C1102

THE UNIVERSITY OF SUSSEX

BSc FIRST YEAR EXAMINATION
January 2018 (A1)

HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY

Assessment Period: A1 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

DO NOT TURN OVER UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO BY

THE LEAD INVIGILATOR

Candidates should attempt ALL questions.

All 60 questions carry equal marks.
Negative marking will not be applied.
For each question only ONE answer is correct.
Use one answer sheet.
Duration: 1 hour

CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO MAKE ALL RESPONSES ON THE MCQ ANSWER

SHEETS PROVIDED. USE ONLY AN HB PENCIL OR SOFTER (B OR 2B)
 WRITE YOUR NAME, CANDIDATE NUMBER AND MODULE TITLE IN THE
BOXES PROVIDED ON THE MCQ ANSWER SHEETS
 TO INDICATE A CORRECT ANSWER, COMPLETELY FILL THE APPROPRIATE
BOX
 LEAVE ALL REMAINING BOXES BLANK
 TO CHANGE AN ANSWER, COMPLETELY ERASE THE INCORRECT
RESPONSE AND FILL IN AN ALTERNATIVE BOX

All question and answer sheets must be collected before you leave your
seat in the Examination Hall.
1. When you hold your breath, which of the following will first lead to a strong urge
to breathe?
a. rising O2 (oxygen)
b. falling CO2 (carbon dioxide)
c. rising CO2 (carbon dioxide)
d. falling NO (nitrous oxide)
e. falling O2 (oxygen)

2. The force of exhalation is primarily due to what mechanism?

a. elastic recoil of thoracic muscles
b. greater atmospheric pressure outside the lungs than inside
c. muscular contraction
d. forceful blowing to remove air from the lungs
e. greater atmospheric pressure inside the lungs than outside

3. The respiratory system exerts its homeostasis by both peripheral arterial and by
central chemoreceptors. Both types of receptors are sensitive to changes in the
hydrogen ion concentration, [H+], around them. Acute hypoxia stimulates the
peripheral arterial chemoreceptors, but maintained hypoxia has a depressant effect
on both central chemoreceptors and regulatory neurons in the respiratory centre.
Acidosis is the term used for acid poisoning with a pH below 7.35 in the arterial
blood.
What are the difference(s) between acidosis and hypoxia?
a. Acidosis is caused by high blood pH, whilst hypoxia is linked with low blood pH
b. Hypoxia is a condition with low [O2] in the blood, whereas acidosis is a condition
with excessive [O2] in the blood
c. Acidosis is low blood pH likely due to high [CO2], and hypoxia is low blood [O2]
d. Hypoxia can be hypotonic or hypobaric
e. Acidosis is caused by low blood pH, hypoxia by high blood pH

4. The interaction of haemoglobin with oxygen is regulated by several factors.

Which?
A. partial pressure of oxygen in the tissues
B. local pH in the tissues and CO2 levels
C. local temperature in the tissues
D. all of the above
E. (a) and (b)

5. When a jogger starts to run, the rate at which his muscles produce carbon
dioxide rises sharply. But the carbon dioxide in his blood rises only slightly before
he starts to breathe faster and his heart starts beating more strongly. Soon his
increased rate of CO2 production is balanced by an increased rate of CO2 removal.
This would be an example of what and why?
a. negative feedback, because it acts to increase cardiac output
b. negative feedback, because it acts to oppose the change in plasma CO2 levels from
the preferred level
c. feedforward, because it acts to prevent an excessive build-up of CO2
d. positive feedback, because it acts to increase the rate of CO2 removal and keep the
jogger running
e. positive feedback, because it acts to build up good condition
6. When divers head for the surface, there is a risk of decompression sickness.
What is the cause of this phenomenon?
a. The capillaries collapse as a result of water leaving the body
b. Oxygen is removed from the blood at an elevated rate, causing a collapse of blood
vessels
c. Nitrogen comes out of solution and bubbles can block blood vessel
d. The rapid change in pressure causes nausea
e. Carbon Dioxide is stored in the haemoglobin permanently

7. How does CO2 travel from the blood into the alveoli?
a. passive diffusion, up the pressure gradient
b. active transport, using the pressure gradient of oxygen
c. active transport, against the pressure gradient of carbon dioxide
d. passive diffusion, down the pressure gradient
e. secondary active transport, making use of the concentration gradient for sodium

8. What is meant by the statement that haemoglobin displays co-operativity?

a. all the haemoglobin molecules within a red blood cell work together
b. haemoglobin and myoglobin co-operate in the exchange of oxygen.
c. oxygen and carbon dioxide co-ordinate the gas exchange within haemoglobin
d. carbon dioxide forces the subunits to accept more oxygen
e. when a subunit binds O2, the other subunits become more likely to bond with O2

9. The link between bond-forming reactions and membrane transport processes in

the mitochondria is called:
A. proton pumping
B. chemiosmotic coupling
C. electron transfer
D. ATP synthesis
E. ion transfer

10. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the mitochondrial protonmotive
force:
a. a membrane potential across the inner mitochondrial membrane
b. a pH gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane
c. a proton translocating respiratory chain
d. a proton permeable inner mitochondrial membrane
e. the cytochrome bc1 complex

11. Modern eukaryotes depend on mitochondria to generate most of the cell’s ATP.
Roughly how many molecules of ATP can a single molecule of glucose generate?
a. 50
b. 2
c. 20
d. 15
e. 36
12. The respiratory inhibitor antimycin A potently inhibits which of the following
respiratory chain complexes?
a. NADH dehydrogenase
b. Ubiquinol: cytochrome c oxidoreductase
c. Succinate dehydrogenase
d. cytochrome c oxidase
e. ATP synthase

13. Which of the following is NOT a component of the respiratory chain complexes?
A. cytochromes NAD-linked dehydrogenases
B. ubiquinone
C. iron-sulphur proteins
D. NAD-linked dehydrogenases
E. ATP translocator

14. Given the low percentage efficiency of humans as found in the respiration
practical, what happened to all that extra energy used up in order to perform the
cycling work?
A. it went on extra breathing
B. it was largely dissipated as heat energy
C. it went into the cycling exercise
D. it was used afterwards
E. there was no disparity – work output and extra energy consumed were equal

15. In the respiration practical, subjects are asked to exercise to build up an

“oxygen debt”. How does this oxygen debt manifest itself?
a. by increased absorption of CO2 in the spirometer
b. by increased levels of CO2 recorded by the ventilation monitoring
c. by increased levels of O2 absorption
d. by decreased levels of ventilation for some time after the end of the exercise
e. by increased levels of ventilation for some time after the end of the exercise

16. During the respiration practical a number of measurements of breathing rates

and cycling force were taken from the subjects. How did these relate to the overall
result of thermodynamic efficiency of the human body?
a. measurements of basal metabolic rate
b. the difference between resting breathing volumes and vital capacity indicated the spare
breathing volume in the lungs, for use with increasing demand and thus work out the
overall thermodynamic efficiency of the human body
c. it measured the rate of breathing per minute, but did not record directly how much
oxygen was consumed – thus it is possible to work out the overall thermo-dynamic
efficiency of the human body
d. By comparing the extra amount of oxygen consumed as related to volume breathed
after producing a measured amount of physical work on the bicycle, it is possible to work
out the overall thermo-dynamic efficiency of the human body
e. the spirometer was connected to a cylinder of oxygen and a canister of soda-lime which
absorbs CO2. As CO2 is removed from the expired gas, the rate at which the gas in the
apparatus is used up is the same as the rate of O2 consumption by the subject
17. The Histology practical addressed structure-function relationships of various
organs. What is the most striking feature of the slides of the lungs, that is directly
relevant to their function?
a. The structure is full of gaps, allowing air to enter and thereby enabling gas exchange
b. The structure clearly shows a close association of alveoli and capillaries
c. The structure of a bronchus indicates its close relationship with gas exchange
d. The surface of the alveoli is coated with surfactant, making them less likely to collapse
e. Gas exchange is facilitated by a gradient in partial pressures of the relevant gases.

18. As studied in the seminar reading: Just before a dive, what does a Weddell seal
do which is in direct contrast to us?
a. it stops its heartbeat
b. it inhales completely
c. it exhales completely
d. it absorbs oxygen through the skin
e. it filters CO2 for storage in the muscles

19. If mean arterial pressure (MAP) is elevated, negative feedback involving baro-
receptor signals would trigger which of the following responses?
a. a rise in ADH (vasopressin) secretion
b. a fall in plasma angiotensin II levels
c. increased activity in sympathetic vasoconstrictor nerves
d. an increase in adrenaline (epinephrine) secretion
e. increased total peripheral resistance (TPR)

20. The pulmonary vein carries

a. oxygenated blood back to the heart’s right atrium
b. oxygenated blood back to the heart’s atria
c. deoxygenated blood away from the heart’s right ventricle
d. deoxygenated blood away from the heart’s left ventricle
e. oxygenated blood back to the heart’s left atrium

21. Moment-to-moment changes in total peripheral resistance (TPR) are normally

due to changes in:
a. the lengths of blood vessels in the systemic circuit
b. the radii of certain blood vessels in the systemic circuit
c. the viscosity of the blood
d. the mean arterial pressure
e. the cardiac output

22. Boyle's law links pressure and volume. If the amount of gas, and the
temperature are constant, then P  1/V.
What consequence does this have for us when we breathe in?
a. when our chest cavity expands, the pressure decreases, and air therefore rushes in
b. when our chest cavity expands, the volume increases, and so the pressure
increases as well
c. when we breathe out, we need to use our intercostal muscles
d. when we breathe in, we need to use our intercostal muscles
e. when we exercise, our breathing rate increases dramatically
23. What is the role of Cl- in the transport of CO2?
a. It activates carbonic anhydrase
b. It binds to CO2 and keeps it locked into the erythrocytes
c. it is exchanged for H+ at the protein part of haemoglobin
d. It binds to haemoglobin and allows it to absorb CO2
e. It is exchanged for HCO3-, exported out of erythrocytes

24. Ischaemic conditions (decreased blood supply) in the myocardium will most
likely lead to the heart tissue:
a. being unaffected as it normally undergoes anaerobic respiration
b. developing alkalosis as not enough H+ is produced via the ETC
c. becoming deficient in ATP, and the myocardial cells starting to die
d. changing from aerobic to anaerobic energy metabolism
e. using free fatty acids for energy instead

25. What is the difference in function between myoglobin and haemoglobin?

a. Haemoglobin transports oxygen, Myoglobin stores it
b. Myoglobin transports oxygen, Haemoglobin stores it
c. Haemoglobin is found in adults, Myoglobin in the foetus
d. Haemoglobin is used by humans, Myoglobin by diving mammals
e. Myoglobin carries CO2, whereas Haemoglobin cannot

26. Which of the following would NOT cause an increase in blood pressure?
a. increase in the duration of ventricular diastole
a. increase in heart rate
b. increase in stroke volume
c. contraction of the arteriolar smooth muscle
d. narrowing of the arterioles

27. Why does the human heart have two atria and two ventricles?
a. One side deals with oxygenated, the other with deoxygenated blood, and each side
needs the atria to receive blood and the ventricles to contract forcefully to pump the blood
through the two circuits
b. The ventricles deal with oxygenated blood, and the atria with deoxygenated blood
c. The atria deal with oxygenated blood, and the ventricles with deoxygenated blood
d. One side deals with oxygenated, the other with deoxygenated blood, and each side
needs the ventricles to receive blood and the atria to contract to pump the blood around
the two circuits
e. The right atrium makes sure that blood goes to both ventricles, where it is purified and
sent to the left atrium which contracts forcefully, sending the blood round the body

28. What is the main pacemaker point in the heart called?

a. myocardium
b. the sinoatrial node
c. the atrioventricular node
d. intercalated discs
e. the purkinje fibres
29. In what respect are erythrocytes unusual when compared to other cells in the
body?
a. they are bigger than most cells
b. they cannot die
c. they change shape and size
d. they are anuclear
e. they are smaller than most cells

30. During exercise, the heart pumps harder to get it all going, the muscles are
working harder, cellular respiration goes up, breathing rate goes up. At rest, the
central venous pressure is very low, but with increasing exercise, it also increases.
How does the heart respond to this?.
a. by increasing carbon dioxide levels
b. by increasing C.O
c. by decreasing C.O.
d. by decreasing flow to the right side
e. by decreasing flow to the pulmonary circuit

31. What is the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus, and how does it achieve
this?
a. responsible for a reduction in volume of the filtrate. Done via reabsorption of many ions
such as Na+, calcium and bicarbonate ions
b. controls the ultrafiltration, monitoring the amount of fluid entering from the glomerulus.
The collecting ducts then activate ANP and ADH
c. it acts as a counter-current multiplier and sets up a strong osmotic gradient in the renal
medulla
d. involved in blood sodium level homeostasis. The macula densa cells detect changes in
sodium levels and then stimulate the granular cells to produce erythropoietin
e. involved in blood pressure control. The macula densa cells detect changes in sodium
levels or a drop in blood pressure. The granular cells are then stimulated to release renin,
starting the RAAS

32. In the nephrons, Starling forces control the amount of ultrafiltration occurring at
the renal corpuscule. Which of the forces across the glomerular capillaries would
tend to increase from the afferent to the efferent arteriole ends?
a. Glomerular filtration pressure
b. Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure
c. Bowman's capsule oncotic pressure
d. Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure
e. Glomerular oncotic pressure

33. Juxtamedullary nephrons go deeper into the medulla, and have longer loops of
Henle. As lots of water and ions are reabsorbed along the descending and
ascending limbs of the loop respectively, what is responsible for transporting these
away from the medulla of the kidneys?
a. the proximal convoluted tubules
b. the collecting ducts
c. the afferent arteriole
d. the juxtaglomerular apparatus
e. the vasa recta
34. Why is Na+ so important in fluid homoeostasis?
a. answers (b) and (c)
b. a concentration gradient is kept across the cell membrane, allowing sodium to be
involved in co- and counter-transport by exploiting the gradient
c. water tends to follow the movement of sodium ions
d. Sodium is crucial in all cells to balance the chloride shift
e.. answers (b), (c) and (d)

35. How can the kidneys perform what is called renal pH compensation?
a. by hypercapnia
b. by secretion of H+ and reabsorption of HCO3-
c. via uric acid
d. via the PCT and the loop of Henle
e. via a hydrostatic pressure gradient, set up by the loop of Henle

36. What happens at the Bowman’s capsule?

a. reabsorption of urea
b. secretion of renin
c. secretion of potassium
d. filtration of the plasma
e. accumulation of white blood cells

37. What are the overall effects of the activation of RAAS?

a. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system activated
b. stretch of the atria, decreased Na+ reabsorption in the kidneys, decrease in renin
release
c. decreased total peripheral resistance
d. vasoconstriction, increased reabsorption of Na+ and water in kidneys, activation of thirst
mechanisms
e. K+ secretion in kidneys, vasodilation, inactivation of thirst mechanisms

38. How are the kidneys involved in Calcium homeostasis?

a. by secreting calcitonin
b. Ca2+ reabsorption increased in response to parathyroid hormone and then calcitriol is
released by kidneys to promote Ca2+ uptake in intestine
c. by secreting Ca2+ into the proto-urine
d. Ca2+ reabsorption increased in response to parathyroid hormone
e. Ca2+ secretion increased in response to parathyroid hormone and then erythropoeitin
produced by kidneys

39. Which of the following is NOT a hormone released by, or acting on, the kidneys
in humans?
a. erythropoietin
b. oxytocin
c. vasopressin
d. calcitrol
e. aldosterone
40. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about hormones?
a. Hormones are often regulated through feedback loops
b. Hormones are chemical messengers that travel to target cells via the bloodstream
c. Hormones of the same chemical class usually have the same function
d. Hormones are secreted by specialised cells usually located in endocrine glands
e. Hormones often regulate homeostatic processes

41. What is special about the target cells of hormones?

a. they are next to the cells which release the hormones
b. they are cells within the blood
c. they cannot respond to any other chemical signals
d. they have the appropriate receptors
e. they have no direct contact with the blood plasma

42. The main target organs for tropic hormones are:

a. muscles
b. blood vessels
c. endocrine glands
d. kidneys
e. nerves

43. Which of the following is an example of negative feedback control?

a. uterine contractions during labour
b. taking an umbrella when seeing through the window that it is raining
c. binding of second, third and fourth oxygen molecules by haemoglobin
d. drinking alcohol
e. shivering when cold

44. The flow of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine is regulated by the:
a. glottis 
b. epiglottis 
c. lower esophageal sphincter 
d. pyloric sphincter 
e. gastroileal sphincter 

45. Once the chyme begins to enter the duodenum, it must first be ________ before
any of the enzymes in the pancreatic juices can be activated. 
a. neutralized 
b. acidified 
c. dehydrated 
d. hydrated 
e. phosphorylated 
46. A lacteal is a ________ located inside a ________. 
a. nerve : myenteric plexus 
b. nerve : submucosal plexus 
c. capillary : villus 
d. lymphatic vessel : villus 
e. patch of immune tissue : submucosa 

47. Which hormone(s) stimulate the pancreas to release its digestive juices?
a. Secretin and cholecystokinin
b. ADH and insulin
c. Insulin and glucagon
d. oxytocin
e. Secretin and insulin

48. Which of the following is NOT part of the small intestine?

a. enteropeptidases
b. villi
c. lower oesophageal sphincter
d. submucosa
e. smooth muscle

49. Brunner's glands are found in the walls of the small intestine. What is the role of
the Brunner's glands?
a. they ensure that the villi piston movements are maintained during each peristalsis
b. the brushborder consists of villi and microvilli and is more pronounced in the proximal
small intestine
c. they increase the surface area available for absorption
d. they secrete alkaline mucus which lubricates and protects the lining from the acidic
chyme arriving from the stomach
e. they secrete bicarbonate ions to make the chyme more acidic which allows the lipases
greater access to fats in the food

50. In untreated, insulin-dependent Diabetes mellitus, fatty acids can be used in

cellular respiration inside most cells which are not receiving glucose. In
hepatocytes however, they are converted into ketone bodies, which can also be
used in cellular respiration. Why are ketone bodies a problem in this condition?
a. accumulation of large amounts of these in the blood leads to low blood sugar
b. accumulation of large amounts of these in the blood leads to high blood pH
c. accumulation of large amounts of these causes protein degradation
d. accumulation of large amounts of these in the blood leads to ketoacidosis
e. accumulation of large amounts of these causes internal bleeding

51. What action does a melanocortin agonist have on a melanocortin receptor?

a. An opposite effect to alpha-melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)
b. A similar effect to alpha-melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)
c. A similar effect to noradrenaline
d. A similar effect to glucagon
e. An opposite effect to insulin.
52. Which of these experimental results strongly suggest that neural signals from
the digestive tract help to signal satiation?
a. Infusion of PYY in human participants reduces hunger ratings and subsequent food
intake.
b. Cholecystokinin1 (CCK1) receptor agonists reduce food intake in rats
c. Loss of CCK1 receptors leads to an obesity syndrome in the rat
d. Gastrin signals increase production of H+ into the stomach lumen
e. Ghrelin levels rise prior to the initiation of a meal

53. Are temporarily lowered levels of leptin likely to be one of the signals for the
initiation of individual meals in humans?
a. No. Levels of leptin only change slowly and with a time course much slower than the
frequency of individual meals.
No. Levels of leptin change very fast and much more frequent than could explain individual
meals
No. Leptin is involved with cardiac arrhythmias, not meal initiation
Yes. Leptin signals that nutrition levels are low, and that fat deposits are being used up.
Yes. Leptin is released by the hypothalamus after a delay of at least 2 hours since the last
instance of distension in the antrum.

There will be 60 questions in the exam