SET−1

Roll No.

JEE MAIN 2018

Sample Question Paper
CHEMISTRY (Theory)
General Instructions
(i) This test consists of 30 question.
(ii) Each question is allotted 4 marks for correct response.
(iii) Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction no. 2
for correct response of each question. 1 mark will be deducted for
indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the
total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the
answer sheet.
(iv) There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more
than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and
marks for wrong response will be deducted according as per
instructions.

1. The activation energy and enthalpy of chemisorption of oxygen on a metal surface is

37.3 kJ mol-1 and –72.1 kJ mol-1. At a certain pressure, the rate constant for
chemisorption is 1.2×10-3 s-1 at 318 K. What will be the value of the rate constant at
308 K ?
(1) 7.6×10-4 s-1 (3) 7.6×10-2 s-1
(2) 1.6×10-3 s-1 (4) 1.6×10-5 s-1

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2. Equivalent weight of KHC2O4. 3NaHC2O4 in reaction with acidic KMnO4 is (M = molar
mass)
M (3) M
(1) 
 M
(4) 
M 
(2) 


3. The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas at constant pressure varies with density
(d) as
(1) d2 (3) 
(2) d (4) 

4. A monoatomic ideal gas undergoes a process in which the ratio of p to V at any

instant is constant and equals to 1. What is the molar heat capacity of the gas ?
R R
(1)  (3) 
 
R (4) 0
(2) 


 
5. Given that EFe
Fe and EFe Fe are –0.36V and –0.439V, respectively. The value of

EFe
Fe  Pt would be

(1) (-0.36╶ 0.439) V (3) [3(-0.36) +2(-0.439)] V

(2) (-0.36 + 0.439) V (4) [3(-0.36) -2(-0.439)] V

6. Last line of Lyman series for H-atom has wavelength  Å 2nd line of Balmer series
has wavelength  Å then

   
(1)    (3)   
   
   
(2)    (4)   
   

7. The freezing point (in °C) of solution containing 0.1 g of K3[Fe(CN)6] (mol. wt. 329)
in 100 g of water (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol-1) is
(1) －2.3×10-2 (3) －5.7×10-3
(2) －5.7×10-2 (4) －1.2×10-2

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8. How many litres of water must be added to 1 L of an aqueous solution of HCl with a
pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2 ?
(1) 0.1 L (3) 2.0 L
(2) 0.9 L (4) 9.0 L

9. For the elementary reaction, M→N, the rate of disappearance of M increases by a factor
of 8 upon doubling the concentration of M. The order of the reaction with respect to M
is
(1) 4 (3) 2
(2) 3 (4) 1

10. For the complete combustion of ethanol, C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l),
the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol-1 at
25°C. Assuming ideality the enthalpy of combustion, ⧍CH, for the reaction will be (R
= 8.314 J K-1 mol-1)
(1) －1366.95 kJ mol-1 (3) －1460.50 kJ mol-1
(2) －1361.95 kJ mol-1 (4) －1350.50 kJ mol-1

11. In a sample of h-atom electrons make transition from 5th excited state to ground state,
producing all possible types of photons, then number of lines in infrared region are
(1) 4 (3) 6
(2) 5 (4) 3

12. The species having tetrahedral shape is :

(1) [PdCl4]2- (3) [Pd(CN)4]2-
(2) [Ni(CN)4]2- (4) [NiCl4]2-

13. Graphite is a soft lubricant solid extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this
anomalous behaviour is that graphite.
(1) is a non-crystalline substance.
(2) is an allotropic form of diamond
(3) has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers
(4) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms
with weak inter plate bonds.

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14. Identify the wrong statement in the following :
(1) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion
(2) Greenhouse effect is responsible for global warming
(3) Acid rain is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
(4) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the sun to reach the earth

15. In the standardisation of Na2S2O3 using K2Cr2O7 by iodometry, the equivalent weight of
K2Cr2O7 is
(1) (molecular weight)/2 (3) (molecular weight)/3
(2) (molecular weight)/6 (4) same as molecular weight

16. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists :
List (I) List (II)
(a) Binding energy of 5th excited state of Li2+ sample (p) 10.2 V
(b) Ist excitation potential of H-atom (q) 3.4 eV
(c) 2nd excitation potential of He+ ion (r) 13.6 eV
(d) I.E. of H-atom (s) 48.4 V

Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) r p s q
(2) s p q r
(3) q r s p
(4) q p s r

17. Which of the following graphs are correct for strong electrolyte AD and AB.

Am AB Am AB
AD AD
(1) 
C (3) 
C

Am AB
AD Am AB
(2) 
C AD
(4) 
C

18. Potassium manganate (K2MnO4) is formed when-

(1) Cl2 is passed into an aqueous solution of KMnO4
(2) MnO2 is fused with KOH
(3) Formaldhyde reacts with KMnO4 in the presence of strong alkali
(4) KMnO4 reacts with conc. H2SO4

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19. Give the correct order of initials T of F for following statements. Use T if statement is
true and F if it false.
(I) Number of S-S bonds in H2SnO6 are (n+1)
(II) When F2 reacts with water gives HF. O2 and O3
(III) LiNO3 and BaCl2 compounds are used in fore works
(IV) Be and Mg hydrides are ionic and polymeric
(1) FTTF (3) TFTT
(2) FTTT (4) TTFF

20. A substance responds to the following tests :

(a) It gives a green precipitate with ammonia solution which dissolves in excess reagent
forming deep blue solution.
(b) It gives green precipitate with potassium cyanide solution which dissolves in excess
reagent forming a yellow solution.
(c) It gives a reddish-brown/brown-borax bead test in the oxidising flame.
The substance is:
(1) Sr2+ salts (3) Mn2+ salts
(2) Ni2+ salts (4) Zn2+ salts

21. 0.117 g of an organic compound on heating with conc. HNO3 and silver nitrate in
carius furnace gave 0.42 g of AgCl. Find the percentage of chlorine in the compound.
(1) 52 (3) 89
(2) 64 (4) 18

22. Test by which starch and cellulose can be distinguished from each other is :
(1) reducing sugar test (3) iodine test
(2) analysis of products of hydrolysis (4) Molisch test

23. The product P formed in the given reaction sequence is.

O
||
C 1. KOH
3. ClCH2COOEt.
N－H “P”
2. H3O+
C
||
O

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 O O
||
C (3) NH2－CH2－C
NH－CH2－COOEt.
(1) OH
C
|| HO CH2COOEt.
O
C
(2) NH2－CH2－COOC2H5
(4) N－H
C
HO CH2COOEt.

24. After completion of the reactions (I and II), the organic compounds(s) in the reaction
mixtures is :
O
Br2 (1.0 mol)
CH3 aqueous/NaOH
Reaction I: H3C
(1.0 mol)

O
Br2 (1.0 mol)
CH3 CH3COOH
Reaction II: H3C
(1.0 mol)

O O O O

H3C CH2Br H3C CBr3 Br3C CBr3 BrH2C CH2Br

P Q R S
O
CHBr3
H3C ONa U
T
(1) Reaction I : P and Reaction II : P
(2) Reaction I : U acetone and Reaction II : Q, acetone
(3) Reaction I : T, U, acetone and Reaction II : P
(4) Reaction I : R, acetone and Reaction II : S, acetone

O O
|| ||
25. The true statement about the major product of CH3－C－CH2－CH2－CH2－CH2－C－H
in reaction with aq. NaOH followed by heating is.
(1) It gives yellow ppt with I2/－OH
(2) It gives silver mirror with Tollen’s reagent
(3) It shows stereoisomerism
(4) It does not give yellow ppt with 2,4 DNP

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 O
PBr3 Mg/ether CH2－CH2 H2O
26. CH3－CH－CH3 A B C D. D is:

OH

(1) CH3－CH－O－CH2－CH3 (2) CH3－O－CH－CH2CH3

CH3 CH3
(3) CH3－CH－CH2CH2OH (4) CH3－CH2－CH－CH2OH

CH3 CH3

27. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List (I) List (II)
(a) Gas dispersed in liquid (p) Emulsion
(b) Liquid dispersed in gas (q) Foam
(c) Liquid dispersed in solid (r) Gel
(d) Liquid dispersed in liquid (s) Aerosol

Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) q s r p
(2) p s q r
(3) s p q r
(4) r q s p

28. Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect ?

(1) 3-Ethylpenta-1, 4-diene
(2) 2-Ethylhex-1-en-4-yne
(3) 2-(2- Chloroethyl) pentanenitrile
(4) 2, 2-Dichlorohexan-4-ol

29. In the reaction, product ‘X’ is :

H+/Hg2+
CH3－C≡ CH + H2O X
(1) CH3CH2CHO
(2) CH3CH2COOH
(3) CH3 － C(OH) = CHOH
(4) CH3COCH3

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30. The major product of the following reaction is
RCH2OH
+
H (anhydrous)
O

(1) a hemiacetal
(2) an acetal
(3) an ether
(4) an ester

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