
(C)4NF
(D)3NF

40. Which of the following is used to generate a square root of a number?
(A)MySQT SQRT Function
(B)Microsoft Access
(C) MySQL
41. The most open source DBMS is __________

(A)Oracle
(B)Microsoft access
(C)MySQL
42.Which of the following operator combines two or more SELECT statement?

(A)In
(B)Like
(C)Union
43.Which of the following data type holds a string with maximum length of 255
characters?
(A)Text
(B)Medium Text
(C)Long Text
(D)Tiny Text
44.Which data type is used to store up to 65,536 characters?

(A)Memo
(B)Text
(C)Integer
45.In E-R Diagram, the total participation by entities is represented as---------------------

(A)Dashed Line
(B)Rectangle
(C)Double rectangle
(D)Double line

46.Which is low level operator?
(A)Insert
(B)Update
(C)Directory
47. The LAST( ) function is only supported in_____________

(A)MS Word
(B)MS Access
(C)MS Excel
48. Intersection operator is used to obtain the________tuples.

(A)Unique
(B)Common
(C)Different
49.__________are used to specify the rules for the data in a table.

(A)Constraints
(B)Aliases
(C)Wildcards
50. Which of the following is used to generate a square root of a number?

(A)MySQL SQRT Function
(B)MySQL RAND Function
(C)MySQL AVG Function
51.Which of the following datatype holds a string with maximum length of 255
characters?
(A)Text
(B)Medium Text
(C) Long Text
(D)Tiny Text

52.Long data type allows whole numbers between__________________
(A)0 to 255
(B) -32,768 to 32,767
(C)-2, 147, 483, 648 to 2, 147, 483, 647
53. Which of the following clauses is an additional filter that is applied to the result?
(A)Having
(B)Group-by
(C)Select
(D)Order by
54. ___________ is the process of organizing data into related tables.

(A)Generalization
(B)Normalization
(C)Specialization
55. __________is the complex search criteria in the where clause.

(A)Substring
(B)Drop Table
(C)Predicate
56.Which of the following is used to determine whether of a table contains duplicate

rows?
(A)Unique Predicate
(B)Like Predicate
(C)Null Predicate
(D)In Predicate
57. An operator is basically a join followed by a project on the attributes of first relation
is know as ______________________
(A) Join
(B) Inner Join
(C)Full join
(D)Semi-join
58.Which of the following is a special type of integrity constraint that relates two
relations and maintains consistency across the relations?
(A)Entity Integrity Constraints
(B)Referential Integrity Constraints
(C)Domain Integrity Constraints
59. The candidate key is that you choose to identify each row uniquely is
called___________
(A)Primary Key
(B)Foreign key
(C)Alternate key
(D)One of the above
60. Which of the following is preferred method for enforcing data integrity?
(A)Cursors
(B)Constraints
(C)Triggers
61.Which allows to make copies of the database periodically to help in the cases of
crashes and disasters?
(A)Recovery utility
(B)Data loading utility
(C)Monitoring utility
(D)Backup utility
62. Each modification done in database transaction are first recorder into
the____________
(A)Hard Driver
(B)Disk
(C)Log file
(D)Data Mart

63. Which operator is used is select values within a range?
(A)WITHIN
(B)RANGE
(C) BETWEEN
64.DBMS may be combined with or used by_________type of transaction manager.

(A)DB2
(B) Customer Information Control System (CICS)
(C)Oracle
65.The________clause is use to specify the number of records to return.

(A)FROM
(B)WHERE
(C) SELECT TOP
66.Which of the following is the most common type of join?

(A)INNER JOIN
(B)INSIDE JOIN
(C)JOINED
67. Which operator allows to specify multiple values in a WHERE clause?

(A) LIKE
(B) IN
(C) BETWEEN
68. In SQL, which of the following wildcard character is used as a substitute for
Zero or more characters?
(A) *
(B) _
(C) ^
(D) %

69. In SQL, wildcard characters are used with the________operator.
(A)LIKE
(B)RANGE
(C)BETWEEN
70.The basic unit of PL/SQL variant is called a_________

(A) block
(B) cell
(C) table
71. Which allows to make copies of the database periodically to help in the cases
Of crashes and disasters?
(A)Recovery Utility
(B)Data loading utility
(C)Monitoring utility
(D)Backup utility
72. which of the following is standard interactive and programming language for getting
information from and updating a database .
(A) SQL
(B) PHP
( C) ASP
73.__________keyword sorts the record in ascending order by default.

(A) ORDER BY
(B) SORT BY
(C) SORT
74. _____________ is suitable for data warehouses that have a large number of similar
data times.
(A) Relational database Management system (RDBMS)
(B) Columnar Database Management system (CDBMS
(C) In –Memory database Management System (IMDBMS)
(D). None of the above

75.Which SQL statement is used to insert new data in a database?
(A) INSERT INTO
(B) ADD NEW
(C) Add record
76. OLAP stands for____________

(A) Online Arithmetic processing
(B) Online Analysis Processing
(C) Online Analytical Processing
77.Which of the following is a special type of stored procedure that is automatically

invoked whenever the data in the table is modified?
(A) Curser
(B) Trigger
(C)Both (A) &(B)
78. ____________are used to temporarily rename a table or heading of column.

(A) Wildcards
(B) Constraints
(C) Joins
(D)Aliases
79.Which method of online Analytical Processing stores data in both a relational and a
multi dimensional database.
(A) Hybrid OLAP
(B) Relation OLAP
(C) OLAP
80.Which of the following keyword can be used to return different value?

(A) SELECT
(B) GET
(C) OPEN
(D) DISTINCT

81. __________ operator is used to display a record if either the first condition or the
second condition is true?
(A) AND
(B) OR
(C) Both(A) & (B)
82.Which SQL statement is used to extract data from a database?

(A) EXTRACT
(B) GET
(C) OPEN
(D)SELECT
83.The____________operation allows the combining of tow relations by merging pairs

of tuples one from each relation into a single tuple.
(A) join
(B) intersection
(C) union
84. ______________is the multiplication of all the values in the attributes?

(A) set difference
(B) Cartesian product
(C) intersection
(D) None the above
85.Which of the following DBMS provides faster response time and better performance
(A) Relational Database Management System(RDBMS)
(B) No SQL DBMS
(C) In-Memory Database Management System(IMBDMS)
86.In SQL the spaces at the end of the string are removed by___________function ?
(A) Lower
(B) string
(C) Trim
(D)None the above

87. __________is used to save permanently any transaction into database?
(A) commit
(B) rollback
(C) savepoint
88.Which command is used to remove a relation from an SQL Database?

(A) Delete
(B) Remove
(C) Drop
(D) None the above
89. Which of the following operator used for appending two strings?
(A) %
(B) &
(C) +
(D) II
90. A unit of storage that can store one or more records in a hash file organization is
denoted as_____________?
(A) Bucket
(b) Disk pages
(C) Blocks
(D) Nodes.

ORACLE
1. LGWR process writes information into
a. Database files
b. Control files
c. Redolog files
d All the above.
2. Constraints cannot be exported through EXPORT command

a. True
b False
3. We can create SNAPSHOTLOG for[DBA]

a. Simple snapshots
b. Complex snapshots
c. Both A & B,
d Neither A nor B
4 . What is the difference between a MESSAGEBOX and an ALERT

a. A messagebox can be used only by the system and cannot be
used in user application while an alert can be used in user application also.
b. A alert can be used only by the system and cannot be use din user
application while an messagebox can be used in user application also.
c. An alert requires an response from the userwhile a messagebox just
flashes a message and only requires an acknowledment from the user
d. An message box requires an response from the userwhile a alert just
flashes a message an only requires an acknowledment from the user
5. SNAPSHOT is used for [DBA]

a. Synonym
b. Table space,
c. System serve
d. Dynamic data replication

6. SET TRANSACTION USE ROLLBACK SEGMENT is used to create user
objects in a particular Tablespace
a. True
b. False
7. Databases overall structure is maintained in a file called

a. Redo log file
b. Data file
c. Control file
d. All of the above.
8. These following parameters are optional in init.ora parameter file

DB_BLOCK_SIZE, PROCESSES
a. True
b. False
9. What is difference between a DIALOG WINDOW and a DOCUMENT

WINDOW regarding moving the window with respect to the application
window
a. Both windows behave the same way as far as moving the window concerned.
b. A document window can be moved outside the application window while a
cannot be moved
c. A dialog window can be moved outside the application window while a
document window cannot be moved above
10. It is very difficult to grant and manage common privileges needed by

different groups of database user using the roles
a. True
b. False
11. What file is read by ODBC to load drivers?

a.ODBC.INI
b.ODBC.DLL
c.ODBCDRV.INI
d.None of the above

12. ENQUEUE resources parameter information is derived from[DBA]
a. Processes or DDL_LOCKS and DML_LOCK
b. LOG_BUFF
c. DB__BLOCK_SIZE
13. In a CLIENT/SERVER environment , which of the following would not be

done at the client ?
a. User interface part

b. Data validation at entry line,
c. Responding to user events,
d. None of the above
14. Can a DIALOG WINDOW have scroll bar attached to it ?

a. Yes
b. No
15.Explicity we can assign transaction to a rollback segment

a. True
b. False
16. What is the difference between a LIST BOX and a COMBO BOX ?
a. In the list box, the user is restricted to selecting a value from a list but combo
box the user can type in value which is not in the list
b. A list box is a data entry area while a combo box can be used only for control
purposes
c. In a combo box, the user is restricted to selecting a value from a list but in a
list box the
user can type in a value which is not in the list
17. Why is it better to use an INTEGRITY CONSTRAINT to validate data in a

table than to use a STORED PROCEDURE ?
a. Because an integrity constraint is automatically checked while data is inserted
into or updated in a table while a stored procedure has to be specifically invoked
b. Because the stored procedure occupies more space in the database than a
integrity constraint definition
c. Because a stored procedure creates more network traffic than a integrity
constraint definition
18. Which of the following is not an reason for the fact that most of the processing
is done at the server ?
a. To reduce network traffic.
b. For application sharing
c. To implement business rules centrally,
19. Which of the following is not an advantage of a client/server model ?
a. A client/server model allows centralised control of data and centralised

implementation of business rules.
b. A client/server model increases developer;s productivity
c. A client/server model is suitable for all applications
d. None of the above.
20. What does DLL stands for ?

a. Dynamic Language Library
b. Dynamic Link Library
c. Dynamic Load Library
21. POST-BLOCK trigger is a

a. Navigational trigger
b. Key trigger
c .Transactional trigger
22. The system variable that records the select statement that SQL * FORMS most
recently used to populate a block is
a. SYSTEM.LAST_RECORD
b.SYSTEM.CURSOR_RECORD
c. SYSTEM.CURSOR_FIELD
d. SYSTEM.LAST_QUERY

23. Which of the following is TRUE for the ENFORCE KEY field
a. ENFORCE KEY field characterstic indicates the source of the value that
SQL*FORMS uses to populate the field
b. A field with the ENFORCE KEY characterstic should have the INPUT
ALLOWED
charaterstic turned off
a .Only 1 is TRUE
b. Only 2 is TRUE
c. Both 1 and 2 are TRUE
d. Both 1 and 2 are FALSE
24. The packaged procedure that makes data in form permanent in the Database is
a. Post
b. Post form
c. Commit form
25. Identify the RESTRICTED packaged procedure from the following

a. USER_EXIT
b. MESSAGE
c. BREAK
d. EXIT_FORM
27. Which of the following packaged procedure is UNRESTRICTED ?

a. CALL_INPUT
b. CLEAR_BLOCK
c. EXECUTE_QUERY
d. USER_EXIT
28. A FORM is made up of which of the following objects

a. block, fields only,
b. blocks, fields, pages only,
c. blocks, fields, pages, triggers and form level procedures,
d. Only blocks.
29. Which of the following is TRUE for the SYSTEM VARIABLE $$date$$
a. Can be assigned to a global variable
b. Can be assigned to any field only during design time
c. Can be assigned to any variable or field during run time
30. What is the maximum size of the page ?

a. Characters wide & 265 characters length
b. Characters wide & 265 characters length
c. Characters wide & 80 characters length
31. For the following statements which is true

1. Page is an object owned by a form
2. Pages are a collection of display information such as constant text and
graphics.
a. Only 1 is TRUE
b. Only 2 is TRUE
c. Both 1 & 2 are TRUE
d. Both are FALSE
.
32 . A set of Dictionary tables are created
a. Once for the Entire Database
b. Every time a user is created
c. Every time a Tablespace is created
33. What is a trigger

a. A piece of logic written in PL/SQL
b. Executed at the arrival of a SQL*FORMS event
c. Both A & B
34. Which of the folowing is TRUE for a ERASE packaged procedure

1. ERASE removes an indicated Global variable & releases the memory
associated with it
2. ERASE is used to remove a field from a page
1. Only 1 is TRUE
2. Only 2 is TRUE
3. Both 1 & 2 are TRUE
4. Both 1 & 2 are FALSE

35. What is a DATABLOCK
a. Set of Extents
b. Set of Segments
c. Smallest Database storage unit
36. A Transaction ends

a. Only when it is Committed
b. Only when it is Rolledback
c. When it is Committed or Rolledback
37 . Multiple Table spaces can share a single datafile

a. TRUE
b. FALSE
38. Name the two files that are created when you generate a form using Forms 3.0
a. FMB & FMX
b. FMR & FDX
c. INP & FRM
39. Data dictionary can span across multiple Tablespaces

a. TRUE
b. FALSE
40. All datafiles related to a Tablespace are removed when the Tablespace is
dropped
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
41. Can an Integrity Constraint be enforced on a table if some existing table data
does not satisfy the constraint
a. Yes
b. No
42. A column defined as PRIMARY KEY can have NULL?

a. TRUE
b. FALSE
43. Size of Tablespace can be increased by
a. Increasing the size of one of the Data files
b. Adding one or more Data files
c. Cannot be increased
44. Which of the following is NOT VALID is PL/SQL

a. Bool boolean;
b. NUM1, NUM2 number;
c. deptname dept.dname%type;
d. date1 date := sysdate
45. A database trigger doesnot apply to data loaded before the definition of the
trigger
a.TRUE
b. FALSE
46. Which of the following is not correct about User_Defined Exceptions ?

a. Must be declared
b. Must be raised explicitly
c. Raised automatically in response to an Oracle error
47. Declare
fvar number := null;
svar number := 5;
Begin
goto <<>>
fvar is null then
<<>>
svar:=svar+ 5;
end if;
End;
What will be the value of svar after the execution ?

a. Error
b. 10
c. 5
49. A Stored Procedure is a

a. Sequence of SQL or PL/SQL statements to perform specific function
b. Stored in compiled form in the database
c. Can be called from all client environmets
d. All of the above
50. Which of the following is TRUE

1. Host variables are declared anywhere in the program
2. Host variables are declared in the DECLARE section
a. Only 1 is TRUE
b. Only 2 is TRUE
c. Both 1 & 2are TRUE
d. Both are FALSE
51.What does a COMMIT statements do to a CURSOR

a.Open the Cursor
b.Fetch the Cursor
c.Close the Cursor
d.None of the above
52. Which of the following does not affect the size of the SGA
a. Database buffer
b. Redolog buffer
c. Stored procedure
d. Shared pool
53. Which of the following is not correct about an Exception ?

a. Raised automatically / Explicitly in response to an ORACLE_ERROR
b. An exception will be raised when an error occurs in that block
c. Process terminates after completion of error sequence.
d. A Procedure or Sequence of statements may be processed.
54. PL/SQL supports data type(s)

a. Scalar datatype
b. Composite datatype
c. All of the above

55. Dedicated server configuration is

a)One server process – Many user processes
b)Many server processes- One user process
c)One server processes—One user process
d)Many server processes—Many user processes
56. Which of the following is not correct about Cursor ?

a. Cursor is a named Private SQL area
b. Cursor holds temporary results
c. Cursor is used for retrieving multiple rows
d. SQL uses implicit Cursors to retrieve rows
57. Is it possible to open a cursor which is in a Package in another procedure ?

a. Yes
b. No
58.What are different event in triggers?

a. Define, Create
b. Drop, Comment
c. Insert, Update, Delete
d. All of the above
59. Is it possible to Enable or Disable a Database trigger ?

a. Yes
b. No
60. A Database Procedure is stored in the Database
a In compiled form
b. As source code
c. Both A & B
d. Not store
61. Find the ODD data type out

a. VARCHAR2
b. RECORD
c. BOOLEAN
d. RAW

62. Which of the following is not correct about the |TABLE| datatype ?
a. Can contain any no of columns
b. Simulates a One-dimensional array of unlimited size
c. Column datatype of any Scalar type
63. Find the ODD one out of the following

a. OPEN
b. CLOSE
c. INSERT
d. FETCH
64. Which of the following statement is false

a. Any procedure can raise an error and return an user message and error number
b. Error number ranging from 20000 to 20999 are reserved for user defined
messages
c. Oracle checks Uniqueness of User defined errors
d. Raise_Application_error is used for raising an user defined error
65. Which is not part of the Data Definiton Language ?

a. CREATE
b. ALTER
c. ALTER SESSION
66. EMPNO ENAME SAL

A822 RAMASWAMY 3500
A812 NARAYAN 5000
A973 UMESH
A500 BALAJI 5750
Using the above data
Select count(sal) from Emp will retrieve
a. 1
b. 0
c. 3

67. Declare
a number := 5; b number := null; c number := 10;
Begin
if a > b AND a ( Select count(*) from Emp E2 where E1.SAL > E2.SAL ) will
retrieve
a. 3500,5000,2500
b. 5000,2850
c. 2850,5750
d. 5000,5750
68. Is it possible to modify a Data type of a column when column contains data ?
a. Yes
b. No
69. Which of the following is not correct about a View ?

a. To protect some of the columns of a table from other users
b. Ocupies data storage space
c. To hide complexity of a query
d. To hide complexity of a calculations
70. Which of the following is NOT VALID in PL/SQL ?

a. Select into
b. Update
c. Create
d. Delete
71. The Data Manipulation Language statements are

a. INSERT
b. UPDATE
c. SELECT
d. All of the above

72. GET_BLOCK property is a

a. Restricted procedure
b. Unrestricted procedure
c. Library function
73. What is built_in Subprogram ?

a. Stored procedure & Function
b. Collection of Subprogram
c. Collection of Packages
74. SHOW_ALERT function returns

a. Boolean
b. Number
c. Character
75. What SYSTEM VARIABLE is used to refer DATABASE TIME ?

a. $$dbtime$$
b. $$time$$
c. $$datetime$$
76. What are the different events in Triggers ?

a. Define, Create
b. Drop, Comment
c. Insert, Update, Delete
d. All of the above
77. How can you CALL Reports from Forms4.0 ?

a. Run_Report built_in
b. Call_Report built_in
c. Run_Product built_in
d. Call_Product built_in

78. When do you get a .PLL extension ?
a. Save Library file
b. Generate Library file
c. Run Library file
79. Can we pass RECORD GROUP between FORMS ?

a. Yes
b. No
80. What built-in subprogram is used to manipulate images in image items ?

a. Zoom_out
b. Zoom_in?
c. Image_zoom
d. Zoom_image
81. Can we use GO_BLOCK package in a PRE_TEXT_ITEM trigger ?

a. Yes
b. No
82. What type of file is used for porting Forms 4.5 applications to various platforms
?
a . FMB file
b . FMX file
c . FMT file
d . EXE file
83. List of Values (LOV) supports

a. Single column
b. Multi column
c. Single or Multi column
84. What is Library in Forms 4.0 ?

a. Collection of External field
b. Collection of built_in packages
c. Collection of PL/SQl functions, procedures and packages
d. Collection of PL/SQL procedures & triggers

85. Can we use a RESTRICTED packaged procedure in WHEN_TEXT_ITEM
trigger ?
a. Yes
b. No
86. A CONTROL BLOCK can sometimes refer to a BASE TABLE ?

a. TRUE
b. FALSE
87. What do you mean by CHECK BOX ?

a. Two state control
b. One state control
c. Three state control
d. none of the above
88. What built_in procedure is used to get IMAGES in Forms 4.5 ?

a. READ_IMAGE_FILE
b. GET_IMAGE_FILE
c. READ_FILE
d. GET_FILE
89. When a form is invoked with CALL_FORM does Oracle forms issues
SAVEPOINT ?
a.Yes
b. No
90. Can we attach the same LOV to different fields in Design time ?
a. Yes
b. No
91. Identify the Odd one of the following statements ?

a. Poplist
b. Tlist
c. List of values
d. Combo box

92. Can you copy the PROGRAM UNIT into an Object group ?
a. Yes
b. No
93. What is an ALERT ?

a. Modeless window
b. Modal window
c. Both are TRUE
94. How do you pass values from one form to another form ?
a. LOV
b. Parameters
c. Local variables
95. What is a Built_in subprogram ?

a. Library
b. Stored procedure & Function
c. Collection of Subprograms
96. What is a RADIO GROUP ?

a. Mutually exclusive
b. Select more than one column
c. Above all TRUE
d. Above all FALSE
97. When is a .FMB file extension is created in Forms 4.5 ?

a. Generating form
b. Executing form
c. Save form
d. Run form
98. Can MULTIPLE DOCUMENT INTERFACE (MDI) be used in Forms 4.5 ?

a. Yes
b. No

99. Can an Alert message be changed at runtime ?
a. Yes
b. No
100. Can we create an LOV without an RECORD GROUP ?

a. Yes
b. No
101. If the maximum records retrieved property of a query is set to 10, then a
summary value will be calculated
a. Only for 10 records
b. For all the records retrieved
c. For all the records in the referenced table
102. EXP command is used

a)To take Backup of the Oracle database
b)To import data form the exported dump file
c)To create Rollback segments
d)None of the above
103. What are the types of Calculated columns available?

a)Summary, Place holder and Procedure column
b)Summary, Procedure and Formula columns
c)Procedure, Formula and Place holder columns
d)Summary, Formula and Place holder columns
104. What are the different file extensions that are created by Oracle Reports?
a).RDF file & .RPX file
b).RDX file & .RDF file
c).REP file & .RDF file
d)None of the above

COMPUTER NETWORKS
1. A protocol that provides configuration information from a table is called…..
A. BGP
B. BOOTP
C. FTP
D. None of the above
2. CIDR stands for

A. Code Inter Domain Routing
B. Code Inter Division Routing
C. Classless Inter Domain Routing
D.Classful Inter Domain Routing
3. The Building block of a Wireless LAN as defined by IEEE 802.11 standard ?

A.BSS
B.ESS
C.Both(A) & (B)
D.None of the above
4. A Technique in which a protocol used for address resolution is called…..

A. Dynamic routing
B. Dynamic mapping
C. Exterior routing
5. Which of the following converts user friendly names to IP addresses ?

A. Domain Name Space
B. Domain Name System
C. DHCP
D.None of the above
6. In PPP, A three- way handshaking protocol used for authentication is known as…...
A. CHAP
B. BOOTP
C. FTP

7. Which of the following is an application service for the retrieving a web document ?
A. HTML
B. HTTP
C. FTP
8. You are in the process of analyzing a problem that requires you to collect and store
TCP/ IP Packets.Which of the following utilities is best suited for this purpose?
A. Performance Moniter
B. Network Moniter
C. NETSTAT
D. NBTSTAT
9. A protocol in which the sender sends one frame and stops until it receives confirmat
from the receiver?
A. Stop and Wait ARQ
B. Store and forward switch
C. Stop and Wait protocol
10. An addressing method in which the IP address space is not divided into classes?
A. Classful addressing
B. Classless addressing
C. Classless IDR
D.None of the above
11. The number of differences between the corresponding bits in a two data words is
known as…….distance
A. Hanning
B. Hamming
C. Huffman
12. An Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) request is__________

A. Unicast
B. Anycast
C. Broadcast

13. Which of the following protocol provides confidentiality and authentication for
an e-mail?
A. BGP
B. BOOTP
C. PGP
14. RARP stands for_________

A. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol
B. Reverse Address Routing Protocol
C. Reverse Address Reflexive Protocol
D. Resource Address Resolution Protocol
15. The loss of signal‘s energy due to the resistance of medium is called………
A. Fragmentation
B. Attenuation
C. Synchronization
16. The splitting of a message into multiple packets at transport layer is known
as__________
A. Fragmentation
B. Segmentation
C. Synchronization
17.An array of switches that are used to reduce the number of cross points is called……
A. Single stage switch
B. Dual stage switch
C.Multistage switch
D.None of the above
18. An application protocol of TCP/IP that allows remote login is known as……….
A. NCP
B. NVT
C. NAV

19. In Wireless LAN‘s, a time interval between two frames to control access to the
channel is called………
A. Interframe space
B. Interleaving
C. Interior routing
20. Communication in a Hybrid Fiber Coaxial (HFC) cable TV network can be

A. Unidirecional
B. Bidirectional
C. Multidirectional
21. Circuit switching uses

A. Space Division Switch
B. Time Division Switch
C. Either(A) or (B)
22. TFTP stands for……..

A. Trivial File Transfer Protocol
B. Temporary File Transfer Protocol
C. Trunk File Transfer Protocol
D. Transparent File Transfer Protocol
23. Encryption and decryption if data are the responsibility of…….layer

A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Transport
D. Presentation
24. What is the main function of transport layer in the OSI model?
A. Peer to peer message delivery
B. Node to node message delivery
C. Process to process message delivery

25. ADSL stands for
A. Asynchronous Digital Subscriber Line
B. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
C. Advanceed Digital Subscriber Line
D. Asynchronous Digital Security Line
26. In OSI model, as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers
are _____
A. Added
B. Removed
C. Deleted
D. Edited
27. Which of the following layer is the User Support layer?

A. Session layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Application layer
D. All of the above
28. OSI stands for……

A. Open Systems Interconnection
B. Original Systems Interconnection
C. Original Security Interconnection
D. Open Software Interconnection
29. Port address in TCP/IP is…..bits long

A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
30. IEEE 802.3 standard used what method as the media access method?
A. CSMA/CD
B. CSMA/CA
C. CDMA
D. FDMA

31. Error detection at the data link layer is achieved by………
A. Hamming code
B. Cyclic Redundancy code
C. Bit Stuffing
D. Synchronization
32. What is the key element of a Protocol?

A. Syntax
B. Semantics
C. Timing
D. All of the above
33. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of

A. 100 Mbps
B. 1000 Mbps
C. 500 Mbps
D. None
34. WEP stands for

A. Wireless Equivalent Privacy
B. Wired Equivalent Privacy
C. Wired Equivalent Protocol
D. Wireless Equivalent Protocol
35. What is the minimum & maximum frame length for 10 Mbps Ethernet?
A. 32 bytes,64 bytes
B. 64 bytes,128 bytes
C. 64 bytes,1518 bytes
D. 32 bytes, 1518 bytes
36. SNMP stands for

A. Simple Network Management Protocol
B. Sample Network Management Protocol
C. Structured Network Management Protocol
D. Security Network Management Protocol

37. The data link layer of Ethernet consists of
A. LLC Sublayer
B. MAC Sublayer
C. Both (A) & (B)
D. Only B
38. Which of the following is a security protocol designed to provide a wireless LAN
with better security and privacy?
A. WEP
B. SNMP
C. WAP
D. LDAP
39. Which of the following is a timer used for Collision Avoidance (CA)?
A. PCF
B. MAC
C. NAV
40. Which of the following refers to a groups of standards that are still being developed
as a part of overall IEEE 802.11 WLAN support?
A. 802.11
B. 802.11x
C. Both (A) & (B)
41. Ethernet, token ring and token bus are types of……..
A. MAN
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. None
42. What is the name of network topology in which there are bidirectional links betwee
each possible node?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. None

43. Peer-to-peer (P2P) is a ……….communications model
A. Centralized
B. Decentralized
C. Client/server
D. None
44. Which TCP/IP protocol is used for file transfer with minimal capability and minim
overhead?
A. SGMP
B. TFTP
C. SUMP
D. None
45. An IPV6 address is……. Bits long

A. 64
B. 128
C. 256
D. 512
46. Fiber Distributed Data interface (FDDI) is an example of which topology?

A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. None
47. An IPV4 address is……. Bits long

A. 64
B. 128
C. 256
D. 32
48. How many classes are there in IPV4 addresses?

A. 7
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

49. Addresses in class D are used for……
A. Unicast Communication
B. Multicast Communication
C. Both (A) & (B)
D. None
50. Switch is a device of……Layer of OSI model?

A. Physical
B. Datalink
C. Application
D. Session
51. Packets are found at which layer?

A. Physical
B. Datalink
C. Application
D. Network
52. What are the three types of addresses in IPV6?

A. Class A,Class B, Class C
B. Unicast,anycast,multicast
C. Unicast,dual cast,multicast
D. None
53. An http request contains how many parts?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
54. A device which devices the incoming signal into low frequencies to sec to voice
device, and high frequencies for data to the computer.
A. Multicast router
B. Interface
C. Splitter
D. None

55. The IP address 135.0.10.27 belongs to address class?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. None
56. Which layer establishes, maintains & Synchronizes the interaction between
communicating devices?
A. Physical
B. Datalink
C. Application
D. Session
57. The Access method used in DCF MAC sub-layer is

A. CSMA/CD
B. CSMA/CA
C. Polling
D. None
58. Which of the following function is performed by TCP?

A. Flow Control
B. Error checking
C. Subnetting
D. All of the above
59. Which protocol is used to eliminate loops?

A. TCP/IP
B. Spanning Tree Protocol
C. SMTP
D. None
60. What kind of scheme is the http protocol?

A. Get/put
B. Request/response
C. Store/forward
D. Queuing

61. Which layer is the closed to transmission medium?
A. Transport layer
B. Physical layer
C. Network layer
D. Datalink layer
62. At which layer TCP/IP defines two protocols: Transmission control Protocol(TCP)
and Use Datagram Protocol(UDP)?
A. Transport layer
B. Application layer
C. Network layer
D. Datalink layer
63. Which of the following uses the greatest number of layers in the OSI model?
A. Bridge
B. Repeater
C. Router
D. Gateway
64. Which of the following is an example of client-server model?

A. FTP
B. DNS
C. TELNET
D. All of the above
65. Which PPP Protocol provides authentication and dynamic addressing?

A. LCP
B. NCP
C. RIP
D. None
66. Which of the following layer is the network support layer?

A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. All of the above

67. Which Protocol use link state routing?
A. OSPF
B. NCP
C. RIP
D. None
68. Which protocol does Ping use?

A. UDP
B. ICMP
C. TCP/IP
D. None
69. UDP stands for

A. User Datagram Protocol
B. User Data Protocol
C. Unlimited Datagram Protocol
D. None
70. Which protocol working at the Transport layer provides a connectionless service
between hosts?
A. UDP
B. ARP
C. TCP/IP
D. None
71. With respect to a network interface card, the term 10/100 refers to
A. Protocol Speed
B. A fiber speed
C. Megabits per second
D. None
72. If you Want to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol
Would you use
A. UDP
B. ARP
C. NCP
D. None

73. What protocol does PPP use to identify the Network Layer Protocol?
A. UDP
B. ICMP
C. NCP
D. None
74. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring electronic mail
messages from one machine to another?
A. TCP
B. SMTP
C. NCP
D. None
75. ________is the continuous abilty to send and receive data between interconnected
networks.
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. TNS
D. Network interoperability
76. ______ is primarily used for mapping host names and email destinations to IP
address
A. TCP
B. DNS
C. NCP
D. None
77. What is the default subnet mask for a class B network?

A. 127.0.0.1
B. 2550.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0
78. What is loopback address?

A. 127.0.0.1
B. 255.0.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 127.0.0.0
79. What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?

A. 127.0.0.1
B. 2550.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0
80. A networking device that receives a signal on an electromagnetic oe an optical

transmission medium, amplifies the signal,and then retransmits it along the medium
called.
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Transmitter
D. Repeater
81. What is the default subnet mask for a class A network?

A. 127.0.0.1
B. 255.0.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0
82. A central computer surround by one or more satellite computers is called a

A. Bus network
B.Ring network
C. Star network
D.None of these
83. Which of the following organization defines standards for modems?

A. IEEE
B. CCITT
C. BELL
D. None
84. Which topology requires a hub?

A. Ring
B. Star
C. Bus
D. None

85. UTP stands for
A. Unshielded Twisted Pair
B. Unshielded Twisted Port
C. Uniformly Twisted Pair
D. None
86. Which OSI layer divides a file into segments that are anefficient size for routing?
A. Transport Layer
B. NetworK Layer
C. Datalink Layer
D. None
87. FDDI stands for

A. Fiber Data Distribution interface
B. Fiber Distributed Data interface
C. Fixed Data Distribution Interface
D. None
88. A networking device that forwards data packets along networks and acts as a centra
point of network is called
A. Repeater
B. Router
C. Bridge
D. Hub
89. Repeater operates in which layer of OSI model?

A. application layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Physical layer
D . Transport layer
90. Where dose Bridge operate in OSI model?

A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Both (1) and (2)
D. Application layer

91. _________ uses a standard called IFEE 802.
A.LAN
B.WAN
C.MAN
D.PAN
92. Which of the following are the types of internal Network Cards?
A. Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI), Wireless Network Card
B. Industry Standard Architecture (ISA), Wireless Network Card
C. Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI),Industry Standard Architecture (ISA)
93. Which of the following IEEE Standard is used for Wi-fi system?
A. 802.11
B. 802. 1
C. 802.2
D. 802.10
94. __________ refers to a family of IEEE standards dealing with local area network a
metropolitan area network.
A. 802
B. 800
C. 801
D. 803
95. Which is the general network standard for the data link layer in the OSI Reference
Model?
A. IEEE 802.1
B. IEEE 802.2
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.4
96. A communication network which is used is used by large organization over regiona
national or global area is called______
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. MAN
D. PAN

97. Routers operate in which layer of the OSI model?
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network Layer
D. All of these
98. The access method used in PCF MAC sub-layer is
A. CSMA/CD
B. CSMA/CA
C. Polling
99 The area of coverage of satellite radio beam is known as

A.Footprint
B.dentity
C.Beam Width
D. None of these
100. SONET stands for

A.synchronous optical network
B.synchromous operational network
C. stream optical network
D. shell operational network
101. In SONET, each synchronous transfer signal STS-n is composed of

A.2000 frames
B.4000 frames
C.8000 frames
D.16000 frames
102. WiMAX stands for

A.wireless maximum communication
B. worldwide interoperability for microwave access
C. worldwide international standard for microwave access
D.none of the above

103. WiMAX provides
A. simplex communication
B. half duplex communication
C. full duplex communication
D.none of the above
104. WiMAX is mostly used for

A.LAN
B.MAN
C. PAN
D. none of the above

DATA STRUCTURE
1. In linked list , an element can be inserted at_______
(A)Beginning of the list
(B)End of the list
(C)Middle of the list
(D)Both (A) & (B)
2. The Array as an Abstract Data Type (ADT) supports ….. operations.

(A)Store
(B)Retrieve
(C)Both (A) & (B)
3.Stack is also called_______

(A)Pop up array
(B)Pop down list
(C)Push down list
(D)None of the list above
4.A characteristic of the data that binary search uses but linear search ignores
is______
(A)Order of the list
(B)Length of the list
(C)Both (A) & (B)
5.Sequential representation of binary tree uses ________

(A)Three dimensional arrays
(B)Array with pointers
(C)Two dimensional arrays

6. A sort which iteratively passes through a list to exchange the first element with
any element less than it and then repeats with a new first element is called____
(A)Heap Sort
(B)Quick Sort
(C) Selection sort
7.In an extended _ binary tree, the nodes with two children are called…..
(A)Interior node
(B)Domestic node
(C)Internal node
(D)Inner node
8.Which of the following is / are real time application (S) of Circular linked list?
(A)Printer
(B)Multi player games
(C)Interrupts handling in real _ time system
(D)All of the above
9.Which of the following is useful in traversing a given graph by breadth

first search?
(A)Stack
(B)List
(C)Queue
10.A terminal node in a binary tree is called _______

(A)Child
(B)Leaf
(C)Branch

11.To insert a node in a circular list at rear position, it should be inserted at _____ of
the Queue.
(A)Front _1 position
(B)Rear position
(C)Front position
12. Which of the following begins the search with the element that is located in the
middle of the Array?
(A)Random Search
(B)Parallel Search
(C)Binary Search
(D)Serial Search
13. A postfix expression is merely the ______ of the prefix expression.

(A) Forward
(B) Reverse
(C)Inverse
14. In a Circular Linked list, insertion of a record involves the modification of ___
(A)1 Pointer
(B)2 Pointer
(C)3 Pointer
15. An extra Key inserted at the end of an Array is known as……

(A)Sentinel
(B)Stop Key
(C)Both (A) & (B)

16. A heap allows very efficient implementation of a________

(A)Stack
(B)Tree
(C)Priority queue
17.Linear search is also called……..

(A)Interpolation Search
(B)Transpose Sequential search
(C)Sequential search
18. What is the worst case run-time complexity of binary search algorithm?
(A)Ο(n2)
(B)Ο(nlog n)
(C)Ο(n3)
(D)Ο(n)
19. Which algorithm is not stable?

(A) Bubble sort
(B) Quick sort
(C) Merge sort
(D) Insertion sort
20.In Binary Tree Traversal , the node is visited before its left and right sub trees is
called……
(A)Pre Order
(B)In order
(C)Post order

21.Each position of the hash table is called ….

(A)Bucket
(B)Entry
(C)Cell
(D)Slot
22.Prim‘s algorithm is a________

(A)Greedy algorithm
(B)Backtracking algorithm
(C) Divide and Conquer method
24.The common way of keeping subsequent items within the table and computing
possible positions is termed as ………
(A)Direct Chaining
(B)Open Addressing
(C)Both (A) & (B)
25Which of the following is not a non comparison sort?

(A) Counting sort
(B) Bucket sort
(C) Radix sort
(D) Shell sort
26.Which of the following is used to find the location of an element with a given
value ?
(A)Search
(B)Iteration
(C)Traversal

27.The space required to store the values of all the constants and variables is
called________
(A)Instruction space
(B)Data space
(C)Enviornment space
28.Which algorithm solves the all pairs shortest path problem?

(A)Floyd‘s algorithm
(B)Prim‘s algorithm
(C)Both (A) & (B)
29.In Heap data structure, if the parent nodes are greater than their children
Nodes then it is called________
(A)Max Heap
(B)Min Heap
(C)Both (A) & (B)
30.Which of the following data structure stores homogeneous data elements ?

(A)Record
(B)Pointer
(C)Linear Array
31.Circular linked list can also be used to create_______

(A)Priority Queue
(B)Double ended Queue
(C)Circular queue

32.Which of the following is non linear data structure?

(A)Stack
(B)Tree
(C)Queue
33.Linked lists are used to implement_________

(A)Stacks
(B)Graphs
(C)Queues
(D)All of the above
34.Pre order traversal is also known as…..

(A)Depth-first order
(B)End order
(C)Symmetric order
35.Which of the following is not a stable sort?

(A)Insertion sort
(B)Heap sort
(C)Merge sort
36.Queues can be used to implement……

(A)Recursion
(B)Quick sort
(C)Radix sort

37. The largest elements of an Array Index is called………….
(A)Range
(B)Upper bound
(C)Lower bound
38.Which of the following is / are real-time application (s) of Queue?

(A)Printer
(B)CPU task Scheduling
(C)Interrupts handling in real- time systems
(D)All of the above
39.An algorithm that calls that calls itself directly or indirectly is called………
(A)Iteration
(B)Recursion
(C)Traversal
40.Which data structure is used for implementing recursion ?

(A)Queue
(B)Stack
(C)Array
(D)List
41. The Quick sort algorithm divides the list into_______Main parts
(A)Four
(B)Six
(C)Five
(D)Three

42.The term ― PUSH‖ is used to………… an element into a stack
(A)Update
(B)Edit
(C)Insert
43.……is a header list in which the last node contains the null pointer.
(A)Circular Header list
(B)Grounded Header list
(C)Both (A) & (B)
44.The condition ―FORNT = NULL ― represent that the queue is………….

(A)Overflow
(B)Empty
(C)Full
45.Which data structure represents hierarchical relationship between various
elements ?
(A)Linked list
(B)Tree
(C)Array
46.In a circular linked list, insertion of a record involves modification of

(A)Multiple pointer
(B)One pointer
(C)Two pointer
(D)None of these

47.The process of accessing data stored in a tape is similar to handle data
on………………….
(A)Linked list
(B)Tree
(C)Array
(D)Queue
48.In Binary Tree Traversal , The node is visited between the sub trees is
called………..
(A)Pre-order traversal
(B)In- order traversal
(C)Post –order traversal
49.Which of the following data structure is indexed data structure ?

(A)Linked List
(B)Stack
(C)Queue
(D)Linear Array
50. Which of the following sorting algorithm is not an internal sort ?
(A)Bubble Sort
(B)Insertion Sort
(C)Merge Sort
(D)Heap Sort
51.In Queue, the elements added at …….end
(A)Front
(B)Rear
(C)Top
(D)Base

52.The terms ―POP‖ And ―PUSH ― are related to………
(A)Queue
(B)Stack
(C)Linked list
53.Which of the following search start at the beginning of the list and each
elements in the list ?
(A)Linear Search
(B)Binary Tree search
(C)Hash search
54. Stack is also called a……….
(A)Last In First Out
(B)First In First Out
(C)LIFO & FIFO
55.Which data structure is required to check balanced parenthesis In an
expression ?
(A)Linked list
(B)Queue
(C)Tree
(D)Stack
56.The memory address of the first elements of an array is called………
(A)First address
(B)Floor address
(C)Base address

57.The complexity of shell sort is
(A)O(log)
(B)O(n^2)
(C)O( n(log n ) ^2)
58.Which of the following is a linear data structure ?
(A)Array
(B)Graph
(C)Tree
59. The complexity of Heap sort algorithm is
(A)O ( n^2 )
(B)O ( n log n)
(C)O (1)
(D)None of the these
60. ………….. is a queue with limited number of elements.
(A)Bounded queue
(B)Unbounded queue
(C)Both A and B
61.An odd-even sort is also called………………..

(A)Bubble Sort
(B)Heap Sort
(C)Quick Sort
(D)Brick Sort

62.A linked list is also called
(A)One way list
(B)Multi way list
(C)Single way list
63.………………. contains the information about an array used in a program.

(A)Dope Vector
(B)Record
(C)Table
64.Which data structure is needed to convert infix notation to post fix notation ?
(A)Branch
(B)Queue
(C)Tree
(D)Stack
65.The term DEQUE refers…………..

(A)Single ended queue
(B)Double ended queue
(C)Both ( A) & (B)
66.Which of the following data structure is required to evaluate a post fix
expression ?
(A)Stack
(B)Linked list
(C)Array

67.A linked list that has no beginning and no end is called………..
(A)Doubly linked list
(B)Singly linked list
(C)Circular linked list
68.In order traversal is also known as……………..
(A)Pre order
(B)Symmetric order
(C)End order
69.A matrix in which number of zero elements are much higher than the number
of non zero elements is called
(A)Scalar Matrix
(B)Identity Matrix
(C)Sparse Matrix
70.A sort that compares each element with its adjacent elements in a list is
called……..
(A)Bubble Sort
(B)Insertion Sort
(C)Quick Sort
(D)Heap Sort
71.Which of the following is the slowest sorting algorithm ?

(A)Heap sort
(B)Insertion sort
(C)Quick sort
(D)Bubble sort

72.……….. is a data structure in which each node has at most two children.
(A)Red-Black Tree
(B)Binary Tree
(C)AVL Tree
73.Which of the following is the best sorting algorithm when the list is already
sorted ?
(A)Bubble Sort
(B)Insertion sort
(C)Recursive
(D)File structure
74. …………….. is a technique to convert a range of key values into a range of

Indices of an Array ?
(A)Thrashing
(B)Hashing
(C)Interpolation
75.The representation of data structure in memory is called

(A)Memory structure
(B)Abstract data type
(C)Recursive
(D)File structure
76.A linear list in which elements can be added/ removed at either end but not in
the middle is called
(A)Deque
(B)Stack
(C)List
(D)Queue

77.The draw back of the binary tree sort is remedied by

(A)Bubble sort
(B)Insertion sort
(C)Quick sort
(D)Heap sort
78.A queue is a …………… data structure
(A)Last in first Out (LIFO)
(B)Linear Array
(C)First in first out (FIFO)
79.Which of the following is the method of graph traversal ?
(A)Breadth first search
(B)Depth first search
(C)Both A and B
80.The smallest elements of an Array‘ s index is known as……….
(A)Range
(B)Upper bound
(C)Lower bound
81. Travelling salesman problem is an example of
(A)Greedy Algorithm
(B)Dynamic Algorithm
(C)Recursive Algorithm
(D)Divide & Conquer

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
1) What is Software ?
a. Set of computer programs, procedures and possibly associated document
concerned with the operation of data processing.
b. A set of compiler instructions
c. A mathematical formula
d. None of above
2) Management of software development is dependent upon ?
a. People
b. Product
c. Process
d. All of above
3) Which of the following is not a product matrix ?

a. Size
b. Reliability
c. Productivity
d. Functionality
4) Spiral Model was developed by?
a. Bev Littlewood
b. Berry Bohem
c. Roger Pressman
d. Victor Bisili
5) Efforts is measured in terms of ?
a. Person - Months
b. Persons
c. Rupees
d. Months

8) During software development which factor is most crucial ?
a. People
b. Process
c. Product
d. Project
9) Which of the following is not the characteristic of software ?

a. Software does not wear out
b. Software is flexible
c. Software is not manufactured
d. Software is always correct
10) Milestones are used to ?

a. Know the cost of the project
b. Know the status of the project
c. Know the user expectations
11) Which of the following is not a process metric ?
a. Productivity
b. Functionality
c. Quality
d. Efficiency
12) The term module in the design phase refers to ?
a. Functions
b. Procedures
c. Sub programs
d. All of the above
13) Which model is popular for students small projects ?
a. Waterfall Model
b. Spiral Model
c. Quick and Fix model
d. Prototyping Model

14) Infrastructure software are covered under ?
a. Generic Products
b. Customised Products
c. Generic and Customised Products
15) Which is not a software life cycle model?

a. Spiral Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping Model
d. Capability maturity Model
16) Software engineering aims at developing ?
a. Reliable Software
b. Cost Effective Software
c. Reliable and cost effective Software
d. None Of Above
17) SDLC stands for ?
a. Software design life cycle

b. Software development life cycle
c. System design life cycle
d. System development life cycle
18) SRS stands for ?

a. Software requirement specification
b. Software requirement solution
c. System requirement specification
d. None of Above
19) Waterfall model is not suitable for ?

a. Small Projects
b. Complex Projects
c. Accommodating change
d. None of Above
20) RAD stands for ?
a. Rapid Application Development

b. Relative Application Development
c. Ready Application Development
d. Repeated Application Development
21) Project risk factor is considered in ?

a. Spiral Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping Model
d. Iterative enhancement Model
22) RAD Model was purposed by ?

a. IBM
b. Motorola
c. Microsoft
d. Lucent Technologies
23) A good specification should be ?
a. Unambiguous
b. Distinctly Specific
c. Functional
d. All of Above
24) Build and Fix model has?
a. 3 Phases
b. 1 Phases
c. 2 Phases
d. 4 Phases
25) Which of the following is a tool in design phase ?
a. Abstraction
b. Refinement
c. Information Hiding
d. All of Above

26) Information hiding is to hide from user, details ?
a. that are relevant to him

b. that are not relevant to him
c. that may be maliciously handled by him
d. that are confidential
27) The objective of testing is ?
a. Debugging
b. To uncover errors
c. To gain modularity
d. To analyze system
28) Design phase includes?
a. data, architectural and procedural design only

b. architectural, procedural and interface design only
c. data, architectural and interface design only
d. data, architectural, interface and procedural design
29) White box testing, a software testing technique is sometimes

called ?
a. Basic path
b. Graph Testing
c. Dataflow
d. Glass box testing
30) An important aspect of coding is ?
a. Readability
b. Productivity
c. To use as small memory space as possible
d. Brevity

31) Black box testing sometimes called ?
a. Data Flow testing

b. Loop Testing
c. Behavioral Testing
d. Graph Based Testing
32) Which of the following is a type of testing ?

a. Recovery Testing
b. Security Testing
c. Stress Testing
d. All of above
33) Which of the following comments about object oriented design

of software, is not true ?
a. Objects inherit the properties of class

b. Classes are defined based on the attributes of objects
c. an object can belong to two classes
d. classes are always different
34) ...... is a black box testing method ?
a. Boundary value analysis

b. Basic path testing
c. Code path analysis
d. None of above
35) Structured programming codes includes ?
a. Sequencing
b. Alteration
c. Iteration
d. Multiple exit from loops
e. Only a, b and c

36) If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1%
in assembly language the percentage increase in the execution time,
compared to writing the 1% in assembly language is ?
a. 0.9
b. 0.1
c. 1
d. 0
37)Data structure suitable for the application is discussed in ?
a. data design
b. architectural design
c. procedural design
d. interface design
38) In object oriented design of software , objects have ?
a. attributes and names only

b. operations and names only
c. attributes, name and operations
d. None of above
39) A turnkey package includes ?
a. Software
b. Hardware
c. Traning
d. All of above
40) In the system concepts, term organization ?

a. implies structure and order
b. refers to the manner in which each component fuctions with other
components of the system
c. refers to the holism of system
d. means that part of the computer system depend on one another

41)Detailed design is expressed by ?
a. CSPEC
b. PSPEC
c. MINI SPEC
d. Code SPEC
42) Project indicator enables a software project manager to ?
a. assess the status of an ongoing project

b. track potential risks
c. uncover problem araes before they " go critical "
d. All of above
43) ............ Developed a set of software quality factors that has

been given the acronym FURPS - Functinality, Usability,
Reliability, performance, Supportability ?
a. Hewlett - Packard
b. Rambaugh
c. Booch
d. Jacobson
44) In system design, we do following ?

a. Hardware design after software
b. Software design after hardware
c. Parallel hardware and software design
d. No hardware design needed
45) Function oriented metrics were first proposed by ?

a. John
b. Gaffney
c. Albrecht
d. Basili

46) The document listing all procedures and regulations that generally
govern an organization is the ?
a. Personal poling bank

b. Organizing manual
c. Administration policy manual
d. Procedure log
47) In the system concepts, the term integration ?

a. implies structure and order
b. refers to the manner in which each component functions with other
components of the system
c. means that parts of computer system depends on one another
d. refers to the holism of systems
48) Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing
is applied for each class. Class tests includes ?
a. Fault based testing

b. Random testing
c. Partition teting
d. All of above
49) In functional decomposition, the data flow diagram ?

a. is ignored
b. is partitioned according to the closeness of the datagram and storage items
c. is partitioned according to the logical closeness of the actigram
d. Both A and C
e. None of above
50) A quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component, or

process posses a given attribute ?
a. Measure
b. Measurement
c. Metric
d. None of these

51) A graphic representation of an information system is called ?
a. Flow chart
b. Pictogram
c. Data flow diagram
d. Histogram
e. None of above
52) In risk analysis of spiral model, which of the following risk includes ?
a. Technical
b. Management
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
53) Which of the following is done in order a data in phase 1 of the system
development life cycle ?
a. Reviewing policies and procedures

b. Using questionnaires to contact surveys
c. Conducting Interviews
d. All of above
e. None of above
54) The model remains operative until the software is retired ?
a. Waterfall
b. Incremental
c. Spiral
d. None of these
55) To avoid errors in transcription and transposition, during data entry the
system analyst should ?
a. Provide for a check digit
b. Provide for a hash totals
c. Provide batch totals
d. All of above

56) RAD is not appropriate when ?
a. Fast finding already done

b. Technical risks are high
c. Testing is not needed
d. None of above
57) RAD is a linear sequential software development process model. RAD is

an acronym for ?
a. Rapid Application Development

b. Rapid Action Development
c. Rough Application Development
d. Rough Action Development

C/ C++ Programming
1. Value of ix+j, if i,j are integer type and ix long type would be
a. integer
b. float
c. long integer
d. double precision
2. If the class name is X, what is the type of its “this” pointer (in a non-static,
non-
const member function)?
a. const X* const
b. X* const
c. X*
d. X&
3. What's wrong? (x = 4 && y = 5) ? (a = 5) ; (b = 6);

a. the question mark should be an equal sign
b. the first semicolon should be a colon
c. there are too many variables in the statement
d. the conditional operator is only used with apstrings
4. Which classes allow primitive types to be accessed as objects?

a. Storage
b. Virtual
c. Friend
d. Wrapper
5. Which one of the following is not a fundamental data type in C++

a. float
b. string
c. int
d. wchar_t

6. What's wrong? for (int k = 2, k <=12, k++)
a. the increment should always be ++k
b. the variable must always be the letter i when using a for loop
c. there should be a semicolon at the end of the statement
d. the commas should be semicolons
7. Vtables
a. creates a static table per class
b. creates a static table per object
c. creates a dynamic table per class
d. creates a dynamic table per object
8. Which of the following is a valid destructor of the class name "Country"

a. int ~Country()
b. void Country()
c. int ~Country(Country obj)
d. void ~Country()
9. Which of the following correctly describes C++ language?

a. Statically typed language
b. Dynamically typed language
c. Both Statically and dynamically typed language
d. Type-less language
10. Which of the following is the most preferred way of throwing and
handling exceptions?
a. Throw by value and catch by reference.
b. Throw by reference and catch by reference.
c. Throw by value and catch by value
d. Throw the pointer value and provide catch for teh pointer type.
11. A continue statement causes execution to skip to

a. the return 0; statement
b. the first statement after the loop
c. the statement following the continue statement
d. the next iteration of the loop

12. Which of the following is not recommended in a header file?
a. Type definitions (typedefs)
b. Class definitions
c. Function definitions
d. Template definitions
13. Which of the following keyword supports dynamic method resolution?

a. abstract
b. Virtual
c. Dynamic
d. Typeid
14. Which of the STL containers store the elements contiguously (in adjecent
memory locations)?
a. std::vector
b. std::list
c. std::map
d. std::set
15. When is std::bad_alloc exception thrown?

a. When new operator cannot allocate memory
b. When alloc function fails
c. When type requested for new operation is considered bad, thisexception is
thrown
d. When delete operator cannot delete teh allocated (corrupted) object
16. Which of the following is not a standard exception built in C++.

a. std::bad_creat
b. std::bad_alloc
c. std::bad_cast
d. std::bad_typeid
17. Which of the following is not true about preprocessor directives

a. They begin with a hash symbol
b. They are processed by a preprocessor
c. They form an integral part of the code
d. They have to end with a semi colon

18. What is the difference between overloaded functions and overridden
functions?
a. Overloading is a dynamic or run-time binding and Overriding is static or
compile- time binding
b. Redefining a function in a friend class is called function overriding while
Redefining a function in a derived class is called a overloaded fucntion.
c. Overloading is a static or compile-time binding and Overriding is dynamic
or run-time binding
d. Redefining a function in a friend class is called function overloading while
Redefining a function in a derived class is called as overridden fucnion.
19. Which one of the following is not a valid reserved keyword in C++
a. Explicit
b. Public
c. Implicit
d. Private
20. Which of the following functions below can be used Allocate space for
array in memory?
a. calloc()
b. malloc()
c. Realloc()
d. both a and b
21. Each pass through a loop is called a/an
a. enumeration
b. iteration
c. culmination
d. pass through
22. Which of the following correctly describes the meaning of „namespace‟

feature in C++?
a. Namespaces refer to the memory space allocated for names used in a
program
b. Namespaces refer to space between teh names in a program
c. Namespaces refer to space between the names in a program
d. namespaces provide facilities for organizing the names in a program to
avoid name clashes

23. Which of the following is true about const member functions?
a. const members can be invoked on both const as well as nonconst objects
b. const members can be invoked only on const objects and not on nonconst
objects
c. nonconst members can be invoked on const objects as well as nonconst
objects
24. What's wrong? while( (i < 10) && (i > 24))

a. the logical operator && cannot be used in a test condition
b. the while loop is an exit-condition loop
c. the test condition is always false
d. the test condition is always true
25. Which of the following relationship is known as inheritancerelationship?

a. ‗has-a‘ relationship
b. ‗is-a‘ relationship
c. association relationship
26. If class A is friend of class B and if class B is friend of class C, which of
the following is true?
a. Class C is friend of class A
b. Class A is friend of class C
c. Class A and Class C do not have any friend relationship
27. Seek time is

a. time taken to retrieve a data
b. Time taken by read/write head mechanism to position itself over
appropriate cylinder
c. Time taken by appropriate sector to come under read/write

28. Minimum number of temporary variable needed to swap the contents of
2 variables is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 0
29. „Prime area‟ in context of file system is defined as

a. It is memory area created by operating system
b. It is an area into which data records are written
c. It is the main area of a web page
30. In mulit-list organization

a. Records that have equivalent value for a given secondary index item are
linked together to form a list.
b. Records are loaded in ordered sequence defined by collating sequence by
content of the key
c. Records are directly accessed by record key field
31. Which of the following is not a component of file system
a. Access method
b. Auxiliary storage management
c. Free integrity mechanism
32. Which of the following is/are advantages of cellular partitioned

structure:
a. Simultaneous read operations can be overlapped
b. Search time is reduced
c. Both a & b
33. *ptr++ is equivalenet to:

a. ptr++
b. *ptr
c. ++*ptr

34. Expression C=i++ causes

a. Value of i assigned to C and then i incremented by 1
b. i to be incremented by 1 and then value of i assigned to C
c. Value of i assigned to C
d. i to be incremented by 1
35. The conditional compilation

a. It is taken care of by the compiler
b. It is setting the compiler option conditionally
c. It is compiling a program based on a condition
d. none of above
36. Originally „C‟ was developed as:

a. System programming language
b. General purpose language
c. Data processing language
d. None of abo
37. Latency time is:
a. Time taken by read/write head mechanism to position itself over
appropriate cylinder
b. Time taken to transfer a dta from memory
c. Time taken by appropriate sector to come under read/write head
d. None of above
38. The two types of file structure existing in VSAM file are
a. Key sequenced structure, entry sequenced structure
b. Key sequence structure, exit sequenced structure
c. Entry sequence structure, exit sequenced structure
d. None of above
39. An inverted file
a. Locates information about data in small files that are maintained apart from
actual data record
b. A file which stores opposite records
c. A file which stores information about records of a system
d. None of above

40. Which of the following languages is a subset of C++ language?

a. C language
b. Java Language
c. C# language
d. language
41. How many copies of a class static member are shared between objects of
the class?
a. A copy of the static member is shared by all objects of a class
b. A copy is created only when at least one object is created from that class
c. A copy of the static member is created for each instntiation of the class
d. No memory is allocated for static members of a class
42. The default access level assigned to members of a class is ___________
a. Private
b. Public
c. Protected
d. Needs to be assigned
43. Which of the following correctly describes the meaning of„namespace‟

feature in C++?
a. Namespaces refer to the memory space allocated for names used in a
program
b. Namespaces refer to space between the names in a program
c. Namespaces refer to packing structure of classes in a program.
d. Namespaces provide facilities for organizing the names in aprogram to
avoid name clashes.
44. Which of the following is not a file operation:
a. Repositioning
b. Truncating
c. Appending
d. None of above
45. Which of the following language is not supported by C++?
a. Exception Handling
b. Reflection
c. Operator Overloading
d. Namespaces

46. How do we declare an „interface‟ class?
a. By making all the methods pure virtual in a class
b. By making all the methods abstract using the keyword ‗abstract‘ in a class
c. By declaring the class as interface with the keyword ‗interface‘
d. It is not possible to create interface class in C++
47. Which of the following is not an advantage of secondary memory

a. It is cost-effective
b. It has large storage capacity
c. It has highest speed
d. It is easily portable
48. Which looping process checks the test condition at the end of the loop?
a. for
b. while
c. do-while
d. no looping process checks the test condition at the end
49. What happens when a pointer is deleted twice?

a. It can abort the program
b. It can cause a failure
c. It can cause an error
d. It can cause a trap
50. How do we declare an abstract class?

a. By providing at least one pure virtual method (function signature
followed by ==0;) in a class
b. By declaring at least one method abstract using the keyword ‗abstract‘ in a
class
c. By declaring the class abstract with the keyword ‗abstract‘
d. It is not possible to create abstract classes in C++
51. Which of the following language feature is not an access specifier in

C++?
a. public
b. private
c. C protected
d. internal

52. The statement i++; is equivalent to

a. i = i + i;
b. i = i + 1;
c. i = i - 1;
d. i --;
53. What is the Difference between struct and class in terms of Access
Modifier?
a. By default all the struct members are private while by default class
members are public.
b. By default all the struct members are protected while by default class
members are private.
c. By default all the struct members are public while by default class
members are private.
d. By default all the struct members are public while by default class
members are protected.
54. In C language, a hexadecimal number is represented by writing

a. x
b. xo
c. ox
d. h
55. If a member needs to have unique value for all the objects of that same
class, declare the member as
a. Global variable outside class
b. Local variable inside constructor
c. Static variable inside class
d. Dynamic variable inside class
56. Which of the following below can perform conversions between pointers
to related classes?
a. A. cast_static
b. B.dynamic_cast
c. C.static_cast
d. D.cast_dynamic

57. Generic pointers can be declared with………..

a. auto
b. void
c. asm
d. None of these
58. Which of the following is the most general exception handler that catches
exception of any type?
a. catch(std::exception)
b. catch(std::any_exception)
c. catch(…)
d. catch()
59. class derived: public base1, public base2 { } is an example of
a. Polymorphic inheritance
b. Multilevel inheritance
c. Hierarchical inheritance
d. Multiple inheritance
60. Which of the following is/are pointer-member declared?
a. ->*
b. .*
c. ::*
d. both a and b
61. Which of the following operator cannot be overloaded?

a.#NAME?
b. == (equality operator)
c. –> (row operator)
d. :: (cope resolution operator)
62. In a group of nested loops, which loop is executed the most number of
times?
a. the outermost loop
b. the innermost loop
c. all loops are executed the same number of times
d. cannot be determined without knowing the size of the loops

63. Inline functions are invoked at the time of

a. Run time
b. Compile time
c. Depends on how it is invoked
d. Both b and c above
64. If a member needs to have unique value for all the objects of that same
class, declare the member as
a. Global variable outside class
b. Local variable inside constructor
c. Static variable inside class
d. Dynamic variable inside class
65. What is shallow copy?

a. A shallow copy creates a copy of the dynamically allocated objects too.
b. A shallow copy just copies the values of the data as they are.
c. A shallow copy creates a copy of the statically allocated objects too
66. What is deep copy?

a. A deep copy creates a copy of the dynamically allocated objects too.
b. A deep copy just copies the values of the data as they are.
c. A deep copy creates a copy of the statically allocated objects too
67. Which of the following library function below by default aborts the
program?
a. Terminate()
b. end()
c. Abort()
d. exit()
68. Which of the following below is /are a valid iterator type?

a. Input Iterator
b. Backward Iterator
c. Forward Iterator

d. Both a and c above
69. What defines a general set of operations that will be applied to various
types of data?
a. Template class
b. Function template
c. Class template
d. Both a and c above
70. Under which of the following circumstances, synchronization takes

place?
a. When the file is closed
b. When the buffer is empty
c. Explicitly, with manipulators
d. both a and c
71. Which of the following functions below can be used Allocate space for
array in memory?
a. calloc()
b. malloc()
c. Realloc()
d. both a and b
72. Statement scanf(“%d”,80);
a. Assign an integer to variable i
b. Give an error message
c. Print the value of i
d. Assign an float to variable i
73. STL is based on which of the following programming paradigms?

a. Structured Programming
b. Object Oriented Programming (OOP)
c. Functional Programming
d. Aspect Oriented Programming (AOP)
74. If there is more than one statement in the block of a for loop, which of
the following must be placed at the beginning and the ending of the loop
block?

a. parentheses ( )
b. braces { }
c. brackets [ ].
d. arrows < >
75. Which of the following members do get inherited (in case of private
inheritance) but become private members in child class
a. Public
b. Private
c. Protected
d. All the above
76. Which of the following is not a valid conditional inclusions in
preprocessor directives
a. #ifdef
b. #ifundef
c. #endif
d. #elif
77. Which looping process is best used when the number of iterations is
known?
a. for
b. while
c. do-while
d. all looping processes require that the iterations be known
78. In a C language „3‟ represents

a. A digit
b. An integer
c. A character
d. A word
79. The return value of the following code is
Class1& test(Class1 obj)
{
Class1 *ptr = new Class1();
.........
return ptr;
}

a. object of Class1
b. reference to ptr
c. reference of Class1
d. object pointed by ptr
80. Which of the following is the most common way of implementing C++?
a. C++ programs are directly compiled into native code by a compiler
b. C++ programs are first compiled to intermediate code by a compiler and
then executed by a virtual machine
c. C++ programs are interpreted by an interpreter
d. A C++ editor directly compiles and executes the program
81.A direct access file is:

a. A file in which records are arranged in a way they are inserted in a file.
b. A file in which records are arranged in a particular order.
c. Files which are stored on a direct access storage medium.
d. None of above.
82. Which of the following operators can be implemented as a nonmember

operator?
a. #NAME?
b. () (function call operator)
c. [. (array access operator)
d. + (addition operator)
83. What is the implicit pointer that is passed as the first argument for
nonstatic member functions?
a. ‗self‘ pointer
b. ptr pointer
c. ‗Myself‘ pointer
d. „this‟ pointer
84. STL is based on which of the following programming paradigms?

a. Structured Programming
b. Object Oriented Programming (OOP)
c. Functional Programming
d. Aspect Oriented Programming (AOP)

85. Which of the following operators can be overloaded?
a. . (dot or member access operator)
b. & (address-of operator)
c. sizeof operator
d. ?: (conditional operator)
86. Which of the following operators below allow to define the member
functions of a class outside the class?
a. ::
b. ?
c. :?
d. %
87. Which header file should we include for using std::auto_ptr?
a. <memory>
b. <alloc>
c. <autoptr>
d. <smartptr>
88. Which of the following is not a standard exception built in C++.
a. std::bad_creat
b. std::bad_alloc
c. std::bad_cast
d. std::bad_typeid
89. Under which of the following circumstances, synchronization takes

place?
a. When the file is closed
b. When the buffer is empty
c. Explicitly, with manipulators
d. both a and c
90. Which keyword is used to access the variable in namespace?
a. using
b. dynamic
c. const
d. static
91. Which is more effective while calling the function?

a. call by value

b. call by reference
c. call by pointer
d. none of these
92. There is nothing like a virtual constructor of a class.

a. False
b. True
93. The output of this program is
int
main () { cout << "Hello World!" return 0; }
a. Hello World
b. Syntax error
c. 0
d. Hello World!
94. The output of

{
int a = 5;
int b = 10;
cout << (a>b?a:b);
}
a. 5
b. 10
c. Syntax error
d. None of above
95. The output of this program is
int a = 10;
void main()
{
int a = 20;
cout << a << ::a;
}
a. Syntax error
b. 10 20
c. 20 10
d. 20 20
96. When class B is inherited from class A, what is the order in which the
constructers of those classes are called
a. Class A first Class B next
b. Class B first Class A next
c. Class B's only as it is the child class
d. Class A's only as it is the parent class
97. Observe following program and answer

class Example{
public: int a,b,c;
Example(){a=b=c=1;}
//Constructor 1
Example(int a){a = a; b = c = 1;}
//Constructor 2
Example(int a,int b){a = a; b = b; c = 1;}
//Constructor 3
Example(int a,int b,int c){ a = a; b = b; c = c;}
//Constructor 4
}
In the above example of constructor overloading, the following statement will
call
which constructor
Example obj = new Example (1,2,3);
a. Constructor 2
b. Constructor 4
c. Constrcutor 1
d. Type mismatch error

OPERATING SYSTEM
1. If there are multiple recycle bin for a hard disk
a. you can set different size for each recycle bin
b. you can choose which recycle bin to use to store your deleted files
c. You can make any one of them default recycle bin
d. None of above
2. Which of the following is program group?

a. Accessories
b. Paint
c. Word
d. All of above
3. World Wide Web is being standard by

a. Worldwide corporation
b. W3C
c. World Wide Consortium
d. World Wide Web Standard
4. A Microsoft Windows is ..... a(n)

a. Operating system
b. Graphic program
c. Word Processing
d. Database program
5. The ..... program compresses large files into a smaller file

a. WinZip
b. WinShrink

c. WinStyle
d. None of above
6. Which of the following windows version support 64 bit processor?

a. Windows 98
b. Windows 2000
c. Windows XP
d. Windows 95
7. Which of the following Windows do not have Start button

a. Windows Vista
b. Windows 7
c. Windows 8
d. None of above
8. Which of the following operating system does not implement the

multitasking truly?
a. Windows 98
b. Windows NT
c. Windows XP
d. MS DOS
9. You should save your computer from?

a. Viruses
b. Time bombs
c. Worms
d. All of the above
10. If the displayed system time and date is wrong, you can reset it using
a. Write
b. Calendar
c. Write file
d. Control panel
11. Identify false statement
a. You can find deleted files in recycle bin
b. You can restore any files in recycle bin if you ever need
c. You can increase free space of disk by sending files in recycle bin

d. You can right click and choose Empty Recycle Bin to clean it at once
12. A co-processor
a. Is relatively easy to support in software
b. Causes all processor to function equally
c. Works with any application
d. Is quite common in modern computer
13. Which is not application software?

a. Windows NT
b. Page Maker
c. WinWord XP
d. Photoshop
14. Which of the following operating system do you choose to implement

a client server network?
a. MS DOS
b. Windows
c. Windows 98
d. Windows 2000
15. Which of the following is an example of a real time operating sytem?

a. Lynx
b. MS DOS
c. Windows XP
d. Process Control
16. Which is the latest version of MS Windows?

a. Windows 2007
b. Windows 8.1
c. Windows 2008
d. Windows 7
17. Which one is not operating system?
a. P11
b. OS/2

c. Windows
d. Unix
18. Which operating system doesn't support networking between

computers?
a. Windows 3.1
b. Windows 95
c. Windows 2000
d. Windows NT
19. What program runs first after computer is booted and loading GUI?
a. Desktop Manager
b. File Manager
c. Windows Explorer
d. Authentication
20. Which of the following Operating systems is better for implementing

a Client-Server network
a. MS DOS
b. Windows 95
c. Windows 98
d. Windows 2000
21. Which of the following does not support more than one program at a
time?
a. DOS
b. Linux
c. Windows
d. Unix
22. My Computer was introduced from

a. Windows 3.1
b. Windows 3.11
c. Windows 95
d. Windows 98
23. Linux is a(n) ... operating system

a. Open source
b. Microsoft
c. Windows
d. Mac
24. Which operating system can you give smallest file name?
a. Ps/2
b. Dos
c. Windows
d. Windows NT
25. Which of the following is not a multitasking operating system?

a. Windows
b. Linux
c. Win NT
d. DOS
26. Which Operating System doesn't support networking between
computers?
a. Windows 3.1
b. Windows 95
c. Windows 2000
d. Windows NT
27. You should choose Sleep option when

a. The computer is tired after working for the whole day
b. You are leaving for a very short time and want to resume you work
shortly
c. When computer gets hanged frequently. Let it sleep for some time
d. You finish working and going to bed
28. Which of the following is not an operating system?

a. DOS
b. Linux
c. Windows
d. Oracle

29. The category of software most appropriate for controlling the
design and layout of complex document like newsletters and brochure is:
a. Word processing
b. Computer aided design
c. Web page authoring
d. Desktop publishing
30. Which one is not a system tool?

a. Backup
b. Disk defragment
c. Virus scanning
d. All of the above
31. The .... displays the name of every computer user on the computer
a. Wish list screen
b. Command screen
c. Welcome screen
32. The memory which allocates space for DOS and application is called
a. Expanded memory
b. Cache memory
c. Virtual memory
d. Conventional memory
33. A .... is a named location on a disk where files are stored

a. Folder
b. Pod
c. Version
34. The operating system creates _____ from the physical computer
a. Virtual space
b. Virtual computers
c. Virtual device
d. None

35. Which type of command requires additional files to perform specific
operations?
a. Internal commands
b. External commands
c. Valuable commands
d. Primary commands
36. Which mode loads minimal set of drivers when starting Windows?
a. Safe Mode
b. Normal Mode
c. VGA Mode
d. Network Support Mode
37. A ....is a flash memory storage device that plugins into a USB port
a. USB snap drive
b. USB flash drive
c. USB memory maker drive
d. None of above
38. Which of the following are loaded in safe mode?

a. Keyboard driver
b. Mouse driver
c. VGA drive
d. All of above
39. The ....is the drive containing the files to be copied

a. Source drive
b. Destination drive
c. USB drive
40. Which command is used to see the version of operating system?

a.Vol
b.Version
c.Ver

41. The operating system creates ... from the physical computer
a. Virtual space
b. Virtual computer
c. Virtual device
d. None
42. Which of the following is system software?

a. Operating system
b. Compiler
c. Utilities
d. All of the above
43. Which menu bar selection would you access to open file?
a. Option
b. Help
c. View
d. None of above
44. A user-interface that is easy to use is considered to be

a. User-happy
b. User-simple
c. User-friendly
45. Which one of the following is not a multitasking operating system?

a. DOS
b. Windows
c. Unix
d. Linux
46. Once text has been cut to the clipboard, you can .....that text into
another document
a. Paste
b. Copy
c. Transfer
47. The ... operating system was initially created in the early 1970s at
AT and T's Bell Labs
a. Linux
b. DOS
c. Unix
d. GNU
48. Windows displays various options to shutdown. Which is suitable

a. Shut Down
b. Restart
c. Sleep
d. Hibernate
49. A computer is restarted by restart button or by pressing the

Combination of (Ctrl+Alt+Del).This type of booting is called
(A) Cold Booting
(B) Warm Booting
(C) Both(A) and (B)
50. Which of the following is a type of Semaphores?

(A) Binary Semaphore
(B) Counting Semaphore
(C) Both(A) &(B)
51. …………are required to complete a critical task within a guaranteed

amount of time.
(A) Real Time Operating Systems
(B) Multi Tasking Operating Systems
(C) Distributed Operating Systems
52. Long Term Scheduler is a ………..

(A) CPU scheduler
(B) process swapping scheduler
(C) job scheduler

53. ………..is the process of switching of CPU from one thread to another.
(A) Process handling
(B) interrupt handling
(C) Context switching
54. ……….is a way of processing data serially.

(A) spooling
(B) caching
(C) Paging
55. Dijkstra‟s banking alogorithm for resource allocation is used for

(A) Deadlock detection
(B) Deadlock prevention
(C) Deadlock avoidance
(D) Deadlock recovery
56. Which of the following is true for the algorithms for memory allocation?
(A) First Fit
(B) Best Fit
(C) Worst Fit
57. Which of the following is a solution to fragmentation problem?

(A) Thread
(B) Kernel
(C) Paging
58. ……is a system call that causes the caller to block.

(A) Await
(B) Sleep
(C) Wakeup
59. A variant of deadlock is called……..

(A) Mutex lock
(B) Live lock
(c) Both(A)&(B)
60. ….. is mainly responsible for allocating the resources as per process
requirement?
(A) RAM
(B) Compiler
(C) Operating Systems
(D) Software
61. …………is the most used method to communicate over a network.

(A) Sockets
(B) Semaphores
(C) Pipes
62. Short term scheduler is a ………..

(A) CPU scheduler
(C) job scheduler
63. Which of the following is a function of an OS?

(A) Process Management
(B) I/O Management
(C) Memory Management
64In Unix. “file” command is used to determine…….?

(A) File name
(B) File type
(C) File Content
65. In DOS,ECHO command is used to…………..

(A) display message on screen
(B) display the contents of a text file
(C) Both (A)&(B)
66. ………process checks to ensure the components of the computer are

operating and connected properly.
(A) Editing
(B) Saving
(C) Booting
67. Which of the following is an external command of DOS?

(A) CALL
(B) SHIFT
(C) TITLE
(D) FORMAT
68. ………..is a technique used to speed up communication with slow

devices.
(A) Fragmentation
(B) Caching
(C) Segmentation
69. Round Robin(RR) scheduler algorithm is suitable for………..

(A) Real Time Operating Systems
(B) Embedded Operating Systems
(C) Distributed Operating Systems
(D) Time Sharing Operating Systems
70. ………..is a special system software that is used to handle process

scheduling in different ways.
(A) Fork
(B) Scheduler
(C) Spawn
72. Which of the following is a scheduling alogorithm that allows a process

to move up and down between queues?
(A) Round Robin (RR) scheduling
(B) First Come First Served (FCFS) scheduling
(C) Multilevel feedback queue scheduling
(D) Shortest job first (SJF) scheduling
73. ……..commands are automatically loaded into main memory when the
booting process gets completed.
(A) External
(B) Internal
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None
74. Short term scheduler is a ………..

(A) CPU scheduler
(C) job scheduler
75. Which of the following is an Internal command?

(A) DEBUG
(B) EDIT
(C) EXTRACT
(D) COPY
76. Which of the following is an example of Batch processing Operating

Systems?
(A) Lynx OS
(B) Mac OS
(C) UNIX
77. In DOS ,TYPE command is used to……….

(A) display message on screen
(B) display the contents of a text file
(C) Both(A)&(B)
(D) None
78. An Integer variable that is used to manage concurrent processes is

called…..
(A) Thead
(B) Semaphore
(C) Counter
79. Which one of the following scheduler controls the degree of

multiprogramming?
(A) Long Term Scheduler
(B) Medium Term Scheduler
(C) Short Term Scheduler
80. In UNIX, cached disk blocks are managed by the kernel and reffered to
as….
(A) Cache
(B) Disk Cache
(C) Buffer Cache
81. ….. is the program which interprets commands given by the user ?
(A) Kernel
(B) Shell
(C) Fork
(D) None
82…..is the smallest unit for processing that consists of a program counter, a
stack & a set of registers.
(A) Compiler
(B) Thread
(C) Heap
83. Which of the following services is not supported by the OS?

(A) I/O Operation
(B) Protection
(C) Compilation
84. Which of the following is used to remove deadlock?

(A) Preemption
(B) Mutual Exclusion
(C) Circular Wait
85. FAT stands for

(A) File Allocation Table
(B) File Application Table
(C) First Allocation Table
(D) First Application Table
86. First Come First Serve (FCFS) Scheduling is…..

(A) used to reduce waiting time
(B) easy to understand and implement
(C) Impossible to implement
87. ……. Is a system call of OS that is used to create a new process?

(A) Shell
(B) kernel
(C) Fork
(D) Thread
88. Which of the following is an example of Cooperative Multi-Tasking OS?

(A) Linux OS
(B) Mac OS
(C) MS OS
89. The performance of Round Robin (RR) scheduling depends on…..

(A) quantum
(B) priority
(C) preemption
90. Which of the following plays an important role in modern Operating

systems (OS)?
(A) Kernel
(B) Shell
(C) Fork
(D) None
91. BAT refers to….

(A) Executable Files
(B) Batch Files
(C) Boot Files
(D) None
92. ……. Occur commonly in multi-tasking when two or more threads

waiting for each other.
(A) Kernel
(B) Shell
(C) Fork
(D) Deadlock
93. In DOS the DIR command is used to…..

(A) Display Information
(B) Display list of files & Sub directiories
(C) Delete files
(D) Copy files
94. …….. provides an Interface between the process and the Operating
System.
(A) Synchronization
(B) System Call
(C) Segmentation
95. In Operating System , a single thread is termed as

(A) Light Weight Process(LWP)

(B) Heavy Weight Process(HWP)
(C) Both (A) and (B)
96.An Operating System that can predict the exact time duration for
operation is called
(A) Hard RTOS
(B) Soft RTOS
WEB TECHNOLOGY
1. What method is used to specify a container‟s layout in JSP?
A. Setlayout ( )
B. Layout ( )
C. setContainerLayout ( )
D. SetConLayout ( )
2. ________ method returns the character at a specified at a specified index

in a string?
A. CharCodeAt ( )
B. substring ( )
C. char At ( )
D. None of the Above( )
3. Which of the following is not an advantage of CSS?

A. Easy Maintenance
B. Offline Browsing
C. Multiple Device Compatibilty
D. Platform Dependent

4. In CSS, which cursor indicates that an edge of a box is to be moved down?
A. se-resize
B. sw-resize
C. w-resize
D. s-resize
5. Which of the following is a front-end framework for web development?

A. Ruby
B. Bootstrap
C. PHP
D. Python
6. Which one of the following objects is passed to a JavaBean when one of its
properties is set via a JSP action?
A. servlet Request
B. HTTPServletRequest
C. ServletResponse
D. HTTP Servlet Response
7. AJAX stands for _______

A. Advanced JSP and MXL
B. Asynchronous JSP and XML
C. Advanced JS and XML
D. Asynchronous JavaScript and XML
8. Which of the following is not a JSP Implicit Object?

A. In
B. out
C. Page
D. Response
9. Which method of the component class is used to set the position and size
of a component in JSP?
A. setsize ( )

B. SetpositionSize( )
C. SetPosition ( )
D. SetBounds( )
10. What are the events generated by the Node objects called?
A. generators
B. highevents
C. emitters
D. None of the Above
11. Which is the following is a stateless protocol?

A. TCP
B. HTTP
C. HTML
D. XHTML
12. An alternative of JavaScript on windows platform is ________

A. VBScript
B. ASP.NET
C. JSP
D. PHP
13. Which of the following are used by servlet containers to set JavaBean
properties?
A. Cookies
B. form fields
C. memory
D. Disk
14. ___________ header gives the MIME type of the response document?
A. content Encoding
B. content Languages

C. Content Length
D. Content Type
15.Which of the following is a Boolean Cookie attribute in JS?

A. domain
B. Lookup
C. secure
16. Which of the following attribute is a Boolean attribute?

A. Autocomplete
B. placeholder
C. step
D. autofocus
17. The term “Hypertext” means _____________

A. Hypermedia
B. Non-Sequential writing
C. Blinking text
18. Where are cookies stored?

A. On the server
B. In Web.xml
C. On the Client
D. IN HtML
19. Document Type Declaration includes ________

A. Element Declarations
B. Attribute Declarations
C. Entity Declarations

D. All of the Above
20. The XML DOM object is __________

A. Entity Reference
B. Comment Refernc
C . Both (A) and (B)
D. All of the Above
21. SAX stands for ____________

A. Simple Application for XML
B. Smart Application for XML
C. Smart API for XML
D. Simple API for XML
22. Which properties are used to generate space around elements?

A. CSS Borders
B. CSS Margins
C. CSS Padding
23. In CSS, __________ property creates or resets one or more counters.

A. Content
B. Counter-increment
C. Counter-reset
24. IN JS, the ________ method returns the index of the last occurrence of a
specified text in a string.
A. Slice
B. Substr

C. lastIndex
D. search
25. _________ method replaces a specified value with another value in a

string?
A. CharCodeAt ( )
B. CharAt ( )
C. Concat ( )
D. replace ( )
26. In Javascript,………….method returns a number as a number

A. ValueOf ( )
B. toPrecision ( )
C. toExponential ( )
D. toString ( )
27. Which method is used to replace an element to the HTML DOM

(document Object Model)?
A. removeChild ( )
B. replacechild ( )
C. Both (A) and (B)
28. Which of the following message denotes the server is currently

unavailable?
A. 500 Internet server Error
B. 501 Not Implemented
C. 503 Service Unavailable
D. 504 Gateway Timeout
29. Any part of the graphic that is not include in another hot zone is
considered to be part of __________

A. Rect
B. Point
C. default
D. polygon
30. IN JS, _______________ returns a number, converted from its

argument.
A. parseFloat ( )
B. toPrecision ( )
C. ToExponetial ( )
D. number ( )
31. Which of the following was designed to store and transport data?
A. Java Script
B. HTML
C. XML
32. ___________message denotes the request cannot be fulfilled due to the

wrong syntax.
A. 202 Accepted
B. 400 Bad Request
C. 403 Forbidden
D. 404 Not Found
33. In CSS, ____________ property can be used to wrap text around

images?
A. Float
B. Clear
C. Both A and B
34. Cascading style sheets (CSS) can be used to create an __________

A. Image Gallery

B. Image opacity
C. Image Sprites
35. Which of the following is used to define the content of Web pages?
A. HTML
B.CSS
C. Java Script
36. JavaScript can change all the ____________ in the Web page.
A. HTML elements
B . CSS styles
C. HTML attributes
D. All of the Above
37. _________language has no predefined tags.

A. XML
B. HTML
C. Both A and B
38. _________ message denotes the request has been fulfilled and a new
source is created
A. 202 Accepted
B.201 Created
C. 403 Forbidden
D. 404 Not Found
39. Which properties are used to generate space around content?

A. CSS Borders
B. CSS Margins

C. CSS Padding
40. Which property is very useful for getting or replace the content of
HTML elements?
A. Inner HTML
B. outer HTML
C. Both A and B
41. IN Java Script, the multi-line comment is denoted as _________

A. //
B. / */
C. /**/
42. In JS, The ________ method searches a string for a specified value and
returns the position of match.
A. Slice( )
B. Substr ( )
C. index ( )
D. search ( )
43. In Java Script, the _______ method returns the new array length.
A. Shift ( )
B. substr ( )
C. index ( )
D. unshift ()
44. In JavaScript, ________ method returns a number as a string.

A. value of (_)
B. toPrecision ( )

C . toExponetial ( )
D. to String ( )
45.SGML stands for _________

(A) Standard General markup Language
(B) Security General Markup Language
(C) Standard Generalized Markup Language
(D) Standard Generalized Mark Language
46. In Java Script, which statement lets you to handle the error?
A. Try
B. Catch
C. Both A and B
47. Which of the following function converts an object‟s value to a number?

A. Number ( )
B. Is Nan ( )
C. Is Finite( )
48. _________ message denotes the requested page could not be found and it
may be available in future?
A. 202 Accepted
B. 201 Created
C. 403. Forbidden
D. 404 Not Found
49. Which of the following method can be cached?

A. GET
B. POST

C. Both A and B
50. Which can reduce the number of server requests and save bandwidth?
A. Image Gallery
B. Image Opacity
C. Image Sprites
51. Which of the following property sets or returns the CORS setting of the
audio/video?
A. controls
B. crossOrigin
C. CurrentSrc
52. The JavaScript allows ________

A. single line comment
B. multi line comment
C. both A and B
53. XHTML Stands for ___________

A. Extensible Hyper Text Markup Language
B. Extended Hyper Text Markup Language
C. Expensive Hyper Text Markup Language
D. Extension Hyper Text Marked Language
54. CSS stands For ___________

A. Combined Styling sheets
B. cascading style sheets
C. current style sheets

D . Cascading Script sheets
55. IN CSS, __________ Property is used to control the behavior of floating

elements?
A. float
B. clear
C. Both A and B.
56. Java Script can be used to create _________

A. Cookies
B. Spam
C. Cache
57. Which method returns the HTTP methods that the server supports?
A. HEAD
B. PUT
C. DELETE
D. OPTIONS
58. Which determine whether a value is a finite number?

A. Number ( )
B. is NaN ( )
C. IsFinite ( )
59. How many types of pop up boxes are used in JavaScript?

A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Three

60. The default display value for most elements is _______

A. line
B. Block
C. A or B
61.The attributes and elements of XHTML are must be in___________

(A) Upper-case
(B) Lower-case
62. Which is the following message denotes the request page has moved
temporarily to a new URL?
A. 202 Accepted
B .201 created
C. 301 Moved Permanetly
D. 302 Found
63. Which of the following message denotes the requested page has moved to
a new URL?
(A ) 202 Accepted
(B) 201 created
(C) 302 Found
(D) 301Moved Permanently
64. Which of the following method uploads a representation of the specified

URI?
(A) HEAD

(B) PUT
(C) DELETE
(D) OPTIONS
65.Which is a uniform naming scheme for locating resources on the web?

(A) Unioform Resource Identifier(URI)
(B) HTTP
(C) Resource Name
66. Which is the following method cannot be bookmarked?

(A)GET
(B) POST
67. Which method pauses the currently playing the audio/video?

(A)play ()
(B)pause()
(C) load()
68. Which is the following property returns the length of the current
audio/video?
(A) erros
(B)loop
(C) ended
(D) duration
69. XHTML is almost similar to ___________

(A) HTML
(B) XML
(C) HTTP

70. The ________method submits data to be processed to a specified

resource
(A) GET
(B) POST
(C) Both (A)&(B)
71. Which of the following specifies a short cut key to activate or an

elements ?
(A) clss
(B) hidden
(C) draggable
(D) access key
72. _________specifies the tabbing order of an elements.

(A) class
(B) Hidden
(C) draggable
(D) tabindex
73 . HTTP works as a_________protocol between a Client and Server.

(A) request –response
(B) Standard
(C) Both (A) & (B)
74.___________converts character into a format which can be transmitted

over the Internet?
(A) URL Encoding
(B) URL Decoding
(C) Both (A) &(B)

75. Which of the following method has length restrictions?

(A) GET
(B) POST
(C) Both (A) & (B)
76.Which of the following method draws a “filled” rectangle ?

(A) redt ()
(B) clear Rect ()
(C) strokeRect()
(D) FillRect()
77. __________creates an ac/curve between two trangents.

(A) arc ()
(B) arc To ()
(C) quadratic Curve To ()
78. ______sets or returns whether the audio/video should start playing as

soon as it is loaded
(A) audio Tracks
(B) autoplay
(C) controller
79. Which is the standard response for successful HTTP requests?

(A) 202Accepted
(B) 201 created
(C) 200 OK

80. Which of the following provide additional information about HTML

elements ?
(A) Heading s
(B) paragraphs
(C) Styles
(D) attributes
81. Symbol used at the beginning of the HERF text is________

(A) #
(B)$
(C) &
(D)^
82.Which the following methods converts the request connection to

transparent TCP/ IP tunnel ?
(A) HEAD
(B) PUT
(C)OPTIONS
(D) CONNECT
83. HTML is a subset of ________

(A) SGMT
(B) SGML
(C) SGMD
84. The _________method requests data from a specified source.

(A) GET
(B) POST
(C) Both (A) & (B)

85. The MIME text file is saved with ________

(A) THM extension
(B) HTML extension
(C) HMT extension
86. HTML tags are surrounded by____________

(A) Square Brackets
(B) Angle Brackets
(C) Curly Brackets
87. Extensible Markup language (XML) tags are _____

(A) Case Insensitive
(B) Case sensitive
(C) Both (A) &(B)
88. Documents objects Model (DOM) is a ___________

(A) characters User Interface (API)
(B) Application Programming Interface(API)
(C)Both(A)&(B)
89. HTML documents are saved in

(A) Special binary format
(B) Machine Language Code
(C)ASCII Text

90. In Satellite based communication, VSAT stands for?
a. Very Small Aperture Terminal
b. Varying Size Aperture Terminal
c. Very Small Analog Terminal
91. What is Internet Explorer?

a. An Icon
b. A File Manager
c. A Browser
d. The Internet
92. Text within <EM> … </EM> tag is displayed as ________
a. bold
b. italic
c. list
d. indented
93. “Yahoo”, “Infoseek” and “Lycos” are _________?

a. Search Engines
b. Browsers
c. News groups
94. <UL> … </UL> tag is used to ________

a. display the numbered list
b. underline the text
c. display the bulleted list
d. bold the text
95. Text within <STRONG> … </STRONG> tag is displayed as ________

a. bold
b. italic
c. list
d. indented
96. Which tag is used to display the large font size?

a. <LARGE></LARGE>
b. <BIG></BIG>

c. < SIZE ></SIZE>
d. <FONT></FONT>
97. <SCRIPT> … </SCRIPT> tag can be placed within ________

a. Header
b.bold
c. both A and B
98. Using <P> tag will

a. start a new paragraph
b. break the line
c. end the current paragraph
99. <TITLE> … </TITLE> tag must be within ________

a. Title
b. Form
c. Header
d. Body
100. <TD> … </TD> tag is used for ________

a. Table heading
b. Table Records
c. Table row
101. Which is true to change the text color to red?

a. <BODY BGCOLOR=RED>
b. <BODY TEXT=RED>
c. <BODY COLOR=RED>
102. With regards to e-mail addresses:

a. hey must always contain an @ symbol
b. hey can never contain spaces
c. they are case-insensitive
d. all of the above
103. Which tag is used to display the numbered list?

a. <OL></OL>
b. <DL></DL>
c. <UL></UL>
d. <LI></LI>
104. Which of the following is used to explore the Internet?

a. Browser
b. Spreadsheet
c. Clipboard
d. Draw
105. What do I need to get onto the Internet?

a. Computer
b. Modem
c. Browser
d. All of the above
106. Which of the following are commonly found on web pages?

a. internet
b. hyperlinks
c. intranet
d. all of the above
107. Which of the following is valid IP address?

a. 984.12.787.76
b. 192.168.321.10
c. 1.888.234.3456
d. 192.168.56.115
108. Which is not a domain name extension

a. mil
b. org

c. .int
d. .com
109. What is the correct way of describing XML data?

a. XML uses a DTD to describe data
b. XML uses a description node to describe data
c. XML uses XSL to describe the data
d. XML uses a validator to describe the data
110. What is a FTP program used for?

a. Transfer files to and from an Internet Server
b. Designing a website
c. Connecting to the internet
111. What is the correct syntax in HTML for creating a link on a webpage?
a. <LINK SRC= ―studyregulars.html‖>
b. <BODY LINK = ―studyregulars.html‖>
c. <A SRC = ―studyregulars.html‖ >
d. < A HREF = ―studyregulars.html‖>
112. What is an ISP?

a. Internet System Protocol
b. Internal System Program
c. Internet Service Provider
113. Choose the correct HTML tag to make the text bold?
a. <B>
b. <BOLD>
c. <STRONG>
d. Both (a) and (c)
114. A homepage is __________

a. an index of encyclopedia articles
b. where all Internet data is stored
c. for access to the Internet
d. the first page of a website
115. Which HTML tag would be used to display power in expression (A+B)2
?
a. <SUP>
b. <SUB>
c. <B>
d. <P>
116. Choose the correct HTML code to create an email link?

a. <A HREF = ―admin@studyregulars.com‖></A>
b. <A HREF = ―admin:xyz@studyregulars.com‖></A>
c. <MAIL>admin@studyregulars.com </MAIL>
d. MAILHREF = ―admin@studyregulars.com‖>
117. Choose the correct HTML tag for the largest heading?
a. <H1>
b. <H6>
c. <H10>
d. <HEAD>
118. Comments in XML document is given by:

a. <?– _ _–>
b. <!_ _ _ _!>
c. <!_ _ _ _>
d. </_ _ _ _>
119. Output of XML document can be viewed in a

a. Word Processor
b. Web browser
c. Notepad
120. Which statement is true?

a. An XML document can have one root element
b. An XML document can have one child element
c. XML elements have to be in lower case
d. All of the above

COMPUTER FUNDAMENTALS:
1. Who is the inventor of ―Difference Engine‖?
a. Allen Turing
b. Charles Babbage
c. Simur Cray
d. Augusta Adaming
2. Who is the father of Computer?

a. Allen Turing
b. Charles Babbage
c. Simmer Cray
d. Augusta Adoring
3. The term ‗Computer‘ is derived from..........

a. Latin
b. German
c. French
d. Arabic
4. Who is the father of personal computer?

a. Edward Robert
b. Allen Turing
c. Charles Babbage
d. None of these
5. A CPU contains
a. a card reader and a printing device
b. an analytical engine and a control unit
c. a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit

d. an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader
6. Who is the father of Computer science?

a. Allen Turing
b. Charles Babbage
c. Simur Cray
d. Augusta Adaming
7. The first computers were programmed using

a. assembly language
b. machine language
c. source code
d. object code
8..........is a combination of hardware and software that facilitates the sharing

of information between computing devices.
a. network
b. peripheral
c. expansion board
d. digital device
9. Which of the following controls the process of interaction between the user
and the operating system?
a. User interface
b. Language translator
c. Platform
d. Screen saver
10. Which of the following statements is true ?

a. Minicomputer works faster than Microcomputer
b. Microcomputer works faster than Minicomputer
c. Speed of both the computers is the same
d. The speeds of both these computers cannot be compared with the
speed of advanced
11. You organize files by storing them in

a. archives
b. folders
c. indexes
d. lists
12. Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer system are
called
a. Entry codes
b. Passwords
c. Security commands
d. Code words
13. Which device is required for the Internet connection?
a. Joystick
b. Modem
c. CD Drive
d. NIC Card
14. What type of resource is most likely to be a shared common resource

in a computer Network?
a.Printers
b.Speakers
c.Floppy disk drives
d.Keyboards
15. CD-ROM stands for

a. Compactable Read Only Memory
b. Compact Data Read Only Memory
c. Compactable Disk Read Only Memory
d. Compact Disk Read Only Memory
16. What is a light pen?

a. A Mechanical Input device
b. Optical input device
c. Electronic input device
d. Optical output device
17. ALU is
a. Arithmetic Logic Unit
b. Array Logic Unit
c. Application Logic Unit
d. None of above
18. IBM 1401 is

a. First Generation Computer
b. Second Generation Computer
c. Third Generation Computer
d . Fourth Generation Computer
19. UNIVAC is
a. Universal Automatic Computer
b. Universal Array Computer
c. Unique Automatic Computer
d. Unvalued Automatic Computer
20. MSI stands for

a. Medium Scale Integrated Circuits
b. Medium System Integrated Circuits
c. Medium Scale Intelligent Circuits
d. Medium System Intelligent Circuits
21. VGA is
a. Video Graphics Array
b. Visual Graphics Array
c. Volatile Graphics Array
d. Video Graphics Adapter
22. MICR stands for

a. Magnetic Ink Character Reader
b. Magnetic Ink Code Reader
c. Magnetic Ink Cases Reader
d. None
23. The capacity of 3.5 inch floppy disk is

a. 1.40 MB
b. 1.44 GB
c. 1.40 GB
d. 1.44 MB

24. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit?
a. Printer
b. Key board
c. Mouse
d. Arithmetic & Logic unit
25. WAN stands for

a. Wap Area Network
b. Wide Area Network
c. Wide Array Net
d. Wireless Area Network
26. CAD stands for

a. Computer aided design
b. Computer algorithm for design
c. Computer application in design
d. Computer analogue design
27. EBCDIC stands for

a. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
b. Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code
c. Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code
d. Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code
28. What type of computers are client computers (most of the time) in a
Client-server system?
a. Mainframe
b. Mini-computer
c. Microcomputer
d. PDA
29. Junk e-mail is also called

a. spam
b. spoof
c. sniffer script
d. spool
30. A computer cannot 'boot' if it does not have the

a. Compiler
b. Loader
c. Operating System
d. Assembler
31. Hackers
a. all have the same motive
b. break into other people's computers
c. may legally break into computers as long as they do not do any
damage
d. are people who are allergic to computers
32 . FORTRAN is
a. File Translation
b. Format Translation
c. Formula Translation
d. Floppy Translation
33. Chief component of first generation computer was

a. Transistors
b. Vacuum Tubes and Valves
c. Integrated Circuits
d. None of above
34. Second Generation computers were developed during

a. 1949 to 1955
b. 1956 to 1965
c. 1965 to 1970
d. 1970 to 1990
35. EEPROM stands for

a. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
b. Easily Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
c. Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
36. The output quality of a printer is measured by

a. Dot per inch
b. Dot per sq. inch
c. Dots printed per unit time
d. All of above
37. The computer size was very large in

a. First Generation
b. Second Generation
c. Third Generation
d. Fourth Generation
38. Which of the following devices can be sued to directly image

printed text?
a. OCR
b. OMR
c. MICR
d. All of above
39. In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed

a. Parallel only
b. Sequentially only
c. Both sequentially and parallel
d. All of above
40. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation

Computer?
a. First Generation
c. Third Generation
41. Who designed the first electronics computer – ENIAC?

a. Van-Neumann
b. Joseph M. Jacquard
c. J. Presper Eckert and John W Mauchly
d. All of above
42. In analogue computer

a. Input is first converted to digital form
b. Input is never converted to digital form
c. Output is displayed in digital form
d. All of above
43. Personnel who design, program, operate and maintain computer

equipment refers to
a. Console-operator
b. Programmer
c. People ware
d. System Analyst
44. Who invented the high level language ―C‖?

a. Dennis M. Ritchie
b. Niklaus Writh
c. Seymour Papert
d. Donald Kunth
45. Human beings are referred to as Homosapinens, which device is

called Sillico Sapiens?
a. Monitor
b. Hardware
c. Robot
d. Computer
46. When did arch rivals IBM and Apple Computers Inc. decide to join
hands?
a. 1978
b. 1984
c. 1990
d. 1991
47. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen
which Requires operator attention?
a. Pixel
b. Reverse video
c. Touch screen
d. Cursor
48. An error in software or hardware is called a bug. What is the alternative

computer jargon for it?
a. Leech
b. Squid
c. Slug
d. Glitch
49. In most IBM PCs, the CPU, the device drives, memory expansion slots
and active components are mounted on a single board. What is the name
of this board?
a. Motherboard
b. Breadboard
c. Daughter board
d. Grandmother board
50. Modern Computer are very reliable but they are not
a. Fast
b. Powerful
c. Infallible
d. Cheap
51. What is meant by a dedicated computer?

a. Which is used by one person only
b. Which is assigned one and only one task
c. Which uses one kind of software
d. Which is meant for application software
52. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine

language is called
a/an
a. Interpreter
b. Simulator
c. Compiler
d. Commander
53. Personal computers use a number of chips mounted on a main circuit

board. What is The common name for such boards?
a. Daughter board
b. Mother board
c. Father board
d. Bread board
54. A computer program that translates one program instructions at a time

into machine language is called a/an
a. Interpreter
b. CPU
c. Compiler
d. Simulator
55. The system unit of a personal computer typically contains all of the
following except:
a. Microprocessor
b. Disk controller
c. Serial interface
d. Modem
56. A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working correctly

is known as
a. Boot
b. Bug
c. Biff
d. Strap
57. A small or intelligent device is so called because it contains within it a

a. Computer
b. Microcomputer
c. Programmable
d. Sensor
58. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unsolicited bulk e-mail is known

as
a. Spam
b. Trash
c. Calibri
d. Courier
59. A self replicating program, similar to a virus which was taken from a
1970 science fiction novel by John Bruner entitled the Shockwave Rider is
a. Bug
b. Vice
c. Lice
d. Worm
60. A state. is a bi-stable electronic circuit that has

a. Multivibrator
b. Flip-flop
c. Logic gates
d. laten
61. Who is the chief of Microsoft

a. Babbage
b. Bill Gates
c. Bill Clinton
d. none of these
62. DOS stands for

a. Disk Operating System
b. Disk operating session
c. Digital Operating System
d. Digital Open system
63. The primary function of the .......... is to set up the hardware and load
and start an operating system
a. System Programs
b. BIOS
c. CP
d. Memory
64. The ......... is the amount of data that a storage device can move from the
Storage medium to the Computer per second
a. data migration rate
b. data digitizing rate
c. data transfer rate
d. data access rate
65. To move a copy of file from one computer to another over a

communication channel Is called?
a. File transfer
b. File encryption
c. File modification
d. File copying
66. What kind of memory is both static and non -volatile?

a. RAM
b. ROM
c. BIOS
d. CACHE
67. Which of the following are the functions of a operating system

a. Allocates resources
b. Monitors Activities
c. Manages disks and files
d. All of the above
68. A device, which is not connected to CPU, is called as .......

a. land-line device
b. On-line device
c. Off-line
d. Device
69. What is the other name for programmed chip?

a. RAM
b. ROM
c. LSIC
d. PROM
70. ........ is computer software designed to operate the computer hardware

and to provide platform for running application software
a. Application software
b. System software
c. Software
d. Operating system
71. ............. is the ability of a device to "jump" directly to the requested data
a. Sequential access
b. Random access
c. Quick access
d. All of the above
72. On-line real time systems become popular in ........... generation

a. First Generation
c. Third Generation
74. ......... provides process and memory management services that allow two
or more tasks, jobs, or programs to run simultaneously
a. Multitasking
b. Multithreading
c. Multiprocessing
d. Multicomputing
75. The task of performing operations like arithmetic and logical operations
is called......
a. Processing
b. Storing
c. Editing
d. Sorting
76. You use a(n) ....., such as a keyboard or mouse, to input information
a. output device
b. input device
c. storage device
d. processing device
77. ALU and Control Unit jointly known as

a. RAM
b. ROM
c. CPU
d. PC
78. Which one of the following is NOT a computer language

a. MS-Excel
b. BASIC
c. COBOL
d. C++
79. RAM is also called as

a. Read / Write Memory
b. Long Memory
c. Permanent Memory
d. Primary Memory
80. Magnetic disk is an example of

a. Secondary memory
b. Primary memory
c. Main memory
d. Both (a) and (b)

81. ............ Store data or information temporarily and pass it on as directed
by the control unit
a. Address
b. Register
c. Number
d. Memory
82. RAM is an example of

a. Secondary memory
b. Primary memory
c. Main memory
d. Both (a) and (b)
83. Select the Odd one

a. Operating system
b. Interpreter
c. Compiler
d. Assembler
84. RAM is an example of

a. Secondary memory
b. Primary memory
c. Main memory
d. Both (a) and (b)
85. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks
EXCEPT
a. hackers
b. Spam
c. Viruses
d. identity theft
86. A ............ is an additional set of commands that the computer displays

after you make a selection from the main menu
a. dialog box
b. submenu
c. menu selection
d. All of the above
87. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing
functions of a computer?
a. gathering data
b. processing data into information
c. analyzing the data or information
d. storing the data or information
84. COBOL is an acronym for.............

a. Common Business Oriented Language
b. Computer Business Oriented Language
c. Common Business Operated Language
d. Common Business Organized Language
85. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT :

a. hard disk drives
b. printers
c. floppy disk drives
d. CD drives
86. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers

connected to a :
a. networked
b. mainframe
c. supercomputer
d. client
87. The CPU and memory are located on the :

a. expansion board
b. motherboard
c. storage device
d. output device
88. When creating a computer program, the ......... designs the structure of the
program
a. End user
b. System Analyst
c. Programmer
d. All of the above
89. ............... is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the
same type of intelligence that humans do
a. Nanoscience
b. Nanotechnology
c. Simulation
d. Artificial intelligence (Al)
90. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with :

a. multimedia
b. word
c. numbers
d. characters
91. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine

language at one time is called a/ an
a. Interpreter
b. simulator
c. characters
d. compiler
92. Which of the following does not store data permanently?

a. ROM
b. RAM
c. Floppy Disk
d. Hard Disk
93. Which of the following contains permanent data and gets updated during
the processing of transactions?
a. Operating System File
b. Transaction file
c. Software File
d. Master file
94. Which of the following is not a binary number?

a. 001
b. 101
c. 202
d. 110
95. Which of the following helps to protect floppy disks from data getting
accidentally erased?
a. Access notch
b. Write-protect notch
c. Entry notch
d. Input notch
96. Which of the following is the smallest storage?

a. Megabyte
b. Gigabyte
c. Terabyte
d. None of these
97. A modem is connected to

a. a telephone line
b. a keyboard
c. a printer
d. a monitor
98. In a computer, most processing takes place in

a. Memory
b. RAM
c. motherboard
d. CPU
99. Large transaction processing systems in automated organisations use

a. Online processing
b. Batch Processing
c. Once-a-day Processing
d. End-of-day processing
100. The computer abbreviation KB usually means

a. Key Block
b. Kernel Boot
c. Kilo Byte
d. Kit Bit

MIXED QUESTIONS
1.This_______tier processes HTTP protocol scripting tasks, performs

calculations, and provides access to data.
A. Applications / web server
B. Client
C.Enterprise server
D. DBA
2. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several

search engines simultaneously are called-
A.Wedcrawler
B. Meta search engines
C.Spiders
D. Hits
3. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control

Access into areas?
A. Cipher
B. Warded
C. Device
D. Tumber
4. The process by which the structure of the database is modified to

eliminate hidden dependencies and replacing groups is ________
A. Normalization
B. Indexing
C. Enforcing referential integrity
D. Enforcing data integrity

5. The usual method of ____________mapping is by some arithmetical

manipulation of the key value, in direct file organization.
A.Random
B.Serial
C.Direct
D. one to many
6. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by

providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is_____
A. Bridge
B. Router
C.Gateway
D. Modem
7. A generalization of the boyce codd normal form to relation schemes

which includes the multivalued dependencies is calld________
A. Second normal form
B. Third normal Form
C. Fourth Normal form
D. fifth normal form
8. PPP used in which layer?

A. Layer 1
B.Layer3
C.Layer5
D.Layer2
9. If communication software can be called the ―traffic cop‖of a micro

Communication system,then what should the modem be called ?
A.Park
B.Bridge
C.Interface
D.Link
10. PPP(point to point protocol) used for which purpose?

A. Error detection
B. Authentication
C. Both (A)and (B)
11. Yacc is available as a command (utility) on the_______

A. DOS
B.UNIX
C. MINIX
D. None of these
12. 4Nf stands For________

(A) fourth normal file
(B) fourth normal form
(C) fourth normal Fraction
(D)fourth Negetive file
13. Which of the Following field type is used to store photograph of

employees?
(A) Memo
(B) picture
(C) OLE
(D) photo
14. Domain constraints, functional dependency and referential integrity

are special forms of _________
(A) Foreign key
(B) Primary key
(C) Referential constraint
(D) Assertion
15. Which of the Following method can be used to add more tables in a
Database?
(A) Design View
(B) Table wizard
(C) Both (A)&(B)
16. Which of the following field type is the best to store serial
numbers?
(A)Number
(B) Auto number
(C) Memo
17.-__________statement issued in conjunction with the aggregate

functions to group the result-set by one or more columns.
(A) Select
(B) Group By
(C) Distinct
18. Which the result of a computation depends on the speed of the

processes involved there is said to be?
A. Cycle stealing
B. Race Condition
C. A time look
D. A dead lock
19. A method which transfers the entire block of data from its own
buffer to main memory takes place without intervention by CPU.
A. programmed input \Output
B. Input driven Input \Output
C. Direct Memory Access
20.In C++ a function contained within a class is called____

A. Member Function
B. A class Function
C. An operator
D. None of above
21. CIDR (CLASSLESS INTER DOMAIN ROUTING)_

A. It is used in class C Networks
B. It is used in class B Net works
C. It is used in class A Networks
D. All of above
22. Classes are useful because they __________

A Are removed from memory when not in use
B. Permit data to be hidden from other classes
C. Bring together all aspects of an entity in one place
D. Can closely model objects in the real world
23. __________ is a virtual table that draws its data from the result of
an SQL SELECT statement.
A. View
B. Synonym
C. Sequence
D. Transaction
24. A table joined with itself is called

A. join
B. self join
C. outer join
D. Equi join
25. A DBMS query language is designed to

A. support end users who use English like commands.
B. support in the development of complex applications software.
C. specify the structure of a database.
D. all of the above
26. Transaction processing is associated with everything below except

A. producing detail‘ summary or exception reports.
B. recording a business activity.
C. confirming an action or triggering a response.
D.maintaining data
27. It is possible to define a schema completely using

A. VDL and DDL.
B. DDL and DML.
C. SDL and DDl.
D.VDL and DML
28. A key more than one attribute is called

A.Composite key
B. Primary key
C. Candidate key
29. Which of the following systems implementation approaches should

be should be used if you want to run the old system and the new
system at the same at same time for a specified period?
A. Direct
B. Pilot
C. Phased
D. Parallel
30. Which of the following communications service provides message

preparation and transmission facilities?
A. Teletex
B. Teletext
C. X400
D. fax
31. An assembler that runs on one machine but produces machine

code for another machine is called _________
A. Simulator
B. Emulator
C. Boot _strap Loader
D. Cross assembler
32. Resolution of externally defined symbols is performed by__

A. Linker
B. Loader
C. compiler
D. Assemble
33. A transition between two memory resident process in a

Multi programming system is called _________
A. Process switch
B. Mode Switch
C. Transition Switch
D. All of the above
34. The memory address of first element of array is called _____

A. Floor address
B. First address
C. Foundation address
D. Base address
35. A set of resources ‗ allocations such that the system can allocate
resources to each process in some order,and still avoid a deadlock is called.
A. Unsafe State
B. Safe State
C. Starvation
D. Greedy allocation
36. Which of following does not allow multiple users or devices to share
one communications line ?
A Doubleplexer
B. Multiplexer
C. concentrator
D. Controller
37. Consider an operation of addition . for two numbers the operation

will generate a sum . if the operands are strings , and same operation
would produce a third string by concatenation.This Feature is called.
A. Inheritance
B. Encapsulation
C. Polymorphism
D. Binding
38. Precedence determines which operator is __________

A. Is evaluated first
B. is more important
C. Is Fastest number
D. None of above
39. In a circular linked list organization, insertion of a record involves

modification of
A. One pointer
B. Two pointer
C. Multiple pointer
D. no pointer
40. A operator precedence parser is a _____

A. Bottom –up parser
B. Top _ down parser
C. Back Tracing parser
D. None of above
41. Programming in a language that actually controls the path of

signals or data within the computer is controlled _____
A micro - programming
B. Instruction set
C. assembly Language programming
D. machine language programming
42. Key to represent relationship between tables is called

A.Primary key
B.Secondary Key
C.Foreign key
D.None of these
43.DBMS helps to achieve

A.Data independence
B.Centralized control of data
C.Both(a)And(b)
D.None
44.Which of the following are the properties of entities?

A.Groups
B.Table
C.Attributes
D.Switch boards
45.Which of the following is a valid SQL type?

A.Character
B.NumerIc
C.Float
D.All of the above
46.Which of the following is an advantage of view?

A.Data Security
B.Derived columns
C.Hiding of Complex queries
D.All of the above
47.Which database level is closest to the users?

A.External
B.InternaI
C.PhysicaI
D.ConceptuaI
48.A set of possible data values is called

A.Attribute.
b.Degree.
C.Tuple.
D. Domain.
49.The method in which records are physically stored in a specified

order according to a key field in each record is
A.Hash.
B.Direct.
C.Sequential.
D.All of the above.
50.Count function in SQL returns The number of

A.Values.
B.Distinct values.
C.Groups.
D.Columns.
51.An advantage of the database management approach is

A.Data is dependent on Programs.
B.Data redundancy increses.
C.Data is integrated and can be multiple programs.
D.None of The above.
52.A DBMS query langue is designsd to

A.Support end users who use English-Like commands.
B.Support in the bevelopment of complex applictions software.
C.Specify the structure of a database.
D.None
53.The method of access which uses key transformation is known as

A.Direct.
B.Hash.
C.Random.
D.sequential.
54.The statement in SQL which allows to change the definition of a

table is
A.Alter.
B.update.
C.creatct.
D.select.
55. The language used in application programs to request data from the
DBMS is Referred to as the
A.DML
B.DDL
C.VDL
D.SDL
56.SET concept is used in:

A.Network mobel
B.Hierarchical Mobel
C.Relational Model
D. None of These
57.________Produces the relation thet has attributes of R1 andR2

A.Cartesian product
B.Differection
C.Intersection
D.Product
58.In a relation
A.Ordering of rows is immaterial
B.No tow rows are identical
C.Both(a) And(B)
D. None of These.
59.Which of the following is another name for weak entity?

A,Child
B.Owner
C.Dominant
D.All Of The above
60.Which of the following database object does not physically exist?

A.Base table
B.Index
C.View
D.None of The above
61. It is better to use files than a DBMS when there are

A. stringent real time requirements.
B. Multiple users wish to access the data.
C. Complex relationships among data.
D. all of the above.

62. Which of the operations constitute a basic set of operations for
manipulating relational data ?
A. Predicate calculus
B. Relational calculus
C. Relational algebra
D. None of the above.

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TOPIC COVERED:

2. In SQL, Which of the following is a Data Manipulation Language

3. Which of the following categories of the data integrity RDBMS

4. The number of tuples in a relation is termed as_____________

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6. E-R modeling technique is a ___________

7. In E-R diagram, attribute is represented by …….

8. The number of attribute in a relation is called its __________

9. In a relational database, each tuple is divided into fields called

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11. Which of the following is used with database?

12. In SQL, TCL stands for ___________

14.In E-R diagram, attribute is represented by …….

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16. In E-R Diagram, weak entity is represented by…..

19. An entity that is related with itself is known as …….

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21. In …. Database, data is organized in the form of trees with

22. Which command is used to retrieve records from one or more

24. Command is used to retrieve records from one or more table?

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26._________ allows a unique number to be generated when a new

27. This method of online analytical processing stores data in both a

28.Which concept would a data model NOT be expected to know?

29. A Foreign key in one table points to a ________________key in

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31. The basic unit of this SQL variant is called a block.

32. A Database management system (DBMS) may be used by , or

33. Encapsulation, types , classes, inheritance, overriding combined with

34. A programming using this type of middleware might need the

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36. This is a standard interactive and language or getting

37. In creating a database this is the process of organizing it into tables

38. This is collection of data items organized as asset of formally-

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40. This is an opened standard application programming interface (API)

41. This is a collection of descriptions about data objects that is

42. This term is used to describe the process of forecasting , or simply

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44.This term, used to describe a database that occupies magnetic

45. The view of total database content is

46. Which type of file is part of the oracle database ?

47. Relational calculus is a_______

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49. The DBMS language component which can be embedded in a

51. When is the SGA created in an Oracle database environment?

52. Which password management feature ensures a user cannot reuse a

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54. Which privilege is required to create a database?

56. DML is provided for

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59. ODBC stands for

60. The database environment has all of the following component

62. In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by

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64. Domain constraints, functional dependency and referential integrity

65. 4NF stands for ______

66. Which of the following field type is used to store photograph of

67. _________ statement is used in conjunction with the aggregate

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2. The information gathered through web mining is evaluated by using ________

3.________is a type of data mining used in Customer Relationship Management(CRM)

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