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Apr 14, 2018

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Reso JEE advanced mock test

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Reso JEE advanced mock test

© All Rights Reserved

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P21-17

PAPER-1 Academic Session: 2017-18 C OD E - 0

(JEE ADVANCED PATTERN)

Target : JEE (Main+Advanced) 2018

Date: 07-01-2018 | Duration : 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 240

Please read the last page of this booklet for the instructions.

(Ñi;k funsZ'kksa ds fy;s bl iqfLrdk ds vfUre i`"B dks i<+sA )

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MATHEMATICS

PART : I MATHEMATICS

MATHEMATICS

SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 60)

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these

four option(s) is(are) correct

For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS

Marking scheme :

+4 If the bubbles corresponding to the answers are darkened

0 If none of the bubbles is darkened

–2 In all other cases

2 2

1. A point is moving on the circle (x – 4) + (y – 8) = 20, then it broke away from it and moving along

a tangent to the circle cut the x-axis at point (–2, 0). The coordinates of the point on the circle at

which the moving point broke away can be

42 36 2 44

(A) , (B) , (C) (6, 4) (D) (2, 4)

5 5 5 5

2 2

2. If the normal at P to the rectangular hyperbola x – y = 4 meets the x,y-axis at G and g

respectively. If C is the centre of hyperbola, then

(A) PG = PC (B) Pg = PC (C) PG = Pg (D) Gg = 2PC

( R ), then which of the following must hold good?

(A) b + c = 0 (B) b 2 4 ac 0 (C) c 4a (D) 4a b 0

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MATHEMATICS

3 2

4. If the roots of equation x + px + qx – 1 = 0 form an increasing G.P., where p and q are real, then

MATHEMATICS

(A) p + q = 0 (B) p (–3, )

(C) one of the roots is unity (D) 1 lies between the roots

5. If the axis of a parabola and transverse axis of rectangular hyperbola is same and the vertex of

the parabola is same as center of rectangular hyperbola then if locus of the point whose chord of

contact with respect to the parabola touches the hyperbola is a curve then

(A) curve is ellipse with the same center

(B) curve is ellipse whose axes concide with the axes of the hyperbola

(C) curve is hyperbola with the same center

(D) curve is hyperbola whose axes concide with the axes of the hyperbola

6. For positive real numbers a,b,c such that a + b + c = p, which of the following hold good ?

8 3

(A) p a p b p c p (B) p a p b p c 8abc

27

bc ca ab

(C) p (D) (p – a) (p – b)(p – c) < 8abc

a b c

7. The number of ways of choosing triplet (x,y,z) such that z max(x, y) and x,y,z {1,2,...n,n + 1} is

n ( n 1)(2 n 1)

n 1 n2

(A) C3 C3 (B)

6

n2 n 1

(C) 12 2 2 ........ n 2 (D) 2. C 3 C3

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MATHEMATICS

8. Let A denotes the product of values of m, n and p where m = log34, n = log46 and p = log627, B

MATHEMATICS

denotes the value of log 2

( 42 3 – 4 – 2 3 ) and C denotes the value of 'a' for which the

quadratic equation (a – 1)x – (a + 1)x + (a + 1) = 0, a R, is such that sum of the squares of roots

2

is two less than their product. Then which of the following is/are correct ?

5

(A) A + B = 5 (B) A + B = 6 (C) (B + C A) = (D) (B + C A) = 3

3

p q r

9.

(A) p + r is always even (B) p + q + r is always odd

(C) q can be any integer (D) if p is odd then r is even

2

10. If the product of the roots of the equation 2x + ax + 4 sina = 0 is 1, then roots will be imaginary if

7 5 3

(A) a R (B) a , (C) a , (D) a , –

6 6 6 6 2 2

(A) a rational number

(B) an irrational number of the form

1

(C) an irrational number of the form , where is an odd integer

4

1 1

(D) an irrational number of the form , where is an even integer

4

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MATHEMATICS

12. In a ABC , A , B (1, 2), C (2, 3), point A lies on the line y = 2x + 3, where are

MATHEMATICS

Integers, and the area of the triangle is S such that [S] = 2 where [.] denotes the greatest integer

function. Then the possible coordinates of A can be

(A) (–7, –11) (B) (–6, –9) (C) (2, 7) (D) (3, 9)

(A) last four digits of N are 8580 (B) last three digits of N are 580

(C) last four digits of N are 7580 (D) last digit of N is 0

14. ABCD is a square of unit area. A circle is tangent to two sides of ABCD and passes through

exactly one of its vertices. The radius of the circle is less than or equal to

1 1

(A) 2 2 (B) 2 1 (C) (D)

2 2

(A) Four real roots if a > 2 (B) Four real roots if a < –1

(C) Two real roots if 1 < a < 2 (D) No real root if a < –1

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MATHEMATICS

MATHEMATICS

This section contains FIVE questions

The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive

For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS

Marking scheme :

+4 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened

0 If none of the bubbles is darkened

–1 In all other cases

18. The tangent and normal to the parabola y2 = 8x drawn at (2,4) intersect the line x + y = 3 at the

points A and B respectively. If AB subtend a right angle at the vertex of the parabola then absolute

sum of all possible values of is

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MATHEMATICS

MATHEMATICS

19. If N is the number of ways in which a person can walk up a stairway which has 7 steps if he can

N

take 1 or 2 steps up the stairs at a time, then the value of is?

3

20. If the eccentricity of the hyperbola is times the eccentricity of the ellipse

. Then the smallest positive value of is . The value of P is?

P

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PHYSICS

PART - II : PHYSICS

PHYSICS

SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 60)

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these

four option(s) is(are) correct

For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS

Marking scheme :

+4 If the bubbles corresponding to the answers are darkened

0 If none of the bubbles is darkened

–2 In all other cases

21. A train is moving with constant speed along a circular track. If length of the train is one fourth of

length of circular track then which of the following is/are correct options (Assume that sound

source is at engine) :

(A) Frequency observed by a passenger who is sitting in the middle of train (equidistant from front

and rear end) will continuously increase.

(B) Frequency observed by a passenger who is sitting in the middle of train (equidistant from front

and rear end) will remain constant but more than actual frequency.

(C) Frequency observed by a passenger who is sitting in the middle of train (equidistant from front

and rear end) will remains constant and equal to actual frequency.

(D) Wavelength observed by the person who is on the rear end of train is more than the actual

wavelength of sound wave.

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PHYSICS

22. In a flexible balloon, 2 moles of SO2 having initial volume of 1kl at a temperature of 270C is filled

PHYSICS

(SO2 is a non-linear triatomic gas). The gas is first expanded to thrice its initial volume isobarically

and then expanded adiabatically so as to attain its initial temperature. Assuming gas is ideal and

25

R= Jmol-1K-1. Choose the INCORRECT option(s).

3

4

(A) Change in internal energy of the gas in the isobaric process is 2.5 × 10 J

4

(B) Change in internal energy of the gas in the isobaric process is 3 × 10 J

(C) Work done by the gas in the whole process is 35 kJ

(D) Work done by the gas in the whole process is 40 kJ

23. Consider one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas inside a fixed, perfectly insulating cylindrical vessel

at temperature T and piston is at equilibrium initially as shown in figure. Now a particle of mass

m strikes horizontally to piston of same mass at mid–point of piston and sticks to piston. Initially

mv 2

temperature T = , where R is universal gas constant) (Neglect heat loss through piston, assume

R

that velocity is so small that change in the temperature of gas due to motion of piston is simultaneous

in whole volume) (Gravity and friction is absent everywhere) Choose the correct option(s)

(A) Ratio of maximum temperature and minimum temperature of gas during motion of piston is 7 : 5

(B) Ratio of maximum temperature and minimum temperature of gas during motion of piston is 6 : 7

(C) If particle strikes elastically then ratio of maximum temperature to minimum temperature

during motion of piston is 1 : 2

(D) If particle strikes elastically then ratio of maximum temperature to minimum temperature

during motion of piston is 4 : 3

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PHYSICS

24. Choose the correct option(s)

PHYSICS

(A) A tight string is fixed at both ends and sustaining standing wave then at the middle, antinode is

formed in odd harmonic

(B) A tight string is fixed at one end and free at the other end then at the middle, neither node nor

antinode is formed.

(C) Standing wave is formed in an open organ pipe and end correction is not negligible, then

phase difference between SHMs of any two particles will be either or zero.

(D) Standing wave is formed in a closed organ pipe and end correction is not negligible. then at the

middle, neither node nor antinode is formed

25. An elastic ring of mass 'm' and force constant k (stiffness) is released from rest in a smooth cone

of semi vertex angle from horizontal position as shown in figure. Initially the ring was in natural

length : Choose the correct option(s)

ring

g

(B) initial acceleration of centre of ring is g cos

2

mg cot 2

(C) maximum vertical displacement of centre of ring is

2 2 k

(D) at the moment of maximum vertical displacement acceleration of centre of ring is zero.

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PHYSICS

26. A semi circular disc of radius R is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. Figure shows top view of

this. If temperature is increased by t then displacement of (coefficient of linear expansion is ) :

PHYSICS

A

y

B

x

C

(A) A along y-axis is Rt

4R

(B) A along x-axis is – t

3

(C) B along x-axis is Rt

(D) B along y-axis is zero

27. An external force 6N is applied on a sphere of radius R = 10 cm of mass 1 kg and the sphere

moves in a liquid with a constant velocity 5 m/s making 530 with the horizontal. The coefficient of

viscosity of the liquid is 20/(6), in S.I. units. (Take g = 10 m/s2). Choose the correct option(s) :

(B) The effective weight (weight – upthrust) of the body is 8 N

(C) The direction of the external applied force must be horizontal.

(D) If the external force is suddenly removed the acceleration of the body just after the removal of

2

the force will be 6 m/s .

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PHYSICS

28. A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic motions along x and y axis according to,

PHYSICS

x = 3 sin 100 t, y = 4 sin 100 t.

(A) The path of the particle will be ellipse and it is moving in clockwise direction.

(B) Motion of particle will be on a straight line.

(C) Motion will be a simple harmonic motion with amplitude 5.

(D) Phase difference between two motions is .

2

29. A small ball of mass m is released from rest from a height h above the liquid surface. The density

of ball is : (assume no splash)

3

(A) If h H, then the ball will be able to enter the liquid of higher density

7H

(B) If h , then the ball will be able to strike the bottom of the vessel

2

(C) If h = 2H, then the ball will cross the interface of two liquids with kinetic energy = mgH

(D) If h = 0 then ball will float on the surface

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PHYSICS

ab2

30. An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and x is calculated from x = 3 . If the percentage

PHYSICS

c

errors in a, b, c are ± 1%, ± 3% and ± 2% respectively.

(A) The percentage error in x can be ± 13%

(B) The percentage error in x can be ± 7%

(C) The percentage error in x can be ± 20%

(D) The percentage error in x can be ± 26%

31. Two spherical soap bubbles in vaccum are connected through a narrow tube. Radius of left bubble

is R and that of other is slightly smaller than R. Air flows from right to left very slowly. At any instant

r1, A1, V1, n1 are radius, surface area, volume and number of moles of gas in the left bubble and

r2, A2, V2, n2 are same for right bubble. Assume that temperature remains constant : Choose the

correct option(s)

(A) The rate of change of " n1 + n2 " with respect to time is zero

(B) The rate of change of " A1 + A2 " with respect to time is zero

(C) If at an instant number of moles in left bubble is 4 times of number of moles in right bubble

2

then r2 = R

5

(D) If at an instant number of moles in left bubble is 4 times of number of moles in right bubble

8

then r1 = R

5

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PHYSICS

32. A boat crosses a river at a velocity v (relative to water) that is constant relative to water and

PHYSICS

perpendicular to the banks. The magnitude of the velocity v is 0.3 m/s. Width of the river is

b = 63 m. Speed of the current varies according to the parabolic law.

2

4u0 b

u = u0 – x –

b

2 2

where x is distance from the banks and u0 is constant equal to 5m/s. Choose the correct options.

(A) Drift of the boat during the time it crosses the river is 1050m.

(B) Drift of the boat during the time it crosses the river is 700m

(C) Time taken by the boat to crosses the river is 210 sec.

(D) Time taken by the boat to crosses the river is 12.6 sec.

33. Position verses time graph for a particle is shown in figure then select correct alternative(s)

(A) Particle does not change its direction of motion during the motion from t = 0 to t = T

(B) Particle changes its direction twice during the motion from t = 0 to t = T

(C) Acceleration of particle changes its direction once during the motion from t = 0 to t = T

T

(D) Direction of force is reversed at t =

2

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PHYSICS

34. Heat is supplied to a certain homogeneous sample of matter at a uniform rate. Its temperature is

PHYSICS

plotted against time as shown in the figure. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn?

(A) its specific heat capacity is greater in the solid state than in the liquid state.

(B) its specific heat capacity is greater in the liquid state than in the solid state.

(C) its latent heat of vaporization is greater than its latent heat of fusion.

(D) its latent heat of vaporization is smaller than its latent heat of fusion.

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PHYSICS

35. The ring shown in figure is performing pure rolling on a rigid surface. Radius of ring is 'R' and

PHYSICS

angular velocity of ring is ''. There are four points marked on the ring as shown. After time t = ,

B

D

R

(A) Displacement of A is R 2 4

(B) Displacement of B is ( – 2) R

(C) Displacement of C is R 2 4

(D) Displacement of D is ( + 2) R

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PHYSICS

PHYSICS

This section contains FIVE questions

The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive

For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS

Marking scheme :

+4 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened

0 If none of the bubbles is darkened

–1 In all other cases

36. A ball collides elastically with a massive wall moving towards it with a velocity of v as shown. The

collision occurs at a height of h above ground level and the velocity of the ball just before collision

is 2v in horizontal direction. Then the distance between the foot of the wall and the point on the

2h

ground where the ball lands (at the instant the ball lands) is n v , where n is :

g

v 2v

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PHYSICS

37. A particle is suspended by a light vertical inelastic string of length from a fixed support. At its

PHYSICS

equilibrium position it is projected horizontally with a speed 6g . The ratio of the tension in the

string when the string is in its horizontal position to that in the string when the particle is vertically

38. A thin rod of length 1 m is kept vertical and is hinged from the lower end ‘H’. Its linear mass density

varies with the distance (x) from the end ‘H’ as = (12 x) kg/m, where x is distance along rod from

point H. The potential energy (in Joules) of the rod is 5N. Find N (at H the potential energy is zero)

(g = 10 m/s2)

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PHYSICS

39. A uniform rectangular plate of mass 1 kg is performing combined rotational motion and

PHYSICS

translational motion with constant angular speed 2 rad./sec (as shown in figure). Speed of centre

of mass of plate is 1m/sec. If the kinetic energy of plate with respect to a point A (point A is on the

K

plate) is Joule then 'K' is :

3

40. Figure shows a particle of mass m attached with 4 identical springs each of spring constant K and

each of which are initially in their natural length L. The gravitational force is neglected. If the mass

is slightly displaced by distance x along a line perpendicular to the plane of the figure and released

then the force acting on particle just when it is released is proportional to xn, find n.

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CHEMISTRY

PART - III : CHEMISTRY

CHEMISTRY

Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,

P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,

Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these

four option(s) is(are) correct

For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS

Marking scheme :

+4 If the bubbles corresponding to the answers are darkened

0 If none of the bubbles is darkened

–2 In all other cases

41. Which of the following expression(s) for the degree of dissociation of weak monobasic acid (HA) in

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 10pKa pH K a [H ] K a [H ] 1

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CHEMISTRY

42. Select the incorrect statement(s) :

(A) At equilibrium, concentration of reactant always become equal to concentration of product.

CHEMISTRY

(B) In presence of catalyst, rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward reaction

decreases by same amount.

(C) Keq (equilibrium constant) may have zero or –ve value.

(D) As pressure increases Keq increases for the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) at given

temperature.

(C) For any gas Boyle's temperature (TB) is greater than critical temperature(TC).

3

(D) At absolute zero temperature kinetic energy of gas is R.

8

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CHEMISTRY

45. Salt AB undergoes anionic hydrolysis and its 0.1 M solution has pOH as 5 then select correct

statement(s):

CHEMISTRY

–

(A) Kh is equal to Kb of B (B) pKa of HB is 5

(C) h is 0.01% (D) pH of 0.1 M HB is 3

(A) The PV work in a mechanically reversible process in a closed system is always equal to – PV.

(B) The infinitesimal PV work in a mechanically reversible process in a closed system is always

equal to – PdV.

(C) The value of the work W in a reversible process in a closed system can be found so long as we

know the initial state and the final state of the system.

2

(D) The value of the integral Pdv is fixed once the initial and final state 1 and 2 and the equation

1

8

9

4 Be x

4 Be y ,

(x, y) is/are :

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CHEMISTRY

48. The wave functions of 3s and 3pz orbitals are given by

3/2

1 1

1/2

z 4zr 4 z2r 2 zr /3a

3s 6 e

CHEMISTRY

0

9 3 4 a0 a0 9 a02

1/2 3/2

1 3 z 2zr 2zr zr /3a0

3p 4 e cos

9 3 4 a0 3a0 3a0

From these we can conclude :

(B) The equation of angular nodal surface of 3pz orbital has = /2.

(C) The radial nodal surfaces of 3s orbital and 3pz orbital are at equal distance from the nucleus.

(D) 3s electron have greater penetrating power into the nucleus in comparison to 3p electrons.

49. In the following options which is/are correctly arranged in decreasing order of C–N bond

length?

NH2 NH2 NH2

NH

CH=O

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CHEMISTRY

50. Which of the following species will be diamagnetic in nature, if Hund's rule is violated while writing

CHEMISTRY

their molecular orbital configuration?

51. Which of the following contain same number of linearly arranged carbon atoms in their respective

molecules ?

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CHEMISTRY

53. Select the incorrect statement :

(A) H2SO5 acid has one S–OH linkage.

CHEMISTRY

(B) Number of B–O–B linkage in borax is equal to number of P–O–P linkage in P4O10.

(C) Hybridization of both sulphur in H2S2O5 is same but oxidation state of both sulphur are

different.

(D) Basicity of phosphorus acid is three.

54. Which of the following statement is/are true for P4S3 molecule?

3

(C) It has all P atoms are sp hybridised.

55. Ca2B6O11 + Na2CO3 [x] + CaCO3 + NaBO2

(unbalanced equation)

Correct choice for [X] is/are.

3

(A) Structure of anion of crystalline [X] has one boron atom sp hybridised and other three boron

2

atoms are sp hybridised.

(B) Aqueous solutions of [X] is alkaline.

(C) In the structure of [X] anion B–O–B bonds are presents.

(D) [X] on heating with chromium salts in oxidizing flame gives green coloured bead.

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CHEMISTRY

CHEMISTRY

This section contains FIVE questions

The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive

For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS

Marking scheme :

+4 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened

0 If none of the bubbles is darkened

–1 In all other cases

56. Given is an equation of state for real gas, where A and B are constants. P : Pressure and V :

Molar volume

A 2B

PV = RT –

V V2

1

Find at critical point.

Z

57. A magnesium ribbon, when burnt in air, left an ash containing MgO and Mg3N2. The ash was found

to consume 0.6 mol of HCl according to the reactions :

MgO + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2O.

Mg3N2 + 8HCl 3MgCl2 + 2NH4Cl.

The solution so obtained is treated with excess of NaOH, then 0.1 mol of NH3 is evolved (NaOH +

NH4Cl NH3 + H2O + NaCl). The mass (in g) of magnesium burnt is.

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CHEMISTRY

58. How many structural alcohol of formula C5H12O can give instant turbidity with Lucas reagent

(HCl + ZnCl2)

CHEMISTRY

59. How many functional groups are present in the following compound:

H2N O O

H

NH OH

O O O O

H

O O

60. How many of the following compound have correct common name.

OH

COOH COOH

(I)

Maleic acid Succinic acid Carbolic acid

(II) (III) (IV)

COOH O

CH=CH–COOH

O–C–CH3

(V) (VI) (VII) (VIII)

OH

COOH

Salicylic acid

(IX)

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MAJOR TEST-3 (MT-3) (JEE ADVANCED PATTERN)

P21-17 PAPER-1 DATE : 07-01-2018 | COURSE : VIJETA (02JP) C OD E - 0

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

GENERAL %

1. The sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are instructed to do so.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and the right hand top corner of the back cover of

this booklet.

3. Use the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the question.

4. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.

5. Write your Name and Roll Number in the space provided on the below cover.

6. After the open booklet, verify that the booklet contains all the 60 questions along with the options are legible.

7. The question paper has three parts : Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry. Each part has two sections.

8. Each section as detailed in the following table :

Category-wise Marks for Each Question Maximum

Question Number of

Section Marks of

Type Questions Negative

Full Marks Partial Marks Zero Marks the Section

Marks

+4

One or 0

If only the bubble(s) –2

More If none of

1 15 corresponding to all – In all other 60

Correct the bubbles

the correct option(s) cases

Option(s) is darkened

is(are) darkened

+4

If only the bubbles 0 –1

Single digit

2 5 corresponding to the – if not In all other 20

Integer (0-9)

correct answer is attempted cases

darkened

9. Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original by applying sufficient pressure.

10. The original is machine-gradable and will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.

11. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS.

12. Write your name, roll number and the name of the examination centre and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose on

the original. Do not write any of these details anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble under each digit of your roll

number.

13. Use a BLACK BALL POINT to darken the bubbles in the upper sheet.

14. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

15. Darken the bubble ONLY if you are sure of the answer.

16. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as shown here :

17. There is NO way to erase or "un-darkened bubble.

18. The marking scheme given at the beginning of each section gives details of how darkened and not darkened bubbles are

evaluated.

I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and roll number

and shall abide by them of the candidate.

------------------------- -------------------------

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

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Ph.No. : +91-744-3012222, 6635555 | Toll Free : 1800 258 5555

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