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CSIR NET 2006 PAPER(JUNE)

1. A ball is dropped from a height of 1 meter, collision with floor is inelastic and ball looses half the
energy after collision. What would be the total vertical distance covered by the ball before it comes
to rest –

a. 2 m b. 2.5 m c. 3 m d. 4 m

2. Objects cannot be seen from the corner of building but sound produced at back of building can be
heard because of –

a. Diffraction b. Interference

c. Reverbation of sound from building d. Refraction of sound

3. If two charges ‘+q’ and ‘-4q’ are placed on X-axis as shown in diagram. Where a another charge
‘+q’ must be placed on X-axis that it do not experience any force

a. d/2 b. d c. –d d. -4d

4. Length of two vectors A and B is equal. Sum of A and B is thrice of A-B. The the angle between
the vectors A and B will be

a. cos– (3/4) b. cos– (1/4) c. cos– (1/ 2) d. cos– ( 3/2)

5. Wavelength of one light waves is λ while other have λ/2 but then also they have the same intensity
I. Then the ratio of number of photons associated with each light waves is

n1 1 n1 1 n1 3 n1
a. = b. = c. = d. =1
n2 2 n2 2 n2 2 n2

6. If atom a is at corners of cube while atom B is located at body center, then probable formula for
the compound will be

a. AB b. AB2 c. A2B d. A3B

7. Among the following which equation best represents the formation of proton from neutron

a. 10 N →11 P + −10 e b. 10 N → 01 P + −11 e + v

c. 10 N →11 P + −10 e + v d. 10 N →11 P + −11 e + v

8. Consider the following compounds

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(i) BF3 (ii) Ethene (iii) cyclopropene

Out of these which compounds have planar triagonol geometry

a. i only b. i and iii c. i and ii d. i, ii and iii

9. Volume of most of liquids shrinks when they freezes but volume of water increases when it
converts into ice. On basis of this we can conclude that

a. Freezing point decreases with pressure

b. There is not characteristic curve obtained during solid liquid transition

c. Triple point of water is not affected by pressure

d. Boiling point of water decreases on removal of pressure

10. Among the following which graph correct represent relationship between P and V for ideal gas
(answer b)

11. If f ( x) = e ( 3x − 2x + 3x − 5) , then f ( x ) will be

x 3 2

a. e ( x − x + 5x) b. e ( 3x + 3x −3) c. e ( 4x − 3x − 2) d. e ( x − x + x −1)

x 2 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 2

2 2+4 3
12. The value for term described below will be
4 2+2 3

2 2+2 2 4 2+2 3 2−2 2 3− 2 2

a. b. c. d.
5 5 5 5

13. Consider the following equation Y =| x + 1 | + | x − 1 | . The graphical representation for above
equation will be

a. b. c. d.

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14. Consider the ∆ABC. If length BC is 10 cm and triangle is divided horizontally into nine zones by
line P1, P2, P3…P9 which are parallel to BC. The total length of all lines from P1 to P9 will be

a. 40 b. 80 c. 45 d. 90

15. If a weight of one elephant is 10,000 kg and of a rat is 10 g. Then amount of calories needed to
maintain constant body temperature for one elephant and for 10,0000 rats will be

a. More for elephant

b. More for rat

c. Both will require equal calories

d. Calories are not needed to maintain body temperature

16. The DNA sequence for two DNA was found to be different then also they code similar protein. It
may be due to

a. Start of transcription at different sites

b. Using similar enzymes for transcription

c. More the one codon can code single amino acid

d. Due to mutation in DNA

17. If inheritance of disease to next generation is only possible through females. The probable
inheritance is

a. Sex-linked b. Mendelian

c. Organeller d. Autosomal

18. Till date we have not succeeded in generating vaccine against HIV because

a. It has reverse transcriptase

b. It mutates rapidly

c. It don’t have any protein over its surface

d. It is interacellular pathogen

19. They key difference between Lamarckisim and Darwinism is

a. Genes are made up of DNA not RNA

b. DNA codes for proteins

c. Variations are at random

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d. Evolution is abrupt

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20. Among the following which process does not remove CO2 from environment?

a. Photosynthesis

b. Eruption of Volcano

c. Dissolution in Oceans

d. Weathering of rocks

21. During ice age there was large ice deposit at poles and thus there was large temperature gradient
between poles-Equator. The wind velocity at that time would have been

a. Stronger in summers

b. Stronger in Winters

c. Stronger in all seasons

d. No effect was seen

22. Same face of moon is visible one earth during its orbital revolution of 28 days. Considering earth
as stationary then with reference to earth correct statement for the rotation of moon over its axis is

a. Moon completes 28 rotation in 28 days same direction to earth.

b. Moon completes 28 rotation in 28 days opposite in direction to earth.

c. Moon completes 1 rotation in 28 days in same direction to earth.

d. Moon completes 1 rotation in 28 days opposite in direction to earth.

23. We can find terrestrial rocks as old as 3 billion year but rocks more then 200 million is not seen
in oceans because

a. During this period rock dissolves in ocean

b. In 200 MY rocks subduct into floor of ocean

c. Sensitive technique for study age are not present

d. Weathering of rocks takes place in 200 MY

24. Budha statue of limestone at Ladakh would be preserved for longer time then one at Sri Lanka
because

a. Humidity at Sri Lanka is more

b. Sri Lanka is close to equator

c. Peoples care less in Sri Lanka

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d. Both will be preserved

ed for same time

25. Tsunami are more common in Japan than any other part of world because

a. There are many islands

b. wAve velocity is very vigorous

c. There are many seaquakes

d. It is in pacific sea

26. There are various electronic gates like OR, AND, NOR, XOR etc. Which GATE is described as
universal?

a. OR b. AND c. XOR d. NOR

27. Among the following which is not an hardware bus/port

a. USB b. CMOS c. Printer Port d. Mouse Port

28. Consider the following flow diagram. If 1001 means from STATE A move to STATE B then to
STATE C return to STATE B and then to STATE A. The STATE achieved after following code
01100010010

a. STATE A b. STATE B c. STATE C d. STATE D

29. Consider are programme

n=0

If n–Z

Factorial

Else i = f ( n − 1) + f ( n − 2 )

Return

If initial value n = 5, then output of the program will be

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a. 0 b. 4 c. 5 d. No result will be produced

30. What would be the output of the following program if

Smallest integer ≥ x

Float i

Input i

I=[i/2]

Return

Initial value of i=7

a. 0 b. 1 c. 7 d. 3

31. Cell fusion is an essential phenomenon in development of

a. Nerve b. Muscle c. Spleen d. Liver

32. Gibberllic acid activates α -amylase activity in

a. Endosperm b. Aleuronic layer

c. Cotyledons d. Embryo

33. Proteins RNAase A have 8 cysteine residue which involves in 4 disulphide bond formation in a
random manner. If the probability for formation of first correct sisulphide bond is 1/7, then what
would be the probability that all four correct disulphide bonds are formed.

a. 1/28 b. 1/32 c. 1/105 d. 1/210

34. Light signals for flowering is received by

a. Lower bud b. Shoot apex

c. Leaves d. Flower bract

35. Which hormone induce formation of Late Embryogenesis Abundant (LEA) protein during seed
maturation?

a. Gibberllic acid b. Ethylene

c. Abscisic acid d. Cytokinin

36. Effective population size for completely monogamous species having 40 males and 10 females
would be

a. 40 b. 30 c. 20 d. 10

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37. Musk deer is abundant in

a. Gharwal Himalaya

b. Eastern Himalaya

c. Kumau Himalaya

d. All

38. Among the following which follows the population growth pattern according to equation
dN/dt=rN when no limitating force is acting (answer b)

a. b. c. d.

39. Among the following ecological factor which is density independent factor

a. Food b. Predation c. Disease d. Extreme temperatures

40. The curve for renaturation of denaturated DNA

a. Linear b. Inverse c. Direct d. Hyperbolic

41. Among the following which has highest Productivity/Biomass ratio

a. Opean sea b. Large lakes c. Rain forests d. Grassland

42. Patch of evergreen forest surrounded by grassland is termed as

a. Prarie b. Pampas c. Chapprals d. Shola

43. The correlation between species richness and productivity is

a. Species richness directly increases as increases in productivity

b. Species richness has inverse relation to productivity

c. Species richness and productivity is independent

d. Species richness is maximum at intermediate levels of productivity

44. In a massive earthquake on island only few related species of lizards survived and occupies the
island. The phenomenon is also referred as

a. Founder effect b. Bottle Neek effect

c. Vodka-Bertoni effect d. Darwin’s effect

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45. Numerical taxonomy involves

a. Overall similarity

b. Phylogenetic relationship

c. Evolutionary relationship

d. Molecular taxonomy

46. Genetic Drift occurs by

a. Chance b. Immigration

c. Emigration d. Mutation

47. Organism inhabiting water scarce environment are likely

a. Uricotelic b. Ureotellic

c. Ammonotellic d. to have small kidney size

48. Circatlian rhythms are controlled by

a. Medulla b. Cortex c. Pituatory gland d. Suprachaismatic nucleus

49. What is prophage

a. λ phage DNA

b. Stage of cell cycle

c. DNA of temperatephage insertedinto host chromosome

d. A transposons

50. Among the following which plant family canbe separated on basis of inflorescence

a. Asteraceae b. Euphorbiaceae

c. Leguminosae d. Solanacae

51. DNA sequence responsible for chromatid separation is

a. Kinetochore b. Centromere

c. Satellite d. Telomere

52. Glycoconjugates on proteins in intracellular membranes are oriented toward

a. Cytoplasmic face

b. Lumen side
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c. Embedded in membrane

d. On both sides

53. Which of the histone protein is not involved in nucleosome assembly?

a. H1 b. H2A c. H2B d. H4

54. Synthesis of Betalain is characteristics of family

a. Chenopodiacae b. Carophyllaceae

c. Asteracease d. Solanaceae

55. The book by Rachel Carson –‘Silent Spring’ is related with

a. Environmental pollution

b. Use of pesticides in agriculture

c. Flowering in spring season

d. Effect of pesticides on non-target organism

56. The mechanism of action of steroid hormone is

a. Binding to membrane receptor and activating secondary messenger

b. Binding to cytosolic receptor and hormone-receptor complex activates target gene expression

c. Hormone moves to nucleus and starts transcription

d. Hormone effect mainly protein synthesis

57. On buyout density centrifugation of certain DNA band was observed as high peak corresponding to low
density as compare to other DNA. It means

a. DNA is AT rich

b. DNA is GC rich

c. Equal AT to GC ratio

d. Single standed DNA

58. Which of the following can induce SOS response in bacteria

a. Thymidine dimmers

b. Hydorxylamine

c. 5-Fluro Uracil

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d. 2-Aminopurine

59. Cyanobacteria out competes the green algae in eutrophic lakes ude to organic pollutions because
they can

a. tolerate low oxygen level

b. tolerate high phosphorus level

c. fix nitrogen, so it is not limitating for them

d. low light is required fo rphotosynthesis

60. The organism with high parental care will also show

a. Semelparity b. Iteroperety

c. Maturation at early stage d. Small size of offsprings

61. If any one of the parent invest more time for parental care on offsprings it would lead to
differendes in

a. Life span

b. Mental level

c. Metbolism

d. Differential sex mate

62. The development of social behavior is related to

a. Complex Brain size

b. Genetic relatedness

c. Size of population

d. Size or organism

63. The correct graphical representation of an bacteria growing exponentially under depleting
nutrient condition is (answer C)

a. b. c. d.

64. The acidic nature of orange juice is mainly due to citric acid. What would be pH of 0.1 M citric
acid, if K1 for citric acid is 8.4 X 10–4

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

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65. Vavilov’s origin of centre for sorghum is

a. South East Asia

b. Central Africa

c. India

d. East Asia

66. Oogenesis in human females results in

a. 1 egg and 3 polar bodies

b. 2 egg and 2 polar bodies

c. 3 egg and 1 polar bodies

d. 1 egg and 1 polar bodies

67. Direct correlation between recombination frequency and distance between genes can be disturbed
by presence

a. Hetorochromatin region between genes

b. Exons

c. Introns

d. Euchromatin

68. Among the following interactions which will not force co-evolution

a. Commensalisms

b. Parasitism

c. Mutualism

d. Interspecific competions

69. antibiotic resistance among bacteria represents

a. Balancing selection

b. Stabilizing selection

c. Directional selection

d. Disruptive selection

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70. In a population a single gene locus has two alleles A and a with allele frequency of ‘a’ = 0.3. If
genotype Aa is lethal and only individual with genotype AA and aa are favored then over several
generation

a. Allele frequency will be 1:1

b. Allele frequency will remain same to that of present

c. Allele ‘a’ would be lost from population

d. Genetic drift will be seen

71. The most variable stage of cell cyle is

a. G1 b. G2 c. Go d. S

72. Among the following which order of arthropods has maximum species richness

a. Hymenoptera b. Lepidoptera

c. Colentera d. Diptera

73. The probability of a son to be color blind for parent with colorblind father and normal
homozygous mother would be

a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100%

74. Which statement is correct for following biological reaction: C6H12O6 + 6O2 →6CO2 + 6H2O

a. Entropy of system will increases

b. Enthalpy for system will increases

c. Free Energy for system will increase

d. No change would be seen in free energy

75. Second most affecting green house gas after CO2 is

a. Methane b. NOx c. CFC d. Ozone

76. Among the following which gas was totally absent during period of primitive origin of life

a. Oxygen b. Hydrogen c. Methane d. Ammonia

77. If a certain parasitic bacteria on insect prevents cross breeding among them. It will lead into

a. rapid speciation

b. Divergence of insects

c. Extinction of insects
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d. No effect

78. Among the following which compound links glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle

a. Acetyl Co A

b. Pyruvic Acid

c. Glucose

d. Oxaloacetic acid

79. Secretion of histamine by degranulation from which cell leads in immediate hypersensitivity

a. Basophils b. Mast cells

c. T-helper cells d. B-cells

80. Which cell is involved in eliminating antigen by non-specifically by engulfing them

a. phagocytotic b. T-helper cells

c. Killer T-cells d. B-cell

81. Recently reptile fossils of age 200-250 MY have been found in Brazil and Ghanaportion of West Africa.
The landmass during that period was a portion of

a. Pangea b. Laurasia

c. Gondwana d. Tethys Sea

82. Among the following which gene is not concerned with induction of cancer

a. Src b. Ras c. P53 d. Acting

83. The morphological distinct sexual dimorphism is absent in

a. Peacock, Myena, bulbul

b. Crow, peacock, bulbul

c. Hyena, bulbul, Sparrow

d. Myena, bulbul, Koel

84. Among the following Mendelian inheritance is obeyed by

a. Quantitative traits

b. Transposons

c. Organelles

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d. Gene for vertical transfer of disease

85. Which species concept strees mainly on failure of interbreeding to keep them in distinck species

a. Biological species concept

b. Ecological species concept

c. Morphological species concept

d. Phylogenetic species concept

86. The cells of warm blooded animals can be best stored at temperatures

a. 370C b. 00C c. -1000C d. -1960C

87. The polysome can be describes as

a. A special ribosome occurring in prokaryotes

b. A DNA strand which is being transcribed by may RNA polymerase

c. String of RNA occupies by many ribosomes

d. Involved in control of transcription in prokaryotes

88. If there is no correct mitiation of transcription. Which subunit of RNA polymerase holoenzyme would
have defect

a. α subunit b. β c. β ’ d. σ -subunit
89. The pattern of genomic imprinting is maintained from one generation to another by

a. Phosphorylation of DNA

b. Methylation of DNA

c. Acetylation

d. Glycosylation

90. If an enzyme obeying Hills reaction shows negative cooperativity. It means a. Binding of substrate to any
one site of multisubunit enzyme decreases affinity for other substrate to other sub-units

a. Binding of substrate to any one site of single unit enzyme decreases affinity for other substrate

b. Binding of substrate to any one site of multisubunit enzyme increases affinity for other substrate
to other sub-units

c. Binding of substrate to any one site of multisubunit enzyme makes enzyme non-functional

91. Inmitochondira succinyl CoA synthetase produces

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a. ATP b. ADP c. GTP d. AMP

92. λ-phage insert their DNA into bacterial host. The site for recombination on host is termedas-

a. attP b. attB c. Xis d. Int

93. A person heterozygous for sickle cell anemia has advantage for both malaria and sickele cell anemia. It
illustrates

a. Directional selection

b. Heterozygote advantage

c. Disruptive selection

d. Directed mutation selection

94. Vibrio cholrae causes diahorrea by

a. Opening ion channels

b. Constitutive expression of adenylate cyclase

c. Closing absorption of water from gut epithelium

d. Destroys cells of intestinal lining

95. The fungus which is pathogenic to human is

a. Candida albicans

b. Saccromyces cervesae

c. Penicillium

d. Rhyzopus

96. The eukaryotic mitochondira is more similar to

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Protist d. Moulds

97. During photorespiration which organelle is involved in conversion of glycolate inot glyoxylate

a. Mitochondia b. Peroxisomes c. Chloroplast d. Nucleus

98. Which pump is activated by light during closure of stomata

a. H+-ATPase b. K+-ATPase c. Na+-H+-ATPase d. Na+-K+-ATPase

99. The steady state hypothesis for enzyme suggest that

a. Rate of formation of ES complex by substrates is equal to rate of breakdown of ES complex into

products
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b. Rate of formation of ES complex is equal to rate of formation of products

c. Rate of formation of ES complex and its dissociation into E and S are equal

d. Enzyme are steadily consumed in the reaction

100. Which is correct for α -helix of a protein

a. It has H-bonding in tow or more parallel running chains

b. There is interchain H-bonding in single helix

c. No H-bonding is seen

d. is tertiary structure

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