ESE-2016

Detailed Exam Solutions

(Objective Paper-II)
Civil Engineering

solutions
 Explanation of Civil Engg. Objective Paper-II (ESE - 2016)
SET - A
1. A solid cylinder of length H, diameter D and of 2. In a two-dimensional flow, with its stream
relative density S floats in neutral equilibrium in function   2xy, the velocity at a point (3,4)

R
water with its axis vertical. What is the ratio of
is
H to D if S = 0.6?
(a) 12.0 units (b) 10.0 units
(a) 0.86 (b) 0.72

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(c) 8.0 units (d) 6.0 units
(c) 0.52 (d) 0.46
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
Sol. Stream function
Sol.
 = 2xy
AS
S=0.6

u =   –2x
y
G H

x B v =  2y
S=1.0 x

v = 2xi  2yj
M


Body will be floating at (3.4) v = 6i  8j
 AHS w = Ax w |v | = 62  82
x  0.6H
V  10 m/sec
For Neutral equilibrium
S

Metacentric height BM = BG 3. An open rectangular tank of dimensions

4m×3m×2m contains water to a height of 1.6m.
Centre of Bouyouncy will be at 0.3H from bottom
It is then accelerated along the longer side.
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as hence BG = 0.5 H – 0.3 H = 0.2 H

What is the maximum acceleration possible
I

  D4 / 64  without spilling the water? If this acceleration is
BM =
V D2 then increased by 10%, what amount of water
 0.6H
4 will be spilt off?
D2 (a) 1.472 m/s2 and 0.48 m3
BM =  0.2H
16  0.6H
(b) 1.962 m/s2 and 0.48 m3
2 1
H =
  (c) 1.472 m/s2 and 0.52 m3
D 16  0.12
(d) 1.962 m/s2 and 0.52 m3
H
 0.72 Ans. (b)
D

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Sol. Rectangular tank 4m × 3m × 2m 2. Zero throughout the passage.
3. Maximum at the plate boundaries and zero
0.4m 
d
at a plane away from each plate.
ax 2

R
2m
1.6m
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
g
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only

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4m (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
For maximum acceleration Ans. (b)
ax 0.4 Sol.
=
g 2
AS
0.4  9.81
ax =
2 d
a x  1.962 m/sec 2

if acceleration is increased by 10% Velocity distribution shear stress distribution

in laminar flow in laminar flow
0.4 0.44
M

tan  =  1.1  Hence statement 3 is correct

2 2
0.44 5. While conducting the flow measurement using
a triangular notch, an error of +2% in head
0.2m over the notch is observed. The percentage
S

1.56
error in the computed discharge would be
(a) +7% (b) –3%
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(c) +5% (d) –4%

Water remaining in the tank at this stage
Ans. (c)
= 1.56 ×3 × 4
Sol. For flow measurement using triangular notch
Inital volume of water in tank = 1.6 × 3×4
Volume of spilling of water = 0.04 × 3 × 4 discharge, Q  H5/2
dQ 5 dH
= 0.48 m3 Hence, =
Q 2 H
4. In a laminar flow between two fixed plates held
5
parallel to each other at a distance d, the shear % error in discharge =  (2%)   5%
2
stress is:
6. An orifice is located in the side of a tank with
d its centre 10 cm above the base of the tank.
1. Maximum at plane away from each plate The constant water level is 1.0 m above the
2
centre of orifice. The coefficient of velocity is
and zero at the plate boundaries.

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 0.98. On the issuing jet, the horizontal distance (c) 8 m/s
from the vena-contracta to where the jet is 10 (d) 10 m/s
cm below vena-contracta is Ans. (d)
(a) 1.62m (b) 1.00m Sol. Whirlpool is an example of free vortex formation.
(c) 0.62m (d) 0.32m Hence

R
Ans. (c) C
V = i.e. Vr = Constant
r
V1r1 = V2r2
Sol.

1m H = 0.9 m

h=10cm
v
TE 8.
V1r1 60  2.5
V2 = r  15
2

V2 = 10 m/sec.
In a trapezoidal channel with bed width of 2m,
AS
and side slopes of 2V on 1H, critical flow occurs
at a depth of 1m. What will be the quantity of
Velocity of jet = Cv 2gH flow and the flow velocity? Take g as 10m/s2.
(a) 7.22 m3/s and 3.10 m/s
1 2
h = gt (b) 6.82 m3/s and 2.89 m/s
2
(c) 7.22 m3/s and 2.89 m/s
M

2h (d) 6.82 m3/s and 3.10 m/s

t =
g
Ans. (c)
horizontal distance x = ut Sol.
S

2h
= CV 2gH 
g
= CV 4Hh 1m 2
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= 0.98 4  1 0.1 1

x = 0.62 m 2m

7. The velocity of water at the outer edge of a B =2m

60cm diameter whirlpool, where the water level
Depth of yc = 1 m
is horizontal is 2.5 m/s. The velocity of water at
a level where the diameter of the whirlpool is 15 1
Area, A =  B  B  y   y
cm, is 2
(a) 1 m/s 1
=   2  2  1  1
(b) 5 m/s 2

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 2
= 2.5m 2 1.5 
= 1.06 
Top width, T = 3 m 19.62
= 1.18 m
For critical flow Fr = 1

R
10. A cylindrical vessel with closed bottom and open
V 2.5
= 1  V  9.81 top is 0.9 m in diameter. What is the rotational
gA T 3 speed about its vertical axis (with closed bottom

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Velocity, V = 2.86 m/sec. below and open top above) when the contained
Discharge, Q = VA = 2.86 × 2.5 incompressible fluid will rise 0.5m at the inner
circumference of the vessel and a space of
Q = 7.15 m3/s
0.4m diameter at the bottom will have no fluid
Hence Answer is (c) thereon? Take g = 10 m/s2.
9. A 7.5 m wide rectangular channel conveys 12 (a) 650 rpm (b) 600 rpm
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m3/s of water with a velocity of 1.5 m/s. The (c) 580 rpm (d) 470 rpm
specific energy head of the flow is
(a) 1.18m (b) 1.78m 
(c) 2.18m (d) 2.78m
Ans. (a)
M

Ans. (*) 0.5 m

Sol. Q = 12 m3/s
B = 7.5 m y
V = 1.5 m/s 0.2 m
S

h
0.9 m
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y
2 (0.2)2
=h
2g
B 2 (0.45)2
= h + y + 0.5
Q 12 2g
Area, A =   8m 2
V 1.5
(0.45)2  y = (y  0.5)  (0.45)2
By = 8m2
 (0.45)2  (h  y  0.5) (0.2)2  h 
8   
y =  1.06m  2 2 
7.5
 (0.2)2  h
U2 (0.45)2  0.5 = (0.45)2 [h  y  0.5] 
Specific energy = y  2 2
2g

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 (0.45)2  0.5  (0.2)2 h 12. A fluid flow is described by a velocity field
= (0.45)2 (h  y) 
2 2 2 U  4x 2i  5x 2 yj  1k .
2
 0.2  What is the absolute velocity (in magnitude) at
0.5 = h + y –   h
 0.45  the point (2,2,1)?
16
 h  y = 0.5  h (a) (b)
1802 1828

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81
2 (0.2)2
 =h (c) 1840 (d) 1857
2g
Ans. (d)

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2 (0.45)2 16
= 0.5  h  0.5 
2g 81 Sol. u = 4x 2 ˆi  5x 2 yj  1K
h(0.45)2 16h At (2, 2, 1)
2 = 1 
(0.2) 81 u = 4  22 i  5  22  2j  1K
81h 16 h 
 =1
AS
16 81 u = 16i  40j  1K

 h = 0.2056 m Absolute velocity, u = 16 2  40 2  1

2  10  0.2056
  = u = 1857 m s
(0.2)2
 = 10.139 rad/sec 13. A partially open sluice gate discharges water at
M

60  10.139 6 m/s with a depth of 40 cm in a rectangular

N =  96 rpm
2 horizontal channel of width 5 m. What would be
11. The sequent depth ratio in a hydraulic jump the post-jump depth of flow on the downstream
formed in a rectangular horizontal channel is of the gate by taking g as 10 m/s2?
10. The Froude number of the supercritical flow (a) 1.51 m (b) 1.70 m
S

is
(c) 1.85 m (d) 1.95 m
(a) 12.2 (b) 10.4
Ans. (a)
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(c) 7.42 (d) 4.21 Sol. y1 = 0.4 m

Ans. (c) v1 = 6 m/s
y2 1 B =5m
= 10   1  8F1  1
2
Sol.
y1 2 V1 6
Froude No. Fr1    3.0
Froud no. of super critical flow, gy1 10  0.4

y2 1
212  1 1  8Fr12  1
F1 = y1 = 2  
8
y2 1
F1  7.416 =  1  8  3 2  1  3.77
0.4 2
Post jump depth y 2  1.508m

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14. What is the maximum power available at the
downstream end of a pipeline 3 km long, 20 cm
in diameter, if water enters at the upstream end
at a pressure of 720 m of water, with the taking
pipe friction coefficient as 0.03 and g as 10m/s2?
15. In the design of pipeline the usual practice is to
assume that due to aging of pipelines:
1. The effective roughness increases linearly with
time

R
2. The friction factor increases linearly with time
(a) 770 mhp (b) 740 mhp 3. The flow through the pipe becomes linearly
(c) 700 mhp (d) 660 mhp lesser with time.

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Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Ans. (d)
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 3 only
Sol. In question, instead of friction coefficient it should
(c) 2 only (d) 1 only
be friction factor = 0.03
Ans. (d)
In case of max. power transmission through pipe, Sol. Effective toughness increases linearly with time
AS
head lost in friction = 1/3rd of total available statement 2 & 3 are incorrect.
head.
16. Consider the following statements:
H 720 1. In flow through hydrodynamically smooth
 hf =   240 m
3 3 pipes, the friction factor f is always a constant.
2. In flow through hydrodynamically smooth
M

2 pipes, the friction factor f is always a function

flQ
hf = of the flow Reynolds number.
12.1D5
3. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow,
0.03  3000  Q 2 the friction factor f is a function of relative
= roughness only.
12.1 (0.2)5
S

4. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow,

240 = 23243.8Q2 the friction factor f is a function of the flow
Q = 0.1016 m3/s Reynolds number and relative roughness.
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
Which of the above statements are correct?
Net available had = H – hf = 720 – 240 = 480m
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
P = QgH (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
= 1000 × 0.1016 × 10 × 480 Ans. (b)
Sol. Statement 2 & 3 are correct.
= 487.68 kW
17. Two identical centrifugal pumps are connected
In hp in parallel to a common delivery pipe of a
system. The pump curve of each of the pumps
487.68  103 is represented by H = 20 – 60Q2 where H is
P = = 663.5 hp
735 manometric head of the pump and Q is the
discharge of the pump. The head loss equation
= 663.5 × 1.0138
when two such fully-similar pumps jointly deliver
= 672.65 metric hp the same discharge Q will be

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 (a) H = 40 – 15Q2 (b) H = 20 – 60Q2 15  0.3
 l =  (0.3)2 = 0.682 m
(c) H = 40 – 60Q2 (d) H = 20 – 15Q2   12
Distance between source/sink and stagnation
Ans. (d)
point = l – a = 0.682 – 0.3 = 0.382 m.
Sol. Given that H = 20 – 60Q 2
19. At the point of operation with maximum
When two pumps (joined in parallel) required efficiency, a turbine indicated unit power of 12

R
to deliver discharge Q each pump will be units and unit speed of 98 units and operates
delivering Q/2 discharge. Hence Head loss with 3300 kgf/s of flow. What are the speed in
equation rpm and the specific speed of the machine

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2 respectively when its design head is 8.5m?
Q
H = 20  60    (a) 285 rpm and 339 (b) 270 rpm and 360
2
(c) 285 rpm and 360 (d) 270 rpm and 339
H = 20  15Q2 Ans. (a)
18. A line source of strength 15  m s is situated Sol. Given that
AS
within a uniform stream flowing at –12 m/s (i.e., Unit speed = Nu  98
righ to left). At a distance of 0.6m downstream Unit power Pu = 12
from the source is an equal sink. How far will
Design Head, H = 8.5 m
the stagnation points be from the nearest source/
Unit speed is defined as speed of turbine working
sink?
under unit head
(a) 0.38m (b) 0.46m
M

Hence N = Nu H
(c) 0.52m (d) 0.58m
Speed N = 98 8.5  285.7rpm
Ans. (a)
3/2
Sol. Simlarly P = Pu  H
S

l l 3/2
P = 12  8.5 
P = 297.38 KW
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+m –m N P
Hence, Specific Speed Ns =
Source Sink H5/4

Stagnation Stagnation 285.7  297.38

0.3m = a 0.3m = a =
point
0.6m
point
 8.5 5/4
NS = 339.46 rpm
ma
l =  a2 20. A hydraulic turbine develops 8000 kW when
U
running at 300 rpm under a head of 45 m. the
m = 15 m/s speed of the same turbine under a head of 60m
0.6 m is
a =  0.3 m
2 (a) 224.4 rpm (b) 346.4 rpm
U = 12 m/s (c) 424.8 rpm (d) 485.8 rpm

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Ans. (c) the maximum length of the cylinder if equilibrium
Sol. Power P = 8000 KW is to be stable with the cylinder aixs veritcal?
Speed N = 300 rpm dSs
Head H = 45 m (a) 2 S S  S

R
s l s

N P
Specific Speed, NS = dSl
H5/4

TE
(b) 8Ss  Sl  Ss 
i.e. for same power
N  H5/4 dSl
5/4
(c) 2Ss  Sl  Ss 
 H2 
N2 = N1   d
 H1 
(d)
AS
8  Sl  S s 
5/4
 60  Ans. (b)
= 300   
 45  Sol. Let height at cylinder be H.
N2 = 429.82 rpm
Sp. gravity of cylinder = Ss
21. In a single-acting reciprocating pump, the Sp. gravity of liquid = Sl
M

acceleration head at the beginning of the suction

stroke is 3.5m. If the pump is 1.5m below the
Ss
water level in the supply reservoir, the pressure
head at the cylinder reservoir, the pressure head H
at the cylinder at that instant, considering the G
S

atmospheric pressure as 10.0m is x Sl

B
(a) 2 m (abs) (b) 4 m (abs)
(c) 8 m (abs) (d) 16 m (abs)
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Now, AH w S s = Ax w Sl

Ans. (c)
Sol. Available head at the entrance of cylinder would HS s
x = S
be 10 + 1.5 = 11.5 m. l

Suction head created by pump = –3.5m Hence, centre of bouyancy will be at x/2 from
Hence, pressure head at the cylinder bottom of cylinder.

= 11.5 – 3.5 H x
BG = 
= 8 m (abs) 2 2

22. A solid cylinder of circular section of diameter H  Ss 

BG = 2  1  S 
d is of material with specific gravity Ss. This  l 
floats in a liquid of specific gravity Sl. What is Let M be the meta centre

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  D 4  0.75 m
 64 
I
    D2
BM = V D 2 S S
 S H 16 S H
4 Sl Sl 1.8 m 1.95 m
For stable equilibrium

BM > BG

R
D2 H  SS 
> 1  
SS 2 Sl  2  3  4.5 1.95
16 H x =   0.91m

TE
Sl 7.5 3
D2
H2 <
S  S 
8 S 1  s 
Sl  Sl  x 0.91 m
DSl
H <
AS
8SS  Sl  Ss 
x 1.8
DSl =
Maximum height of cylinder = 0.91 1.95
8SS  Sl  SS 
 x = 0.84 m
23. A tank is 1.8m deep and square length of 4.5m
pressure at C.G × Area = pressure force
at the top and square length of 3m at the bottom.
M

The four sides are plane and each has the same 3  4.5
= x   1.95
trapezoidal shape. The tank is completely full of 2
oil weighing 936kg/m3. What is the resultant 7.5
pressure on each side? = 9.81 936  0.84   1.95
2
= 56401.4178 N
S

(a) 5750 kgf (b) 5500 kgf

(c) 5250 kgf (d) 5140 kgf = 5749.38 kgf
Ans. (a) 24. Over a basin of area 333 km2, there was a
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storm for 6 h with a uniform intensity of 2 cm/

h. The observed runoff was 20×106 m3. the
4.5 m
m average rate of infiltration for the basin was
4. 5
(a) 5 mm/h (b) 10 mm/h
Sol. 0.75 m (c) 20 mm/h (d) 40 mm/h
x
1.8 m Ans. (b)
Sol. Area of basin = 333 km2
Intensity i = 2 cm/hr

3m duraiton = 6 hr
3m
Runoff = 20 × 106 m3

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 Ait  R Qd 455
Average rate of infiltration = QP of 6hr unit hydrograph = d =
At e 6.5

333  106  0.02  6  20  106

= 70 m 3/s
= 27. A new reservoir has a capacity of 12 Mm 3 and
333  106  6

R
its catchment area is 400 km2. The annual
= 10 mm/hr
sediment yield from this catchment is 0.1 ha.m/
25. International Traffic Intelligent Survey Data are km2 and the trap efficiency can be assumed

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related with constant at 90%. The number of years it takes
for the reservoir to lose 50% of its initial capacity
(a) Origin and destination studies
is, nearly
(b) Speed and delay studies
(c) Classified traffic volume studies (a) 177 years (b) 77 years
(d) Accident profiling studies (c) 17 years (d) 7 years
AS
Ans. (b) Ans. (c)

26. A peak flow of a flood hydrograph due to a six- Sol. Capacity of reservoir = 12 Mm3
hour storm is 470 m3/s. The corresponding
Catchment area = 400 km2
average depth of rainfall is 8 cm. Assume an
infiltration loss of 0.25 cm/hour and a constant Annual sediment yield = 0.1 ha.m/km2
M

base flow of 15 m 3/s. W hat is the peak Total sediment yield in a layer
discharge of 6 hour unit hydrograph for this = 400 × 0.1 × 0.9
catchment?
= 36 ha.m
(a) 60 m3/s (b) 70 m3/s 50% of initial capacity = 12 Mm 3 × 0.5
(c) 80 m3/s (d) 90 m3/s
S

= 6 × 106 m3
Ans. (b) Years required to lose 50% of initial capacity
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Sol. Given, 6  106

=
Qf = 470 m3/s 36  104
d = 8 cm i = 0.25 cm/hr, Qb=15 m3/s = 16.67 year
de = d – i × t  17 years
(de = effective depth of rainfall) 28. Cavitation is likely to occur if
= 8 – 0.25 × 6 1. Pressure becomes very high
= 6.5 cm 2. Temperature becomes low
Qd = Qf  Qb 3. Pressure at the specific points falls below
vapour pressure
= 470 – 15
4. Energy is released with the onset of a high
= 455 intensity wave due to noise and vibration of
the machine.

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 Which of the above statements are correct? So transmissivity is not a dimensionless
number.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
30. The important parameters describing the
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
performance of a hydraulic machine are P the
Ans. (c) power input, H the head produced across the
machine and the efficiency,  . For a given
Sol. Cavitation occurs when at a point fluid

temperature gets too high or the fluid pressure
becomes too low.
In cavitation, energy is released with the start
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geometrical design of the machine, the
performance is characterized by the variables:
H - the head increase across the machine, 

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of a high intensity wave due to noise and - the fluid density,  - the angular velocity of
vibration of machine. the rotor, D - the diameter of the rotor,  - the
29. Which of the following statements are correct fluid viscosity and Q - the flow rate; and both P
as regards aquifer characteristics? and  are expressed thorugh these variables.
How many non-dimensional parameters are
1. The storage coefficient is the volume of water
AS
involved herein? Gravitational acceleration g has
released from storage from the entire aquifer
also to be considered necessarily?
due to unit depression of peizometric head.
2. The storage coefficient is the same as the (a) 7 (b) 6
specific yield for water table aquifer. (c) 5 (d) 4
3. Both the aquifer constants, viz. storage Ans. (d)
coefficient S and Transmissivity T are
M

dimensionless numbers. Sol. P and n can be expressed in terms of 7

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only parameters viz H, H, , , D, u, Q, g .
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3  No. of non dimensional parameter = 7– 3=4
Ans. (b)
S

31. What are the values of coefficients a and c if

Sol. velocity distribution in a laminar boundary layer
on a flat is:
(i) Storage coefficient or storativity is the volume
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u
of water released from the storage per unit f n   a  bn  cn2  dn3
decline in piezometric head, per unit area of U0
aquifer. y
Where, n 
(ii) Water table aqifer  unconfined aquifer.. 
For unconfined aquifer, storage coefficient 1
(a) and 1 (b) 0 and 1
is approximately equal to the specific yield. 2
(iii) Storage coefficient is a dimensionless 1
(c)  and 0 (d) 0 and 0
number 2
Transmissivity = kd Ans. (d)
m
Unit =  m  m2 /day u
day Sol. = a + bn + cn2 + dn3,
U0

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 y 4. Silt grade is constant, i.e. type and size of
n silt is always same.

At y = 0, u0 5. Channel is flowing through incoherent
 0 =a+ 0+ 0+ 0 alluvium, and it is of same grade which is

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 a =0 transported.

At y = , u  U0 33. Consider the following statements related to

uplift pressure in gravity dams:

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u0
 u0 = b + c + d =1 1. A drainage gallery reduces the uplift pressure
at all levels below the gallery.
du
And at y = , 0 2. A drainage gallery below uipstream water
dy
level reduces the uplift pressure at all levels
du below the upstream water level.
= b + 2cn + 3dn2
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dy 3. A grout curtain near the heel reduces
0 = b + 2c + 3d
seepage and uplift pressure everywhere on
d2u the gravity dam whatever the upstream water
at y =0 0
dy2 level.
 0 = 2c Which of the above statements are correct?
 c =0 (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
M

32. The conditions to be satisfied for a channel in (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
‘Regime’ as per Lacey are Ans. (a)
1. Constant discharge 34. A barrage on a major river in the Gangetic plains
2. Silt grade and silt concentration are constant has been designed for a flood discharge 7000
S

3. The channel is flowing in unlimited incoherent m3/s. It has been provided with a waterway of
alluvium of the same alluvial character as 360 m length. The losseness factor of this
that transported. barrage is
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Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1.7 (b) 1.1
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 0.7 (d) 0.1
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Ans. (*)
Ans. (b) Actual width
Sol. Looseness factor =
Regime width
Sol. All three are the essential characteristics for
the true regime condition according to lacey Actual width = 360 m (Given)
According to Laceys theory for True Regime
According to Laceys theory
condition
Regime width
1. Discharge is constant.
2. Flow is uniform  W = 4.75 Q
3. Silt charge is constant, i.e. amount of silt is W = 4.75 7000
constant. W = 397.41

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 360 37. Consider the following properties of fluorine:
Looseness factor = = 0.90
397.41 1. It is a member of the halogen family
35. A 20 m long horizontal concrete floor under a 2. It is a greenish yellow diatomic gas
barrage on a permeable foundation retains a 3. Chlorine, iodine, bromine and Helium are
5m head of water and has a 5 m deep members of the halogen family.
downstream end pile. The exit gradient is

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4. Even fireproof of asbestos burns in the
(a) 1 in 4 (b) 1 in 5 ambience of fluorine.
(c) 1 in 6 (d) 1 in 8 Which of the above are correct?

TE
Ans. (b) (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
H 1 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Sol. GE = 
d   Ans. (c)

1  1  2 Sol. (i) Flourine is the lightest halogen and exists

 =
2 as a highly toxic pale yellow diatomic gas.
AS
b 20
 =  4 (ii) Helium is not a member of hologen family
d 5
(iii) Even fireproof abestos burns in the ambience
1  1  42 of fluorine
 =  2.56
2
5 1 38. The following are certain operating problems of
GE =  a rapid sand filter:
M

5 3.14  2.56
1 1. Sand depth should never be depleted by more
GE = than 10 cm.
5
36. Electrical conductivity (EC) of water and total 2. Air binding results due to development of
dissolved solids (TDS) are relatable as: negative head and fomration of air bubbles
S

in the filter sand.

The value of EC will
3. Water softening with lime-soda leads to
(a) Decrease with increase in TDS incrustation of sand.
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(b) Increase with increase in TDS 4. Bumping of filter bed is caused due to
(c) Decrease initially and then increase with negative head.
increase in TDS Which of the above statements are correct?
(d) Increase initially and then decrease with (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
increase in TDS (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b) Ans. (b)
Sol. EC×640 =TDS Sol. Sand bed should never be depleted more than
Hence, value of EC will increase with increase 10cm from the original thickness.
in TDS Bumping is caused by improper back wash.

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39. Consider the following characteristics of E.Coli Ans. (d)
bacteria: Sol. A water supply distribution system is designed
1. Gram negative
2. Spore-forming 
Max. daily demand  Fire demand
for Max. of Max. hourly demand 

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3. Facultative anaerobic
42. A combined sewerage system is m ore
4. Bacillus
appropriate for developed areas where

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Which of the above are correct?
(a) Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (b) Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout
the year
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Air temperatures are nearly unif orm
Ans. (c)
throughout the year
AS
Sol. E-coli bacteria is a gram negative, non-spore (d) Air temperatures through the year include
forming, facultatively anaerobic bacteria. extremes during certain runs of days
40. How much bleaching powder is needed to Ans. (b)
chlorinate 5000l of water whose chlorine Sol. A combined sewerage system is m ore
demand is 2 mg/l, assuming that the bleaching appropriate for developed areas where rainfall
powder has 25% available chlorine? occurs almost uniformly throughout the year.
M

(a) 4 g (b) 40 g
43. The velocity distribution in the boundary layer
(c) 140 g (d) 400 g
u y
Ans. (b) is given by  , where u is the velocity at a
U 
Sol. Bleaching power required to chlorinate 5000l
S

distance of y from the boundary and u = U at

of water y =  ,  being boundary layer thickness. Then
2  10 3 the value of momentum thickness will be
IE

= 5000  gm
0.25
= 40 gm  
(a) (b)
2 4
41. A water supply distribution system for an
averagely-populated township is to be designed  
(c) (d)
for 6 8

(a) Maximum daily demand Ans. (c)

(b) Maximum hourly demand and fire demand u y
(c) Average demand Sol. Given U  
0
(d) Maximum daily demand and fire demand or 
maximum hourly demand, whichever is  u  u
higher
Momentum Thickness =  1  U0  U0 dy
0

, 8010009955
  Ans. (b)
 y y
 =   1    *  dy Sol. Design overflow rate of sedimentation tank is
0
chosen considering diameter of teh particle
 intended to be removed.
y y2 
 =     2  dy Gs  1 gd2
0
Vs =
18 

R

y2 y3
 Vs = Setting velocity of particle
 = 2 3 2
0
d = diameter of the particle

TE
 
 =  46. Consider the following statements in respect of
2 3
flow equalization in a waste water treatement

 = plant :
6
1. Bilogical treatement is enhanced because
AS
44. 100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, 2. Flow equaliziation is an attrative option for
the volume of this sludge will then be upgrading the performance of overloaded
(a) 40.5m3 (b) 50m3 treatement plants.
(c) 75m3 (d) 94.7m3 3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH
can be stabilized
Ans. (b)
M

4. Thickening perf ormance of primary

Sol. With the change in moisture content, volume of
sedimentation tanks following grit removal is
solids remains same in both case.
improved
Therefore equating the volume of solids in both Which of the above statements are correct?
cases.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
S

V1 1  P1  = V2 1  P2  (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (a)
100 1  0.95   V2 1  0.9 
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Sol.
5 = V2  0.1
(i) Flow equalization is a method to overcome
V2 = 50 m3 problems related to fluctuations in flow rate
and pollution load.
45. The design overflow rate of a sedimentation (ii) It helps in lowering the strength of waste
tank is chosen considering water by diluting it with waste water already
(a) Flow rate through the tank present in equalization tank.
(b) Diameter of the particle intended to be (iii) Flow equalization basin is located after
removed screening and grit removal but before primary
sedimentation.
(c) Volume of the sedimentation tank
(d) Detention time in the tank

, 8010009955
 (iv) Thickner/settler and filter performance gets Ans. (c)
enchanced and their surface area gets
reduced. Sol. (i) It is designed for typical detention time of 3
minutes at maximum flow.
47. A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its

R
(ii) Diffusers are located at 0.45 – 0.6m from
BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/
the bottom
s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the
(iii) Excessive wear of grit handling equipment
value of the BOD of the combined flow after
and necessity of separate grit washer can

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complete mixing?
be eliminated by using aerated grit chamber.
(a) 3.6 mg/l (iv) An aerated grit chamber consists of a
(b) 13.6 mg/l standard flow aeration tank provided with air
(c) 33.6 mg/l diffusion tubes placed on one side of the
(d) 53.6 mg/l tank.
AS
Ans. (b) 49. The side of a square land was measured as
Sol. BOD after complete mixing 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the
corresponding error in the computed area of
QwBODw  QsBODs the land.
=
Qw  Qs
(a) 5 m2 (b) 10 m2
M

5  100  50  5
= (c) 15 m2 (d) 20 m2
5  50
Ans. (c)
= 13.63mg l

48. Consider the following statements in respect of Sol. Area = (side)2

aerated grit chamber: d (Area)
S

= 2 × side
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in d (side)
adv ancing sprial-f low aeration tanks, d (Area) = 2 × side × d (side)
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locationally preceded by grit chambers, led

d(Area) = 2 × 150 × 0.05
to the eventual development of aerated grit
chambers. d(Area) = 15 m 2
2. The excessive wear on grit handling 50. Consider the following statements in respect of
equipment is a major factor for the popularity anerobic sludge digester:
of aerated grit chambers.
1. It is less expensive compared to several
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to
other methods available.
provide detention period of 1 minute at
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the
maximum rate of flow.
environment to a minimum
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring
above the bottom of teh chamber.
disposal is minimal
Which of the above statements are correct?
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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 Which of the above statements are correct? of land areation thereby leading to septic
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only conditions in the land
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) Sol. Sewage sickness relates to clogging of pores in
soil due to excessive application of sewage
51. Consider the following statements as regards a loading to obstruction of land aeration thereby

R
Septic Tank: leading to septic conditions in the land.
1. The size required is large and uneconomical
53. The waste water of a certain large colony
when serv ing more than roughly 100

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contains 10–5.6 mmol/l of OH– ions at 25ºC.
persons.
The pH of this sample is
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80%
of suspended solids. (a) 8.6 (b) 7.9
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a (c) 5.4 (d) 4.5
plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can Ans. (c)
AS
hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
Sol. Concentraiton of OH– ion = 10–5.6 mmol/litre
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required
Which of the above statements are correct? = 10–5.6 × 10–3 mol/litre
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 = 10–8.6 mol/litre
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 pOH = – log [OH]
M

Ans. (c) = – log 10–8.6

Sol. (i) Septic tank canbe provided when number of = 8.6
user does not exceed 300 persons.
pH = 14 – pOH
(ii) Septic tank removes around (25 – 65)%
= 14 – 8.6
BOD and (40 –75)% of suspended solids
S

= 5.4
Statement 3 and 4 are correct.
52. Sewage sickness relates to 54. Consider the relevance of the following features
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for causing photochemical smog:

(a) Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’
1. Air stagnation
to treatment
2. Abundant sunlight
(b) Destruction fo aquatic flora and fauna due 3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water 4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere.
by the sewage Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) reduction in the waste purifying capacity of (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
the soil (b) 3 and 4 only
(d) Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
application of sewage leading to obstruction (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

, 8010009955
Sol. A photochemical smog is a chemical reaction (a) 0.5m (b) 1.25m
of sunlight, nitrogen oxides and volatile organic (c) 2.75m (d) 4.25m
compounds in the atmosphere, which leaves Ans. (b)
airborne particles and ground-level ozone.
Sol. For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel,

R
55. Consider the following statements related to y
ecology: hydraulic radius = and B = 2y for hydraulically
2

TE
1. All the physical, chemical and biological efficient channel
factors that a species needs in order to live
and reproduce is called ecological niche. B B 5
 R =    1.25 m
2. The boudnary zone between two ecosystems 22 4 4
is known as ecotone. 58. The standard plasticity chart by casagrande to
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as classify fine-grained soils is shown in the figure.
AS
tundra. PL(%) A line
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and
life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is P

more extensive and complex than an

ecosystem
Which of the above statements are correct?
M

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
20 35 50 WL(%)
Ans. (d)
Sol. All the above statements are correct. The area marked P represents.
S

(a) Inorganic clays of high plasticity

56. Consider the f ollowing laws of ecology
(b) Organic clays and highly plastic organic silts
suggested by Barry Commoner:
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(c) Organic and inorganic silts and siltclays

1. Everything is connected to everything else. (d) Clays
2. Everything must go somewhere.
Ans. (a)
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch. PL(%) A line
Sol. CH
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
CI
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d) MH
CL MI
Sol. These are four laws of ecology formulated by
ML
ecologist Barry commoner.
20 35 50 WL(%)
57. For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel  P lies in the area of inorganic clays of high
of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is plasticity.

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59. A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and 61. Which technique of stabilization for the sub-
the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The base is preferred for a heavy plastic soil?
porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is
(a) cement stabilization
(a) 7.5% (b) 9.5% (b) mechanical stabilization
(c) 13.5% (d) 16.5% (c) lime stabilization
Ans. (c) (d) bitumen stabilization

R
Sol. s = 6% GS = 2.6 Ans. (c)
Sol. Lime changes the nature of the adsorbed layer
At shrinkage limit, soil is fully saturated.

TE
and provides pozzolonic action. Plasticity index
Now Se = Gs of highly plastic soils are reduced by addition
as lime with soil. There is an increase in
1 × e = 0.06 × 2.6 optimum water content and a decrease in the
e = 0.156 maximum compacted density and the strength
and durability of soil increases.
AS
e 0.156
n =   0.135
1  e 1  0.156 62. A fill having volume of 150000 m 3 is to be
constructed at a void ratio of 0.8. The borrow
60. What is the dry unit weight of a clay soil when
pit solid has a void ratio of 1.4. The volume of
the void ratio of a sample thereof is 0.50, the
soil required to be excavated from the borrow
degree of saturation is 70%, and the specific
pit will be
gravity of the soil grains is 2.7? Take the value
M

of   to be 9.81 kN/m3? (a) 150000 m3 (b) 200000 m3

(c) 250000 m3 (d) 300000 m3
(a) 13.65 kN/m2 (b) 19.95 kN/m2
Ans. (b)
(c) 26.65 kN/m2 (d) 29.95 kN/m2
Sol. Solid volume required fill construction
S

Ans. (*)
150000
G  =  83333.33m3
Sol. d = 1  0.8
1 e
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Volume of soil excavated from borrow pit

2.7  9.81
=  17.658 KN m 3 = 83333.33  14 
1  0.5
(Gs  Se) w = Vd 1  1.4   200,000m3
bulk =
1 e
63. A channel designed by Lacey’s theory has a
(2.7  0.7  0.5)  9.81
= mean velocity of 1.1 m/s. The silt factor is 1.1.
1  0.5
Then hydraulic mean radius will be
= 19.95 kN/m3
(a) 1.13 m (b) 2.27 m
(In question it should be bulk and not dry )
(c) 3.13 m (d) 4.27 m

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Ans. (*) t t
2K   K  t  2K 
5 v2 2 2
=
Sol. R = t t
2 f t
2 2

R
5 1.12
R =  3Kt
2 1.1 =  1.5K
2t
R = 2.5 × 1.1
66. A uniform collapsible sand stratum, 2.5 m thick,

TE
R = 2.75 m has specific gravity of its sand as 2.65, with a
64. Consider the following assumptions as regards natural void ratio of 0.65. The hydraulic head
field permeability test: required to cause quick collapsible sand
condition is
1. The flow is laminar and Darcy’s law is valid.
(a) 2.50 m (b) 2.75 m
AS
2. The flow is horizontal and uniform at all the
points in the vertical section. (c) 3.25 m (d) 3.50 m
Ans. (a)
3. The velocity of flow is proportional to the
‘tangent magnitude’ of the hydraulic gradient. Gs  1 1.65
Sol. iCr =  1
1  e 1.65
Which of the above assumptions are correct?
M

h
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only iCr =
H
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 h = iCr  H
Ans. (d)
= 1 × 2.5
S

65. In a three-layered soil system, the thicknesses

= 2.5 m
of the top and bottom layers each are half the
thickness of the middle layer. The coefficients 67. The ratio of dry unit weight to unit weight of
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of permeability of the top and bottom layers water represents

each are double the coefficient of permeability
(a) Specific gravity of soil solids
k of the middle layer. When horizontal flow
occurs, the equivalent coefficient of permeability (b) Specific gravity of soil mass
of the system will be (c) Specific gravity of dry soil
(a) 1.5 k (b) 3.0 k (d) Shrinkage ratio
(c) 4.5 k (d) 6.0 k Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) Sol. Shrinkage ratio is mass specific gravity of the
soil in dry state
K1H1  K 2H2  K 3H3
Sol. KH = H1  H2  H3

, 8010009955
 G w
Sol. d =
1 e
1.0 2.66  1
1+e =
68. 1.77
e = 0.5028

R
e wG 14.44  2.66
S = 
e 0.5028
= 76.39%

0.5

1.0 p
TE 10.0
70.
 77%
A rigid retaining wall of 6m height has a
saturated backfill of soft clay soil. What is the
critical height when the properties of the clay
soil are:
AS
The virgin compression curve with axes adopted
 sat  17.56 kN/m3 and cohesion C = 18kN/m2.
as per convention in this regard for a clay soil
is shown in the figure. The compression index (a) 1.1 m (b) 2.1 m
of the soil is (c) 3.1 m (d) 4.1 m
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 Ans. (d)
(c) 1.00 (d) 1.25 4C 4  18
M

Sol. Hc = 2z0 = 
Ans. (b)  17.56
Sol. = 4.1 m
e 71. The Engineering News Record Formula,
Cc =
 
log10  2  Wh
S

 1  Qa  is used for the case of

6(s  0.25)
1  0.5
=  0.5 1. Drop hammer
 10 
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log10  
 1  2. Single acting hammer
69. Proctor’s compaction test for the maximum dry 3. Double acting hammer
density of a certain soil gave the results as :
Which of the above is/are correct?
1.77 gm/cc and OMC 14.44%. The specific
gravity of the clay soil grain was 2.66. What (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
was the saturation degree for this soil? (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 44% (b) 55% Ans. (b)
(c) 66% (d) 77% Sol. Emperical factor ‘c’ taken as 0.25 cm for
Ans. (d) single-acting hammer.

, 8010009955
72. In a certain sea shore, the height of a retaining 2. The weight of the algebraic sum of two or
wall with smooth vertical back is 4.4 m. The more quantities is equal to the reciprocal of
foundation is over an expansive collapsible soil the sum of the individual weights.
and has horizontal surace at the level of the
3. If the quantity of a given weight is multiplied
top of the wall and carries a udl of 197 kPa.

R
with a factor, then the weight of the resulting
The unit weight and angle of internal friction
quantity is obtained by dividing the original
are 19 kN/m3 and 30°, respectively. What is
weight by the square root of that factor.
the nearest magnitude of the total active

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pressure per metre length of this sea shore 4. If the quantity of a given weight is divided by
wall? a factor, then the weight of the resulting
quantity is obtained by multiplying the original
(a) 270 kN/m (b) 360 kN/m
weight by the square of that factor.
(c) 450 kN/m (d) 640 kN/m
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
AS
Ans. (b)
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
Sol.
Ans. (c)

Sol. The weight of the algebric sum of two or more

quantities is equal to the reciprocal of the sum
of the reciprocal of their individual weights.
M

H If the quantity of a given weight is multiplied

with a factor, then the weight of resulting quantity
is obtained by dividing the original weight by
square of that factor.
S

Kaq KaH 74. Hypotenusal allowance is giv en by the

expression (adopting standard conventions)
1 
Pa = Ka   19  4.4  4.4  197  4.4 
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2  (a) (1  sec ) × measured distance

1  sin 30 1 (b) (1  cos ) × measured distance

where, Ka = 
1  sin30 3
Hence, Pa = 350.24 kN/m (c) (sec   1) × measured distance
73. Which of the following statements are rightly (d) ( cos   1 )× measured distance
associated with the laws of weights in the theory
Ans. (d)
of errors?
Sol. Hypotenusal allowance is correction for slope
1. If an equation is multiplied by its own weight,
then the weight of the resulting equation is Cg = –L (1 – cos )
equal to the reciprocal of the weight of the  Cg = L ( cos   1 )
original equation. 75. The clogging of chain rings with mud introduces
(with ‘error’ defined in the standard way)

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 1. Negative cumulative error
2. Positive cumulative error
3. Compensating error
(a) 1 only
(c) 3 only
2. The algebraic sum of all the departures
should be equal to zero.
3. The sum of the northings should be equal to
the sum of the southings.
(b) 2 only
Which of the above statements are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3

R
Ans. (b) (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

Sol. Due to clogging of chain rings with mud, (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

TE
actual length of the chain will become less Ans. (a)
than nominal length of chain.
Sol. In a closed traverse, if the survey is error
 M.V > T.V free.
 Error = M.V – T.V
1. L  0
 Error = +ve
2. D  0
AS
76. The magnetic bearing of a line (on full-circle
mensuration basis) is 55° 30 East. The true 78. The rise and fall method for obtaining the
magnetic bearing of the line will be. reduced levels of points provides a check on

(a) 61 00 (b) 55 30 1. Foresight

2. Backsight
(c) 40 00 (d) 50 00
3. Intermediate sight
M

Ans. (a)
Which of the above statements are correct?
Sol. T.B = 55° 30 + 5° 30
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
T.B = 61°
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
T.N
S

M.N Ans. (d)

5°30

Sol. In rise and fall method R.L of back sight and

B fore sight sight are checked along with
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55°30 intermediate sight.

A
W E 79. Turning of the theodolite telescope in vertical
plane by 180° about the horizontal axis is known
as
(a) Setting (b) Centering
(c) Transiting (d) Swinging
77. In any closed traverse, if the survey work is Ans. (c)
error free, then
Sol. Turnning the theodolite telescope in vertical
1. The algerbraic sum of all the latitudes should plane by 180° about horizontal axis is called
be equal to zero. as transiting.

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 Turnni ng the t heodol i te tel escope i n
horizontal plane about vertical axis is called
swinging.
80. W hich of the f ollowing are among the
25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area
measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower
BP in the area also appears on the photograph.
The distance between images of top and bottom
of the t ower measures 0.5 cm on the

R
fundamental lines of a theodolite?
photograph. The distance of the image of the
1. The vertical and horizontal axes top of the tower is 10 cm. The acutal height of
2. The lines of collimation and axis of the plate the tower is

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levels.
(a) 10 m (b) 15 m
3. The bublle line of the altitude level
(c) 20 m (d) 25 m
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) Sol. h = 250m, f = 25 cm, AB = 300m, ab = 15
AS
cm, d = 0.5 cm, r = 10 cm, height of tower
Sol. Fundamental lines of theodlite are: h2 = ?
(1) Vertical axis ab f
S = 
(2) Horizontal axis AB H  h
15 25
(3) Line of collimation =
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300 H  250
(4) Axis of plate levels H = 750
(5) Axis of telescope level rh2
d = Hh
1
81. Local mean time of a place of longitude of
10  h2
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42 36 W is 8h 42 m 15 s AM. The 0.5 =

750  250
corresponding Greenwich Mean Time is
h2 = 25 m
(a) 10 h 32 m 40 s AM
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83. A tranportation trip survery was undertaken

(b) 11h 32 m 39s PM bet ween priv ate car, and public car
transportation. The proportion of those using
(c) 0 h 32 m 39s PM
private cars is 0.45. While using the public
(d) 11 h 32 m 39s AM transport, the further choices available are Metro
Ans. (d) Rail and Mono Rail, out of which commuting by
a Mono Rail has a proportion of 0.55. In such
42 30
Sol. GMT = 8h 42 m 15S  a situation, the choice of interest in using a
15
Metro Rail, Mono Rail and private car would be
GMT = 11 hr 32 m 39 sec AM respectively.
82. A vertical photograph of a flat area having an (a) 0.25, 0.3 and 0.45 (b) 0.45, 0.25 and 0.3
average elevation of 250m above mean sea
(c) 0.25, 0.45 and 0.3 (d) 0.3, 0.25 and 0.45
level was taken with a camera of focal length

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Ans. (a) losses, it can be grossly assumed that the flow
Sol. Pmetro = 0.55×0.45 = 0.2475 = 0.25 velocity, in m/s, through the pipe is 1.75 h,
Pmono = 0.55×0.55 = 0.3025 = 0.3 where h is in m, taking g = 10 m/sec2; also,
may take area of pipe as 2 × 10–3 m2.
Pprivate car = 0.45
(a) 535 seconds (b) 516 seconds
m2

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84. An airfoil of surface area 0.1 is tested for lift (c) 485 seconds (d) 467 seconds
L in a wind tunnel. (Conditions can be
Ans. (d)
considered as incompressible flow.) At an angle
of attack of 5°, with standard air density 1.22

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kg/m 3, at a speed of 30m/sec, the lift is
measured to be 3.2 kgf. W hat is the lift
coefficient? For a prototype wing of area
10 m2, what is the approximate lift at an air
speed of 160 kmph at the same angle of attack
Sol.
x
h
3m
4x
AS
of 5°? 2 2
Area, A1 = 10 m Area = a Area, A 2 = 2.5 m
(a) 0.572 and 700 kgf
(b) 0.603 and 700 kfg h = 3 – 4x – x
 h = 3 – 5x
(c) 0.572 and 570 kgf
V = 1.75 3  5x
(d) 0.603 and 570 kgf
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If in time dt, water level falls by dx, then

Ans. (a)
V× a(dt) = Adx

U20 (1.75 3  5x )  2  103  dt = 10.dx

Sol. FL = CL A
2 For 2.5 m3 of water to flow, time required = T
S

2
CL  1.22  30   0.1 2.5 m3 = x0 × 10
3.2  9.81 =
2
x0 = 0.25 m
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CL = 0.572
0.25 10 T
2  0 dx   2  103 dt
 160  0.278   10  1.75 3  5x 0
FL  3.2      0.1 
 30     T = 467 sec
= 702.33 Kgf 86. The consistency and flow resistance of a sample
85. Two tanks A and B, of constant cross-sectional of bitumen can be determined through which of
areas of 10 m2 and 2.5 m2, respectively, are the following tests?
connected by a 5cm pipe, 100 m long, with f = (a) Viscosity test (b) Penetration test
0.03. If the initial difference of water levels is
(c) Ductility test (d) Softening point test
3m, how long will it take for 2.5 m 3 of water to
flow from A to B? Considering entry and exit

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Ans. (a) Sol.
87. A pipe of 324 mm diameter, having friction GI = 0.2a  0.005ac  0.01bd
coefficient as 0.04, connects two reservoirs with where, a  62  35  27%
15 m difference in their water levels through a

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1500 m long pipe. What will be the discharge b  62  15  47%
through the pipe? c= 0
d = 21 – 10 = 11
(a) 104 lps (b) 134 lps

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P.I. = L  P  21
(c) 165 lps (d) 196 lps
Ans. (a) GI = 0.2a  0.005ac  0.01bd  10.57  11 Poor 

90. Consider the following statements regarding

fl V 2 ductility of bitumen:
Sol. h =
AS
2gd
1. Ductility is the property which does not permit
V = 1.26 m/s bitumen to undergo large deformation without
 2
breaking.
Q =  0.324   1.26  0.1038m3 s
4 2. Bitumens with high ductility are generally
= 103.8 l sec adhesive but do not have good cementing
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properties.
88. Flexible concrete is a mix comprising of
3. Ductility must be ascertained at two different
(a) Gravel, filler and 30/40 bitumen temperatures in order to pronounce on the
(b) Sand, filler and 30/40 bitumen only suitability of the material.
S

(c) Gravel, sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) Sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen only
(a) 3 only (b) 2 only
Ans. (c)
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(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

89. Consider a soil sample, for which tests yield
Ans. (a)
the following results:
91. A collapsible soil sub-grade sample was tested
Passing 75 micron sieve 62%
using Standard Calif ornia Bearing Ratio
Liquid limit 35% apparatus; and the observations are given below
Plasticity Index 14%
Sl. No. Load Penetration
As per the group index classification of soil,
1. 60.55 kg 2.5 mm
what is the soil condition of the above soil
2. 80.55 kg 5.0 mm
sample?
Taking the standard assumption regarding the
(a) Poor (b) Fair
load penetration curve, CBR value of the sample
(c) Good (d) Excellent will be taken as
Ans. (a)

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 (a) 3.9% (b) 4.0% 2  q2
= 0.4  5  0.4  5 
(c) 4.4% (d) 5.5% 9.81
Ans. (c) q = 7.3m 3 s

94. Overspeed and delay studies on a preselected

Load carreied by specimen
Sol. CBR = load carried by s tandardspecimen  100 section of a Highway are conducted by

R
(a) Fast moving car method
At 2.5 mm penetration, CBR
(b) Enoscope
60.55
=  100  4.4% (c) Radar

=
1370
At 5 mm penetration, CBR
80.55
2055
 100  3.9%
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CBR is the maximum of above two ratio i.e.
95.
(d) Traffic contours
Ans. (a)
The surface tension of water at 20°C is 75 ×
10–3 N/m. The difference in water surface within
AS
and outside an open-ended capillary tube of
4.4%. 1mm internal bore, inserted at the water surface,
92. What is the critical thickness of a prestressed would nearly, be
concrete pavement (using Westergaard’s (a) 7 mm (b) 11 mm
Corner Load Formula) to support a maximum
(c) 15 mm (d) 19 mm
wheel load of 4200 kg? Allow 10% for impact.
M

Tyre pressure may be taken as 7 kg/cm 2. Ans. (c)

Assume flexural strength of concrete as
50 kg/cm2, factor of safety as 2, subgrade 4
Sol. h =
reaction for plastic mix road as 6 kg/cm3, and d
modulus of elasticity as 3 × 105 kg/cm2.
4  75  10 3
S

=  30mm
(a) 19.6 cm (b) 21.6 cm 9.81 10 3  1 10 3
(c) 23.6 cm (d) 25.6 cm If we take bore as radius then d = 2mm
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Ans. (*)  h = 15 mm

93. At a hydraulic jump, the flow depths are 0.4 m 96. Survey of India was publishing toposheets using
a scale of
and 5 m at the upstream and downsteam,
respectively. The channle is wide rectangular. (a) 1 : 1000 (b) 1 : 5000
The discharge per unit width is nearly
(c) 1 : 10000 (d) 1 : 50000
(a) 5.8 m2/s (b) 6.4 m2/s Ans. (d)
(c) 7.3 m2/s (d) 8.3 m2/s Sol. Before adaptation of National Mapping Policy
Ans. (c) – 2005, Survey of India printed Topographical
2q2 maps on 1 : 2, 50,000, 1 : 50,000 and 1 : 25,
Sol. = y1y 2  y1  y 2  000. Scales.
g

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97. The maximum speed of a train on B.G. track
having a curvature of 3° and cant of 10 cm with
allowable cant deficiency of 76 mm, for
conditions obtaining in India, is
99. A pelton wheel works under a head of 400m.
Friction loss through the pipe flow is limited to
10%. The coefficient of velocity for the jet is
0.98. What is the velocity of the jet? Take g =
10 m/s2.

R
(a) 87.6 km/h (b) 99.6 km/h
(a) 83 m/s (b) 71 m/s
(c) 76.6 km/h (d) 65.6 km/h
Ans. (a) (c) 65 m/s (d) 56 m/s

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Ans. (a)
1720 Sol. Head available at the nozzle = 0.9 × 400
Sol. D =
R = 360 m

R = 573.33 m V = C V 2gH
AS
127Re
V = = 0.98 2  9.81 360
G
= 82.36 m/s
127  573.33  0.176
= 100. The value of porosity of a soil sample in which
1.676
the total volume of soil grains is equal to twice
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= 87.44 Km/h the total volume of voids would be

98. The gradient for a B.G railway line such that (a) 30% (b) 40%
the grade resistance together with curve (c) 50% (d) 60%
resistance due a 4° curve which will be Ans. (a)
S

equivalent to a simple ruling gradient of 1 in

150 is Sol. Vs = 2VV
(a) 1 : 180 (b) 1 : 200 VV 1
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n = 
(c) 1 : 300 (d) 1 : 400 VV  VS V
1 S
Ans. (b) VV

1 1
Sol. Grade resistance + Curve resistance =   33.3%
1 2 3
= Ruling gradient resistance
101. Consider the the following statements:
 
 0.0004D  1. In an Impulse turbine, the pressure of the,
x 150
flowing water remains unchanged and is
D = 4°
equal to atmospheric pressure.
x = 197.36  200
2. In Impulse turbines, the water impinges on
Gradient is 1 in 200. the buckets with ‘pressure energy’.

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 3. In a Reaction turbine, the pressure of the, (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
flowing water remains unchanged and is true
equal to atmospheric pressure.
103. Statement (I): : The shear strain graph for a
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Newtonian fluid is linear.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Statement (II): The coefficient of viscosity  of
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 the fluid is not a constant.

R
Ans. (a) Ans. (c)
102. A Pelton wheel with single jet rotates at 600 104. Statement (I): : Reynolds number must be the
rmp. The velocity of the jet from the nozzle is same for model and the prototype when, both

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100 m/s. If the ratio of the bucket velocity of jet are tested as immersed in a subsonic flow.
velocity is 0.44 and the speed ratio is 0.43,
what is the coefficient of velocity of the nozzle? Statement (II): A model should be geometlically
(a) 0·817 (b) 0·882 similar to the prototype.
(c) 0·913 (d) 0.977 Ans. (b)
AS
Ans. (d)
105. Statement (I): The ogee spillway is a control
Sol. U1 = K U1 2gH weir’ having an S-shaped crest profile which
KU1 = Speed ratio provides a high discharge coefficient without
U1 = 0.44  100  44m s causing cavitations.
V = C V 2gH Statement (II): The crest profile of ogee
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spillway conforms to the lower nappe of flow

V 100
CV =   0.977 over a ventilated sharp-crested weir and
2gH 44 0.43 ensures a constant discharge coefficient for all
Directions: heads.
Each of the next Eighteen (18) items consists of Ans. (c)
S

two statements, one labelled as the ‘Statement (I)’ Sol. If head of water over the Ogee spillway is less
and the other as ‘Statement (II)’, Examine these two than design head then falling jet of water will
statements carefully and select the answers to ‘these adhere to the crest of the spillway hence an
IE

items using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (1) and’ Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is not the
correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
false
positive hydrostatic pressure will be created
which will reduce the discharge coefficient.
106. Statement (I): In open channel flow, the
maximum velocity does not occur on the free
surface.
Statement (II): There is wind drag on the free
surface of an open channel.
Ans. (b)

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107. Statement (I): The deeper a lake, the lesser
the evaporation in summer and the more in
winter.
Statement (II): Heat storage in water bodies
affects seasonal evaporation
Ans. (a)
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108. Statement (I): Flow over sharp-crested weirs,
standing wave flumes and abrupt free overfalls
at ends of long straight channels are examples
of rapidly varied flow.
Statement (II): The above-Ilsted flows are all
AS
essentially local phenomena and can be utilized
for flow measurement in open channels.
Ans. (a)
109. Statement (I): Negative skin friction will act on
the piles of a group in filled-up reclaimed soils
M
or peat soil.
Statement (II): The filled-up’ or peat soils’ are’
not fully consolidated but start consolidating
under their own ov erburden pressure,
developing a drag on ,the surface of the piles.
S
Ans. (a)
110. Statement (I): The possibility of quicksand’
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condition occuring is more on the downstream
of a weir on a permeable foundation than on
the upstream’ end with an upward component
of seepage velocity.
Statement (II): Seepage lines end with an
upward component of seepage velocity at the
downstream reaches of such a weir.
Ans. (a)
Sol. Upward seepage reduces effective stress
where as downward seepage increases
effective stresses.
111. Statement (I): Multistage centrifugal pumps
are used to produce very high delivery heads.
Statement (II): Roto-dynamic pumps must
have to be centrifugal rather than centripetal,
from the very basic principles of hydrodynamics.
R
Also, the stages are in series.
Ans. (a)
112. Statement (I): The speed of a hydraulic turbine
has to be maintained constant irrespective of
the load on the machine for keepirig the
electrical power generation frequency constant
Statement (II): Governing of hydraulic turbines
can be done by controlling the discharge through
the turbines by adjusting the. spear valve in
Pelton turbines and the wicket in Francis or
Kaplan turbines.
Ans. (a)
113. Statement (I): : A channel in alluvium running
with constant discharge and constant sediment
charge will first from its flow section and then
its final longintudinal slope.
Statement (II): If a channel in alluvium has a
section too small for a given discharge and
slope steeper than required, degradation and
aggradation happen and then the flow section
attains final regime.
Ans. (d)
Sol. A channel in alluvium running with constant
discharge and constant sediment charge will
first from its longitudinal slope and then its final
flow section.
114. Statement (I): The shear stress exerted by the
stream flow on the bed is responsible for the
movement of bed sediment particles.
Statement (II): The sediment will move when
the shear stress crosses a threshold limit
designated as a critical shear stress c .
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Ans. (a)
115. Statement (I): The trap efficiency of a reservoir
increases with age as the reservoir capacity is
reduced by sediment accumulation
Statement (II): The trap efficiency is a function
of the ratio of reservoir capacity to the total
inflow. A small reservoir on a,’ large stream has
masonry to counter side thrusts due to
hydrodynamic forces exerted on the joints.
Ans. (a)
118. Statement (I): Aerobic condition in composting
of refuse can be confirmed by temperature
measurements.

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Statemen t (II ): Aerobic react ions are
a low trap efficiency efficiency. exothermic.
Ans. (d) Ans. (a)

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Sol. The trap efficiency of reservoir decreases with
the increasing age, as the capacity of reservoir 119. Statement (I): For a given soil, optimum
decreases. moisture content increases with the increase in
compactive effort.
Trap efficiency is a function of
Statement (II): Higher the compactive effort,
1. Ratio of reservoir capacity to mean annual
higher is the dry density at the same moisture
AS
inflow.
content.
2. Sediment characteristics. Ans. (d)
116. Statement (I): Recarbonation of water softened Sol. Optimum moisture contain decreases with
by lime-soda process results in increased compactive effort.
hardness of the water.
120. Statement (I): Rate of settlement of a
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Statement (II): : Suspended solids, like CaSO4

consolidating layer depends upon its coefficient
and MgSO 4, which have not settled in the
of consolidation, which is directly proportional
sedimentation tank, get dissolved due to
to the permeability and number of drainage
passage of CO2.
paths available.
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Ans. (a)
Statement (II): The excess hydrostatic pore
pressure is relived fast in soil of higher
117. Statement (I): Pipes carrying water are
permeability, in turn, depending on the number
anchored at bends and other points of
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or drainage paths available in the consolidating

unbalanced thrusts
layer.
Statement (II): Pipes are anchored by firmly
embedding In massive blocks of concrete or Ans. (a)

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