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FOURTH ASSIGNMENT
DUE ON OR BEFORE 7/3/2017
EACH QUESTION WORTH 1.49 POINTS
1) What are the two tools of fiscal policy that governments can use to stabilize an economy?
A) government spending and technology improvements
B) government spending and taxation
C) taxation and controlling imports
D) taxation and controlling exports
3) A decrease in the personal income tax rate ________ disposable income which ________
consumption.
A) increases; increases
B) increases; decreases
C) decreases; decreases
D) decreases; increases
5) What is the reason that stabilization policies do not have an immediate effect on an economy?
A) Consumers are slow to catch up on spending.
B) There is a time lag for policies to take effect.
C) Imports come into the country too fast.
D) Exports often are not shipped fast enough.
9) Who sets the rules for entitlements when spending is authorized under this category?
A) the President
B) the agency involved
C) the Congress when it appropriates the spending
D) each individual state
11) A White House proposal to increase infrastructure spending on roads, rail lines and runways is an
example of
A) expansionary fiscal policy.
B) contractionary fiscal policy.
C) automatic stabilization.
D) insourcing policies.
12) Which of the following sources of revenue is used to fund government spending?
A) interest
B) taxation
C) corporate contributions
D) political party contributions
13) Individual income tax is the ________ single component of federal revenue.
A) largest
B) second largest
C) smallest
D) least important
14) One school of thought that emphasizes the role that taxes play in an economy's supply of output is
known as
A) demand-pull economics.
B) classical economics.
C) tax-and-spend economics.
D) supply-side economics.
15) The relationship between tax rates and tax revenues is shown on the
A) IRS curve.
B) Laffer curve.
C) production possibilities frontier.
D) Discretionary Spending curve.
16) A federal budget ________ occurs when the federal government spends more than it collects in
taxes.
A) surplus
B) deficit
C) equilibrium
D) ceiling
17) Suppose the government runs a budget surplus in a given year. It can reduce its overall federal debt
by
A) not buying anything on credit.
B) buying back bonds it sold to the public.
C) forcing a change in net exports.
D) increasing taxes on luxury items.
18) The government strives to operate at neither a deficit nor surplus budget in order to keep the
federal budget
A) balanced.
B) equal to inflation.
C) in line with the stock market.
D) equal to that of other countries.
20) Suppose the economy is operating below potential output. If policy makers try to avoid a budget
deficit by raising taxes or reducing government spending, these actions would
A) increase inflation.
B) help pull an economy out of a depression.
C) make a recession worse.
D) negate the multiplier effect.
22) The supply-side motivated tax cuts of 1981 during the Reagan administration were aimed at
A) increasing aggregate demand.
B) increasing aggregate supply.
C) decreasing aggregate supply.
D) balancing the federal budget.
23) The Clinton administration inherited a budget deficit from its predecessor. President Clinton
instituted major tax increases that
A) increased the budget deficit during his entire term.
B) brought the budget into balance and eventually into a surplus.
C) reduced the budget deficit but increased the federal debt.
D) reduced the size of the deficit but could not eliminate it.
26) If money is used as a mechanism to hold purchasing power for a period of time it is functioning as a
A) standard of value.
B) store of value.
C) medium of exchange.
D) unit of account.
27) Money that has no intrinsic value and is created by a government decree is called
A) barter money.
B) commodity money.
C) fiat money.
D) asset money.
31) The fraction of deposits that banks are required by law to hold and not lend out are called its
A) reserves.
B) excess reserves.
C) required reserves.
D) net worth.
33) If the banking system has a required reserve ratio of 25 percent, then the money multiplier is
A) 2.
B) 4.
C) 5.
D) 10.
36) Which of the following serves as the central bank for the United States?
A) the Federal Reserve System
B) the Treasury Department
C) the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
D) the Congress
38) Studies by economists have tended to show that countries with more independent central banks
have
A) more inflation.
B) less inflation.
C) higher unemployment.
D) lower unemployment.
39) Generally, when the Federal Reserve lowers interest rates, investment spending ________ and GDP
________.
A) increases; decreases
B) increases; increases
C) decreases; decreases
D) decreases; increases
43) The one organization that has the power to change the total amount of reserves in the banking
system is the
A) Congress.
B) Executive Branch of the Federal Government.
C) U.S. Treasury.
D) Federal Reserve System.
44) From time to time, the Federal Reserve sells various quantities of government bonds to the private
sector through a process called
A) bond recall procedures.
B) backflip bond investments.
C) open market sales.
D) voluntary redemption procedures.
45) What would be a way for the Federal Reserve to stimulate a sluggish economy?
A) print more money
B) buy government bonds on the open market
C) sell more government bonds
D) encourage the stock market
46) To decrease the money supply using the reserve requirements, what would the Fed typically do?
A) raise the reserve requirement for banks
B) reduce the reserve requirement for banks
C) make each bank voluntarily set its own reserve levels
D) let each bank get less currency from the Treasury
47) The rate of interest charged to commercial banks by the Fed for loans is called the ________ rate.
A) federal funds
B) discount
C) prime
D) commercial paper
49) The Fed can change the money supply by buying or selling long-term Treasury bonds. Purchasing
long-term securities is commonly called
A) open market operations.
B) discount operations.
C) federal funds speculation.
D) quantitative easing.
51) An open market sale by the Fed causes the value of the dollar to
A) rise, increasing net exports.
B) rise, reducing net exports.
C) fall, increasing net exports.
D) fall, reducing net exports.
52) The ability of one person or nation to produce a good at a lower absolute cost than another is called
a(n)
A) market advantage.
B) comparative advantage.
C) absolute advantage.
D) specialization advantage.
53) The ability of one person or nation to produce a good at a lower opportunity cost than another is
called a(n)
A) market advantage.
B) comparative advantage.
C) absolute advantage.
D) specialization advantage.
55) A rich nation will trade with a poor nation because the
A) rich nation has the absolute advantage in producing all products.
B) poor nation has the absolute advantage in producing all products.
C) poor nation has the comparative advantage in producing a product.
D) rich nation has the comparative advantage in producing all products.
56) When a U.S. company shifts some of its production to Mexico, it is engaging in
A) outsourcing.
B) insourcing.
C) self-sufficiency.
D) involuntary exchange.
59)The rate at which one currency can be traded for another is called the
A) terms of trade.
B) transfer rate.
C) exchange rate.
D) coupon rate.
60) An appreciation is
A) a decrease in the value of currency.
B) a decrease in the trade deficit.
C) an increase in the trade surplus.
D) an increase in the value of currency.
61) Spending on goods from a country will ________ as the value of its currency gets cheaper against
the U.S. dollar.
A) decrease
B) increase
C) reverse
D) go to other countries
62) A currency system in which governments try to keep the values of their currencies constant against
another is called a ________ exchange rate system.
A) fixed
B) stable
C) consistent
D) flexible
Figure 9-15
64) Refer to Figure 9-15. Consumer surplus with trade and without a tariff is
a. A.
b. A + B.
c. A + C + G.
d. A + B + C + D + E + F.
66) Refer to Figure 9-15. The amount of government revenue created by the tariff is
a. B.
b. E.
c. D + F.
d. B + D + E + F.
67) Refer to Figure 9-15. As a result of the tariff, there is a deadweight loss that amounts to
a. B.
b. E.
c. D + F.
d. B + D + E + F.