Proctored - Mock CAT 2

Answers and Explanations

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21 1 22 5 23 5 24 2 25 5 26 3 27 1 28 4 29 5 30 2
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41 3 42 1 43 5 44 2 45 3 46 2 47 4 48 1 49 5 50 2
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61 5 62 5 63 4 64 2 65 1 66 4 67 1 68 3 69 5 70 3
71 5 72 3 73 1 74 1 75 2

Page 1 MBA Proctored - Mock CAT 2

Test Prep
1. 5 Option (1) is given in the last paragraph of the passage. The
authors refer to Rose’s book and present an observation
about the screenplay writer’s act of plagiarism. However this
is just an observation and not the sole reason for mentioning
the book.
Option (2) is a generalisation that cannot be made in the context
of the passage. There is no evidence to justify this statement
from the passage. Hence, it is not the best choice.
Option (3) is another observation made by the authors in
order to comment upon all those critics who reviewed the
movie and did not bother to read up on the source. This
statement categorizes ‘most movie critics’ which cannot be
justified from the passage. Hence, it is incorrect.
Option (4) is completely against the authors’ view presented
in the opening lines of the passage where the authors state
that ‘the film fails, we think, as a serious visual statement of
important moral issues’. Hence, it is a wrong inference.
Option (5) is the best choice because the authors’ state in the
last paragraph that as an ‘authentic history’ the film does
‘rather well’ even though on other grounds it fails. Hence, (5)
is correct.
2. 4 Option (1) is incorrect because it seems to contradict the
authors’ views who clearly state in the first paragraph that
they do not agree with the raving reviews given by other
critics. Hence, the authors do not believe that the movie
‘deserves plaudits’.
Option (2) is incorrect because nowhere in the passage do
the authors hint that the movie is making a mockery of the
issues.
Option (3) is inappropriate because it contradicts the views
of the authors who clearly state in paragraph 5 that ‘Pretty
Baby poses a dozen perplexing moral ambiguities but deals
with them only superficially, if at all.’ Hence, it is completely
wrong.
Option (4) is the best choice because in the first paragraph
the authors reveal the judgement of other critics and then
justify why they feel that the movie fails to treat the subject in
a proper fashion.
Option (5) is incorrect because nowhere in the passage do
the authors refer to the performance of the actors in the
movie and hence there is no evidence to justify this statement.
3. 3 Option (1) is completely out of scope because the authors’
tone is not dismissive. Throughout the passage, they explain
why the film was unable to present a convincing and
responsible picture. Also, this option is not in sync with the
views of the authors who feel that the movie did not deal with
the subject properly rather than ‘glorifying’ it.
Option (2) is an extremely strong and sarcastic statement,
which does not match with the critical style adopted by the
authors. The authors justify their opinions by giving evidence
from the film. Hence, (2) is inappropriate.
Option (3) is the best choice because it adopts the same tone
and style of the authors that critically identifies the mistakes
made by those responsible for making the film and reflects
disappointment.
Option (4) is incorrect because the authors’ tone does not
reflect caution. The authors are opinionated about the film and
other critics but they do not tell a tale of caution.
Option (5) is completely incorrect because the authors’ tone
is not praiseworthy. The given statement seems to be positive
about the movie whereas the authors’ tone in the passage is
critical.
Page 2 MBA
4. 4 Option (1) is incorrect because it negates the possibility of a
film to be a close version of a book. Also, the authors explain
that curiously the book goes unacknowledged in the movie
but their views about how close the two versions of the story
are is unclear.
Option (2) is inappropriate because even though it can be
somewhat inferred from the second paragraph, the audience
expectations cannot be measured. Therefore, it is only partially
true.
Option (3) is incorrect because it contradicts the authors’
views who clearly reveal their curiosity in the second and the
last paragraph about giving no mention to Al Rose’s book in
the movie.
Option (4) is correct because the authors comment that most
critics who gave raving reviews of the movie did not bother to
read the book that formed the basis of the movie. Their opinion
is mentioned in the last paragraph of the passage.
Option (5) negates the idea of dealing with a serious issue like
pornography through the medium of a movie. This is completely
incorrect because this suggests that movies cannot do justice
to such subjects in the first place.
5. 4 The correct answer is option (4). The answer to this question
can be arrived at by reading the first seven lines of the second
paragraph. The call for freedom is relational as ‘Attention is
always attracted to the agencies that prevent it from being
realised – for example, the anti-colonial uprisings in Burma
.....’
6. 2 The correct answer is Option (2), ‘ As this term covers both
the concepts of national independence and freedom and also
finds resonance with Burmese culture and religion; this term
was chosen as it can refer to both the political as well as the
personal perspective of freedom and hence is perfectly in
sync with Burmese history. This can be gathered from the
first two paragraphs. Option (1) touches upon only the double
implication of the term and sounds incomplete in comparison
to option (2). Option (3) is a completely alien idea; this linguistic
perspective is not at all explored in the passage. Option (4) is
a mere conjecture. Moreover it would be taking things a bit too
far to genaralise about the interest of the Burmese. Option (5)
is completely irrelevant.
7. 3 The answer is (3), ‘I only’ . Aung San Suu Ki is against the
military’s denial of personal liberty for the sake of national
freedom. As a result she might highlight the personal aspect
more fervently. But this does not mean that she denies the
political perspective completely. Perhaps, she would like both
perspectives to be equally highlighted. All the other options
can be gathered from the passage. Option II can be easily
gathered from the fourth paragraph. Option III can be inferred
from the first two paragraphs. Option IV is also easily inferred
from the last paragraph where the author speaks about how
the military’s stance is ‘paradoxical’.
8. 5 Refer to the line “And the slowdown has yet to affect one
thing. For years, poor countries have been growing faster
than rich ones; so far, they still are….”. Hence option 1 can be
inferred. Option 3 can be inferred from the comment on
Germany and Japan in the last paragraph. Option 2 is too
definitive. The term ‘deglobalization’ is becoming popular and
doubts are being raised about the efficacy of globalization
due to the economic slowdown. But this does not mean that
deglobalization is all set to become a reality.
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Test Prep
9. 5 Option 1 cannot be inferred as “sagging” means “falling” and
not necessarily “fluctuating” in the context. The commodity
prices fell. Option 2 cannot be inferred from the paragraph as
such a conclusion would require more discussion and data.
Option 3 is flawed. Refer to the last paragraph where no
concrete data is given about Taiwan and only a possibility of
shrinking growth- that too in 2009 is indicated. Option 4 is
incorrect as a data analysis of the last line of the fourth
paragraph does not give us any accurate figure regarding the
fall in 2001. Hence option 5.
10. 3 In the context –prima facie means initial/first hand or ‘at first
sight’. In options (1) and (2) respectively, ‘Sound’ and
‘Foreboding’ do not give the exact sense. We do not know if
the evidence is foolproof/sound as the tone of the subsequent
lines are doubtful. ‘Staid’, mentioned in the passage, can be
connected with traditional and conservative—which are
encompassed in the meaning of ‘sedate’. ‘Sedate’, which
means marked by colourless propriety, which is the opposite
of capriciousness/whimsical/fanciful. ‘Tempestuous’ means
turbulent, therefore it can be negated easily.
11. 3 The change in world views discussed by the author points
towards a new world order with respect to sociology. Since,
sociology deals specifically with the society this ‘fading out’
points to its essential breakdown. All the other options are
mentioned in the passage as pointers towards the new world
order.
12. 3 The author comments on the lack of depth in the workings of
modern day sociologists making option 3 correct. All the other
options are stated in the passage rendering them incorrect as
inferences.
13. 4 The author recounts Tilly’s versions containing real people,
history and drama, and have lessons for how change might
be achieved more successfully making option 4 correct. 1, 2,
3 & 5 are mentioned in the passage as facts about Tilly and do
not lead to an inference.
14. 2 Option 1 is too narrow and leaves out Quine. Option 3 uses
words like ‘apparently sound basis’ and ‘showing that’, which
cannot be substantiated by the passage. Quine is arguing-
not showing anything. Option 4 incorrectly states that the
basis of Logical Positivism is weakened. Option 5 incorrectly
states that Quine shows –which is equivalent to proving
something. The paragraph does not display this proof. Option
2 correctly summarizes the paragraph.
15. 4 Option 1 is too specific and leaves out any talk about reality.
Option 2 is correct but not an apt summary. It is just describing
the impact on people. Option 3 is again narrow as it only
negates the speculative aspect of Magical Realism. Option 5
calls the reality of Magical Realism as objective which is
incorrect. Option 4 correctly summarizes the paragraph as
along with negating Magical realism as being speculative, it
also emphasizes what it actually is. Option 5 is too wayward
as it talks of a ‘different objective world, which alters the
meaning that is being conveyed by the argument.
16. 3 In this jumble , the only sentence which seems to have some
connection with the statement A is Statement B. From A, it is
clear that the mind, which is internal, is being equated to all in
a sense of it being an aspect of consciousness. Hence the
result in B which says that knowing anything external is also
self-knowledge follows A. CD is a mandatory pair as D is
extending the idea in C. Note that both are talking of ‘seeing’.
E is a conclusive statement. This gives us the sequence ABCDE.
Page 3 MBA
17. 4 Statement B which begins with ‘however’ and has a negative
tone–‘that many in India find themselves uncomfortable in
accepting the Darwinists’, requires a positive statement before
it. C and E which talk positive about India being able to
accommodate Darwin would logically precede B. Also CE is a
mandatory pair with E extending C and also getting into
specifics about India. D is a conclusive statement which
completes B. This gives us the correct sequence ACEBD.
18. 4 Statement A is talking about a reaction. E is the only statement
which talks about a reaction/reactionary movement. C talks
about ‘these modern social theories’ which can be linked to
the social theories in E. CB is a mandatory pair since B talks
about the progeny of ‘these theories’. D talks about the
response to French Revolution and Marxism which has to
come last. This gives us the correct sequence AECBD.
19. 1 AE is a mandatory pair since E talks about or extends the idea
of patriarchy. The pronoun ‘she’ in B is referring to Judith in E.
DC is also a mandatory pair as Brocke has been introduced
only in D. This gives us the correct sequence AEBDC.
20. 4 The argument is descriptive in nature and it reports how the
work of an author was received by the critics. The argument,
towards the latter half mentions that the work lacked the
authority to engage the readers who were looking for
something different from the works of 1920s. We have to
provide a replacement of the adjective used for the ‘ common
reader’. Looking at the context, option (4) suitably fits in as
‘disillusioned’ aptly describes a reader who is ‘weary’ of what
he has been reading- 1920 aesthetes. Option (1) would not fit
in here as ‘sly’ has a negative connotation which doesn’t
match the context. Option (2) might appear to be close at a
tertiary glance, however it can be ruled out as the sentence
talks of the ‘common reader’ who has become weary of the
themes adopted by the writers of the 1920s and repeated by
this author. In option (3) ‘flummoxed’ means confused or
perplexed, which doesn’t fit the context here. In Option (5)
‘vexed’ which means irritated might appear to be close but it
would be too strong a word to be used as in the argument
there is no suggestion that the reader is ‘vexed’.
21. 1 The argument talks of the dilemma that India faces with respect
to China’s crack down on Tibet. Option (1) suitably fits the
context as the paragraph suggests that the various countries
of the world have reacted to China’s crackdown, the only
country that has remained silent on the matter until now is
India, which makes it highly visible and noticeable. Option (2)
goes against the tone of the sentence. Option (3) would be
irrelevant here as ‘glorious’ means famous, which is out of
context. ‘Obnubilating’ in option (4) means obscure, which
makes it the incorrect answer choice. Option (4) is incorrect
as ‘splendiferous’ means brilliant, which doesn’t fit the context.
22. 5 A is incorrect because the correct phrase is ‘came and went’
(the tense also should be the same), C is incorrect because
the indefinite article ‘a’ is missing before ‘brief appearance’.
23. 5 A is incorrect as the correct pronoun usage is ‘at’ instead of
‘for’. C has an error of subject verb agreement, should be ‘are’
instead of ‘is’ since the subject is ‘games’ which is in the
plural. D is incorrect as the definite article ‘the’ should precede
‘sneaker world’ as we are referring to a particular area of
business.
24. 2 C is incorrect; it should be ‘companies’ in the plural form;
‘company’s’ refers to a single company in the possessive
form. D is incorrect as C talks about ‘all the’ in C thus
‘organizations’ in D should also be in the plural.
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Test Prep
25. 5 A is incorrect as it has a tense inconsistency. The verb ‘learn’
in A should have the past tense - ‘learnt’. D should be within
quotes as it is a question in direct speech.
26. 3 A is incorrect it should use ‘the’ before ‘tarot’. B uses the
singular ‘outcry’ incorrectly; it should be ‘outcries’, C is incorrect
as it uses the pronoun ‘whom’ instead of ‘which’ for a non
living object.
27. 1 B is incorrect as it uses the incorrect contraction ‘it’s’, which
means ‘it is’ the correct usage is the possessive ‘its’, C is
incorrect, there should be a definite article before Moon, it
should be the Moon to make the sentence grammatically
correct.
28. 4 ‘Born’ is to come into existence, ‘borne’- to carry or give birth
to; ‘cited’ is quoted, ‘sighted’ is seen; ‘dual’ is double, ‘duel’ is a
fight; ‘clause’ is a statement, ‘claws’ are nails of an animal;
‘cession’ is acceding or surrendering, as of territory to another
country by treaty, ‘session’ is an activity like a meeting or an
assembly. This leads us to (4).
29. 5 ‘Gaff’ is an iron hook with a handle for landing large fish,
‘gaffe’ is a blunder; ‘hangar’ is any relatively wide structure
used for housing airplanes or airships, ‘hanger’ is a shoulder-
shaped frame with a hook at the top, usually of wire, wood,
or plastic, for draping and hanging a garment when not in use;
‘millinery’ is a place for buying women’s hats, ‘millenary’ is
consisting of or pertaining to a thousand, esp. a thousand
years; ‘mordant’ is deathly pale, ‘mordent’ is a melodic
ornament; ‘ileum’ is a part of the intestine, ‘ilium’ is the broad,
upper portion of either ‘hipbone’. This leads us to (5).
30. 2 ‘Lane’ is a section of the road, ‘lain’ is the past participle of lie;
‘flea’ is an insect, ‘flee’ is to run away from something/place;
‘hoard’ is a supply or accumulation that is hidden or carefully
guarded for preservation, ‘horde’ is a group of animals; ‘feint’
is a movement made in order to deceive an adversary, ‘faint’ is
to pass out due to exhaustion; ‘Lama’ is a priest or monk in
Lamaism, ‘Llama’ is a domesticated South American ruminant
mammal related to the camel. This leads us to (2).
31. 5 Since the paragraph has spoken about movies and has ended
with a general comment on transformations, the next thing
would probably be examples of the same as in the choices.
But the choice to follow immediately after the comment would
be an example on movies first as the paragraph ends with the
same. Hence option 5 is best. Then the other options could
follow –which talk about TV Programmes as also American
adaptations of British Programmes.
32. 5 The author in the argument disapproves of the Indians’ attitude
of adulation towards the books that receive the Booker. The
argument has a critical tone. Option (5) clarifies the author’s
position in his expression of disapproval. The author mentions
that the unnecessary importance attached to the international
opinion neutralizes the sin of subversion. Option (1) is a too
general statement that to an extent restates the author’s opinion.
Option (2) confirms to the scope of the argument, however, it
would follow only after option (5). Option (3) goes against the
theme of the argument as in the argument the author mentions
about the valuation of books by the Booker status is dismissing
the response of the readers in the native country. Option (4)
poses a wayward argument that doesn’t match the scope of
the original argument as it talks of a ‘superiority of culture’.
33. 3 The tone of the paragraph is predominantly narrative and in
the past tense. Option 1 is repetitive and is abruptly in the
present. Even options 4 and 5 abruptly jump to the present
Page 4 MBA
and do not continue the tone. Option 2 seems to follow option
3- note that option 2 starts with ‘even audiences were
transformed’ which is logical after option 3 which talks of
transformation of theatre. Option 3 is closely linked to the para
end which talks of unseen activities. Option 3 not only continues
the paragraph but defines what this invisible theatre is all
about.
34. 3 The paragraph is descriptive and not biased towards any
particular side. It is merely informative and not opinionated or
subjective. Option 1 is not extending the last line which talks
of ‘means of production’. Option 2 slips back to an earlier
point and gets repetitive. Option 4 talks of capitalism suddenly
and is also opinionated and not factual. Option 5 is again
highly opinionated and subjective- markedly different from the
factual tone of the paragraph.
35.1 The first line of the paragraph-‘much to commend and much to
ponder’- gives away the tone of the author- which is moderate
and not extreme. Option 2 is too definitive in ‘Adiga can never
hope to explore’. Option 3 is too laudatory. Option 4 is extreme
in its negative tone. Option 5 suddenly jumps from- class
discussions to spirituality. Option 1 continues the author’s
view. Also note the words ‘my hunch is …..’ which is moderate
in its import.
36. 4 Option (1) is incorrect because the action taken by the
company does not necessarily suggest that all those
consumers who make purchases in the ‘daily needs section’
will also buy items from the ‘lifestyle products section’. It is not
a definite conclusion that can be justified from the given
argument.
Option (2) is incorrect because it is a general statement
regarding the purchasing power of the consumers. This cannot
be concluded from the argument because the entire argument
is focused on the company’s decision to motivate the
consumers to make purchases in the lifestyle section. Hence,
this conclusion is not the best choice.
Option (3) is completely out of context because the argument
does not refer to the purchases made by the consumers in
the children’s section.
Option (4) is the best choice because the action taken by the
company suggests that the company wants to motivate the
customers to not just spend some time in the lifestyle section
but to also convert those visits into real time purchases. Hence,
this can be clearly concluded from the argument.
Option (5) is incorrect because it cannot be justified from the
argument. There is no evidence that suggests that the
purchasing from the lifestyle section will be higher than the
purchases made from the ‘daily needs section’. Also, the option
suggests that the number of items purchased will be more.
So, even if the purchasing amount will be higher (due to the
difference between the pricing of necessity products vis-à-
vis lifestyle products), it does not suggest that the number of
items purchased will also be greater.
37. 1 Option (1) is the best choice as it can be easily inferred from
the given argument. The above argument suggests that better
performance of, once considered, lousy workers is giving
competition to some of the best performers who are unable to
cope. Even though these, usually, best performers are unable
to consistently cope well with the others, the argument
suggests that the overall performance of the employees is
increasing. Also, the argument suggests that they are able to
cope; however, that is not ‘consistent’ which means that their
performance may increase at times but then on other occasions
the performance may falter.
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Test Prep
 Option (2) contradicts the argument by suggesting that the
benchmark performance levels are still unachievable whereas
it is clear, from the above argument, that most lousy employees
have raised the performance bar much higher.
Option (3) cannot be inferred from the argument because it
seems to provide a general conclusion about the nature of
lousy workers in most companies. This option cannot be
justified from the given argument. Also, the option seems to
generalise the economic situation and suggests that this is
usually how most lousy employees perform in crises
situations.
Option (4) can be dismissed because it suggests a behavioural
issue with most outstanding employees who are challenged
by their colleagues. This cannot be inferred from the argument.
Also, the argument suggests that the tension levels of all
employees have increased.
Option (5) is incorrect because it is out of scope. It refers to
the hiring of new candidates whereas the argument pertains
to the comparison between the performances of outstanding
employees and that of lousy employees during recession.
Hence, this option cannot be considered as an appropriate
choice.
38. 4 Option (1) is incorrect because it fails to have a drastic impact
on the argument. Waiving the loans of some of the farmers in
selective areas does not suggest that it has brought relief to
a considerable number of farmers all across the country.
Hence, this option does not considerably strengthen the above
argument.
Option (2) suggests that the government is trying to educate
the farmers about making their own deals but this option does
not strengthen the above argument. Also, because the
argument explains that the government fails to control the
situation. This option tends to weaken the argument by
suggesting that the government is trying to do something
about the situation.
Option (3) has no impact on the argument because it only
pertains to the massive scale and level of difficulty of the
situation that faces the government. Hence, this is irrelevant
to the argument.
Option (4) is the best choice because it reinforces what the
argument suggests. It explains how the government has tried
to control the role of the brokers but fails to implement it on the
ground level. This considerably strengthens the above
argument.
Option (5) contradicts the above argument by suggesting that
the number of suicides have actually reduced in comparison
to last year’s figures. This is completely contradictory to the
above argument and hence is incorrect.
39. 5 Option (1) is incorrect because it strengthens the argument
which is against banning the use of English. This option
provides evidence to justify that a ban on English language
hampers the chances of career growth.
Option (2) also strengthens the argument by suggesting how
other nations are introducing English in schools in order to
equip their people with the tools for the nation’s future.
Option (3) somewhat weakens the above argument by
suggesting that only a section of people within the society
need to learn English for educational purposes. However,
this option does not effectively weaken the argument that
refers to the need of learning English for the entire nation.
Option (4) is an incorrect option because even though it seems
to weaken the argument, it is wrong because this option
suggests that people within India prefer to speak Hindi and
not English whereas the argument implies that the preferred
language of communication across nations is English. The
argument pertains to the international preference of this
language whereas the option seems to narrow the scope by
referring to the preference of Indians.
Page 5 MBA
Option (5) is the best choice because it suggests that nations
are training people to speak in the regional and national
languages of India because most of the Indian traders are
more fluent in these languages. This seems to justify banning
English because the remaining world is supposedly adapting
the national and regional languages of India.
40. 3 Option (1) is incorrect because it does not reveal a flaw in the
reasoning presented in the above argument. It seems to
weaken the above argument by suggesting that this treatment
of overdose may lead to recovery; however, the recovery
could be temporary. Hence, this option is inappropriate.
Option (2) presents an inference from the argument as it
suggests that since only those suffering from Down’s
syndrome and have high blood sugar level can be treated
successfully; those who do not have both these conditions
cannot hope of recovery. This does not present a flaw in the
argument.
Option (3) is the best choice because it explains that the
treatment suggested above could be specifically conducive
only in the case of those who have both conditions -high
blood sugar level and Down’s syndrome. Hence, it cannot be
generalized for all patients who have high blood sugar level
along with some other genetic disorder. This tends to point out
the flaw in the similar treatment suggested by the doctors.
Option (4) seems to support and strengthen the above
argument by suggesting that the reasoning of the doctors is
not flawed. This option supports the treatment suggested by
the doctors and admits that the treatment of those with genetic
birth disorders is quite similar and the difference lies only in
the prescribed dosage. Hence, this option cannot be
considered as the answer.
Option (5) refers to providing the same treatment to those
who are suffering only from Down’s syndrome. This cannot
be justified from the argument because it is out of scope. The
argument only refers to the treatment of those with both
conditions – High blood sugar level and Down’s syndrome.
The effects of treatments of those solely suffering from
Down’s syndrome cannot be justified because there is no
evidence present in the argument to support this option.
For questions 41 to 44:
Let, the number of students who had one, two, three, four, five and
six varieties of chocolates be ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’, ‘e’ and ‘f’ respectively.
So, the number of students who did not have any chocolate = (a + f).
Therefore, a + 10 + 12 + 16 + 8 + f = 180 – (a + f)
a + 2 × 10 + 3 × 12 + 4 × 16 + 5 × 8 + 6f = 342
So, 2a + 2f = 180 – 10 – 12 – 16 – 8 = 134 and a + 6f = 342 – 160
= 182.
Solving, the above two equations we get that the value of ‘a’ and ‘f’ as
a = 44 and f = 23.
41. 3 a = 44
42. 1 The number of students who did not have any variety of
chocolate on that day is 44 + 23 = 67.
43. 5 In the worst possible case, assume that all the students who
ate exactly two, three, four and five varieties of chocolates,
definitely had chocolates of variety D. Then, there will be
(10 + 12 + 16 + 8 + 23) = 69 students who not only had
chocolates of variety D but also had chocolates of at least
one more variety.
So, there will be at least 73 – 69 = 4 students who had
chocolates of only variety D.
44. 2 Number of students who had chocolates of only variety F is
45 – (10 + 12 + 23) = 0.
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Test Prep
For questions 45 to 47: For questions 48 to 51:
Since none of the four students gets the same marks in any of the two Since, it is given that the number of games won by each person is
subject, therefore distinct, therefore P, Q, R, S, T and U won 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 and 0 games in
(I) Sum of marks obtained by Zoya in Life Sciences and Finance the whole tournament not necessarily in that particular order.
is 11 As U lost its games only against S and R, U must have won only 3 or
(II) Sum of marks obtained by Kate in Life Science and Public less games. Also, R and S must have won 4 and 5 games not necessarily
Service is 11 in that order.
(III) Sum of marks obtained by Frida in Life Sciences and Finance Also, T did not loose more than 3 games, T must have won 2 or more
is 7 games. So, we can conclude that U won 3 games and T won 2
(IV) Sum of marks obtained by Latika in Public Service and Finance games.
is 11 Between P and Q, they have won 0 and 1 game not necessarily in that
order. But, Q won its game against P. So, Q won 1 game and P won 0
Also Zoya, Kate and Latika get total marks in the range 21 to 23 while game.
Frida gets in the range 19 to 21. As per the information given in the question the possibilities for the
number of games won by each of the mentioned persons is listed in
Similarly the sum of marks obtained in Optics is in the range 19 to 21 the table given below.
while sum of the marks obtained in Life Sciences, Public Services and
Finance are in the range 21 to 23. Number of games won
Since total marks obtained in all subjects are different therefore sum
P 0
of marks obtained in Optics will be 19 or 20.
As marks obtained by Frida in Optics is 6, therefore the sum of marks Q 1
obtained in Optics will be 20. R 4 or 5
Marks obtained by Frida will also be equal to 20. S 5 or 4
Marks obtained by Zoya in Optics and Frida in Public Services will be
7. T 2
U 3
45. 3 Now if two cases are considered, which are as follows:
48. 1 The number of games won by Q is 1.
Case I: Kate obtained 3 marks in Optics
49. 5 Either R or S won 5 games.
Life Public
Students Optics Finance Total For questions 50 and 51:
Sciences Service
Given that R got 11 coins and won exactly four games in the whole
Zoya 7 5/6 4/3 6/5 22/21 tournament.
So, the number of games won by each of the mentioned six persons
Kate 3 5/6 6/5 7/8 21/22
is listed in the table given below.
Frida 6 4/3 7 3/4 20
Latika 4 8 5/6 6/5 23 Number of games w on Number of coins got
Total 20 23/22 22/21 21/23 - P 0 0
Case II: Kate obtained 4 marks in Optics Q 1 < 11
R 4 11
Life Public S 5 < 11
Students Optics Finance Total
Sciences Service T 2 < 11
Zoya 7 5/ 6 4/3 6/5 22/21 U 3 < 11
Kate 4 6/5 5/6 8 23
Since, S won all the five games then he must have necessarily got
Frida 6 3/4 7 4/3 20
10 coins. (Two coins in each game)
Latika 3 7/8 6/5 5/6 21/22
Total 20 21/23 22/21 23/22 - 50. 2 The minimum number of coins got by U, T, Q and P is 6, 4, 2 and
0 respectively.
46. 2 Clearly only ‘Public Service’ cannot have maximum marks. So, the total number of coins got by all the mentioned six
persons in the whole tournament cannot be less than 11 + 2 +
47. 4 Kate obtained 7 marks in Finance. The new table will look like 6 + 4 + 10 = 33.

51. 3 Given that the total number of coines got by all the mentioned
Life Public persons is 47. Now we already known that R, P and S got 11,
Students Optics Finance Total
Sciences Services 0, 10. So, we have 47 = (0, 10, 11) + (T, U, Q)
⇒ (T, U, Q) = 26
Zoya 7 5/6 4 6/5 22 which is only possible when T gets 10, Q gets 6 and U gets
Kate 3 6/5 5/6 7 21 10.
Frida 6 4 7 3 20
Latika 4 8 6/5 5/6 23
Total 20 23 22 21 -

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52. 1 Number of employee in the year 2007 should be multiple of 200 and in the year 2008 should be multiple of 50 other wise the actual
number of employees will be in fractions which is impossible.
As the total number of employee’s increases by 10 percent minimum possible number of employees in the year 2007 and 2008 should
be 1000 and 1100 respectively.

Number of Number of Minimum possible

% Break-up % Break-up
employees employees in Number of
in 2007 in 2008
in 2007 2008 employees Left
Engineers 27.5 275 32 352 0
CA/CS 8 80 6 66 14
MBA 18 180 24 264 0
Graduate 37.5 375 28 308 67
PG 4 40 6 66 0
Others 5 50 4 44 6
Total 100% 1000 100% 1100 87

Minimum number of employees left = 14 + 67 + 6 = 87.

53. 2 For calculating the minimum number of graduates in Edu-Media in the year 2009 we will have to take minimum possible number of
employees in the year 2007 which is 200. The corresponding value for 2008 is 350 to satisfy the criteria of minimum 20% increase in
the number of employees in each category in the year 2008.

With 20%
growth the
% Break-up No of employees % Break-up No of employees number of
in 2007 in 2007 in 2008 in 2008 employees
should have
been at least
Engineers 27.5 55 32 112 66
CA/CS 8 16 6 21 20
MBA 18 36 24 84 44
Graduate 37.5 75 28 98 90
PG 4 8 6 21 10
Others 5 10 4 14 12
Total 100% 200 100% 350 242

 (98 − 75 ) 
The number of graduates in the year 2009 should be greater than or equal to 98 +   × 200 = 158.1 ≈ 159
 75 
Minimum number of Graduates in the year 2009 = 159.

54. 1 If we take the number of employees as ‘x’ in Edu-Media in the year 2007, then
Productivity quotient =
(27.5% of x × 24 + 8% of x × 46 + 18% of x × 42 + 37.5 of x × 16 + 4% of x × 20 + 5% of x × 40 )
(27.5% of x × 6 + 8% of x × 12 + 18% of x × 11 + 37.5% of x × 5 + 4% of x × 6 + 5%of x × 10 ) = 3.7

Alternate method:
By observing Table-II it is obvious that productivity quotient of Engineers = 4, CA/CS = 3.8, MBA = 3.8, Graduate = 3.2, PG = 3.33, Others
= 4.
⇒ Productivity quotient cannot be 3.93 as value is very high. Similarly 3.33 and 3.35 are ruled out because these two values are very
low.
⇒ Only possible option = 3.7.

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55. 3 Revenue
Salary Per Total revenue Total salary
No of employees contributed per
Employee Combined Paid
employee
Engineers 96 24 6 2304 576
CA/CS 18 36 12 648 216
MBA 72 42 11 3024 792
Graduate 84 16 5 1344 420
PG 18 20 6 360 108
Others 12 40 10 480 120
Total 300 Rs.8160 L Rs.2232 L

 8160 
Total salary which should have been paid =   = Rs. 1813 .33 Lacs
 4.5 
Actual Salary Paid = Rs.2178 Lacs
Difference = 2232 – 1813.33 = Rs.418.67 Lacs

56. 3 It is given that mn = p, np = m and mp = n,

m c b a Number of Triplets
As mn = p ⇒ m × =p
p 2 5 to 12 8
⇒ m =p 2 2
1
3 7 to 12 6
Similarly, we can get n2 = p2 and m2 = n2. 4 9 to 12 4
⇒ m2 = n2 = p2 ...(i) 5 11 and 12 2
(mn)(np)(mp) = p × m × n
4 9 to 12 4
m2 n2 p2 = mnp 2
5 11 and 12 2
⇒ mnp(mnp – 1) = 0
⇒ mnp = 0 or mnp = 1 ...(ii) 3 5 11 and 12 2
Combining equations I and II either m = n = p = 0 or mnp = 1
So, m, n or p can be equal to 1 or –1. Total number of distinct triplets = 8 + 6 + 4 + 2 + 4 + 2 + 2 = 28
So, the required sets (m, n , p) that satisfies the conditions are
(0, 0, 0), (1, 1, 1), (1, –1, –1), (–1, 1, –1) and (–1, –1, 1). 60. 1 Since, A > 0, f(0) will be less than zero when the product of
⇒ Total five sets of solutions are there. the roots α and β (i.e. αβ) is negative.
For, α = −4, − 3, − 2 or − 1, β can be either 1, 2 or 3.
57. 2 Let x be the number of units of ‘Cool Blue’ produced everyday.
So, the number of units of ‘Kiss of Coffee’ produced everyday Total number of pairs (α, β) = 4 × 3 = 12
is x + 210. For β = −3, − 2 or − 1 , α can be either 1 or 2.
According to the question,
Total number of pairs (α, β) = 3 × 2 = 6
8100 9000 Hence, total number of distinct pairs = 12 + 6 = 18.
– =3
x (x + 210)
(As, ‘Cool Blue’ and ‘Kiss of Coffee’ are produced 3 days and
6 days earlier than the deadline respectively) 61. 5 P
we get x = 540.
A B
U Q
1
58. 4 Area of ABCD = × BD × (AM + CN)
2

BD = 6 3 cm (3 MN = 2 3 and BD = 3MN) T R
AM = 2 cm ( 3 AM2 = AD2 – DM2) D C
S
and CN = 13 cm ( 3 CN2 = BC2 – BN2)
Hence, the required area is Let, AU = x cms
∴ AP + PB = 2(2 – x)cms
1
2
( )
× 6 3 × 2 + 13 cm2 or 29.12 cm2 Consider the trapezium TUAD
∠UAD = 180° − ∠AUT = 60°
59. 1 Maximum possible value of ‘c’ will be 3 as if ‘c’ is 4, then the Also, UA = TD
value of ‘a’ has to be greater than 12 which is not possible. ∴ AD = UT + 2UAcos60° = 2 + x
Also, maximum possible value of ‘b’ will be 5 as if ‘b’ is 6, then 2(2 − x) 3
the value of ‘a’ has to be greater than 12 which is not possible. In ∆APB : AB = 2AP cos30° =
2
The following table summarises the possibilities:

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 65. 1 As per the given information we can say that
Now, AB = AD ⇒ 2 + x = (2 − x) 3
P can be married to S, T or U
Q can be married to T or U
2( 3 − 1)
⇒x= R can be married to U only
3 +1 Therefore R will be married to U, Q will be married to T and
P will be married to S.
2( 3 − 1) 4 3
∴ AD = 2 + = cms
3 +1 3 +1 66. 4 180 = 22 × 32 × 51
Now, we should try to break-up 40 as a product of 3 factors
⇒ AD = 2 3( 3 − 1) cms
The only possible value of A satisfying all the given conditions
is 24 × 33 × 5
62. 5 Let the the number of boys and girls in 1st section are B1 and
G1 and in the 2nd section are B2 and G2. A 24 × 33 × 5
Value of = = 54
B 65 − 64 1 40 40
⇒ 1 = =
G1 68 − 65 3 ⇒ If B1 = x then G = 3x
67. 1 As per the question
B 71 − 65 6 2 g(2, 2) = 2
⇒ 2 = = =
G2 80 − 71 9 3 ⇒ If B2 = 2y then G2 = 3y g(2 + 1, 2) = g(3, 2) = g(2, 2) + 2 × 2 = 2 + 2 × 2 = 6
g(3, 2 + 1) = g(3, 3) = g(3, 2) – 2 × 2 = 6 – 2 × 2 = 2
As per the question: g(3 + 1, 3) = g(4, 3) = g(3, 3) + 2 × 3 = 2 + 2 × 3 = 8
x
3y = ⇒ x : y = 6 :1 Similarly:
2
g(5, 4) = 2 × 4 + 2 = 10
⇒ x = 6y g(6, 5) = 2 × 5 + 2 = 12
⇒ Ratio number of students of 1st section to 2nd section Hence : g(1007, 1006) = 2 × 1006 + 2 = 2014
= 4x : 5y = 24 : 5
65 × 24 + 71 × 5 68. 3 g(2, 2) = g(1 + 1, 2) = g(1, 2) + 2 = 2
⇒ Re quired Average = = 66
39 ⇒ g(1, 2) = 0
g(1, 2) = g(1, 1 + 1) = g(1, 1) – 2 = 0
63. 4 Let the distance be 630x km ⇒ g(1, 1) = 2
So the time taken by the fastest man = 9x hours g(2, 2) = g(2, 1 + 1) = g(2, 1) – 2 = 2
Similarly the time taken by the slowest man = 21x hours ⇒ g(2, 1) = 4
So the time taken by the other two men must be 13x and
17x hours in that order. 69. 5 |x|2 + 6|xy| + 9|y|2 = 64
630 630 (|x| + 3|y|)2 = 82
So the speeds of the other two men are and km / hr |x| + 3|y| = +8 (–8 is not possible)
13 17
Possible solutions of the equations for (x, y) are
in that order.
( ± 8, 0), ( ± 2, ± 2) and ( ± 5, ± 1)

y 1
64. 2 The region bounded by the lines y ≥ – |x| + 4, y ≥ |x| + 4 and Possible values of   are 0, ± 1 and ±
x 5
– 4 ≤ x ≤ 4 is given as follows.
y
Hence a total of 5 possible values of   exist.
y = |x| + 4 y = |x| + 4
x
y

70. 3 Let the product be P.

A P = (2 × 4 × 6 × 8 × 12 × 14 ..... × 192 × 194 × 196 × 198)
(– 4 , 8 ) (4 , 8 ) P = 24(1 × 2 × 3 × 4) × 24(6 × 7 × 8 × 9) × 24(11 × 12 × 13 × 14)
× ... × 24(96 × 97 × 98 × 99)
O The unit’s digit of the product in each parentheses is 4.
So, the unit’s digit of P is same as the unit’s digit of 280 × 420
or 2120
Remainder when 120 is divided by 4 is 0.
So, the unit’s digit will be same as the unit’s digit of 24, which
is equal to 6.
x’ B (4 , 0 ) x
(– 4 , 0 )
71. 5 Case 1: The length of the sides of the triangle can be 8 cm,
8 cm and 5 cm.
y = – |x | + 4 Case 2: The length of the sides of the triangle can be 5 cm,
y = – |x | + 4
5 cm and 8 cm.
x = –4 y’ x= 4
Using Statement I:
In both the above mentioned cases the area of the square
1 comes out to be less than 28 square cm.
Area of triangle OAB = ×8×4
2 Hence, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the
= 16 question.
Area of required region = 32 sq. units

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 Using Statement II: 74. 1
In both the above mentioned cases the circumradius of the Incom e Expenditure Savings
triangle LMN is greater than 4 cm. A 2Z 2Z – 20000 Rs. 20000
Hence, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the
R Z Rs. 20000 Z – 20000
question.
S 5Z 5Z – 20000 Rs. 20000
The question cannot be answered even if we combine both
Using Statement I:
the statements.
Given that the expenditure of S is less than thrice the expen-
diture of A.
72. 3 Let the angles of the cyclic quadrilateral be ‘2x’, ‘3x’, ‘y’ and
5Z – 20000 < 3(2Z – 20000)
‘2y’ respectively.
Z > 40000
The following are the cases that are possible.
Hence, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Using Statement II:
Case 1:
Given that twice the expenditure of A is more than 5 times the
2x + 3x = 180 and y + 2y = 180
savings of R.
The measure of the four angles is 60, 72, 120 and 108 degrees.
2(2Z – 20000) > 5(Z – 20000)
Z < 60000.
Case 2:
Hence, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the
2x + 2y = 3x + y = 180
question.
The measure of the four angles is 90, 90, 135 and 45 degrees.
Hence, option (1) is the correct choice.
Using Statement I:
75. 2 Using Statement I:
Given that the measure of the two angles of the quadrilateral
Given that 2m2 + 3nm is divisible by 2.
is the same, which means Case 2 is the only possibility. Hence,
m(2m + 3n) is an even number.
statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
This is possible in the following ways.
Case 1: m is an even number and n is an odd number
Using Statement II:
Case 2: m is an even number and n is an even number
Given that the difference between the smallest and the largest
Case 3: m is an odd number and n is an odd number
angle of the quadrilateral is greater than 60 degrees, which
Case 4: m is an even number and n is an even number
means that only Case 2 is possible.
So, the remainder cannot be calculated
Hence, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the
Hence, Statement II alone is also sufficient to answer the
question.
question
Hence, option (3) is the correct choice.
Using statement II:
Given that 2n2 – 3m is not divisible by 2.
73. 1 Let P = ABC
2n2 is always in even number.
P – M = (100 A + 10B + C) – (100C + 10B + A)
Therefore, m has to be an odd number for 2n2 – 3m to be not
⇒ P – M = 99(A – C)
divisible by 2.
Since, the value of P – M is a two-digit number, therefore the
Hence, m – 2n will be an odd number.
value of (A – C) is equal to 1.
Therefore, the remainder when m – 2n is divided by 2 will be
Since, C is an odd number, the possible values of A and C in
equal to 1.
their particular order are as follows:
Hence, statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(8, 7); (6, 5); (4, 3); (2, 1)

Using Statement I:
P > 890
Since, the tens digit of P is greater than the unit’s digit of P, the
only possible value of P is 897.
Hence, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Using Statement II:

P < 351
There are more than one value of P satisfying the above given
inequality. For example P = 221, 231 and 241.
Hence, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.

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