Chapter 059

Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 7th Edition
Test Bank
Chapter 59: Nursing Management: Chronic Neurologic Problems
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A hospitalized patient complains of a moderate bilateral headache that radiates from

the base of the skull. Which of the following medications ordered on a PRN basis for
the patient should the nurse administer initially?
a. Lorazepam (Ativan)
b. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
c. Morphine sulfate (Roxanol)
d. Butalbital and aspirin (Fiorinal)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient’s symptoms are consistent with a tension headache, and initial
therapy usually involves a nonopioid analgesic such as acetaminophen, sometimes
combined with a sedative or muscle relaxant. Lorazepam may be used in conjunction
with acetaminophen but would not be appropriate as the initial monotherapy. Morphine
sulfate and Fiorinal would be more appropriate for a headache that did not respond to a
nonopioid analgesic.
Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1530

Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
2. A patient seen at the health clinic with a severe migraine headache tells the nurse
about having four similar headaches in the last 3 months. The patient says, “I am
afraid to make social plans because I never know when I will have these headaches.”
The most appropriate nursing action at this time is to
a. refer the patient for counseling to assist with stress reduction.
b. ask the patient to keep a diary with details about headaches.
c. encourage the patient to learn muscle-relaxation techniques to minimize headache
frequency.
d. teach the patient about the effectiveness of the triptan drugs in treating migraine
headaches.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The initial nursing action should be further assessment of the precipitating
causes of the headaches, quality and location of pain, etc. Stress reduction, muscle
relaxation, and the triptan drugs may be helpful, but more assessment is needed.

Copyright © 2007 by Mosby, Inc., an affiliate of Elsevier Inc.

Test Bank 59-2
3. After teaching a patient about management of migraine headaches, the nurse

determines that the teaching has been effective when the patient says,
a. “I will take the topiramate (Topamax) as soon as any headaches start.”
b. “The sumatriptan (Imitrex) will help to increase the blood flow to my brain.”
c. “I will try to lie down someplace dark and quiet when the headaches begin.”
d. “A glass of wine might help me relax and prevent headaches from developing.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is recommended that the patient with a migraine rest in a dark, quiet area.
Topamax is used to prevent migraines and must be taken for several months to determine
effectiveness. Blood flow to the brain is decreased by the triptan drugs. Alcohol may
precipitate migraine headaches.

Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
4. When a patient is being evaluated for new onset cluster-type headaches, the nurse will
anticipate
a. scheduling a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain.
b. teaching the patient about electromyelography (EMG).
c. obtaining a detailed patient history.
d. arranging for a cerebral angiogram.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diagnosis of cluster headache is made primarily on the basis of the patient’s
symptoms. Other diagnostic tests are only obtained if an underlying disorder is suspected
as the cause of the headache.

Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
5. A patient experiences cluster headaches that occur for 2 months every year. During
assessment of the patient who is experiencing a headache episode, the nurse would
expect to find
a. nuchal rigidity.
b. projectile vomiting.
c. unilateral eyelid swelling.
d. throbbing, bilateral facial pain.
Correct Answer: C

Test Bank 59-3
Rationale: Unilateral eye edema, tearing, and ptosis are characteristic of cluster
headaches. Nuchal rigidity suggests meningeal irritation, such as occurs with meningitis.
Although nausea and vomiting may occur with migraine headaches, projectile vomiting is
more consistent with increases in intracranial pressure (ICP). Unilateral sharp, stabbing
pain, rather than throbbing pain, is characteristic of cluster headaches.
Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: pp. 1528-1529

Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
6. The health care provider is considering the use of sumatriptan (Imitrex) for a patient
with migraine headaches. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important
to report to the health care provider?
a. The patient has a history of a recent acute myocardial infarction.
b. The patient has had migraine headaches for 30 years.
c. The patient has been taking topiramate (Topamax) for 2 months.
d. The patient has at least 1 to 2 cups of coffee daily.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The triptans cause coronary artery vasoconstriction and should be avoided in
patients with coronary artery disease. The other information will be reported to the health
care provider, but none is an indication that sumatriptan would be an inappropriate
treatment.

7. A patient has a tonic-clonic seizure while the nurse is in the patient’s room. During
the seizure, it is important for the nurse to
a. insert an oral airway during the seizure to maintain a patent airway.
b. restrain the patient’s arms and legs to prevent injury during the seizure.
c. avoid touching the patient to prevent further nervous system stimulation.
d. time and observe and record the details of the seizure and postictal state.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Because diagnosis and treatment of seizures frequently are based on the
description of the seizure, recording the length and details of the seizure is important.
Insertion of an oral airway and restraining the patient during the seizure are
contraindicated. The nurse may need to move the patient to decrease the risk of injury
during the seizure.
Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1536, 1539


Test Bank 59-4
8. The nurse witnesses a patient with a seizure disorder as the patient suddenly jerks the
arms and legs, falls to the floor, and regains consciousness immediately. It will be
most important for the nurse to
a. document the timing and description of the seizure.
b. notify the patient’s health care provider about the seizure.
c. give the scheduled dose of divalproex (Depakote).
d. assess the patient for a possible head injury.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient who has had a myoclonic seizure and fall is at risk for head injury
and should be evaluated and treated for this possible complication first. Documentation
of the seizure, notification of the seizure, and administration of antiseizure medications
are also appropriate actions, but the initial action should be assessment for injury.

9. After experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure in the classroom, an elementary

school teacher is evaluated and diagnosed with idiopathic epilepsy. The patient cries
and tells the nurse, “I can not teach anymore. It will be too difficult for the students if
this happens again at work.” The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is
a. anxiety related to loss of control during seizures.
b. hopelessness related to diagnosis of chronic illness.
c. disturbed body image related to new diagnosis of a seizure disorder.
d. ineffective role performance related to misinformation about epilepsy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The data indicate that the patient has ineffective role performance caused by
inadequate information about the disease because most patients are able to control
seizures with medication. Because the focus of the patient’s statement is on career issues,
this is a more appropriate diagnosis than anxiety, hopelessness, or disturbed body issues.

Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
10. The health care provider prescribes phenytoin (Dilantin) for control of complex
partial seizures. After the nurse has taught the patient about phenytoin, which patient
statement indicates understanding of the medication?
a. “I should use soft swabs rather than a toothbrush to clean my mouth.”
b. “After I have a seizure, I should call an ambulance to take me to the hospital.”
c. “I may need to have my blood taken frequently to check the level of the Dilantin.”
d. “I will take the medication at the beginning of the seizure when I experience an
aura.”

Test Bank 59-5
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Serum levels of phenytoin may be checked to ascertain that a therapeutic
level of the medication is achieved. Gingival hyperplasia associated with phenytoin use
can be decreased by frequent brushing and flossing. Most seizures do not require
hospitalization. The phenytoin is taken regularly to prevent seizures, not acutely when
seizures occur.

11. When a patient experiences a generalized tonic-clonic seizure in the emergency

department after a head injury, all of the following orders are received. Which one
will the nurse implement first?
a. Send to radiology for computed tomography (CT) scan.
b. Administer midazolam (Versed).
c. Check capillary blood glucose.
d. Monitor level of consciousness (LOC).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To prevent ongoing seizures, the nurse should administer rapidly acting
antiseizure medications such as the benzodiazepines. A CT scan is appropriate, but
prevention of any seizure activity during the CT scan is necessary. Although the capillary
blood glucose may offer information about the cause of the seizure, the initial nursing
action is to decrease the risk for further seizures. Monitoring level of consciousness is
important, but the highest priority is to decrease seizure risk.

12. A patient found in a tonic-clonic seizure reports afterward that the seizure was
preceded by numbness and tingling of the arm. The nurse knows that this finding
indicates a(n) _____ seizure.
a. absence
b. simple partial
c. complex partial
d. generalized myoclonic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The initial symptoms of a complex partial seizure involve clinical
manifestations that are localized to a particular part of the body or brain. In addition, an
alteration in consciousness is always manifested. Symptoms of an absence seizure are
staring and a brief loss of consciousness. During a simple partial seizure, the patient does
not lose consciousness. A generalized myoclonic seizure is characterized by a sudden jerk
of the body or extremities.

Test Bank 59-6
Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1535

13. When teaching the patient with newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis (MS) about the
disease, the nurse explains that
a. MS is a congenitally acquired illness that causes progressive neurologic
deterioration.
b. impulses travel too fast over nerves that have lost their myelin coat and cause
overstimulation of muscle fibers.
c. autoimmune processes cause gradual destruction of the myelin sheath of nerves in
the brain and spinal cord.
d. antibodies are produced against acetylcholine receptors at the synapse and result in
blocked muscle contraction.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary pathology in MS is an autoimmune process that leads to loss of
the myelin sheath and results in decreased nerve transmission. Although MS
susceptibility does appear to be inherited, the disease is not congenital because the
interaction of multiple factors precipitates MS development. Impulse transmission along
nerve fibers is slowed. Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors do not cause MS.

14. When obtaining a health history and physical assessment for a patient with possible
multiple sclerosis (MS), the nurse should
a. confirm patient information with family members.
b. ask about a recent history of temperature spikes.
c. question the patient about any leg weakness or spasm.
d. determine whether hypersexuality has caused problems.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Extremity weakness or spasms are common motor symptoms of MS. Memory
deficit and confusion are not symptoms of MS, and the patient will be an accurate
historian. Although viral infection appears to trigger the onset of MS in some patients,
temperature spikes are not associated with viral illness. Decreased libido and diminished
sexual response are common MS symptoms.


Test Bank 59-7
15. A 28-year-old woman has had multiple sclerosis (MS) for 3 years and wants to have
children before her disease worsens. When she asks about the risks associated with
pregnancy, the nurse explains that
a. MS is associated with a slightly increased risk for congenital defects.
b. symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during her pregnancy.
c. women with MS frequently have premature labor.
d. MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the postpartum period, women with MS are at greater risk for
exacerbation of symptoms. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants
born of mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may improve during pregnancy. Pregnancy,
labor, and delivery are not affected by MS.

Nursing Process: Implementation
NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
16. A patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is to begin treatment with glatiramer acetate
(Copaxone). In planning the patient teaching necessary with the use of the drug, the
nurse recognizes that the patient will need to be taught
a. how to draw up and administer injections of the medication.
b. use of contraceptive methods other than oral contraceptives for birth control.
c. to plan laboratory monitoring of CBC, chemistries, and liver function every 3
months.
d. that the drug will control symptoms but has no effect on the progression of the
disease.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Copaxone is administered by self-injection. Oral contraceptives are an
appropriate choice for birth control. No laboratory monitoring is needed. The purpose of
the medication is to modify the MS disease process.

17. When planning care for a patient with MS who has a nursing diagnosis of risk for
activity intolerance related to extremity weakness secondary to stress, the most
appropriate patient goal is
a. “The patient will express minimal stress level.”
b. “Strength in arms and legs will be maintained.”
c. “The patient will complete ADLs without fatigue.”
d. “Intake of high-nutrition foods will be adequate.”

Test Bank 59-8
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Because the nurse has identified the patient’s problem as activity intolerance,
a patient goal that indicates improvement in activity tolerance, such as ability to
accomplish ADLs without fatigue, is most appropriate. The other goals are appropriate
for nursing diagnoses such as ineffective coping, impaired physical mobility, and
inadequate nutritional intake.
Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1546-1547

18. A patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) has a nursing diagnosis of urinary retention
related to sensorimotor deficits. An appropriate nursing intervention for this problem
is to
a. decrease fluid intake in the evening.
b. teach the patient how to use the Credé method.
c. suggest the use of incontinence briefs for nighttime use only.
d. assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Credé method can be used to improve bladder emptying. Decreasing
fluid intake will not improve bladder emptying and may increase risk for urinary tract
infection (UTI) and dehydration. The use of incontinence briefs and frequent toileting
will not improve bladder emptying.

19. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to
bradykinesia for a patient with Parkinson’s disease. To assist the patient to ambulate
safely, the nurse should
a. allow the patient to ambulate only with assistance.
b. instruct the patient to rock from side to side to initiate leg movement.
c. have the patient take small steps in a straight line directly in front of the feet.
d. teach the patient to keep the feet in contact with the floor and slide them forward.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rocking the body from side to side stimulates balance and improves mobility.
The patient should initially be ambulated with assistance but might not require continual
assistance with ambulation. The patient should maintain a wide base of support to help
with balance. The patient should lift the feet and avoid a shuffling gait.


Test Bank 59-9
20. A patient who has been taking bromocriptine (Parlodel) and benztropine (Cogentin)
for Parkinson’s disease is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. The nurse will
anticipate that patient may benefit from
a. complete drug withdrawal for a few weeks.
b. use of levodopa (L-dopa)-carbidopa (Sinemet).
c. withdrawal of anticholinergic therapy.
d. increasing the dose of bromocriptine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After the dopamine receptor agonists begin to fail to relieve symptoms, the
addition of L-dopa with carbidopa can be added to the regimen. Complete drug
withdrawal will result in worsening of symptoms. Anticholinergic therapy should be
continued to help maintain the balance between the actions of dopamine and
acetylcholine. Increasing the dose of bromocriptine will increase the risk for toxic effects.

21. A patient with Parkinson’s disease has decreased tongue mobility and an inability to
move the facial muscles. The nurse recognizes that these impairments commonly
contribute to the nursing diagnosis of
a. disuse syndrome related to loss of muscle control.
b. self-care deficit related to bradykinesia and rigidity.
c. impaired verbal communication related to difficulty articulating.
d. impaired oral mucous membranes related to inability to swallow.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The inability to use the tongue and facial muscles decreases the patient’s
ability to socialize or communicate needs. Disuse syndrome is not an appropriate nursing
diagnosis because the patient is continuing to use the muscles as much as possible. There
is no indication in the stem that the patient has a self-care deficit, bradykinesia, or
rigidity. The oral mucous membranes will continue to be moist and should not be
impaired by the patient’s difficulty swallowing.

Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
22. A patient has a new prescription for levodopa (L-dopa) to control symptoms of
Parkinson’s disease. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse may indicate a
need for a decrease in the dose?
a. The patient has a chronic dry cough.
b. The patient has 4 loose stools in a day.
c. The patient develops a deep vein thrombosis.

Test Bank 59-10
d. The patient’s blood pressure is 90/46 mm Hg.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypotension is an adverse effect of L-dopa, and the nurse should check with
the health care provider before giving the medication. Diarrhea, cough, and deep vein
thrombosis are not associated with L-dopa use.

23. A patient with myasthenia gravis (MG) is admitted to the hospital with severe
weakness and acute respiratory insufficiency. The health care provider performs a
Tensilon test to distinguish between myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis. During
the test, it will be most important to monitor the patient’s
a. pupillary size.
b. muscle strength.
c. respiratory function.
d. level of consciousness (LOC).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Because the patient’s respiratory insufficiency is life threatening, it will be
most important to monitor respiratory function during the Tensilon test. Pupillary size and
muscle strength may also be affected by the test but are not as important to monitor. LOC
is not typically affected by MG, although the LOC may be affected by oxygenation in
this patient.

24. When teaching a patient with myasthenia gravis (MG) about management of the
disease, the nurse advises the patient to
a. anticipate the need for weekly plasmapheresis treatments.
b. protect the extremities from injury due to poor sensory perception.
c. do frequent weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy.
d. perform necessary physically demanding activities in the morning.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Muscles are generally strongest in the morning, and activities involving
muscle activity should be scheduled then. Plasmapheresis is not routinely scheduled but
is used for myasthenia crisis or for in situations where corticosteroid therapy should be
discontinued. There is no decrease in sensation with MG, and muscle atrophy does not
occur because muscles are used during part of the day.

Test Bank 59-11
25. A hospitalized patient with myasthenia gravis (MG) has a nursing diagnosis of
imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to impaired swallowing. To
promote nutrition, the nurse suggests that before meals the patient should avoid
a. watching television.
b. talking on the phone.
c. typing on the computer.
d. ambulating in the halls.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The same muscles are used for talking and swallowing, so the patient should
avoid fatiguing the muscles of the mouth and throat before meals. The other activities
will not affect the muscles used for chewing and swallowing.

26. A patient with restless legs syndrome (RLS) tells the nurse, “My leg pain and
twitching keep me awake so much of the night, I am tired most of the day. Is there
anything I can do?” Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis is most
appropriate?
a. Ineffective role performance related to fatigue
b. Chronic pain related to RLS
c. Anxiety related to lack of knowledge about RLS treatment
d. Sleep deprivation related to leg pain and involuntary movement
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient’s statement indicates that daytime fatigue caused by lack of sleep
is the major concern. The patient does not indicate concern with role performance.
Although pain is a concern with RLS, the patient’s concern is with the impact of pain on
sleep. The patient is asking for information about treatment but does not appear anxious.

Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
27. A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is hospitalized with pneumonia.
Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
a. Observing for agitation and paranoia
b. Assisting the patient with active range of motion (ROM)
c. Using simple words and phrases to explain procedures
d. Administer muscle relaxants as needed for muscle spasms

Test Bank 59-12
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ALS causes progressive muscle weakness, but assisting the patient to perform
active ROM will help to maintain strength as long as possible. Psychotic symptoms such
as agitation and paranoia are not associated with ALS. Cognitive function is not affected
by ALS, and the patient’s ability to understand procedures will not be impaired. Muscle
relaxants will further increase muscle weakness and depress respirations.

28. A 42-year-old patient who was adopted at birth is diagnosed with early Huntington’s
disease (HD). When teaching the patient, spouse, and children about this disorder, the
nurse will provide information about the
a. use of levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) to help reduce HD symptoms.
b. need to take prophylactic antibiotics to decrease the risk for pneumonia.
c. lifestyle changes, such as increased exercise, that delay disease progression.
d. availability of genetic testing to determine the HD risk for the patient’s children.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Genetic testing is available to determine whether an asymptomatic individual
has the HD gene. The patient and family should be informed of the benefits and problems
associated with genetic testing. Sinemet will increase symptoms of HD given that HD
involves an increase in dopamine. The patient is at risk for pneumonia in the later stages
of HD, but this patient has early HD. There are no effective treatments or lifestyle
changes that delay the progression of symptoms in HD.

29. A hospitalized 24-year-old patient with a history of cluster headache awakens during
the night with a severe stabbing headache. Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Notify the patient’s health care provider immediately.
b. Start the ordered PRN oxygen at 9 L/min.
c. Give the ordered prn acetaminophen (Tylenol).
d. Put a moist hot pack on the patient’s neck.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute treatment for cluster headache is administration of 100% oxygen at 7 to
9 L/min. If the patient obtains relief with the oxygen, there is no immediate need to notify
the health care provider. Cluster headaches last only 60 to 90 minutes, so oral pain
medications have minimal effect. Hot packs are helpful for tension headaches but are not
as likely to reduce pain associated with a cluster headache.

Test Bank 59-13
30. Which information obtained about a 75-year-old patient with new-onset seizures will
be of concern to the nurse when the patient is being started on therapy with phenytoin
(Dilantin)?
a. The patient has a history of chronic hepatitis C.
b. The patient experienced menopause at age 52.
c. The patient lives alone in an assisted living facility.
d. The patient has had a recent right hemisphere stroke.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenytoin is metabolized by the liver, and the patient’s age and history of
hepatitis may increase the risk for toxic effects. The patient’s age at menopause, living in
an assisted living facility, and stroke history do not increase the risk for adverse effects of
phenytoin.

31. A patient is seen in the health clinic with symptoms of a stooped posture, shuffling
gait, and pill rolling–type tremor. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about
a. preparation for an MRI.
b. purpose of EEG testing.
c. antiparkinsonian drugs.
d. oral corticosteroids.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The diagnosis of Parkinson’s is made when two of the three characteristic
signs of tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia are present. The confirmation of the diagnosis
is made on the basis of improvement when antiparkinsonian drugs are administered. This
patient has symptoms of tremor and bradykinesia; the next anticipated step will be
treatment with medications. MRI and EEG are not useful in diagnosing Parkinson’s
disease, and corticosteroid therapy is not used to treat it.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. When preparing to admit a patient who has been treated for status epilepticus in the
emergency department, which equipment should the nurse have available in the
room? (Select all that apply.)
a. Suction tubing

Test Bank 59-14
b. Oxygen mask
c. Nasogastric tube
d. Siderail pads
e. Tongue blade
f. Oral airway
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: The patient is at risk for further seizures, and oxygen and suctioning may be
needed after any seizures to clear the airway and maximize oxygenation. The bed’s side
rails should be padded to minimize the risk for patient injury during a seizure. Insertion
of a nasogastric (NG) tube is not indicated because the airway problem is not caused by
vomiting or abdominal distention. Use of tongue blades or oral airways during a seizure
is contraindicated.

2. A patient with Parkinson’s disease is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an acute
infection. Which nursing interventions will be included in the plan of care? (Select all
that apply.)
a. Cut patient’s food into small pieces.
b. Provide high protein foods at each meal.
c. Observe for sudden exacerbation of symptoms.
d. Remind the patient to keep eyes ahead when ambulating.
e. Place an arm chair at the patient’s bedside.
f. Use an elevated toilet seat.
Correct Answer: A, E, F
Rationale: Since the patient with Parkinson’s has difficulty chewing, food should be cut
into small pieces. An armchair should be used when the patient is seated so that the
patient can use the arms to assist with getting up from the chair. An elevated toilet seat
will facilitate getting on and off the toilet. High-protein foods will decrease the
effectiveness of L-dopa. Parkinson’s is a steadily progressive disease without acute
exacerbations. Bradykinesia associated with ambulation is relieved by asking the patient
to step over imaginary lines or rice kernels on the floor.


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Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 7th Edition

Chapter 59: Nursing Management: Chronic Neurologic Problems

1. A hospitalized patient complains of a moderate bilateral headache that radiates from

Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1530

Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1532

Copyright © 2007 by Mosby, Inc., an affiliate of Elsevier Inc.

3. After teaching a patient about management of migraine headaches, the nurse

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Copyright © 2007 by Mosby, Inc., an affiliate of Elsevier Inc.

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Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1530

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Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1535

9. After experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure in the classroom, an elementary

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11. When a patient experiences a generalized tonic-clonic seizure in the emergency

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d. The patient’s blood pressure is 90/46 mm Hg.

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