JEE(MAIN) – 2014 TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION (HELD ON

SUNDAY 06th APRIL, 2014)

PART A – PHYSICS

1. The pressure that has to be applied to the ends Sol. Force on Conductor F = il B
of a steel wire of length 10 cm to keep its length F = (10)(3) (3 × 10–4 e–0.2x)
constant when its temperature is raised by r
100°C is : F = 90 × 10–4 (e–0.2x) â x
(For steel Young's modulus is 2 × 1011 N m–2 x= 2

and coefficient of thermal expansion is Work done W = ò F dx

1.1 × 10–5 K–1 ) x= 0

(1) 2.2 × 10 7 Pa (2) 2.2 × 10 6 Pa 2

(3) 2.2 × 10 Pa (4) 2.2 × 10 9 Pa
òe
8 -0.2 x
W = 90 × 10–4 dx
Ans. (3) 0

Sol. Thermal strain = a D T

x= 2
(by l = l0 (1 + a DT)) é e -0.2x ù
Þ Thermal stress in Rod (Pressure due to W = 90 × 10 ê
–4 ú
ë -0.2 û x = 0
Thermal strain) = Y a DT
= 2 × 1011 × 1.1 × 10–5 × 100
é e -0.4 - 1 ù
= 2.2 × 108 Pa = 90 × 10–4 ê ú
2. A conductor lies along the z-axis at ë -0.2 û
–1.5 £ z < 1.5 m and carries a fixed current of Now Average power
10.0 A in -â z direction (see figure). For a field
work
r Pavg. =
B = 3.0 ´ 10 -4 e -0.2 x aˆ y T, find the power required time
to move the conductor at constant speed to 90 ´ 10 -4 ´ (1 - e -0.4 )
x = 2.0 m, y = 0 m in 5 × 10–3s. Assume parallel Pavg. =
5 ´ 10 -3 ´ 0.2
motion along the x-axis.
Pavg. = 2.97 Watt
3. A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible
z
string of length l is suspended from a vertical
support. The bob rotates in a horizontal circle
1.5
I
with an angular speed w rad/s about the
vertical. About the point of suspension :
B y (1) Angular momentum changes in direction
but not in magnitude
x –1.5 (2) Angular momentum changes both in
direction and magnitude
(3) Angular momentum is conserved
(1) 14.85 W (2) 29.7 W (4) Angular momentum changes in magnitude
(3) 1.57 W (4) 2.97 W but not in direction.
Ans. (4) Ans. (1)

1
 5. An open glass tube is immersed in mercury in
r such a way that a length of 8 cm extends above
Sol. L
the mercury level. The open of the tube is then
closed and sealed and the tube is raised
vertically up by addition 46 cm. What will be
length of the air column above mercury in the
tube now ?
l (Atmospheric pressure = 76 cm of Hg)
(1) 38 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 16 cm (4) 22 cm
Ans. (3)

rv 8cm x 54cm
P0
Sol.
r of mg is perpendicular to r . Hence
t L
r
magnitude of L is constant but direction will P0 A(8) = P' A(54 – x)
change. P0 8 = P' (54 – x) .....(1)
4. The current voltage relation of diode is given P' = P 0 – rgx ......(2)
by I = (e1000V/T – 1) mA, where the applied Comparing (P0)8 = (P0 – rgx) (54 – x)
voltage V is in volts and the temperature T is (76)8 = (76 – x) (54 – x)
in degree Kelvin. If a student makes an error Solving we get x = 38 cm
measuring ± 0.01V while measuring the current Air columb = 54 – 38 = 16 cm
of 5 mA at 300 K, what will be error in the hence 3 option is correct.
value of current in mA ? 6. Match List-I (Electromagnetic wave type) with
(1) 0.5 mA (2) 0.05 mA List-II (Its association/application) and select
(3) 0.2 mA (4) 0.02 mA the correct option from the choices given below
Ans. (3) the lists :
Sol. Given current I = (e1000V/T – 1) mA List-I List-II
Þ I + 1 = e1000V/T
(a) Infrared waves (i) To treat muscular
strain
1000 é ù
1000 V

êe ú dV
T
dI = (b) Radio waves (ii) For broadcasting
T ë û
(c) X-rays (iii) To detect fracture of
1000 bones
dI =
T
[ I + 1] dV (d) Ultraviolet rays (iv) Absorbed by the
ozone layer of the
1000 atmosphere
= [6] × (0.01)
300 (a) (b) (c) (d)
dI = 0.2 mA (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Ans. (2)
Sol. Factual question

2
7. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two
circular plates separated by a distance of 5 mm
M
and with a dielectriic of dielectric constant 2.2 V
between them. When the electric field in the
Ö2R 45° F2
dielectric field in the dielectric is 3 × 104 V/m, F2 F1 V
the charge density of the positive plate will be
close to : R
Sol. M M
(1) 3 × 104 C/m2 (2) 6 × 104 C/m2
(3) 6 × 10 C/m
–7 2 (4) 3 × 10–7 C/m2
V
Ans. (3)
s V
Sol. Ke 0 = 3 × 10
4 M

s Net force on one particle

= 3 × 104
2.25 ´ 8.86 ´ 10 -12 Fnet = F1 + 2F2 cos 45° = Centripetal force
s = 6 × 10–7 C/m2
8. A student measured the length of a rod and GM 2 é 2GM 2 ù MV2
Þ + ê cos45° ú=
wrote it as 3.50 cm. Which instrument did he (2R)2 ë ( 2R) 2 û R
use to measure it ?
(1) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the 1 GM
V= (1 + 2 2)
circular scale and pitch as 1 mm. 2 R
(2) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the 10. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W,
circular scale and pitch as 1 mm. 5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater
(3) A meter scale of 1 kW. The voltage of the electric mains is
(4) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in 220 V. The minimum capacity of the main fuse
vernier scale matches with 9 division in of the building will be :
main scale and main scale has 10 divisions (1) 12 A (2) 14 A
in 1 cm. (3) 8 A (4) 10 A
Ans. (4) Ans. (1)
Sol. Least count of varnier calliper is 0.01 cm Sol. All devices are in parallel so total current drawn
Hence it matches with the reading. is gives as
9. Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant
from each other, move along a circle of radius Total Power
inet =
R under the action of their mutual gravitational 220
attraction. The speed of each particle is :
15 ´ 40 + 5 ´ 100 + 5 ´ 80 + 1000
inet =
GM 1 GM 220
(1) (1 + 2 2) (2) (1 + 2 2)
R 2 R 2500
inet = » 11.36 A
220
GM GM
(3) (4) 2 2 minimum capacity of main fuse should be more
R R
than 11.36 A
Ans. (2)
Ans is » 12 A Hence (1)

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11. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion B
in a straight line. In first t s, after starting from Sol. Coercivity = = 3 × 103 = nI
µ0
rest it travels a distance a, and in next t s it 3 × 103 = 1000 I
travels 2a, in same direction, then : I = 3A
(1) Amplitude of motion is 4a 13. The forward biased diode connection is :
(2) Time period of oscillation is 6t 2V 4V
(1)
(3) Amplitude of motion is 3a
–2V
(4) Time period of oscillation is 8t (2)
Ans. (2) +2V
(3)
2a a –3V
Sol. (4)
M.P. 3 2 1 Ans. (3)
x = A sin (wt + p/2) Sol. By convention
x = A cos wt
14. During the propagation of electromagnetic
A-a waves in a medium :
A – a = A cos wt cos wt =
A (1) Electric energy density is equal to the
A - 3a magnetic energy density
cos 2 wt = (2) Both electric magnetic energy densities are
A
2
zero
A - 3a æ A-aö (3) Electric energy density is double of the
2 cos2 wt – 1 = = 2ç ÷ -1
A è A ø magnetic energy density
2(A – a)2 – A2 = (A) (A – 3a) (4) Electric energy density is half of the
2A2 + 2a2 – 4Aa – A2 = A2 – 3aA magnetic energy density.
2a2 – 4Aa = – 3aA Ans. (1)
2a2 = Aa Sol. Factual question
A = 2a 15. In the circuit shown here, the point ‘C’ is kept
a 1 connected to point ‘A’ till the current flowing
cos wt = = through the circuit becomes constant.
2a 2
Afterward, suddenly, point ‘C’ is disconnected
p
wt = from point ‘A’ and connected to point ‘B’ at
3 time t = 0. Ratio of the voltage across resistance
2p 2p × 3t and the inductor at t = L/R will be equal to :
=T T=
w p A C
R
T = 6t
12. The coercivity of a small magnet where the L
B
ferromagnet gets demagnetized is
3 × 103 A m–1. The current required to be passed 1-e e
in a solenoid of length 10 cm and number of (1) –1 (2) (3) (4) 1
e 1-e
turns 100, so that the magnet gets demagnetized Ans. (1)
when inside the solenoid, is : Sol. VR + VL = 0
(1) 3A (2) 6 A
(3) 30 mA (4) 60 mA VR
Ans. (1) VL = –1

4
16. A mass ‘m’ is supported by a massless string Ans. (2)
wound around a uniform hollow cylinder of
fnRDT
mass m and radius R. If the string does not slip Sol. Change in internal energy =
on the cylinder, with what acceleration will the 2
mass fall on release? 5
= × 1 × R × (– 200)
2
= – 500 R
18. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown
R
m vertically upwards with a speed u. The time
taken by the particle, to hit the ground, is
n times that taken by it to reach the highest
point of its path.
m
The relation between H, u and n is :
(1) 2g H = nu2(n – 2) (2) g H = (n – 2)u2
5g 2g g (3) 2g H = n2u2 (4) g H = (n – 2)2u2
(1) (2) g (3) (4)
6 3 2 Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)
u
Sol. mg – T = ma Sol. Time to reach highest point = t = g
mR 2 a
T×R= ´ time to reach ground = nt
2 R 4
g 1
Þ a= S = ut + at2
2 2
17. One mole of diatomic ideal gas undergoes a
cyclic process ABC as shown in figure. The 1 H
–H = u(nt) – g(nt)2
process BC is adiabatic. The temperatures at A, 2
B and C are 400 K, 800 K and 600 K Þ 2gH = nu 2(n – 2)
respectively. Choose the correct statement : 19. A thin convex lens made from crown glass
B
800K æ 3ö
ç µ = 2 ÷ has focal length ƒ. When it is
è ø
P measured in two different liquids having
600K 4 5
A C refractive indices and , it has the focal
400K
3 3
V
(1) The change in internal energy in the process length ƒ 1 and ƒ 2 respectively. The correct
AB is –350 R. relation between the focal lengths is :
(2) The change in internal energy in the process (1) ƒ2 > ƒ and ƒ1 becomes negative
BC is –500R (2) ƒ1 and ƒ2 both become negative
(3) The change in internal energy in whole (3) ƒ1 = ƒ2 < ƒ
cyclic process is 250 R. (4) ƒ1 > ƒ and ƒ2 become negative
(4) The change in internal energy in the process Ans. (4)
CA is 700 R.

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 21. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end.
1 æ 3 / 2 öæ 1 1 ö
Sol. =ç - 1÷ ç - ÷ ...... (1) Find the number of possible natural oscillations
f è 1 ø è R1 R 2 ø of air column in the pipe whose frequencies lie
below 1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air
1 æ 3 / 2 öæ 1 1 ö
=ç - 1÷ ç - ÷ ......(2) is 340 m/s.
f1 è 4 / 3 ø è R1 R 2 ø
(1) 6 (2) 4
1 æ 3/ 2 öæ 1 1 ö (3) 12 (4) 8
=ç - 1÷ ç - ÷ ......(3)
f2 è 5 / 3 ø è R1 R 2 ø Ans. (1)
20. Three rods of Copper, Brass and Steel are Sol. Fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe
welded together to form a Y-shaped structure.
Area of cross-section of each rod = 4 cm2. End v 340
f0 = = = 100 Hz
of copper rod is maintained at 100°C where as 4l 4 ´ 0.85
ends of brass and steel are kept at 0°C. Lengths So possible frequencies below 1250 Hz are
of the copper, brass and steel rods are 46, 13 100 Hz, 300 Hz, 500 Hz, 700 Hz, 900 Hz,
and 12 cms respectively. The rods are thermally
1100 Hz
insulated from surroundings except at ends.
Thermal conductivities of copper, brass and Þ No. of frequencies = 6
steel are 0.92, 0.26 and 0.12 CGS units 22. There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two
respectively. Rate of heat flow through copper liquids which do not mix and of densities d1 and
rod is : d2 are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends
(1) 4.8 cal/s (2) 6.0 cal/s 90° angle at centre. Radius joining their
(3) 1.2 cal/s (4) 2.4 cal/s interface makes an angle a with vertical.
Ans. (1)
d1
Sol. (100) C B(0) Ratio d is :
2

S(0) d2
a

100 - q q - 0 q - 0
= + d1
RC RB RS
l
where R = 1 + tan a 1 + sin a
KA (1) (2)
on solving we get q = 40 1 - tan a 1 - cos a
Heat flow per unit time through copper rod
1 + sin a 1 + cos a
(100 - 40) (3) (4)
= (K C A C ) 1 - sin a 1 - cos a
lC
Ans. (1)
60
= × 0.92 × 4
46
= 4.8 cal/s

6
 24. Hydrogen ( 1 H 1 ), Deuterium ( 1 H 2 ), singly
ionised Helium ( 2He 4) + and doubly ionised
C lithium (3Li6)+ + all have one electron around
R the nucleus. Consider an electron transition
Rsina
Sol. a
from n = 2 to n = 1. If the wave lengths of
a
Rsina
a
emitted radiation are l 1 , l 2 , l 3 and l 4
Rcosa respectively then approximately which one of
A
the following is correct ?
R(1–cosa)
B (1) l1 = l2 = 4l3 = 9l4
Let Radius of circular tube is R (2) l1 = 2l2 = 3l3 = 4l4
Also PA = PC = P0
(3) 4l1 = 2l2 = 2l3 = l4
Pressure at point B
PB = P0 + d1(R – R sin a)g (4) l1 = 2l2 = 2l3 = l4
= P0 + d2(R sin a + R cos a)g Ans. (1)
Þ d1(cos a – sin a) = d2(sin a + cos a)
Sol. In Bohr model
d1 cos a + sin a 1 + tan a
= =
d 2 cos a - sin a 1 - tan a 1 é1 1ù
= Rz 2 ê 2 - 2 ú
23. A green light is incident from the water to the l ë n1 n 2 û
air - water interface at the critical angle (q).
Select the correct statement. 1
(1) The spectrum of visible light whose Þ lµ
z2
frequency is more than that of green light
will come out to the air medium. 1 1 1 1
(2) The entire spectrum of visible light will l1 : l2 : l3 : l4 : : : : :
1 1 4 9
come out of the water at various angles to
the normal Þ l1 = l2 = 4l3 = 9l4
(3) The entire spectrum of visible light will 25. The radiation corresponding to 3 ® 2 transition
come out of the water at an angle of 90° to
of hydrogen atom falls on a metal surface to
the normal.
produce photoelectrons. These electrons are
(4) The spectrum of visible light whose
made to enter a magnetic field of 3 × 10–4T. If
frequency is less than that of green light
the radius of the largest circular path followed
will come out to the air medium.
Ans. (4) by these electrons is 10.0 mm, the work
Sol. Frequency of light (n) > frequency of green function of the metal is close to :-
light (nG) (1) 0.8 eV (2) 1.6 eV
µ is also greater than µG and critical angle of
(3) 1.8 eV (4) 1.1 eV
light is less than green light therefore light will
got total internal reflaction and not come out Ans. (4)
to the air.
For frequency of light (n) < nG ; light will not
suffer T.I.R. Therefore light come out to the air

7
 2m(K.E.) 27. When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance
Sol. In magnetic field, Radius R =
qB x, it exerts a restoring force of magnitude
q 2 B2 R 2 F = ax + bx2 where a and b are constants. The
K.E. =
2m work done in stretching the unstretched
K.E. = 0.80 ev rubber-band by L is:-
Energy of photon for transition from 3 ® 2 in
hydrogen atom aL2 bL3 1 æ aL2 bL3 ö
(1) + (2) ç + ÷
é1 1ù 2 3 2è 2 3 ø
E = 13.6 ê 2 - 2 ú = 1.88 ev
ë2 3 û
From Einstein photoelectric equation 1 2
(3) aL2 + bL3 (4) (aL + bL3 )
E = K.Emax + f 2
Þ 1.88 = 0.8 + f Þ f = 1.08 ev Ans. (1)
f » 1.1 ev
L
26. A block of mass m is placed on a surface with
Sol. Work done = ò F dx
x3 0
a vertical cross section given by y = . If the
6
coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum L

ò (ax + bx ) dx
2

height above the ground at which the block can =

0

be placed without slipping is :-

aL2 bL3
1 1 1 2 = +
(1) m (2) m (3) m (4) m 2 3
3 2 6 3
28. On heating water, bubbles being formed at the
Ans. (3)
bottom of the vessel detatch and rise. Take the
y
bubbles to be spheres of radius R and making
a circular contact of radius r with the bottom
of the vessel. If r << R, and the surface tension
of water is T, value of r just before bubbles
Sol. detatch is:-
si nq y
mg (dencity of water is rw)
x
x
For equilibrium under limiting friction
mg sin q = µ mg cos q R
Þ tan q = µ
x3 2r
From the equation of surface y =
6
2 rw g 2 3r w g
dy 3x 2 (1) R (2) R
slope = = = tan q T T
dx 6
x2
Þ = µ = 0.5 Þ x = 1 2 rw g 2 rw g
2 (3) R (4) R
3T 6T
1
So y =
6 Ans. (Bonus)

8
 Sol. When polaroid is at Angle 30º with beam A,
it makes 60º with beam B
by malus law
R IA cos2 30º = IB cos2 60º
q
Sol. r
q I 1
Þ I = 3
A

T T B

r
Force due to Surface Tenstion 30. Assume that an electric field E = 30x 2 ˆi exists
= T (2pr) sin q in space. Then the potential difference VA – VO,
where VO is the potential at the origin and VA
r
= T (2pr) × the potential at x = 2 m is :-
R
This force will balance the force of Bouyancy (1) –80 J (2) 80 J

r 4 (3) 120 J (4) –120 J

= rw × p R g
3
T (2pr) ×
R 3 Ans. (1)

2 2 rw g Sol. Given unit in options is wrong.

r= R
3T ur uuur
By using dv = - E. dx
29. Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light
with mutually perpendicular planes of ur uur
polarization are seen through a polaroid. From
DV = – ò E.dx
the position when the beam A has maximum
x=2
intensity (and beam B has zero intensity), a 3 x= 2
ò 30x dx = -10x
2
VA – V0 = – x= 0
rotation of polaroid through 30º makes the two x=0

beams appear equally bright. If the initial

VA – V0 = – 10 [8 – 0] = – 80 V
intensitites of the two beams are I A and I B

IA
respectively, then
IB equals :

1
(1) 1 (2)
3

3
(3) 3 (4)
2
Ans. (2)

9
 PART B – MATHEMATICS

31. The image of the line 32. If the coefficients of x3 and x4 in the expansion of
(1 + ax + bx2) (1 – 2x)18 in powers of x are both
x -1 y - 3 z - 4
= = in the plane zero, then (a, b) is equal to :-
3 1 -5
2x – y + z + 3 = 0 is the line : æ 251 ö æ 251 ö
(1) ç 16, (2) ç 14,
è 3 ÷ø è 3 ÷ø
x +3 y -5 z-2
(1) = =
3 1 -5 æ 272 ö æ 272 ö
(3) ç 14, (4) ç 16,
x +3 y -5 z+2 è 3 ÷ø è 3 ÷ø
(2) = =
-3 -1 5 Ans. (4)
Sol. In the expansion of (1 + ax + bx2) (1 – 2x)18
x -3 y+5 z-2
(3) = = General term = (1 + ax + bx2) . 18Cr (–2x)r
3 1 -5
Cofficinet of
x -3 y+5 z-2 x3 = 18C3(–2)3 + a . 18C2(–2)2 + b . 18C1(–2)=0
(4) = = Cofficinet of
-3 -1 5
x4 = 18C4(–2)4 + a . 18C3(–2)3 + b . 18C2(–2)2=0
Ans. (1)
on solving the equations we get
x -1 y - 3 z - 4 153a – 9b = 1632 ...(i)
Sol. L : = =
3 1 -5 3b – 32a = –240 ...(ii)
P : 2x – y + z + 3 = 0
272
It can be observed given line is parallel to given on solving we get a = 16 & b = .
3
plane.
33. If a Î R and the equation
Image of (1, 3, 4) in given plane can be calculated
–3(x – [x])2 + 2(x – [x]) + a2 = 0
as
(where [x] deontes the greatest integer £ x) has
x - 1 y - 3 z - 4 -2(2 ´ 1 - 3 + 4 + 3) no integral solution, then all possible values of a lie
= = = = -2
2 -1 1 6 in the interval :
Þ x = –3 ; y = 5 ; z = 2 (1) (–1, 0) È (0, 1) (2) (1, 2)
(3) (–2, –1) (4) (–¥, –2) È (2, ¥)
(1, 3, 4) Ans. (1)
Sol. Given equation is
3, 1, –5 –3(x – [x])2 + 2 (x – [x]) + a2 = 0
Þ a2 = 3. {x}2 – 2{x}
2
P=0 æ 1ö 1
= 3. ç {x} - ÷ - (Q {x} ¹ 0 Þ a2 ¹ 0)
è 3ø 3
Þ a2 Î (0, 1)
\ Required line is Þ a Î (–1, 0) È (0, 1).
x +3 y -5 z-2
= = r rr rr r rrr 2
34. If éë a ´ b b ´ c c ´ a ùû = l éëa b c ùû then l is equal to:
3 1 -5
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 0 (4) 1
Ans. (4)

10
 r r r r r r r r r r r r
Sol. éëa ´ b b ´ c c ´ aùû = (a ´ b). ((b ´ c) ´ (c ´ a)) 20 1
tan30° = =
20 + TL 3
r r rrr r rrr r
= (a ´ b). ([b c a]c – [b c c]a)
rrr \ TL = 20 ( 3 - 1)
= [a b c]2
\ speed is 20( 3 - 1) m/sec.
Þ l = 1.
35. The variance of first 50 even natural numbers is:- 37. The integral
p
833 437 x x
(1)
4
(2) 833 (3) 437 (4)
4
ò 1 + 4sin 2
2
- 4sin dx equals :
2
0

Ans. (2)
Sol. We have to calculate variance of the data 2p
(1) p – 4 (2) -4-4 3
2, 4, 6, 8, ....., 100 3

å x 2i - æç å x i ö÷
2
p
s2 = (3) 4 3 - 4 (4) 4 3 - 4 -
n ç n ÷ 3
è ø
Ans. (4)
4.50.51.101
Now, å x 2i = 22 + 42 + ....+ 1002 =
6 p
x
p/2

å x2i = 3434
Sol. I = ò 2 sin
2
- 1 dx = 2 ò 2sin x - 1 dx
0 0
Now,
50
2 æ p/ 6 p/2
ö
æ å x i ö æ 2.50.51 ö2 = 2 ç ò (1 - 2sin x)dx + ò (2 sin x - 1)dx ÷
Also, çç ÷÷ = ç ÷ = 2601 ç ÷
n è 2.50 ø è 0 p/6 ø
è ø
\ s2 = 3434 – 2601 = 833.
= 2 ( x + 2 cos x )0 + ( -2 cos x - x )p / 6
p/6 p/2

36. A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical pole 20m

high and its elevation from a point O on the ground p
is 45°. It flies off horizontally straight away from = 4 3-4-
3
the point O. After one second, the elevation of the
38. The statement ~(p « ~q) is :
bird from O is reduced to 30°. Then the speed (in
(1) equivalent to p « q
m/s) of the bird is :
(2) equivalent to ~p « q
(1) 40 ( 2 -1 ) (2) 40 ( 3- 2 ) (3) a tautology
(4) a fallacy
(3) 20 2 (4) 20 ( 3 -1) Ans.
Sol.
(1)
Given statement is ~ (p « ~q)
Ans. (4) As we know ~(p « q) º ~p « q or p « ~q
Sol. OT = 20 = BT \ ~(p « ~q) º p « q.
Now, In DOB'L 39. If A is an 3 × 3 non-singular matrix such that AA'
B B'
= A'A and B = A–1 A', the BB' equals :
(1) I + B (2) I
20 (3) B –1 (4) (B–1)'
30° Ans. (2)
45°
O T L Sol. B = A–1 AT

11
 BT = (A–1 AT)T = A (A–1)T 42. If g is the inverse of a function ƒ and
\ BBT = A–1 AT A (A–1)T
1
= A–1 AAT (AT)–1 (Q AAT = ATA) ƒ'(x) = , then g'(x) is equal to :
1 + x5
=I
(1) 1 + x5 (2) 5x4
1
æ 1 ö x+ x
40. The integral ò çè 1 + x - x ÷ø e dx is equal to :
(3)
1
(4) 1+{g(x)}5
1 + {g(x)}5
1 1
x+ x+
Ans. (4)
(1) (x - 1)e x +c (2) xe x
+c
1 1
Sol. f(g(x)) = x
x+ x+
(3) (x + 1)e x +c (4) -xe x
+c Þ f'(g(x)). g'(x) = 1
Ans. (2) 1
1 \ g'(x) = = 1 + {g(x)}5
æ 1 ö x+ x f '(g(x))
Sol. ò çè 1 + x - x ÷ø e dx
43. If a, b ¹ 0, and ƒ(n) = an + bn and
æ x+ 1 x+
1
æ 1 öö
= ò çç e x + xe x ç 1 - 2 ÷ ÷÷ dx
è x øø
3 1 + ƒ(1) 1 + ƒ(2)
è 1 + ƒ(1) 1 + ƒ(2) 1 + ƒ(3)
x+
1
1 + ƒ(2) 1 + ƒ(3) 1 + ƒ(4)
= ò (f(x) + x f '(x))dx (where f(x) = e x )
1 = K(1 – a)2 (1 – b)2 (a – b)2, then K is equal to
x+
=x. e + c. x
:
41. If z is a complex number such that |z| ³ 2, then
1
(1) ab (2) (3) 1 (4) –1
1 ab
the minimum value of z + :
2 Ans. (3)

5 3 1+ a + b 1 + a 2 + b2
(1) is equal to
2
1+ a +b 1 + a 2 + b 2 1 + a 3 + b3
(2) lies in the interval (1, 2) Sol.
1 + a 2 + b2 1 + a 3 + b3 1 + a 4 + b 4
5
(3) is strictly greater than
2 2
1 1 1
3 5
(4) is strictly greater than but less than = 1 a b = (1 – a)2 (1 – b)2 (a – b)2
2 2 1 a2 b 2

Ans. (2)
\ K=1
1 1
Sol. z+ ³ |z| -
1
2 2
44. Let fK (x)
k
( )
sin k x + cosk x where x Î R and
1
Min. value of z + occurs at |z| = 2 K ³ 1. Then f4 (x) – f6 (x) equals:
2
Q |z| ³ 2 1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1 1 3 6 3 4 12
\ z+ = 2- =
2 Min 2 2 Ans. (4)

12
 1
Sol. fK(x) =
K
(
sin K x + cosK x ) Sol. P(A È B) = 1 - P(A È B) =
5
6
\
Q P(A) + P (B) – P(A Ç B) = P(A È B)
sin x + cos x sin x + cos x
4 4 6 6
f4 (x) - f6 (x) = - 3 1 5
4 6 + P(B) - =
4 4 6
1 - 2sin 2 x.cos2 x 1 - 3sin 2 x.cos2 x
= - 1
4 6 \ P(B) =
3
2 1
= = 3 1
24 2 Q P(A) = & P(B) =
4 3
45. Let a and b be the roots of equation
1
px2 + qx + r = 0 , p ¹ 0. If p, q, r are in A.P. and \ P(A) . P(B) = = P(A Ç B)
4
1 1 \ A & B are independent but not equally likely
+ = 4 , then the value of |a - b| is:
a b 47. If f and g are differentiable functions in [0, 1]
satisfying f(0) = 2 = g(1), g(0) = 0 and
61 2 17 34 2 13 f(1) = 6, then for some c Î ] 0, 1[ :
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) 2f'(c) = g'(c) (2) 2f'(c) = 3g'(c)
9 9 9 9
(3) f'(c) = g'(c) (4) f'(c) = 2g'(c)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)
a+b q Sol. Consider a function
Sol. = 4 = - Þ q = – 4r
ab r h(x) = f(x) – 2g(x)
Q p, q & r are in A.P 2q = p + r \ h(0) = 2 , h(1) = 2
Þ – 8r = p + r Þ p = – 9r Q h(x) is continuous and diffrentiable
in [0, 1]
|a – b| = (a + b) 2 - 4ab
\ by Rolle's theorem, there exist at least one 'c'
q 2 - 4pr 16r 2 + 36r 2 such that
= = h'(c) = 0
p2 p2
= f'(c) = 2g'(c)
52r 2 52 2 13 48. Let the population of rabbits surviving at a time t
= = =
p2 81 9 be governed by the differential equation
46. Let A and B be two events such that dp(t) 1
= p(t) - 200 . If p(0) = 100, then p(t)
dt 2
1 1 1 equals :
P (A È B) = , P (A Ç B) = and P(A) = ,
6 4 4 (1) 400 – 300 et/2 (2) 300 – 200 e–t/2
(3) 600 – 500 et/2 (4) 400 – 300 e–t/2
Where A stands for the complement of the event
Ans. (1)
A. Then the events A and B are :
(1) mutually exclusive and independent. dp(t) 1
Sol. = p(t) - 200
(2) equally likely but not independent. dt 2
(3) independent but not equally likely.
p(t) t
(4) independent and equally likely. dp(t) dt
Ans. (3)
ò100 p(t) - 400 = ò0 2

13
 51. Let a, b, c and d be non-zero numbers. If the point
p(t) - 400 t
Þ log = of intersection of the lines
-300 2
4ax + 2ay + c = 0 and 5bx + 2by + d = 0 lies in
|P(t) – 400| = 300 et/2 the fourth quadrant and is equidistant from the two
400 – P(t) = 300 et/2 axes then :
\ P(t) = 400 – 300et/2 (1) 2bc – 3ad = 0 (2) 2bc + 3ad = 0
49. Let C be the circle with centre at (1, 1) and radius (3) 3bc – 2ad = 0 (4) 3bc + 2ad = 0
= 1. If T is the circle centred at (0, y), passing Ans. (3)
through origin and touching the circle C externally, Sol. Put y = – x [because equidistant points in forth
then the radius of T is equal to : quadrant lies on y = – x]
4ax + 2ay + c = 0
3 3 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) Þ 4ax – 2ax + c = 0
2 2 2 4
c
Ans. (4) Þ x= - ...(1)
2a
Sol. C1C2 = r1 + r2 5bx + 2by + d = 0
Þ 5 bx – 2bx + d = 0
1 + (1 - y) 2 = 1 + y
Þ 3bx + d = 0
(1, 1)
1 d
\ y= C2 Þ x= - ...(2)
4 (0, y) C1 3b
from (1) & (2)
1
\ radius = c d
4 - =-
2a 3b
Þ 3bc – 2ad = 0
50. The area of the region described by
52. Let PS be the median of the triangle with vertices
A = {(x, y) : x2 + y2 £ 1 and y2 £ 1 – x} is :
P (2, 2), Q (6, –1) and R (7, 3). The equation of
p 4 p 4 the line passing through (1, –1) and parallel to PS
(1) + (2) -
2 3 2 3 is :
(1) 4x – 7y – 11 = 0 (2) 2x + 9y + 7 = 0
p 2 p 2
(3) - (4) + (3) 4x + 7y + 3 = 0 (4) 2x – 9y – 11 = 0
2 3 2 3
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1) Sol. Slope of PS
Sol. Shaded Area
2 -1 P(2, 2)
p
1 MPS = 13
= + 2 ò x dy 2-
2 y= 0 2

2 Q(6, –1)
1 S (13/2, 1) R(7, 3)
p MPS = -
= + 2 ò (1 - y ) dy
2
(0,1) 9
2 0
Equation of the line passing through (1, – 1)
p æ 1ö (1,0) and parallel to PS
= + 2 ç1 - ÷
2 è 3ø
2
y+1=– - (x – 1)
9
p 4
= + Þ 9y + 9 = – 2x + 2
2 3
Þ 2x + 9y + 7 = 0

14
 sin(p cos2 x)
53. lim is equal to:
x® 0 x2 P(h,k)

p
(1) (2) 1 (3) – p (4) p
2 O
Ans. (4) Sol.
x2 y2
+ =1

Sol. lim
(
sin p cos2 x ) 6 2

2
x ®0 x

Þ lim
(
sin p – p sin 2 x ) Let the foot of perpendicular be (h, k)
2
x ®0 x k
then mop =
Þ lim
(
sin p sin x 2
) ´ p sin 2
x h
x ®0 p sin x 2
x 2
equation of tangent is
y = mx ±
(
sin p sin 2 x )´ p ´ lim ç
æ sin x ö
2 a 2 m2 + b2
Þ lim
x ®0 p sin 2 x x ®0 è x ÷ø y = mx ± 6m2 + 2
Þ 1×p×1 1 h
= p satisfied by (h, k) and m = - =-
m op k
54. If X= {4n–3n–1 :n ÎN}and Y={9(n–1) :n ÎN}, where
N is the set of natural numbers, then 2
æ h2 ö 6h 2
X È Y is equal to : çè k + = +2
k ÷ø k2
(1) N (2) Y – X (3) X (4) Y
Ans. (4) multiply by k2
Sol. X = 4n – 3n – 1 (k2 + h2)2 = 6h2 + 2k2
= (1 + 3)n – 3n – 1 Þ (x2 + y2)2 = 6x2 + 2y2
56. Three positive numbers form an increasing G.P. If
= éë n C 0 30 + n C1 31 + n C 2 32 + ..........n C n 3 n ùû - 3n - 1 the middle term in this G.P. is doubled, the new
= n C 2 32 + n C 3 33 + n C 4 34 + .... + n C n 3n numbers are in A.P. Then the common ratio of the
G.P. is :
= 32 éë n C 2 + n C 3 31 + n C 4 32 + .... + n C n 3 n - 2 ùû
(1) 2+ 3 (2) 3 + 2
= 9 × integer (non negative) where n Î N
= multiple of 9 (non negative) (3) 2 - 3 (4) 2 + 3
Y = 9 (n – 1) = all non-negative multiple of 9 so Ans. (4)
XÈY = Y Sol. Let a, ar, ar2 are in G.P.
55. The locus of the foot of perpendicular drawn from \ a, 2ar, ar2 are in AP
the centre of the ellipse x2 + 3y2 = 6 on any tangent Þ 4ar = a + ar2
to it is : Þ r2 – 4r + 1 = 0
(1) (x2 – y2)2 = 6x2 + 2y2
Þ r=2+ 3, 2 - 3
(2) (x2 – y2)2 = 6x2 – 2y2
(3) (x2 + y2)2 = 6x2 + 2y2 Since GP is an increasing G.P
(4) (x2 + y2)2 = 6x2 – 2y2 Þ r = 2+ 3
Ans. (3)

15
57. If (10)9 + 2(11)1 (10)8 + 3(11)2 (10)7 + ...... 59. The slope of the line touching both, the parabolas
+ 10 (11)9 = k (10)9 , then k is equal to : y2 = 4x and x2 = – 32 y is :

121 441 1 3 1 2
(1) (2) (1) (2) (3) (4)
10 100 2 2 8 3
(3) 100 (4) 110 Ans. (1)
Ans. (3) 1
Sol. S = 109 + 2(11)1 (10)8 + 3(11)2 (10)7 + ...+ 10(11)9 Sol. Tangent to curve y2 = 4x is y = mx +
m
11 ...(1)
S = (11)(10)8 + 2(11)2 (10)7 + ...1110
10 Tangent to curve x2 = – 32 y is y = mx + 8m2
S ...(2)
– = 109 + (11.108 + 112 . 107 + ..... + 119) – 1110
10 On comparing (1) and (2)

æ æ 11 ö 9 ö 1
m=
ç1 - çè 10 ÷ø ÷ 2
S è ø
– = 109 + 11.108 - 1110 60. If x = – 1 and x = 2 are extreme points of
10 æ 11 ö
çè 1 - 10 ÷ø f(x) = a log |x| + bx2 + x then :
1
(10 9
- 119 ) .10 - 11
10
(1) a = – 6 , b =
2
= 109 + 108 .11
109 (-1)
= 109 + 11 (119 – 109) – 1110 1
(2) a = – 6 , b = –
= 109 (1 – 11) 2
S = 1011 = K 109
Þ K = 100 1
(3) a = 2 , b = –
58. The angle between the lines whose direction 2
cosines satisfy the equations l + m + n = 0 and
1
l2 = m2 + n2 is : (4) a = 2 , b =
2
p p p p
(1) (2) (3) (4) Ans. (3)
3 4 6 2 Sol. f(x) = a log |x| + bx2 + x
Ans. (1)
a
Sol. l2 = m2 + n2 ...(1) Þ f'(x) = + 2bx + 1
x
l+m+n =0 Þ l = – (m + n ) ...(2)
(m + n)2 = m2 + n2 put x = – 1 Þ – a – 2b + 1 = 0 ...(1)
mn = 0 a
Either m = 0 or n = 0 put x = 2 Þ + 4b + 1 = 0 ...(2)
2
l m n On solving (1) and (2)
for m = 0 , l = – n Þ = =
1 0 -1
1
l m n a = 2, b = -
//y for n = 0 , l = – m Þ = = 2
1 -1 0
1+ 0 + 0 1
Þ cos q = =
2 2 2

p
Þ q=
3

16
 PART C – CHEMISTRY

61. Which one of the following properties is not 63. The metal that cannot be obtained by
shown by NO ? electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salts is:
(1) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen (1) Cu (2) Cr (3) Ag (4) Ca
dioxide
Ans. (4)
(2) It's bond order is 2.5
Sol. (4) Ca is a reactive metal and extraction of
(3) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state
reactive metal is not possible by electrolysis
(4) It is a neutral oxide
of aq. salt solution.
Ans. (3)
64. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte
1
Sol. (1) NO + O NO 2 (Correct statement) is 50 . The specific conductance of the
2 2
(Colourless) (Air) (Brown)
solution is 1.4 S m–1. The resistance of 0.5 M
(2) NO is odd e– molecule which have B.O. = solution of the same electrolyte is 280 The
2.5 (correct statment) molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the
(3) NO has an unpaired e– in its antibonding electrolyte in S m2 mol–1 is :
M.O. it is paramagnatic compound
(1) 5 × 103 (2) 5 × 102
(given statement in Q. is incorrect)
(3) 5 × 10–4 (4) 5 × 10–3
(4) It is neutral towards litmus (correct
statement) Ans. (3)
62. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waals
1
equation at low pressure can be written as : Sol. K =
R A
Pb Pb
(1) Z = 1 – (2) Z = 1 + K1 R2
RT RT K2 R1

RT a 1.4 280
(3) Z = 1 + (4) Z = 1 – K2 50
Pb VRT
Ans. (4)
7 1
K2 = Sm–1
28 4
Sol. At low pressure, Vm large
(Vm – b) Vm K 1 1
m =
a M 1000 4 0.5 1000
P Vm RT
Vm2 = 5 × 10–4 Sm2 mol–1
a 65. CsCl crystallises in body centred cubic lattice.
PVm + RT if 'a' is its edge length then which of the
Vm
following expression is correct :
3
PVm a (1) rCs rCl – a (2) rCs rCl– 3a
1 2
RT Vm RT
3a
(3) rCs rCl – 3a (4) rCs rCl –
PVm a 2
Z= =1– . Ans. (1)
RT Vm RT

17
Sol. In CsCl crystal Cs+ ion is present in cubic void (1) CH 3 CH 2 Cl > CH 3 Cl > (CH 3 ) 2 CHCl >
3a (CH3)3CCl
therefore rCs + rCl – =
2 (2) (CH 3 ) 2 CHCl > CH 3 CH 2 Cl > CH 3 Cl >
66. Consider separate solution of 0.500 M (CH3)3CCl
C2H5OH(aq), 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq), 0.250 M
(3) CH 3 Cl > (CH 3 ) 2 CHCl > CH 3 CH 2 Cl >
KBr(aq) and 0.125 M Na3 PO 4 (aq) at 25°C. (CH3)3CCl
Which statement is true about these solutions, (4) CH 3 Cl > CH 3 CH 2 Cl > (CH 3 ) 2 CHCl >
assuming all salts to be strong electrolytes ? (CH3)3CCl
(1) 0.125 M Na 3 PO 4 (aq) has the highest Ans. (4)
osmotic pressure. Sol. In SN2 reaction reactivity order for R-X with
(2) 0.500 M C 2 H 5OH (aq) has the highest respect to 'R' follows 1º>2º>3º which is based
osmotic pressure. on less steric crowding which helps for case of
(3) They all have the same osmotic pressure. transition state formation.
(4) 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2 (aq) has the highest 1
osmotic pressure. rate for SN2
Steric hindrance on C of C LG
Ans. (3)
Sol. = iCRT then correct order will be
CH3–Cl > CH3 – CH2–Cl > (CH3)2CH–Cl >
S.No. Electrolyte i C i×C
1 C 2 H 5 OH 1 0.5M 0.5 (CH3)3C–Cl
2 Mg 3(PO 4)2 5 0.1M 0.5 69. The octahedral complex of a metal ion M3+ with
3 KBr 2 0.25M 0.5
four monodentate ligands L 1 , L2, L 3 and L 4
4 Na 3 PO 4 4 0.125M 0.5
absorb wavelength in the region of red, green,
all have same osmotic pressure.
yellow and blue, respectively. The increasing
67. In which of the following reaction H2O2 acts as
order of ligand strength of the four ligands is:
a reducing agent ?
(1) L3 < L2 < L4 < L1 (2) L1 < L2 < L4 < L3
(a) H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e– 2H2O
(b) H2O2 – 2e– O2 + 2H+ (3) L4 < L3 < L2 < L1 (4) L1 < L3 < L2 < L4
(c) H2O2 + 2e– 2OH– Ans. (4)
(d) H2O2 + 2OH– – 2e– O2 + 2H2O Sol. The frequency order of given absorbed light is:
(1) (a), (c) (2) (b), (d) Blue > Green > Yellow > Red.
Respective L4 L2 L3 L1
(3) (a), (b) (4) (c), (d) ligands
Ans. (2) Hence the ligand strength order is L4 > L2 > L3 > L1.
Sol. A chemical species will act as reducing agent Because strong field ligand causes higher
splitting gap for octahedral-complex and
when it looses electron therefore correct options
absorbs high frequency light for d-d transition.
are (b) and (d). Hence the answer is (4).
68. In SN2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity
for the following compounds :
CH3Cl, CH3CH2Cl, (CH3)2CHCl and (CH3)3CCl
is :

18
70. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an
organic compound was digested by Kjeldahl
method and the evolved ammonia was
M C

absorbed in 60 mL of sulphuric acid. The Sol.

10
M c
unreacted acid required 20 mL of sodium
10
hydroxide for complete neutralization. The C = – B C ; Debye-Huckle equation
percentage of nitrogen in the compound is : 1
72. For the reaction SO 2(g) + O 2(g) SO3(g) ,
(1) 3% (2) 5% (3) 6% (4) 10% 2
if Kp = KC (RT)x where the symbols have usual
Ans. (4)
meaning then the value of x is :
Sol. mass of organic compound = 1.4 gm
(assuming ideality)
2NH3 + H2SO4 (NH4)2SO4 ....(i)
1
excess (1) (2) 1
2
M
,60ml 1
10 (3) –1 (4)
2
2NaOH + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + 2H2O ...(ii)
Ans. (4)
M 1
,20ml remaining Sol. SO 2 (g) O 2 (g) SO3 (g)
10 2
KP = KC (RT)x
m moles of remaining H2SO4 = 1
1 1
m moles of NH3 = 2 × m moles of H2SO4 used x=1–1– –
2 2
in reaction (i) 73. In the reaction,
= 2 × (6 – 1) CH3COOH
= 10
LiAlH 4 PCl5 AlC. KOH
moles of N = moles of NH3 = 10 × 10–3 A B C, the
product C is :-
1
mass of N = 14 = 0.14 gm (1) Ethylene (2) Acetyl chloride
100
(3) Acetaldehyde (4) Acetylene
0.14
% by mass of nitrogen = 100 Ans. (1)
1.4 O
= 10 % LiAlH4
(A)
Sol. CH3–C–OH CH3–CH2–OH PCl5
71. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at
(B) (C)
concentration C and at infinite dilution are C CH3CH2–Cl
alc KOH
CH2=CH2
and , respectively. The correct relationship Reduction of CH 3 COOH will produce
between C and is given as : CH3–CH2–OH(A)
(where the constant B is postive) Now reaction of CH3–CH 2–OH(A) with PCl 5
(1) C= –(B) C (2) C = + (B) C will produce CH3–CH 2–Cl(B).
(3) = + (B) C (4) = –(B)C Now alcoholic KOH with Et–Cl will produce
C C
CH2=CH2(C) Ethylene by E2 elemination.
Ans. (1)
Thus Ans. is (1) Ethylene.

19
74. Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO 2 Sol. It is a carbyl amine reaction used for
under pressure at 125ºC yields a product which identification of primary amine also known as
on acetylation produces C. isocynide test because of offensive smell of
isocynide.
ONa 125º H+
+CO2 5 Atm B Ac O C
2
Ethanolic
R – NH2 + CHCl3 KOH
R-NC
Organic
The major product C would be : product
76. The correct statement for the molecule, CsI 3,
OH O COCH3 is:

(1) COOCH3 (2) (1) it contains Cs3+ and I– ions

COOH
(2) it contains Cs+, I– and lattice I2 molecule
(3) it is a covalent molecule
OH
O COCH3 (4) it contains Cs+ and I3 ions
COCH3
(3) COOH (4) Ans. (4)
COCH3 Sol. CsI3 is an ionic compound and consisting of

Ans. (3) Cs+ and I3 .

Sol. First step is carboxylation (Kolbe schmidt 77. The equation which is balanced and represents
reaction) & second step is acetylation of sodium
the correct product (s) is :
salt of aspirin (B) :-
(1) [Mg(H2O)6]2+ + (EDTA)4– excess NaOH

O
ONa OH O–C–CH3 [Mg(EDTA)]2+ + 6H2O
+CO2 50125º H
atm.
C–ONa
AC2O
C–OH
(2) CuSO4 + 4KCN K2[Cu(CN)4] + K2SO4
(B) (C)
O O (3) Li2O + 2KCl 2LiCl + K2O

75. On heating an aliphatic primary amine with (4) [CoCl (NH3)5]+ + 5H+ Co2+ + 5NH 4 + Cl–
chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide, Ans. (4)
the organic compound formed is :- Sol. (1)
[Mg(H 2 O)6 ] 2
(EDTA) 4 excess
of NaOH + 6H2O
[Mg(EDTA)] 2

(1) an alkyl cyanide

(2) CuSO4 + 5KCN K3[Cu(CN)4) + K2SO4
(2) an alkyl isocyanide 1
+ (CN)2
(3) an alkanol 2
(3) 2LiCl + K2O Li2O + 2KCl
(4) an alkanediol backward reaction of given equation is
Ans. (2) correct
(4) [CoCl(NH3)5]+ + 5H+ Co+2 + 5NH4+ + Cl–
Hence NH3 gets protonated and makes Co+2 ion
free in solution.

20
78. For which of the following molecule significant
dc dc
µ 0 (1) k[A][B]2 (2) k[A]
dt dt
Cl CN
dc dc
(3) k[A][B] (4) k[A]2 [B]
dt dt
(a) (b)
Ans. (2)
Cl CN Sol. Rate law -
r = k[A] [B]
OH SH from table
1.2 × 10–3 = k [0.1] [0.1] .....(i)
1.2 × 10–3 = k [0.1] [0.2] .....(ii)
(c) (d) 2.4 × 10–3 = k [0.2] [0.1] .....(iii)
from (i) and (ii)
OH SH
from (i) and (iii)
rate law would be -
(1) Only (c) (2) (c) and (d)
r = k[A]
(3) Only (a) (4) (a) and (b) 80. Which series of reactions correctly represents
Ans. (2) chemical relations related to iron and its compound?
Sol. Due to presence of .p(s) on oxygen and sulphur (1) Fe Cl2 , heat
FeCl3 heat, air

OH FeCl2
Zn
Fe
atom which are out of plane hence and (2) Fe O 2 , heat Fe3O4 CO, 600 ºC
FeO
CO,700ºC
Fe
OH
SH
(3) Fe dil H 2SO 4 FeSO4 H 2SO4 , O2

are polar and µ 0. Fe2(SO4)2 Heat

Fe

SH (4) Fe O 2 , heat FeO dil H 2SO 4

79. For the non-stoichiometre reaction Heat

FeSO4 Fe
2A + B C + D, the following kinetic data were
obtained in three separate experiments, all at Ans. (2)
298 K. Sol. Ans. is (2) because all steps are correct as per
information.
Initial Initial Initial rate of
Concentration Concentration formation of C (1) is wrong because
III
FeCl3
III
FeOCl + Cl2
(A) (B) (mol L–S–) 1/2 O2
(in presence
of air)
0.1M 0.1M 1.2×10 –3

0.1M 0.2M 1.2×10–3 (3) is wrong because Fe2(SO4)3 Fe2O3(s)

+ 3SO3
0.2M 0.1M 2.4×10–3
(4) is wrong because 2FeSO 4 Fe 2O 3(s)
+ SO2 + SO3

21
81. Considering the basic strength of amines in Sol.
aqueous solution, which one has the smallest
Cl Cl
pKb value ?
CH3–C–Cl + 6Ag + Cl–C–CH3 CH3–C C–CH3
(1) (CH3)3N (2) C6H5NH2 Cl Powder Cl But-2-yne
(3) (CH3)2NH (4) CH3NH2
Ans. (3)
85. Given below are the half -cell reactions :-
Sol. Basicity order :
(CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > C6H5NH2 Mn2+ + 2e– Mn; Eo = –1.18V
(in aq medium) 2(Mn3+ + e– Mn2+); Eo = +1.51 V
pkb order : The Eo for 3Mn2 + Mn + 2Mn3+ will be :
(CH3)2NH < CH3NH2 < (CH3)3N < C6H5NH2
smallest pkb : (CH3)2NH (1) –0.33 V; the reaction will not occur

82. Which one of the following bases is not (2) –0.33 V; the reaction will occur
present in DNA ? (3) –2.69 V; the reaction will not occur
(1) Cytosine (2) Thymine (4) –2.69 V; the reaction will occur
(3) Quinoline (4) Adenine Ans. (3)
Ans. (3) Sol. Mn+2 + 2e– Mn ; E° = –1.18V
Sol. All cytosine, thymine and adenine are present (Mn +2 Mn + e–) × 2 ; E° = –1.51V
+3

in DNA. Only quindine is not present in DNA.

83. The correct set of four quantum numbers for 3Mn+2 Mn+ 2 Mn+3
the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37)
is: E ocell 1.18 1.51

1 1 E ocell 2.69volt
(1) 5,1,1, (2) 5,0,1,
2 2 the reaction will not occur.
1 1 86. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in
(3) 5,0,0, (4) 5,1,0,
2 2 a particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio
Ans. (3) of number of their molecule is :
Sol. Z = 37 ; [Kr]5s1 (1) 1 : 8 (2) 3 : 16 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 7 : 32
1 1
n = 5, = 0, m = 0, s = + or – Ans. (4)
2 2
84. The major organic compound formed by the WO2 1
Sol. Given
WN2 4
reaction of 1, 1, 1–trichloroethane with silver
n O2 WO2 M N2
powder is :-
n N2 WN2 MO2
(1) 2-Butyne (2) 2-Butene
(3) Acetylen (4) Ethene 1 28 7
= = .
4 32 32
Ans. (1)

22
87. Which one is classified as a condensation 89. For complete combustion of ethanol,
polymer? C2H5OH( ) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3H2O( ), the
(1) Teflon (2) Acrylonitrile amount of heat produced as measured in bomb
(3) Dacron (4) Neoprene calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol –1 at 25ºC.
Ans. (3) Assuming ideality the Enthalpy of combustion,
Sol. F2C CF2 polymerisation
—
( F2C –CF2 —
) cH, for the raction will be :-
Teflon addition polymer
(R = 8.314 kJ mol –1)
Acrylonitrile in monometric unit. (1) –1460.50 kj mol –1
Dacron is condensation polymer (Polyester). (2) – 1350.50 kJ mol–1
HO – C C–OH+HO–CH2–CH2–OH (3) – 1366.95 kJ mol–1
(4) – 1361.95 kJ mol–1
O O
Terphthalic Ethylene glycol Ans. (3)
acid Sol. C2H5OH( ) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3H2O( )
qV = E = –1364.67 kJmol –1
C C – O – CH2 – CH2 – O (Since calorimeter is Bomb calorimeter)
O O n H = E + ngRT
Condensation polymer ( 1)(8.314)(298)
Cl = –1364.67 +
1000
polymerisation
CH2 = C – CH = CH 2 — CH 2 – C = CH – CH 2—
= –1364.67 + (–2.477)
Cl Neoprene ~ –1366.95 kJ/mol
addition polymer
90. The most suitable reagent for the conversion
88. Among the following oxoacids, the correct of R – CH2 – OH R – CHO is :-
decreasing order of acid strength is :- (1) CrO3
(1) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl (2) PCC (Pyridinium chlorochromate)
(2) HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO3 > HOCl (3) KMNO4
(3) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4 (4) K2Cr2O7
(4) HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
O
PCC
HClO 4 HClO3 HClO2 HOCl Sol. R–CH2–OH R–C–H
+ + + + [Pyridinium chloro chromatic]
–H –H –H –H
Sol. .. .. .. PCC is milder oxidising agent, oxidises only
O Cl :
Cl
–
.. :
Cl into aldehyde.
Cl O O O –
O O O
–

–
O O O
Stability of conjugate base is decreasing due to
decreasing no. of resonating structures.
HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl

23