PAPER 1 Important Notes

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IN - (PAPER 1 IMPORTANT NOTES)
DGCA -PAPER I KNOWLEDGE BANK

ICAO -ANNEXES
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1) Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing
2) Annex 2 - Rules Of Air
3) Annex 3 - Meteorological Service For International Air Navigation
4) Annex 4 - Aeronautical Charts
5) Annex 5 - Units at Measurement to be used in Air and Groundoperation
6) Annex 6 - Operation Of Aircraft
7) Annex 7 - Aircraft nationality and Registration Marks
8) Annex 8 - Airworthy of Aircraft
9) Annex 9 - Facilitation
10) Annex 10 - Aeronautical Termination
11) Annex 11 - Air Traffic Service
12) Annex 12 - Research and Rescue
13) Annex 13 - Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation
14) Annex 14 - Aerodrome
15) Annex 15 - Aeronautical Information Circular
16) Annex 16 - Environmental Protection
17) Annex 17 - Security
18) Annex 18 - The Safe Transport of Dangerous goods
19) Annex 19 - Safety Management

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CIVIL AVIATION REQUIREMENTS SECTIONS

1) SECTION 1 - GENERAL
2) SECTION 2 - AIRWORTHINESS
3) SECTION 3 - AIR TRANSPORT
4) SECTION 4 - AERODROME STANDARDS & LICENSING
5) SECTION 5 - AIR SAFETY
6) SECTION 6 - DESIGN STANDARDS & TYPE CERTIFICATIONS
7) SECTION 7 - FLIGHT CREW STANDARDS, TRAINING & LICENSING
8) SECTION 8 - AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS
9) SECTION 9 - AIR SPACE AND NAVIGATIONS SERVICES STANDARDS
10) SECTION 10 - AVIATION ENVIRONMENT PROTECTION
11) SECTION 11 - SAFE TRANSPORT OF DANGEROUS GOODS BY AIR

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AAC 6 OF 1998 GRANT OF APPROVAL TO FOREIGN FLIGHT EMGINEER`S LICENCE

AAC7 of 1998 Guide lines for procuring parts manufactured by parts manufacturing approval
holders(PMA)
AAC 3 OF 2000 Good Maintenance practice
AAC 6 of 2000 Handling of Electronics devices
AAC 8 OF 2000 Refresher training for AME license/Approval & Certificate of competency holders
AAC 3of 2001 Banner Towing Operation
AAC 5 of 2001 Engineering statistics Report
AAC 4 of 2003 Return to Service of Aircraft items – Recovered from aircraft involved in
Accidents/Incidents
AAC 2 OF 2004 Routine readout and maintenance of FDR/DFDR units installed on aircraft.
AAC3 OF 2004 Routine read out and maintenance of CVR installed on aircraft .
AAC 3 OF 2006 Authenticity and serviceability of aircraft parts.
AAC 4 of 2006 Air worthiness approval for Exports
AIR WORTHYNESS ADVISORY CIRCULARS

(UPDATED ON 10.09.2015)
AAC 2 of 2007 Certification of transit inspection of an aircraft by other organizations.
AAC 2 OF 2011 Categorization of Surveillance/ Audit findings
AAC 1 OF 2012 Duty time limitation – Aircraft maintenance person(amp)
AAC 2 of 2012 Maintenance of aircraft under CAR 145 approval and availability of certifying STAFF
AAC 2 OF 2013 Revision-1- Modifications and Repairs
AAC 3 of 2013 EDTO Airworthiness Approval
AAC 4 OF 2013 Engine oil loss due to damage of ‘O’ ring of oil cap.
AAC 5 OF 2013 Validity of Certification Authorization and AME LICENCE.

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AAC 1 OF 2015 CODING AND Registration of ELTs
AAC 2 OF 2015 Import / Export of Aircraft Spares, Items of Equipment's etc. for use on aircraft.Superseded
by AAC 2 of 2016
AAC 1 of 2016 Check list of current AACs
AAC 2 of 2016 Import / Export of Aircraft spares, items of equipment's etc. for use on A/C
AAC 3 of 2016 Direct Approval of Aircraft Maintenance Type Training
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AIRCRAFT MANUAL SESSION QUSTIONS

6) If a person wants to drop some flower in
JUNE 2016: religious lace he should

a) Comply with rule 26
b) Get permission from DM of Delhi
1) Danger zone means c) Permission by police commissioner of
a) Danger zone is defined as the area within Delhi
the largest polygon obtainable by joining point 3 d) ATA
meters from the wings& the fueling vehicle FEBRUARY 2016:
b) Danger zone is defined as the area within

the largest polygon obtainable by joining point 15 1) cancellation, suspension of C of A under
meters from the wings& the fueling vehicle which A/C rule
a) 50
c) Danger zone is defined as the area within b) 55
the largest polygon obtainable by joining point 6 c) 61
meters from the wings& the fueling vehicle d) ATA
d) none 2) Psychoactive substance doesn't include

a) alcohol
2) Carriage of CCL and ECL b) tobacco
a) Rule 7 c) narcotic substance
b) Rule 7A d) cocaine
c) Rule 7B
d) Rule 7C 3) MTCS for Fees:-
a) C of A fees for A/c with MTOW of less
3) Fueling of aircraft than 1000 kg is Rs.10,000
a) Rule 25 A b) The initial grand of AME (or) C of C
b) Rule 25 certificate is Rs. 5000
c) Rule 25 B c) Duplicate C of A fees for A/c with MTOW
d) None of less than 1000 kg is Rs. 1000
d) ATA
4) DGCA can prohibit the flight registered
foreign , when operation in India suffered major 4) Single seater micro light A/c means not
defect exceeding
/damage a) 450 Kg
a) Rule 59 b) 330 Kg
b) Rule 61 c) 540 Kg
c) Rule 59 A d) 1000 Kg
d) Rule 53
5) A trainee pilot without license can fly an
5) Power of central government to impose A/c whose MTOW is less than
penalty a) 2500 Kg
a) Schedule II of 1934 b) 1500 Kg
b) Schedule II of 1937 c) 5700 Kg
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c) Schedule II of 1934 d) 1000 Kg

d) Schedule VI of 1937
JUNE 2015: b) 64
c) 66
d) 54
1) MTCS
a) Glider is a power driven , lighter than air OCTOBER 2015:
aircraft
b) Air ship is a power driven , heavier than 1) The a/c registered in India shall carry
air aircraft passenger according which IAR?
c) Amphibian is a power driven , heavier a) 7C
than air aircraft b) 7B
d) ATA c) 7A
d) 7
2) Rule 7 B indicates
a) Documents to be carried on aircraft 2) The fueling precaution to be observed
b) Carriage of CCL while fueling the a/c fuel according which IAR?
c) Both (a) and (b) a) 25B
d) None b) 25A
c) 25
3) Fueling of aircraft states d) 24C
a) 25 A
b) 25 B 3) The organization prepares SMS according
c) 25 C to which IAR
d) 25 a) 29D
b) CAR section 1 series C part II
4) If a student engages in any maul c) 29C
practices then he/she shall be punished d) 29B
according to aircraft rule
a) 41 A 4) If any person is aggrieved by order
b) 41 passed by an officer in exercise of a power
c) 38 A conferred by him,
d) 39 then he may prefer an appeal to the next higher
officer within how many days
5) C of A may suspend (or) renewed a) 24 days
according to rule b) 30days
a) 55 c) 48 days
b) 50 d) 60days
c) 50A
d) 51 A 5) A trainee pilot who is learning to fly may
fly without a license in anya/c who’s MTOW
6) Fees of AME license precribed in doesn’t
a) 62 exceed
b) 32 a) 1200kgs
c) 133C b) 1500kgs
d) 61 c) 2000kgs
d) None
7) Which IAR states aircraft for which radio
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apparatus is obligatory 6) Which IAR relates to intoxicating and

a) 63 psychoactive substances
a) 24C 3) If a person engages in maul-practices in

b) 24 DGCA examinations (or) any other means then
c) 25 DGCA
d) 29D will take actions according to

a) Rule 67
b) Rule 39
7) According to IAR 59A, MTCS which is c) Rule 40
most appropriate ? d) Rule 41A
a) The DGCA prohibit an a/c which suffers
major damage in Indian territory after getting 4) Rule 25 A of Indian aircraft rules state
approval from the state of registry of the a/c that
b) The state of registration of a/c or a/w a) Fueling of aircraft
authority of the country of registration will notify b) Housing of aircraft
DGCA that the damage can ascertain & removed c) Prohibition of carriage of person with
c) The a/c must be permitted to fly without mental disorder
passenger to place where it can be restored to d) None
a/w
condition by DGCA after receiving notification 5) The rule for C of A is given in which IAR
from the state of registry of a/c a) Rule 30
d) Both b&c are correct b) Rule 15
c) Rule 50
8) A single seater micro light a/c with fixed d) Rule 51
wing having MTOW (in kg )of
a) 450 6) Fees for C of A is given in which IAR
b) 100 a) Rule 68
c) 350 b) Rule 133 C
d) 330 c) Rule 36
d) Rule 62
7) Organization approved under 133 B shall
FEBRUARY 2015: be approved by prescribed fees which specified
in
a) Rule 133A
1) If a person wants to drop jasmine flowers b) Rule 133C
in holy religious place then he should c) Rule 62
a) Comply with the rule 26 d) None
b) Get permission from a district magistrate
c) Get permission from commissioner of 8) In fueling of aircraft , danger zone is
police termed as
d) ATA a) Largest polygon obtaining by joining 3
meters away from the fueling vehicle
2) IAR rule 7 states b) Fueling vehicle should be approved by
a) Documents to carried on board DGCA
b) Carriage of CCL c) Both (a) and (b)
c) Carriage of passenger d) None
d) Carriage of flight crew
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9) MTCS ( regarding accident)
a) Notification of accident according to rule d) Rule 133A

68
b) As in (a) send notice to DGCA 7) Rule 41 A of IAR states about
c) As in (b) information to the DM & office in a) Licensing authority

charge of the nearest police station b) Medical standard
d) As in (c) an information by quickest mean c) Checks,test,examinations
available and in any case within 72 hours d) Registration markings
8) Dropping of paper in any religious place

in accordance with
OCTOBER 2014: a) As per IAR 26
b) Permission of DM of Delhi
c) Permission by police commissioner of
1) Issue (or) renewal of C of A is under Delhi
which rule d) ATA
a) Rule 30
b) Rule 50
c) Rule61
d) None OCTOBER 2013:
2) Carriage of COCL is given in which IAR 1) IAR 7 of 1937

a) 7 a) Documents to be carried on board
b) 7A aircraft
c) 7B b) Radio telegraph apparatus
d) 9 c) Prohibited flights
d) None
3) IAR 7 of 1937
a) Documents to be carried on board 2) In fueling of aircraft , danger zone is
aircraft termed as
b) Radio telegraph apparatus a) Largest polygon obtaining by joining 3
c) Prohibited flights meters away from the fueling vehicle
d) None b) Fueling vehicle should be approved by
DGCA
4) Which IAR states the need for C of A c) Both (a) and (b)
a) Rule 50 d) None
b) Rule 15
c) Rule 60 3) If any person is aggrieved by order
d) Rule 133 C passed by an officer in exercise of a power
5) Fueling of aircraft comes under which IAR conferred by him,
a) 25 then he may prefer an appeal to the next higher
b) 25 A officer within how many days
c) 25 B a) 24 days
d) 25 C b) 30days
c) 48 days
6) Organization fees prescribed in which IAR d) 60days
a) Rule 61
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b) Rule 133 C 4) Fees for C of A is given in which IAR

c) Rule 35 a) Rule 68
b) Rule 133 C
c) Rule 36 2) AIC & NOTMAS issued under
d) Rule 62 a) 133 A
5) Fees for issuance of temporary C of R of b) 133 B

an aircraft of AUW 16,000 is c) 133 C
a) 20,000 d) 133 D
b) 25,000
c) 30,000 3) Dropping in any religious place from
d) 45,000 aircraft over crowd on Delhi its requires
a) Rule 26
6) Temporary aerodrome b) Permission given by DM of Delhi
a) Date issued by DGCA c) Permission given by Commissioner of
b) Not exceeding3 months Delhi
c) Not exceeding 6 months d) ATA
d) As per airport of India 4) IAR 7 states
7) C of A renewal fees prescribed in which a) Documents to be carried on board
IAR b) Carriage CCL
a) 133C c) Carriage ECL
b) 35 d) None
c) 62
d) Either (a) or (b) 5) Rule 55 states
a) Issuance of C of A
8) MTCS b) Fees requirement of C of A
a) Refueling zone is 12 meter away from the c) Suspension/cancellation of C of A
fueling point d) None
b) Fueling vehicle is approved by DGCA
c) Correct grade of fuel must be refueled
d) ATA [[{{ Dear Followers If you have
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a) Until the aircraft is issued with regular submit your question papers or data
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b) 133 B
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c) 133 C
d) 133 D
6) IAR 133 C states

a) Fees requirement for registration OCTOBER 2012:
b) Fees requirement for C of A

c) Fees requirement for organization
d) None 1) DGCA can prohibit the flight registered in
foreign when operation in India suffers major
7) Which is correct defect /
a) Airship is non power driven , heavier than damage
air aircraft a) Rule 59
b) Glider is power power driven heavier than b) Rule 61
air aircraft c) Rule59A
c) Amphibian is power driven heavier than d) Rule 53
air aircraft
d) ATA
2) What is true about temporary C of R
8) Refueling of aircraft a) It is valid for 1 year
a) 25 b) It is valid upto first landing at custom
b) 25 A aerodrome
c) 25 B c) Short limited period
d) 25 C d) ATA
9) Duplicate issue of C of A fees 3) Who has power to exempt rule

a) 10 % of C of A a) DGCA
b) 20 % of C of A b) JDGCA
c) 30 % of C of A c) Central government /authorized person
d) 15 % of C of A by them
d) ATA
10) Carriage of pet animals in the aircraft shall
be 4) Any authority authorized by the central
a) Consult with air lines government can detain the aircraft under
b) Consult with veterinary doctor a) Section 8
c) Followed IAR 24 b) Section 8A
d) ATA c) Section 11
d) None
11) Any license ,authorization, approved log book
(or) any document are maintained must given for 5) Power of central government to prohibit
Inspection on demand for the (or) regulate construction of buildings , planting
a) Magistrate of trees,
b) Police officer above rank of constable etc under
c) Certified officer of civil aviation a) Section 8A
department b) Section 11 A
d) ATA c) Section 9A
12) The license of Aero mobile obtained from d) Section 11 B
a) DGCA
b) Ministry of civil aviation 6) AIC issued under the rule of
c) RAO a) 5A
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d) Ministry of communication b) 133 A

c) 133 B
d) 133 C d) After taxing (or) towing

7) Fueling should be conducted when a
turbo jet aircraft maneuvers 3) No person shall operate radio

a) Within 30 meters transmitting apparatus in any aircraft registered
b) Within 43 meters in India unless he
c) Within 15 meters holds a license of the type required by the
d) Within 65 meters provisions of part V in respect of
a) Rule 9
8) For dropping separate sheet of paper b) Rule 21
permission shall be granted by c) Rule 55
a) DM d) None
b) Police commissioner 4) AIC issued under
c) DGCA a) Rule 5A
d) ATA b) Rule 133
c) Rule 133 A
9) The DGCA may permanently (or) d) Rule 133 B
temporarily a candidate from any flying test (or)
examination , 5) Weight and balance control of aircraft is
if the applicant adopted any unfair means during under rule
examination according to the rule a) 55
a) Rule 67 b) 58
b) Rule 41 A sub rule 4 c) 54
c) Rule 57 d) 56
d) Rule 41 A
6) Aircraft rule 54 states that
10) Airship means a) Manufacture , storage of aircraft,
a) Lighter than air aircraft certification of aircraft only by approved
b) Heavier than air aircraft organization
c) Power driven lighter than air aircraft b) Materials (or) parts used will be certified
d) Normally capable of taking off from either by approved personnel only
land , solid platform (or) water c) Certification of repair and modification by
appropriately licensed engineer only
d) None
JUNE 2012: 7) DGCA may debar permanently (Or)

examination , if the applicant adopted any unfair
1) The license of AME shall be produced to means during examination according to the rule
a) Magistrate a) 67
b) Police officer above the rank of constable b) 41
c) DGCA gazetted officers c) 41 sub rule 4
d) ATA d) 52
2) Fueling shall not be carried out when

a) APU is in operating condition
b) Undercarriage is abnormally heated up FEBRUARY 2012:
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condition
c) Just after landing
7) Fueling should be conducted when a

1) DGCA is authorized to issue /validate C of turbo jet aircraft maneuvers
A under a) Within 30 meters

a) Rule 50 b) Within 43 meters
b) Rule 15 c) Within 15 meters
c) Rule30 d) Within 65 meters
d) Sub rule 2 of 55
8) Airship means
2) Aircraft may fly with invalid C of A a) Lighter than air aircraft
a) C of A suspend away form the base &fly b) Heavier than air aircraft
to the base c) Power driven lighter than air aircraft
b) Aircraft fly for the purpose of test flight d) Normally capable of taking off from either
within vicinity departing aerodrome land , solid platform (or) water
c) After inspection carried out by QCM &
special permission given by DGCA
d) ATA
OCTOBER 2011:
3) Temporary C of R valid upto
a) Until the aircraft is issued with regular
registration 1) DGCA is authorized to issue /validate C of
b) Till the first landing in customs A under
aerodrome a) Rule 50
c) Till it return to main base b) Rule 15
d) None c) Rule30
4) The registration of an aircraft registered d) Sub rule 2 of 55
in India may be canceled at any time
a) The registration has been obtained bu 2) The fees issuance of Temporary C of R an
furnished false information aircraft of AUW 62,740
b) The aircraft has been destroyed (or) a) 2,60,000
permanently with drawn from use b) 65,000
c) The lease in respect of aircraft is expired c) 1,20,000
d) ATA d) 22,000
5) The fees issuance of Temporary C of R an 3) MTOW is given in

aircraft of AUW 62,740 a) C of A
a) 2,60,000 b) C of R
b) 65,000 c) Flight manual
c) 1,20,000 d) Operational manual
d) 22,000 4) AIC issued under
a) Rule 5A
6) For dropping separate sheet of paper b) Rule 133
permission shall be granted by c) Rule 133 A
a) DM d) Rule 133 B
b) Police commissioner
c) DGCA 5) The responsibility of security clearance of
d) ATA foreign students before admission in approved
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training
institutes lies in
a) DGCA 2) Fuelling zone is regarded as the area

b) RAO extending radially from the aircraft fueling point
c) Chief instructor a) 25 m
d) Foreign authority of AME training b) 15 m
institution c) 10 m
d) 6
6) Fueling should be conducted when a 3) Vehicles moving in the danger zone shall
turbo jet aircraft maneuvers be fitted with
a) Within 30 meters a) Spark arresters
b) Within 43 meters b) Flame traps
c) Within 15 meters c) Fire extinguishers
d) Within 65 meters d) Both (a) and (b)
7) Weight and balance control under aircraft 4) All pilots while engage on a licensed air
rule transport service, shall undergo a local
a) 55 proficiency check
b) 58’ a) Once in a year
c) 53 b) Twice in a year
d) 54 c) Once in two year
d) None
8) Aircraft rule 54 states that
a) Manufacture , storage of aircraft, 5) Ensuring the pilots familiar with laws ,
certification of aircraft only by approved regulations and procedures pertinent to the
organization performance
b) Materials (or) parts used will be certified of their duties , is the responsibility of
by approved personnel only a) Chief test pilot
c) Certification of repair and modification by b) QCM
appropriately licensed engineer only c) Operator
d) None d) ATA
9) Airship means 6) Power of central government to make a

a) Lighter than air aircraft order in an emergency covered in
b) Heavier than air aircraft a) Section 6
c) Power driven lighter than air aircraft b) Section 9
d) Normally capable of taking off from either c) Section 10
land , solid platform (or) water d) Section 1
7) The rule deals with the carriage of one

digging material in an aircraft
JUNE 2011: a) Aircraft rule 1937
b) Aircraft rule 1937 sub rule 25
1) All work on an aircraft required by rule 54 c) Aircraft rule 2003
of aircraft rule is to certify by d) Aircraft act 1934
a) Licensed engineer
b) Authorized personnel 8) Petroleum in bulk means
c) Approved personnel a) 100 liters capacity
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d) ATA b) 500 liters capacity

c) 900 liters capacity
d) 10000 liter capacity d) 52

9) The single seater micro light aircraft got a 4) Temporary C of R valid upto
wing area not less than a) Until the aircraft is issued with regular
a) 330 m square registration
b) 450 m square b) Till the first landing in custom aerodrome
c) 10 m square c) Till it return to main base
d) 5 m square d) Both (b) and (c)
10) Kite is 5) The registration of an aircraft registered

a) An aircraft in India may be canceled at any time
b) An aircraft an is an Aerostat a) The registration has been obtained bu
c) An aircraft is an aerodyne furnished false information
d) As in (c) and is an aeroplane b) The aircraft has been destroyed (or)
11) Fueling of aircraft shall be done outdoors permanently with drawn from use
and distance away from the building c) The lease in respect of aircraft is expired
a) 15 m d) ATA
b) 15 Km
c) 10 m 6) Short term C of R
d) 5 Km a) Bring aircraft to main base for
maintenance
b) C of A lapse in foreign country and to
FEBRUARY 2011: bring it back in India for renewal
c) By a company /corporation registered
elsewhere than in India and carrying out
1) DGCA is authorized to issue /validate C of business in
A under India
a) Rule 50 d) ATA
b) Rule 15
c) Rule30 7) The fees issuance of Temporary C of R an
d) Sub rule 2 of 55 aircraft of AUW 62,740
a) 2,60,000
2) Aircraft may fly with invalid C of A b) 65,000
a) C of A suspend away form the base &fly c) 1,20,000
to the base d) 22,000
b) Aircraft fly for the purpose of test flight
within vicinity departing aerodrome
c) After inspection carried out by QCM &
special permission given by DGCA
d) ATA
3) DGCA may debar permanently (Or)

examination , if the applicant adopted any unfair
means during examination according to the rule
a) 67
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b) 41
c) 41 sub rule 4
6) Computer system should have at least

CAR 145 one back up system should be updated within
a) 24 hours
b) 48 hours
c) 36 hours
SESSION QUESTIONS d) 2 days
7) CA form 4 is applicable for

a) Post holders
Civil Aviation Requirement b) Certifying staff
c) AME
- 145 d) Technician
FEBURARY 2016: 8) For an CAR 145 approved organization
the scope of approval deemed to constitute the
1) Maintenance man hour plan must be approval
reviewed is given in
a) Every 3 months a) Maintenance manual
b) Every 6 month b) CAME
c) As in (a) updated when necessary c) MOE
d) As in (b) updated when necessary d) ATA
2) Large aircraft means 9) MTCS

a) Multi engine aeroplane a) Maintenance manager can directly
b) Multi engine helicopter access to AM
c) Aeroplane MTOM upto 5700 kg b) Quality manager ca directly access to AM
d) ATA c) Any manager can directly access to QCM
d) QCM can directly access to DGCA
3) Which of the following is the important
element in the quality and safety policy 10) During maintenance any incomplete
a) Quality control maintenance is brought to the notice to
b) Quality feed back a) Manufacture
c) Independent audit b) Aircraft operator
d) ATA c) DGCA
d) RAO
4) Any maintenance carried out before flight
to ensure the aircraft is fit for intended flight is 11) The internal reporting process should be
a) Line maintenance a) Closed loop
b) Base maintenance b) Open loop
c) Pre-flight inspection c) Both (a) and (b)
d) ATA d) None
5) Who will ensure that components is not 12) CDCCL means

in airworthy condition a) Critical design configuration control
a) Certifying staff limitation
b) Maintenance manager b) Configuration design critical control
c) Quality manager limitation
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d) Supervisor c) Critical design control configuration

limitation
d) Control design critical configuration d) Permanent distortion

limitation
19) Consumable materials should be

13) Endanger the flight safety means accompanied by
a) Burning a) Unsalvagable
b) Electrical arcing b) Unserviceable
c) Serious cracks c) Salvageable
d) ATA d) serviceable
14) The scope of simple defect rectification , 20) Issue of CAR not comes under the Aircraft act
which can be accomplished by flight crew 1934 is issued by DGCA under the rule
a) Removal/closure of panel/cowling a) 133 A
b) Easily accessible areas does not required b) 133 B
tool c) 133 C
c) Inspection , removal of De-icing/anti-icing d) 133 D
fluids residues
d) ATA 21) Which of the following is considered as NDI
a) Eddy current
15) Where a CAR 145 approved organization b) Boroscope
terminates its operation , how many past c) Welding
documents to d) ATA
be delivered to last owner of operator
a) 3 years 22) Records that are not to be kept by
b) 2 years organization recording certifying & support staff
c) 5 years a) Name
d) 1 year b) DOB
16) Organization may only modify maintenance c) Experience
inspection in accordance with procedure d) Penalties given by previous organization
specification in MOE and those changes should
be informed to
a) Operator 23) Limited certification authorization specified
b) DGCA in
c) TC holder a) Approved maintenance person
d) ATA b) MOE
c) QCM
17) A component is removed from the aircraft is d) ATA
considered as .
a) Component maintenance
b) Aircraft maintenance\ 24) MTS about certifying staff records
c) Base maintenance a) is preserved permanently
d) Line maintenance b) is not preserved
c) given access to the certifying staff
18) The effective way to prevent the upon his request.
unserviceable component to re-entry into d) Not given access to the certifying staff
aviation industry is upon his request.
a) Spraying by paint
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b) Cutting into two piece only 25) In-frequently used tools are
c) Drilling small hole a) All tools are available permanently
b) In-frequently used tools are taken on b) Quality manager through department

loans basis manager
c) Tools are available as per Quality c) Quality manager to accountable manager

manager . d) none
d) Tools are made available as maintenance JUNE -2016:
manager.
1) CA form 1
26) CA form – 1 a) All blocks can be hand written
a) All blocks can be hand written b) Certain blocks are pre-printed
b) Certain blocks are pre-printed c) Only used after maintenance
c) only used after maintenance d) None
d) none
2) MTCS regarding maintenance man-hour
27) Who will release the component after release plan
a) Quality manager a) The maintenance man hour plan to be
b) Support staff revised once in year
c) Certifying staff b) The significant deviation should not be
d) Accountable manager more than 25% short fall for a calender month
c) Planned absence (vacation, holiday) does
28) Line maintenance includes not any role in the man hour plan
a) Defect rectification
b) Component replacement 3) Computer system used maintenance
c) Engine change with help of external record system has to at least one backup system
equipment (or) permission from DGCA which is
d) ATA update at least
a) 24 hours
29) In the case CAR 145 organization may issue b) 48 hours
one-off certification authorization shall be c) 2 days
reported d) One hour
to DGCA
a) Within 24 hours issuance of certification 4) In case CAR 145 the fundamentals of
authorization sub contracting is not accepted to which
b) Within 7 days statement
c) As in (a) flight safety is rechecked by a a) Heat treatment
appropriately approved organization b) Fabrication of specified parts for minor
d) As in (b) flight safety is rechecked by a repair/modification without the need for direct
appropriately approved organization approval
c) Engine work shop maintenance check in
30) .CA Form 2 case of overhauled engine
a) Issue/Renewal/Variation d) Plasma spray
b) Grant/Change
c) Approval Certificate 5) The performance of ground De-icing and
d) ATA Anti-icing activities depend up on
a) Doesn’t required maintenance
31) Significant deviation in man hour plan is organization approval
reported to b) Direct and eliminate De-icing and Anti-
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a) A.M through maintenance engineer icing is considered as maintenance
c) Such inspection should be carried out by a) 133 A of 1937

suitably authorized personnel b) 133 B of 1937
d) ATA c) 133 B of 1934

d) 133 A of 1934
6) The training standard for personnel
performing the Pre-flight inspection is specified 12) A component certifying staff should comply
in with
a) MOE a) Rule 61
b) MOM b) Rule 61 & requirements laid down in CAR
c) AMM Section 2 Series -L Part XIV
d) None c) Rule 61 & requirements in CAR Section -
2 Series L part X
7) Human capabilities and limitations which d) None
have an impact on safety and efficiency of
aeronautical 13) Consumable material which is delivered
operation should have the following information
a) Human factors a) Name of manufacture and storage
b) Human performance condition
c) Both (a) and (b) b) Date of manufacturer and supplier
d) None c) Conformity statement
d) ATA
8) For repetitive Pre-Flight inspection AD
which specifically states 14) Maintenance man-hour plan should be
a) Organization may issue limited reviewed
certification authorization a) Every 3 month and update necessary
b) Or the flight commander on the basis of b) Every month and update necessary
flight crew license held c) Every 6 month and update necessary
c) Sufficient practical training accomplish d) None
the AD
d) ATA 15) To prevent the un-serviceable component re-
e) ATA entering the aviation which method can be used
9) The minimum information should not be a) Permanently marking (or) stamping the
kept on of each certifying staff and support staff component as “Un-Serviceable”
a) Name b) Removing original part number
b) DOB identification
c) Continuation training c) Removing data plate identification
d) Penalties imposed by previous d) Any one of the above
organization
16) CAR 145 approved maintenance
10) CDCCL means organization is class-Aircraft rating in category ‘A’
a) Critical design configuration control approved for
limitation a) Base maintenance
b) Critical designation configuration control b) Line maintenance
limitation c) Both (a) and (b)
c) Both (a) and (b) d) ATA
d) None
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17) Organization approved under 133 B shall be

11) The CAR issued under the provision of approved by prescribed fee which specified in
a) Rule 133 C
b) Rule 62 23) The scope of small organization
c) Rule 133 A a) Limited light aircraft

d) Rule 133 B b) Light aircraft components
c) Used for commercial air transport
18) Quality system procedures specified in which d) ATA
part of MOE
a) Part 1 24) Issue/ variation for approval of AMO as per
b) Part 2 CAR 145
c) Part 3 a) CA Form 2
d) Part 4 b) CA Form 3
c) CA Form 2 appendix IX
19) Issuance of one-off authorization such d) CA Form 2 appendix VII
certification authorization shall be reported to
DGCA 25) Choose non -destructive inspection
a) 7 days a) Magnetic particle
b) 24 days b) Ultrasonic test
c) 3 months c) Boroscopic test
d) 48 hours d) Thermography
26) In line maintenance included
20) Under CAR 145 , the accountable manager a) Defect rectification
of an organization shall appoint b) Major damage repair
a) Maintenance manager c) Engine change
b) Certifying staff d) ATA
c) Person with responsibilities for
monitoring the quality system 27) The accountable manager of an approved
d) ATA maintenance organization under
a) May be accountable manager for more
21) The independent audit should ensure that all than one organization
of CAR 145 compliance are checked b) It is not required to the necessary
a) Every 12 months knowledge on technical knowledge of
b) Every 24 months maintenance
c) Every year standard
d) No required to have audit c) May be line executive officer
d) Both (a) and (b)\
22) MTCS regarding Human Factors training in
an organization 28) In case DGCA permits a CAR 145
a) All the personnel of maintenance maintenance organization
organization shall be initial training should be a) 2 visit per 12 months
provided to b) 2 visits per 24 months
personnel with in 6 months of joining the c) 1 visit per 12 months
organization d) None
b) Temporary staff need not be trained
since their duration 29) Level-1 finding
c) Personnel being recruited from another a) Seriously hazard
maintenance organization need not be trained b) Possibly hazard
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again c) Both (a) and (b)

d) ATA d) None
d) Maintenance records
30) Fuel tank safety-MTCS
3) CAR 145 A.60 specifies

a) Passenger capacity of 30 (or) more maximum a) Occurance reporting
certified payload capacity of 7500 lbs b) Certification of maintenance
(3402 KG) cargo or more. c) Acceptance of components
b) Passenger capacity of 60 (or) more maximum d) Maintenance records
certified payload capacity of 15000 lbs
(8402 KG) cargo or more. 4) Aircraft maintaining by 145 will be
c) Passenger capacity of 100 (or) more maximum a) Aicraft MTOM of less than 5700 kg but
certified payload capacity of 7500 lbs used for commercial purpose
(9402 KG) cargo or more. b) Aircraft MTOM above 5700 kg
d) none c) MI 176 helicopter used for commercial
purpose
31) Endanger the flight safety includes d) ATA
a) Cracking
b) Engine flame out 5) Who is responsible for the proper
c) Hydraulic system fail maintenance carried out and as sufficient
d) ATA maintenance funding
allocation
32) According to CAR 66 AME license is valid for a) AM
a) 1 year b) QCM
b) 2 years c) Both (a)and (b)
c) 3 years d) None
d) 5 years
6) Maintenance man hour plan should be
33) When the defect on the aircraft during revised at least
maintenance inspection (schedule (or) non a) 3 years & update when necessary
schedule) b) 3 months & update when necessary
which must have its origin c) 6 months & update when necessary
a) During routine inspection damage found d) Any one of the above
to number 4 engine , inlet , cowl, acoustic ,lining
b) During routine inspection -rivets found 7) Human capabilities and limitations which
loose on vertical stabilizer have an impact safety & efficiency of
c) Found during after flight inspection aeronautical
d) ATA operation
JUNE 2015: a) Human performance
b) Human factors
1) CAR 145A.47 specifies c) Both are correct
a) Production planning d) None
b) Certification of maintenance
c) Acceptance of components 8) Any maintenance which is carried out
d) Maintenance records before flight to ensure continued validity
a) Line maintenance
2) CAR 145 A.50 specifies b) Pre-flight inspection
a) Production planning c) Base maintenance
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b) Certification of maintenance d) None

c) Acceptance of components
9) For a repetitive pre-flight AD which 15) When the organization is unable to complete
specifically states all maintenance ordered then
a) Organization may issue limited a) CRS may be issued

certification authorizations to flight commander b) CRS may be issued within approval of
b) Or the flight engineer on the basis of aircraft limitation
flight crew license held c) The organizations shall enter such fact in
c) Both (a) and (b) CRS before issue of such certificate
d) None d) Both (b) and (c)
10) The minimum information should be kept on 16) Endanger flight safety means
of each certifying staff & support staff a) Significant cracking, deformation
a) Name b) Failure of primary structure
b) DOB c) Evidence of burning , electrical arcing
c) Continuation training d) ATA
d) Penalties imposed by previous 17) The organization shall retain a copy of all
organization detailed maintenance records and associated
data for
11) CDCCL means a) 3 years
a) Critical design configuration control b) 2 years
limitation c) 1 year
b) Control design configuration critical d) 4 years
limitation
c) Configuration of design and critical 18) The safety&quality policy should as a
control limitations minimum include a statement committing the
d) None organization
to
12) CDCCL constitutes an aircraft modification a) Recognize safety
that should be approved in accordance with b) Encourage personnel to repair (or) errors
a) CAR 145 c) Recognize th compliance with procedure ,
b) CAR M quality standard
c) CAR 21 d) ATA
d) ATA
19) Small organization means
13) When establishing production planning e) Limited light aircraft
procedure , consideration should be given f) Light aircraft components
a) Logistics ,inventory control g) Used for commercial air transport
b) Man-hour estimation man-hour h) ATA
availability
c) Preparation of work , hanger availability 20) The essential element of quality system is
d) ATA a) Quality assurance
b) Quality control
14) When an organization maintains a c) Independent audit
components , for its own use then d) None
a) CA Form 1 may not be necessary
b) CA Form 1 is compulsory 21) Identify the level 1 finding
c) CA Form 1 may be necessary a) Damage to primary structure
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d) None b) Damage to secondary structure

c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None c) CAR 145.30 (e)

d) CAR 145 30 (i)
22) Issue /variation of approval is done in

a) CA Form 2 29) Safety quality policy regarding defect is
b) CA Form 6 mentioned in
c) CA Form 4 a) CAR 145.65 (a)
d) ATA b) CAR 145.65 (b)
c) CAR 145.65 (c)
23) Limitation block in CA form 3 specifies d) CAR 145.65 (d)
a) Type of aircraft
b) Type of engine 30) The internal reporting process should be
c) Components a) Closed loop
d) ATA b) Open loop
c) As in (a) satisfactory flight test is carried
23) Maintenance work includes out
a) Production of work sheets d) As in (b) satisfactory flight test is carried
b) Planning out
c) Maintenance records OCTOBER 2015:
d) ATA
24) Consumable material should be 1) The organization prepares SMS according
a) Acceptable standard to which IAR
b) Conformity to both manufacture and (a) 29D
source (b) CAR section 1 series C part II
c) Both (a) and (b) (c) 29C
d) None ( d) 29B
25) Large aircraft means 2) The organization which is involved in

a) Multi engine aeroplane maintenance carry out SMS according to which
b) Multi engine helicopter CAR
c) Aeroplane MTOM upto 5700 kg (a) section 1 series C part I
d) ATA (b) CAR section 1 series C p-II
(c) CAR section 2 series C p-I
26) CA form 1 may be issued for (d) CAR section 2 series C p- II
a) Aircraft
b) Aircraft components 3) In CAR-145 AMO should develop a
c) NDT system to monitor the
d) ATA (a) Certification authorization
(b) certification authorization inline with AME
27) Component certifying staff will be approved license validity
according to (c) AME license validity
a) CAR sec 2 L series part 10 (d) ATA
b) CAR sec 2 L series part 14
c) CAR sec 2 L series part 12 4) AR-145(revision-1),it should be effective
d) CAR sec 2 L series part 16 from & it should be complied before next revision
before
28) The AM shall responsible for (a) 26th Jan 2005
Page
a) CAR 145.70 (b) 28th Feb 2008

b) CAR 145.65 (c) 8th Oct 2013
(d) 30th June 2015

10) Choose non-destructive inspection
5) According to CAR-145, CAR 145.A.42 (a) magnetic particle

implies (b) ultrasonic test
(a) acceptance of components (c) Boroscopic inspection
(b) facilities (d) Thermography
(c) personal requirements
(d) findings 11) The a/c commander & F E should carry out
simple defect rectification which has been
6) MTCS about small AMO(CAR-145) where enhanced to include
only one person engaged in maintenance then (a) Inspection & removal of deicing /anti-icing
(a) The minimum requirements of one full time fluid residuals
staff who meets the DGCA licensing (b) Removal of panels and closure of cowls
requirements for certifying and hold the position (c) only accessible of the above work should be
of AM carried out without using special tools
(b) The full time for this purpose is not less than (d) ATA
30 hrs per week
(c) The small AMO (CAR-145) for quality audit 12) For repetitive pre- flight AD the a/c
should use a subcontracted org or a person commanders /FE should have a qualification of
with extensive experience &audit background (a) CPL
with agreement of DGCA (b) ATPL
(d) Both A & C are correct (c) FE license
( d) Any one of the above
7) The CA-form 2 in case of CAR-145 AMO is
referred to 13) The CAR-145 AMO will be applicable to which
(a) Approval recommendation report of the following
(b) Issue/renewal (a) The departmental manager directly meet the
(c) approval schedule AM for reporting non-compliance
(d) Post holder acceptance according to (b) The managers employed i.e,BMM&LMM
appendix-V report ultimately through the QM to the AM
8) In a/c component maintenance the (c) Certifying staff may report directly to AM
maintenance man-hour plan should relate the (d) Both A& C are correct
a/c
component planned as specified in 14) The components for which maintenance
(a) 145.A.25 records traceability to the manufacturer cannot
(b) 145.A.25(a)(2) be retrieved applicable to which of the following
(c) 145.A.25(a)(3) statement
(d) 145.A.25(a)(4) (a) Salvageable components
(b) Unsalvagable components
9) MTCS regarding maintenance man-hour (c) a/w component
plan (d) Un-serviceable component
(a) The maintenance man hour plan to be
reviewed every 1 year once 15) The org which is approved in class rating
(b) The significant deviation should not be more category D should hold & use
than 25% shortfall for a calendar month (a) Specialized service process specifications
(c) Planned absence (vacations, holidays )does (b) TC data sheet
Page
not play any role in the man hour plan (c) NDT manual and parts catalog
(d) ATA (d) Engine/APU maintenance manual
16) Any modification of maintenance instruction 22) The CAR-145 maintenance org with class
linked to CDCCL constitutes a/c rating A or B or C carry NDT according to

modifications that be approved in accordance (a) Carry out NDT on product which the
with organization maintains
(a) CAR-m Subpart-F (b) The procedure is mentioned in the MOE
(b) CAR-145 without need for a class D rating
(c) CAR-21 (c) Both A&B
(d) CAR 145.A.45(d)
23) According to CAR-145 the fuel tank safety
17) Computer system used for maintenance training is applicable to which maximum
record system have at least one backup system certified payload capacity
which is updated at least within (a) 5700 kg
(a) 24 hrs (b) 7500 kg
(b) 48 hrs (c) 5700 lbs
(c) 2 days (d) 7500 lbs
(d) one hour
24) To witness any relevant testing & visually
18) The AMO shall report the unsafe condition inspect the product & associated documentation
that hazard seriously the flight safety to is
(a) DGCA (a) Quality audit check
(b) To the TC/SC holder (b) Sample check of product
(c) To state of registry (if applicable) (c) Quality control check
( d) ATA (d) Independent check/quality feedback check
19) In case of Car-145 the fundamentals of sub- 25) The performance of ground De-icing & anti-
contracting is not applicable to which statement icing activities depend upon
(a) Heat treatment (a) Doesn’t required maintenance org approval
(b) Fabrication of specified parts for minor (b) Detect & eliminate De –icing and anti-icing is
repair/modifications without the need for direct considered as maintenance
approval (c) Such inspection should be carried out by
(c) engine workshop maintenance check in case suitably authorized personnel
of overhauled engine (d) ATA
(d) plasma spray
20) In CAR-145.A.95 implies, in case of level 1 FEBRUARY 2015:

findings
(a) significant non-compliance with CAR-145 1) If a person want to get CAR 145 approval
(b) Lowers the safety standards then
(c) hazards seriously the flight safety a) Nominate a AM in CA form
(d) ATA b) Nominate post holder according to
145..30
21) The alteration of an item in conformity with c) Apply for CAR 145 approval in CA form 4
an approved standard is d) ATA
(a) Modifications
(b) Reassembled 2) Which of the following changes shall not
Page
(c) Overhauled be intimated by DGCA

(d) Retreated a) Name of the organization
b) Additional line maintenance location

c) When certifying staff resigns 9) Part 0 of MOE specifies
d) When post holders resigns a) Only for CAR 145 organization

b) As in (a) and also operator running their
3) Which needs a additional approval service operated outside India
a) Line facility located in main base facility c) As in (a) and also operator running their
b) Base facility not located in line facility service operated within India
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
d) None
10) Part 4 of MOE specifies
4) If an aircraft suffers from damage , then a) Contracted operators only
a) Repair the aircraft as per manufacturer b) Operators only
instructions c) Both (a) and (b)
b) Repair the aircraft as per the AD d) None
c) Repair the aircraft as per maintenance
program 11) Which of the following details regarding
d) ATA certifying staff are not maintained by
organization
5) The MOE specified in a) Name of personnel
a) CAR 145 A.30 b) Penalties imposed by other organization
b) CAR 145 A.35 c) Continuation training
c) CAR 145 A.50 d) None
d) CAR 145 A.70
12) Which termed as Endangers the flight safety
6) Acceptance of fabric parts for the use a) Fires during flight
aircraft is specified in b) Electrical arcing
a) 145.A.40 c) Aircraft over due
b) 145.A.45 d) ATA
c) 145.A.47
d) 145.A.42 13) Consumable material should be
accomplished by
7) Organization approved under CAR 145 a) Statement of conformity
shall be maintain b) Manufacturers and suppliers source
a) Single engine aircraft with MTOW of less c) Storage condition and life limitation
than 5700 kg but used in commercial operation d) ATA
b) Aircraft with MTOW of less than 5700 kg
but not used for commercial purpose 16) CA form 3 issued for maintenance
c) MI-145 helicopter used for non- organization which is maintaining
commercial purpose a) Complete aeroplane/ helicopter
d) ATA b) Aero engine
c) Maintaining components
8) The limited certification is specified in d) ATA
a) Flight manual
b) Operation manual 17) Manufacturers issues a new instructions in
c) Aircraft maintenance program the form
d) MOE a) Service bulletin
Page
b) Service instruction
c) Service letters
d) ATA
24) CA form 4 is for
18) Independent audit check shall be a) Authorized release certificate

a) Done as single exercise in a 12 month b) Acceptance of post holder
period c) Approval for AMO
b) Sub divided over 12 month period d) None
c) By a person not responsible for quality
system 25) MTCS -Data for modification and repair
d) ATA a) Shall be approved as per CAR 21 , EASA
21, FAR 21
b) Can be an AMP
c) Can be an AD
19) What are included in SMS d) ATA
a) Identify the safety hazards
b) Assesses the impact of these safety 26) Aircraft grounded at location other than main
hazards and mitigates risks base where no appropriate certifying staff are
c) Ensure that remedial action necessary to available the organization shall contract to
maintain as acceptable level of safety is provide maintenance support may issue one
implemented authorization reported to DGCA
d) ATA a) With in 24 hours
b) With in 48 hours
20) Aim of occurance reporting is to c) With in 72 hours
a) Encourage free and frank reporting d) With in 7 days
b) Should be closed loop, ensuring that
action are taken internally to address safety
hazards 27) For which CAR 145 requires CAT-A approval
c) Both (a) and (b) a) Base maintenance facility
d) None b) Line maintenance facility
c) Both (a) and (b)
21) Sample check by internal audit group should d) None
be checked
a) Visual inspection only 28) Who will ensure that component is in
b) Visual inspection and checking condition of release (or) not
documents a) Quality manager
c) Either (a) or (b) b) Accountable manager
d) None c) Certifying staff
d) Quality assurance staff
22) CA Form 2 authorizes
a) Issue/variation of G organization 29) Maintenance man-hour plan should be
b) Issue / variation of F organization reviewed in
c) Issue /variation of 145 organization a) Monthly basis
d) ATA b) Every 3 month
c) Every 6 month
23) Procedure for refresher course is involved in d) Every 12 month
a) Training manual
b) Quality manual 30) What is general aviation
Page
c) Supplementary procedure a) Air transport operation used for transport

d) ATA of passenger for remuneration purpose
b) Air transport operation used for other a) All the personnel of maintenance
than commercial purpose (Or) aerial work aircraft organization shall be initial training should be
c) Air transport operation used for the provided to

transport of mails and goods personnel within 6 month of the joining the
d) ATA organization
b) Temporary staff need not be trained
JUNE 2014: since their duration
c) Personnel being recruited from another
1) CAR 145 issue 2 is based on maintenance organization need not be trained
a) EASA part 145 again
b) SARI 145 d) ATA
c) JAR 145
d) FAR 145 7) In case DGAC permits a CAR 145
maintenance organization as per regulation
2) Line maintenance include monitoring tasks
a) Dismantling to any organization having capability to carry out
b) Major Damage rectification such job (or) a person by contracted
c) Component replacement organization (or) person prescribed in CAR is
d) None a) 1 visit per 12 months
b) 2 visit per 12 months
3) Issuance of such certification c) 3 visit per 12 months
auththorization shall be reported to DGCA d) None
a) Within 7 days
b) Within 2 days 8) One of the salient future of the revision of
c) Within 8 days CAR 145 issue 2
d) Within 2 weeks a) Critical deficiency configuration control
limitation
4) For each maintenance organization b) Critical design configuration control
under CAR 145 these will be sufficient limitation
a) Manager (or) different steps may respect c) Component design control limitation
to directly to accountable manager d) None
b) It is necessary that there managers (or)
different areas report to BMM (or) LMM , QM is 9) Replacement of aircraft maintenance &
appropriate to the Accountable manager APU aircraft batteries included in
c) Certifying staff directly report to a) Base maintenance
accountable manager b) Minor schedule line maintenance
d) ATA c) Major defect rectification
d) None
‘5) The accountable manager of an AMO under
a) May be AM for more than one 10) Certification authorization issued to
organization a) Support staff
b) It is not required to the necessary b) Certifying staff
Knowledge c) Both (a) and (b)
c) May be line executive officer position d) None
d) Both (a) and (b)
11) CDCCL are aircraft limitation any
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6) MTCS ( regarding human factor training modification included to the CDCCL constitutes
in organization) on aircraft
modification should be approved in accordance

with
a) CAR M
b) CAR 145 OCTOBER - 2014
c) CAR 21
d) CAR 66
1) The organization approval on class A
12) A defect defected on the aircraft during a a) Base &line maintenance of 5700 kg and
maintenance inspection which may have its below (piston engine only)
origin in b) Aircraft base and line maintenance of
maintenance (or) design error single engine helicopter of less than 3175 kg
a) Damage found to number 4 engine inlet c) Components
cowl acoustic lining d) None
b) Rivet found loose on vertical stabilizer
c) Excessive ply on tail rotor blade pitch line 2) The contracted quality maintaining
bearing at the attachment to the tail rotor blade organization
horn due to bearing migration a) Will make 2 visit in 2 years
d) ATA b) 1 visit in 12 months
c) 1 visit in 2 years
13) MTCS (regarding Independent audit) d) 2 visit in 1 year
a) Independent audit should include a
random audits carried out on sample basis 3) The maintenance man-hour plan will be
b) Night for those organization that works at renewal
night a) Every 6months
c) Independent audit are checked every 12 b) Every 3 months
months c) Every year
d) ATA d) Every 2 year
14) Organization & personnel involved in the 4) Continuation training provided every
aircraft (or) aircraft components including a) 1 year
maintenance b) 2 years
shall comply with the provision of c) 6 months
a) CAR M d) 3 months
b) CAR 145
c) Requirements for licensing (or) aircraft 5) Endanger flight safety means
maintenance personnel as appropriate a) Any significant cracking ,clarification
d) ATA corrosion (or) future of primary structure
b) Any evidence of significant leak in
15) Under CAR 145 the accountable manager hydraulic fluid electrical
organization shall appoint a c) Airworthiness overdue
a) Maintenance manager d) ATA
b) Certifying staff
c) Person with responsibility for monitoring 6) To permit the acceptance of specialized
the quality system maintenance services, such as planning , heat
d) ATA treatment,
plasma spray fabrication of special parts
Page
a) Direct approval by DGCA is necessary

b) Direct approval by RAO is necessary
c) As in (a) (or) by indirect approval 13) The maintenance organization which carry
d) As in (b) (or) by indirect approval out maintenance shall in case of any condition
affecting the aircraft component to

7) To ensure the task (or) group of tasks is a) Owner/operator
completed it should be signed off by b) DGCA
a) Authorized personnel c) RAO
b) Approved personnel d) ATA
c) Certifying staff
d) Both (b) and (c) 14) What is the part 4 of MOE
a) Contracted maintenance
8) The organization may modify b) Airworthiness review procedure
maintenance instructions in accordance with c) Quality system
MOE and the same d) None
shall be informed to
a) Owner/operator 15) The deviation of maintenance man hour plan
b) DGCA should be of
c) TC holder a) More than25% of short fall
d) ATA b) Less than 25 % of short fall
c) Not more than25% of short fall
9) CA form 1 issued for d) None
a) Aircraft
b) Aircraft components 16) The backup system for the maintenance
c) Both (a) and (b) which is carried out should be
d) None a) Updated every 24 hours
b) Should be electronic (Or) written format
10) For the issue of limited certification a flight c) Both (a) and (b)
engineer should hold d) None
a) ATPL
b) CPL 17) Who will approve alternative tools
c) Flight engineer license a) RAO
d) ATA b) QCM
c) DGCA
11) Boroscoping and other techniques such as d) None
coin tapping classified as
a) Non-destructive inspection 18) New amendments made by
b) Non-destructive testing a) Vertical line on the left hand side of the
c) Special maintenance activity amendments
d) Both (2) and (3) b) Horizontal line under the amendments
c) Vertical line on the right hand side of the
12) According to CAR 145 , any significant non- amendments
compliance which could lower the safety hazard d) None
seriously the flight safety is classified as
a) Level 1 findings 19) What are the requirements for flight crew to
b) Level 2 findings have pre-flight inspection
c) Level 3 findings a) ATPL
d) Level 4 findings b) AME license
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c) Radio R7
d) None
d) ATA
20) How manufactures issues changes to their
products 26) Fuel tank training of aircraft with maximum

a) SB pay load capacity of
b) SL a) 5700 kg
c) MMEL b) 7500 kg
d) Both (a) and (b) c) 5700 lbs
d) 7500 lbs
21) B2 maintenance for
a) Base & line maintenance for helicopter 27) organization means
less than 3175 kg a) Natural person
b) Components b) Legal person
c) Piston engines with maximum output less c) Part of legal person
than 450Hp d) ATA
d) ATA
28) If an organization having one person
22) Category B approved organization shall contracted to an authorized person (or) an
a) Carry maintenance on aircraft including organization the
engine and APU internal audit is carried out
b) Carry maintenance on aircraft a) 1 visit per 12 month
c) Carry maintenance on uninstalled engine b) 2 visit per 12 month
/APU c) 2 visit per 24 month
d) Carry maintenance on aircraft excluding d) 1 visit per 24 month
engine
29) Which of the following NDI
23) MTCS a) Colour contrast
a) CAR 145 organization of category B can b) Dye penetrant
work on installed engine subject to control c) Boroscoping
procedure mentioned in MOE d) Magnetic particle
b) CAT-A can work on installed aircraft and
component excluding engine 30 Re-fitment of used Tyre at the same position
c) CAT- C can work on uninstall components a) Repair
including engine and APU b) Modification
d) ATA c) Inspection
d) None
24) Finding which may possibly affect the aircraft
flight safety 31) In CAR 145 the person holding the aircraft
a) Level-1 type rated license may notify the position of
b) Level-2 a) Certifying staff
c) Level-3 b) AME
d) Level-4 c) Line manager
d) Base manager
25) MTCS (regarding component installation)
a) Checking eligibility of components after 32) Tasks that can be certified by the aircraft
installation commander (or) the flight engineer
b) CA form 1 is issued a) Replacement of internal light , filament
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c) Standard parts should be used and flash tubes

accordance with CAR 21
b) Closing of cowlings and re-fitment of 38) Issue of CAR not comes under the aircraft act
quick access inspection panels 1934 is issued by DGCA under rule
c) Inspection for and removal of de-icing a) 133 A

/anti-icing fluid residues including b) 133 B
removal/closure c) 132
of panels , cowls (or) covers that are easily d) 134
accessible but not requiring the use of special
tools 39) Organization approval fees required under
d) ATA the rule
a) 133 B itself
33) Records that are not to be kept by b) 133 A
organization regarding certifying staff and c) 133 C
support staff d) 132 C
a) DOB
b) Recurrent training 40) Re-storing of used Tyre in conformity with
c) Experience approved standard
d) Penalties given by previous organization a) Overhauled
/DGCA b) Modified
c) Retreated
34) MTCS (regarding MOE) d) Inspected
a) Minor amendments- indirect approval
procedure mentioned in MOE 41) MTCS
b) Electronic publication a) Where the hanger is not owned by
c) Refer to SMS manual organization it may be necessary to establish
d) ATA proof of
tenancy
35) According to CAR 145 , person who got type b) For line maintenance aircraft hanger are
rated DGCA license not essential
a) Certifying staff c) Aircraft maintenance staff should be
b) AME provided with an area where they may study
c) Any approved person maintenance
d) None d) ATA
36) Who has the responsibility to ensure access 42) The organization has sufficient staff to plan ,
of DGCA persons to the organization perform, supervise, inspect &quality monitor the
a) Owner a) Maintenance man hour plan
b) Owner/operator b) Exchange plan
c) AMO c) Maintenance chain plan
d) ATA d) Maintenance work schedule plan
37) Which is correct regarding “sign -off” 43) Who is responsible for ensuring that all
a) It is similar to release to service sources available to establish the standard
b) It is a statement only signed by certifying maintenance
staff procedure
c) It relate to one step in maintenance a) Accountable manager
process b) Line maintenance manager
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d) ATA c) Base maintenance manager

d) Workshop manager
44) Where maintenance organization is 2) Control Colour Contrast dye penetrant

contracted by commercial operator to carry out dust is carried out by

maintenance a) Standard organized by DGCA
organization shall b) Certifying staff
a) DGCA only c) Both (a) and (b)
b) Operator only d) None
c) DGCA & operator
d) Owner 3) CAR 145 audit time periods specified in
this AMC 145.A65
45) MTCS ( regarding MOE) a) 50%
a) It is relates to SMSM b) 100%
b) Operator may issue EDP for publishing c) 25%
c) Amendment of MOE may approve d) Specified by DGCA
through indirect approval
d) ATA 4) Components typically classified as
unsalvagable
46) Quality system procedure is part of MOE a) CA Form 1 is lost
a) Part 1 b) CA Form 1 is became invalid
b) Part 2 c) Components that do not meet design
c) Part 3 specification and cannot be brought into conform
d) Part 4 with
such specification
47) CAR 145 AMO carry major repair as per d) ATA
a) CAR-145
b) CAR-M 5) As per CAR 145 the maintenance data
c) CAR-21 shall be
d) Sub part m of CAR 21 a) Any applicable data as per AD issued by
48) Who responsible to ensure that the task DGCA
training reciver by person cover all task to be b) Instructions issued by TC/STC holders
authorize c) Operational direction issued by DGCA
a) AM & operator only d) ATA
b) Operator
c) Owner 6) As per CAR 145 Independent audit the
d) Organization only sample check of the product means
a) Dis-assembly , assembly and testing
b) Witness any relevant testing / visually
FEBRUARY 2013: inspect the product
c) Cross reference the relevant document
1) CAR 145 approved maintenance d) ATA
organization is applicable for
a) Large aircraft not used for commercial 7) When an organization with an approval
operation class rating in category B - engine /APU should
b) Small aircraft used for commercial hold and
operation use the following maintenance data where
c) MI-7 helicopter not used for commercial published
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operation a) Appropriate section of the engine/APU

d) ATA maintenance and repair manual
b) NDI manual part catalog , type certified a) EASA 145

data sheet b) FAA 145
c) Any other document issued by type c) JAR 145

certificate holder as maintenance data d) ATA
d) ATA
8) CAR 145 class component rating other 14) It permissible to temporarily fit a component
than complete engine (or) APU without CA form 1 for a maximum of
a) C1 to C2 a) 30 hours
b) As per capability list above b) 10 hours
c) NDT c) 50 hours
d) ATA d) 20 hours
9) The approval for CAR 145 organization is 15) The CAT-D rating class of maintenance
under the IAR of 1937 organization shall carry out NDT for aircraft and
a) 133 A aircrfta
b) 133 B component will be rated under
c) 133 C a) CAT-A rating approval
d) 133 D b) CAT-B rating approval
c) Both (a) and (b) are wrong
10) The application for the approval for CAR 145 d) As in (c) it requires specialized service
organization will be filled by the application approval
a) CA -1
b) CA-2 16) The types of limitation possible and which
c) CA-3 maintenance is listed in each class rating
d) CA-4 a) Aircraft type
b) Engine’s type
11) In CAR 145 aircraft material both raw and c) Component manufactures
consumable used in the course of maintenance d) ATA
when
the organization is satisfied that the material
must meet required specification and have 17) In the organization any changes occurs ,
appropriate traceability agreed by DGCA is which changes need not to inform to DGCA
a) 145 A.42 a) Name of the organization
b) 145 A.20 b) Certifying staff resigned
c) 145 A.40 c) Additional line maintenance included
d) 145 A.35 d) ATA
12) As per CAR 145 category A class rating 18) In CAR 145 NDT task is carried out by the
approved maintenance organization may be organization (or) person approved by DGCA with
approved for qualification
a) Line facility located at main base facility a) Personnel qualified to carryout and to
required line facility approved certified non-destructive task of the aircraft
b) Not required base maintenance approval component
c) Both (a) and (b) b) On basis of a standard recognizing by
d) None DGCA may continue to carry out and for certify
such
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13) CAR 145 is changed into requirement is test

based on c) Certifying staff only carryout NDT
d) Both (a) and (b) a) Organization name

b) Additional location
19) The independent audit should be carried out c) Certifying staff

complet single exercise (or) sub divided over the d) Any person listed in certifying staff
a) 6 months
b) 12 months 6) According to CAR 145 independent audit
c) 24 month is carried out
d) ATA a) Check at every 12 months
b) Or undivided over the 12 months period
20) Contracted operator comes under which part in accordance with schedule plan
of MOE c) It may be carried out by ab authorized
a) Part 0 person , not responsible for airworthiness
b) Part 1 d) ATA
c) Part 2
d) Part 3 7) Requirement for approval of CAR 145
a) Requirement in accordance with 30 B
JUNE 2013 b) Statement signed by AM of approval
organization in CA form and given to DGCA
c) Both (a) and (b)
1) Limitation in approval schedule CA form d) ATA
3
a) Type aircraft 8) Aircraft is grounded from main base and
b) Engine no appropriate maintenance facility for
c) Airframe maintenance
d) ATA then
a) A relation make a operator for
2) MOE given in maintenance
a) 145 A.65 b) Operator may issue a one -off
b) 145 A.70 authorization to person
c) 145 A.75 c) Organization may issue one off
d) 145 A.80 authorization to a person
d) As in (c) check appropriate knowledge
3) Material specifies in acceptance in and maintenance experience of the person
a) 145 A.70
b) 145 A.60 OCTOBER 2013:
c) 145 A.42
d) 145 A.40 1) Material specified in acceptance in CAR
145
4) 145 organization require approval in a) 145 A.70
which CAT-A b) 145 A.60
a) Line station located at base station c) 145 A.42
b) Base maintenance restricted in line d) 145 A.40
station
c) Both (a) and (b) 2) Carry any change in organization not
d) None required to report to DGCA
a) Organization name
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5) Change in 145 organization not required b) Additional location

to report to DGCA c) Certifying staff
d) Any person listed in certifying staff c) Maintenance uninstalled component

excluding engine &APU
3) For component without CRS it is d) Maintenance uninstalled component

permissible to fit for including engine & APU
a) 50 hours
b) 30 hours 10) Sample check of product means
c) 20 hours a) Witness and relevant testing
d) None b) Visually inspect the product
c) Both (a) and (b)
4) Certification authorization is issued by d) None
organization to
a) Authorized person 11) AM in large maintenance organization
b) Approved person meeting with senior staff
c) Certifying staff a) Once in a year
d) None b) Once in 6 months
c) Twice in a year
5) If accountable manager is absent in case d) Twice in 6 months
approval can suspend
a) 30 days 12) Quality audit procedures specified in
b) 45 days a) Part 1
c) 60 days b) Part 2
d) 90 days c) Part 3
d) Part 4
6) CRS shall be issued in the case of
a) Major maintenance 13) In case of jet engine age can be determined
b) Minor maintenance by
c) Both (a) and (b) a) Number of take off and landing
d) None b) Number of pressurization cycle
c) Age
7) New defect (or) incomplete maintenance d) ATA
work orders identified during the above
maintenance 14) Component shall be classified as un-
shall be brought to the attention of serviceable is
a) Aircraft owner a) Removed from the aircraft whose C of A
b) DGCA invalid
c) Aircraft operator b) Component has reached certified life
d) None limit
c) Necessary information to determine AD is
8) Authorized release certificate not available
a) CA form 1 d) Both (b) and (c)
b) CA form 2
c) CA form 3 15) Continuation airworthiness application
d) None schedule form
a) CA form 1
9) CAT -C class rating means b) CA form 2
a) Maintenance component c) CA form 3
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b) Maintenance uninstalled component d) CA form 4
16) In case of level 2 finding , corrective action 22) organizations retains copy of detailed
plan & demonstrated corrective action should be maintenance record for
given a) 2 years
a) 30 days b) 3 years
b) 90 days c) 4 years
c) 7 days d) 5 years
d) 1 week
23) CA form 4 is
a) Acceptance of components’
17) Class for NDT should give b) Acceptance of post holders
a) Aircraft c) CRS for specialized service
b) Engine d) None
c) Component other than complete engine
/APU 24) Private operator having aircraft above 5700
d) Specialized service kg maintained by
a) CAR 145
18) In case of complete maintenance authorized b) CAR M
release document given on c) CAR 21
a) CA form 1 d) None
b) CA form 2
c) CA form 3 FEBRUARY 2012:
d) CA form 4
19) CRS is issued for 1) Independent audit for small organization

a) Sub task should be carried out
b) The CRS relate to task specified in the a) Once in 2 years
manufacturing instruction b) Twice in a year
c) As in (b) when extension has been c) Thrice in a year
carried out , it is acceptance for the CRS to d) Once in a year
summarize
the maintenance , so long as there is unique 2) MTCS
cross reference a) Organization have more than 500
d) ATA maintenance staff should have a dedicated
quality audit
20) After carrying out any modification it is group
responsibility of owner to intimate to the b) Organization having less than 500
a) Manufacture maintenance staff should have a dedicated
b) Operator quality audit
c) Owner group
d) None c) Organization having more than 500
maintenance staff can use any competent
21) If the operator wants to use alternative personnel from
tooling (or) equipment one section / department to audit the section /
a) Agreed by DGCA specified in MOE department
b) Agreed by RAO specified in MOE d) None
c) Agreed by QCM specified in MOE
Page
d) ATA 3) Quality system procedure of MOE is

a) Part 0
b) Part 3
c) Part 4 9) Duties& Responsibilities of management
d) Part 6 personnel is given in which part of MOE

a) Part 0
4) For CAR 145 small organization b) Part 1
a) AM may be line manager c) Part 2
b) AM may be line manager (or) workshop d) Part 4
manager
c) AM may be quality manager (or) 10) Aircraft taxing procedure , engine running
workshop manager procedure is given in which part of MOE
d) ATA a) Part 0
b) Part 2
5) MTCS c) Part 3
a) When the accountable manger is not the d) Part 4
CEO , CEO should be accepted by DGCA
b) AM may be AM for more than one 11) Maintenance data include
organization a) Any applicable AD is issued by DGCA
c) AM need not require to have technical b) Instruction for continuing airworthiness is
knowledge as it is stated in MOE issued by TC /STC holder
d) ATA c) Operational directives (or) information
issued by DGCA
6) Record pertaining to independent quality d) ATA
audit & quality feed back system should be
retained for 12) Production planning include
a) 2 years a) Scheduling the maintenance work ahead
b) 1 year to ensure that if does not interface with other
c) 3 years work
d) 6months b) During maintenance work, organizing
maintenance team & shifts & provide all
7) The independent audit CAR 145 the necessary
sample check means support to the completion of maintenance
a) Repeat reassembly (or) testing under ensure without undue time pressure
sample check identifies finding c) Consideration should be given man hour
b) To witness any relevant testing & visual estimation , preparation of work hanger
inspect the product & associated documentation availability
c) Disassembly , reassembly & testing d) ATA
d) To assess the knowledge 0f certifying
staff 13) CAR 145 is applicable for
a) Large aircraft fitted with turbine engine
8) Which of the following forms the part of b) Aeroplane of MTOM >5700 kg
maintenance organization exposition c) Multi engine helicopter
a) Safety policy & description of man power d) Both (b) and (c)
resources
b) Shift/task handover procedure 14) Private aircraft MTOM more than 5700kg is
c) Control of man-hour plan vs schedule maintained by
maintenance work a) Sub part F CAR -M
Page
d) Procedure for notification of maintenance b) CAR 145 AMO

data, inaccuracies & ambiguity to the TC holder c) Sub part G CAR-M
d) Approved maintenance on SEC-2 series E 21) Operator shall be implement safety

management system to
15) Components of twine engine helicopter is a) TC holder identifies safety hazard

maintained by b) As in (a) ensure the implementation of
a) CAR M sub part F remedial action necessary to maintain agreed
b) CAR 145 safety
c) CAR M sub part G performance
d) CAR Sec-2 L part X c) Provide for continuous monitoring &
regular assessment of safety performance
d) As in (c) aims at overall safety of
16) NSOP aircraft is maintained by organization
a) CAR Sec2 Series E
b) CAR M sub part F 22) Safety program includes
c) CAR 145 a) The legislative and regulatory provisions
d) CAR M sub part G b) Provisions relating to activities such as
incident reporting , safety investigations
17) Component maintained by workshop is c) Safety audit and safety promotions
issued with authorized release document d) ATA
a) CA form 3
b) CA form 2 23) Aircraft defects recorded as per
c) CA form 1 a) DGCA instructions
d) CA form 4 b) ATA -100 code wise
c) RAO instructions
18) Approval schedule for maintenance d) ICAO
organization is issued in CAR 145
a) CA form 2 24) NDT is performed in an aircraft as
b) CA form 3 a) Non schedule maintenance
c) CA form 4 b) Specialized activities
d) CA form 6 c) Schedule maintenance
d) None
19) In case of CAR 145 organization ,
acceptance of nominated post holder is on 25) Line maintenance requirement in MOE is
a) CA form 2 given in
b) CA form 3 a) Part 8
c) CA form 1 b) Part 7
d) CA form 4 c) Part 3
d) Part 4
20) Component shall be classified as un-
serviceable 26) NDT in CAR 145 rating of class
a) Removed from the aircraft whose C of A a) Specialized process
is invalid b) A2
b) Component has reached certified life c) D1
limit d) A4
c) Necessary information to determine the
airworthiness status is not available 27) Class C are carry out maintenance on
d) Both (b) and (c) installed component where
Page
a) Maintenance in base & line maintenance

b) At engine /APU maintenance facility
c) Control procedure in MOE

d) ATA
JUNE 2012:
28) CAR 145 defects certified as per
a) AMO procedure
b) DGCA allows contract with foreign major 1) The responsibility of AM are
organization maintenance for primary parts a) Ensure all resources are available to
c) DGCA gives concession if modification accomplish maintenance in accordance with
cant be done 145.A.05
d) ATA b) Establish and promote safety and quality
policy
29) Continuation training is c) Demonstrate the basic understanding of
a) Two way process CAR 145
b) Approved course d) ATA
c) Training on human factor
d) ATA 2) Authorized release certificate is
a) CA form 1
30) Maintenance man -hour plan should be b) CA form 2
based on c) CA form 3
a) Minimum maintenance work load need d) CA form 1F
for commercial viability
b) Maximum maintenance work load need 3) MTCS
for commercial viability a) Where the manufacturer specifies a
c) Both (a) and (b) particular tool (or) equipment the organization
d) None shall use
that tool (or) equipment
31) For repetitive pre-flight AD can be carried out b) Organization can use alternative tooling
by (or) equipment
a) Flight commander / flight engineer c) As in (b) via procedure specified in
b) Flight commander exposition
c) PIC d) ATA
d) DGCA
4) MTCS
32) When there is only one person for all carry a) A large AMO under CAR 145 being an
combination then up to Accountable manager organization with more than 500 maintenance
a) Directly staff
b) Through either base manager (or) Line should have dedicated quality audit group
manager (or) any one to Accountable manager b) A large AMO under CAR 145 being an
c) DGCA organization with more than 500 maintenance
d) None staff
should have dedicated quality group with more
33) Boroscopic inspection for engine than 100 maintenance staff
a) By category “C” AME c) Small organization should have a
b) By specially approved person dedicated quality audit team
c) By AME Category “C” type rated for d) None
engine
Page
d) None 5) Class rating A3 means
a) Single engine helicopter line &

maintenance less than 3175 kg 11) Certification authorization issued by
b) Single engine helicopter line & a) Organization quality manager

maintenance less than 5700 kg b) DGCA
c) Single engine aeroplane less than 5700 c) Accountable manager
kg base maintenance d) None
d) None
12) According to CAR 145 all maintenance
6) Turbine engine aircraft 5700 kg and organization preserve record for a period of
below line maintenance includes in a) 2 years
a) Rating A1 b) 3 years
b) Rating A2 c) 4 years
c) Rating A3 d) 10 years
d) Rating A4
13) When the aircraft is grounded at a location
7) New defects (or) incomplete other than main base station /line station, it is
maintenance work orders identified during the permissible to temporarily fit a component
maintenance shall be without appropriate release certificate for a
brought to the attention of maximum
a) Operator period of
b) Manufacturer a) 30 flight hours
c) DGCA b) 25 flight hours
d) PIC c) 35 flight hours
d) None
8) Private aircraft more than 5700 kg is 14) The independent audit CAR 145 the sample
maintained by check means
a) CAR 145 organization a) Repeat reassembly (or) testing under
b) CAR 21 organization sample check identifying finding
c) CAR M sub part F organization b) To witness any relevant testing & visual
inspect the product & associated documentation
9) MTCS c) Disassembly , reassembly & testing
a) The organization shall hold and use d) To assess the knowledge of certifying
applicable current maintenance data in the staff
performance
of maintenance including modification and repair 15) The organization responsible for continuing
b) The organization can modify airworthiness shall report any identified condition
maintenance instructions according to procedure of
given in the an aircraft (or) component which endanger flight
maintenance organization exposition to
c) Both (a) and (b) a) DGCA
d) None b) Organization responsible for type design
aircraft
10) CAR 145 is applicable to c) Airworthiness authority of state of registry
a) Small aircraft used for commercial d) ATA
purpose and part fitment thereof
b) Large aircraft 16) Continuing airworthiness records include
Page
c) Both (a) and (b) a) Aircraft log book, engine log book,
d) None propeller log book
b) Log cards for any service life limited parts

c) Maintenance program 7) Any new (or) incomplete defect during
d) Both (a) and (b) maintenance shall be brought to notice of

a) Manufacture
b) Aircraft operator
c) DGCA
OCTOBER 2012: d) None
1) As per CAR 145 ,A2 Aeroplanes 8) In case of modified maintenance

a) Line/base maintenance piston engine inspection it shall be carried in accordance with
5700 kg the procedure
b) Base maintenance turbine engine below a) As specified in MOE
5700 kg b) In consultation with TC holder
c) Not limited c) DGCA standards
d) None d) ATA
2) Certifying staff record kept for 9) As per CAR 145 , class rating B shall hold
a) 2 years a) APU/engine repair manual, TCDS, part
b) 3 years catalog
c) 4 years b) SB /SL
d) None c) Information by TC holder as maintenance
data , modification letters
3) Hold a valid ATPL/CPL license a pilot can d) ATA
carry
a) Minor maintenance 10) 145.A.30 in CAR 145
b) Simple checks a) Tools & Equipment
c) Both (a) and (b) b) Accountable manager
d) As in (c) issue limited certification c) Maintenance data
authorization d) Personal requirement
4) Authorized release certificate should not 11) The person performing under contracts , dye
issued for penetrant NDT shall in such case
a) Component maintenance a) DGCA licensing requirement
b) Defect rectification b) Shall hold relevant C of C
c) Transit c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Aircraft maintenance d) ATA
5) Acceptance of component 12) Certification authorization is issued by

a) CA form 6 organization to
b) CA form 2 a) Authorized person
c) CA form 3 b) Any approved person
d) CA form 1 c) Certifying staff
6) For component with out CRS , it is d) Nominated person
permissible to fit for max
a) 50 hours 13) In case of level 1& level 2 finding the
b) 30 hours corrective action shall be taken within period of
Page
c) 20 hours a) 7 days
d) None b) 72 hours
c) 30 days b) CRS should be issued for the complete

d) As agreed by DGCA task specified in the manufacture (or) operator
instruction
14) Certifying staff shall produce their c) As in (b) when extensive maintenance
certification and authorization to any authorized have been carried and it is acceptable for CRS
person of approval holder to summarize the sub task so
DGCA within long as there a unique cross reference to the
a) 24 hours work task
b) 30 hours d) ATA
c) 48 hours
d) None 20) All the records pertaining to independent
quality system and quality audit
15) MTCS a) 1 year
a) Computerized records are accepted in b) 2 years
maintenance c) 5 years
b) Hard copies are also required when d) 10 years
computerized paper are use
c) Hard copies should have backup system 21) During independent audit of a CAR 145
d) ATA approved organization , the sample check of a
product
16) The organization may carry repair on means
parts/components shall be approved as per a) Repeat disassembly on testing of a
a) CAR 145 product
b) CAR 21 sub part m b) To witness any relevant testing and
c) CAR M sub part f visually inspect the product
d) ATA c) Disassembly and testing of a product
d) Interviewing a certifying staff who
17) Occurance reporting shall be made by certified the product
operators
a) As specified by AMO 22) In case of minor schedule line maintenance
b) AMO shall make note to operator and simple defect rectification organization shall
c) With in 72 hours of occurance a) Use BAMEL holder
d) ATA b) Provided they have undergone type
training and approved course
18) In smallest organization under CAR 145 c) DGCA AME licensed engineer
where a maximum of 10 personnel actively d) Both (a) and (b)
engaged in
maintenance , may choose to contract the 23) Who shall responsible for the appointment of
independent audit element with the condition quality assurance
that audit a) AM
being carried out b) Owner
a) Twice in a year c) DGCA
b) Once in a year d) ATA
c) Once in 2 year
d) Every 3 month in a year 24) The finding with non-compliance which lower
safety standard and hazard the flight safety
Page
19) MTCS a) Level 1

a) CRS is issued for each sub task b) Level 2
c) Level 3 d) Commander (or) flight engineer

d) None
31) Aircraft taxing procedure given in MOE

25) Maintenance of large aircraft is done by a) Part 1
a) CAR 145 organization b) Part 2
b) CAR M organization c) Part 3
c) CAR M sub part F organization d) Part 4
d) Both (b) and (c)
32) Maintenance means
26) Nominated person information is given in a) To ensure continuous airworthiness of
a) CA form 1 the aircraft
b) CA form 2 b) Embodiment of modification (or)
c) CA form 3 replacement of components
d) CA form 4 c) Over all inspection and repair of aircraft
d) ATA
27) Component without CRS can be fitted in the
aircraft for a period 33) The responsibility of AM are
a) 30 flight hours a) Ensure all resource are available to
b) 10 flight hours accomplish maintenance accordance with
c) 25 flight hours 145.A,05
d) None b) Establish and promote safety and quality
policy
28) A3 class rating for c) Demonstrate the basic understanding of
a) Piston engines with maximum output of CAR 145
less than 450 Hp d) ATA
b) NDI
c) Base and line maintenance of single 34) Any condition of aircraft (or) aircraft
engine helicopter of less than 3175 kg components identified by organization that has
d) Base and line maintenance of aeroplane resulted (or)
of 5700 kg and below may result in unsafe condition that hazard
seriously safety shall be reported to
29) When any modification is carried out on an a) DGCA
aircraft , it is the duty of the concerned operator b) Manufacturer
to c) Regulatory authority of country of
intimate maintenance
a) Manufacturer d) None
b) All AME’s
c) R & D of DGCA 35) Where an organization chooses to appoint
d) Regulatory authority of country of managers for each combinations of identified
manufacture CAR
145 functions because of the size of the
30) For repetitive pre-flight airworthiness organizations , the appointed managers are
directives, organization may issue limited accessible to
certification Accountable manager
authorization to a) Directly
a) Commander only b) Through the base manager
Page
b) First officer only c) Through the line manager

c) Both (a) and (b) d) Either (b) or (c)
d) None
36) Who shall establish safety and quality policy
in the organization 3) Human factors procedure training

a) QCM included in
b) AM a) Management
c) LMM b) Maintenance procedure
d) BMM c) Quality system procedure
d) Operators maintenance procedure
37) MTCS
a) Where the manufacturer specifies a 4) Quality system procedure of MOE is
particular tool (or) equipment the organization a) Part 0
shall use b) Part 1
that tool (or) equipment c) Part 2
b) Organization can use alternate tooling d) Part 4
(or) equipment
c) As in (b) via procedure specified in 5) For CAR 145 small organization
exposition a) AM may be line manager
d) ATA b) AM may be line manager (or) work shop
manager
38) Which of the following CAR 145 organization c) AM may be Quality manager (or) work
shall have dedicated quality audit group shop manager
a) Large organization with more than 500 d) ATA
staff
b) Small organization with more than 250 6) MTCS
staff a) When the AM is not the CEO, CEO should
c) Organization with less than 10 staff be acceptable to DGCA
d) None b) AM may be AM for more than one
organization
c) AM need not require to have technical
knowledge as it is stated in MOE
FEBURARY 2011: d) ATA
1) Independent audit for small organization 7) Records pertaining to independent

should be carried out quality audit & quality feed back system should
a) Once in 2 years be retained
b) Twice in a year for
c) Thrice in a year a) 2 years
d) Once in a year b) 1 year
c) 3 years
2) MTCS d) 6 months
a) Organization having >500 maintenance
staff should have a dedicated quality audit group 8) The independent audit CAR 145 the
b) Organization having <500 maintenance sample check means
staff should have a dedicated quality audit group a) Repeat reassembly (or) testing under
c) Organization having > 500 maintenance sample check identifies finding
staff can use any competent personnel from one b) To witness any relevant testing & visual
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section /department to audit the inspect the product & associated documentation
section/department c) Disassembly , reassembly & testing
d) To assess the knowledge of certifying a) Scheduling the maintenance work ahead

staff , to ensure that if does not interface with other
work
b) During maintenance work, organizing
9) Which of the following forms the part of maintenance team& shifts & provide all
maintenance organization exposition necessary
a) Safety policy & description of man power support to the completion of maintenance
resources without undue time pressure
b) Shift / task handover procedure c) Consideration should be given man hour
c) Control of man-hour plan Vs schedule estimation , preparation of work hanger
maintenance work availability
d) Procedure for notification of maintenance d) ATA
data , inaccuracies & ambiguity to the type
certification holder 15) CAR 145 is applicable for
a) Large aircraft fitted with turbine engine
10) Duties & Responsibilities of management b) Aeroplane MTOM>5700
personnel given in which part MOE c) Multi engine helicopter
a) Part 0 d) Both (b) and (c)
b) Part 1
c) Part 2 16) Private aircraft MTOM more than 5700 kg is
d) Part 4 maintained by
a) CAR M sub part F
11) Aircraft taxing procedure , engine running b) CAR 145 AMO
procedure is given in which part of MOE c) CAR M sub part G
a) Part 0 d) CAR sec-2 L part X
b) Part 2
c) Part 3 17) Components of twine engine helicopter is
d) Part 4 maintained by
a) CAR M sub part F
12) MTCS b) CAR 145
a) Any aircraft defect that hazard seriously c) CAR M sub part G
the flight safety shall be rectified before further d) CAR sec-2 L part X
flight
b) Any defect not rectified before flight shall 18) Single engine helicopter used for commercial
be recorded in appropriate log books purpose is maintained by
c) An authorized certifying staff shall decide a) CAR M sub part F
which defect can be deferred b) CAR 145
d) ATA c) CAR M sub part G
d) CAR sec-2 series E
13) Maintenance data include
a) Any applicable AD is issued by DGCA 19) Approval schedule for maintenance
b) Instructions for continuing airworthiness organization is issued in CAR 145
issued bu TC/STC holders a) CA form 3
c) Operational directives (or) information b) CA form 2
issued by DGCA c) CA form 1
d) ATA d) CA form 5
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14) Production planning include
20) Component maintained by workshop is 25) Finding of occurance of defect , the operator
issued with authorized release document other than scheduled operator will indicate
a) CA form 3 a) 24 hours
b) CA form 2 b) 3 months
c) CA form 1 c) 1month
d) CA form 4 d) 3 days
21) Incase of CAR 145 organization , acceptance

of nominated post holder is on
a) CA form 2 OCTOBER 2011:
b) CA form 3
c) CA form 4 1) When any modification is carried out on
d) CA form 4 (appendix V) an aircraft , it is the duty of the concerned
operator to
22) Human factors means principle which apply intimate
to a) Manufacturer
a) Aeronautical design b) All AME
b) Certification training , operation & c) R & D of DGCA
maintenance d) Regulatory authority of country of
c) As in (b) which seek safe interface manufacture
between the human & other component by
proper 2) Repetitive pre-flight inspection
consideration of human performance airworthiness directives that organization may
d) ATA issue limited
certification authorization to
23) Component shall be classified as a) Commander only
unserviceable b) First officer only
a) Removed from the aircraft whose C of A c) Both (a) and (b)
invalid d) Commander / flight engineer
b) Component has reached certified life
limit 3) Approved maintenance organization in
c) Necessary information to determine the accordance with CAR 145 carry out internal audit
airworthiness status is not available \ a) Once in year
d) Both (b) and (c) b) Twice in year
c) Once in two year
24) Operator shall implement safety d) None
management system to
a) TC holder identifies safety hazard 3) In MOE contains
b) As in (a) ensure the implementation of a) Safety & man power resources
remedial action necessary to maintain agreed b) Performance of human
safety c) Complex system
performance d) ATA
c) Provide for continuous monitoring &
regular assessment of safety performance 4) Aircraft taxing procedure given in MOE
d) As in (c) aims at overall safety of a) Part 1
organization b) Part 2
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c) Part 3
d) Part 4
c) Within 72 hours of organization identified

5) Maintenance means the condition
a) To ensure continuous airworthiness of d) ATA

the aircraft
b) Embodiment of replacement 11) According to CAR 145 all maintenance
c) Overall inspection and repair of aircraft organization shall preserve records for a period
d) ATA of
a) 1 year
6) Duties and responsibilities of b) 2 years
management personnel is given in c) 5 years
a) Part 0 d) 3 years
b) Part 1
c) Part 2 12) CAR 145 organization with Cat C class rating
d) Part 3 may carry out maintenance
a) An uninstalled component during base
7) The responsibilities of AM are and line maintenance
a) Ensure all resources are available to b) An engine /APU maintenance facility
accomplish maintenance in accordance with c) An installed component on aircraft
145.A.05 d) All of the above subjected to a control
b) Establish and promote safety and quality procedure provided in the MOE
policy
c) Demonstrate the basic understanding of 13) Where an organization choose to appoint
CAR 145 managers for each combinations of identified
d) ATA CAR 145
functions because of the size of the
organizations , the appointed managers are
8) Authorized release certificate is accessible to AM
a) CA form 1 a) Directly
b) CA form 2 b) Through the base manager
c) CA form 3 c) Through the line manager
d) CA form 4 d) Either (b) or (c)
9) Any condition of aircraft / aircraft 14) Who shall ensure and establish safety and
component identified by organization that has quality policy in the organization
resulted (or) a) QC manager
may result in an un safe condition that hazard b) AM
seriously the flight safety shall be reported to c) Line manager
a) DGCA d) None
b) Manufacture
c) Regulatory authority of country of
manufacture 15) On receipt of level 1 and level 2 finding , the
d) None DGCA suggest corrective action to be complied
within
10) Any occurance in the organization shall be a) 7 days
reported by the organization b) 14 days
a) In the manner established by AMO c) 30 days
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b) When the organization contracted the d) As agreed by DGCA

maintenance shall report to DGCA
16) NDT is performed in an aircraft as d) None

a) Non scheduled maintenance
b) Specialized activities 22) List of sub contractors given in MOE

c) Scheduled maintenance a) Part 1
d) None b) Part 5
c) Part 3
17) Minimum age certifying staff d) Part 4
a) 18 years
b) 20 years
c) 21 years 23) Engine running up procedure given in
d) None a) Part 1
b) Part 2
18) MTCS c) Part 3
a) Where the manufacture specifies a d) Part 4
particular tool (or) equipment the organization
shall use
that tool (or) equipment
b) Organization can use alternate tooling
(or) equipment
c) As in (b) via procedure specified in MOE
d)
19) MTCS
ATA
CAR-M
a) CAR 145 organization shall have at least
half of their staff employed permanently
b) Contracted staff shall be subjected to
compliance with organizations procedures
detailed in
MOE
c) Contracted means the person is
employed by an organization and contracted by
that
organization to approved CAR 145 organization
d) ATA
20) Maintenance man hour plan should relate to

a) Subjected to commercial viability
b) Maximum work load
c) Minimum work load
d) None
21) Which of the following CAR 145 organization

shall have a dedicated quality audit group
a) Large organization with more than 500
staff
b) Small organization with more than 250
staff
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c) As in (a) its function will be to conducted

audits raise finding reports
SESSION 5) In pre-flight inspection , responsibilities of

QUSTIONS
in case of commercial air transport

a) Operator
b) Maintenance engineer only
c) PIC
CIVIL AVIATION d) QCM
REQUIREMENT- 6) Who is supposed to be responsible for

indirect approval procedure
MANAGEMENT a) CAMO
b) Approved AMO
c) CAR M sub part F
d) CAR 145 organization
JUNE 2016: 7) The maintenance of the aircraft is

required to be performed in accordance with the
maintenance
1) In CAR M , small organization should program , who is accountable for such activity
have a) The owner of the aircraft
a) 10 full time maintenance staff b) The lessee in case of leased aircraft and
b) 5 full time maintenance staff excluding detail in leasing contract
MA 706 c) The owner / operator of aircraft
c) 5 full time maintenance staff including d) ATA
post holders 8) Limited pilot owner maintenance is
d) None specified in
a) MOE
2) Minor amendment to CAMO approved by b) MOM
a) DGCA c) QC manual
b) RAO d) SMS
c) DGCA local office
d) Indirectly through an indirect approval 9) CAR M establish common technical
requirement and administrative procedure for
3) Which of the following information is not aircraft
required to be kept in records of certifying staff a) Registered in foreign country and used by
of Indian operation which India ensure oversight
CAR -M organization operation
a) DOB b) Registered in India and used by foreign
b) Type rating for which India ensure oversight
c) Experience c) Registered in India
d) Penalties imposed by previous d) Both (a) and (b)
organization
10) ARC staff
4) MA 605 CAR M relates to a) Approved by DGCA CA form 4
a) Facilities b) Approved by DGCA CA form 2
b) Personal requirements c) Approved by DGCA CA form 13
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c) Manual d) Approved by DGCA CA form 14

d) None
11) When extensive maintenance has been b) CAME

carried out it is acceptable for CRS to summarize c) QCM
the d) None
maintenance do long as there is
a) A unique cross reference of work 17) When an entry done in airworthiness review
package record for correction
b) Work pack containing full details of a) Show the original entry
maintenance carried out b) Clear original entry
c) Dimensional information should by retain c) Either (a) or (b)
in work package d) None
d) A unique cross reference to work
package containing full details of maintenance 18) Anticipate the extension of airworthiness
and review pattern
dimensional information should by retain work a) 90 days in controlled environment
package b) 30 days in controlled environment
c) 60 days in controlled environment
12) Who shall ensure when an aircraft is d) None
permanently transferred from one owner (or)
operator to
another MA 305 continuing airworthiness record
a) Owner (or) operator FEBRUARY 2016:
b) Organization
c) Owner
d) Operator 1) Total time of flight cycle as appropriate of
components are retained for a period
13) CA form 2F 1.) 12 months
a) Issue/variation of MA 602 (as per old 2.) 24 months
CAR M) 3.) 36 months
b) Renewal /variation of CAR 145 4.) 48months
c) Issue/variation of CAR 145
d) Renewal /variation of MA 602
2) Organization and personal involved in the
14) Who is responsible for the satisfactory continuity a/w of A/C and components including
accomplishment of the pre-flight inspection maintenance shall comply
a) Operator 1.) CAR M
b) Owner 2.) CAR 145
c) PIC 3.) CAR SECTION 2 and CAR 66
d) Aircraft Maintenance Engineer 4.) ATA
3) According to CAR M Subpart H, 803 deals
15) When CAMO not under oversight of state of with
registry 1.) Pilot-Owner authorization
a) May contract 2.) Certificate release to service
b) May not contract 3.) A/C CRS
c) Organization will not get indirect approval 4.) None
d) None 4) who will ensure that component is not in
16) Who is supposed to be responsible for the A/W state
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indirect approval procedure 1.) Certifying staff

a) CAMO 2.) Maintenance manager
3.) Quality manager 10) An owner (or) operator who decided to

4.) supervisor manage the continuing airworthiness of the A/c
under it’s
own responsibility
5) Operator technical logbook shall be 1.) May make a complete contract
preserved for 2.) May make a limited contract
1.) 36 months 3.) Does not need to make contract
2.) 36 years 4.) None
3.) 12 months
4.) 5 years
11) If the owner /operator having its own
maintenance facility
6) A small organization is considered to be (1) owner can contract for the development of
an organization maintenance program
1.) With upto 5 full time staff(excluding MA 702 (2) owner can not contract anything’
personals) (3) either (1) or (2)
2.) With upto 5 full time staff including post (4) none
holder
3.) ATA
11) MTCS regarding component maintenance
(MA 502)
7) After flight safety sensitive maintenance (1) Component replacement is known as
what is to be carried out? component maintenance.
1.) Pre flight inspection (2) Component removal is known as
2.) Line maintenance component maintenance.
3.) Independent inspection (3) Component installation is known as
4.) As decided by owner/operator Aircraft maintenance.
8) Organization may only modify (4) ATA is correct.
maintenance inspection in accordance with
procedure 12) In CAR –M , small organization should
specification in MOE and those changes should have…
be informed to (1) 10 full time maintenance staff
.1.) Operator (2) 05 full time maintenance staff Excluding
2.) DGCA MA 706
3.) TC holder (3) 05 full time maintenance staff including
4.) ATA MA 706
(4) NOTA is correct
9) Any non compliance with CAR-M which

lower the safety standard possibly hazard the 13) MA 803 specifies
flight (1) A/C CRS
safety is (2) Component CRS
1.) Level-1 (3) Pilot’s owner authorization
2.) Level-2 (4) ATA are correct.
3.) Both 1and 2 14) It is acceptable to anticipate the extension of
4.) NOTA the airworthiness review certificate by a
Page
maximum
of ……..days without a loss of continuity of

the airworthiness review pattern.
(1) 30 days
(2) 60 days
(3) 90 days JUNE 2015:
(4) ATA is correct
15) In which case ARC remains specifies 1) The application of CAMO is done in
(1) 30 days a) CA form 2
(2) 30 days with a/c remains in controlled b) CA form 3
environment c) CA form 6
(3) 90 days d) CA form 13
(4) 90 days with a/c remains in controlled
environment 2) LSA means
a) MTOM above 5700 kg
b) MTOM less than 5700 kg
16) MTCS regarding contracted c) Non pressurized cabin
maintenance d) ATA
(1) Contracted procedure shall not be a part of
CAME 3) Operator shall ensure the aircraft
(2) The place of line/base maintenance should technical log book retained for
be specified with appropriate location a) 24 months
(3) None b) 36 months
17) Maintenance program should be based on c) 12 months
(1) MRB/MPD d) 48 months
(2) Maintenance man hour plan
(3) Steering group 4) Maintenance of aircraft is carried out by
a) Specification issued by CAR 21/FAA
21/EASA 21
previous year DGCA question papers or b) Specification issued by AD
other useful data then you can c) Specification issued by aircraft
submit your question papers or data maintenance program
(with your name and details) here at d) ATA
help other students in their exam 5) Sub part of CAR M specifies
preparation. We will publish your a) CAMO
document on our webpage with your b) MRO
name and details within 24 hr. c) ANO
"You feel good because you're helping d) ATA
We are not generating any type of 6) Minor amendment to the CAME is
revenue from this webpage this is only approved by
for helping aviators. a) DGCA
Share more n more document with us. b) Indirectly through am indirect approval
Thanks
c) Either (a) or (b)
Good Luck
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www.dgcaquestionpapers.in]]]}} d) None
7) MTCS ( regarding flight manual)
a) Flight manual is approved by DGCA a) Name of the manufacture & storage

b) As in (a) provided by aircraft condition
manufacturer b) Date of manufacture & supplier

c) Subsequent amendment of flight manual c) Conformity statement
issued by manufacture by their own experience d) ATA
d) ATA
14) CAR -M CAMO is detailed in
8) Which of the following is not a complex a) Sub part B
maintenance task b) Sub part F
a) Seat rail replacement c) Sub part G
b) Landing gear strut (or) brace strut d) None
c) Dynamic balancing on installed FEBRUARY 2015:
propellers using electronic balancing equipment
where
permitted by maintenance manual
d) Assembly/disassembly of reduction gear 1) When the commercial operator awards a
maintenance of aircraft to CAR 145 organization
suffers
9) Limited authorization is permitted to a a damage which has been grounded away the
pilot if maintenance there
a) Pilot has current license a) Owner seeks help from the ground place
b) Has received practical training b) CAMO of that organization issues “one
c) Received theoretical training off”
d) ATA c) Owner issues “one-off” to a competent
person
10) Form used for any issue (or) variation of d) CAR 145 organization issue “one -off”
CAMO
a) 2A 2) If the aircraft has been given to new
b) 2F operator , then the new operator shall
c) CA form 2 a) Apply for new C of R
d) None b) Apply for amendment in C of R
c) As in (a) ARC remain validity until expiry
11) Aircraft technical log shall be kept for d) As in (b) ARC remains validity until expiry
a) 12 month
b) 24 month 3) The operator technical log book shall be
c) 36 month a) Specified according to MA 308
d) None b) Specified according to MA 306
c) Specified according to MA 306 and shall
12) Which of the following need not be provide be preserved for 36 months
with a CRS d) None
a) Maintenance of seat belt railings
b) Maintenance of components 4) In the case of change in ownership
c) Maintenance of engines a) Complete aircraft records are transferred
d) ATA to the new operator
b) Operator technical log is not transferable
13) Raw materials and consumable material c) As in (a) operator technical log is
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which is delivered should have the following transferable

information d) Both (a) and (b)
c) Dynamic balancing on installed propeller

5) In CAR M 803 states using electronic balancing equipment
a) Pilot owner authorization d) ATA

b) Aircraft certificate release to service
c) Component release to service\ 12) Manufactures issues a new instructions in
d) None the form of
a) SB
6) The issue of CAR M is based on b) SI
a) FAR M c) SL
b) EASA part M d) ATA
c) JAR M
d) None 13) In the commercial air transport who is
responsible for satisfactory accomplishment of
7) When the aircraft is used for other than pre-flight
commercial air transport then the aircraft shall inspection
be a) Operator
maintained by b) PIC
a) CAR-M sub part F organization c) Certifying staff
b) CAR M sub part f (or) CAR 145 d) None
organization
c) Sub part G organization 14) CA form 2 authorizes
d) None a) Issue/variation of sub part G organization
b) Issue /variation of sub part F
8) Limited certification authorization is organization
specified in c) Issue/variation of CAR 145 organization
a) Flight manual d) ATA
b) Operational manual
c) Aircraft maintenance program 15) The total time and flight cycle as appropriate
d) MOE of the components are retained for period
a) 12 months
9) In CAR -M , MA 605 relates b) 24 months
a) Facility requirement c) 36 months
b) Personal requirement d) 48 months
c) Certifying staff and support staff
d) Storage of component 16) Procedure for refresher course is involved in
a) Training manual
10) Maintenance program comprise of b) Quality manual
a) Instruction issued by D GCA c) Supplementary procedure
b) Instruction issued by CAR 21 d) ATA
c) Instruction issued by organization 17) Cessna 172 & MI 172 used in commercial
d) ATA operation other than commercial air transport
maintained by
11) Which of the following non-complex a) CAR M sub part F only
maintenance task b) CAR M sub part F & CAR 145
a) Replacement of seat rail organization
b) Replacement of landing gear strut/break c) CAR 145
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strut d) CAR M sub part G only
18) Incase of amendment of AMP accordance d) ATA

with indirect approval procedure
a) CAMO 2) The maintenance of aircraft is required to

b) CAR 145 be performed in accordance with the
c) MOM sub part F maintenance
d) CAR M program who is accountable for such activity
a) The owner of the aircraft
19) MTCS ( regarding data for modification & b) The lessee in case of leased aircraft and
repair) details in the leasing contract
a) Shall be approved as per CAR 21, EASA c) The owner/operator of the aircraft
21, FAR 21 d) ATA
b) Can be AMP 3) Who is responsible for the satisfactory
c) Can be AD accomplishment of the pre-flight inspection
d) ATA a) PIC
b) The operator in case of commercial air
20) Maintenance data include transport
a) Any applicable AD issued by DGCA c) AMO
b) Instructions for constitute airworthiness d) Both (a) and (b)
issue by TC (Or) STC holder
c) Operational directive of information 4) In accordance with CAR M, owner
issued by DGCA a) May manage the continue airworthiness
d) ATA of the aircraft under own responsibility
b) May contract for the tasks associate with
21) CAR M lays down the requirement of continue airworthiness to a CAMO
continuing airworthiness and which are c) As in (a) may contract for the
harmonized with development of the maintenance program , its
a) FAA part M organization approval to an
b) JAR part M organization approved CAMO under limited contracted
c) EASA part M organization d) ATA
d) None
5) Who is supposed to responsible for
indirect approval procedure
a) CAMO
b) Approved AMO
c) CAR M sub part F
JUNE 2014: d) CAR 145 organization
6) An operator shall ensure that the aircraft

technical log is retained for
1) Organization & personnel involved in the a) 12 month
continuing airworthiness of aircraft & b) 24 month
components c) 36 month
including maintenance shall comply with d) 36 month after the date of last entry
provision of
a) CAR-M 7) A component shall be considered
b) CAR-145 unsalvageable
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c) Requirements licensing of aircraft a) Expiry of the service life limit

maintenance personnel as appropriate b) Non compliance with ADS
c) Involvement in an accident (or) incident

d) ATA 2) The indirect approval procedure shall be
submitted to DGCA local office before effectivity

8) Where an approved maintenance of at
organization terminates its operation all retained least
maintenance a) 30 days
records shall be distributed to the last owner (or) b) 1 week
customer c) 15 days
a) Last 1 year d) 10 days
b) Last 2 years
c) Last 3 years 3) Aircraft technical log system contains
d) Last 4 years information such as
a) Information about each flight
9) Light aircraft not used in commercial air b) Current C of A
transport aircraft released by certifying staff c) Valid CRS
approved in d) Both (a) and (3)
accordance with
a) CAR 145 4) Unsalvagable items in the aviation is
b) CAR M sub part G section A controlled by
c) CAR M sub part F section A a) Permanent distortion
d) None b) By making holes
c) By removing identification plate
10) MTCS( regarding transfer of the aircraft d) By painting
registration within India)
a) The applicant shall apply to DGCA for the 5) When the aircraft is leased , the
fresh issue of the sec 2 series F part III continuing management of aircraft is the
b) The applicant shall apply to DGCA for the responsibility of
amendment of sec 2 series F part I a) Owner
c) As in (b)shall remain valid until its expiry b) Lessee
d) As in (a)shall remain valid until its expiry c) QCM
11) Air safety deals with which section d) Operator
a) Section 4
b) Section 5 6) What is general aviation
c) Section 7 a) Private operators
d) Section 8 b) State government operators
c) Flying training school
d) ATA
7) Section B CAR -M specifies
OCTOBER 2014: a) Procedure for DGCA
b) Technical requirement
c) Personal requirements
d) Facility requirements
1) The total flight time and cycle of all life
limited components shall be served for 8) The backup system for the maintenance
a) 6 months which is carried out should be
b) 2 years a) Updated every 24 hours
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c) 12 months b) Should be electronic format (or) written

d) 1 year format
c) Both (a) and (b) b) Registered in India & used by foreign for
d) Either (a) or (b) which India ensure oversight
c) Registered in India
9) What are the requirements for pre-flight d) Both (a) and (c)
inspection
a) ATPL 16) Any identified condition of aircraft
b) AME license component which endanger the flight safety , is
c) Radio R7 reported by
d) None a) AMO
b) Operator
10) How manufactures issues change to their c) CAME
product d) Any person /organization responsible for
a) SB under the point MA 202
b) SL
c) MMEL 17) Any non compliance with CAR M requirement
d) Both (a) and (b) which lower the safety standard & possibly
hazard the flight safety
11) CAR M has how many parts a) Level 1
a) 2 b) Level 2
b) 4 c) Level 3
c) 3 d) Level 4
d) None
18) Who is responsible to ensure that the task
12) Which section technical log contain training received by person cover all task to be
information regarding defects authorize
a) Section 1 a) AM & operator only
b) Section 2 b) Operator
c) Section 3 c) Owner
d) Section 4 d) Organization only
13) CAMO airworthiness review procedure

a) Part 1
b) Part 2 JUNE 2013:
c) Part 3
d) Part 4
1) Incase of commercial air transport , pre-
14) Transfer of continuous airworthiness record flight inspection is responsibility of
Incase of change of ownership is ensured by a) Owner
a) Owner /operator b) Operator
b) AMO c) Owner/operator
c) CAMO d) None
d) DGCA
15) CAR M establish common technical 2) Who will access to DGCA for checking
requirements & administarative procedure for continued airworthiness of aircraft
aircraft a) Owner
a) Registered in foreign country & used by b) Operator
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an Indian operator (or) for which India ensure c) Owner/operator

oversight of the operation d) None
a) 12 months
3) MTCS ( Regarding AMP ) b) 24 months
a) AMP is approved by DGCA c) 36 months

b) AMP is approved by CAMO itself d) 48 months
c) As in (a) AMP submitted to RAO before 15
days effectivity 4) Pre -flight inspection carried out by
d) None a) PIC
4) When performing aircraft review entry in b) Operator
which log book c) QCM
a) Aircraft log book d) Sultan
b) Technical log book
c) Engine log book 5) AIC issued under
d) None a) 133 A
b) 133 B
5) CAR-M provide corresponds to technical c) 133 C
standards & guidelines for continued d) 133 D
airworthiness of 6) All aircraft used in commercial air
aircraft transport and aircraft 2730 kg MTOW except
a) Aircraft registered in India &operated in balloons the
foreign airworthy review staff
b) Aircraft registered in foreign & operated a) At least 2 years experience
in India b) 3 years
c) Aircraft registered in India c) 5 years
d) ATA d) None
7) Records of quality system activities of

CAR -M sub part G organization be stored for
a) 2 years
OCTOBER 2013: b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) None
1) In Commercial aircraft pre-flight
inspection is the responsibility of 8) Permanent transfer of records in case of
a) Operator change of ownership is responsibility of
b) PIC a) Owner
c) Owner b) Operator
d) Aircraft maintenance engineer c) PIC
d) QCM
2) MTCS(regarding AMP approval)
a) AMP is approved by DGCA 9) Total time of flight cycle of aircraft and all
b) AMP is approved CAME itself & this life limited component details are preserved for
procedure is given in CAME at appropriate a) 2months
position b) 12 months
c) As in (a) AMP submitted to RAO before 25 c) 24 months
days their effectivity d) 36 months
d) None
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10) Procedure to extend an airworthiness service

3) Technical log book kept for certificate that has been issued by DGCA , CAMO
is permitted under a) One year

a) CAR M sub part F organization b) Two year
b) CAR 145 organization c) Three year

c) CAR M sub part G organization d) Four year
d) ATA
3) The privileges of the extending ARC
11) Any minor amendment to the maintenance issued by DGCA (Or) by other CAMO is approved
program is approved in
a) Before 15 days of local airworthiness accordance with
officer a) Sub part G of CAR M
b) DGCA b) Sub part F of CAR M
c) QCM c) CAR 145
d) None d) ATA
12) Continuing airworthiness of aircraft and 4) CAR-M the credentials of the nominated
components shall comply with person will be sent to DGCA on
a) CAR M a) CA form 1
b) CAR 145 b) CA form 2
c) CAR 21 c) CA form 3
d) None d) CA form 4
13) Level 2 findings are rectified 5) In the organization if any changes occur ,
a) Within 30 days which changes need not inform to DGCA
b) Within 7 days a) Name of the organization
c) Within 15 days b) Certifying staff is resigned
d) Within 10 days c) Additional line maintenance included
14) All non-commercial aircraft maintained by d) ATA
a) CAR 145 organization
b) CAR M sub part F 6) The minor amendments to the continuing
c) CAR M sub part G airworthiness exposition shall be approved in
d) None accordance with
a) Approved by DGCA
b) Approved under indirect approval
procedure
FEBURARY 2013: c) Submitted to DGCA with in 15 days
before their effectivity
d) None
1) CAR-M the report of the occurance 7) AMP is prepared by
reporting to a) CAR M sub part F organization
a) DGCA b) CAR M sub part G organization
b) Organization responsible for the Type c) CAR 145 organization
design (or) Supplemental type design d) Both (a) and (c)
c) Airworthiness authority of the state of
registry 8) Aircraft used in commercial air transport
d) ATA and aircraft above 2730 kg MTOM airworthiness
review staff required
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2) CAR-M quality system records shall be a) 5 years experience in continuing

stored for at least airworthiness
b) 4 years experience in continuing hazard flight safety

airworthiness a) Level 1 finding
c) 3 years experience in continuing b) Level 2 finding

airworthiness c) Level3 finding
d) None d) Level 4 finding
9) All continuing airworthiness management 5) Authorized release certificate is

shall be carried out according to the a) CA form 1
prescriptions of b) CA form 2
a) CAR M, MA sub part G c) CA form 3
b) CAR M, MA sub part C d) CA form 1F
c) CAR M, MA sub part F
d) CAR M, MA sub part I 6) Permanent transfer of records in case of
change of owner ship is responsibility of
a) Owner
b) Owner/operator
OCTOBER 2011: c) Approved maintenance organization
d) CAMO
7) Maintenance of components and parts of

1) Aircraft airworthiness task is consist of flight aircraft is carried out by
a) Satisfactory accomplishment of pre-flight a) CAR M organization
inspection b) CAR 145 organization
b) All maintenance performed in c) CAR 21 organization
accordance with approved maintenance program d) None
c) Accomplishment of modification and
repair
d) ATA
2) In case of CAMO AMP and amendments FEBRUARY 2011:

are
a) Submitted to DGCA regional office
b) As in (a) within 15 days before their 1) In case of commercial air transport pre-
effectivity flight inspection is responsibility of
c) Submitted to manufacture a) Pilot in command
d) As in (c) within 30 days before their b) Approved maintenance organization
effectivity c) Operator
d) Owner
3) Continuing airworthiness of aircraft is
responsibility of 2) MTCS
a) Manufacture a) AMP is approved by manufacture
b) Owner b) Responsibility of indirect approval of AMP
c) Any person of the organization transferred to CAMO
d) PIC c) As in (b) amendments are provided to
DGCA 15 days prior to it effectivity
4) Non compliance with CAR M requirement d) ATA
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which could lower the safety standard and

seriously
3) Who is responsible for granting the DGCA b) Sub part F of CAR M

access to organization aircraft to continued c) Sub part G of CAR M
compliance d) DGCA
a) Owner
b) Owner/operator 10) Single engine commercial aircraft can be
c) AMO maintained by
d) CAMO a) CAR 145
b) Sub part F of CAR M
4) Continue airworthiness task include c) Sub part G of CAR M
a) Accomplishment of pre-flight inspection d) DGCA
b) Accomplishment of all maintenance
according to AMP 11) The AMP must established
c) Maintenance check flight when a) Instruction given by DGCA
necessary b) Type certificate holder
d) ATA c) Alternative proposed by owner
5) Operator shall ensure aircraft technical d) ATA
log book is retained after last entry
a) 12 months 12) Continuing airworthiness records include
b) 24 months a) Aircraft log book, engine log book,
c) 36 month propeller log book
d) 6 months b) Log cards for any service life limited parts
c) Maintenance program
6) Permanent transfer of records in case of d) Both (a) and (b)
change of owner ship is responsibility of
e) Owner
f) Owner/operator
g) Approved maintenance organization
h) CAMO
7) Maintenance data include

a) Any applicable AD is issued by DGCA
b) Instruction for continuing airworthiness
issued by TC /STC holder CAR-21
c) Operational directives (or) information
issued by DGCA
d) ATA
8) The privileges of extending ARC issued by

DGCA (or) CAMO is given in
a) Sub part F of CAR M
b) Sub part C of CAR M
c) Sub part G of CAR M
d) None
9) Non scheduled aircraft can be

Page
maintained by
a) CAR 145
SESSION QUESTIONS d) 50-Statement of conformity

2) Which subpart deals with production

without production organization approval
CIVIL AVIATION a) Subpart E
b) Subpart G
REQUIREMENTS-21 c) Subpart F
d) Subpart I
3) In which subpart deals with ITSOA?

JUNE 2016: a) Subpart – JA
b) Subpart – JB
c) Subpart O
1) In CAR 21 sub part F implies d) Subpart Q
a) CAMO 4) MTCS:-
b) CAME a) Any person may apply for major change
c) POA in TC under subpart D
d) Production without POA b) Holder of TC may apply for major change
under subpart D
2) MTCS (regarding CAR 21) c) Natural (or) legal person may apply on
a) Export C of A major change in TC under subpart – E
b) Noise certificate d) Both 2 & 3 are correct
c) ITSO
d) ATA 5) CAR -21 Deals with the procedural
requirements for
3) In STC..CAR 21 related to classification a) C of A , Export C of A , noise certificate
group b) Procedure of POA
a) Conversion of tail wheel configuration is c) Procedure of DOA
the kind of STC which comes under group 1 d) ATA
b) Fairing, nacelle, landing gear, the kind of
STC group 2 6) ITSOA (CAR 21)
c) Gap seals , ailerons , flaps, empennage a) Sub part ‘O’
doors, group 2 b) Sub part F
d) ATA c) Sub part M
d) Sub part P
4) CAR 21 scope of maintenance
organization 7) Subpart F (CAR 21)
a) MOE a) Production without production org.
b) C of A approval
c) TC (or) critical type certificate b) Production organization approval
c) Changes of TC/STC
d) None
FEBRUARY 2016:
1) .MTCS regarding DGCA forms

a) 15A-Authorized Release Certificate JUNE 2015:
Page
b) 30-C of A
c) 45-Noise certificated
1) Application for alternative changes of Sub (b) Only TC holders may apply for approval of a
part F done in the form major change to TD/TC under this subpart D
a) 82 A (c) Other than TC holder may apply for approval

b) 82 B of major change of TC under subpart E
c) 81 (d) Both b & c are correct
d) 83
2) MTCS regarding ITSOA
2) MTCS (regarding level 1 finding) (a) ITSOA holder retains his authorization for
a) Damage to primary structure unlimited duration
b) Damage to secondary structure (b) ITSOA carry production according to subpart –
c) Both (a) and (b) G only
d) None (c) prepare, maintain and update master copies
of all manuals required by the applicable a/w
3) Sub part F CAR 21 deals with specifications for article
a) Production without production org. (d) Both a &c are correct
approval
b) Production organization approval 3) The reference incorporated in the T C of
c) Changes of TC/STC the product to be changed
d) None (a) Existing T C basis
(b) Latest certification specifications
4) The procedure for ITSOA is described in (c) substantial change
a) Sub part O (d) earlier certification specification
b) Sub part C
c) Sub part M
d) Sub part N FEBRUARY 2015:
5) DGCA may designate compliance with
amendments to type certificate by
a) TC basis 1) MTCS ((regarding CA forms)
b) Existing TC basis a) 15 A - Airworthiness Review Certificate
c) Extended TC basis b) 30- Certificate of Airworthiness
d) ATA c) 45- Noise Certificate
d) 22-Type certificate
6) Sub part JA use the form for design
organization approval 2) CAR 21 Sub part F deals with
a) CA form 80 A a) Maintenance organization
b) CA form 80 B b) Production without POA
c) CA form 50 c) Production Organization Approval
d) None d) ATA
3) If part /items is manufactured for a new

aircraft then the design specification , drawing,
OCTOBER 2015: layout is
important
1) The changes of the TC which statement is a) Paints
applicable according to CAR-21 b) Fabrics used for aircraft
(a) Any natural or legal person may apply for c) Locking wire
Page
approval of a major change to TD/TC under d) Special tools

sub part D
4) The ITSO authorization holder shall

a) Maintain & make records regarding to 4) Production without production
the aircraft organization approval

b) Maintain & make records regarding to a) Sub part E CAR 21
the component b) Sub part F CAR 21
c) Both (a) and (b) c) Sub part G CAR 21
d) Either (a) or (b) d) None
5) MTCS 5) For change to an aircraft TC shows that

a) Critical engine is a engine whose failure the changes product complies with
will give most adverse effect to the aircraft a) TC basis
b) Engine means a unit which is used for b) Exchange TC
the arguments of thrust c) Existing TC basis
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Extended TC basis
d) ATA
6) CAR 21 is applicable for
6) Procedure for approval of major design a) C of A
change under STC according to b) Export C of A
a) Sub part G c) Noise certificate
b) Sub part F d) ATA
c) Sub part E
d) Sub part M
OCTOBER 2013:
OCTOBER 2014: 1) Approval for alternative design

organization
a) CA 80
1) Sub part F CAR 21 deals with b) CA 81
a) Maintenance standards c) CA 82 A
b) Component d) None
c) Production without POA
d) None 2) Production without production
organization organization approval specified in
2) Export certificate for product is issued a) CAR 21 sub part F
a) When the new aircraft is imported b) CAR 21 sub part G
b) A component part appliance under CAR c) CAR 21 sub part M
21 d) CAR 21 sub part Z
c) Propeller (or) engine under CAR 21
d) ATA 3) Sub part O of CAR 21 is
a) Indian technical standard organization
3) Alteration to the type design agreed by approval
DGCA b) Indian technical standard order approval
a) Repair c) Indian technical standard organization
b) Modified authorization
Page
c) Replaced d) Indian technical standard orders

d) ATA authorization
c) Both (a) and (b)

4) Maintenance organization approval given d) None
by
a) Civil Aviation Form 2
b) Civil Aviation Form 3 JUNE 2013:
c) Civil Aviation Form 3 A
d) Civil Aviation form 5B
1) Approval for alternative design
5) Validity of noise certificate organization , approval in form
a) 1 year a) CA 80
b) 5 years b) CA 81
c) As in (b) given in C of A c) CA 82 A
d) Unlimited d) None
6) Major changes to the part of product 2) ITSOA given in

caused by supplemental TC shall be approved in a) Sub part O
accordance b) Sub part P
with CAR 21 c) Sub part L
a) Sub part B d) None
b) Approved DGCA
c) Sub part E 3) Embodiment & repair given in CAR 21
d) Approved by state of registry which sub part
a) Sub part F
7) The requirement incorporated by b) Sub part O
reference in the type certificate of the product to c) Sub part M
be changed is d) Sub part K
called
a) TC FEBRUARY 2013:
b) STC
c) Existing TC
d) Earlier requirement 1) According to CAR 21 , application for
alternative procedures to design organization is
8) Parts & appliance to be used for the under
repair shall be manufactured in accordance with CA form
production a) 80 A
data based upon necessary design data as b) 82 A
provided by c) 82 B
a) Under sub part F d) 81
b) By an organization appropriately
approved in accordance with sub part G 2) Application for approval of design
c) Appropriately approved maintenance organization (JA) is made under CA form
organization a) CA 80 A
d) ATA b) CA 81
c) CA 82 A
9) The holder of ITSO shall be mark the d) CA 80 B
article with appropriately
Page
a) Sub part Q 3) The embodiment of repair in CAR 21

b) Appropriate ITSO shall be approved
a) Sub part F c) Rule 38

b) Sub part G d) Rule 59 A
c) Sub part JA
d) Sub part JB 2) Noise standards are specified in which
prat of CAR 21
4) In CAR 21Indian technical a) Sub part I
a) Sub part I b) Sub part H
b) Sub part M c) Sub part G
c) Sub part O d) Sub part L
d) Sub part P
3) MTCS
5) The requirement in corporated by a) The approval of sub part F itself only be
reference in the type certificate of the product to given after comply with sub part G
be changed b) The approval for sub part F doesn’t relate
a) Type certificate with any sub part G approval
b) Earlier type certificate c) Approval is not necessary in sub part F
c) Latest type certificate without any agreement
d) Existing type certificate d) None
6) A changes (or)combinations of changes 4) Production without production

that makes the product distinct from other organization approval will be delevired in
models of the a) Sub part F of CAR 21
product b) Sub part G of CAR 21
a) Product level change c) Sub part D of CAR 21
b) Significant change d) SUB part C of CAR 21
c) Substantial change
d) Non-significant change 5) Level 1& Level 2 finding corrective action
should be taken within
7) Any organization applying for a a) 7 days
supplemental TC shall demonstrate its capability b) 72 hours
by holding a c) As agreed by DGCA
design organization approval issued by DGCA in d) None
accordance with
a) Sub part JA 6) CAR 21 sub part I deals with
b) Sub part JB a) Noise certificate
c) Sub part E b) General provisions
d) Sub part D c) STC
d) Repairs
7) Production approval for product parts

OCTOBER 2012: and appliance given as CAR 21
a) Sub part G
b) Sub part E
c) Sub part F
1) Type certificate is by DGCA for a aircraft d) Sub part O
manufactured in India
Page
a) Rule 59 8) Noise certificate is issued for

b) Rule 49 a) 1 year
b) Unlimited duration a) Sub part D

c) As in (b) subject to compliance with type b) Sub part E
design and environmental protection c) Sub part F

d) ATA d) Sub part G
9) CAR 21 sub part H indicates 6) CAR 21 is applicable to

a) TC & STC a) Certification procedure for aircraft and
b) C of A and Temporary C of A for aircraft related products and parts
manufactured in India only b) Maintenance of aircraft above 5700 kg
c) C of A and Temporary C of A aircraft AUW
manufactured outside India only c) Maintenance of aircraft below 5700 kg
d) None AUW
d) None
JUNE 2012:
FEBRUARY 2012:
1) Restricted C of A will be issued on the

basis of 1) The procedure for approval of major
a) Type certification changes to the type design under supplemental
b) STC type
c) Restricted type certificate certificate procedures is in
d) None a) Sub part F
b) Sub part G
2) Production without production c) Sub part E
organization approval is given in CAR 21 as per d) Sub part H
a) Sub part G
b) Sub part E 2) Noise certificate is valid for
c) Sub part F a) 1 year
d) Sub part O b) Unlimited validity
c) As in (b) subject to compliance with
3) production approval for products , parts applicable type design , environmental protection
and appliances is under CAR 21 and
a) Sub part H continuing airworthiness requirement
b) Sub part E d) None
c) Sub part G
d) Sub part O 3) Statement of conformity , a DGCA form
52 signed by an authorized person who holds
4) Noise certificate is issued for responsible position in manufacturing
a) 1 year organization , is issued under
b) Unlimited duration a) Sub part F
c) As in (b) subject to compliance with type b) Sub part G
design and environmental protection c) Sub part E
d) ATA d) Both (a) and (b)
Page
5) Supplemental type certificate in CAR 21
4) Production without production

organization approval in CAR 21 3) A noise certificate is issued for
a) Sub part F a) 1 year

b) Sub part G b) Unlimited validity
c) Sub part E c) As in (b) subject to compliance with
d) Sub part D applicable type design , environmental protection
and
5) Production organization approval for continuing airworthiness requirement
products , parts and appliances in CAR 21 is d) None
a) Sub part G
b) Sub part F 4) CAR 21 sub part H indicates
c) Sub part H a) TC & STC
d) Sub part E b) C of A and Temporary C of A for aircraft
manufactured in India only
6) Production organization approval for c) C of A and Temporary C of A aircraft
products , parts and appliances is reflected in manufactured outside India only
a) Production organization exposition (POE) d) None
b) Maintenance organization exposition
(MOE)
c) Maintenance organization manual (MOM) FEBRUARY 2011:
d) Continuing airworthiness management
exposition ( CAME)
7) For aircraft imported into India , design 1) POA for major changes to the type design
standard should be under STC procedure is in
a) As per DGCA a) Sub part F
b) FAA b) Sub part G
c) EASA (or) any other regulatory authority c) Sub part E
acceptable to DGCA d) Sub part H
d) Both (b) and (c)
2) A noise certificate is issued for
a) 1 year
b) Unlimited validity
c) As in (b) subject to compliance with
OCTOBER 2011: applicable type design , environmental protection
and
continuing airworthiness requirement
1) Production without POA is given in d) None
a) Sub part G
b) Sub part E 3) Statement of conformity , a DGCA form
c) Sub part F 52 signed by an authorized person who holds
d) Sub part O responsible position in manufacturing
organization , is issued under
2) Production organization approval for a) Sub part F
products , parts and appliance is under CAR 21 b) Sub part G
a) Sub part G c) Sub part E
b) Sub part F d) Both (a) and (b)
Page
c) Sub part H
d) Sub part O 4) Production without POA is given in
a) Sub part G
b) Sub part E
c) Sub part F
d) Sub part O
5) Production organization approval for

products , parts and appliance is under CAR 21
a) Sub part G
b) Sub part F
c) Sub part H
d) Sub part O
6) Production organization approval for

products , parts and appliances is reflected in
a) Production organization exposition (POE)
b) Maintenance organization exposition
(MOE)
c) Maintenance organization manual (MOM)
d) Continuing airworthiness management
exposition ( CAME)
Page
CAR SECTION-2 d) DGCA
SESSION QUESTIONS
6) The re-weight of the aircraft weighing less

than 2000 kg is done
a) 5 years
b) Annually
CIVIL AIVIATION c) After major changes in panel / cargo
comportment/pilot
REQUIREMENT -SECTION 2 d) ATA
7) Design maximum weight

JUNE 2016: a) Maximum AUW of balloon filled with
lifting gas (or) air
1) The fuel lubrication and special b) Maximum AUW excluding basket
petroleum product comes under c) Maximum AUW of balloon when not filled
a) Category E with gas (Or) air
b) Category F d) ATA
c) Category G
d) None 8) Inspection to be carried out on direct
reading magnetic compass
2) Aircraft engine fuel should be assessed a) At the time of initial installation
as unsatisfactory for use if b) At the time of C of A renewal
a) More than a trace of sediments c) If the excessive deviation found
b) Globules of water d) ATA
c) Cloudiness 9) MTCS
d) ATA a) MEL is based on MMEL approved by
DGCA
3) General aviation defined as b) MEL is approved by RAO with intimation
a) An aircraft operation involving the to DGCA Hdqrs
transport of passengers c) Both (a) and (b)
b) An aircraft operation other than a d) None
commercial air transport operation
c) An aircraft operation involving the 10) Reweighing is done for
transport of cargo (or) aerial work a) Empty weight CG location
d) Both (a) and (c) b) AUW CG location
c) Maximum weight CG location
4) The fuel gauge should be d) None
a) Unusable fuel should be calibrated as
zero datum line 11) MTCS
b) Unusable fuel should be marked in the a) Single turbine engine and piston engine
green in the dial helicopter group 1
c) Both (a) and (b) b) Single turbine engine helicopter -group I
d) None c) Single piston engine helicopter -group II
d) ATA
5) MEL is approved by
a) RAO with intimation to DGCA 12) Reweighing
Page
b) DGCA Hdqrs a) Adhoc extension of the weightment

c) AMO period of an aircraft by maximum of 3 months
b) Adhoc extension of the weightment 4.) ATA

period of an aircraft by maximum period of 6
months 2) Total time of flight cycle as appropriate of

c) Adhoc extension of the weightment components are retained for a period
period of an aircraft by maximum 12 months 1.) 12 months
d) None 2.) 24 months
3.) 36 months
13) H-part III 4.) 48months
a) Jet A1 has symbol as blue in Colour
b) Jet A1 has three black bands 3) Cancellation, suspension of C of A under
c) Jet A1 has four black bands which A/C rule
d) AV gas has green colour 1.) 50
2.) 55
14) An organization may seek approval 3.) 61
a) CAT -E fuel lubrication and special 4.) ATA
products
b) CAT -G training school 4) Who will ensure that component is not in
c) Both (a) and (b) the A/W state
d) None
1.) Certifying staff
15) FDR 10 hour capacity 2.) Maintenance manager
a) IA 3.) Quality manager
b) I 4.) supervisor
c) IV A 5) Operator technical logbook shall be
d) II preserved for
16) MEL include 1.) 36 months

a) APU
b) Wings and Engine 2.) 3 years
c) Landing gear
d) ATA 3.) 12 months
17) MTCS Regarding Nationality marking
(a) VT in Roman character & mark shall be a 4.) 5 years
group of three capital letter in Roman character
assigned by DGCA.
(b) Letter will be with ornamentation , a hyphen 6) GPWS shall b fitted in
shall be placed between the nationality
mark’ 1.) Piston engine with MTOW of less than
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct 5700Kg
2.) Piston engine with MTOW of more than

5700Kg
FEBRUARY 2016:
3.) Turbine Engine with less than 1500Kg
1) Procedure for refresher course in value
1) training manual 4.) Both 2 and 3 are correct
Page
2.) quality manual

3.) supplementary procedure
7) Reliability program need not be

developed for 1.) C of A fees for A/c with MTOW of less than
1000 kg is Rs.10,000
1.) Maintenance Program is based upto MSG-1
only contains hard time(or) on condition 2.) The initial grand of AME (or) C of C certificate
is Rs. 5000
2.) A/C is not a large A/C
3.) Duplicate C of A fees for A/c with MTOW of
3.) The A/C maintenance program provides less than 1000 kg is Rs. 1000
overhaul permit for all significant system
4.) ATA
4.) ATA
8) Which of following fuel is termed as

contaminated 12) For the preparation of load & trim sheet:-
1.) Cloudiness 1.) Fixed ballast not included in empty weight.
2.) More no. of sediments 2.) A children having 11 year age his weight is
counted as 35 kg
3.) Bubble
3.) ATA
4.) ATA
13) The effective date of CAR Section-2 series E
9) Which category of item regarding to MEL Part VIII?
is repaired within 3 day
1.) 1st August 2018
1.) Cat. A
2.) 1st August 2019
2.) Cat. B
3.) 1st August 2020
3.) Cat. C
4.) None
4.) Cat. D
14) MTCS:-
1.) A group of words used to after nationality

10) In which category of item regarding to MEL is marking to find which country it is related to
repaired within 10days
2.) Nationality marks are used to find a particular
1.) Cat. A A/c
2.) Cat. B 3.) Nationality marks are used to find out

which county the A/c is belong to.
3.) Cat. C
15) MTCS:-
Page
4.) Cat. D
11) MTCS for Fees:- 1.) No photography is allowed in Balloon
2.) MMEL is approved by DGCA

2.) Used for personal flying by pilot need not have
TC. 3.) Operator shall specify the invoking MEL

to the preamble to MEL
3.) No hot air ballo0n shall be flown, unless it
poses a C of A 4.) MMEL is based on MEL
4.) ATA 20) The fuel should not be used if it is stored in

Barrel for more than
16) In case of A/c imported in dismantled 1.) 3 Months

condition
2) 6 Months
1.) Export C of A
3.) 10 Months
2.) Erection certificate signed by appropriate
licensed/authorized person 4.) 12 Months
21) Organization involved in replenishment,
3.) As in 2 & flight test report by pilot storage & distribution of fuel, oil etc..
licensed/approved person
1.) CAT – E
4.) Flight test report by Manufacturer
2) CAT – G
17) Glider use for cloud seeding does not require
3.) CAT – F
1.) Altimeter
4.) CAT – A
2.) Turn bank indicator
22) Organization involved in fuel lubrication and
3.) Artificial Horizon special product under which approval:-
4.) Air speed indicator 1.) CAT – F
18) MEL may include:- 2) CAT – G
1.) Landing Gear 3.) CAT – E
2.) Wings 4.) CAT – L
3.) APU 23) When we required test flight for engine

changing
4.) ATA
1.) In 2 engine A/c 1 engine change
19) MTCS:-
2) In 3 engine A/c 2 engine change
1.) Operator must be in the mailing list of
Page
manufacturer 3.) In 4 engine A/c 2 engine change
4.) All are wrong 1) Specified time

24) Validity of AME license is:- 2) 10 days
1.) 2 Years 3) 10 days
2) 4 Years 4) 120 days
3.) 6 Years 29) MEL rectification should be done in

consecutive days of CAT-C
4.) 5 Years
1) Specified time
25) Organization is approved as rating
2) 10 days
(1) Cat ‘A’ – complete A/C and also can service
un-installed Engine and APU. 3) 120 days
(2) Cat ‘B’ -- can carry out base maintenance 4) ATA

servicing .
30) Which of the following is not required for a/c
(3) Cat ‘C’ Un-installed components including not used in cloud seeding
Engine and APU.
1) Artificial horizon
(4) Cat ‘D’ – approval is necessary for carrying
out NDT. 2) Turn and Back indicator
26) MTCS :- Regarding logbook
3) Altimeter
(1) Section - III contains major repair & FEBRUARY 2015:
overhaul
(2) Section – I contains minor repair 1) Fuel gauge shall

a) Calibrated with this amount of unusable
(3) Section – II contains modification & fuel as zero datum
repair b) Dial shall be marked green arc to
indicate unusable fuel
27) Manufacture will issue c) Calibrated at every six month
d) ATA
(1) Service Bulletins
2) In absence of manufacture
(2) Service Letters recommendation VSI should be overhauled
a) 3 year/2000 hours whichever is earlier
(3) Service Instruction b) 2 year/2000 hours whichever is earlier
c) 2000 hours only
(4) ATA d) None
28) .MEL rectification should be done in 3) Which fuel sample is said to be

Page
consecutive days of CAT-B: unsatidfactory

a) More than trace of sediments
b) Globules of water
c) Cloudiness 10) MTCS (flight recorder)
d) ATA a) Crash protected flight recorder comprise

one (Or) more CVR, AIR, DLR
4) GPWS shall be installed in b) Light weight flight recorder comprise one
a) PE aircraft with MTOW 5700 kg (or) more (Or) more ADRS, CVRS, DLRS
b) TE aircraft with MTOW 15000 kg (or) less c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
11) Pooled parts can be used
5) Amendment of CAR is indicated by a) Not be used for more than 50 flight hours
a) A vertical black line along left hand side b) Toll aircraft to return the main base ,
b) A horizontal black line along left hand where sufficient time is available
side c) As in (b) not more than 180 flight hours
c) A vertical black line along right hand side d) As in (a) approved by DGCA
d) None
12) When new radio equipment installed on
6) The use of magnetic tape & wire CVR aircraft the aeromobile license indicating new
shall discontinued addition
a) 1st July 2014 on the aircraft is issued by
b) 1st Jan 2016 a) DGCA Hdqrs
c) 1st June 2015 b) RAO
d) 1st Jan 2018 c) Ministry of civil aviation
d) Ministry of communication
7) MTCS ( regarding FDR parameter)
a) Type IA-48 parameter in 25 hours 13) Static and Pitot in night flying which colour
b) Type I -32 parameters in 10 hours and light shows VSI/ASI
c) Type II- 15 parameters in 25 hours a) Red
d) Type IVA-48 parameters in 10 hours b) Low intensity white
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
8) Unusable fuel indicated in
a) Empty weight 16) Which type of FDR is capable of retaining
b) Limit CG information for last 10 hours
c) MTOW a) IA
d) Removable equipment b) II A
c) IV A
9) MTCS (all aeroplane of a MTOM of over d) I
5700 kg for which the individual C of A first issue
on) 17) MTCS
a) After 1st Jan 2013 a) MMEL is issued by state of design/
b) As in (a) equipped with a CVR applicable manufacture
of rating the information recorded during at least b) Operators prepare MEL on the basis of
2 hours MMEL issued by DGCA
c) As in (a) equipped with a CVRS applicable c) Both (a) and (b)
of rating the information recorded during at least d) None
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2 hours
d) ATA JUNE 2015:
7) A document is issued when the aircraft

1) If an aircraft has been registered under doesn’t meet with C of A specification but still
CAT B then the owner should be continue

a) State government so the safety of the aircraft is not
b) Owner running principle business place compromised
in India a) Export C of A
c) Company registered elsewhere in India , b) Permit to fly/ special permission
but having a place here c) Temporary C of A
d) ATA d) ATA
2) MTCS (regarding MEL)

a) Owner should be get the MEL from 8) If the aircraft is imported to India with
manufacture as part of aircraft documentation other C of R
b) He should be in mailing list of a) Temporary C of R may issued by DGCA
manufacture b) C of R issued by that country is valid
c) MMEL is issued by the regulatory c) Both (a) and (b)
authority of the country where it has been d) None
manufactured
d) ATA 9) Which FDR records operation upto 10
hours
3) The minimum requirement of GPWS is a) IA
a) PE below 5700 kg b) II
b) PE above 5700 kg c) IV A
c) Turbine engine less than 5700 kg d) I
d) Both (b) and (c)
10) MTCS (regarding nationality and registration
4) Overhaul period of VSI mark)
a) 3 years/2000hours a) The nationality mark are charcters which
b) 3 years/1000 hours shows to which country is operators
c) 2 years/1000 hours b) The registration markare characters
d) None which shows to which country is belongs
c) The registration mark are characters
5) If an aircraft has been landed due to given after the nationality mark
system failure then it is a d) Both (a) and (c)
a) Precautionary landing
b) Heavy landing 11) Which of the following is not a psychoactive
c) Emergency landing substance
d) ATA a) Alcohol
b) Sedative
6) Parameters such as engine fuel flow , c) Tobacco
EGT,EPR, OAT, AUM, ASI, altitude indicater d) None
indicates
a) Engine performance 12) A pilot wants to fly a hot air balloon himself
b) Airframe performance without a type certificate , then he shall be
c) Both (a) and (b) classified
d) None as
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a) Normal category and subdivision private
b) Special category and sub division 18) Which of the following fuel is termed as
experimentation contaminated
c) Aerobatic category and sub division a) Cloudiness

private b) More number of sediments
d) Normal category and sub division c) Bubbles
passenger d) ATA
13) Aircraft engine fuel should be assessed as 19) If there is any new revision in the manual (or)
unsatisfactory if any airworthiness document it is indicated by
a) More than a trace of sediments a) Black vertical line along the left hand
b) Globules of water side margin
c) Cloudiness b) Black vertical line along the right hand
d) ATA side margin
c) Either (a) or (b)
14) General aviation is defined as d) None
a) An aircraft operation involving the
transport of passenger 20) Magnetic tape CVR /FDR shall be
b) An aircraft operation other than a discontinued from
commercial air transport operation a) 1st Jan 2016
c) An aircraft operation involving the b) 1st Jan 2015
transport of cargo (Or) aerial work c) Hence forth with
d) Both (a) and (c) d) None
OCTOBER 2015:
15) The fuel quantity gauge should be
a) Unusable fuel should be marked with 1) The procedure for registration of a/c is
green arc in the dial given in annexure
b) Unusable fuel should be calibrated as (a) ICAO ANNEX 8
zero datum line (b) ICAO ANNEX 7
c) Both (a) and (b) (c) ICAO annex 6
d) None (d ) annex 1
2) The schedule operator shall prepare fleet

performance ,engineering statistics report as
required
16) If an aircraft has a pooled part then the (a) CAR sec 2 D P-II
operating life for that component should be (b) CAR section 2series I part-II
a) 50 flight hours (c) CAR section 2 series C part-V
b) 100 flight hours
c) 100 flight hours (or) till the aircraft 3) The scheduled operator should submit
reaches the main base where replacement can major defect report within.
be done (A) 24 hrs
d) None (b) 3 days
17) MTCS ( regarding FDR) (C) quarterly
a) Type IA: 48 parameters for 25 hours (D) two weeks
b) Type I : 78 parameter for 10 hours
c) Type II : 25 parameters for 25 hours 4) The category-c defect rectification
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d) Type IV : 48 parameters for 10 hours interval as mentioned in the preamble of the

MEL as
(a) 120days (A) minimum 6 aircraft of particular

(b) 10days model/variant
(c) as specified in the remark column (B) the operators entire aircraft operated by them
(d) 3days in their org constitutes a air craft fleet
(C) minimum 3 aircraft of particular model/
[[{{ Dear Followers If you have variant
previous year DGCA question papers or (D) the operator/org operatable aircraft can only
be considered as aircraft fleet.
aviatorslinks@gmail.com ” or 8) the engine shutdown during flight
you can share on facebook also and because of flame – out?
help other students in their exam (A) group-1
(B) group-2
name and details within 24 hr. (C) group-3
"You feel good because you're helping (D) group-4
because they're getting help.” 9) The fuel lubricants and special petroleum
We are not generating any type of product comes under
(A) CAR SEC-2 series –E
Share more n more document with us. (B) CAR-145
Thanks (C) CAR-M subpart f
Good Luck (D) Category E
10) the org which is located within India shall

5) MTCS regarding Mel submit application from to director general
(A) the MMEL is approved by DGCA in
(B) the operator shall specify his (A) CA-form 2
photography for invoicing MEL in the preamble (B) CA -182D
the Mel (C) CA-182 F
(C) Mel included passenger convenience (D) CA-182A
equipment
11) The state government aircraft registered in
6) The unserviceable MEL items are INDIA shall come under which category
rectified by the operator (a) category-a
(A) The rectification of defects according to (b) category-b
operators scheduled timetable (c) either (a) or (b)
(B) operator make repair where ever major (d) both (a) and (b)
maintenance carried out
(C) operator generally make repairs at the first 12) MTCS regarding a/c imported to by air
station where replace or replacement can be (a) Temporary COR will be valid, till the validity
made which specified in the certificate
(D) operator follow defect rectification according itself
to manufacturers instruction (b) The temporary COR shall be surrendered by
the owner / his representative to
7) aircraft fleet according to CAR-SEC- 2 DGCA along with application for registration of
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means a/c
(c) To obtain temporary COR , an aero mobile

license will be issued after obtaining 18) The storage /shelf life of rubber parts for
permanent COR hydraulic & pneumatic components shall be

(d) ATA stored for
(a) 6yrs from cure date of manufacturer
13) The registration of an a/c registered in India (b) 4 yrs from cure date of manufacturer
may be cancelled by DGCA in what (c) As in (a)if manufacturer has restricted the
circumstances cure date of manufacture before 6yrs then that
(a) If a/c sufferers with major defects /damage will prevail
(b) If a/c major defect is not rectified according (d) 4 yrs from the date of manufacturer’s &
to the manufacturers instruction subject to stretch test & detailed examination
(c) the a/c could be more suitable to be
registered in some other country 19) Whenever it is desired to install new radio
equipment/there is requirement to change the
14) The goods a/c comes under which category existing avionics installations Then which is
of a/c classification applicable
(a) Normal category sub division - C (a) For any/new aviation installation a STC
(b) Normal category sub division-A should be developed
(c) Normal category sub division -E (b) As in (a)if new /existing aviation installations
(d) Normal category sub division-G is not covered by STC then a prior permission
15) MTCS regarding classification of a/c is required from DGCA as per CAR section 2
(a) Aerobatic a/c may be used for special Series R part-II
category (c) For grant of approval from DGCA proposal
(b) Normal category a/c can be used under should be made through local a/w office
special category (d) ATA
(c) Aerobatic category a/c can be used under
normal category for the purpose of 20) MTCS regarding flight recorders
using as private jet (a) The crash protected flight recorder will use
(d) NOTA airborne image recorder or Data link recorder as
AIR/DLR
16) The pooling of a/c parts by national airlines (b) The light weight flight recorders will use
of India with foreign airlines comes under airborne image recording system or data link
which recording system AIRS /DLRS
part & series of CAR section 2 (c) Both the above are correct
(a) Series D part-II
(b) Series F part-V 21) The replacement of standard components
(c) Series F part-XVII during scheduled period and replacement carried
(d) Series F part II out
according to approved maintenance program ,
17) In case of non scheduled operation which of which involves assembly, disassembly ,
the following will be applicable to it maintenance comes in scheduled way comes
(a) Non-pressurized a/c of more than 25yrs of under
age is allowed (a) hard time limit
(b) pressurized a/c of not more than 15yrs is (b) condition monitoring
permitted (c) on-condition monitoring
(c) For import of un pressurized a/c will be (d) both (a)&(c)are correct
Page
permitted for more than 30 yrs 22) The propeller overhauling the AME should
(d) NOTA have specific license for a/c maintenance in
(a) ICAO CAT-X{type III} d) ICAO annex 8

(b) ICAO CAT-X{type II}
(c) ICAO CAT-X{type I} 6) MTCS ( regarding rebuilding of aircraft)

(d) ICAO CAT-D{type III} a) Temporary C of R will be issued for a
period of 1 year
b) Which can be extended in exceptional
JUNE 2014: cases upto 2 years
c) Permanent registration will be allotted
1) Defect causing mechanical delays on d) ATA
aircraft operated by schedule operator shall be
reported to 7) Permit to fly in relation to micro light
a) DGCA aircraft pursuant to provide
b) RAO a) C of R & C of A
c) As in (a) within 24 hours b) TC & C of R
d) As in (b) within 24 hours c) TC & C of A
d) ATA
2) The record associated with the defects & 8) Light aircraft unusable fuel quantity are
their rectification actions shall be preserved for a available in the
period a) C of R
of b) Type certification/ Flight manual
a) 1 year c) C of A
b) 2 years d) None
c) 3 years
d) 4 years
9) MTCS
3) The component associated with major a) Dial shall be marked with the a red arc to
defects shall be preserved for a period of indicate maximum fuel range
a) 2 weeks from the date of information b) The quantity of unusable fuel determined
b) 3 weeks from the date of information shall be deemed to be a prat on the empty
c) 4 weeks from the date of information weight
d) None on the aircraft
c) Both (a) and (b)
4) The average of fuel & oil consumption of d) Either (a) or (b)
piston engine will be recorded in the engine log
book 10) In the case of AVGAS the periods have been
by an appropriately licensed AME exceeded barreled fuel should be used unless
a) After the overhaul test of the engine the
b) Partial / top overhaul on repair of the lab test
engine followed by a test run /test flight as a) 2 months
applicable b) 10 months
c) As per the approved maintenance c) 6 months
program d) None
d) ATA
11) All aircraft when operated as VFR flight shall
5) Registration of aircraft be equipped with
a) ICAO annex 5 a) Pressure altimeter & magnetic compass
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b) ICAO annex 6 b) ASI & oil pressure indicator

c) ICAO annex 7 c) Oil temperature gauge & fuel gauge
d) ATA c) 120 days

d) None
12) MTCS
a) Crash protected flight recorders comprise 2) Procedure for aircraft registration is given
AIR, DLR in which annex
b) Light weight flight recorder comprise a) ICAO annex 5
ADRS, CARS, AIRS b) ICAO annex 7
c) Both (a) and (b) c) ICAO annex 13
d) None d) ICAO annex 1
13) MTCS ( regarding FDR) 3) GPWS fitted under which aircraft

a) IA -32 parameter last 25 hours a) Piston engine aeroplane of max certified
b) I - 78 parameter last 25 hours take off mass excess 5700 kg
c) II -15 parameter last 10 hours b) Turbine engine aeroplane of MTOW of
d) IV A-48 parameters last 10 hours 15000 kg
c) Only (a) is correct
14) All Aeroplanes of a MTOW 5700 kg which the d) Both (a) and (b)
individual C of A is first issued on after 1st Jan
2003 be equipped with 4) What is repetitive defect
a) CVR a) Defect which occurs after several
b) As in (a) CVR capable of retaining into rectification attempt on same aircraft (or) aircraft
last 1 hour different
c) As in (a) CVRS capable of retaining in last b) The defects occurs every time
2 hours c) The defect which occurs every fixed time
d) None d) None
15) The use of magnetic type & wire CVR shall be 5) If an aircraft carries 251 passengers the
discontinued number of FAB (or) FAK required is
a) 1st Jan 2019 a) 1
b) 1st Jan 2016 b) 2
c) 1st Jan2012 c) 3
d) 1st Jan 2013 d) 4
16) Specialized process such as welding & NDT 6) The FDR which records 10 hours
given in a) IA
a) CAR Sec2 Series-L part XIII b) II A
b) CAR Sec2 Series-L part XIV c) IV
c) CAR Sec2 Series-L part XV d) I
d) CAR Sec2 Series-L part XVI
7) What is general aviation
a) Private operators
OCTOBER 2014: b) State government operators
c) Flying training school
d) ATA
1) Category B defect should be rectified 8) Unusable fuel in the fuel gauge is marked
within by
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a) 10 days a) Red arc

b) 3 days b) Green arc
c) As in (a) by zero datum line

d) As in (b) by zero datum line 15) The oil consumption shall be recorded by the
maintenance engineer
a) After the overhaul test of engine
b) After the partial/ top overhaul (or) repair
9) Items of MEL which is categorized under of the engine followed by a test run/test flight as
category C shall be repaired within possible
a) 3 consecutive calendar days c) At periods approved as per the approved
b) 10 consecutive calendar days maintenance program
c) 120 consecutive calendar days d) ATA
d) Immediately after repair
16) Organization engaged in storage of bulk fuel
10) Group of characters which follow after the should be categorized in
nationality marks are given to a) Category F
a) Identify the state of registry b) Category E
b) Identify the owner /operator c) Category G
c) Identify the country which is operating d) None
the aircraft
d) ATA 17) MTCS
a) Nationality marks are group of characters
11) MEL is approved by affixed on aircraft surface to identify the country
a) FOI & DGCA to which the aircraft belongs
b) RAO b) Registration marks is a group of
c) Operator characters affixed on aircraft structure to identify
d) None the
country
12) MTCS ( regarding MMEL) c) Nationality mark is a group of characters
a) The operator has to be mailing list of affixed on aircraft surface to identify the operator
manufactures updates d) ATA
b) The operator should ensure that MMEL is
accrued from the last operator 18) ICAO annex 7 is talks about
c) MMEL should be tailored by the operator a) Registration of aircraft
based on experiences b) Operations
d) ATA c) Investigations of accidents
d) None
13) Vertical speed indicator should be
overhauled 19) Fuel gauge of aircraft should be
a) Every 2000 hours a) Identify the amount of unusable fuel
b) Every 3 years/2000 hours during installation of new fuel quantity gauge
c) Every 2 years /1000 hours b) The unusable fuel gauge should be
d) Every 3 years /1000 hours marked in red
c) The fuel gauge shall be calibrated with
14) All defects of major repair should be this amount of unusable fuel as zero datum
intimated to the DGCA by scheduled operator d) ATA
a) Every 6 months
b) Every 24 hours 20) Inspection carried out on direct reading
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c) Every month magnetic compass

d) Quarterly a) At the time of initial installation
b) At the time of C of A renewal c) I (or) R

c) If the excessive deviation found d) V
d) ATA
28) Instrument reading / deviation from standard
21) DGCA cancel / suspend C of R recording as determined by manufacture /DGCA
a) It was gained by furnishing false available form mach meter fuel flow meter , ASI
b) C of A is suspended for 2 years (or) more a) Engine performance
c) Unapproved modification /repair is b) Airframe performance
carried out c) Both engine & Airframe performance
d) ATA d) None
22) MTCS FEBRUARY 2013:

a) Fueling shall be done within 10 meters
b) Fueling shall be done in hanger
c) Fueling shall not be done within 30 meter 1) MTCS ( regarding RVSM )
from radar equipment a) RAO approved to operator for RVSM
d) None b) Aircraft approved for RVSM operation
c) Operator ensure that the pilot has proper
23) Maximum service life of rubber parts training for RVSM
a) 4 years d) ATA
b) 6 years
c) 10 years 2) Which Category of MEL has rectification
d) None intervals of the defects
a) Category -A
24) Manufacture generally issue changes to their b) Category -B
a) SB c) Category -C
b) SL d) None
c) SI
d) ATA 3) The items which may not be included
items like
25) Which is not require prior approval of DGCA a) Wings , blight controls
a) AD b) Galley equipment
b) SB c) Entertainment system
c) Modification mandated by DGCA d) ATA
d) None
4) The engine shut down during the flight
26) When the C of A has been suspended then because of the flame out is
revalidation a) Group I defect
a) From date of test fight b) Group II defect
b) From date of initial inspection by RAO c) Major defect
c) From date satisfactory modification d) Minor defect
/repair
d) None 5) The written information containing
complete details about major defect shall be
27) Maintenance of ACAS is certified by AME reported by the
category operators other than scheduled operator to RAO
Page
a) R/V with in
b) I/R a) 24 hours
b) 3 days
c) 6 months 12) All power glider are equipped with
d) 4 months instruement for operation

a) Altimeter
6) For the security clearance of foreign b) Altimeter indicator
student for the admission for AME he should c) RPM gauge
approach d) Both (a) and (b)
a) DGCA
b) Chief instructor of AME training institute 13) The reweighing of the aircraft weighing less
through DGCA than 2000 kg is done
c) Foreign authority of the country a) Annually
d) Any one of the above b) 5years
c) After major changes in passenger/cargo
7) Use of magnetic tape and wire CVR shall compartment/pilot
be discontinued d) ATA
a) 1st Jan 2016
b) 31st Dec 2016 14) Log book entries shall be transferred to log
c) 1st Jan 2013 book
d) 31st Dec 2013 a) Within 24 hours
b) Within 48 hours of the main base (or)
8) The duration of CVR shall be aircraft return to main base
discontinued from c) Within 3 days
a) At least 30 min of their operation d) With 48 hours of the return to main base
b) As in (a) shall be recorded for extended
for 60 min of operation 15) MTCS
c) As in(a) the recorded shall be deactivated a) Probability in the event of transmitter in
during accident and incident the event of crash imapcat is minimized
d) None b) Probable (Or) fixed type easily removed
from the aircraft
9) The propeller overhauling should have c) Probable type impact to damage
specific license to AME d) Fixed type ELT impact to damage is equal
a) ICAO CAT X (type III)
b) ICAO CAT X (type I) 16) Aircraft that do not meet (Or) have not been
c) ICAO CAT X ( type II) shown to meet applicable airworthiness
d) None requirement
but are capable of safe flight under defined
10) MTCS (regarding powered hand glider) conditions
a) Less than 275 kg double seater a) C of A
b) Less than 375 kg single seater b) Export of C of A
c) Less than 275 kg single seater c) Permit to fly
d) None d) None
11) Unmanned aircraft means 17) There may be situation where C of A an

a) Aircraft an operator without pilot on Indian registered aircraft may get lapsed while
board operating
b) As in (a) include unmanned free balloons in a foreign country C of A will be renewed
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c) As in (b) include remotely piloted aircraft a) DGCA will issue short term C of A
d) None
b) Renewed after where the C of A has b) 45

lapsed c) 60

d) None
3) In registration mention
18) MTCS ( regarding CARS) a) Type of aircraft
a) It is a light weight flight recording system b) Number of passengers
installed in the aircraft c) Number of crew
b) Recording the voice communication d) ATA
transmitted from (or) received in the aeroplane
by radio 4) Engine (or) propeller log book kept for
c) Environmental on the flight deck during a) 6 months
flight for the purpose of accident /incident b) 12 months
purpose c) 18 months
d) ATA d) None
19) If the aircraft is the first model / series 5) Which CAT license required for
exported to India , DGCA ensure compliance of overhauling of equipment
Indian a) CAT-X ICAO-1
airworthiness requirement before issuing Indian b) CAT-X ICAO-2
C of A c) CAT-X ICAO-3
a) Export C of A d) None
b) Short term C of A issued by state of
manufacture 6) Unit of speed
c) Either (a) or (b) a) 1kn/min
d) None b) 1kn/hr
c) 10 miles/min
20) For light aircraft : issue of certificate of d) 1 aeronautical /min
maintenance flight release in respect of
instruments 7) Quantity of unusable fuel is given in
electrical, auto pilot a) TC/flight manual
a) Category A(light aircraft) b) C of A
b) Category B ( light aircraft) c) C of R
c) Category B ( heavy aircraft) d) ATA
d) Any one of the above
8) Gyrohorizon , indicator ,directional gyro
JUNE 2013: maximum overhauling period is
a) 2 years/1000 hrs
1) All malfunction across in flight requires b) 2 years/2000 hrs
aircraft according during condition c) 2 years/3000 hrs
a) CCL d) None
b) ECL
c) Malfunction check list 9) Aircraft not in A/W condition but it may
d) Normal check list be safe to fly over specified by RAO is called
a) Permit to fly
2) If CI is absent for number of days the b) Special permission for fly
Page
approval can be suspend c) Ferry fly

a) 30 d) None
10) Ferry flight permit may be issued 16) When performing aircraft review entry in
a) Fly at main base with passengers which log book

b) Fly at place where maintenance can be a) Aircraft log book
done b) Technical log book
c) Fly at main base without passengers to c) Engine log book
maintenance to be done on aircraft d) ATA
d) None
17) Aircraft fuel vehicles are approved by
11) Reweighing of aircraft done aircraft weight a) Chief Inspector of Explosive
less than 2000 kg b) QCM
a) 1 year c) RAO
b) 5 years in case more than 2000 kg d) DGCA
c) When any repair / modification
d) ATA 18) DRM compass shall be calibrated when
a) After installation strong magnetic field in
12) Replacing a component at specified time in cockpit
AMM requires a component for bench checked b) Compass in doubt
Insitu c) After specified period
check & test d) ATA
a) Hard time
b) On condition 19) MTCS
c) Condition monitoring a) Nationality mark shows exact country of
d) None aircraft
b) Registration mark shows country of
13) Engine damage meant removal of any engine aircraft
and its replaced by c) Registration marking identified
a) Overhaul engine nationality marking
b) An engine removal from any of other d) ATA
position to same aircraft (or) any other aircraft
c) Re-installation of the same engine on the 20) MTCS
same aircraft its original position would not a) Minor defects reduce the safety of
contribute engine change for this purpose aircraft
d) ATA b) Major defect reduce the safety of aircraft
c) Major and minor both reduce safety of
14) Storage self life of rubber parts for hydraulic the aircraft
and components are d) None
a) 3 years
b) 6 years OCTOBER 2013:
c) As in (a) follow manufacture instruction
d) As in (b) follow manufacture instruction 1) Any malfunction across in flight require
aircraft according during condition
15) Engine oil completion CHT & Airframe a) CCL
structure , entry is done in b) ECL
a) Engine log book c) Malfunction check list
b) Airframe d) Normal check list
Page
c) Engine &Airframe log book

d) ATA 2) Category G organization means
a) Fueling lubricants & special products

b) Training school 10) Group B hose consist of
c) Maintenance organization a) Hydraulic and return line

d) None b) Hydraulic & pneumatic line
c) Pressure line
3) In a Jet aircraft age can be determined by d) None
a) Number of pressurization
b) Number of take off & landings 11) Aircraft weight less than 3000 kg
c) Age in years a) At least 100 hours PIC
d) ATA b) At least 200 hours PIC
c) At least 250 hours PIC
4) A hot air balloon d) None
a) Need not to carry type certificate
b) Need not to carry C of R 12) Validity of the C of C is
c) Need not to carry C of A a) 6 months
d) None b) 1 year
c) 2 years
5) Normally pooled part shall not be done d) None
for
a) 50 hours 13) Entries in log book when aircraft is away from
b) 200 hours its main base
c) 100 hours a) Within 48 hours
d) None b) (Or) return to main base
c) Both (a) and (b)
6) Magnetic compass compass needle d) None
deflection
a) 10 degree 14) Potential threat intruder
b) 15 degree a) Traffic advisory
c) 20 degree b) Collision warning system
d) 30 degree c) Used in fighter aircraft
d) None
7) Heavy landing check
a) All wire antenna 15) In case AME license collapsed for 1 year
b) SWR check a) Oral check by RAO
c) Radio installation b) Oral check by DGCA
d) None c) Oral check by DAW
d) None
8) Mode “S” address consist of
a) 18 bits 16) To change of 20Db implies that voltage (or)
b) 22 bits current changed by
c) 24 bits a) Factor of 10
d) None b) Factor 20
c) Factor 30
9) Aircraft log book preserved for d) Factor 40
a) 1 year
b) 2 years 17) Defects including engine shut down
Page
c) 3 years during flight because flame out

d) 5 years a) Group I
b) Group II 23) Document issued to the design economic life

c) Major incident completed aircraft
d) Minor incident a) MEL

b) SSID/CPCP
18) Aircraft equipped with CVR should be c) CDL
capable of storing the recorded data for d) ATA
a) 30 hours
b) 20 hours 24) If an aircraft is imported at the age of 8 years
c) 50 hours then validity of C of A upto
d) 25 hours a) 2 years
b) 3 years
19) MTCS c) 1 year
a) Mandatory modifications and inspections d) None
are promulgated by airworthiness authority of the
country & registration of aircraft 25) Incase C of A of an aircraft is suspended on
b) Mandatory modification and inspection account of a major accident (or) other reason
are promulgated by DGCA then the
c) Mandatory modification and inspection validity of C of A is
are promulgated by airworthiness authority of a) Previous current validity of C of A
country of manufacture of aircraft components b) 2 years
d) Both (a) and (b) c) 5 years
d) 1 year/ not validate if major accident
20) Design maximum weight of hot air balloon is
over maximum all up weight of the balloon
a) When filled with gas 26) The glider
b) When filled in on gas a) Do not have TC
c) Except weight of the basket b) Have a C of A
d) None c) Both (a)and (b)
d) None
21) An organization may seek approval under the
categories 27) If an aircraft is imported to India more than
a) CAT A- manufacture of aircraft /aircraft 20 years for flying training purpose then
goods a) Aircraft imported with new engine /
b) CAT E- fuel lubricants and specialized overhauled engine
products b) Aircraft have been not operated more
c) CAT G- Training schools than 12,000 hours
d) Both (b) and (c) c) Aircraft have a valid C of A and
component have overhaul life
22) In case aircraft was imported in dismantelde d) Both (a) and (c)
condition
a) Erection certificate is signed by 28) MTCS
appropriately licensed /authorized person a) Fuel quantity gauges calibrated every C
b) As in (a) flight test report by the pilot of A inspection (Or) major check
authorized / licensed / approved person b) As in (a) after installation of gauge
c) Both (a) and (b) c) Unusable fuel is part of empty weight
d) None d) ATA
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29) The AME license is lapsed for a period of 1 c) No hot air balloon shall be flown , unless
year it possess C of A
a) Renewed with warning d) ATA

b) An oral examination
c) Written paper IV and oral 36) Any revisions / amendments to MEL shall be
d) Renewed by QCM approved by
a) RAO
30) No person shall operate RVSM aerospace b) DGCA(DRD)
unless c) DGCA Hdqrs
a) Operator comply with requirements of d) None
CAR
b) Operators authorized by DGCA 37) When the propeller is removed from an
c) Operator specification of operating engine , entry for removal of propeller shall be
permit endorsed by DGCA made in
d) ATA a) Engine log book
b) Concerned engine and propeller log book
31) Temporary C of R is valid upto c) As in (b) aircraft log book
a) Until the aircraft is issued with regular d) Propeller log book only since propeller
registration has its own log book
b) Till the first landing in custom aerodrome
c) Till it return to main base 38) Who is responsible for ensuring that aircraft
d) ATA operators as per operating limitation specified
by ,manufacture of aircraft and DGCA
32) The head phone for helicopter main rotor
speed is recorded in CVR on a) Owner of aircraft
a) Track1 b) Operator of aircraft
b) Track 2 c) Both (a) and (b)
c) Track3 d) None
d) Track 4
39) When any modification is carried out in an
33) With application of C of R , fees for maximum aircraft , its duty of concerned operator to
AUW 16000 kg is intimate
a) Rs 20000 a) Manufacture
b) Rs 22000 b) All AME’s
c) Rs 25000 c) R& D of DGCA
d) Rs 28000 d) None
34) For imported aircraft flight manual and 40) For the conformation of airworthiness of
amendment there to be issued by aircraft
a) Approval By country of manufacturing a) TC issued by DGCA
b) As in (a) approval by DGCA b) CS/JAR 23 & 25 of Europe
c) As in (a) deemed to have been approval c) FAR 27 & 29 USA
by DGCA d) ATA
d) ATA 41) MTCS ( if pivot fiction is unknown)
35) In case of hot air balloon a) Determining by deflecting the compass
a) No photography equipment taken 10 degree allowing it to return to magnetic
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b) Used personnel flying by pilot, need not meridian

have TC
b) As in (a) change in indication of the 2) See and avoid given by

original reading shall not exceed by 3 degree a) ACAS I with SSR transponder
c) As in (b) periods specified by b) ACAS II

manufacture c) Mode A/c transponder
d) ATA d) Mode C transponder
42) DRM compass as installed on aircraft , 3) Ferry flight permission grant by

calibrated & compensated a) DGCA
a) Engine replaced mounted on left (Or) b) RAO
right wing c) QCM
b) When installation having other d) Any one of the above
equipment of having strong external magnetic
field 4) MTOW is given in
c) When there is damage to compass a) TC
d) Both (b) and (c) b) C of A & flight manual
c) C of R
43) Instrument must be stored & practiced under d) Both (b) and (c)
control temperature
a) 5deg -25 deg not exceeding 70% 5) In micro light aircraft permit to fly that is
humidity issued in lieu
b) 25 deg-28 deg not exceeding 85 % a) C of A & TC
humidity b) Log book
c) 20deg-25 deg & not exceeding 95 % c) Flight manual
humidity d) C of R
d) None
6) ACAS in MEL is rectified
44) Knots is measured as a) Within 10 days
a) 1 nautical mile/min b) Within 48 hours
b) 1 nautical mile/hour c) Within 7 days
c) 1 aeronautical mile/min d) None
d) 1 aeronautical km/hour
7) For C of A shows
45) Reliability of engine fitted to the aircraft shall a) Class of aeronautical product
be ,measured in terms of no.&nature b) Airworthiness tag
a) All IFSD excluding flame out c) Design standard
b) All IFSD including flame out d) ATA
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None 8) New radio equipment installation
requires short form Aero mobile license from
FEBRUARY 2012: a) Ministry of communication(WPC)
b) DGCA
c) RAO
1) DGCA issue Export C of A for aircraft d) RAO with intimation to DGCA
a) Manufactured in India
b) For other country 9) MTCS
c) For aircraft manufactured out side India a) Aircraft AUW above 2000kg is reweighed
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d) None after every 5 years (Or) interval of DGCA

b) After major modification
c) Adhoc extension up to 3 month by RAO d) none

d) ATA
19) An aircraft defect that hazards seriously flight

10) When aircraft away from main base safety
a) Entry is made in working copies of log a) Should be rectified further flight
book b) Defect under MEL then defect can be
b) Daily send report to main base defused
c) Main log book carried on board c) As when defect acceptable to DGCA
d) JLB column number XI d) ATA
11) unintentional landing due to malfunction of 20) Category D- AME can

failure of components (or) system a) Certify overhaul of engine
a) Emergency landing b) Can certify manufactured of simple parts
b) Forced landing which are as per approved design
c) Hard landing c) Can certify flight release
d) ATA d) Both (a) and (b)
12) When importing aircraft bu Indian operator 21) Boroscopic inspection of engine
ensure the aircraft is a) By category” C” AME
a) Conforms to the design standard as b) By specially approved person
acceptable to DGCA c) By AME category ‘C’ rated engine
b) Conforms to AD code of FAR 23& 25 d) None
c) as in (a) and (b) FAR 27&29
d) Both (a) and (b) 22) Flame resistance means
a) Not susceptible to propagating flame
13) For aircraft imported C of A valid from before source removed
a) Date of issue of export of C of A b) Not susceptible to propagating flame
b) Date of issue of import C of A after ignition source is removed
c) Either (a) or (b) c) Not susceptible to propagating flame
d) Both (a) and (b) ignition after 10 min is removed
d) ATA
16) Which MEL item reported within category C
a) Immediate 23) Colour of hose for fuel dis-pending
b) 3 consecutive days a) JET A1 -Black
c) 10 consecutive days b) AVGAS-Red
d) 120 consecutive days c) K60-Yellow
d) Both (a) and (b)
17) Application for registration ETOP not required
a) Aircraft registration number 24) CVR installed
b) Aircraft serial number a) As far after as practicable & in vicinity of
c) APU details rear pressure bulk head for pressurized aircraft
d) Time in world fleet b) As for as front as practicable & in vicinity
of rear pressure bulk head for pressurized
18) Rectification period of defect group I and aircraft
group II c) Either (a) or (b)
a) As to satisfaction of DGCA d) Both (a) and (b)
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b) Include corrective action & root cause

c) Both (a) and (b) 25) For copters having MTOW of 7000 kg
a) One FDR installed

b) One CVR must be installed
c) One FDR & one CVR must be installed

d) None
26) All Multi engine aircraft shall be equipped

with JUNE 2012:
a) FDR
b) CVR
c) Both (a) and (b) where STC available 1) MEL amendments are approved by
d) Both (a) and (b) where STC not available a) Operator
27) ACAS-II b) RAO
a) Threat detection c) DGCA Hdqrs
b) Maintain vertical clearance d) SRAO
c) Terrain warning
d) ATA 2) Static bulk storage fuel tanks should be
inspected if no additions is made during the last
28) RVSM requirements a) 2months
a) Vertical distance b) 3 months
b) As in (a) horizontal distance also c) 6 months
c) Both (a) and (b) d) 2 weeks
d) None
3) While working which describes regarding
29) ACAS-II gives electromagnetic interference it is helpful to
a) Traffic advisory remember
b) Threat detection that a change of 2 db implies that the voltage (or)
c) Surveillance of SSR transponder current has changed by a factor of
d) ATA a) 10
b) 20
30) Deactivation procedure for GPWS c) 2
a) Aero plane flight manual d) 6
b) Maintenance system manual
c) Pilot notes 4) Validity of C of C
d) None a) One year
b) Six months
31) Decision altitude less than 60 m but greater c) Unlimited
than 30 m runway visual range not less than 350 d) Two years
m
a) Category I 5) Mandatory modification will be issued by
b) Category III A a) Country of registry
c) Category II b) DGCA
d) Category III c) Regulatory authority of country of
manufacture
32) Electrical storm look for d) Manufacturer
a) RF insulation
b) Antenna , radar distortion 6) Alert value means
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c) SWR check for transmitter a) Maximum deviation from the normal

d) ATA operating limit
b) These are not acceptable limits 13) After heavy landing , communication,
c) It should not cause malfunction to an navigation, and radar equipment's should be
extend where aircraft safety is in jeopardy checked for

d) ATA a) Insulation of RF cable
b) SWR check of transmitter
7) ELT must be installed on the aircraft c) All wire antenna , check for distortion
a) In the case of pressurized aeroplane it /damage
should be located in the vicinity of the rear d) ATA
pressure
bulk head 14) When any modification on aircraft, it is the
b) As fast as after practicable duty of the concerned operator to intimate
c) Both (a) and (b) a) Manufacturer
d) None b) All AME
8) The entries in the log book shall be c) R & D of DGCA
completed within d) Regulatory authority of country of
a) 72 hours manufacture
b) 30 hours
c) 48 hours after reaching the main base 15) For issue of CRS for instrument , electrical
d) None and auto pilot category of license is
a) CAT A for heavy aircraft
9) MTCS (regarding MEL) b) CAT B for light aircraft
a) MEL can be invoked by pilot for all items c) CAT B for heavy aircraft
b) AME can release the aircraft without the d) None
acceptance of pilot
c) AME can release the aircraft with 16) RAP applicable for
acceptance of pilot a) Light aircraft of AUW below 2000kg
d) None b) Heavy aircraft only
c) Light aircraft of AUW not less than 3000
10) MEL includes kg
a) Wings d) Aircraft completed their design economic
b) Galley equipment period
c) Flight controls
d) None 17) Permit fly issued to micro light aircraft in lieu
of
11) Fee required for issue of temporary C of R a) C of A
aircraft of MTOM 62,625 kg is b) TC and C of R
a) 2,60,000 c) TC and C of A
b) 65,000 d) None
c) 1,60,000
d) 20,000 18) NDT is performed in an aircraft as
a) Non scheduled maintenance
12) An indication given to flight crew that a b) Scheduled maintenance
certain intruder is a potential threat c) Specialized service
a) RA d) None
b) TA
c) SSR 19) Function of ACAS -II is
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d) Intruder a) See and avoid

b) Threat detecting
c) RA a) The central government (or) any state

d) ATA government (or) any company (or) corporation
owned
20) Test flight on piston engines aircraft AUW (or) controlled by either of the said governments
less than 3000 kg can be carried out by PPL b) By a company working abroad
holders c) By an organization registered abroad but
with working in India
a) At least 500 hours on type
b) At least 200 hours as PIC 27) MEL Category- C items shall be repaired with
c) At least 100 hours on type in
d) Both (b) and (c) a) 10 consecutive calendar days
b) 24 consecutive calendar days
21) Aircraft goods include c) 3 consecutive calendar days
a) Paint d) None
b) Locking wire
c) Special tools 28) Reliability of engine in terms of IFSD is
d) ATA calculated by
a) IFSD and number of flight hours /engine
22) Group B hose includes hours
a) Hydraulic pressure line b) IFSD and number of engine hours flown
b) Pneumatic return line c) IFSD and number of Airframe hours
c) Pneumatic pressure line d) None
d) Oil pressure line
29) MTCS
23) Storage life (or) shelf life of rubber parts a) The aircraft radio communication and
a) 6 years from the cure date navigation systems and its individual items shall
b) 3 years from the cure date be
c) 2 years from the cure date inspected and issue CRS for insitu check
d) 1 year from the cure date b) he aircraft radio communication and
navigation systems and its individual items shall
24) RVSM can be carried out by be
a) If operator is authorized by DGCA inspected and issue CRS for bench check & FTD
b) If the aircraft complied with the CAR check
requirements c) Flight test data check will be carried out
c) If the operating permit contains the as specified by the manufacture every 2 years
RVSM approval d) None
d) ATA
30) Micro light aircraft flown unless
25) ELT can be activated by a) Valid C of A is there
a) Water b) Minimum requirements by DGCA is met
b) Impact c) As in (b) permit to fly is there
c) Manually d) None
d) ATA
31) MTCS
a) Aircraft may be released for flight with
26) CAT A registration applicable to defects/damage if covered under MEL
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b) Operator should prepare MEL on the

basis of MMEL
c) Operator should ensure latest revision of b) The aircraft has been destroyed (or)
MEL by regulatory authority of country of permanently with drawn form use
manufacture c) The lease in respect of aircraft is expired

d) ATA d) ATA
32) MTCS 38) Short term C of R issued for

a) Pilot need not accept the aircraft for the a) Bringing aircraft to main base for
flight with MEL items if it is considered unsafe maintenance
b) If defect/damage covered under MEL, b) C of A lapse in foreign country and to
AME should certify the aircraft bring back in India for renewal
c) Pilot can invoke MEL for all items c) To import aircraft under Indian
d) ATA registration marking
33) Fleet performance & ESR report submitted d) ATA
by operator other than schedule operator
submitted to 39) The aircraft used for search& rescue
RAO and DGCA operation is categorized in
a) Monthly a) Private
b) Quarterly b) Mails
c) Six monthly c) Fighter
d) Yearly d) Aerial work
40) Age of pressurized air cargo is

34) Records associated with defects and their a) 15 years
rectification action preserved for b) 20 years
a) 1 year c) 25 years
b) 2 years d) No requirement of age
c) 3 years
d) 6 months 41) Whenever the aircraft is away from the main
base the working copies of the log book is
35) Defects including engines shut down during transferred to regular log books within
flight because of flame out a) 36 hours
a) Group I b) 48 hours
b) Group II c) 74 hours
c) Major incident d) As in (b) on return to main base
d) Minor incident\
42) Aircraft address fitted with SSR mode S code
36) Temporary C of R is valid upto is
a) Until the aircraft issued with regular a) 24 bits
registration b) 18 bits
b) Till the first landing in customs c) 16-20 bits
aerodrome d) 8 bits
c) Till it return to its main base
d) None 43) To change of 20 db implies that voltage (or)
current changed by
37) The registration of an aircraft registered in a) Factor 10
India may be canceled at any time b) Factor 20
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a) The registration has been obtained by c) Factor 2

furnished false information d) Factor 6
44) Partially filled C of A issued by 2) Incase of aircraft registered in the foreign

a) DGCA Hdqrs country , suffer damage / defect while operation

b) Concerned RAO in
c) SRAO India
d) ATA a) The foreign country of the registered
aircraft may prohibit it
45) For preparation of load trim sheet & b) DGCA may prohibit it
calculation of CG the minimum standard weight c) The foreign country has the power to
of infant continue the damage/defect aircraft operation
(less than 2 years) is d) None
a) 20 kg
b) 10 kg 3) ELT shall be inspected
c) 12 kg a) Manufacturers recommendations and
d) 15 kg maintenance procedure
b) Inspected at 18 calendar month
46) For aircraft carrying passengers more than c) Both (a) and (b)
260 shall be equipped with d) None
a) 1 physician kit ,6 FAK
b) 1 physician kit, 4 FAK 4) Level III competency the personal can
c) 1 physician kit, 3 FAK a) Interpret codes , set calibrate , make
d) 1 physician kit, 1 FAK adjustment , issue direction
b) Ensure that the part / component is
47) Contents of FAK &physician kit shall be proceed before inspection but doesn’t the
examined & certified qualification to
a) Six month issue C of C
b) Every year c) Conduct exam , provide , training,
c) As in (a) for non schedule & general airworthiness codes evaluate results
aviation d) Both (a) and (c)
d) As in (b) for private aircraft
5) Any new incomplete defect during
48) Multi engine aircraft equipped with CVR maintenance shall be brought to notice of
a) Where STC is not available a) Manufacture
b) Where STC is available b) Aircraft operator
c) Manufacturer recommendations c) DGCA
available d) None
d) None
6) When component has its own log book in
OCTOBER 2012: such case component entry shall be made in
a) Aircraft log book
b) Aircraft log book as well as component
1) Load and trim sheet is applicable (or) log book
prepared for c) Only aircraft log book and component
a) Scheduled and non scheduled logbook is not necessary
b) All scheduled and non scheduled, private d) None
, state government
Page
c) As in (b) including training 7) In case of component of work entry is

d) None made in log book
WWW.DGCAQUESTIONPAPERS.IN
other useful data then you can - (PAPER 1 IMPORTANT NOTES)
aviatorslinks@gmail.com ” or 11) The calibration of fuel gauge is done in time
you can share on facebook also and a) Fuel gauge installed
b) C of A inspection
c) During C of A inspection and nearest
name and details within 24 hr. major check
"You feel good because you're helping d) Both (a) and (c)
because they're getting help.” 12) MEL may include
a) Flight controls
for helping aviators. b) Landing gear
Share more n more document with us. c) Galley system
Thanks d) APU
Good Luck
www.dgcaquestionpapers.in]]]}} 13) In case of AME license lapsed for period of 1
year
a) Within 48 hours a) Oral check by RAO
b) In case aircraft away from base in such b) Appear in specific paper IV
case working copies carried on board for keeping c) Oral check as well as written paper
in d) Renewed but warning to AME
log book
c) In case aircraft from base working copies 14) The defect which occurs Inspite of
shall be fax /mailed to keep in such log book rectification attempt is
d) ATA a) Defect
b) Major defect
8) Flight time recording to CARS c) Damage
a) Time from which aircraft takes off to until d) Repeatative defect
comes to rest after flight
b) Time from which aircraft moves for 15) Reciprocating engine parameters are
purpose of taxing and until comes to rest to end recorded
of the a) 100 hours
flight b) 20 hours
c) Airframe time c) 25 hours
d) None d) 50 hours
9) The document carried in case of 16) The average of fuel and oil consumption
scheduled operation records after top/partial overhaul recorded in
a) Technical log book a) Airframe log book
b) Radio apparatus log book b) Engine log book
c) Aircraft log book c) Aircraft log book
d) ATA d) Propeller log book
10) The procedures against each member to 17) Entry in the log book should be made by
avoid confusion against each item specified in a) Owner
a) MEL b) Operator
b) CCL c) Authorized person/AME/approved person
c) Operational manual d) None
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d) ECL
18) Aircraft log preserved for
a) 2 years from date of last entry 25) Unscheduled maintenance include

b) 2 years after aircraft permanently a) X-ray inspection to find a crack as part of
withdrawn from service periodic maintenance

c) Till aircraft is withdrawn from use (or) till b) Replacement of lived components
C of R is canceled bu DGCA of it c) Hard landing checks
d) 1 year after withdrawn from use d) ATA
19) All FDR for aeroplane shall be capable of 26) Helicopter of AUW above 3000 kg shall not
recording last 25 hours operation except operated unless equipped with
a) Type IA FDR a) FDR only
b) Type IIA FDR b) CVR only
c) Type IV FDR c) FDR and CVR only
d) Type V FDR d) None
20) For level III finding period 27) Fueling should be conducted when a turbojet
a) 7 days extended upto 21 days aircraft maneuvers
b) 3 months a) Within 30 meters
c) 7 days b) Within 43 meters
d) None c) Within 15 meters
d) Within 65 meters
21) Export of C of A comply with
a) Class I 28) FDR shall be calibrated
b) Class II a) Every 3 years
c) Class III b) Every 6 months
d) Class III& II c) Every 5 years
d) Every 2 years
22) If mandatory modification not complied with
time DGCA in that case shall 29) GPWS installed in reciprocating engine
a) C of A suspended aircraft
b) C of A not suspended a) AUW above 5700 kg & 20 passengers
c) Either (a) or (b) b) AUW above 5700 kg & 30 passengers
d) None c) AUW above 5700 kg & 9 passengers
d) AUW above 15000 kg irrespective of
23) Upward revision of TBO require prior seating capacity
approval of DGCA but reducing life require prior
approval 30) A precision instrument approach and landing
of with a decision height lower than 60 m but not
a) DGCA lower than 30 m and run way visual less than
b) RAO/SRAO 350 m
c) QCM a) CAT I -ILS operation
d) None b) CAT II -ILS operation
c) CAT IIIA-ILS operation
24) MTOW is given in d) CAT III B- ILS operation
a) C of A
b) C of R 31) For installation of new radio equipment Aero
c) Operation manual mobile license is given by
Page
d) Both (a) and (b) a) DGCA

b) RAO
c) Ministry of civil aviation

d) Ministry of communication JUNE 2011:
32) In case of imported aircraft the validity of C

of A will start from the date of issue of 1) The license of Indian AME who are
a) Standard C of A working abroad will renew at
b) Import C of A a) RAO
c) Export C of A b) DGCA Hdqrs
d) None c) The regulatory authority of that country
d) Central government
33) ETOPS operation are applicable to
a) Over water operation 2) C of C will be issued to an applicant
b) Over remote area employed in a DGCA approved firm for
c) International flying specialized process
d) ATA such as
a) Welding and NDT
34) Mandatory modification are promulgated by b) Welding , NDT and electroplating
a) DGCA c) Welding, NDT and Heat treatment of
b) Manufacturer Ferrous metal
c) Airworthiness authority of country of d) For NDT only
manufacture
d) None 3) C of C code allotted for welding shall bear
suffix
35) Permit to fly issued to a Miro light aircraft in a) W
lieu of b) Weld
a) C of A c) N
b) TC and C of A d) SW
c) TC and C of R
d) None 4) An aeroplane shall not be operated under
IFR by a single pilot unless
36) Mechanical delay will be reported to RAO by a) Approved by DGCA
a) All operators monthly b) Maximum certified takeoff weight less
b) Scheduled operator monthly than 5700 kg
c) Private operator monthly c) Approved by airport authority of India
d) Non-scheduled operator monthly d) Both (a) and (b)
37) Equipment fitted to see and avoid potential 5) Batteries used in ELT must be replaced
threat but does not include RN (Or) recharged if the transmitter has been in use
a) ACAS-I a) For more than 1 cumulative hour
b) ACAS-II b) For more than 2 cumulative hour
c) SSR c) When 50% of their useful life (Or) charge
d) ELT expired
d) Either (a) or (c)
38) Function of ACAS -II
a) See and avoid 6) A specified altitude (or) height in a non
b) Threat detecting precision approach (Or) approach below which
Page
c) Creation of RA descent
d) ATA
not be made without the required visual b) 3 years

c) 4 years for GETS 3 year
reference is called
a) Minimum descent altitude (or) height d) None
b) Decision altitude (Or) height
c) Obstacle clearance altitude (or) height 13) The aircraft should be equipped with
d) Either (a) or (b) instruments as per CAR series I part II, whose
responsibility
7) width of break in point marking is to ensure that the aircraft should be equipped
a) 3 Cm so before commencement of the flight
b) 9 Cm a) PIC
c) 3 mm b) AME
d) 9 mm c) Flight engineer
d) Both (a) and (b)
8) Helicopter power check will be carried
out by 14) Single engine aircraft for carrying passenger
a) AME with CAT “C” license at night
b) AME with CAT “D” license a) Can be utilized only in schedule flight
c) Pilot b) Cannot be utilized for scheduled flight
d) Flight engineer c) Cannot be utilized for scheduled and non
scheduled flight
9) Hang glider d) Can be utilized for scheduled and non
a) Should be fitted with an automatic ELT scheduled flights
b) Should be fitted with a water activated
ELT 15) Experience required for the issue of FE
c) Should have a survival ELT license is
d) Need not be fitted with an ELT a) 100 hours flying during previous 12
months
10) ETOPS applicable to b) 150hours flying during previous 6
a) Aerial work operation months
b) Commercial air transport operation c) Not not not more than 50 hours on
c) General aviation operation simulator
d) Private operation d) Both (a) and (c)
11) For AME exam paper III will be conducted 16) The pass mark in GETS in the main course
separately for light and heavy aircraft . But for all a) 70% in each phase and 80% aggregate
helicopters irrespective of their AUW paper III will b) 60% in each phase and 70% aggregate
be common for .......... trade c) 70% in each phase and 70% aggregate
a) Airframe d) None
b) Engine
c) Electrical 17) Paper IV of AME license will be common for
d) Avionics a) Airframe . Engine
b) Airfarme , electrical
12) An applicant of AME will be permitted to c) Engine, electrical
appear paper IV only after he/she has passed d) Engine, instrument
papers I,II,
and III and has acquired ........... years 18) An AME in category A can certify
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aeronautical engineering experience a) Flight controls

a) 4 years b) Engine /power plant and its installations
c) Balancing and tracking of main rotor and a) 8 months

b) 3 months
tail rotor
d) Both (a) and (c) c) 6 months
d) 18 months
19) CAR series L part IV deals with endorsement
of AME license in view of reversed grouping in
respect of Airframe and engine , engine groups 25) All work on aircraft as required by rule 54 of
are given in aircraft is certified by
a) Appendix A of part IV a) Licensed engineer
b) Appendix B of part IV b) Authorized personnel
c) Appendix C of part IV c) Approved personnel
d) Appendix D of part IV d) ATA
20) The license in category B will cover

a) Only heavy aircraft 26) Fuelling zone is regarded as the area
b) Only light aircraft extending from the aircraft fuel point
c) Only light aircraft below 1000 AUW a) 25 m
d) Only heavy aircraft above 7000 AUW b) 15 m
c) 10 m
21) All certification AME shall be made in the d) 6m
relevant document by using
a) Indelible pencil/ink 27) Vehicles moving in the danger /zone shall be
b) Pencil fitted with
c) Pencil/ink and should be made within 24 a) Spark arresters
hours b) Flame traps
d) Indelible pencil/ink and should be made c) Fire extinguishers
in within 48 hours d) Both (a) and (b)
22) An all metal construction aeroplane will have 28) Gyro-instrument overhauled after
a) Primary structure made of metal a) One year
b) As in (a) plus skin covering made of metal b) Two years
c) As in (a) plus its skin covering excluding c) Two years/1000 hours
the covering of the flight controls ,made of metal d) Three years/2000 hours
d) Either (b) or (c)
29) Magnetic compass shall be calibrated and
23) Renewal of AME license will be with held compensated
when a) At the time of initial installation
a) The applicant has not applied renewal for b) As specified in operators manual
2 years c) After installation of a new electrical
b) The applicant has not applied renewal for system
1 year d) ATA
c) The applicant failed in test conducted by
DGCA 30) All aeroplane o all flights shall be equipped
d) Inspection failure is pending against the with a seat/ berth for each passenger over the
applicant age of
a) Two
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24) To get BAMEL in additional category of same b) Three

stream, the additional experience required is c) Five
d) None performance of their duties , is responsibility of

a) Chief test pilot
31) ELT should be operated in the frequency of b) QCM

a) 406 MHz c) Operator
b) 406 GHz d) ATA
c) 121.5 MHz
d) 121.5 GHz 38) Ensuring that aeroplane loading and the CG
are within the prescribed limits is the
32) DGCA will declare only those SB/SI as responsibility
mandatory which of
a) It consider so a) AME
b) Are issued by manufactures b) QCM
c) Affect safety of aircraft operation c) Co-Pilot
d) ATA d) PIC
33) Single -engined aircraft with retractable 39) The validity of permit to fly
undercarriage shall not be used in a) 3 months
a) Schedule VFR operation b) 6 months
b) Non-schedule VFR operation c) One year
c) Non scheduled night operation d) Two years
d) ATA
40) CAT -III a operations ,means precision
34) Operation manual is not necessary instrument approach and landing with
requirement for a) Decision height within 15-30 meters
a) Scheduled operators b) Runway visual range not less than 200
b) Non scheduled operators meters
c) Air transport operators c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Private operators d) Both (a) and (b)
35) In the event of conflict between the contents 41) Storage temperature of rubber parts should
of flight crew operators manual and aircraft flight range between
manual Preference will be given to a) 50-60°F
a) Flight manual b) 50-70°F
b) Operation manual c) 50-90°F
c) Any one can accepted d) 50-70°C
d) Approach to DGCA
42) Maximum service life of seals shall not
36) All pilots while engage on a licenses air exceed
transport service , shall undergo a local a) Four years
proficiency b) Eight years
check c) Ten years
a) Once in year d) None
b) Twice in year
c) Once in 2 years 43) On an unmanned free balloon , registration
d) None marking shall be on
a) Two opposite sides
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37) Ensuring that pilots are familiar with the laws b) Under surface
, regulations and products pertinent to the c) Identification plate
d) None a) ACAS I
b) ACAS II
44) Standard weight for crew for load calculation c) Both (a) and (b)
is taken as d) None
a) 65 kg
b) 75 kg 51) The load of an aircraft through out the flight
c) 85 kg including take off and landing shall be distributed
d) 95 kg that the CG position of the aircraft falls within the
limitations specified (Or) approved by the DG
45) An aircraft with passenger carrying of 160 this information is given in
shall be equipped with a) Load and trim sheet
a) 1 FAK b) Maintenance system manual
b) 2 FAK c) Engineering organizational manual
c) 3 FAK d) None
d) 4 FAK
52) Maximum oil capacity can be obtained
46) The FAK container shall be of a) Weight schedule
a) White background with red cross b) C of A
b) White background with green cross c) C of R
c) Green background with white cross d) None
d) Green background with red cross
53) While fueling is in progress it is prohibited to
47) Detailed records of replacement , major start
repair and overhauled of aircraft component (or) a) Main engine
system b) Any power units
are entered in c) Any other aircraft
a) Aircraft log book d) Both (a) and (b)
b) Radio apparatus log book
c) Engine log book 54) The flight tests for any newly installed radio
d) Relevant log book equipment shall be carried out to assess its
range and
48) All aeroplane operating over water beyond performance at various
the distance of .......... from the sea shall be a) Altitudes
equipped b) Distance
with at least two water activated ELT c) Atmosphere conditions
a) 50 NM d) Humidity conditions
b) 100 NM
c) 150 NM 55) Items required for life saving is kept in
d) 25 NM a) First aid box
b) Physicians kit
49) Manufacturers generally issue changes in c) Both (a) and (b)
the form of d) Kept separately in cockpit
a) SB
b) SI 56) If the expired AME license is given for
c) SL renewal within one month after expiry , the
d) ATA renewal
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validity will start from

50) Which of the system follows “see and avoid” a) The date of last validity
b) The date of submission d) Remember &act

c) From the first of next month

d) The beginning day of the same month OCTOBER 2011:
57) All defects classified as major defect should

be reported to RAO by all schedule aircraft 1) An unintentional landing effected on
operators account of failure (Or) malfunction of an aircraft
a) Within 24 hours component
b) Immediately by telephone (or) system is called
c) Within 3 days a) Hard landing
d) None b) Emergency landing
c) Heavy landing
58) An aircraft will be released after invoking d) None
MEL
a) By AME with acceptance of pilot 2) Aircraft imported into India must conform
b) By owner to type design under regulation of
c) By QCM with acceptance of flight crew a) FAA
d) By QCM with acceptance of RAO b) DGCA
c) EASA (Or) any acceptable to DGCA
59) Who is responsible to ensure that aircraft d) Both (b) and (c)
has current and valid C of A
a) DGCA 3) MEL includes
b) RAO a) Wing
c) Manufacturer b) Galley equipment
d) Operator/owner c) Flight controls
d) APU
60) Choose group I major defect
a) False fire warning 4) MEL item repaired within 10 consecutive
b) Engine shut down due to foreign object calendar days
injection a) Category -A
c) Fire during flight b) Category-B
d) Aircraft make force landing c) Category-C
d) Category-D
61) Total number of engine hour flown for an
aircraft is calculated by 5) For determining the performance of
a) Number of airfarme hours Airframe , a relation between fuel flow and is
b) Number of airfarme hours X number of established
engine installed on the aircraft a) EAS
c) Number of days flown X number of b) TAS
engines c) High speed
d) Number of airfarme hours -number of d) IAS
engine
6) All Multi engine aircraft must be
62) The procedure followed while using cockpit equipped with
list when 2 (or) more crew members are there a) Engraving metal foil FDR
a) Challenge & response b) CVR where STC is not available
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b) Call & response c) Photographic film FDR

c) Tell & do d) CVR where STC is available
13) Copter of AUW above 7000 kg shall not be

operated unless equipped with
7) An indication given to flight crew that a

certain intruder is a potential threat a) Approved FDR only
a) RA b) Approved CVR only
b) TA c) Approved FDR & CVR only
c) SSR d) None
d) Intruder
14) To determine any discrepancies during
8) After heavy landing communication , engineering conversion routines for the
navigation, and radar equipment should be mandatory
checked for parameters , FDR shall be calibrated
a) Insulation of RF cable a) Every 3 years
b) SWR check of transmitter b) Every 6 months
c) All wire and antenna check for c) Every 5 years
distortion/damage d) Every 2 years
d) ATA
Fuelling shall cease when a turbo jet aircraft
9) MTOW is given in maneuvers
a) C of A Within 30 m
b) C of R Within 42 m
c) Operational manual Within 15 m
d) Both (a) and (b) Within 65 m
10) When an aircraft likely to remain away from 16) GPWS installed in piston engine aircraft
main base a) AUW above 5700 kg & 20 passengers
a) Log book can be carried on board b) AUW above 5700 kg & 30 passengers
b) Working copies of log book shall be c) AUW above 5700 kg& 9 passengers
carried on board d) AUW above 15000kg irrespective of
c) Record send to main base daily for entry setting capacity
in log book
d) Both (b) and (c) 17) A precision instrument approach and landing
with a decision height lower than 60 m but not
11) When any modification is carried out on an lower than 30 m and runway visual length not
aircraft , it is the duty of the concerned operator less than 350 m
to a) Category I (ILS operation)
intimate b) Category II (ILS operation)
a) Manufacturer c) Category IIIA (ILS operation)
b) All AME d) Category IIIB (ILS operation)
c) R&D of DGCA
d) Regulatory authority of country of 18) For installation of new radio equipment Aero
manufacture mobile license is given by
a) DGCA
12) Unscheduled maintenance check include b) RAO
a) X-ray check c) Ministry of civil aviation
b) Replacement of lived components d) Ministry of communication
c) Hard landing
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d) ATA 19) Incase imported aircraft validity of C of A will

start from the date of issue of
a) Standard C of A 26) Permit to fly issued to a micro light aircraft in

lieu of
b) Import C of A
c) Export C of A a) C of A
d) None b) TC and C of R
c) TC and C of A
20) For issue of CRS for instrument , electrical , d) None
auto pilot by
a) Category A- for heavy aircraft 27) Whenever propeller is removed , entry made
b) Category B -for light aircraft in
c) Category A-for light aircraft a) Engine log book
d) None b) Engine,propeller, aircraft log book
c) Aircraft log book only
21) Aircraft AUW more than 2000 kg shall be d) Propeller log book only, since propeller
reweighed has an individual log book
a) Every 5 year
b) After major (or) modification 28) IFSD mechanical delay reported to RAO
c) Adhoc extension of weightment period for a) All operators monthly
a maximum period of 3 months is granted on b) Scheduled operator monthly
approach to RAO c) Private operator quarterly
d) ATA d) Non scheduled operator 6 monthly
22) An revision (or) amendment to MEL is 29) Whenever GPWS is Deactivated

approved by a) No further maintenance
a) QCM b) Entry made in aircraft maintenance
b) RAO records
c) DGCA Hdqrs c) Date and time placarded in the cockpit
d) RAO/SRAO d) ATA
23) If AME license is remained lapsed for 1 year , 30) Equipment fitted to see and avoid potential
it will be renewed threat but does not include RA
a) After oral check by RAO a) ACAS I
b) After appearing in specific paper IV b) ACAS II
c) With a warning to AME c) SSR
d) After written exam& oral check by RAO d) None
24) ETOPS operations are applicable to 31) Function of ACAS II

a) Over water operation a) See and avoid
b) Over remote area b) Threat detecting
c) International flying c) RA
d) ATA d) ATA
25) Mandatory modifications are promulgated by 32) Minimum age of certifying staff
a) DGCA a) 20 years
b) Manufacturer b) 21 years
c) Airworthiness authority of country of c) 18 years
manufacture d) 23 years
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d) None
33) Experience required for line and base 1.Long duty periods
2.Demanding tasks performed in a short tern
maintenance
a) 8 and 5 years respectively 3.Cumulative fatigue
b) 5 and 8 years respectively 4.Both 1 and 2
c) 3 and 5 years respectively
5) Mental fatigue may result from :-
1. Emotional stress
2. Physical rest
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above
6) Jet lag causes :-

1.Stowed reaction and decision making
2.Loss of inaccurate memory of recent events
3.Errors in computation and a tendency to accept
lower standard of operating performance
4.All the above
7) Jet lag is the common term of :-

1.Synchronization of body rhythm
2.De-synchronization of body rhythm
HUMAN 3.Alcohol or drug above
FACTORS 4.None of the above
Human Factors
8) A condition when a person has difficulty
1) Human error can be caused by:- is sleeping or when the quality of sleep is poor is
1. In adequate training defined as:-
2. Badly designed procedures 1. Insomnia
3. Poor concept of layout checklist and manuals 2. Jet lag
4. All the above 3. Circadian rhythm
4. All the above
2) It is the task of human factors training to
prevent :- 9) Circadian rhythm sleep disorder refers to:
1. Communication error 1.Sleeping in particular situations
2. To ensure error force transmission of a 2.Concerned about long range transmeridion
message and its correct interpretation flying
3. Both (1) and ˘(2) 3.Both 1 and 2
4. Either (1) or (2) 4.None of the above
3) The tern ergonomics defined as:- 10) Caffeine in coffee and tea:-
1.The study of efficiency of person in their 1.Increases the alertness and reduces the
working environment reaction times
2.The study of working environment 2.Reduces the alertness and increases the
3.The study of efficiency of provided machines in reaction times
then working environment 3.As in 1 also likely to disturb the sleep
4.None of the above 4.As in 2 also likely to disturb the sleep
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4) Acute fatigue is induced by:-
11) To contain and control human error, one nut 1.To accept the hazard identified and adjust the
system
first understand its:-

1. Nature 2.To eliminate the hazard, thereby preventing a
2. Error future accident
3. Stress 3.Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above 4.None of the above
12) In SHEL model, delays and errors may occur 18) The component of decision makers is/are:-
while seeking vital information from 1. Complexity
effusing, misleading or excessively chattered 2. Standardization
documentation and charts are related to:- 3. Centralization
1. Liveware – Hardware 4. All the above
2. Liveware – software
3. Liveware – Environment 19) The decision or actions, the consequences of
4. Liveware – liveware which may remain dormant for
a long time is:
13) A __________ is a person whose ideas and 1. Active failure
actions influence the thought and behaviour 2. Latent failure
of others:- 3. Reform failure
1. Chief 4. All the above
2. Worker
2. Leader 20) The amount of light that can enter eye is
4. Boss regulated by:-
1. Pupil size
14) In effective communication, the message 2. Eye size
can be transferred by :- 3. Light intensity
1. Speech & written word 4. None of the above
2. Symbols and displays
3. Body language & gestures 21) The Primary characteristics of speech is/are:-
4. All the above 1. Intensity
2. Frequency
15) Motivation can be explained as reflecting :- 3. Harmonic composition
1.The difference between what a person can and 4. All the above
actually will do
2.As in 1 and that motivated individuals perform 22) The relationship between the loudness of the
with great effectiveness than unmotivated wanted sound and that of the background
individuals noise is called:-
3.As in 2 and that unmotivated individuals 1. Signal-to-noise ration
perform with great effeteness than motivated 2. Noise-to-signal ratio
individuals 3. Noise –to-environment ratio
4.All the above are correct 4. Signal –to-environment ratio
16) LOFT is :- 23) Spoken language which helps to convey

1.Line – oriented flight training information even the sound is disorted of
2.Lift – oriented flight training surrounded by noise is:-
3.Line oriented factors training 1. Marking
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4.Lift oriented factors training 2. Reducing

17) The first level of action decision – makers is:- 3. Perception
4. All the above 4. As in 2 and the second level is more realistic

and safer than the first level
24) The in operative activity involving high level

brain functions is called:- 30) The amount of light that can enter the eye
1. Reducing and thus reach the retina is regulated by:-
2. Marking 1. Pupil size
3. Perception 2. Light intensity
4. None of the above 3. Depending upon eye
4. All the above
25) Short term memory which can accommodate
a small amount of information at one time is: 31) The system which generates speech and it is
1. 5 ± 2 elements the result of interaction of several of its
2. 6 ± 2 elements components is:-
3. 7 ± 2 elements 1. Auditory system
4. 8 ± 2 elements 2. Vocal system
3. Both 1 and 2
26) Use of “Pep pills” by an aircraft engine :- 4. None of the above
1.Is recommended only when marking late or on
night shift on they simulate the senses and 32) Short term memory can accommodate a
make you less pure to accidents small amount of information at one time is:-
2.Can only be used of prescribed by the 1.Five plus or minus two elements
3.Should never be done (except coffee) 2.Six plus or minus two elements
3.seven plus or minus two elements
27) Human error can be caused by :- 4.Eight plus or minus two elements
1. High body temperature 33) Memory can be aided by:-
2. Normal body temp 1. Memory checking
3. Low body temp. 2. A check list
3. Mind logging
28) To minimize human error one must first 4. All the above
understand its:-
1. Nature 34) Ultra short term memory has a duration of
2. Environment about:-
3. Basic concepts 1. 2 seconds
4. Both 1 and 3 2. 10 seconds
3. 20 seconds
29) The second level of action of decision 4. 5 seconds
making is:-
1. To accept the hazard identified and adjust the 35) Working memory is:
system to tolerance human error and to 1. Ultra short term memory
reduce the possibility of an occurrence 2. Short term memory
2. As in 2 and in the Dryden example decision 3. Long term memory
might be to eliminate operations into stations 4. Both 1 and 2
with out deicing facilities or the equipment
related to anti icing provision unserviceable when 36) The SHEL model of human factors taken into
conditions conducive to icing account:-
3. As in 2 and not safe as first level actions and 1.Software, hardware, efficiency and liveware
Page
are more realistic and efficient and they work 2.Software, hardware, environment and location
3.Software, hardware, environment and liveware
44) The best way of shift handover is:-

37) Acute stress is:-

1.Typically intense but of short duration 1. Verbally
2.A frequently recurring stress or of long duration 2. Written
3.Intense stress of long duration 3. As you wish
4. All the above
38) Blood/alcohol limit is:-
1.20 mg of alcohol per 100 ml of blood for all 45) Excess noise in a marking environment can:-
2. 20 mg of alcohol per 100 ml of blood for 1.Not effect performance
commercial aircrew, air traffic controller & 2.Raise resistance to other stress
maintenance engineers. 3.Lower resistance to other stress
3.40 mg of alcohol per 100 ml of blood brall. 4.None of the above
4.None of the above.
46) A violation is:-
39) Consumption of alcohol:- 1.A deliberate departure from the rules
1.Increase mental & physical reaction times 2.An unintentional error.
2.Decrease mental & physical reaction times 3.An unintentional act of sabotage
3.Has no effect 4.All the above
4.Both 1 and 2 are correct
47) Work performance can be influenced by:-
40) People with colour defective vision usual 1. Technician health
have difficulty differentiating between:- 2. Physical status
1. Blue & yellow 3. Both 1 & 2
2. Red & green 4. Either 1 or 2
3. Blue & green
4. Red & yellow 48) Physically demanding tasks:-
1. Should be followed by tedious work requiring
41) The only permitted stimulant is:- intense concentration
1. Bromine 2. Should not be followed by tedious work
2. Amphetamine requiring intense concentration
3. Caffeine 3. Should not be followed by tedious work
4. None of the above requiring concentration
4. Should be followed by tedious work requiring
42) Motivation is:- concentration
1.The thing that drives someone to do something 49) Due to the increasing correlation between
2.A reward or punishment to reduce error aviation safety and maintenance :-
3.A reward or punishment designed to income 1. Regular physical fitness screening of aircraft
mark rate maintenance technicians
4.All the above 2. Regular medical screening of aircraft
maintenance technicians
43) Peer pressure is:- 3. Regular emotional screening of aircraft
1. Typified by the expression “the way we do it maintenance technicians
around here”.
2. The perceived pressure to carry out a task in 50) If everyone performance is assessed and
the same way your colleagues related to team productivity:-
3. The perceived pressure to conform what you 1. Some members of the team feel common
Page
beeline you colleagues expect of you responsibility

4. None of the above
2. Few members of the team feel common & tranquilizers:-

1. To induce sleep is usually inappropriate
responsibility
3. All members of the team feel common 2. They have a complimenting effect on
responsibility performance
3. They have a adverse effect on performance
51) Ergonomics:- 4. Both 1 & 3
1. The study of efficiency of persons in their
working environment 57) Sleep deprivation and disturbance:_
2. The study of inefficiency of persons in their 1. Can reduce alertness
working environment 2. Can reduce attention
3. The study of efficiency of persons in their 3. Both 1 & 2
sleeping environment 58) It has a restorative function and is essential
4. The study of efficiency of machines in their for mental performance:-
working environment 1. Sleep
2. Body rhythm
52) Motivation:- 3. As in 1 is essential for mental performance
1. What a person can do and actually will nod do 4. As in 2 is essential for mental performance
2. What a person can do and actually will do
3. What a person cannot do and actually will do 59) It is frequency source of error, knobs, &
4. What a person is supposed to do and levers which are poorly located:-
actually will do 1. Software & liveware
2. Liveware & Liveware
53) The impact of circadian dysrhythmia is 3. Live ware & environment
relevant not only to long distance trans-meridian 4. Liveware & Hardware
flying-short haul operators (couriers and freight
carriers or instance) flying on irregular or 60) A number of factors can interfere with the
night schedules can suffer from:- success of a training program:-
1. Body rhythm disturbance 1. Like sickness, fatigue
2. Reduce performance 2. Discomfort as well as others like anxiety, low
3. Both 1 & 2 motivation
4. Either 1 or 2 3. Either 1 or 2
4. Both 1 & 2
54) Caffeine in coffee, teas & various soft drinks
:-
1. Increase alertness and normally reduce 61) A __________ is a person whose ideas and
reaction time actions influence the thought & the behavior of
2. But it also likely to disturb sleep others:-
3. Both 1 and 2 1. Loader
4. Either 1 or 2 2. Worker
3. Helper
55) Amphetamines when used to maintain the 4. Leader
level of performance:-
1. During sleep deprivation 62) The difference between personality and
2. Only postpone the effects of sleep loss altitudes is relevant:_
3. Both 1 & 2 1.Because it is unrealistic to expect a charge in
personality through routine training
Page
56) The use of drug such as hypnotics, sedatives 2.As in 1 captaincy or management training
including anti-histamines with a sedative effect
3.As in 2 attitudes are more susceptible to 2. Active failures

3. As in 1 become when trigger by active failures
change with ageing

4.As in 2 attitudes are more susceptible to 4. As in 2 become when trigger by latent failures
change through training
69) The nature of human error ____________
63) Ambiguous, misleading inappropriate or 1. Origins
poorly constructed, combined with 2. Frequencies
expectancy 3. Consequences
have been listed as elements of many 4. All the above
accidents:- 70) While some errors may be due to:-
1. Effective co-ordination 1. Carelessness
2. Effective communication 2. Poor judgment
3. Effective co-operation 3. Negligence
4. All the above
64) The message might be transferred by
speech, by written word, by a variety of symbols
& 71) The control of human error required two
displays or by non verbal means such as gesture different approaches :-
and body language:- 1.First to minimize the occurrence of errors
1. Effective communication 2.Second minimizing the impact or
2. Transfer of information consequences of errors
3. As in 2 is essential for safe operation of flight 3.Both 1 and 2
4. All the above 4. Either 1 or 2
65) It is the task of human factors training to 72) Stress includes the effect of factors such as
prevent :- temperature, humidity, noise pressure,
1. Communication error illumination & vibration:-
2. To ensure error free transmission of a 1. Environmental stress
message and its correct interpretation 2. Cognitive stress
3. Both 1 & 2 3. Life stress
4. Either 1 or 2 4. Fatigue
66) Three levels of action decision makers can
choose:_ 73) Stress refers to the mental demands of the
1. To eliminate the hazard task itself:-
2. To accept the hazard 1. Environmental stress
3. Involves both accepting that the hazard can 2. Cognitive stress
neither eliminated nor controlled 3. Life stress
4. All the above 4. Fatigue
74) _________may produce discomfort or
67) Errors & violation having an immediate annoyance and may interfere with visual
adverse effect:- performance :-
1. Intent failure 1. Vibration
2. Active failure 2. Pressure
3. Bilateral failure 3. Glare
4. High temperature
68) Decisions or actions, the consequences of 75) _________is defined as the condition of
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which may remain dominant for a long time :- vision were there is discomfort or reduction in
1. Latent failures the ability to see objects:-
1. Glare 1.The factors which attribute to the success of a

training program
2. Pressure
3. Vibration 2.The factors which interfere with the success of
4. Noise a training program
3.Attribute as well as interfere with the success
76) Any form of oscillating motion that changes of a training program
its magnitude of displacement periodically :-
1. Motion 81) The term ergonomics defined as:-
2. Glare 1.The study of efficiency of person in their
3. Pressure working environment
4. Vibration 2.The study of working environment
3.The study of efficiency of persons and
77) In most maintenance error accidents the machineries in their working environment
faulty maintenance work which contribute to
the accident was performed during night shift 82) The complex working environment involves:-
working hours:- 1.Human performance: Decision making and
1. L-S interface flaw other cognitive processes the design of displays
2. L-E interface flaw and controls and flight deck and cabin layout
3. L-L interface flaw 2.As in (1) and communication and computer
4. L-H interface flaw software, maps and charts
3.As in (1) and the field of documentation such
78) Climbing over wings and horizontal as aircraft operating manual lists etc.
stabilizers and working in uncomfortable 4.Both 2 & 3
positions 83) Motivation can be explained as reflecting:-
and in cramped or confined spaces are 1.The difference between what a person can and
normal in:- actually will do
1. Technician health 2.As in (1) and that motivated individuals
2. Physical status can also influence work perform with great effectiveness than
performance unmotivated
3. Both 1 & 2 individuals.
4. Aircraft maintenance and inspection activity 3.As in (1) and that unmotivated individuals
perform with great effectiveness than motivated
79) Some of the most important aspects to individuals
consider for ________design & management
include 84) The impact of circadian dysrhythmia is
job design, reward systems, selection and relevant to:-
staffing and training:- 1.Long distance transmeridian flying
1. Work team 2.Short haul flying on irregular or night schedules
2. Individual work 3.Both 1 and 2
3. Team work 4. Both 1 and 2 can suffer from reduced
performance produced
80) Sickness fatigue or discomfort as well as
others like anxiety, low motivation, poor 85) Air traffic controllers and maintenance
quality technicians with frequent changing shift
instruction an unsuitable instructor, inadequate schedules and prolonged shifts:-
techniques or inadequate communications 1. Can perform best in their work
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are:- 2. Can suffer deterioration in circadian

dysrhythmia
3. Either 1 or 2 92) Caffeine in coffee, tea-nine in tea and

various soft drinks :-
4. As in 2 that disturbs the 24 hours body rhythm

1. In crease alertness
86) Lack of well being after experiencing 2. As in 2 and reduces reaction time
transmeridian air travel makes:- 3. As in 1 and are likely to disturb sleep
1.Disturbance or desynchronization of body
rhythm 93) The resolution to sleep disturbance or
2.As in 1 that includes sleep disturbance and deprivation includes :-
disruption of eating and elimination habits 1.Scheduling crews-considering circadian rhythm
3.As in 2 as well as lassitude, irritability and and fatigue
depression 2.Long term effects of drugs
4.As mentioned in all the above which is called 3. Adapting the diet timings
jet lag 4.All the above and relaxation and techniques
87) Jet lag causes:- 94) Fatigue, stress, sleep, rhythm disturbance,
1.Slowed reaction and decision making times medication and certain mild pathological
2.Loss of inaccurate memory of recent events condition go unnoticed even by the person
3.Errors in computation and a tendency to accept affected which will evenly show:-
lower standards of operating performance 1. A reduction in capacity
4.All the above 2. Partial incapacitation
3. Both 1 and 2
88) Long range flying causes:- 4. Either 1 or 2
1. Over all sleep deviation
2. Natural rhythm of the brain 95) Stress is caused due to:_
3. Biological rhythm 1.Irregular working and resting patterns and
4. All the above and difference in their ability to resting patterns and disturbed circadian rhythms
sleep out of phase with biological rhythm 2.Life events with family separation and during
periodic medical and proficiency checks
89) A condition when a person has difficulty 3.Both 1 and 2
sleeping or when the quality of sleep is poor 4. Either 1 or 2
defined as:-
1. Jet lag 96) Normal reaction of person leads to error that
2. Insomnia are due to:-
3. Circadian dysrhythmia 1. Carelessness
2. Negligence
90) Adverse effect on performance happens:- 3. Both 1 and 2
1. When using hypnotics 4. Either 3 or poor judgment
2. When using sedatives including
antihistamines 97) Knobs and levers which are poorly located or
3. As in 2 and tranquilizers lack of proper coding create mistakes at
4. Both 2 and 3 the interface between:-
1. Liveware and hardware
91) Sleep deprivation reduces:- 2. Human and machine
1. Sings of irritability forgetfulness 3. Live ware and software
2. Sickness absence, mistakes 4. Either 1 or 2
3. Alcohol or drug abuse
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4. AOTA 98) Delays and errors may occur while seeking

vital information from confusing misleading or
excessively clustered documentation and carts 4. AOTA

102) Action or inaction:-
may lead a potential error in the

interface between:- 1.Follows decision which is also a stage of
1. Live ware and hardware potential error
2. Liveware and software 2.Precedes decision which is also a stage of
3. Liveware and environment potential error
4. Liveware and liveware 3.As in 1 and that can be due to design of
99) Noise, heat, lighting and vibration the machinery, feedback mechanism and also
environmental factors and the disturbance of deficiencies
biological rhythms in long range flying resulting in the feedback mechanism.
from irregular working/sleeping 4.As in 2 and that can be due to design of
pattern :- machinery, feedback mechanism and also
1.Are the potential errors due to the interface deficiencies
between liveware and hardware in the feedback mechanism.
2.Are the potential errors due to the interface
between liveware 103) Control of human errors is achieved by:-
3.Are the potential errors due to the interface 1.Minimizing of the occurrence of human errors
between liveware and software 2.Reducing errors by cross monitoring and crew
4.Are the potential errors due to the interface co-operation
between liveware and environmental factors 3.Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 or 2
100) The interaction between people between
that affect crew effectiveness, includes 104) Minimizing the occurrence of errors by:-
leadership command and shortcoming and in 1. Ensuring high levels of staff competency
turn these reduce operation efficiency 2. Design controls so that they match human
and cause misunderstandings and errors. Such characteristics check list, procedure manuals,
errors are due to the interface maps, charts, SOPs, etc.
between :- 3. Providing proper design controls so that they
1. Liveware and hardware match human characteristics; providing
2. Liveware and software proper
3. Liveware and environmental factors checklist, procedures, manuals, maps, charts,
4. Liveware and liveware SOPs, etc.
4. AOTA and reducing noise, vibration
101) Once information is senses, it makes its temperature extremes and other stressful
way to the brain, where it is processed and a conditions
conclusion is drawn about the nature and and training programs
meaning of the message received. This 105) The factors that contribute to the limitation
interpretive activity is called:- of errors or their consequences:-
1. Perception 1. Equipment's design which makes errors
2. Understanding reversible
3. As in 1 and it is the breeding ground for errors 2. Equipment's which can monitor or
4. As in 2 and its is the breeding ground for complement and support human performance
errors. 3. Both 1 and 2
102) Erroneous decisions are due to:- 4. Either 1 or 2
1. Training or past experience
2. Emotional are commercial considerations 106) Factors interfere with the success of a
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3. Fatigue, medication, motivation and physical training program:-

or psychological disorders
1. Sickness, fatigue or discomfort which are 112) A leader should :-

1. Establish the difference between leadership
obvious
2. Anxiety, low motivation, poor quality which is acquired and the authority which is
instruction, an unsuitable assigned
3. AOTA 2. As mentioned in 1 but combine the same at
optimal situation
107) Mark the incorrect statement :- 3. Ensure teamwork and making it successful by
1. Skills, knowledge or attitudes gained in one having good relationship
situation can often be used in another. This is 4. All the above
called positive transfer 113) Skilled leadership involves:-
2. Negative transfer occurs when previous 1. Understanding and handing various situations
learning interferes with new learning like personality clashes without
3. Negative elements of training must be complicating but to influence in correcting them
identified because they can return to earthier 2. Influence in achieving the safety and efficiency
learned 3. Influencing personality differences in the
practices behavior and performance members personality
4. A skill is an organized and co-ordinated differences during aircraft accidents and
pattern of psychomotor and not intellectual indicates
activity. 4. AOTA
108) Smoking cannabis can:- 114) Attitudes are learned and enduring:-
1. Subtly impair performance for 24 hours 1. Tendencies or predispositions more or less
2. Subtly impair performance for 12 hours predictable
3. As in 1 and 2 affects the ability to concentrate 2. As in 1 and to respond favourably to people,
retain information and judgement especially on organizations, decisions, etc
difficult tasks 3. As in 1 and to respond unfavorably to people,
4. As in 2 which will pep up an maintenance organizations, decisions
engineer in achieving tasks 4. Either 2 or 3
109) The ideas and actions of one influence the 115 CHIRP and ASRS:-
thought and behavior of others :- 1. Support the view that altitudes and behavior
1. Leader play a significant role in flight safety
2. Companion 2. Support the view that altitudes and behavior
3. Technician play a significant role in flight safety but also
the stable knowledge
110) Thought can be considered:- 3. Both 1 and 2
1. Use of examples and persuasion 4. NOTA
2. An understanding of the goals and desires of
the group 116) Mark the correct statement:-
3. Both 1 and 2 1. Personality traits and altitudes influence one’s
4. None of the above conduct at home and work
2. Personality traits are not innate or acquired at
111) Leader becomes a means of:- the early stages of life. It is an ongoing process
1. Change and influence of learn and cultivate
2. Change and follow 3. Personality traits are not deep rooted
3. Correct and punish characteristics which define a they are stable
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4. Compulsion and order and

resistant to change.
2. ICAO Annex 13 i.e., the process of accident

investigation
117) Modifying attitudes or behavior patterns

through:- 3. CHIRP and the ASRS
1. Persuasion is also relevance to safety and 4. AOTA
efficiency
2. Correct following methods and enforcing them 121) Find the incorrect statement:-
is also direct relevance to safety and 1. Culture refers to beliefs and values which are
efficiency shaped by all or almost all members of a
3. As in 1 that can be aided by the persuasion group
methods like crew bulletin notices and 2. Culture is a mental programming which
advertising distinguishes one from another
4. As in 2 that can be aided by the persuasion 3. Culture deeply influences organizational
methods like crew bulletin notices behavior
4. A corporate culture may also allow or prevent
118) Mark the incorrect statement:- violations, since they take place in situations
1. Effective communication is the transfer of where the shared value of individuals and the
information essential for the safety of equipment group favors certain behavior of attitudes
s
2. Effective communication includes all transfer 122) A safety culture within an organization can
of information is essential for the safe be regarded as :-
operation of aircraft 1. A set of beliefs, norms, attitudes roles and
3. The message may be transferred by speech, social and technical practices
by the written work, by a symbols and display or 2. As in 1 that concerned with minimizing
by non-verbal means such as gestures and exposure of employees, managers, customers
4. The quality and effectiveness of and
communication is determined by its in members of general public to conditions that are
considered dangerous or hazardous
119) The third level of action involves :- 3. As in 1 that concerned with minimizing
1. Accepting the hazard can be neither exposure of employees, managers, customers
eliminated (level one) nor controlled (level two) and
and members of general public to conditions that are
teaching operational level to live with it considers necessary for an organization
2. As in 1 and the actions include changes in 4. Both 2 and 3
personnel selection, training, supervision,
staffing 123) Find the correct statement regarding the
and evaluation, increasing or adding warnings design of an organization:-
3. As in 2 and any other modifications which 1. Its permanent structures and hierarchies,
could prevent operational personnel from relates to organizational performance but
making dissimilar to the way body constitution relates to
a similar mistake human performance
4. As in 3 and this level actions should not be 2. The role of the organization and its structure is
taken in preference to level one or two as it is to facilitate department interfaces,
impossible to anticipate all future kinds of precisely showing individual performance and
human error not by joining departments together
3. If the structure is randomly designed
120) Basic risk management concepts are organization may collapse when operating under
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included in the:- pressure

1. Accident prevention manual (Doc 9422)
124) Complexity, standardization, centralization,

adaptability to the environment are

considered:- previous year DGCA question papers or
1. The basic requirement of safe culture submit your question papers or data
2. The components of decision making (with your name and details) here at
3. The characteristics of safe culture aviatorslinks@gmail.com ” or
4. AOTA you can share on facebook also and
125) Organizations with unnecessarily complex
cultures such as too many managerial level or name and details within 24 hr.
excessive departmentalization :- "You feel good because you're helping
1. Foster dilution of responsibilities and lack of others, and the others feel good
accountability because they're getting help.”
2. Tend to make interdepartmental
communication nor difficult especially regarding for helping aviators.
safety Share more n more document with us.
relevant information Thanks
3. Reduce safety margins and invite safety brake Good Luck
own www.dgcaquestionpapers.in]]]}}
4. AOTA
2. The consequence of human decision making
126) When internal responsibilities regarding failures with in managerial sectors
safety are not clearly defined:- 3. Either 1 or 2
1. Organizations tend to rely excessively on 4. Both 1 and 2
external sources to discharge them
2. As in 1 and that is regulatory authorities 130) Ambiguous, misleading, inappropriate or
3. As in 1 and that is the other organizations poorly constructed communication, combined
4. Both 2 and 3 with expectancy have been listed as:-
127) Organizations in socio-technical systems 1. The elements of many accidents
have to allocate resources which are clearly 2. The reinforcement of a standard language to
compatible goals in the long term:- ensure the error free transmission of a
1. To objectives of production message and its interpretation
2. To objectives of safety 3. Both 1 and 2
3. Both 1 and 2 4. NOTA
4. NOTA
131) Human factors training also includes :-
128) As a complex socio – technical system, 1. The explanation of common communication
aviation requires the precise co-ordination of:- problems
1. A large number of human elements for its 2. The reinforcement of a standard language to
functioning ensure the error free transmission of a
2. Mechanical elements for its functioning message and its interpretation
3. Both 1 and 2 3. Both 1 and 2
4. NOTA 4. NOTA
129) What is the root cause of breakdowns in 132) Crew co-ordination due to advantage of
system safety defense? team work benefits :-
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1. Major component failures or operational 1. An increase in safety by redundancy to detect

personnel errors and remedy individual errors
2. An increase in safety at a minimum level to 2. The impossibility of performing a particular

task and a flight safety aspect
detect and remedy individual errors

3. As in 1 and an increase in efficiency by the 3. Both 1 and 2
organized use of existing resources 4. NOTA
4. As in 2 and an increase in efficiency by the
organized use of existing resources 138) Documentation includes :-
1. Vocabulary and grammar
133) The basic variable determining the extent of 2. Typography
crew co-ordination includes:- 3. Use of photograph diagrams, charts or tables
1. Attitudes with use of colours in illustration
2. Motivation 4. All the above and the working environment
3. Training of the team members
4. All the above 139) Display includes :-
1. Visual display
134) If the crew co-ordination breaks down, it 2. Aural display or tactile senses
results in:- 3. Both 1 and 2
1. Decrease in communication
2. Increase in errors 140) The information should be presented :-
3. Both 1 and 2 and a lower probability of 1. In such a way to assist the processing task,
correcting deviations either from operating only under normal circumstances
procedures or the desired flight path 2. In such a way to assist the processing task,
4. Both 1 and 2 and a higher probability of not only under normal circumstances but also
correcting deviations either from operating when the performance is impaired
procedure or the desired flight path 3. In such a way to assist the processing task,
135) In the process of selection, training and only under normal circumstances but also
checking ensures capability to perform:- when
1. It is the obedience that determines whether a the performance is impaired by stress or fatigue
person will do so in a given situation 4. NOTA
2. It is the motivation that determines whether a
person will do so in a given situation 141) The fundamental consideration in display
3. It is the sincerely that determines whether a design is :-
person will do so in a given situation 1. To determine how the display is going to be
used
136) Mark the incorrect statement:- 2. To determine in what circumstances the
1. Job satisfaction motivates people to higher display is going to be used
performance 3. To determine by whom the display is going to
2. Modifying behavior and performance through be uses
rewards is called positive reinforcement 4. AOTA
3. Discouraging undesirable behavior by use of
penalties or punishments is called negative 142) Fundamental operational objective apply to
reinforcements. :-
4. Positive reinforcement can only be made 1. The design of warning
available in a management 2. Alerting the system
3. Both 1 and 2 and advisory system
137) Inadequacy in aviation documentation 4. Both 1 and 2 and regulating system
have:-
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1. A monetary aspect associated with increased 143) Push buttons, toggles or rotary switches
time detented levers, rotary knobs, thumbs wheels,
small levers or cranks and keypads:- 1. Training, work environment

2. Communication methods
1. Are the control devices

2. As in 1 which depend on functional 3. Physiological limitations and human
requirement engineering of equipment
3. As in 1 which depend on manipulation forces 4. AOTA
required
4. Either 2 or 3 149) Visual system works in the process of visual
performance and collision avoidance helps in
144) The factors have been suggested rendering the determination of:-
accidents and incidents:- 1. Optimum working conditions
1. The application of automation of flight deck 2. As in 1 which is ensured by the characteristics
displays and measurements of light, the perception of
2. The application of automation of controls colour, the physiology of the eyes and the way
3. Both 1 and 2 as they may breed complacency the visual system works
and over reliance 3. As in 1 which is ensured by the ability to detect
4. Both 1 and 2 as they make things operated other aircraft at a distance, either in day
with difficulty in updating time or at night or to identify outside objects in
the presence of rain and contamination of
145) A means of transmitting discrete or wind screen
continuous information or energy from the 4. Both 2 and 3
operator to some device or system :- 150) The factors considered directly related to
1. Controls safety :-
2. Displays 1. Visual illusions
3. Objectives 2. Disorientation in flight operations
4. Either 1 or 2 3. Both 1 and 2
4. As in 3 and the effective step in understanding
146) The estimation of human forces required to is training for visual illusions and the use of
operate doors, hatches and cargo additional information sources to supplement
equipment visual cues as a protective measure against
have to be realist and a study of _______and disorientation and illusions
_______fulfill the sources of solving the
above purpose:- 151) The biggest challenge in aviation:-
1. Anthropometry of study of the movement of 1. Human error avoidance
the dimension 2. Human error control
2. Biomechanics the study of parts of the body 3. Either 1 or 2
and the forces which can apply 4. Both 1 and 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. NOTA 152) The investigation of major catastrophes in
large-scale, high technology systems have
147) Recognizing human limits in maintaining, revealed those accidents have been caused by:-
inspecting and servicing aircraft are to be 1. A combination of many factors i.e., lack of
fulfilled by the:- human factors issues
1. Designer of the aircraft 2. As in 1 during the design
2. Manufacturer of the aircraft 3. As in 2 during operating stages of the system
3. Operator of the aircraft including operational personal error
4. Both 2 and 3 rather than in operational error
Page
148) The factors for recent accidents and

incidents :-
153) One cause for the accident caused by the 2. As in 1 and an example being the runway
collision accident which can be averted by using
pilot being:-
1. Ice contamination on the wings resulted in an a
aerodynamic stall separate runway for takeoff and landing
2. As in 1 and loss of control after lift off 3. As in 2 and are the safest decision and they
3. As in 2 due to the inadequate procedure are the most efficient
followed by the pilot 4. As in 2 and are the safest decision but may
4. As in 3 as the aircraft was left in open so that not be the most efficient
ice formation of the wings before flight take oil
154) The objectives of an organization through

the division of labour and hierarchy of
authority :- 158. Work performance can be influenced by:-
1. That implies the task distribution, co- 1. Technician health
ordination, synchronization 2. Physical status
2. Shared objectives and acceptance of common 3. Both 1 & 2
authority 4. Either 1 or 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. As in 3 and an attitude showing disrespect by 159..Physically demanding tasks:-
a staff generally dealt with disciplined 1. Should be followed by tedious work requiring
application after a prolonged exposure. intense concentration
2. Should not be followed by tedious work
155) The consequence of safety breakdown in requiring intense concentration
organizations within socio-technical systems :- 3. Should not be followed by tedious work
1. Are catastrophic in terms of loss of life and requiring concentration
2. Are the beginning of catastrophic 4. Should be followed by tedious work requiring
3. As in 1 since they involve high – risk/high concentration
hazard activities
4. As in 2 since they involve high – risk/ high 160. Due to the increasing correlation between
hazard activities aviation safety and maintenance :-
1. Regular physical fitness screening of aircraft
maintenance technicians
156) By determining why the accident occurred, 2. Regular medical screening of aircraft
it indicates :- maintenance technicians
1. What is wrong in the system and what should 3. Regular emotional screening of aircraft
be corrected maintenance technicians
2. As in 1 rather than who made a mistake and
should be punished 161. If everyone performance is assessed and
3. As in 1 and who made a mistake and should related to team productivity:-
be punished 1. Some members of the team feel common
4. As in 2 and blame and punishment have in responsibility
themselves, limited value as prevention tools 2. Few members of the team feel common
responsibility
157) The first level of action in decision making 3. All members of the team feel common
is :- responsibility
1. To eliminate the hazard thereby preventing a
Page
future accident 162. Ergonomics:-
1. The study of efficiency of persons in their

168. Sleep deprivation and disturbance:_
working environment
2. The study of inefficiency of persons in their 1. Can reduce alertness
working environment 2. Can reduce attention
3. The study of efficiency of persons in their 3. Both 1 & 2
sleeping environment
4. The study of efficiency of machines in their 169. It has a restorative function and is essential
working environment for mental performance:-
1. Sleep
163. Motivation:- 2. Body rhythm
1. What a person can do and actually will nod do 3. As in 1 is essential for mental performance
2. What a person can do and actually will do 4. As in 2 is essential for mental performance
3. What a person cannot do and actually will do
4. What a person is supposed to do and 170. It is frequency source of error, knobs, &
actually will do levers which are poorly located:-
1. Software & liveware
164. The impact of circadian dysrhythmia is 2. Liveware & Liveware
relevant not only to long distance transmeridian 3. Live ware & environment
flying-short haul operators (couriers and freight 4. Liveware & Hardware
carriers or instance) flying on irregular or
night schedules can suffer from:- 171. A number of factors can interfere with the
1. Body rhythm disturbance success of a training program:-
2. Reduce performance 1. Like sickness, fatigue
3. Both 1 & 2 2. Discomfort as well as others like anxiety, low
4. Either 1 or 2 motivation
165. Caffieine in coffee, teas & various soft 3. Either 1 or 2
drinks :- 4. Both 1 & 2
1. Increase alertness and normally reduce 172. A __________ is a person whose ideas and
reaction time actions influence the thought & the behaviour
2. But it also likely to disturb sleep of others:-
3. Both 1 and 2 1. Loader
4. Either 1 or 2 2. Worker
3. Helper
166. Amphetamines when used to maintain the 4. Leader
level of performance:-
1. During sleep deprivation
2. Only postpone the effects of sleep loss 173. The difference between personality and
3. Both 1 & 2 altitudes is relevant:_
1.Because it is unrealistic to expect a charge in
167. The use of drug such as hypnotics, personality through routine training
sedatives including anti-histamines with a 2.As in 1 captaincy or management training
sedative 3.As in 2 attitudes are more susceptible to
effect & tranquilizers:- change with ageing
1. To induce sleep is usually inappropriate 4.As in 2 attitudes are more susceptible to
2. They have a complimenting effect on change through training
performance 174. Ambiguous, misleading inappropriate or
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3. They have a adverse effect on performance poorly constructed, combined with expectance
4. Both 1 & 3 have been listed as elements of many accidents:-
1. Effective co-ordination
181. While some errors may be due to:-
2. Effective communication
3. Effective co-operation 1. Carelessness
2. Poor judgement
175. The message might be transferred by 3. Negligence
speech, by written word, by a variety of symbols 4. All the above
&
displays or by non verbal means such as gesture 181, The control of human error required two
and body language:- different approaches :-
1. Effective communication 1.First to minimize the occurrence of errors
2. Transfer of information 2.Second minimizing the impact or
3. As in 2 is essential for safe operation of flight consequences of errors
4. All the above 3.Both 1 and 2
4. Either 1 or 2
176. It is the task of human factors training to
prevent :-
1. Communication error 182. Stress includes the effect of factors such as
2. To ensure error free transmission of a temperature, humidity, noise pressure,
message and its correct interpretation illumination & vibration:-
3. Both 1 & 2 1. Environmental stress
4. Either 1 or 2 2. Cognitive stress
3. Life stress
177. Three levels of action decision makers can 4. Fatigue
choose:_
1. To eliminate the hazard 183. Stress refers to the mental demands of the
2. To accept the hazard task itself:-
3. Involves both accepting that the hazard can 1. Environmental stress
neither eliminated nor controlled 2. Cognitive stress
4. All the above 3. Life stress
4. Fatigue
178. Errors & violation having an immediate
adverse effect:- 184. _________may produce discomfort or
1. Intent failure annoyance and may interfere with visual
2. Active failure performance :-
3. Bilateral failure 1. Vibration
2. Pressure
179. Decisions or actions, the consequences of 3. Glare
which may remain dominant for a long time :- 4. High temperature
1. Latent failures
2. Active failures 185. _________is defined as the condition of
3. As in 1 become when trigged by active failures vision were there is discomfort or reduction in
4. As in 2 become when trigged by latent failures the ability to see objects:-
1. Glare
180. The nature of human error ____________ 2. Pressure
1. Origins 3. Vibration
2. Frequencies 4. Noise
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3. Consequences
4. ATA
186. Any form of oscillating motion that changes 3.Attribute as well as interfere with the success
of a training programme
its magnitude of displacement

periodically :-
1. Motion 191. The term ergonomics defined as:-
2. Glare 1.The study of efficiency of person in their
3. Pressure working environment
4. Vibration 2.The study of working environment
3.The study of efficiency of persons and
187. In most maintenance error accidents the machineries in their working environment
faulty maintenance work which contribute to
the accident was performed during night shift 192. The complex working environment involves:-
working hours:- 1.Human performance: Decision making and
1. L-S interface flaw other cognitive processes the design of displays
2. L-E interface flaw and controls and flight deck and cabin layout
3. L-L interface flaw 2.As in (1) and communication and computer
4. L-H interface flaw software, maps and charts
3.As in (1) and the field of documentation such
188. Climbing over wings and horizontal as aircraft operating manual lists etc.
stabilizers and working in uncomfortable 4.Both 2 & 3
positions
and in cramped or confined spaces are normal 193. Motivation can be explained as reflecting:-
in:- 1.The difference between what a person can and
1. Technician health actually will do
2. Physical status can also influence work 2.As in (1) and that motivated individuals
performance perform with great effectiveness than
3. Both 1 & 2 unmotivated
4. Aircraft maintenance and inspection activity individuals.
3.As in (1) and that unmotivated individuals
189. Some of the most important aspects to perform with great effectiveness than motivated
consider for ________design & management individuals
include
job design, reward systems, selection and 194. The impact of circadian dysrhythmia is
staffing and training:- relevant to:-
1. Work team 1.Long distance transmeridian flying
2. Individual work 2.Short haul flying on irregular or night schedules
3. Team work 3.Both 1 and 2
4. Both 1 and 2 can suffer from reduced
190. Sickness fatigue or discomfort as well as performance produced
others like anxiety, low motivation, poor
quality 195. Air traffic controllers and maintenance
instruction an unsuitable instructor, inadequate technicians with frequent changing shift
techniques or inadequate communications schedules and prolonged shifts:-
are:- 1. Can perform best in their work
1.The factors which attribute to the success of a 2. Can suffer deterioration in circadian
training programme dysrhythmia
2.The factors which interfere with the success of 3. Either 1 or 2
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a training programme 4. As in 2 that disturbs the 24 hours body rhythm
196. Lack of well being after experiencing 2. As in 2 and reduces reaction time
3. As in 1 and are likely to disturb sleep
transmeridian air travel makes:-

1.Disturbance or desynchronization of body
rhythm 203. The resolution to sleep disturbance or
2.As in 1 that includes sleep disturbance and deprivation includes :-
disruption of eating and elimination habits 1.Scheduling crews-considering circadian rhythm
3.As in 2 as well as lassitude, irritability and and fatigue
depression 2.Long term effects of drugs
4.As mentioned in all the above which is called 3. Adapting the diet timings
jet lag 4.All the above and relaxation and techniques
197. Jet lag causes:- 204. Fatigue, stress, sleep, rhythm disturbance,
1.Slowed reaction and decision making times medication and certain mild pathological
2.Loss of inaccurate memory of recent events condition go unnoticed even by the person
3.Errors in computation and a tendency to accept affected which will evenly show:-
lower standards of operating performance 1. A reduction in capacity
4.All the above 2. Partial incapacitation
3. Both 1 and 2
198. Long range flying causes:- 4. Either 1 or 2
1. Over all sleep deviation
2. Natural rhythm of the brain 205. Stress is caused due to:
3. Biological rhythm 1.Irregular working and resting patterns and
4. All the above and difference in their ability to resting patterns and disturbed circadian rhythms
sleep out of phase with biological rhythm 2.Life events with family separation and during
periodic medical and proficiency checks
199. A condition when a person has difficulty 3.Both 1 and 2
sleeping or when the quality of sleep is poor 4. Either 1 or 2
defined as:-
1. Jet lag 206. Normal reaction of person leads to error
2. Insomnia that are due to:-
3. Circadian dysrhythmia 1. Carelessness
2. Negligence
200. Adverse effect on performance happens:- 3. Both 1 and 2
1. When using hypnotics 4. Either 3 or poor judgement
2. When using sedatives including
antihistamines
3. As in 2 and tranquilizers 207. Knobs and levers which are poorly located
4. Both 2 and 3 or lack of proper coding create mistakes at
the interface between:-
201. Sleep deprivation reduces:- 1. Liveware and hardware
1. Sings of irritability forgetfulness 2. Human and machine
2. Sickness absence, mistakes 3. Live ware and software
3. Alcohol or drug abuse 4. Either 1 or 2
4. AOTA
208. Delays and errors may occur while seeking
202. Caffeine in coffee, teanine in tea and vital information from confusing misleading or
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various soft drinks :- excessively clustered documentation and carts

1. In crease alertness may lead a potential error in the
interface between:-
213. Action or inaction:-
1. Live ware and hardware

2. Liveware and software 1.Follows decision which is also a stage of
3. Liveware and environment potential error
4. Liveware and liveware 2.Precedes decision which is also a stage of
potential error
209. Noise, heat, lighting and vibration the 3.As in 1 and that can be due to design of
environmental factors and the disturbance of machinery, feedback mechanism and also
biological rhythms in long range flying resulting deficiencies
from irregular working/sleeping in the feedback mechanism.
pattern :- 4.As in 2 and that can be due to design of
1.Are the potential errors due to the interface machinery, feedback mechanism and also
between liveware and hardware deficiencies
2.Are the potential errors due to the interface in the feedback mechanism.
between liveware
3.Are the potential errors due to the interface 214. Control of human errors is achieved by:-
between liveware and software 1.Minimizing of the occurrence of human errors
4.Are the potential errors due to the interface 2.Reducing errors by cross monitoring and crew
between liveware and environmental factors co-operation
3.Both 1 and 2
210. The interaction between people between 4. Neither 1 or 2
that affect crew effectiveness, includes
leadership command and shortcoming and in 215. Minimizing the occurrence of errors by:-
turn these reduce operation efficiency 1. Ensuring high levels of staff competency
and cause misunderstandings and errors. Such 2. Design controls so that they match human
errors are due to the interface characteristics check list, procedure manuals,
between :- maps, charts, SOPs, etc.
1. Liveware and hardware 3. Providing proper design controls so that they
2. Liveware and software match human characteristics; providing
3. Liveware and environmental factors proper
4. Liveware and liveware checklist, procedures, manuals, maps, charts,
SOPs, etc.
211. Once information is senses, it makes its 4. AOTA and reducing noise, vibration
way to the brain, where it is processed and a temperature extremes and other stressful
conclusion is drawn about the nature and conditions
meaning of the message received. This and training programmes
interpretive activity is called:-
1. Perception 216. The factors that contribute to the limitation
2. Understanding of errors or their consequences:-
3. As in 1 and it is the breeding ground for errors 1. Equipments design which makes errors
4. As in 2 and its is the breeding ground for reversible
errors. 2. Equipments which can monitor or complement
212. Erroneous decisions are due to:- and support human performance
1. Training or past experience 3. Both 1 and 2
2. Emotional are commercial considerations 4. Either 1 or 2
3. Fatigue, medication, motivation and physical
Page
or psychological disorders 217. Factors interfere with the success of a

4. AOTA training programme:-
1. Sickness, fatigue or discomfort which are 1. Establish the difference between leadership
which is acquired and the authority which is
obvious
2. Anxiety, low motivation, poor quality assigned
instruction, an unsuitable 2. As mentioned in 1 but combine the same at
3. AOTA optimal situation
3. Ensure teamwork and making it successful by
218. Mark the incorrect statement :- having good relationship
1. Skills, knowledge or attitudes gained in one 4. All the above
situation can often be used in another. This is
called positive transfer 224. Skilled leadership involves:-
2. Negative transfer occurs when previous 1. Understanding and handing various situations
learning interferes with new learning like personality clashes without
3. Negative elements of training must be complicating but to influence in correcting them
identified because they can return to earthier 2. Influence in achieving the safety and efficiency
learned 3. Influencing personality differences in the
practices behaviour and performance members personality
4. A skill is an organized and co-ordinated differences during aircraft accidents and
pattern of psychomotor and not intellectual indicates
activity. 4. AOTA
219. Smoking cannabis can:-
1. Subtly impair performance for 24 hours 225. Attitudes are learned and enduring:-
2. Subtly impair performance for 12 hours 1. Tendencies or predispositions more or less
3. As in 1 and 2 affects the ability to concentrate predictable
retain information and judgement especially on 2. As in 1 and to respond favourably to people,
difficult tasks organizations, decisions, etc
4. As in 2 which will pep up an maintenance 3. As in 1 and to respond unfavorably to people,
engineer in achieving tasks organizations, decisions
4. Either 2 or 3
220. The ideas and actions of one influence the
thought and behaviour of others :- 226. CHIRP and ASRS:-
1. Leader 1. Support the view that altitudes and behaviour
2. Companion play a significant role in flight safety
3. Technician 2. Support the view that altitudes and behaviour
play a significant role in flight safety but
221. Thought can be considered:- also the stable knowledge
1. Use of examples and persuasion 3. Both 1 and 2
2. An understanding of the goals and desires of 4. NOTA
the group
3. Both 1 and 2 227. Mark the correct statement:-
4. None of the above 1. Personality traits and altitudes influence one’s
conduct at home and work
222. Leader becomes a means of:- 2. Personality traits are not innate or acquired at
1. Change and influence the early stages of life. It is an ongoing process
2. Change and follow of learn and cultivate
3. Correct and punish 3. Personality traits are not deep rooted
4. Compulsion and order characteristics which define a they are stable
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and
223. A leader should :- resistant to change.
2. ICAO Annex 13 i.e., the process of accident

investigation
228. Modifying attitudes or behavior patterns

through:- 3. CHIRP and the ASRS
1. Persuasion is also relevance to safety and 4. AOTA
efficiency
2. Correct following methods and enforcing them 232. Find the incorrect statement:-
is also direct relevance to safety and 1. Culture refers to beliefs and values which are
efficiency shaped by all or almost all members of a
3. As in 1 that can be aided by the persuasion group
methods like crew bulletin notices and 2. Culture is a mental programming which
advertising distinguishes one from another
4. As in 2 that can be aided by the persuasion 3. Culture deeply influences organizational
methods like crew bulletin notices behaviour
4. A corporate culture may also allow or prevent
229. Mark the incorrect statement:- violations, since they take place in situations
1. Effective communication is the transfer of where the shared value of individuals and the
information essential for the safety of group favours certain behaviour of attitudes
equipments
2. Effective communication includes all transfer 233. A safety culture within an organization can
of information is essential for the safe be regarded as :-
operation of aircrafts 1. A set of beliefs, norms, attitudes roles and
3. The message may be transferred by speech, social and technical practices
by the written work, by a symbols and display or 2. As in 1 that concerned with minimizing
by non-verbal means such as gestures and exposure of employees, managers, customers
4. The quality and effectiveness of and
communication is determined by its in members of general public to conditions that are
considered dangerous or hazardous
230. The third level of action involves :- 3. As in 1 that concerned with minimizing
1. Accepting the hazard can be neither exposure of employees, managers, customers
eliminated (level one) nor controlled (level two) and
and members of general public to conditions that are
teaching operational level to live with it considers necessary for an organization
2. As in 1 and the actions include changes in 4. Both 2 and 3
personnel selection, training, supervision,
staffing 234. Complexity, standardization, centralization,
and evaluation, increasing or adding warnings adaptability to the environment are
3. As in 2 and any other modifications which considered:-
could prevent operational personnel from 1. The basic requirement of safe culture
making 2. The components of decision making
a similar mistake 3. The characteristics of safe culture
4. As in 3 and this level actions should not be 4. AOTA
taken in preference to level one or two as it is
impossible to anticipate all future kinds of 235. Organizations with unnecessarily complex
human error cultures such as too many managerial level or
excessive departmentalization :-
231. Basic risk management concepts are 1. Foster dilution of responsibilities and lack of
Page
included in the:- accountability

1. Accident prevention manual (Doc 9422)
2. Tend to make interdepartmental 2. The reinforcement of a standard language to

ensure the error free transmission of a
communication nor difficult especially regarding

safety message and its interpretation
relevant information 3. Both 1 and 2
3. Reduce safety margins and invite safety brake 4. NOTA
own
4. AOTA 241. Human factors training also includes :-
1. The explanation of common communication
236. When internal responsibilities regarding problems
safety are not clearly defined:- 2. The reinforcement of a standard language to
1. Organizations tend to rely excessively on ensure the error free transmission of a
external sources to discharge them message and its interpretation
2. As in 1 and that is regulatory authorities 3. Both 1 and 2
3. As in 1 and that is the other organizations 4. NOTA
4. Both 2 and 3
242. Crew co-ordination due to advantage of
237. Organizations in socio-technical systems team work benefits :-
have to allocate resources which are clearly 1. An increase in safety by redundancy to detect
compatible goals in the long term:- and remedy individual errors
1. To objectives of production 2. An increase in safety at a minimum level to
2. To objectives of safety detect and remedy individual errors
3. Both 1 and 2 3. As in 1 and an increase in efficiency by the
4. NOTA organized use of existing resources
4. As in 2 and an increase in efficiency by the
238. As a complex socio – technical system, organized use of existing resources
aviation requires the precise co-ordination of:-
1. A large number of human elements for its 243. The basic variable determining the extent of
functioning crew co-ordination includes:-
2. Mechanical elements for its functioning 1. Attitudes
3. Both 1 and 2 2. Motivation
4. NOTA 3. Training of the team members
4. All the above
239. What is the root cause of breakdowns in
system safety defense?
1. Major component failures or operational 244. If the crew co-ordination breaks down, it
personnel errors results in:-
2. The consequence of human decision making 1. Decrease in communication
failures with in managerial sectors 2. Increase in errors
3. Either 1 or 2 3. Both 1 and 2 and a lower probability of
4. Both 1 and 2 correcting deviations either from operating
procedures or the desired flight path
240. Ambiguous, misleading, inappropriate or 4. Both 1 and 2 and a higher probability of
poorly constructed communication, combined correcting deviations either from operating
with expectancy have been listed as:- procedure or the desired flight path
1. The elements of many accidents
Page
4. NOTA

previous year DGCA question papers or 248. Documentation includes :-
other useful data then you can 1. Vocabulary and grammar
submit your question papers or data 2. Typography
(with your name and details) here at 3. Use of photograph diagrams, charts or tables
with use of colours in illustration
help other students in their exam 4. All the above and the working environment
document on our webpage with your 250. Display includes :-
name and details within 24 hr. 1. Visual display
2. Aural display or tactile senses
because they're getting help.” 3. Both 1 and 2
revenue from this webpage this is only 251. The information should be presented :-
for helping aviators. 1. In such a way to assist the processing task,
Share more n more document with us. only under normal circumstances
Thanks
Good Luck
2. In such a way to assist the processing task,
www.dgcaquestionpapers.in]]]}} not only under normal circumstances but also
when the performance is impaired
3. In such a way to assist the processing task,
245. In the process of selection, training and only under normal circumstances but also
checking ensures capability to perform:- when
1. It is the obedience that determines whether a the performance is impaired by stress or fatigue
person will do so in a given situation 4. NOTA
2. It is the motivation that determines whether a
person will do so in a given situation 252. The fundamental consideration in display
3. It is the sincerely that determines whether a design is :-
person will do so in a given situation 1. To determine how the display is going to be
used
246. Mark the incorrect statement:- 2. To
1. Job satisfaction motivates people to higher determine
performance in what other useful data then you can
2. Modifying behaviour and performance through circumstanc submit your question papers or data
es the (with your name and details) here at
rewards is called positive reinforcement
display is aviatorslinks@gmail.com ” or
3. Discouraging undesirable behaviour by use of you can share on facebook also and
penalties or punishments is called negative going to be
reinforcements. used preparation. We will publish your
4. Positive reinforcement can only be made 3. To document on our webpage with your
available in a management determine name and details within 24 hr.
by whom "You feel good because you're helping
the display others, and the others feel good
247. Inadequacy in aviation documentation because they're getting help.”
have:- is going to We are not generating any type of
1. A monetary aspect associated with increased be uses revenue from this webpage this is only
time 4. AOTA for helping aviators.
2. The impossibility of performing a particular
Page
253. Thanks
task and a flight safety aspect Good Luck
3. Both 1 and 2 Fundament
al operational objective apply to :-

1. The design of warning

2. Alerting the system
3. Both 1 and 2 and advisory system
4. Both 1 and 2 and regulating system
254. Push buttons, toggles or rotary switches

detented levers, rotary knobs, thumbs wheels,
small levers or cranks and keypads:-
1. Are the control devices
2. As in 1 which depend on functional
requirement
3. As in 1 which depend on manipulation forces
required
4. Either 2 or 3
255. The factors have been suggested rendering

accidents and incidents:-
1. The application of automation of flight deck
displays
2. The application of automation of controls
3. Both 1 and 2 as they may breed complacency
and over reliance
4. Both 1 and 2 as they make things operated
with difficulty in updating
256. A means of transmitting discrete or
continuous information or energy from the
operator to some device or system :-
1. Controls
2. Displays
3. Objectives
4. Either 1 or 2
Page

PAPER 1 Important Notes

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IN - (PAPER 1 IMPORTANT NOTES)

DGCA -PAPER I KNOWLEDGE BANK

1) Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing

2) Annex 2 - Rules Of Air

3) Annex 3 - Meteorological Service For International Air Navigation

4) Annex 4 - Aeronautical Charts

5) Annex 5 - Units at Measurement to be used in Air and Groundoperation

6) Annex 6 - Operation Of Aircraft

7) Annex 7 - Aircraft nationality and Registration Marks

8) Annex 8 - Airworthy of Aircraft

10) Annex 10 - Aeronautical Termination

11) Annex 11 - Air Traffic Service

12) Annex 12 - Research and Rescue

13) Annex 13 - Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation

14) Annex 14 - Aerodrome

15) Annex 15 - Aeronautical Information Circular

16) Annex 16 - Environmental Protection

17) Annex 17 - Security

18) Annex 18 - The Safe Transport of Dangerous goods

19) Annex 19 - Safety Management

CIVIL AVIATION REQUIREMENTS SECTIONS

3) SECTION 3 - AIR TRANSPORT

4) SECTION 4 - AERODROME STANDARDS & LICENSING

5) SECTION 5 - AIR SAFETY

6) SECTION 6 - DESIGN STANDARDS & TYPE CERTIFICATIONS

7) SECTION 7 - FLIGHT CREW STANDARDS, TRAINING & LICENSING

8) SECTION 8 - AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS

9) SECTION 9 - AIR SPACE AND NAVIGATIONS SERVICES STANDARDS

10) SECTION 10 - AVIATION ENVIRONMENT PROTECTION

11) SECTION 11 - SAFE TRANSPORT OF DANGEROUS GOODS BY AIR

AAC 6 OF 1998 GRANT OF APPROVAL TO FOREIGN FLIGHT EMGINEER`S LICENCE

AAC 3 OF 2000 Good Maintenance practice

AAC 6 of 2000 Handling of Electronics devices

AAC 3of 2001 Banner Towing Operation

AAC 5 of 2001 Engineering statistics Report

AAC 3 OF 2006 Authenticity and serviceability of aircraft parts.

AAC 4 of 2006 Air worthiness approval for Exports

AIR WORTHYNESS ADVISORY CIRCULARS

AAC 2 of 2007 Certification of transit inspection of an aircraft by other organizations.

AAC 2 OF 2011 Categorization of Surveillance/ Audit findings

AAC 1 OF 2012 Duty time limitation – Aircraft maintenance person(amp)

AAC 2 OF 2013 Revision-1- Modifications and Repairs

AAC 3 of 2013 EDTO Airworthiness Approval

AAC 5 OF 2013 Validity of Certification Authorization and AME LICENCE.

AAC 1 OF 2015 CODING AND Registration of ELTs

AAC 1 of 2016 Check list of current AACs

AAC 3 of 2016 Direct Approval of Aircraft Maintenance Type Training

[[{{ Dear Followers If you have

AIRCRAFT MANUAL SESSION QUSTIONS

JUNE 2016: religious lace he should

b) Danger zone is defined as the area within

d) none 2) Psychoactive substance doesn't include

c) Schedule II of 1934 d) 1000 Kg

apparatus is obligatory 6) Which IAR relates to intoxicating and

a) 24C 3) If a person engages in maul-practices in

d) 29D will take actions according to

9) MTCS ( regarding accident)

a) Notification of accident according to rule d) Rule 133A

c) As in (b) information to the DM & office in a) Licensing authority

8) Dropping of paper in any religious place

2) Carriage of COCL is given in which IAR 1) IAR 7 of 1937

b) Rule 133 C 4) Fees for C of A is given in which IAR

5) Fees for issuance of temporary C of R of b) 133 B