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Most Probable Questions for IAS Preliminary Exam 2018 (27-03-18)

Qn 1) In the context of recent recapitalization of Public Sector Banks, consider the following
statements.
1. The recapitalization will be done by issuing bonds which would be tradable and will have SLR
status.
2. The recapitalization of Public Sector Banks is part of Mission Indradhanush.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)

Learning zone: The recapitalization bonds to be issued to state-run banks would be non-tradeable and
will have non-SLR status.
The recapitalization of Public Sector Banks is part of Mission Indradhanush.
Why is this question important?
Recently, the Lok Sabha approved the government's request for additional spending of Rs 80,000 crore
for recapitalization of state-run banks through the issue of bonds.
Qn 2) In the context of Indian constitution, consider the following statements about ‘Office of Profit’.
1. The term “office of profit” is not defined in the Constitution.
2. The office of profit rule seeks to ensure that legislators act independently of the executives.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning zone: The concept of office of profit originates from Britain where, during the conflicts
between the Crown and the Parliament in the 16th century, the House of Commons disqualified
members from holding executive appointments under the Monarch. The underlying principle
behind this is the doctrine of separation of powers.
The office of profit rule seeks to ensure that legislators act independently and are not lured by offers
from the executive. India’s Constitution makers adopted this idea under Articles 102(1)(a) and
191(1)(a) which state that a lawmaker will be disqualified if he or she occupies “any office of
profit” under the Central or State governments, other than those offices exempted by law.

While the term “office of profit” is not defined in the Constitution, the Supreme Court, in multiple
decisions, has laid out its contours.
Why is this question important?
Recently, President Ram Nath Kovind approved the recommendation of the Election Commission (EC)
to disqualify 20 Members of the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
Qn 3) Researchers have discovered a new species of blind fish. The species has lost its sight and
pigments while adapting to the perpetual darkness inside the cave. In which part of India has it
been discovered?
A. Andaman Islands
B. Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya
C. Western Ghats
D. Bhitarkanika National Park, Odisha
Ans: (B)
Learning zone: A new species of blind fish has been discovered inside a cave in east Jaintia hills district
of Meghalaya. The fish -- Schistura larketensis -- gets its name from Larket village, where the
cave has been found.
The species has apparently lost its sight living in the perpetual darkness inside the cave. It has also lost
its pigments too while adapting to its habitat in the dark waters.
Why is this question important?
The species was discovered recently by a joint team of scientists from the Gauhati University and the
North Eastern Hill University.

Most Probable Questions for IAS Preliminary Exam 2018 (26-03-18)


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discuss as part of ClearIAS email program for free. These are additional to the questions
provided in ClearIAS Prelims Test Series 2018. Have a nice day.

Qn 1) Inclusive Development Index is released by,


A. World Bank (WB)
B. World Economic Forum (WEF)
C. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
D. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
Ans: (B)
Learning zone: Inclusive Development Index is a yearly index released by the World Economic Forum
(WEF).
India was ranked at the 62nd place among emerging economies on an Inclusive Development Index,
much below China's 26th position and Pakistan's 47th.
Why is this question important?
The Inclusive Development Index report was released during the recent meeting of World Economic
Forum.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/wef-ranks-india-below-pakistan-
and-china-in-inclusive-development-index/articleshow/62603458.cms

Qn 2) Consider the following statements about the ‘global Environmental Performance Index’ (EPI)
rankings.
1. It is a biennial report brought out by the Yale and Columbia universities in collaboration with the
World Economic Forum (WEF).
2. The report ranks nations on 10 broad categories, covering environmental health and ecosystem
vitality.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning zone: The latest global Environmental Performance Index (EPI) rankings, released on the
sidelines of the World Economic Forum (WEF) meet in Davos, saw India fall to the bottom five in
a list of 180 countries.

The report ranks nations on 10 broad categories (issues), including 24 performance indicators, covering
environmental health and ecosystem vitality.
The biennial report is brought out by the Yale and Columbia universities in collaboration with the WEF.
Why is this question important?
Poor handling of air pollution abatement and forest protection measures has seen India slip to the
177th position in green rankings this year. It was ranked 141st two years ago.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/177/180-india-at-bottom-in-green-
ranking/articleshow/62624784.cms

Qn 3) Consider the following statements about the ‘Global Human Capital Index’.
1. The index is based on the knowledge and skills people possess that enable them to create value
in the global economic system.
2. The index is compiled by World Bank.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)

Learning zone: Global Human Capital Index list is compiled by Geneva-based World Economic Forum
(WEF).
It takes into account “the knowledge and skills people possess that enable them to create value in the
global economic system” to measure the ‘human capital’ rank of a country.
Why is this question important?

India has been placed at a low 103 rank, the lowest among BRICS economies, on the WEF’s Global
Human Capital Index, which was released recently.

Most Probable Questions for IAS Preliminary Exam 2018 (24-03-18)


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Qn 1) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently launched the Ombudsman Scheme for non-banking
financial companies (NBFCs). In this context consider the following statements.
1. The scheme will provide a cost-free and expeditious complaint redressal mechanism relating to
deficiency in the services by NBFCs.
2. The scheme will cover all deposit-taking NBFCs.
3. The scheme provides for an Appellate mechanism against the decision of the Ombudsman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)

Learning zone: The Ombudsman Scheme for non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) was launched for
redressal of complaints against NBFCs registered with the RBI.
The scheme will provide a cost-free and expeditious complaint redressal mechanism relating to
deficiency in the services by non-banking financial companies covered under the scheme.
To begin with, the scheme will cover all deposit-taking NBFCs. Based on the experience gained, the RBI
would extend the scheme to cover NBFCs having asset size of Rs 100 crore and above with
customer interface. The scheme provides for an Appellate mechanism under which the
complainant/NBFC has the option to appeal against the decision of the Ombudsman before the
Appellate Authority.

Why is this question important?


The scheme was recently launched by the RBI.
Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/business/banking-and-finance/rbi-launches-ombudsman-
scheme-for-nbfcs-5076037/

Qn 2) With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. AIIB aims to improve economic and social development in Asia by investing in high-quality,
financially viable and environmentally friendly infrastructure projects.
2. Only Asian Countries can become the members of AIIB.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor Ans: (A)
Learning zone: AIIB is a multilateral development bank founded to bring countries together to address
Asia’s daunting infrastructure needs. Headquartered in Beijing, AIIB began operations in January
2016 and has now grown to 84 approved members worldwide.

Its mission is to improve economic and social development in Asia by investing in high-quality,
financially viable and environmentally friendly infrastructure projects.
Why is this question important?
A Curtain Raiser Ceremony for the 3rd Annual Meeting of Board of Governors of Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB) was held recently. 3rd Annual Meeting of Board of Governors of Asian
Infrastructure Development Bank (AIIB) to be held in Mumbai from 25th to 26th June.

Source: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1521946
Qn 3) Which of the following are the components of Citizen’s Charter of a public agency?
1. Vision and mission statements
2. Details of the business transacted by the organization
3. Details of the clients
4. Expectations from clients
5. Details of grievance redress mechanisms
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 5 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (D)

Learning zone: Based on the UK model the DARPG outlined the following six components for inclusion
in charters drafted by public agencies:
1. Vision and mission statements
2. Details of the business transacted by the organization
3. Details of the clients
4. Details of the services provided to each client group
5. Expectations from clients
6. Details of grievance redress mechanisms and how to access them
Why is this question important?

Citizen’s Charter is an important tool in empowering the citizens.


Source: Yojana, February, 2018

Most Probable Questions for IAS Preliminary Exam 2018 (15-03-18)


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discuss as part of ClearIAS email program for free. These are additional to the questions
provided in ClearIAS Prelims Test Series 2018. Have a nice day.

Qn 1) Recently some the service sectors in India have been recognized as Champion Services Sectors.
Which of the following are recognized as Champion Services Sectors?
1. Information Technology & IT enabled Services
2. Transport and Logistics Services
3. Construction and Related Engineering Services
4. Environmental Services
5. Tourism and Hospitality Services
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (D)

Learning zone: Champion Services Sectors include Information Technology & Information Technology
enabled Services (IT & ITeS), Tourism and Hospitality Services, Medical Value Travel, Transport
and Logistics Services, Accounting and Finance Services, Audio Visual Services, Legal Services,
Communication Services, Construction and Related Engineering Services, Environmental
Services, Financial Services and Education Services.
Why is this question important?

The Union Cabinet has approved the proposal of the Department of Commerce to give focused
attention to 12 identified Champion Services Sectors for promoting their development, and
realizing their potential.
Source: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1522078

Qn 2) What is the objective of Mission Innovation (MI), sometimes seen in the news?
A. To dramatically accelerate global clean energy innovation
B. To improve India’s ranking in global innovation Index
C. To bring the benefits of innovation to the grass roots level in India
D. To strengthen intellectual policy regimes in developing and least developed countries
Ans: (A)
Learning zone: Mission Innovation (MI) is a global initiative of 22 countries and the European Union to
dramatically accelerate global clean energy innovation. As part of the initiative, participating
countries have committed to double Clean Energy Research and Development investments over
five years.
Why is this question important?
Recently, a two- day International Conference on Sustainable Biofuels was organized by Department of
Biotechnology, Govt. of India on behalf of Mission Innovation.

Source: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1521605

Qn 3) In the context of India’s defense affairs, consider the following statements about multinational
mega event ‘MILAN’.
1. MILAN is a congregation of the navies conducted biennially by Indian Navy at the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands.
2. Only maritime forces from the Bay of Bengal participate in this event.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)

Learning zone: MILAN is a congregation of littoral navies conducted biennially by Indian Navy at the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands, under the aegis of the Andaman and Nicobar Command. Besides
fostering co-operation through naval exercises and professional interactions, MILAN also
provides an excellent opportunity to the participating navies to come together in a spirit of
collaboration and mutual understanding to nurture stronger ties.
From an event of sub- regional context, MILAN has now grown into a prestigious international event
and encompasses participation by maritime forces from not just the Bay of Bengal and South
East Asia but the larger Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
Why is this question important?
The second week of March will witness Andaman & Nicobar Command hosting a multinational mega
event MILAN 2018.

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Most Probable Questions for IAS Preliminary Exam 2018 (12-03-18)


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discuss as part of ClearIAS email program for free. These are additional to the questions
provided in ClearIAS Prelims Test Series 2018. Have a nice day.

Qn 1) Consider the following statements.


1. Polio Virus can spread through adults who show no symptoms.
2. Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) is better compared to oral polio vaccine (OPV) as it does not
vaccine derived poliovirus (VDPV).
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning zone: The polio virus can spread easily through adults who show no symptoms. In 2011, 10
years after becoming polio-free, China’s Xinjiang province saw 21 cases of paralytic polio and
two deaths. When the virus from the outbreak was sequenced, it turned out to be from
Pakistan.
In rare cases, oral polio vaccine (OPV), which contains weakened but live polio virus, can cause paralytic
polio. Further, a vaccinated person protects unvaccinated people he/she comes in contact with
by spreading immunity through faeces. Such circulation allows the virus to stick around and
mutate to a more virulent form, raising the spectre of vaccine-derived poliovirus (VDPV).

IPV does not cause VDPV but protects children equally well against polio.
Why is this question important?
On January 28, 2018, India carried out the first of its two national rounds of the Pulse Polio Campaign
for the year 2018. The second is on March 11.

Source: http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/the-lowdown-on-pulse-
polio/article22647714.ece

Qn 2) The ‘data secure’ nation status is given by,

A. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)


B. European Union (EU)
C. World Trade Organization (WTO)
D. United States Department of Commerce
Ans: (B)
Learning zone: The ‘data secure’ nation status is given by the European Union (EU).

EU has not granted the ‘data secure’ nation status to India.


Why is this question important?
EU is currently discussing about this issue with India.

Source: http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/eu-india-updating-positions-on-fta-
kozlowski/article22612681.ece
Qn 3) Which of the following gives ‘Global Democracy Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
A. World Economic Forum (WEF)
B. United Nations
C. World Bank
D. Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU)

Ans: (D)
Learning zone: The annual Global Democracy Index is compiled by the Economist Intelligence Unit
(EIU).
The index ranks 165 independent states and two territories on the basis of five categories: electoral
process and pluralism, civil liberties, the functioning of government, political participation and
political culture. The list has been divided into four broad categories—full democracy, flawed
democracy, hybrid regime and authoritarian regime.

Why is this question important?


India has moved down from 32nd place last year to 42nd place this year and remained classified among
“flawed democracies”.

Most Probable Questions for IAS Preliminary Exam 2018 (08-03-18)


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Qn 1) In the union budget 2018-19, a new scheme KUSUM was announced. In this context, consider
the following statements.
1. It is a farmer oriented scheme, which aims to promote decentralized solar power production.
2. The scheme aims to provide additional income to farmers, by giving them option to sell
additional power to the grid, through solar power projects set up on their barren lands.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)

Learning zone: The Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahaabhiyan (KUSUM) Scheme is a farmer
oriented scheme involving decentralized solar power production up to 28250 MW over a period
of five years.
KUSUM scheme would provide additional income to farmers, by giving them option to sell additional
power to the grid, through solar power projects set up on their barren lands.
Why is this question important?

KUSUM is a new scheme announced in the union budget 2018-19.


Source: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1518993

Qn 2) With reference to the ‘National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC)’, consider the
following statements.
1. The fund supports adaptation activities which mitigate the adverse effects of climate change in
various sectors including agriculture and animal husbandry.
2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing
Entity.
3. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning zone: “The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) is a Central Sector Scheme
which was set up in the year 2015-16.

The activities under this scheme are implemented in a project mode. The projects related to adaptation
in sectors such as agriculture, animal husbandry, water, forestry, tourism etc. are eligible for
funding under NAFCC.
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity
(NIE).
Why is this question important?

The NAFCC supports concrete adaptation activities which mitigate the adverse effects of climate
change.
Source: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1519143

Qn 3) In March 2016, the Union government banned 344 fixed dose combinations (FDCs). In this
context, consider the following statements.
1. FDCs are a blend of two or more drugs which maximizes drug efficacy.
2. If not designed rationally, FDCs can promote antibiotic resistance.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning zone: FDCs are a blend of two or more drugs to maximize drug efficacy and can promote
antibiotic resistance if they are not designed rationally.
While the idea behind antimicrobial combinations is to reduce the risk of resistance by attacking a
bacterium from two fronts, studies have shown that if the two drugs aren’t carefully chosen,
combinations can trigger resistance to multiple antibiotics.
Why is this question important?

A recent study published in the British Journal of Clinical Pharmacology says that Indians are big
consumers of dangerous fixed dose combinations (FDCs) that are not approved by the country’s
drug regulator.

Most Probable Questions for IAS Preliminary Exam 2018 (27-02-18)


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Qn 1) The ‘Bharatmala Pariyojana’ is related to,


A. Development of highways
B. Increasing port infrastructure
C. Building Blue water navy
D. development of High speed rail networks
Ans: (A)
Learning zone: Bharatmala Pariyojana is a comprehensive highway development programme for the
country.
Why is this question important?
Recently the Union cabinet approved the proposal for phase – I of Bharatmala Pariyojana.

Source: Yojana, January 2018

Qn 2) Consider the following statements about ‘Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat Scheme’.
1. It aims to spread awareness among the LPG users about how to properly use clean fuel and its
useful benefits.
2. It provides a platform to connect with the beneficiaries of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning zone: The LPG Panchayat scheme aims at spreading awareness among LPG users about how to
properly use clean fuel and its useful benefits. It will provide platform to trigger discussion
through sharing personal experiences on the benefits of use of clean fuel compared to
traditional fuels like cow dung, charcoal or wood.

It also aims to connect with beneficiaries of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana to resolve issues and wrong
traditional belief among people through officials of oil PSUs, NGOs, ASHA workers and social
workers.
Why is this question important?
Government recently launched the Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat Scheme.
Source: Kurukshetra, January 2018

Qn 3) Consider the following statements about ‘Gender Champions Scheme’.

1. Gender champions aim to make young girls and boys gender sensitive and create positive social
norms.
2. It aims to identify and honor the people who worked for gender sensitization in India.
3. It is a joint initiative of Ministry of Women and child development, and Ministry of Human
resources development.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B)

Learning zone: Gender Champions are envisaged as responsible leaders who will facilitate an enabling
environment within their schools/colleges/academic institutions where girls are treated with
dignity and respect. The aim is to make young boys and girls gender sensitive and create positive
social norms that value the girls and their rights.
The scheme was launched by Ministry of Women and child development, in collaboration with Ministry
of Human resources development.
Why is this question important?

Recent report by the UGC states that 150 universities and 230 colleges have initiated implementation of
the scheme.
Source: Kurukshetra, January 2018

Most Probable Questions for IAS Preliminary Exam 2018 (26-02-18)


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Qn1) In the context of elections in India, who among the following can avail the facility of ‘vote by
proxy’?
1. Non Residential Indians (NRIs)
2. Armed personnel
3. Offices notified by the Election Commission
4. Migrant workers
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (B)
Learning zone: Currently, only armed personnel and certain offices notified by the Election Commission
can avail the facility of vote by proxy.
The Cabinet in August 2017 had cleared an amendment to the Representation of the People Act, which
allows NRIs to vote by proxy. The bill in this regard was introduced in the Lok Sabha and has not
yet been debated on.

Why is this question important?


Recently, parliamentary committee on External Affairs proposed proxy voting for migrant workers.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/mps-panel-suggests-proxy-voting-for-migrant-
workers/article22457961.ece
Qn 2) Consider the following statements about ‘City Liveability Index’.
1. The index measures the liveability standard of all the cities identified under smart cities and
AMRUT scheme.
2. The index was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in collaboration with NITI
Aayog.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (D)
Learning zone: The Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry has decided to assess the liveability standard of
116 Indian cities, through the country’s first-ever “liveability index”.
The cities that would be covered include the identified Smart Cities and a few more cities with a
population of over 1 million.

Why is this question important?


Union Minister Hardeep Singh Puri recently announced the commencement of the country’s first-ever
“liveability index” to rank 116 cities. The result of the exercise would be announced in June.
Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/union-minister-announces-commencement-of-
india-s-first-ever-livability-index/story-LiKmn7wtGGBHVAqxrgfV2O.html

Qn 3) Consider the following statements about the ‘Rogan art’.


1. It is an exquisite fabric painting craft with its origin in Persia.
2. In India, the art form is practiced only in Gujarat’s Kutch district.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)

Learning zone: ‘Rogan’ in Persian means oil: the paint is made with castor oil. Rogan art is believed to
have originated in Persia some 300 years ago and was traditionally used to embellish bridal
trousseaus.
In India, this exquisite fabric painting craft with origins in Persia is practiced in Gujarat’s Kutch district.
Why is this question important?

Nine members of the Khatri community in Nirona, a small village in Gujarat’s Kutch district, are the last
surviving custodians of the art form.

Most Probable Questions for IAS Preliminary Exam 2018 (21-02-18)


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Qn 1) With reference to the Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance (FRDI) Bill, which of the
following statements are correct?
1. The bill seeks to create a Resolution Corporation (RC) which will be responsible for winding down
or reviving an ailing financial company.
2. The bill empowers Resolution Corporation (RC) with a ‘bail-in clause’, which cancels or modifies
the bank’s liabilities to shore up its finances.
3. Under the bill, the ‘bail-in clause’ will be used for private sector banks only.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning zone: The Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance (FRDI) Bill aim to consolidate all the
various regulatory laws covering India’s financial institutions. It also seeks to create a Resolution
Corporation (RC) that will be in charge of winding down, reviving, or resolving in any other way
an ailing financial company.
The Bill is to work in tandem with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. To do this, one of the tools the
RC will be empowered with is a bail-in, in which a bank’s liabilities can be cancelled or modified
to shore up its finances.
The government has clarified that the bail-in clause will not be used for public sector banks (PSBs). It
also reiterated its implicit guarantee of PSB solvency. In other words, it said that it “stands
ready” to bail-out the PSBs if needed, removing the need for a bail-in.
Why is this question important?

The Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance (FRDI) Bill created a lot of alarm due to its ‘bail-in
clause’.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/clearing-the-air-on-the-bail-in-
clause/article22360662.ece

Qn 2) Consider the following statements about ‘India BPO promotion scheme’.


1. The scheme aims to incentivize BPO firms to extend operations to tier-2 and tier-3 cities in the
country.
2. It provides special incentives for employing women and differently-abled persons, and generating
employment beyond target.
3. The scheme was introduced under the Digital India Programme.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning zone: The India BPO promotion scheme, under the Digital India Programme, was introduced in
April 2016 to incentivize BPO firms to extend operations to tier-2 and tier-3 cities in the country.

Under the scheme, there are special incentives for employing women and differently-abled persons,
and generating employment beyond target.
A total of 61 cities in 21 states and Union Territories have been already covered by the scheme.
Why is this question important?
The India BPO promotion scheme aims to popularize the industry beyond metros. It so far provided
employment to almost 11,000 people across the country, of which 40% are women.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/business/rural-bpo-scheme-women-form-40-of-added-
headcount/article22378243.ece

Qn 3) Consider the following statements about the ‘Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS)’
index.
1. It is a composite indicator to assess international trade logistics across states and Union
territories.
2. The index was launched by Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning zone: The Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) index is a composite indicator to
assess international trade logistics across states and Union territories.
The index is based on a stakeholders’ survey conducted by Deloitte for the ministry of commerce and
industry.
While Gujarat topped the first-of-its-kind index, Punjab and Andhra Pradesh took the second and third
positions, respectively.

Why is this question important?


The index was released recently by minister for commerce and Industries Shri Suresh Prabhu.

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1) Consider the following statements about Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme
(PMEGP).

1. Programme is aimed at generating self-employment opportunities through establishment of


micro-enterprises in the non-farm sector only.
2. PMEGP is a credit linked subsidy programme.
3. The programme is being implemented by Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (B)

Learning zone: Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is implemented by


Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
PMEGP is a major credit-linked subsidy programme, aimed at generating self-employment
opportunities through establishment of micro-enterprises in the non-farm sector by helping
traditional artisans and unemployed youth.
Subsidy under PMEGP Scheme is provided by the Union Government. The PMEGP Scheme was
launched during 2008-09.
Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is the nodal agency at the national level.

Why is this question important?


Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is an important programme for
employment generation in the country. An online PMEGP e-portal has been introduced to make
entire process real time and online.

Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1514858

2) With reference to recently launched NARI and e-Samvad portals, consider the following
statements.

1. The NARI portal will provide women citizens with easy access to information on government
schemes and initiatives for women.
2. e-Samvad is a portal for NGOs and Civil Societies to interact with the Ministry of Women & Child
Development.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (C)

Learning zone: NARI portal will provide women citizens with easy access to information on government
schemes and initiatives for women.
In order to make information more easily accessible in one place, the NARI portal summarizes over 350
government schemes and other important information for the benefit of women, with more
being added every day. The portal contains information about schemes being run by both
Central as well as the States Governments.
Further to provide a platform for NGOs and Civil Societies to interact with the Ministry of Women &
Child Development, e-Samvad portal has also been developed.
Through e-Samvad portal, NGOs and civil society can provide their feedback, suggestions, put up
grievances, share best practices etc.

Why is this question important?


The Ministry of Women & Child Development recently launched online portals NARI and e-Samvad.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1514880

3) Consider the following statement about Khelo India porgramme.

1. The porgramme aims to infuse a culture of sports at the grassroots level.


2. It provides financial support for sportspersons who represent India in international events.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (A)

Learning zone: The Khelo India was launched to achieve the twin objectives of broad basing of sports
and achieving excellence in sports.
Khelo India aims to infuse a culture of sports at the grassroots level Such systematic pursuit of sports
offers multiple opportunities, namely, holistic development of children and youth, community
development, gender quality, a healthier nation, national pride and economic opportunities
related to sport development. Khelo India will also act as a catalyst to usher in a change in the
mindsets of parents and teachers towards sports.

Why is this question important?


Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports recently organized Khelo India School Games, under its flagship
initiative Khelo India porgramme.

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Qn 1) In the context of recent celestial events, consider the following pairs.

Celestial event Descriptions

1. Super moon : A full moon coincides with the closest the moon gets to the Earth during its orbit
2. Blue moon : A total lunar eclipse when a full moon lines up with the earth and the sun
3. Blood moon : occurs when there are two full moons in a single calendar month

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (A)

Learning zone: Super moon occurs when a full moon coincides with the closest the moon gets to the
earth during its orbit around our planet. During the super moon, the moon appears about 14 per
cent larger than a normal full moon and around 30 per cent brighter.

Blue moon occurs when there are two full moons in a single calendar month. The phenomenon occurs
due to slight differences in the calendar month and lunar phases. Each full moon happens every
29.5 days, but because months can last up to 31 days, there remains a possibility of a full moon
to occur at the very beginning as well as the end of a single month.

The "blood moon" refers to a total lunar eclipse when a full moon lines up with the earth and the sun.
In this configuration, the earth blocks out the sun's light, turning the moon from white to a deep
red.

Why is this question important?

January 2018 turned out to be a great month for celestial watchers, with the super blue blood moon
eclipse, which is coming for the first time in 150 years. On January 31, three separate celestial
events—a "supermoon", a "blue moon" and a blood moon— occurred simultaneously.

Source: Down to Earth, January 2018

Qn 2) India is a member of which of the following multilateral development Banks?

1. Asian Development Bank


2. African Development Bank
3. European Bank for Reconstruction and Development

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (D)

Learning zone: India is a member of multilateral development Banks such as World Bank, Asian
Development Bank, African Development Bank and European Bank for Reconstruction and
Development.

Why is this question important?


Recently union cabinet approved India’s membership for European Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (EBRD).

Source: Yojana, January 2018

Qn 3) What is the objective of recently launched ‘Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra (PMMSK)’
scheme?

A. It aims to create an environment, in which women realize their full potential, by empowering
women through community participation in rural areas.
B. It aims to improve the livelihood of women by providing self employment opportunities and
financial support.
C. It aims to provide financial help and counseling to women who are victims of domestic violence,
sexual abuses etc.
D. None of the statements (A), (B) and (C) given above are correct in this context.

Ans: (A)

Learning zone: ‘Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra' will empower rural women through community
participation to create an environment in which they realize their full potential.
Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra (PMMSK) is envisaged to work at various levels. While, National
level (domain based knowledge support) and State level (State Resource Centre for Women)
structures will provide technical support to the respective government on issues related to
women, the District and Block level Centres will provide support to PMMSK.

Why is this question important?


Union cabinet has recently given approval to the new scheme called ‘Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti
Kendra'.

Source: Yojana, January 2018

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discuss as part of ClearIAS email program for free. These are additional to the questions
provided in ClearIAS Prelims Test Series 2018. Have a nice day.

Qn 1) With reference to the latest Economic Survey, which among the following is/are major
downside risk(s) of Indian Economic Growth in the next year?
1. Recovery in Indian Exports
2. Crude Oil Prices
3. Global Recovery

Select the correct answer using the code given below.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Ans: (B)

Learning Zone: The survey lists out down-side risks and up-side gains that will influence growth in 2018-
19. Amongst down-side risks, the most important one is crude oil prices.

Qn 2) A minimum tax that a company must pay, even if it is under zero tax limits.

A. Zero-rated GST
B. Tobin Tax
C. Minimum Alternate Tax
D. MinTax

Ans: (C)

Learning Zone: The Minimum Alternative Tax is a minimum tax that a company must pay, even if it is
under zero tax limits.

Qn 3) Which among the following is/are correct regarding the latest trends with respect to Indian
Economy?

1. There is large increase in the number of direct taxpayers, but the number of indirect taxpayers
decreased with the introduction of GST.
2. India spends 0.08% of its GDP on the Administration of Justice, which is significantly low when
compared to OECD countries.
3. After remaining in negative territory for a couple of years, growth of exports rebounded into
positive one during 2016-17.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (B)

Learning Zone: There is large increase in the number of direct taxpayers, as well as indirect taxpayers.

Most Probable Questions for IAS Preliminary Exam 2018 (28-01-18)


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Qn 1) Which of the following factors is/are responsible for the changes in the seasons?

1. Rotation of the earth on its axis


2. Revolution of the earth around the sun on a tilted axis
3. Attraction of Moon and Sun

Select the correct answer using the code given below.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Ans: (B)

Learning Zone: The earth has two types of motions, namely rotation and revolution.

Rotation is the movement of the earth on its axis. The movement of the earth around the sun in a fixed
path or orbit is called Revolution. If the earth did not rotate, the portion of the earth facing the
sun would always experience day and the other half would remain in darkness. Thus rotation is
responsible for days and nights.

The earth is going around the sun in an elliptical orbit - that too on a tilted axis. Seasons change due to
the change in the position of the earth around the sun. A year is usually divided into summer,
winter, spring and autumn seasons.

Earth's tilt is the reason for the seasons (and also variation in the length of day and nights). As Earth
orbits the sun, its tilted axis always points in the same direction. So, throughout the year,
different parts of Earth get the sun’s direct rays. The hemisphere receiving the direct rays of the
sun has summer while the hemisphere tilted away from the sun, thus getting its rays from more
of an angle, has winter.

Sometimes it is the North Pole tilting toward the sun (around June) and sometimes it is the South Pole
tilting toward the sun (around December). It is summer in June in the Northern Hemisphere
because the sun's rays hit that part of Earth more directly than at any other time of the year. It is
winter in December in the Northern Hemisphere, because that is when it is the South Pole's turn
to be tilted toward the sun.

Thus, there are days and nights because of the rotation; and changes in the length of day and night in
different seasons because of revolution of the earth on a tilted axis.

Source: The Earth: Our Habitat, Class VI, NASA website

Qn 2) Consider the following statements about ‘Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control)
Authority (EPCA)’, often seen in the news.
1. The EPCA was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. Its jurisdiction is restricted to the National Capital Region only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (B)

Learning Zone: Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) is a Central
Government constituted committee for the National Capital Region in1998, in compliance with
the Honorable Supreme Court order dated January 7, 1998 in W.P. 13029/1985 (M.C. Mehta v.
Union of India case).
Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/epca-allows-entry-of-trucks-into-capital-ngt-to-
decide-on-construction-ban-today-4941043/and http://www.epca.org.in/#AboutUs

Qn 3) Recently, logistics sector was granted ‘infrastructure status’. What is/are the most likely benefit
this move?

1. Enables the Logistics Sector to avail infrastructure lending at easier terms with enhanced limits.
2. Provides access to larger amounts of funds as External Commercial Borrowings (ECB).
3. Provides access to longer tenor funds from insurance companies and pension funds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The Logistics Sector has been granted Infrastructure status. The need for integrated
Logistics sector development has been felt for quite some time in view of the fact that the
logistics cost in India is very high compared to developed countries.
The inclusion of “Logistics Sector” in the Harmonized Master List of Infrastructure Sub-sectors was
considered in the 14th Institutional Mechanism (IM) Meeting held on 10th November, 2017.
It will enable the Logistics Sector to avail infrastructure lending at easier terms with enhanced limits,
access to larger amounts of funds as External Commercial Borrowings (ECB), access to longer
tenor funds from insurance companies and pension funds and be eligible to borrow from India
Infrastructure Financing Company Limited (IIFCL).

Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=173674

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provided in ClearIAS Prelims Test Series 2018. Have a nice day.

Qn 1. With reference to the ‘National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH)’, consider the
following statements.

1. It is an autonomous organisation with the Ministry of Culture.


2. NFCH provides financial assistance for relief and rehabilitation of children rendered orphan in
communal, caste, ethnic or terrorist violence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (B)

Learning Zone: The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH), an autonomous organisation
with the Ministry of Home Affairs, organizes the Communal Harmony Campaign coinciding with
the Qaumi Ekta Week and also observes the Communal Harmony Flag Day.

Why is this questions important?

The Foundation promotes Communal Harmony and strengthens National Integration. Under its Project
‘Assist’, the NFCH also provides financial assistance for relief and rehabilitation of children
rendered orphan or destitute in communal, caste, ethnic or terrorist violence.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=173832 and http://www.nfch.nic.in/?q=about-
us

Qn 2. What is ‘INS Sagardhwani’, seen in the news recently?

A. It is a marine acoustic research vessel operated by Indian Navy.


B. An indigenously developed patrolling ship equipped with latest radar systems.
C. A kilo class nuclear powered submarine.
D. None of the statements (A), (B) and (C) are correct in this context.

Ans: (A)

Learning Zone: INS Sagardhwani is a Marine acoustic research vessel operated by the Navy and
equipped with eight scientific laboratories.

Why is this questions important?

The research carried out by Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL) scientists on
Sagardhwani has been immensely useful in enabling a better understanding of our littoral waters
as well as the seabed, which are of vital maritime and security interest to India.

Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Kochi/sagardhwani-retraces-historic-indian-ocean-
expedition-routes/article20790777.ece

Qn 3. Consider the following statements about ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity’.
1. It is a global initiative to study and establish the value of nature.
2. The initiative was taken by German Federal Ministry for the Environment and the European
Commission (EC).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (C)

Learning Zone: The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity is a global initiative to study and establish
the value of nature. Its principal objective is to mainstream the values of biodiversity and
ecosystem services into decision-making at all levels.

Why is this questions important?

In March 2007, environment ministers from the G8+5 countries meeting in Potsdam, Germany
proposed to initiate the process of analyzing the global economic benefit of biological diversity,
the costs of the loss of biodiversity and the failure to take protective measures versus the costs
of effective conservation. In response to this proposal, a global study was jointly initiated that
same year by the German Federal Ministry for the Environment (BMUB) and the European
Commission (EC), to be led by Pavan Sukhdev.

Most Probable Questions for IAS Preliminary Exam 2018 (26-01-18)


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2018, which we discuss as part of ClearIAS email program for free.
These are additional to the questions provided in ClearIAS Prelims Test Series
2018. Have a nice day.

Qn 1) The Union government has, recently, approved India's Membership for


European Bank for Reconstruction & Development (EBRD). What is/are the
most likely benefit of this membership to India?

1. India's investment opportunities would get a boost.


2. It will help India leverage the technical assistance and sectoral knowledge
of the bank for the benefit of development of private sector.
3. India will get an enhanced access to international markets in terms of
business opportunities, procurement activities etc.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Ans: (D)

Learning Zone: The Union Cabinet has approved India's Membership for
European Bank for Reconstruction & Development (EBRD). Necessary steps will
be initiated by the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance to acquire
the membership of the EBRD.
Impact:

1. Membership of EBRD would enhance India's international profile and


promote its economic interests. Access to EBRD's Countries of Operation
and sector knowledge.
2. India's investment opportunities would get a boost.
3. It would increase the scope of cooperation between India and EBRD
through co-financing opportunities in manufacturing, services,
Information Technology, and Energy.
4. EBRD's core operations pertain to private sector development in their
countries of operation. The membership would help India leverage the
technical assistance and sectoral knowledge of the bank for the benefit of
development of private sector.
5. This would contribute to an improved investment climate in the country.
6. The membership of EBRD would enhance the competitive strength of the
Indian firms, and provide an enhanced access to international markets in
terms of business opportunities, procurement activities, consultancy
assignments etc.

Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=173734

Qn 2) Consider the following pairs.


GI products States

1. Tulaipanji rice: West Bengal


2. Pochampally Ikat: Telangana
3. Etikoppaka toys: Andhra Pradesh
4. Chakshesang shawl: Nagaland

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (D)

Learning Zone: A GI is primarily an agricultural, natural or a manufactured


product (handicrafts and industrial goods) originating from a definite geographical
territory.
The famous Banaganapalle mangoes of Andhra Pradesh and Tulaipanji rice of
West Bengal are among the seven commodities that have been granted
Geographical Indication (GI) this fiscal year by the Indian patent office.
The other five products are Pochampally Ikat of Telangana; Gobindobhog rice of
West Bengal; Durgi stone carvings and Etikoppaka toys of Andhra Pradesh; and
Chakshesang shawl of Nagaland.

Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/banaganapalle-mangoes-get-
gi-tag/article19988049.ece

Qn 3). With reference to ‘India Hypertension Management Initiative (IHMI)’,


consider the following statements.

1. It aims to reduce disability and death related to cardiovascular disease


(CVD).
2. It is an initiative of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, supported by
Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (A)

Learning Zone: India Hypertension Management Initiative (IHMI) aims to reduce


disability and death related to cardiovascular disease (CVD), the leading cause of
death in India, by improving the control of high blood pressure (hypertension),
reducing salt consumption and eliminating artificial trans-fats, leading risk factors
for CVD.
The India Hypertension Management Initiative (IHMI) is a collaborative project of
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(MoHFW), State Governments, World Health Organization (WHO), and Resolve to
Save Lives initiative of Vital Strategies.

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2018, which we discuss as part of ClearIAS email program for free.
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2018. Have a nice day.

Qn 1. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements.

1. The current account deficit as a percentage of GDP has decreased


steadily in the last decade.
2. The fiscal deficit of the central government has decreased steadily in the
last five years.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (B)

Learning Zone: Current account deficit was at 4.3 percent in 2011-12 and
it increased to 4.8 percent in 2012-13. It declined to 1.7 percent in 2013-14. The
current account deficit (CAD) for 2015-16 was 1.1 percent of GDP as compared to
1.3 percent of GDP in 2014-15. The CAD further narrowed to 0.7 percent of GDP
in 2016-17.
There has been a steady consolidation of fiscal deficit in the last few years. Fiscal
deficit of the central government had reached alarmingly high level
of 5.9 percent 2011-12, 4.9 percent in 2012-13. Fiscal deficit was 4.5 percent in
2013-14, 4.1 percent in 2014-15 and 3.9 percent in 2015-16.

Why is this question important?

The government is committed to fiscal consolidation path and has shown a steely
resolve to reduce the fiscal deficit to 3.5 percent of GDP in 2016-17 and further
to 3.2 percent as per the Budget estimates in 2017-18.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=171900

Qn 2. Consider the following statements about the ‘SAATHI’ initiative of


Government of India.

1. Under this initiative the small and medium Powerloom units will be
provided with energy efficient Powerlooms, motors and Rapier kits.
2. It is a joint initiative of Ministry of Power and Ministry of Textiles.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (C)

Learning Zone: Ministries of Power and Textiles have joined hands under a new
initiative SAATHI (Sustainable and Accelerated Adoption of efficient Textile
technologies to Help small Industries). Under this initiative, Energy Efficiency
Services Limited (EESL), a public sector entity under the administrative control of
Ministry of Power, would procure energy efficient Powerlooms, motors and
Rapier kits in bulk and provide them to the small and medium Powerloom units at
no upfront cost.
The SAATHI initiative of the Government will be jointly implemented by EESL and
the office of the Textile Commissioner on a pan-India basis.

Why is this question important?

With a view to upgrading the technology, the Government of India has been
implementing the INSITU upgradation of plain Powerlooms as part of Power Tex
India under which plain Powerlooms are attached with process control equipment
leading to higher productivity, better quality and more than 50 percent additional
value realization
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=171894

Qn 3. Consider the following pairs.


Folk traditions States

1. Jaggalige : Karnataka
2. Dhol Cholom : Maharashtra
3. Pandwani : Chhattisgarh

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Ans: (A)

Learning Zone: Jaggalige is a folk dance from Karnataka. Ras Lila and Dhol Cholom
belong to Manipur, while Pandwani is from Chhattisgarh.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=171896

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Qn 1. Which of the following statement is not correct about ‘National Anti-


profiteering Authority (NAA)’?

A. Mandate of this body is to ensure the benefits of the reduction in GST


rates on goods or services are passed on to the consumers by way of a
reduction in prices.
B. The NAA was established as an arm of Competition Commission of India
(CCI).
C. It has the authority to order the supplier/business concerned to reduce
its prices or return the undue benefit availed by it along with interest to
the recipient of the goods or services.
D. The NAA can impose a penalty on the defaulting business entity and even
order the cancellation of its registration under GST.

Ans: (B)

Learning Zone: National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA) established under GST


is mandated to ensure that the benefits of the reduction in GST rates on goods or
services are passed on to the ultimate consumers by way of a reduction in prices.

In the event the NAA confirms there is a necessity to apply anti-profiteering


measures, it has the authority to order the supplier/business concerned to reduce
its prices or return the undue benefit availed by it along with interest to the
recipient of the goods or services. If the undue benefit cannot be passed on to the
recipient, it can be ordered to be deposited in the Consumer Welfare Fund. In
extreme cases, the NAA can impose a penalty on the defaulting business entity
and even order the cancellation of its registration under GST.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=173563

Qn 2. Which of the following schemes are included under the ‘Integrated Child
Development Services (ICDS)’, an umbrella scheme?

1. Anganwadi Services
2. Scheme for Adolescent Girls
3. Child Protection Services
4. National Crèche Scheme

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (D)

Learning Zone: Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has given its
approval for continuation of Anganwadi Services, Scheme for Adolescent Girls,
Child Protection Services and National Crèche Scheme. These are the sub-
schemes under Umbrella Scheme “Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)”.
The sub-schemes listed above are not new schemes but are continuing from the
XII Five Year Plan.

 Anganwadi Services (ICDS) aims at holistic development of children under


the age of six years and its beneficiaries are children of this age group
and Pregnant Women & Lactating Mothers.
 The objective of the Scheme for Adolescent Girls is to facilitate, educate
and empower Adolescent Girls so as to enable them to become self-
reliant and aware citizens through improved nutrition and health status.
 The objectives of Child Protection Services are to provide safe and secure
environment for children in conflict with law and children in need of care
and protection.
 National Creche Scheme aims at providing a safe place for mothers to leave
their children while they are at work, and thus, is a measure for
empowering women.

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Qn 1) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Ganga Gram
Project”?

1. The project was launched for holistic sanitation development in villages


on the banks of River Ganga.
2. It was launched under the Namami Gange Programme.
3. The project is an initiative of the Ministry of Drinking Water and
Sanitation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (D)

Learning Zone: The Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation launched the Ganga
Gram Project under the Namami Gange Programme, for holistic sanitation
development in villages on the banks of River Ganga.
In August 2017, with active cooperation with the five Ganga States (Uttarakhand,
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal), the Ministry declared all 4,470
Ganga Grams Open Defecation Free (ODF). The Ministry is the nodal Ministry for
the Government’s flagship programme, Swachh Bharat Mission.

Why is this question important?

Ganga Gram Project was formally launched on 23rd December at Vigyan Bhawan,
New Delhi.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1513857

Qn 2. The Aravallis is spread over which of the following states?

1. Gujarat
2. Rajasthan
3. Punjab
4. Delhi
5. Haryana

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
B. 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: (A)

Learning Zone: Spread over an area of 692 km, the Aravallis cover the states of
Gujarat, Rajasthan, Delhi and Haryana. In the latter, they are found in the
southwest part of the state, covering five divisions — Gurgaon, Faridabad,
Mewat, Mahendargarh, and Rewari.

Why is this question important?

It is also the most “degraded” forest range in India, according to a study of the
Aravalli hills in southern Haryana by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII).

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Qn 1) With reference to Rabari community in India, consider the following


statements.

1. They are the nomadic pastoralists.


2. This community can mainly be found in Himachal Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (A)

Learning Zone: Rabaris are nomads from Rajasthan and Gujarat. They are on
constantly on the move with their livestock on the trail of seasonal rain before
returning to their villages.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/cattle-walk/article20462641.ece

Qn 2). With reference to ‘India Road Assessment Programme (IndiaRAP)’, seen in


the news recently, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The objective of the programme is to monitor the daily progress in road


construction in India.
2. It aims to make Indian roads safer and curb fatalities.
3. It is an initiative of ministry of road transport and highways.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only

Ans: (A)

Learning Zone: In a bid to make Indian roads safer and curb fatalities, a global
charity recently unveiled an India Road Assessment Programme (IndiaRAP) that
will rate highways’ safety levels, and seek to eliminate the most unsafe roads.
The ratings are assigned on the basis of the level of safety which is ‘built-in’ to a
road for vehicle occupants, motorcyclists, bicyclists and pedestrians. Five-star
roads are the safest while one-star roads are the least safe.

Why is this question important?

The IndiaRAP programme is being supported by FedEx Express and will be hosted
by the Asian Institute of Transport Development, and will work with government
agencies as well as investors, researchers and NGOs to assess existing highways
and promote the use of better design to make roads safer.

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Qn 1. With reference to the ‘India Youth Development Index (YDI)’, recently seen
in news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The objective of the Index is to track the trends in youth development


across the States in India.
2. The index was developed by NITI Aayog in collaboration with Ministry of
Youth Affairs and Sports.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The objective of constructing the India Youth Development Index
(YDI) 2017 is to track the trends in Youth Development across the States. The
Index enables recognizing the high and low performing states, identifies the weak
domains and informs the policy makers the priority areas of intervention for
youth development in the states.

Why is this question important?

The Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development (RGNIYD),


Sriperumbudur, Tamil Nadu, an Institute of National Importance has come out
with Youth Development Index and Report 2017. This is a pioneering attempt
made by the Institute in 2010 which it followed up with the India Youth
Development Index in 2017.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=173434

Qn 2. ‘Compact with Africa (CwA)’, sometimes seen in the news, is an initiative of

A. World Bank
B. G – 20
C. International Monetary Fund
D. European Union

Ans: (B)

Learning Zone: Compact with Africa (CwA) is an initiative of G-20. The Compact
with Africa seeks to build infrastructure and promote private investment.
Currently, Côte d’Ivoire, Ethiopia, Ghana, Morocco, Rwanda, Senegal, and Tunisia
have joined the initiative.
Source: https://blogs.economictimes.indiatimes.com/et-commentary/india-
japan-and-africa/

Qn 3. With reference to the election of judges to the International court of justice


(ICJ), consider the following statements.

1. One third of the ICJ’s 15 members bench are elected every three years
for a nine-year term.
2. Elections are held separately but simultaneously in the United Nations
General Assembly and Security Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (C)

Learning Zone: A third of the International court of justice’s (ICJ), 15 members


bench are elected every three years for a nine-year term. The elections for this
are held separately but simultaneously in the United Nations General Assembly
and Security Council in New York.
To get elected a candidate has to secure 8 votes in Security Council and 97 in
General Assembly.

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Qn 1) Consider the following statements about ‘Internet Saathi programme’.

1. Under the programme only women are trained to spread the internet
literacy in rural areas.
2. The programme is run by Ministry of Communications along with Google
and Facebook.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (A)

Learning Zone: The internet saathi programme, run by Google along with Tata
Trusts is designed in such a way that two-three women in a village are handpicked
and trained to use the internet.

Why is this question important?

They train thousands of village women—not men— on how to access it.


But there’s a catch: the women are taught to use only Google products.
Source: http://www.livemint.com/Technology/vb74LKjlZbdkCagfiA3ckI/Indias-
internet-missionaries-The-women-Google-is-relying-o.html

Qn 2) In the context of world affairs, the term ‘quadrilateral’ is seen in the news
sometimes. Which of the following countries form this quadrilateral?

1. India
2. United States of America
3. France
4. Germany
5. Australia
6. Japan

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
B. 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
Ans: (B)

Learning Zone: With an eye on China’s activities in the region, India, US, Australia
and Japan — described as the “quadrilateral” — are coming together for a “free,
open, prosperous and inclusive Indo-Pacific region serves the long-term interests
of all countries in the region and of the world at large”.

Why is this question important?

The term used often in recent news.

Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/india/asean-summit-quadrilateral-
narendra-modi-philippines-china-us-japan-4934360/

Qn 3) With reference to ‘Higher Education Funding Agency (HEFA)’, consider the


following statements.

1. HEFA mobilizes the funds through market borrowing and would release
the same to the Government institution as interest- free loans.
2. HEFA provides funds for research and related infrastructure in addition to
the budget grants.
3. It is setup as a Non Banking Financial Company (NBFC) by the Union
government with Canara Bank as partner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (D)

Learning Zone: Higher Education Funding Agency (HEFA) has started its operations
for providing additional funds for research and related infrastructure.
The Union Budget gives ample allocation and grants to Higher Education
institutions but still there is a greater need. The funding under HEFA would be in
addition to the grants being given to the institutions.
As per the scheme, HEFA would mobilize Rs. 20,000 Cr through market borrowing
and would release the same to the Government institution as interest- free loans.

Why is this question important?

The HEFA was registered as a Section – 8 Company under the Companies Act.
Canara Bank has been identified as the partner for setting up the Company.
Government has released Rs. 250 Cr equity and the Canara Bank has given Rs. 50
Cr equity in the HEFA. RBI has granted a license under the RBI Act for HEFA to
operate as NBFC.

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Qn 1. India is a member of which of the following Multilateral Development


Banks?

1. Asian Development Bank


2. African Development Bank
3. European Bank for Reconstruction & Development (EBRD)

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. India is a member of none of them
Ans: (C)

Learning Zone: With the country's impressive economic growth over the years
and enhanced international political profile, it was considered appropriate that
India should expand its presence on the global developmental landscape beyond
its association with the Multi-lateral Development Banks (MDBs) such as
the World Bank, Asian Development Bank and African Development Bank. The
decision to join the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) and the New
Development Bank (NDB) was taken earlier in this backdrop.

Why is this question important?

The issue relating to acquiring the membership of the "European Bank for
Reconstruction & Development (EBRD)" had been under consideration of the
Government. The Union Cabinet recently approved India's Membership for
European Bank for Reconstruction & Development (EBRD).
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=173734

Qn 2. Consider the following statements.

1. Salaries and allowances in respect of Judges of Supreme Court and High


Courts are governed by the provisions of the constitution of India.
2. The revision of salaries and allowances of Judges of Supreme Court and
High Courts does not require an amendment to the constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (B)

Learning Zone: Salaries, gratuity, pension, allowances etc. in respect of Judges of


Supreme Court are governed by the Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and
Conditions of Service) Act, 1958. Salaries etc. of Judges of High Courts are
governed by High Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Act, 1954.
An amendment in the Acts is required whenever there is any proposal for revision
of salaries/pension gratuity, allowances etc. in respect of Judges of Supreme
Court and High Courts.

Why is this question important?

Government has proposed to move a Bill in the Parliament for amendment in the
relevant Acts for giving effect to the revision of salaries and allowances. It follows
the implementation of recommendations of the 7thCentral Pay Commission in
respect of Civil Servants.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=173728

Qn 3. With reference to irrigation systems in India, consider the following


statements.

1. Tank water irrigation system is prevalent in uneven and relatively rocky


plateau of peninsular India.
2. Well water irrigation system is more widespread in plains and coasts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (C)

Learning Zone: Tank water irrigation system: It is prevalent in uneven and


relatively rocky plateau of peninsular India. Tanks are commonly used in Deccan
Plateau, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Eastern Madhya Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.
Well water irrigation system: It is more widespread in plains, coasts and some
regions of peninsular India. Uttar Pradesh has the largest area under well
irrigation which accounts for about 28 percent of the well irrigated area of India.
Source: Kurukshetra, November 2017.

Dear Lolo lamba,


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today?” (PDF) is now available in the store. The new edition includes about 50
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Update (2) - If you have qualified for 2017 UPSC CSE Interview, and if you need 30
probable questions based on your DAF - fill the form here. UPSC has declared the
interview schedule.

Update (3) - There will be NCERT-based History Mock Exam on Sunday (21-01-
2018) on ClearIAS Mock Test Platform.

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Qn 1) With reference to ‘North East Rural Livelihood Project’, which of the
following statements is/are correct?

1. The project is aimed at assisting over 10,000 Self Help Groups (SHGs) in
the North Eastern states.
2. Under the project assistance will be provided only to tribal people living
in remote areas.
3. The project is supported by the World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Ans: (B)

Learning Zone: The unique scheme under the title “North East Rural Livelihood
Project” is being supported by the World Bank and will primarily benefit the
tribals and the lower socio-economic groups, including women, in the North-
Eastern Region (NER).

Why is this question important?

To begin with, four states, - Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura, will be taken
up for helping the tribal and even the non-tribal lower groups living in remote
areas. The project is aimed at assisting over 10,000 Self Help Groups (SHGs) and
benefit about three lakh poor households.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=173791

Qn 2) Which of the following dimensions are used to calculate the Global


Hunger Index (GHI)?

1. Percentage of population that is undernourished


2. Percentage of children under the age of five who are wasted
3. Percentage of children under the age of five who are stunted
4. Mortality rate of children under the age of five

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (D)

Learning Zone: The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool designed to


comprehensively measure and track hunger at the global, regional, and national
levels. The International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) calculates GHI
scores each year to assess progress and setbacks in combating hunger.
To capture the multidimensional nature of hunger, GHI scores are based on four
indicators:

 Undernourishment: the share of the population that is undernourished


(that is, whose caloric intake is insufficient);
 Child Wasting: the share of children under the age of five who are wasted
(that is, who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute under
nutrition);
 Child Stunting: the share of children under the age of five who are stunted
(that is, who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic under
nutrition); and
 Child Mortality: the mortality rate of children under the age of five (in part,
a reflection of the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy
environments).

Why is this question important?

As per the recently released 2017 Global Hunger Index (GHI), India ranks 100
among the 119 countries studied.
Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/global-hunger-index-
india-ranking-the-hungry-nation-
4951570/ andhttp://www.globalhungerindex.org/about/

Qn 3) Which of the following communities can be found in Sikkim?

1. Bhutias
2. Lepchas
3. Limboos
4. Tamangs

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (D)

Learning Zone: All the four communities – Limboos, Tamangs, Bhutias and
Lepchas – can be found in Sikkim.

Why is this question important?

The Limboo and Tamang communities were notified as the Scheduled Tribes in
Sikkim in January 2003. Bhutias and Lepchas are the Scheduled Castes.

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Qn 1) Which of the following statement correctly describes the term ‘digital pill’,
seen in the news recently?

A. A medication embedded with a sensor that can tell doctors whether, and
when, patients take their medicine.
B. Digital programme used to track and control ransomware like wannacry.
C. The technology used to operate a patient through Non-invasive
procedures.
D. None of the statements (A), (B) and (C) given above are correct in this
context.

Ans: (A)

Learning Zone: For the first time, the Food and Drug Administration has approved
a digital pill — a medication embedded with a sensor that can tell doctors
whether, and when, patients take their medicine.

Why is this question important?

The approval marks a significant advance in the growing field of digital devices
designed to monitor medicine-taking and to address the expensive, longstanding
problem that millions of patients do not take drugs as prescribed.
Source: https://www.nytimes.com/2017/11/13/health/digital-pill-fda.html

Qn 2) With reference to the health benefits of millets, consider the following


statements.

1. The anaemia, B-complex vitamin deficiency, pellagra can be effectively


tackled with intake of millets.
2. Millets are gluten free and are high in dietary fibre and antioxidants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (C)

Learning Zone: Nutritionally superior to wheat & rice owing to their higher levels
of protein with more balanced amino acid profile, crude fiber & minerals such as
Iron, Zinc, and Phosphorous, millets can provide nutritional security and act as a
shield against nutritional deficiency, especially among children and women.

Why is this question important?

The anaemia (iron deficiency), B-complex vitamin deficiency, pellagra (niacin


deficiency) can be effectively tackled with intake of less expensive but
nutritionally rich food grains like millets. Millets can also help tackle health
challenges such as obesity, diabetes and lifestyle problems as they are gluten
free, have a low glycemic index and are high in dietary fibre and antioxidants.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=173750

Qn 3) Consider the following statements.

1. Chinkara is an endangered animal and protected under Schedule 1 of the


Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
2. The Bishnoi community zealously guards chinkaras as part of its religious
beliefs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)

Learning Zone: The chinkara enjoys the status of an endangered animal with the
highest protection under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Why is this question important?

The Bishnoi sect, which protects animals and trees as part of its religious beliefs,
zealously guards chinkaras in the Marwar region (Rajasthan) where it lives in
majority.

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Qn 1) Consider the following statements.

1. The Financial Sector Assessment Program (FSAP) is a joint program of the


International Monetary Fund and the World Bank.
2. The Financial Sector Assessment Program (FSAP) was launched in 1999 in
the wake of the Asian financial crisis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The Financial Sector Assessment Program (FSAP) is a joint program
of the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank (WB involved in
developing countries and region only). Launched in 1999 in the wake of the Asian
financial crisis, the program brings together Bank and Fund expertise to help
countries reduce the likelihood and severity of financial sector crises.
The FSAP provides a comprehensive framework through which assessors and
authorities in participating countries can identify financial system vulnerabilities
and develop appropriate policy responses.

Why is this question important?


IMF and WB recently released the Financial System Stability Assessment (FSSA)
and Financial Sector Assessment (FSA) respectively.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1513769 and http://www.
worldbank.org/en/programs/financial-sector-assessment-program

Qn 2) Which of the following statements is/are not correct about ‘Methanol’?

1. Methanol is a clear and colorless liquid produced from natural gas, coal
and renewable biomass including the solid waste.
2. Methanol can be used for transportation fuels only but not as cooking
fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (B)

Learning Zone: Methanol has emerged as a clean, cheaper, safer and pollution
free energy option which can be used for transportation fuels and cooking fuel.
Methanol is a clear and colorless liquid produced from natural gas, coal and
renewable biomass including the solid waste.
India has the potential to undertake the production of Methanol from high ash
coal using indigenous technology with the help of industry. By up scaling the
production of Methanol, India can reduce its crude oil import bill substantially.

Why is this question important?


Government has formed a Methanol Task Force under the Chairmanship of
Member, NITI Aayog, Dr. V. K. Saraswat.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1513768

Qn 3) Consider the following statements about DARPAN – “Digital Advancement


of Rural Post Office for A New India” Project.

1. The project aims to improve the quality of service, add value to services
and achieve “financial inclusion” of un-banked rural population.
2. It is an initiative of ministry of finance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (A)

Learning Zone: DARPAN – “Digital Advancement of Rural Post Office for A New
India” Project aims to improve the quality of service, add value to services and
achieve “financial inclusion” of un-banked rural population.
The Project shall increase the rural reach of the Department of Posts and enable
BOs to increase traffic of all financial remittances, savings accounts, Rural Postal
Life Insurance, and Cash Certificates; improve mail operations processes by
allowing for automated booking and delivery of accountable article; increase
revenue using retail post business; provide third party applications; and make
disbursements for social security schemes such as MGNREGS.
The project is an initiative of the Department of Posts (DoP).
Why is this question important?
The Minister of Communications Shri Manoj Sinha recently launched DARPAN –
“Digital Advancement of Rural Post Office for A New India” Project

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