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Explanation of Electronics and Telecommunication Engg. Prelims Paper-II (ESE - 2018)

SET - A
1. Consider the following statements regarding 2. Silicon devices can be employed for a higher
the formation of P-N jucntions: temperature limit (190 ºC to 200 ºC) as

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1. Holes diffuse across the junction from P- compared to germanium devices (85 ºC to
side to N-side. 100 ºC). With respect to this, which of the
following are incorrect?
2. The depletion layer is wiped out.

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1. Higher resistivity of silicon
3. There is continuous flow of current across
the junction. 2. Higher gap energy of siliocn

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4. A barrier potential is set up across the 3. Lower intrinsic concentration of silicon
junction. 4. Use of silicon devices in high-power
Which of the above statements are correct? applications
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(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (c) (b) 1, 2 and 3
Sol. Diffused electrons come into contact with holes (c) 1, 3 and 4
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on the P-side and are elimi nated by


(d) 2, 3 and 4
recombination. In the similar way holes
diffused from P-side to n-side resulting in Ans. (b)
recombination. The net result is the diffused
electrons and holes are gone, leaving behind Sol. When silicon devices can be employed for
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the charged ions adjacent to the interface in higher temperature limit (190°C to 200°C)
a region with no mobile carriers called when compared to germanium devices (85°C
depletion region. to 100°C) implies that silicon devices can be
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used in high-power applications as they


This creates an electric field that provides a support flow of high amounts of currents. That
force opposing the continued exchange of is statement-4 is true therefore statements 1,
charge carriers. When the electric field is 2, 3 are incorrect as per options
sufficient to arrest further transfer of holes and
electrons, the depletion region has reached 3. For an n-channel silicon JFET with a = 2 ×
its equilibrium. This diffusion is halted by 10–4 cm and channel resistivity   5-cm,
electric potential formed at the junction called
barried potential. n  1300cm2 V-s and 0  9  1012 F m, the
pinch-off voltage, Vp, is nearly
Hence statement 1, 4 are true
(a) 2.30 V (b) 2.85 V
2, 3 are false
(c) 3.25 V (d) 3.90 V
Ans. (b)
Depletion region
EC
qNDa2 p+
Sol. Pinch off voltage, Vp 
2 EV

   NDqn

R
EFn EFP

1 EC
  NDqn
 n+

TE
EV
1
 ND 
qn Energy band diagram of tunnel diode

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qa2 1 a2 Since both n and p junctions are highly

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Vp  *  doped so fermi levels lies inside valence
2  qn 2  n
band of p type and inside conduction band
of n type semiconductor.
 2 * 10 4 2 5. The hFE values in the specification sheet of
 Vp 
2  9  10 14  11.7  5  1300 a transistor are hFE(max) = 225 and hFE(min) =
64. What value of hFE is to be adopted in
 r (Si)  11.7 
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practice?
= 2.92V (a) 64 (b) 100
From the given option, nearest value is (c) 120 (d) 225
2.85V.
Ans. (c)
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4. In tunnel diode, the Fermi level lies


Sol. In design of a biasing network. Neither
(a) inside valance band of p-type and inside
 dc (max) nor  dc (min) is considered. But it
conduction band of n-type semiconductors
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is the geometric mean of these two values:


(b) in the energy band gap but closer to
conduction band of n-type semiconductors
dc  h fe = hfe max h fe min
(c) in the energy band gap but closer to
valence band of p-type semiconductors hfe = 225  64
(d) in the energy band gap but above valence
band of p-type and below conduction band hfe = 120
of n-type semiconductors. 6. A transistor is connected in CE configuration
with VCC = 10V. The voltage drop across
Ans. (a)
the 600 resistor in the collector circuit is
Sol.
0.6 V. If   0.98, the base current is nearly
(a) 6.12 mA (b) 2.08 mA (a) 133.3 and 18.5 (b) 133.3 and 26.7
(c) 0.98 mA (d) 0.02 mA (c) 201.3 and 26.7 (d) 201.3 and 18.5

Ans. (d) Ans. (b)


Sol. Sol.
10V From the data given

R
0.1
Ic  0.02 =
600  0.6V 1  0.03  A

 0.02 + (0.03) (0.02) A = 0.1

TE
+
VCE =49  A = 133.3

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IB – Also,

A
Af =
1  A
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  = 0.98

 133.3
  =  49  Af =
1  1  133.0.03

From the circuit,  Af = 26.7


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0.6 o
Ic =  1mA 8. The magnitude of the gain in the
600 i

Applying kVL inverting op-amp circuit shown in the figure


is x with switch S open. When switch S is
10 – 600 × 1m – V CE = 0
closed, the magnitude of the gain will be
S

 VCE = 9.4V > VCE,sat


S
 Transistor is in active mode R R
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So, Ic = IB
R –
vi
Ic 1m vo
 IB =   0.02 mA +
 49

7. An amplifier, without feedback, has a gain


A. The distortion at full output is 10%. The
distortion is reduced to 2% with negative x
(a) x (b)
2
feedback (feedback factor   0.03 ). The
values of A and A' (i.e., the gain with 2
feedback) are, respectively, nearly (c) 2x (d)
x
Ans. (b)
Vi V
Sol. Case 1: Switch is open  = o
R R

Vo
R R
Vi = (–1)

R
Vi R
0V Vo  Vo  2 x
0V Then  V  =  
 i  2 2

TE
9. An op-amp is used in a notch filter. The notch
frequency is 2 kHz, lower cut-off frequency is
By virtual ground 0V at inverting terminal 1.8 kHz and upper cut-off frequency is 2.2

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kHz. Then Q of the notch filter is
By nodal analysis
(a) 3.5 (b) 4.0
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0  Vi 0  Vo (c) 4.5 (d) 5.0
 = 0
R 2R
Ans. (d)
Vi V Sol.
 = o
R 2R
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f0 2
 Vo  Quality factor,Q = f  f  2.2  1.8  5
2 1
 V  = (–2)
 i 
 Q = 5

 Vo  10. In op-amp based inverting amplifier with a gain


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given  V  = x where x = – 2 of 100 and feedback resistance of 47k, the


 i 
op-amp input offset voltage is 6 mV and input
Case-2: Switch closed bias current is 500 nA. The output offset
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voltage due to an input offset voltage and an


R input bias current, are
(a) 300 mV and 23.5 mV
Vi R
0V Vo (b) 606 mV and 47.0 mV
0V
(c) 300 mV and 47.0 mV
(d) 606 mV and 23.5 mV

Ans. (d)
By virtual ground 0V at inverting terminal
Sol. Given data
0  Vi 0  Vo
 = 0 Rf
R R Gain = R  100
1
Input offset Voltage (V 1 – V2) 6 mV Applying nodal analysis at node ‘1’ we get
Input bias current = 500 nA
0  Vi 0  V1
Output off set voltage (V D)offset due to input  = 0
1K 15K
offset is given by
 R f  Vi V1
(Vo)offset= 1 R  V1  V2 
  =
 1K 15K
1

R
= (1 + 100) (6 m) – 15 Vi = V1 ...(1)
= 101 × 6 m Applying nodal analysis at node ‘2’ we get

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= 606 mV
V1  0 V1 V1  V0
Output offset voltage (V o)offset due to input   = 0
15K 1K 15K

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bias current
(Vo)offset= (Rf)I B V1 V V V0
 1 1 =
= (4 fk) × (500 n) 15K 1K 15K 15K
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= 23.5 mV
 17  V0
11. What is the gain of the amplifier circuit as V1   =
 15K  15K
shown in the figure?
Vi V0 = 17 V1
1k 15k 15k V0 = 17 (–15 Vi) [From equation (1)]
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1k

– Vo
 255
Vo Vi
+
12. The Kirchhoff’s current law works on the
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principle of conservation of
(a) 255 (b) 31 1. charge
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(c) –31 (d) –255 2. energy


Ans. (d) 3. power
Which of the above is/are correct?
Sol.
V1 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1 15 k 2
Vi 1 k 15 k (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1 k
Ans. (a)

0V Vo Sol. The Kirchoff’s current law works on the


principle of conservation of charge.
13. A waveform shown in the figure is applied to B = 100 mWb/mm 2
a resistor of 20 . The power dissipated in
 = B.A. = 1 mWb = 10–3 Wb
the resistor is
from, N. = Li
i(A)

R
1000  10 3
L 1H
1
5A

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1 2 1
Stored energy, E  Li   1 12
2 2
0 3 6 t(s)
E  0.5J

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(a) 100W (b) 600W 15. A sinusoidal voltage waveform has frequency
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(c) 900W (d) 1000W 50 Hz and RMS voltage 30V. The equation
representing the waveform is
Ans. (d)
(a) V = 30sin50t
Sol. The power is given by, P = i2R
(b) V = 60sin20t
For t = 0 to t = 3 sec. (c) V = 42.42sin314t
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2 (d) V = 84.84 sin314t


5 
P =  t   20
3  Ans. (c)

2 Sol. Vrms = 30 V,,


5 
=   3   20
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3  f = 50Hz
= 500 W
Vmax = 30 2 = 42.42 V
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 Total power dissipated = 2 × P


= 1000 W  = 2f = 314

14. A coil of wire of 0.01 mm 2 area of 1000 turns The equation represeting waveform is
is wound on a core. It is subjected to a flux V(t) = Vmax sin t
density of 100 mWb/mm 2 by a 1A current.
The energy stored in the coil is V(t)  42.42 sin314t
(a) 2.0J (b) 1.5J
16. The current in a coil of self-inductance of 4H
(c) 1.0J (d) 0.5J
changes from 10A to 2A in t seconds and the
Ans. (d) induced emf is 40V. The time t is

Sol. N = 1000 (a) 0.2s (b) 0.4s

A = 0.01 mm 2 (c) 0.6s (d) 0.8s


Ans. (c)
Relay
Sol. The voltage through an inductor is given by

di
V = L
dt
coil
For a specific time t,

R
I NO
V = L
t
Given, V = 40 V

TE
I = 10 – 2 = 8 A

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L= 4H
NC
8
 40 = 4 × When coil is not energized, NC contacts are
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t
closed when coil is energized, NO contacts
 Time, t = 0.8 seconds are closed.
17. Consider the following statements with respect 18. A 20 kVA, 2000/200 V, singl el-phase
to a relay: transformer has a leakage impedance of 8%.
1. A relay is energized if NC contacts are What voltage applied to the HV side will result
in full-load current flow in the LV side, when
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opened.
the LV side is short-circuited?
2. The pickup current is the minimum relay
coil current required to keep a relay (a) 64V (b) 86V
energized. (c) 132V (d) 160V
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Ans. (d)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Sol. Base impedance referred to hv side
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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(Zb ) = 200 
Ans. (c)
Leakage impedance referred to hv side,
Sol. In a relay, there are two switches, normally
open (NO) and normally closed (NC) (Zeq. ) = 200  0.08

= 16 
When rated current is flowing in lv, then rated
current will also be flowing in hv.

20  1000
Rated hv current = = 10
2000
Let the voltage applied be V.
1200(220  40  0.25)
N2 =
V (220  2  0.25)
 from Isc = Z
eq.
N2  1148rpm
V = Isc.Zeq.

R
20. A 100 kVA, single-phase transformer has a
full-load copper loss of 600W and iron loss of
= 10(16) = 160V {As Isc  Irated } 500 W. The maximum efficiency occurs at a
load of nearly

TE
19. The no-load current of a 220V DC motor is
2A with corresponding running speed of 1200 (a) 82.1 kVA (b) 83.3 kVA
rpm. The full-load current is 40A with an
(c) 91.3 kVA (d) 98.1 kVA
armautre resistance being 0.25. Assuming

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constant flux during this range of speed, the Ans. (c)
full-load speed will be
AS
Sol. Pi = 500 W
(a) 864 rpm (b) 948 rpm
(c) 1148 rpm (d) 1200 rpm (Pcu )fl = 600 W

Let the maximum efficiency occurs at ‘k’


Ans. (c)
times the full load. then,
Sol. Ra  0.25 
M

Pi 500
Let the back emf during no load is Eb1 , k = (P ) =
cu fl 600
during full load is Eb2 .
k  .913
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Ia1 = 2 A, Ia2 = 40 A
The load, at which maximum efficiency
occurs, is given by
Eb1 k.N11
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Then, Eb2 = k.N2 2 Smax = 0.913  100

Smax  91.3kVA
as 1 = 2
21. The starting current in an induction motor is 5
Eb1 N1 times the full-load current, while the full-load
Eb2 = N2 slip is 4%. The ratio of starting torque to full-
load torque is
Eb1 = V  Ia1Ra ; Eb2 = V  Ia2 Ra (a) 1.4 (b) 1.2
(c) 1.0 (d) 0.8
V  Ia1Ra 1200
Ans. (c)
V  Ia2 Ra = N2
Sol. Given that, I st = 5.I fl
sfl = 0.04

If st = starting torque Speed N

fl = full load torque


(c)
sfl = full load slip
Torque T

R
Ist = starting current

Ifl = full load current

TE
2 Speed N
st  Ist 
then, Z = s fl .  I 

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fl  fl 
(d)
= (0.04)(5)2
Torque T
AS
st
1 Ans. (a)
fl
Sol. For dc series motor, torque is inversely
22. The applicable speed-torque curve for a DC proportional to the speed.
series motor is
The torque speed curve for a dc series motor
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is a rectangular hyperbola.

Speed N 23. A transformer has a core loss of 140 W at


40Hz, and 99 W at 30 Hz. The hysteresis and
eddy-current losses at 50 Hz, respecitvely, are
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(a) (a) 110 W and 30 W


(b) 135 W and 30 W
Torque T
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(c) 110 W and 50 W


(d) 135 W and 50 W

Speed N Ans. (d)

Sol. Let the hysteresis loss be Ph and eddy

(b) current loss be Pe .


if we assume constant flux density, i.e.
Torque T
Bmax = constant,

then, Ph = k1.f
Pe = k 2 .f 2 Pi
k = (Pcu )fl = 1
Ph  Pe = Pi
For f = 40 Hz,  Pi  (Pcu )fl

R
k1(40)  k 2 (1600) = 140 .... (i)
 Full load copper loss will be equal to
the core loss.
for f  30Hz
25. A shunt generator has an induced emf of 224V.

TE
k1(30)  k 2 (900) = 99 ... (ii) When supplying a load, the terminal voltage
falls to 204 V. the armature and shunt field
Solving equations (i) and (ii)
resistances are 0.05 and 20, respectively..
k1  2.7 , k 2  0.02

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The load current, neglecting the armature
For f = 50 Hz, reaction, is
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(a) 376.0 A (b) 389.8 A
Ph = k1(50) = 2.7  50 = 135W
(c) 400.0 A (d) 410.2 A
2 2
Pe = k 2 (50) = (0.02)  50 = 50 W
Ans. (b)
24. If a transformer is designed for maximum Sol. The shunt generator equivalent circuit is
efficiency at rated current and voltage, the full-
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shown below
load copper loss will be
(a) much less than the core loss Ish IL
(b) much greater than the core loss
(c) equal to the core loss R t= 204 V
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Ra
(d) not definable by these given parameters R sh
Eb
Ans. (c)
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Sol. If the maximum efficiency of transformer


occurs at ‘k’ times full load, then
Ra  0.05  Eb  224V
Pi
k = (Pcu )fl Rsh  20  Vt  204 V

where, Pi core loss. Vt 204


Ish = R = = 10.2 A
sh 20
here, (Pcu )fl full load copper loss.
Maximum efficiency occurs at rated current Eb  IaRa = 204
and voltage, so k = 1
Eb  (IL  Ish )Ra = 204
224 – (IL  10.2)(0.05) = 204 T2 = 33.4  33 turns
27. A short-circuit test performed on high-voltage
IL  389.8A
side of 20 kVA, 2000/400 V, single-phase
26. A single-phase, 1100/200V, 50 Hz transformer transformer gave the results as 60V, 4A 100W.
has a core with a square cross-section, each If the low-voltage side is delivering full-load
side being 15cm. The maximum flux density current at 0.8 p.f. lag at 400V, the voltage
in the core is not to exceed 12000 lines/cm 2. applied to the high-voltage side is nearly

R
The primary and secondary number of turns (a) 2190V (b) 2170V
are, respectively
(c) 2150V (d) 2132V
(a) 1100 and 200

TE
Ans. (d)
(b) 550 and 100
Sol. During short circuit,

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(c) 275 and 75
(d) 184 and 33 Vsc = 60 V

Ans. (d) Isc = 4 A


AS
Sol. Given that, V1  1100V V2  200V Psc = 100 W

f  50Hz If the equiv alent resistance, reactance,


impedance referred to hv side, are req.,xeq
Area of core (A C ) = 15  15 = 225cm2
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and z eq respectively, then


2
Bmax = 12000lines / cm
Psc 100
req. = 2= = 6.25 
8 Weber (Isc ) (4)2
= 12000  10
cm2
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Vsc 60
Zeq. =
4 Weber Isc = 4 = 15 
Bmax = 1.2  10
cm2
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max = Bmax .A C = 1.2  10 4  225 = 0.027


xeq. = Z 2eq.  req.
2

 from V = 4.44fmax T , = (15)2  (6.25)2

V1 1100
T1 = 4.44f = Xeq.  13.63 
max 4.44  50  0.027
For full load, high voltage side current is I=
T1 = 183.5  184 turns 10A
Load voltage, when referred to hv side, will
V2 200
T2 = 4.44f  = be equal to 2000 V
max 4.44  50  0.027
 Voltage applied to hv terminals is nearly Sol.
equal to Electrochemical breakdown in a dielectric
occurs at hi gh t emperature. To av oi d
V1 = V2 + I.req cos   Ixeq sin 
electrochemcial breakdown, the dielectric
material should not be operated at high
= 2000  (10)(6.25)(0.8)  (10)(13.63)(0.6)
temperature.

R
V1 = 2131.78 Al so el ec t rochem i cal break down i n a
dielectric is accelerated by humidity.
30. Which of the following are the properties of

TE
V1  2132 V
Polytetrafluoroethyene?
28. During short-circuit test of a transformer, core
1. Extreme heat resistant
losses are negligible because
2. Low resistance to most chemical reagents

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(a) the current on the secondary side is rated
current 3. Excellent insulating properties over a wide
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range of temperature
(b) the voltage on the secondary side is zero
4. Non-hygroscopicity
(c) the voltage applied on the primary side is
low Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(d) full-load current is not supplied to the
transformer (a) 1, 2 and 3
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(b) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
(c) 1, 2 and 4
Sol. The core losses, i.e. eddy current and
(d) 2, 3 and 4
hysteresis loss are proportional to V 2 and
Ans. (b)
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V1.6 respectively..
Sol.
During short circuit test, the voltage applied
to the transformer is low, so the core losses Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTTE) or teflon
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are very low as compared to their full load 1. PTFE is extremely heat resistant (upto
v al ues. S o t hey are assum ed t o be 260°C).
negligible. 2. PTEE has outstanding chemcial resistance
29. Electrochemical breakdown in a dielectric i.e. being inert to most chemicals.
occurs at 3. PTFE has an excellent insulating properties
over a wide range of temperature upto
(a) very low temperatures only
250°C.
(b) very high temperatures only 4. PTFE is a non-hygroscopic material unlike
(c) very high temperatures concurrent with other plastics.
high humidity of the surroundings 31. For elements of the iron group, the net orbital
(d) very low temperatures concurrent with dipole moment in the solid state is
ambient humidity above 50% (a) Zero (b) 10 – 20

Ans. (c) (c) 10000 – 12000 (d) Infinity


Ans. (a) Si nce, re l at i v e perm eabi l i t y is a
Sol. dimensionless quantity, hence, m will also
The elements of the iron group are important be dimensionless.
from the electrical engineering point of view.
The net orobital dipole moment is the solid Also, relative permeability of the medium.
state for iron group materials is zero.
Although, the individual atoms may have µr = 1 + 

R
orbital dipole moments. This is because the
incompletely filled shell in such atoms lies Non-magnetic medium have no magnetic
near the surface of the periphery of the atom susceptibility to magnetic fields.

TE
on account of which there are strong 33. Which of the following represent the properties
interacting forces with the neighbouring of carbon nanotubes ?

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atom.
1. High electrical conductivity
32. Which of the following statements are correct
2. Very high tensile strength
in respect of magnetic materials with magnetic
3. High thermal conductivity
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M
susceptibility  ? 4. Low thermal expansion coefficient.
H
Select the correct answer using the code given
1.  is dimensionless below.
2. The relative permeability of the medium (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
equals 1  . (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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3. For non-magnetic medium,  equals –1. Ans. (d)


Select the correct answer using the code given Sol.
below.
 The electrical conductivity of carbon nano
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only


tube (CNT) lies in the range of 10–5 to 10–2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only S/m
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Ans. (d)
 Tensile strength of CNT is very high upto
Sol. 63,000 MPa.

Since, B = µ0 (H + M)  CNT have high thermal conductivity. The


thermal conductivity of an individual single
 µ0µr H = µ0 (H + M) wall CNT is 5 to 10 times greater than that
of v ery conduct i v e m ateri als such as
 (µr – 1) H = M alluminium or copper.

 CNT hav e l ow t herm al e x pansi on


M
 = µr–1 = m (magnetic susceptibility) coefficient.
H
34. An ammeter of 0 – 25 A range has a = 3600/sec.
guaranteed accuracy of 1% of full-scale 36. What will be seen on the screen of a CRO,
reading. The current measured is 5 A. The when a sinusoidal voltage signal is applied to
limiting error is the vertical deflection plate of this CRO with
(a) 2% (b) 3% no simultaneous signal applied to the horizontal
deflection plate ?

R
(c) 4% (d) 5%
(a) A horizontal line
Ans. (d)
(b) A vertical line

TE
Sol.
(c) A sinusoidal signal

Error while measuring 5A current (d) A spot at the centre of the screen

Ans. (b)

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1
= 25   0.25A Sol.
AS
100
Since sinusoidal voltage signal is applied to
Reading will be ( 5 ± 0.25) A the vertical deflection plate of CRO and no
sim ul taneous si gnal i s appli ed t o the
horizontal deflection plate, then,
0.25
So, limiting error = 100% x = 0, y = Am sin t (Let)
5
M

y
= ±5%
35. A variable reluctance tachometer has 180 teeth
on its rotor. The speed of the shaft on which
x
it is mounted is 1200 r.p.m. The frequency of
S

the output pulses is


(a) 4800/s (b) 3600/s Fig. Screen of CRO
IE

(c) 2400/s (d) 1800/s


Case 1: at t = 0
Ans. (b) x = 0, y = 0
Sol.
T
Case 2: at t =
4
Frequency of the output pulses
2 T
= (No. of teeth on rotor) × (speed of the x = 0, y = A m sin  = Am
T 4
shaft)
Case 3: at t = T/2
= (180 × 1200) /min 2 T
x = 0, y = A m sin  0
T 2
180 1200 
=  
 /sec
Case 4: at t = T
60
Vect or i m pedance m et er i s used f or
2
x = 0, y = A m sin T  0 measurement of magnitude and the phase
T
angle of the impedance. It is used to meausre
We can observe from these four cases, that the impedance over wide range of frequency,
the point moves only on vertical direction. from 400 kHz to 100 MHz.
39. A vector voltmeter can be used to measure
37. The Wheatstone bridge consists of a power 1. Complex insertion loss

R
source, 3 known resistors, a resistor whose
2. Two-port network parameters
value is to be measured and a null detector.
Which of the following is not a source of errors 3. Amplifier gain and phase shift
in a Wheatstone bridge ?

TE
4. Harmonic distortion
(a) Limiting errors of the known resistors which of the above are correct ?

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(b) Poor sensitivity of the null detector (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Fluctuations in the power supply voltage (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(d) Thermal e.m.f.s in the bridge circuit.
AS
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c) Sol.
Sol.
T he v ect o r v ol t m et er i s basi cal l y an
Foll owing are the sources of error i n instrument used to measure amplitude and
wheatstone bridge: phase. Ho wev er i t can be used f or
M

1. error in values of the known resistances. measurement of:


2. insufficient null detector sensitivity, which 1. Complex insertion losses
may lead to error in detecting the balance 2. Two-port network parameters
point 3. Amplifier gain and phase shift
S

3. Thermoelectric emf in the bridge and the 4. Radio frequency distortions.


galvanometer circuit. 5. Complex impedance of mixers
4. Error committed by the operator in detecting 6. Filter transfer function
IE

the exact balance. 7. Amplitude modulation index


38. A vector impedance meter measures 8. ‘s’ parameters of transistor
(a) The magnitude of the impedance 40. A 0 – 1 mA FSD ammeter is to be used to
(b) The power dissipation in the impedance measure 0 – 100 mA full-scale deflection using
(c) The phase angle of the impedance a shunt. If the internal resistance of the meter
is 200  , what is the required shunt resistance
(d) Both the magnitude and the phase angle
?
of the impedance.
(a) 4.04  (b) 3.03 
Ans. (d)
Sol. (c) 2.02 (d) 1.01
Ans. (c) voltage.
Sol. A 3 input CMOS NAND Gate consists of 3N
MOS and 3 PMOS transistors as shown
1mA below:
100 mA
VOD

R
Ish
G 146 M7
S Input C
Rsh MS B

TE
D

Voltage across meter, V = 1 mA × 200  Input B


Input A
= 0.2 V Output

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D
M3
B
AS
Hence, required shunt resistance, G
Input C

M2
V 0.2
Rsh = I  3 Input B
sh 100  110
M1
Input A
M

200
=
99 As can be seen in the above diagram, only
M2 and M3 are the two transistors where
= 2.02 there is a potential difference between
source and bulk. So 2-NMOS transistors
41. In a 3-input CMOS NAND gate, the substrate
S

suffer from body bias effect.


terminals of NMOS transistors are grounded
(lowest potential available in the circuit) and 42. A strain gauge with gauge factor 4 and
IE

the substrate terminals of PMOS transistors resistance 250  undergoes a change of


are connected to V DD (maximum positive
potential available in the circuit). Which of the 0.15  during a test. The measured strain is
following transistors may suffer in this circuit (a) 150 × 10–4 (b) 15 × 10–4
from body bias effect ?
(c) 1.5 × 10–4 (d) 0.15 × 10–4
(a) 2 NMOS transistors
Ans. (c)
(b) 2 PMOS transistors
Sol.
(c) 1 NMOS transistor
(d) 1 PMOS transistor R / R
Gauge factor, G f =
l / l
Ans. (a)
R / R
Sol. Body bias effect arises only if there is a  Gf =
strain
potential difference between bulk and source
R 1 0.15 0.15 40
 strain = R  G = = =
f 250  4 1000 5
= 8 mm
= 1.5 × 10–4
45. In large radar installations, it is required to
43. Unbonded strain gauge is mainly used in a translate the angular position of a shaft into
(a) Pressure transducer digital information. This is most generally
(b) Force transducer achieved by employing a code wheel. For

R
unambiguous sensing of the shaft position,
(c) Vibration transducer
one employs a/an
(d) Displacement transducer
(a) Octal code

TE
Ans. (b) (b) BCD code

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Sol. (c) Binary Gray code
(d) Natural binary code
Unbonded strain gauge is mainly used in
displacement transducer. Ans. (c)
AS
44. A displacement of  12.5 mm results in a Sol. Requirement
secondary voltage of 5 V in an LVDT. If the Angular position of shaft is to be converted
then secondary voltage is 3.2 V, the absolute into digital information.
value of the corresponding displacement would
be It means analog data must be converted into
digital data.
M

(a) 4 mm (b) 6 mm
Code wheel converts quantized data into
(c) 8 mm (d) 10 mm
coded form.
Ans. (c) for unambiguous sensing of the shaft position.
Sol. Binary gray codes are most suited.
S

46. An R-L-C series circuit is excited by a DC


In an LVDT voltage. IF R = 40  , L = 0.2 H and C = 100
IE

F, the resulting current response is said to


(Seconda ry v ol tage dev e l oped) 
be
displacement
i.e. V  d (a) Critically damped (b) Undamped
V1 d1 (c) Over-damped (d) Under-damped
 V = d
2 2 Ans. (d)
5 12.5 Sol. The characteristic equation for a second-order
 3.2  d equation is given by
2

12.5  3.2 R 1
s2  s = 0
 d2 = L LC
5
Putting the value, x(t) = 2r (t + 5) – 4 r(t) + 2r (t – 5)

40 106 1
s2  s = 0 L[r(t)] =
0.2 0.2  100 s2

 s2 + 200s + 5 × 104 = 0
e5s

R
L[r(t + 5)] =
 n = 5  102 rad/sec. s2

and 2 n = 200 e 5s

TE
L[r(t – 5)] =
s2
200 1
 =  Laplace transform of x(t)
5  100  2 5

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Since,   1  2e5s  4  2e5s 
L[x(t)] = X(s) =  
s2
AS
 
 The system is under-damped.
47. If x(t) is as shown in the figure, its Laplace 48. The value of critical current density in a
transform is superconductor depends upon
1. Temperature
x(t) 2. Magnetic field strength
M

10 3. Penetration depth
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
t
–5 0 5
S

Ans. (d)
Sol.

2e 5s  2e5s 2e5s  4  2e5s


IE

(a) (b) According to Silsbee’s rule,


s2 s2
Critical current, I c = 2rHc

2e5s  2  2e5s 2e5s  4  2e5s where, r = radius of superconductor wire


(c) (d) Hc = critical magnetic field strengh
s2 s2
Hence,
Critical current density,
Ans. (b)
Ic 2rHc
Jc = 
x(t) A A
10
  T 2 
s=+2 s=–2 2r  Ho 1   
Sol.   Tc  
s=0 s=0  Jc =
t A
–5 5
So, critical current density depends on
1
temperature and magnetic field strength. Now, 0 =
As superconductors are perfect diamagnetic, LC
but in reality, the magnetic field penetrates
Putting the value of 0 and L,
the super conductor. Mathematically,
 x/  L
B(x)  B o e 1
1000 =
 L = london penetration depth 0.1 C

R
Now using Maxwell’s equation  C = 10 × 10–6
  B  o J = 10 F

TE
 x/ L
 JC  Jo e 50. In a two-elem ent series network, the
instantaneous voltages across the elements

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J = current density are
Hence, JC also depends on the penetration
sin314 t and 3 2 sin  314 t  45 
depth.
AS
The resultant voltage across the combination
49. The maximum current in a series R-L-C
is expressed as Vcos(314t +  ). Then the
network with variable frequency excitation is
1 A, when the applied voltage is 10V. The values of V and  are
inductance has a value of 0.1 H. The Q-factor (a) 5 and 36.8° (b) 3.5 and 36.8°
at the maximum current is 10. Then the value
(c) 5 and –53.2° (d) 3.5 and –53.2°
of C is
M

Ans. (a)
(a) 0.01 F (b) 0.1 F
Sol. V1 = 1sin(314 t)
(c) 1.0 F (d) 10 F
V2 = 3 2 sin  314  450 
S

Ans. (d)
Taking voltage V1 as reference
Sol. The resistance of the circuit can be found as,
V1 = 1 0
IE

V = IR (at resonance)

10 V2 = 3 2 45
R=  10 
1 Total voltage, V = V1 + V2
Quality factor is given by
= 1 0  3 2 45
0L
Q= = 5 36.87
R
 V = 5cos(314 t + 36.87°)
QR 10  10
 0 =  = 1000
L 0.1
51. The voltage transfer characteristics as shown
in the figure will relate to a Vi
D + Vi D Vo
Vo RL V
o Vi  0 OFF 0
– Vi  0 ON Vi

R
Vi
0
Vo

TE
1
e=
op
Sl
1. Voltage regulator
Vi
2. Half-wave rectifier

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3. Full-wave rectifier (iii) The transfer characteristic curve of a FWR
AS
which of the above is/are correct ? is (considering centre tapped and ideal diode)

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only


D1
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

Ans. (a) Vi Vo
M

Sol. (i) Consider a zener diode as voltage


regulator RL
D2
RS
S

+ + Vi D1 D2 Vo
Vi +
– Vz RL Vo
– – Vi  0 OFF ON  Vi
Vi  0 ON OFF Vi
IE

For Vi  Vz ; ZD is ON ; Vo  Vz
 Vo  Vi
For Vi  Vz ; ZD is OFF ; Vo  Vi

Sl Vo
Vo op 1
e =
= e
–1 S l op
Vz
Vi
Vz Vi
Hence, option (a) is correct.

(ii) The transfer characteristic curve of a HWR


is (considering ideal diodes)
52. The gain of a bipolar transistor drops at high
frequencies. This is due to |AV|
(a) Coupling and bypass capacitors
Avm
(b) Early effect
(c) Inter-electrode transistor capacitances
(d) The fact that reactance becomes high f
fL f1 f2 fH

R
Ans. (c) Lower cut off Higher cut off
frequency frequency

TE
VCC
At higher frequency range internal capacitance
RC
offects the gain

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R1 Cte
Cb
53. A sample of germanium is made p-type be
Cce addition of indium at the rate of one indium
Rs C be atom for every 2.5 × 108 germanium atoms.
Sol. RL
AS
R2 Given, ni = 2.5 × 1019 /m3 at 300 K and the
Re
Vs Ce number of germanium atoms per m 3 = 4.4 ×
1028. What is the value of np?
(a) 3.55 × 1018/m3 (b) 3.76 × 1018/m3
Internal capacitances : (c) 7.87 × 1018/m3 (d) 9.94 × 1018/m3
M

CTE = transition capacitance in picofarad Ans. (a)


Cbe = diffusion capacitance in picofarad Sol. Given that
Cce = pseudo capacitance in picofarad 1 indium atom is doped for every 2.5 × 108
External capacitances : Ge atom
S

Cb = blocking capacitance intrinsic carrier concentration (ni) = 2.5 ×


1019/m
C e = emitter capacitance (or) by pass
number of germanium atoms = 4.4 × 1028
IE

capacitance
1  2.5 × 108
Cc = Coupling capacitance (or) collector
?  4.4 × 1028
capacitance
Concentration of p-type impurities
At lower frequency range external capacitance
28
effects the gain 4.4 10
=
At higher frequency range internal capacitance 2.5 108
offects the gain = 1.76 × 1020 atom
hence ans (c) is correct We know

(NA) (np) = ni2


(1.76 × 1020) (np) = (2.5 × 1019)2
(a) 2.5 kHz (b) 25 kHz
2.52 1038
(np) = (c) 250 kHz (d) 0.25 kHz
1.76 10 20
np = 3.551 × 1018 /m3 Ans. (a)
54. For a transistor Sol. Nyquist rate = 2 f max

R
hie  1 k, hfe  30, hfe  0 Nyquist rate
f max =
2
hoe  20  106 , and RL  2.5 K

TE
The transistor is used in a single stage CE 1 1
Nyquist rate = 
amplifier. The voltage gain and power gain, Conversion time 200  10 6
respectively, are
(a) 75 and 1750 (b) 25 and 2250 1

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f max =  2.5kHz
(c) 75 and 2250 (d) 25 and 1750 400  10 6
AS
Ans. (c) 56. In case of high pass filter, the transfer function
should be with
Sol. Given data
1. 1 pole and 1 zero
hie = Rb = 1 k 
2. 2 poles and 2 zeroes
hfe =  = 30 = Ai 3. 2 poles and 1 zero
M

hre  0, Which of the above are correct?


hoe = 20 × 10–6  (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only

RL = 2.5 k  = RC (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only


S

Ans. (d)
R 
 Voltage gain (A V) =  c 
 Rb  Sol. Transfer function of HPF :
IE

RCS
 2.5k  1st order HPF : H(s) =
= 30   1  RCS
1k 
Zero : s = 0
= 30 (2.5)
1
= 75 Pole : s = –
RC
Power gain = A v AI
= (30) (75) ps2
2nd order HPF : H(s) =
= 2250 s2  ab  c
55. An ADC has a total conversion time of 200 zero : s = 0, s = 0
s . What is the highest frequency that itss
pole : 2 poles
analog input should be allowed to contain?
57. Consider the following opinions regarding the 58. A resistance strain gauge is used to measure
advantage and disadvantage of a Mealy stress of steel which is stressed to 1200 kg/
model: cm2. If the gauge factor is 2.5 and the Young’s
1. Advantage: Less number of states (hence modulus of steel is 2 × 10 6 kg/cm 2 the
less hardware) percentage change in resistance of the gauge
is
Disadvantage: Input transients are directly
conveyed to output (a) 0.05% (b) 0.10%

R
2. Advantage: Output remains stable over (c) 0.15% (d) 0.25%
entire clock period Ans. (c)
Disadvantage: Input transients persist for

TE
Sol.
long duration at output
stress

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Which of the above is/are correct? Since Young’s modulus, Y =
strain
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 stress
 strain =
AS
Y
Ans. (a)
Sol. 1200
=
2 10 6

Mealy model
= 6 × 10–4
R / R
Gauge factor G f =
M

l / l
Output

Output
Inputs

Decoder R  l 
Next  = G f ×  
State Memory R l
Decoder Element
= G f × strain
S

= 2.5 × 6 × 10–4
= 15 × 10–4
So, percentage change is resistance,
IE

R
× 100 = 15 × 10–4 × 100
 The output of mealy machine is a function R
of present state as well as present input, so = 15 × 10–2
output does not remain stable over entire = 0.15%
clock. 59. In a 4-stage ripple counter, the propagation
 Input changes may affect the output of the delay of a flip flop is 30 ns. If the pulse width
circuit so input transient are conveyed to the of the strobe is 30 ns, the maximum frequency
output. at which the counter operates reliably is nearly
 It require less number of states for (a) 9.7 MHz (b) 8.4 MHz
implementing same function. (c) 6.7 MHz (d) 4.4 MHz
Ans. (c)
TCLK
Sol. (tpd)FF 
n
1 J Q 1 J Q 1 J Q 1 J Q
0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3
1 1
(tpd)FF|min = 
1
K0 Q0
1
K1 Q1
1
K2 Q2
1
K3 Q3 n fCLK 10  10MHz = 10 nsec

R
CLK
61. In a master slave JK flip-flop
TCLK  n(tpd)FF + Tstrobe
(a) both master and slave are positive edge-

TE
TCLK = Clock interval = ? triggered
(tpd)FF = Propagation delay of 1 FF = 30 nsec (b) both master and slave are negative edge-
n = number of flip flop = 4 triggered

Tsrobe = width of store signal = 30 nsec (c) master is positive edge triggered and slave

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is negative edge triggered
TCLK  4 × (30) nsec + 30 nsec
AS
(d) master is negative edge triggered and
1 slave is positive edge triggered
f CLK 
120  30   10 9 Ans. (c)
(f CLK)max = 6.66 × 106 = 6.66 MHz Sol.  Master slave JK flip flop is a way to avoid
60. For what minimum value of propagation delay the race around problem.
M

in each filp-flop will a 10 bit ripple counter skip  A master slave JK flip flop is a combination
a count, when it is clocked at 10 MHz? of two clocked latches, the first is called master
(a) 5 ns (b) 10 ns and the second is called slave.
(c) 20 ns (d) 40 ns  The master is positively clocked and the
S

slave is negatively clocked implying thereby


Ans. (b) that when clock is high, master is active and
Sol. For ripple counter to count properly slave is inactive.
IE

TCLK  n(tpd)FF  When clock is low, master is inactive and


slave is active.
TCLK = clock interval
62. The phase detector circuit in the phase locked
1 loop demodulators recognizes
f CLK = T = clock frequency = 10 MHz (a) Voltage changes between the input and
CLK
VCO signals
n = number of Flip Flops = 10
(b) frequency changes between the input and
(tpd)FF = propagation delay of a flip flop VCO signals
If ripple counter skip a count then (c) impedance changes between the input and
TCLK  n(tpd)FF VCO signals
(d) resistance changes between the input and
VCO signals
Ans. (b)
K K
(a) (b)
3  2 3  2
FM
Demodulated
input
Phase Low Pass output 6K 6K
Detector Filter (c) (d)
9  2 9  2
Sol.
Ans. (c)
Voltage controlled

R
Oscillator Sol. WIENER KHINCHIN THEOREM :
States that autocorrelation function of a wide
 Phase detector is responsible for PLL to sense stationary random process is the

TE
operate in lock mode. inverse Fourier Transform of power spectral
density.

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 PLL is said to be operated in lock mode
when frequency of FM input and VCO output Ruu(  ) 
F.T.
 S ()
uu
is same.
Ruu(  ) = K e3 
 Phase detector recognizes f requency
AS
changes between the input and VCO signal.
K 2  3 
Suu(  ) =
( 2  3 2 )
63. Consider the following statements for signal
flow graph:
6K
1. It represents linear as well as non linear Suu   
M

9  2
systems.
2. It is not unique for a given system.
a 2a
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Note : e t  
F.T.
a  2
2

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only


S

65. A distance time signal is given as x[n] =


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
n  n 1 
Ans. (c) cos  sin    . The period N for the
9  7 2
IE

Sol.
periodic signal is
The signal flow graph approach is valid for
(a) 126 (b) 32
linear as well as non-linear systems.
One system can have different signal flow (c) 252 (d) 64
graph according to the order in which the Ans. (a)
equations are used to define the variable
written on the left hand side. So it is not Sol. A discrete time signal is
unique for a given system.
n n 1
64. The power spectral density of the stationary x[n] = cos  sin   
9  7 2
noise process N(t) having auto correlation Ruu

(  ) = Ke
3 
is x[n] = x1[n] + x2[n]

n B  25  4  29
x1[n] = cos
9
3  26 29 cos  AB
2
N1 =   K
0 3
cos  AB 

R
26 29
2
N1 =  K  18K
/9  AB  83.7

TE
N1  18 for K = 1 67. When a transmission line section is first short
circuited, and then open circuited it shows input
 n 1  impedances of 25  and 100  respectively..

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x2[n] = sin    The characteristic impedance of the
 7 2
transmission line is
AS
2 (a) 25  (b) 50 
N2 =   K
0
(c) 75  (d) 100 

2 Ans. (b)
N2 = K
/7
Sol. Given
M

N2 = 14 K
Z sc  25
N2  14 for K = 1
Z oc  100
N = LCM (N1 N2) = 126
S

2
Z sc Z oc  Z o
66. The angle AB between the vectors A =
2
3a x  4a y  a z and B = 2a y  5az is nearly Z o  25  100
IE

(a) 83.7° (b) 73.7°


Z o  50
(c) 63.7° (d) 53.7°
68. A signal m(t) = 10cos  2100t  is frequency
Ans. (a)
modulated. The resulting FM signal is x(t) =

Sol. A  3axˆ  4ayˆ  azˆ
  
20 cos 2106 t  15 sin  2100t  The FM
B  2ayˆ  5azˆ
bandwidth is nearly
    (a) 3.2 kHz (b) 9.6 kHz
A  B  A B cos  AB
  (c) 32 kHz (d) 100 kHz
A B  4  2  5  3
Ans. (a)

A  9  16  1  26 Sol. Message signal :
m(t) = 10 cos  2  100 t   2
3 2
 
maximum frequency component of message 2 2  2
signal = f max = 100 Hz
Frequency modulated signal is  1


x(t) = 20 cos 2  106 t  15 sin  2  100 t   3 2
 
1

R
2 21
Comparing with :
2
x(t) = A c cos  c t   sin m t  2 
9

TE
  15
2

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 >  0.471
9
Bandwidth of FM signal =    1 (2 f max)

= (15 + 1) × 2 × 100 min  0.47


AS
= 16 × 2 × 100 70. Consider the following statements pertaining
= 3200 Hz to FIR filters:
1. These are non-recursive and hence stable.
Bandwidth  3.2kHz
2. These have high coefficient sensitivity.
69. The minimum value of modulation index  for 3. These have linear phase characteristics
M

and FM system required to produce a 4. These are realized using f eedback


noticeable improvement in SNR over a structures.
comparable AM system with   1 is Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 0.61 (b) 0.52 (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
S

(c) 0.47 (d) 0.38 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

Ans. (c) Ans. (c)


IE

Sol. SNR of FM system for, sinusoidal message


Sol. FIR filters in general can be represented
3 2 in the following form:
signal = 
2
SNR of AM system for sinusoidal message y[n] = a0x[n]+a1x[n–1] + a2 x[n – 2] + …
an x[n – N]
2
signal = since there is no y[n] term on RHS, these
2  2
are non-recursive.
Both the system are comparable.
Non-recursive systems have all poles at z = = 144 K rpm
0,
Speed  144,000 rpm
 they are stable systems. (1 is correct)

Coefficient sensitivity is related to filter m1

R
structure and not to filter type. (2 is incorrect.) 6 samples
per rotation
m2
FIR filters have linear phase characteristics. m3

TE
(3 is correct) m4

Since these are re-cursive, there is no 72. 1 Mpbs BPSK receiver detects waveform S1
feedback. (t) = A cos 0 t or S2(t) = A cos 0 t with a

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71. A signal is band limited to 3.6 kHz and three matched filter. If A = 1 mV, then the average
other signals are band limited to 1.2 kHz each. bit error probability assuming single sided noise
AS
These signals are to be transmitted by means power expected density N0 = 10–11 W/Hz is
of time division multiplexing. If each signal is nearly
sampled at its Nyquist rate, then the speed of
(a) Q(0.63) (b) Q(0.16)
the commutator (by assuming 6 samples per
rotation) is
(a) 864000 rpm (b) 144000 rpm
(c) Q  0.1  (d) Q  0.3 
M

(c) 86400 rpm (d) 14400 rpm Ans. (c)

Ans. (b) Sol. Given :

Sol. Let signals are m1, m2, m3, m4 Rb = 1 Mbps


S

Signal Maximum frequency Sampling 1 6


Tb = R  10 sec
component Frequency b
IE

m1 fm1 = 3.6 K fs1 = 7.2 K A = 1 mV = 10–3 V


For BPSK :
m2 fm2 = 1.2 K fs2 = 2.4 K
Average bit error probability is
m3 fm3 = 1.2 K fs3 = 2.4 K
 A2 T 
b 
(Pe)min = Q 
m4 fm4 = 1.2 K fs4 = 2.4 K  N0 

Speed of commutator = HCF( fs1,fs2 ,fs3 ,fs4 ) ×  10 6  106   1 


60 rpm = Q 11
 = Q 
 10   10 
= HCF (7.2K, 2.4K, 2.4K, 2.4K) × 60 rpm
= 2.4 K × 60 rpm Pe min  Q  0.316 
Sol. Minimum bandwidth necessary to pass M-ary
 
Pe min  Q  1   Q  0.1 digitally modulated carrier.
 10 
Rb
73. The outputs of 18 numbers of 20 Hz low pass = log M
2
filters are sampled, multiplexed and A/D
converted. If the sampling is at the Nyquist
rate of 40 samples/s, corresponding to signal 10  106
=

R
of 20 Hz bandwidth and if we use 3 bits/smaple log2 4
to represent each voltage sample, the bit rate
is = 5 MHz

TE
75. The value of   A; where
(a) 1.9  103 bits/s (b) 19  103 bits/s
  

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A  3xya x  xa y  xyza z
(c) 2.16  103 bits/s (d) 21.6  10 3
bits/s
at a point (2, –2, 2) is
Ans. (c)
(a) –10 (b) –6
AS
Sol. Given
(c) 2 (d) 4
Number of output = 18 = N
maximum frequency of 1 output Ans. (a)
f max = 20 Hz 
Sol. A  3xyaˆ x  xaˆ y  xyzaˆ z
samples
M

f s = 40  Ax Ay Az


sec
A   
Ay y z
bits
n = 3  
sample (x) (xyz)
  A   3xy   
S

x y z
Bit rate : Rb = N × n × f s
Rb = 18 × 3 × 40 
  A  3y  xy
IE

bits At (2, –2, 2)


Rb  2160
sec 
  A   (6  4)  – 10
74. The minimum double sided Nyquist bandwidth
for a QPSK modulator with an input data rate
equal to 10 Mbps and a carrier frequency of 76. The unit-impulse response of a system is 16e–
70 MHz is 2t – 8e–t. Its unit-step response is

(a) 72.5 MHz (b) 67.5 MHz (a) 8 + e–t –4e–2t (b) 8 + e–t +4e–2t
(c) 25.0 MHz (d) 5.0 MHz (c) 8e–t –8e–2t (d) e–t –4e–2t
Ans. (d) Ans. (c)
Sol. Unit impulse response of a system : the breakaway point is
h(t) = 16 e–2t – 8 e–t (a) – 0.23 (b) – 0.42
Unit step response (c) – 1.47 (d) – 3.47

ds  t  Ans. (b)
= h(t) Sol.

R
dt
t
k
s(t) =  h  t  dt G(s)·H(s) =
s  s  1s  2

TE


1+G(s)·H(s)= 0
16 e2t 8 e t
s(t) = 
 2   1 k
1 = 0
s(t) = 8 e–t – 8 e–2t s s  1s  2

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s  t   8 e t  8 e2t k = –s (s + 1) (s + 2) = – (s3 + 3s2 + 2s)
AS
dk
77. The low-frequency asymptote in the Bode plot = – (3s2 + 6s + 2)
ds
of
for breakaway point,
6(s2  10s  100)
G(s)  2 dk
s (50s2  15s  1) = 0
M

ds
has a slope of 3s2 + 6s + 2 = 0
(a) –10 dB/dec (b) –20 dB/dec s = – 0.42, – 1.57
(c) –40 dB/dec (d) –60 dB/dec s = – 1.57 won’t lie on RL. (As the total
S

number of poles and zeros to right of it is


Ans. (c)
even.)
Sol.
So, the only breakaway point will be
IE

6 s  10s  100
2 s = – 0.42
G(s) = 79. Consider the stability of the system shown
s 50s  15s  1
2 2
in the figure when analyzed with a positive
Low frequency assymptote slope depends real value of gain k in
upon the poles or zeros at origin. As, the 1. open-loop configuration
number of poles at origin is two, so the low
2. closed-loop configuration
frequency slope of bode plote
= 2 (–20)
R(s) + K(s + 1) C(s)
= –40 dB/decade. 2
– s (s+2)
78. For the open-loop system

K
G(s) H(s) = s(s  1)(s  2)
Which of the following statements is correct? stable.
(a) Both 1 and 2 are stable 80. The open-loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of
the Bode plot as shown in the figure is
(b) 1 is stable and 2 is unstable
(c) 1 is unstable and 2 is stable
–20 dB/dec
(d) Both 1 and 2 are unstable
Ans. (c) G(j) H(j) dBs –40 dB/dec

R
Sol.
2 20
+ k (s + 1) (r/s)

TE
2
– s (s + 2) –20 dB/dec

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Ks(s  2) K(s  20)
 For the open loop configuration, trangular (a) (b)
AS
function s  20 s(s  2)

k s  1 K(s  2) Ks(s  20)


= G(s) · H(s) = (c) (d)
s s  2
2
s(s  20) s2
Characteristic equation is given by
CE : s2 (s + 2) = 0 Ans. (b)
M

Sol.
poles  s  0, 0,  2
 As initial slope of bode plot is –20 dB/
As, there are repeated poles on origin, the decade, so transfer function will have a pole
open loop system is unstable. of order 1 at origin.
S

 For the closed loop configuration, transfer  The slope changes by a value of –20 dB/
function
decade at   2 radian/second, so there
G  s will be a pole of order 1 at s = –2.
IE

=
1  G  s  H  s  The slope changes by a value of +20dB/
Characteristic equation is given by decade at   2 radian/second, so there
will be a zero of order 1 at s = – 20.
k s  1
CE: 1 0
s s  2
2 The correct transfer function will be

s3 + 2s2 + ks + k = 0 k s  20
Tf =
For above system to be stable, ss  2

2k  k & k0 81. Which one of the following transfer functions


represents the Bode plot as
The above situation is valid for any positive
value of k, so the closed loop system is
100 dB 1 1
40 dB/dec (a) (b)
G(j) H(j) dBs (s  1)2 (s  1)
–60 dB/dec
(c) s+1 (d) 1
10
(r/s) Ans. (b)

R
Ks 2 Ks 2 Sol.
(a) 3 (b) 4
 s   s  1
1   1   R(s) C(s)

TE
 10   10  – s1
+
Ks 2 Ks 2 –
(c) (d) 1
5 2
 s   s  s1
1   1  
 10   10 

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AS
Ans. (c) 
Sol. 1
R(s) C(s)
The initial slope of Bode plot is +40 dB/ – + s 1
decade, so the transfer function will have
zero of order 2 at origin. 1
s 1
The slope of Bode plot changes by –100
M

dB/decade at  = 10 rad/sec., so there will


be pole of order 5 at s = –10.
The transfer function will be
R(s)
 s  1 1 C(s)
2  
k1  s –  s  s 1
S

TF =
s  105
2
ks
IE

or TF =
 5
1  s 
 10 
R(s)
1 C(s)
C(s) s
82. The closed-loop transfer function of the –
R(s)
system represented by the block diagram in
the figure is
+ C(s)
R(s) 1
s+1 1
– C s s  1 
  
R  s 1  s  1
1 + 1
s
s+1

83. In a unity feedback control system, the open- 84. Settling time is the time required for the system
loop transfer function is response to settle within a certain percentage
of
K(s  2) (a) maximum value
G(s) =
s2 (s2  7s  12)
(b) final value
Then the error constants KP, Kv and Ka, (c) input amplitude value
respectively, are

R
(d) transient error value
K K Ans. (b)
(a) ,  and (b) 0, 0 and
6 6 Sol.

TE
Settling time is defined as the time for the
K K
response to reach, and stay within, 2% of

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(c) , 0 and 0 (d) ,  and 
6 6 its final value.
Ans. (a) 85. A unity feedback system is shown in the figure.
Sol. What is the magnitude of K so that the system
AS
is under-damped?
k s  1
G(s) = 2 s 2  7s  12 C(s)
s R(s) + K
s(s + a)

For a unity feed back systerm, k p, kv and ka
are given by
M

kp = lim G s
s0

k v = lim s  G s
s 0 a2
(a) K = 0 (b) K =
4
S

ka = lim s  G s
2
s0
a2 a2
(c) K < (d) K >
k s  1 4 4
IE

 kp = lim 
s 0 s
2 s2  7s  12 Ans. (d)
Sol.
k s  1
k v = slim s  The characteristic equation is given by
0 s
2 s2  7s  12
k
CE : 1 0
2 k s  2 s s  a
ka = lim s 
s 0 s
2 s2  7s  12
s2 + as + k = 0
2k k Com pari n g wi t h standard equat i on
= 
12 6 2 2
s  2ns  n  0
n = k R(s) + 25 C(s)
s(s + 6)

a
 =
2 k

R
For underdamped system,
(a) 0.33 s (b) 1.33s
 <1

TE
(c) 2.33 s (d) 3.33 s
a Ans. (b)
<1
2 k Sol.

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Characteristic equation is given by
a
k >
AS
2 25
CE: 1 + = 0
s s  6

a2 s2 + 6s + 25 = 0
k>
4
Com pari n g wi t h standard equat i on
2 2
86. The transfer function G(s) of a PID controller s  2ns  n  0 ,
M

is
(a) K1 + K2s + K3s2 n = 5,

6
K2  =  0.6
(b) K 1   K 3s 2 5
s
S

The setting time for ± 2% of steady state


K2 condition is given by,
(c) K 1 
s
IE

4 4
ts =   5  0.6  1.33 sec
n
(d) K 1s  K 2s2  K 3s3
88. A unit-step input to a first-order system G(s)
Ans. (b) yields a response as shown in the figure. This
Sol. can happen when the values of K and a,
respectively, are
The transfer function of a PID controller is

k2 5.0
G(s) = k 1   k3  s
s slope at origin
c(t) R
87. For a closed-loop system shown in the figure, G(s) = ——
s+a
what is the settling time for ±2% settling of 0.1s
the steady-state condition, assuming unit-step 0 t
input?
(a) 10 and 10 (b) 5 and 10
1
(c) 10 and 5 (d) 5 and 5  a =

Ans. (*)
1
Sol. a =  10 sec
0.1
None of the given option is correct.
89. The open-loop transfer function of a sysrtem
is

R
k
Given transfer function, G(s) = 
s  a 10K
Step response C(s) = G(s)·R(s) 1  10s

TE
k When the system is converted into a closed-

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= loop with unity feedback, the time constant of
s s  a

the system is reduced by a factor of 20. The
value of K is
k  1 1 
=   
a  s s  a 

AS
(a) 1.9 (b) 1.6
(c) 1.3 (d) 1.0
 taking inverse laplace transform,
Ans. (a)
c(t) = 1 e 
k at
Sol
a
 Open loop transfer function (OLTF)
M

dc t  at
= ke 10k
dt =
(1 10s)
dc t  Comparing with standard equation, i.e.
at t = 0, slope  50
S

dt
k1
k·eo = 50 1 s1 
IE

k = 50
1 = 10
Again, the response may be assumed to
attain 63.2% of value at t = 0.1 sec. By using feedback, new time constant,
so,  = 0.1 sec 10
2 =  0.5
20
k
The response, c(t) = 1 eat 
a  Closed loop transfer function (CLTF)
The standard response is 10k
=
10k  1  10s
c(t) = k1 1 e 
t/ 
Sol. The bode plot of a lag compensator is of
10k form 
=
  10  
10k  1  1     s
 10k  1 
|GH|
Comparing with standard equation, i.e.

R
 k 
 
1  s2 

TE
10
2 =  0.5
10k  1

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10
= 10 k + 1
0.5
AS
The bode plot of a lag lead compensator is
k = 1.9 of form 
90. The pole-zero configuration of the transfer
|GH|
f unction of a com pensator and the
corresponding Bode plot are shown in the
figure. The configuration is indicative of
M

j 
× ×
p z z p 

1  2s 1 0.75s


S

TF = 
1 16s 1  0.1s
The bode plot of a lead compensator or PD
controller is a form 
IE

GH  |GH|

log 
+20 dB/dec
-20 dB/dec

(a) lag compensator


(b) lag-lead compensator 
(c) P-D compensator
(d) lead compensator So, the given configuration is indicative of
lag lead compensator.
Ans. (b)
91. Consider that a level of the memory hierarchy Ans. (b)
has a hit rate of 80%. Memory requests take
10 ns to complete if they hit in the level, and 10
Sol. V sin  cos 
memory requests that miss in the level take r2
100 ns to complete. The average access time

of the level is E   V
(a) 110 ns (b) 100 ns

R
(c) 80 ns (d) 28 ns  V 1 V ˆ 1 
E    arˆ  a  aˆ 
 r r  r sin  
Ans. (d) 1  10 
 sin  cos   aˆ
r sin    r 2

TE
Sol. Average access time = hit × 10 + min × 100 
= 0.8 × 10 + (1 – 0.8) × 100

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= (8 + 20) nsec    2  10 
E   10  3  sin  cos arˆ  3 cos  cos aˆ 
= 28 nsec  r  r 
1 10 sin 
92. A program structure that permits repeated     sin   aˆ
AS
r sin  2
r
operati on of a particular sequence of
instructions is known as
  20 10 10 
(a) subroutine E    3 sin  cos arˆ  3 cos  cos aˆ  3   sin   aˆ 
 r r r 
(b) loop
 20 10 10
M

(c) module E  3 sin  cos arˆ  3 cos  cos aˆ  3 sin aˆ
(d) microprogramming r r r
 
Ans. (a) D   oE (Electric flux density)
Sol. A program structure that permits repeated
S

operati on of a particular sequence of   


At point  2, , 0 
instructions is known as subroutine.  2 
93. If r = 2
IE

10 
V= 2
sin   cos  
r 2

   0
the electric flux density at 2, ,0 is
2 
  D  22.1arˆ PC/m 2
(a) 32  1ar pC/m 2 (b) 22  1ar pC/m 2
 
(c) 10  2 ar pC/m2 (d) 5  8 ar pC/m 2
94. In an n-turn coil, the flux through each turn is 3. In an anisotropic medium, D and E have
(t3–4t) mWb. The magnitude of the induced the same direction
e.m.f. in the coil at t = 5s is 7.1 V. the number 4. For certain crystalline medium,  varies
of turns in the coil is with the direction of E.
(a) 10 (b) 100
Which of the above statements are correct?

R
(c) 121 (d) 1000
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (b) (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

TE
Sol.
Ans. (c)
Flux through each turn
Sol.  For an isotropic medium, the dielectric
   t  4t 
3 constant is same in all directions or  is
m Weber

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constant.
 
   t  4t   10
AS
3 3
Weber  D  E
Magnitude of induced emf at t = 5 sec = 7.1V  
then D and E will have same direction for
nd isotropic material.
emf 
dt
 For homogeneous medium  (or ) does
M

nd not vary in the region or independent of (x, y,


emf   7.1 z).
dt
 Crystalline materials are anisotropic, for
where n = no. of turns in coil
anisotropic material, the dielectric constant is
S

d 3 different in different direction.


t  4t   10
3
emf   n
dt r  F  ax, ˆ azˆ 
ˆ ay,
7.1 = +n(3t2 – 4) × 10–3 
IE

 varies with direction of E


t = 5 sec
96. If a 75 line is terminated by a load of (120
7.1 = n(75 – 4) × 10–3
+ j80)  , the maximum and minimum
n  100 turns impedances over the line are nearly

(a) 135 and 28


95. Consider the following statements:
(b) 190.5  and 28 
1. For an isotropic medium,  is a scalar
constant. (c) 135  and 16 
2. For a homogeneous medium, , µ and  (d) 190.5  and 16 
are constant throughout the region.
Ans. (b) Ans. (a,b)
Sol. Sol. POS : Product of sum

A
Zo = 75 ZL = 120+f80 B

C
f

R
D
Maximum impedance : Zmax = Zo × VSWR
E
Zo F

TE
Minimum impedance : Zmin 
VSWR

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1 v
VSW R  f   A  B  .  C  D  .E  F 
1 v
Product of sum
Z  Z o 120  j80  75
v  L
AS

Z L  Z o 120  j80  75
A
45  j80 B
v 
195  j80
C
2 2 f
(45)  (80) D
v   0.43
M

195 2  (80) 2 E
F
1  0.43
VSWR 
1  0.43
98. In a certain material medium, a propagating
VSWR  2.5
S

electromagmagnetic wave attains 60% of the


Zmax = 75 × 2.5 = 188.15 velocity of light. The distance at which the
electromagnetic wave (f = 10 MHz) will have
IE

75 th same magnitude for the induction as well


Zmin =  30 as the radiation fields is nearly
2.5
(a) 57.4 m (b) 29.0 m
Approximate answer is (b)
(c) 5.8 m (d) 2.9 m
97. A product-of-sums (POS) expression leads to
what kind of logic circuit? Ans. (d)
(a) OR-AND circuit Sol. Electric field at radial distance is function of
(b) NOR-NOR circuit :
(c) AND-OR-INVERT circuit
jt  j r
Io dlsin e e  j 2  1 
(d) NAND-NAND circuit E    2  3
4  r r r 
SWR is 1.5, the percent reflected power will
1
Radiation field has E   be
r
(a) 4 (b) 8
1 (c) 25 (d) 40
Induction field has E  
r2

R
Ans. (a)
1 Preflected
Electrostatics field has E     v
2
r3 Sol.
Pincident

TE
Magnitude of induction as well as radiation
field is same 1 v
SWR 
1  v
j t  j  r 2 jt  j r

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Io dlsin e e j I dlsin e e 
  o 
4 r 4 r 2 1 v
AS
1.5 
1 v
2 

r r 2  v  0.2
1
r
 Preflected 2
M

  (0.2)   0.04  100%   4%


Pincident

r
2 100. A communication link operating at 3 GHz has
v a 22.5 W transmitter connected to an antenna
 of 2.5 m2 effective aperature. The receiving
f
S

antenna has effective aperture of 0.5 m 2 and


0.6  3  108 is located at 15 km line-of-sight distance from
 6
10  10 the transmitting antenna (assume lossless,
IE

matched antennas). The power delivered to


  18 m the receiver is
18 (a) 12.5 µW (b) 125 µW
r
2 (c) 12.5 mW (d) 125 mW
r  2.86 m Ans. (a)
99. A measure of the mismatch between the
maximum and minimum voltage and current Transmitter
variations along the transmission line is called Receiver
SWR, i.e., standing wave ratio. SWR indicates
how much power is delivered to the load, and Sol.
how much is lost in the line. When SWR is 1,
the percent reflected power is zero. When d
f = 3 GHz = 12.5 × 10–6
Pt = 22.5 watt
Power received  12.5 watt
Aet = 2.5 m2
101. For a WR 90 waveguide, the cut-off frequency
Aer = 0.5 m2
for TE20 mode is 16 GHz. Then the cut-off
d = 15 km frequency for TE11 mode will be

Pt Gdt (a) 4 3 GHz (b) 6 3 GHz

R
Power density at receiver = 2
4d
(c) 8 5 GHz (d) 16 5 GHz
22.5Gdt

TE
= 4 Ans. (c)
15  103 2
Sol. Cut-off frequency of TEmn mode

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22.5Gdt 2 2
Power desnity  v m n
4  15  10 3 2 fc     
 2  a  b
AS
4 C 8
Gdt  A et where, v   C  3  10
 2 r  r

For TE20 : f c = 16 GHz


c 3  108
 =   0.1m
M

f 3  109 fc 
v m

2 a
4
Gdt =  2.5 8
 0.12 3  10  2 9
fc   16  10
2a
S

Gdt  1000 
a  1.875 cm
IE

22.5  1000 
For TE11 mode :
Power density =
15  103 2  4 
v 1 1
fc  2
 2
22,500 2 a b
= 4
15  103 2
a 2
For WR90 waveguide : aspect ratio 
Power density = 2.5 × 10–5 b 1
Power received = Power density × Effective
area at receiver v a2
fc  1 2
= 2.5 × 10–5 × 0.5 2a b
103. For a 4-element broadside antenna array, 
3  10 8
fc  2
 1 4 equals
2  1.875  10
(a) sin  (b)  cos 
fc  8 5 GHz
cot 

R
102. During wave propagation in an air-filled (c) (d)  sin 
2
rectangular waveguide
1. wave impedance is never less than the Ans. (b)

TE
free-space impedance Sol. For total phase shift :
2. propagation constant is an imaginary
    dcos 
number

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3. TEM mode is possible if the dimensions For broadside array progressive phase shift
of the waveguide are properly chosen between current element is zero
AS
Which of the above are correct? 0
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Distance between respective element
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

d
Ans. (c) 2
M

Sol. For TE mode:


2 d
0  cos 
o  2
1. TE 
2
f     cos 
1  c 
S

 f 
104. The open-loop transfer function of a system
has two poles on the imaginary axis, one in
 TE  o
IE

the left-half and the other in the right-half,


For TM mode : together with a zero at the origin of coordinates
and also two zeros in the left-half of the s-
2 plane. The closed-loop response for unity
f 
TM  o 1   c  feedback will be stable if the encirclement of
 f 
the critical point (–1, j0) is
(a) –1 (b) +1
TM   o
(c) –2 (d) +2
For TM mode wave impedance is less than
the free-space impedance Ans. (b)
Sol. For open loop system, number of poles in
2.     j  j    j  right half s-plane (P) = 1
From nyquist stability criterion,
G s  Hs 
N = P – Z G'(s) =
s
where, N = number of encirclement of
point (–1, 0) G sHs
 Now,, k v = lim s 
s 0 s
Z = number of zeros of 1+
G(s)·H(s) or number of
pol es of c l osed l oop = slim G sHs
0

R
system in right half plane.
= 4
For stability, z = 0,

TE
1 1
so NP1 New steady state error (ess )   0.25
kv 4

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105. The steady-state error for a Type 0 system for
unit-step input is 0.2. In a certain instance, 106. Which one of the following refers to the
this error possibility was removed by insertion frequency k in the frequency response of
of a unity gain block. Thereafter, a unit ramp an FIR filter?
AS
was applied. The nature of the block and new
steady-state error in this changed configuration 16 8
(a) (k   ) (b) (k   )
will, respectively, be M M
(a) integrator; 0.25 (b) differentiator; 0.25
4 2
(c) integrator; 0.20 (d) differentiator; 0.20 (c) (k   ) (d) (k   )
M M
M

Ans. (a)
Ans. (d)
Sol. If steady state error to unit step input is e ss ,
and positional error constant is k p, then Sol. F requency sam pl i ng st ruct ure i s an
alternative structure for an FIR filter.
1
S

ess = 1  k
p To derive the frequency sampling structure,
we specify the desired frequency response
1 at a set of equally spaced frequenies given
IE

1 + kp =
0.2 by
kp = 4
2
k = k  
 kp = lim Gs  Hs  4 M
s0
107. Three processors with their respective process
The error due to step input is made to zero,
IDs given by P1, P2 and P3, having estimated
so type of system would have increased.
completion time of 8 ms, 4 ms and 2 ms,
Hence we can say that the unity gain block
respectively, enter a ready queue together in
used is an integrator.
the order P1, P2 and P3. What is the average
Now, the open loop transfer function will turn time in the Round Robin Scheduling
become, Algorithm with time 2 ms?
(a) 10 ms (b) 15 ms MVI A, 04H
(c) 20 ms (d) 25 ms RRC
MOV B, A
Ans. (a)
RLC
Sol. Given process id and their completion time

R
is as follows : RLC
ADD B
Pr ocess Id P1 P2 P3
RCC

TE
Completion time 8 m sec 4 m sec 2 m sec
(a) 02H (b) 05H
Process enter in the ready queue in the (c) 15H (d) 25H
order P1 P2 P3 and round robin scheduling
Ans. (b)

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algorithm is used with time quanta 2 msec
Gantt chart is given below : Sol.
AS
CY  0

P1 P2 P3 P 1 P2 P1 P1
(1) MVIA, 04H

0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 A= 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0
Waiting time of P 1 (2) RRC
= 0 + (6 – 2) + (10 – 8)
M

Initial = 0
= 0 + 4 + 2 = 6 msec
Final 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0
Waiting time of P 2 CY
(2 – 0) + (8 – 4) = 2 + 4 = 6 msec
S

Waiting time of P 3 A= 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0

(4 – 0) = 4 msec (3) MOV B, A


IE

Turn around time of process = Burst time of


B 02H
process + Waiting time of process
TAT P1 = 8 + 6 = 14 msec (4) RLC
TAT P2 = 4 + 6 = 10 msec Initial = 0
TAT P3 = 2 + 4 = 6 msec Final 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0
Average turn around time CY

14  10  6 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0
 = 10 msec
3
(5) RLC
108. In the following 8085 assembly language
program, assume that the carry flag is initially Initial = 0
reset. What is the content of the accumulator CY 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0
after the execution of the program? Final = 0
Sol. I nt ernet is based on packet swi tched
A 08H
network, where small unit of data called
(6) ADDB packets are routed through network.
111. Which of the following statements is correct in
08 H
respect of TCP and UDP protocols?
02 H
A+ B =
0A H (a) TCP is connection-oriented, whereas UDP
is connectionless

R
(7) RRC (b) TCP is connectionless, whereas UDP is
connection-oriented
Initial = 0
(c) Both are connectionless

TE
CY 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0
Final = 0 (d) Both are connection-oriented

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Ans. (a)
0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1
Sol. TCP is connection oriented, so it is suitable
for highly reliable transmission whereas UDP
AS
A 05H
is suitable for fast and normal information
109. The technique for using one set of addresses transmission.
inside a network and remapping those 112. A fixed radar station transmits 100 kW at 3
addresses to a different set of addresses that GHz. The smallest ocean-going ship has a
are seen outside the local network on the radar cross-section of 200 m 2. The radar
antenna gain is 16 dB. If detection requires a
M

internet is called
minimum of 1 nW/m2 at the radar antenna,
(a) network address translation
the effective range of the radar is nearly
(b) address resolution
(a) 7.1 km (b) 8.4 km
(c) network address mapping
(c) 70.7 km (d) 84.0 km
S

(d) virtual LAN


Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
Sol. Given Pt = 100 K watt
IE

Sol. Network address translation enables the


f = 3 GHz
user to have a large set of addresses
internally and one or small set of addresses
c 3  1083
externally.  =   0.1m
f 3  109
110. What type of network is the Internet?
 = 200 m2
(a) Circuit-switched network
(b) Message-switched network G = 16 dB  G = 101.6 = 39.8
 dB 
(c) Packet-switched network
(d) Cell-switched network 9 watt
Smin = 1 10  A er
m2
Ans. (c)
Gain of receiving antenna = 40 dB
G  2
Smin = 10 9 
4 noise temperature of receiving antenna = Tant
= 15 k
9  0.12
Smin = 10  39.8  Loss between the natenn and LNA input due
4
to Feed horn = 0.4 dB

R
Smin  3.16  1011 watt Noise temperature of LNA = 40 k.
1/ 4
 Pt G2   2 

TE
Rmax =  3 
  4   Smin 
1 Receiving Feed Horn LNA
 100  103   39.8 2  200   0.12  4 Antenna
Rmax =  

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  4 3  3.16  10 11 
Te = 40 k
AS
1
 316.808  106 4 T = Tant + Te
Rmax =  11 3
 3.16  10   4   
T = 40 k + 15 k = 55 k = 17.4 dBk
Rmax = (5.05 × 1015)1/4
G = 40 – 0.4 = 39.6 dB
Rmax = 8430 m
M

G dB
Rmax  8.4km  G(dB)  T(dBk)  39.6  17.4  22.2
T k
113. A receiving antenna with a gain of 40 dB looks
114. A company operating taxicabs communicates
at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K.
The loss between the antenna and LNA input from its central office with the help of an
S

due to the feed horn is 0-4 dB, and the LNA antenna at the top of a 16 m tower. The
antenna on the taxicabs is 1.44 m above the
G ground. The communication distance between
has a noise temperature of 40 K. The value
IE

T the central office and a taxicab cannot exceed


is (a) 18.6 km (b) 24.0 km
(a) 11.2 dB/K (b) 13.4 dB/K
(c) 50.0 km (d) 62.3 km
(c) 20.6 dB/K (d) 39.0 dB/K
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
LO S
ht = 16m

dis ta
Receiving antenna nce
Sol.
hr = 1.44m

Sol. LNA
The communication distance between the
Feed
Horn central office and taxicab :
d = 3.57  ht  hr  km 
h  8 sin 

d = 3.57  16  1.44 km


23.5
h 
8  0.94
d  18.56km

115. The linear velocity of a satellite, when in a h  3.125 cm

R
circular orbit, is 117. The orbital period of a satellite in a circular
(a) directly proportional to its mass orbit of 500 km above the Earth’s surface,
(b) directly proportional to the square root of taking mean radius of the Earth as 6400 km

TE
its mass and Kepler’s constant  as 4 × 105 km3/s2 is
nearly

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(c) directly proportional to the square of its
mass (a) 1.6 hours (b) 2.4 hours
(d) independent of its mass (c) 3.2 hours (d) 6.4 hours
AS
Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
Sol. Linear velocity of a satellite
4  2 a3
Sol. T2 =

GM
v
r
42  a3
M

T2 =
M = mass of the earth 
Velocity of satellite is independent of its mass a = (6400 + 500) km = 6900 km
116. For a system with a wavelength of 23.5 cm
and a depression angle of sin–1 0.94, the km3
 = 4  105
S

surface relief below which the surface will S2


appear smooth is determined as limited nearly
3
to 42   6900  103 
IE

T2 = 3
(a) 2.8 cm (b) 3.1 cm 4  105  103 
(c) 3.5 cm (d) 4.0 cm
42   6900 3
T2 =
Ans. (b) 4  105
Sol. Given  = 23.5 cm T2 = (5694)2
depression angle  = sin–1 (0.94) T = 5694 sec
According to Rayleigh criterion for Roughness
T  1.58 hour
A surface is considered smooth at or below at
height of h if. 118. What is/are the advantage(s) of step-index
mono-mode fibre optical cable?
1. Manufacturing process is simple Ans. (a)
2. Bandwidth of several GHz-km is possible Sol. Given set of processes and their burst time
3. Splicing is easier is as follows:

Select the correct answer using the code given


Pr ocess P1 P2 P3 P4 P5
below.

R
Burst 10 29 3 7 12
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
time m sec m sec m sec m sec m sec
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

TE
First Come First Served (FCFS)
Ans. (b)
Sol. For single mode step index fiber
1. Manufacturing process is complex
P1 P2 P3 P4 P5

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2. High bandwidth upto GHz -km is possible. t=0
10 39 42 49 61
AS
3. splicing is relatively less easier.
119. Consider the following set of processes :
Waiting time of P 1 = 0 msec
Pr ocess P1 P2 P3 P4 P5
Waiting time of P 2 = 10 msec
Burst time 10 ms 29 ms 3 ms 7 ms 12 ms
Waiting time of P 3 = 39 msec
M

First Come Fi rst Serv e (FCF S), non- Waiting time of P 4 = 42 msec
preemptive Shortest Job First (SJF) and
Round Robin (RR) (quantum = 10 ms). Waiting time of P 5 = 49 msec
Scheduling Algorithms for this process set Average waiting time
would imply which of the following features?
S

1. The SJF policy results in less than half of 0  10  39  42  49 140


   28 m sec
the average waiting time obtained with 5 5
FCFS scheduling.
IE

Shortest Job First (SJF)


2. The RR algorithm gives an intermediate
value for the average waiting time.
3. Deterministic modelling takes a particular P3 P4 P1 P5 P2
predetermined workload, and designs the 0
performance of each algorithm for that 3 10 20 32 61
workload.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. Waiting time of P 1 = 10 msec

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only Waiting time of P 2 = 32 msec

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Waiting time of P 3 = 0 msec


Waiting time of P 4 = 3 msec
Waiting time of P 5 = 20 msec
Average waiting time (a) 0.5 m (b) 1 m
10  32  0  3  20 65
   13 m sec (c) 3 m (d) 6 m
5 5
Round Robin Scheduling (RR)
Ans. (c)
quantum = 10 msec
Sol. Given,
P1 P2 P3 P4 P5 P2 P5 P2 Core radius = 2.5 m

R
t= 0
10 20 23 30 40 50 52 61 n1 = 1.484

Waiting time of P 1 = 0 msec n2 = 1.402

TE
Waiting time of P 2 c = ?

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= 10 + (40 – 20) + (52 – 50)
2
= 10 + 20 + 2 = 32 msec c =  2.5  NA
2.405
Waiting time of P 3 = 20 msec
AS
Waiting time of P 4 = 23 msec NA = n12  n22  0.486
Waiting time of P 5
2
= 30 + (50 – 40) = 30 + 10 = 40 msec c = × 2.5 × 0.486
2.405
Average waiting time
0  32  20  23  40 115  c  3.17 m
M

   23 m sec
5 5
Directions :
1. Average waiting of SJF scheduling
Each of the following thirty (3) items consists of two
= 13 msec
statements one labeled as statement I and the other
2. Av erage wai t i n g time of F CF S as statements II. Examine these two statemnts
S

scheduling = 28 msec carefully and select the correct answer to each of


Average waiting of SJF is less than half of these items using the code given below.
IE

the average waiting time of FCFS Codes :


3. Average waiting time of round robin is (a) Both statemnts I and statement II are
the intermediate value. individually true and statement II is the
correct explanation of statement I
Deterministic modeling is a kind of analytic
evaluation. It uses the given algorithm and (b) Both statement I and statement II are
the system work load to produce a formula indivudially true but statement II is not the
or number to evaluate the performance of correct explanation of statement I
the algorithm for that workload. (c) Statements I is true but statement II is
120. The cut-off wavelength for an optical fibre with false

5 m core diameter and core cladding indices (d) Statement I is false but statement II is
true
of refraction 1.484 and 1.402 is nearly
121. Statement I :
Vo
The width of depletion layer of a P-N junction (V1 – V2) = A
v
is increased under reverse bias.
Statement II : V 
(V1 – V2) =  o   A v   
Junction breakdown occurs under reverse bias. 

R
Ans. (b) V1 – V 2 = 0
V1 = V2
Sol. When the reverse bias is applied the electrons

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at n-side will get pulled from junction region V2
to the terminal region of n-side and similarly –
Vo
the holes at p-side junction will get pulled V1
+
towards the terminal region of p-side. This

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results in increasing the depletion region width
This concept of both the terminals being at
from its initial width. It results in increasing
AS
same potential is due to ideal op-amp
the elctric field strength.
characteristics and not because of both the
When we apply the voltage increasingly across terminals connected to same point.
the reverse biased diode a point is reached Hence statement-I is true statement-II is
where the current increases rapidly this is false.
called junction breakdown.
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Hence statement-I and statement-II are


123. Statements I :
individuallly true.
Optocouplers are used to isolate low voltage
122. Statement I : circuits from high voltages.
Statements II :
In ideal case; the inverting and non-inverting
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input terminals of an operational amplifier are Optocouplers are used to separate AC and
almost at the same potential. DC ground.
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Statement II : Ans. (b)


Sol.
It is common practice to connect the inverting
and non-inverting terminals to the same point. Optocouplers are used to provide electrical
isolation between an input source and output
Ans. (c) load. An optocouper consists of light emitter,
Sol. In an ideal op-amp the inverting and non the LED and a light sensitive receiver which
inverting amplifiers are at same potential can be photo-diode, photo-transistor photo
because in an ideal op-amp voltage gain SCR (or) a photo triac.
(Av) is, Applications.
As we know Vo = Av v i 1. Electrical isolation between a lower
Vo = Av (V1 – V2) voltage control signal and the higher voltage
(or) current output signal.
2. DC and AC power control
E 2  V2
 100
3. Optocouplers are used to separate AC VR = E2
and DC grouped. Statement-I and Statement
-II are individually correct. where, E2 = no load secondary voltage
124. Statement I :
Two ideal current sources with currents I1 and V2 = full load secondary voltage.
I2 cannot be connected in parallel From approximate equation for voltage

R
Statement : II requlation,
Superposition theorem cannot be applied to
ideal current sources if these source are  I2 (Req )2 cos   I2 (Xeq )2 sin  

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V.r.    100
connected in casecade.  E2 

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Ans. (d) So, we can say that change in secondary
Sol. Statement 1 is wrong  two unequal current voltage is due to transformer impedance
sources can e connected in parallel and the i.e.(Req )2  j(Xeq )2  and the load current
AS
total current will be equal to the sum sources.
(I2 ) .
However, two equal current sources can’t be
connected in series. If the leading Pf is considered then
Statement 2 is true  cascading two ideal
 I2 (Re q )2 cos   I2 .(Xeq )2 sin  
sources will lead in open circuit of one source   100
V.R. =  E2
if the other source is opened.  
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Hence, superposition theorem will not apply. Hence, voltage regulation can be zero, for
125. Statement I : (R e q ) 2 cos  = (Xeq )2 sin .
When a transformer is loaded there is a change
So, bot h stat em ents are correct and
in its secondary voltage expressed as a
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statement II is the correct explanation of


percentage of secondary voltage on no-load,
statement I.
and this cahnge is called its regulation.
126. Statement I :
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Statement II :
Series DC motors are used for cranes and
The change in secondary voltage is due to the locomotives.
transformer impednace and the load current.
Statement II :
The regulation could be zero for leading load
condition. Series DC motors provide high starting
torques, a requisite for such applications.
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
Sol. W hen transformer is loaded, there is a
change in its secondary voltage. Sol. The torque speed characteristic of dc series
motor is given by
Transformer voltage regulation is given by,
Torque
128. Statement I :
If a squirrel cage motor is started at full rated
voltage, the power supply could be damaged.
Statement II :

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For squirrel cage induction motors, starting
current is high and power factor at starting is
low.

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Speed
Ans. (d)
So, we can say that, the dc series motor Sol. For squirrel cage induction motors, starting
provides high starting torque. So dc series current is high and power factor at starting

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motor are more suited for loads having high is low.
inertia, such as locomotives and cranes.
AS
Due to high current, there may be a dip in
 Both statements are correct, and statement supply voltage, as line impedance drop will
Ii is the correct explanation of statement-I. be high at high current.
127. Statement I : Extremely high starting time may also lead
to high heating of rotor and supply, but it is
An induction motor always runs at a speed
highly unlikely that power supply might get
less than its synchronous speed.
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damaged.
Statement II : So statement I is incorrect and statement II
is correct.
Synchronous speed of induction motor
depends on the frequency of supply and If the sequirrel cage motor is started at full
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number of poles. load, starting current is high and power factor


i.
Ans. (b)
129. Statement I :
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Sol. An induction motor works on principle of


The increase of temperature of a dielectric
electromagnetic induction which is possible,
causes increase of electronic polarizability.
only when there is a relative speed between
rotor, and synchronously rotating armature Statement II :
flux. so, an induction motor runs at a speed, Orientational polarization in dielectric is
less than its synchronous speed. inversely proportional to temperature.
Synchronous speed (Ns ) of induction motor Ans. (d)
120f Sol.
is given by , Ns =
P Electronic polarisability  e  ,
 the synchronous speed depends upon
frequency (f) and number of poles (P).  e = 4 o R3
i.e. electronic polarizability does not depend basic principle of the instrument is based on
on temperature. the seebeck effect. According to seeback
Orientational polarization (po) effect, when two dissimilar conductor A and
B, comprise a circuit, a current will flow in
Npp2E that circuit as long as the two junctions are
po =
3kT at different temperature, one is called
i.e. orientational polarization (p o) is inversely ref erence j unct i on, whi ch i s kept at
proportional to temperature. temperature 0°C (usually kept is ice bath)

R
So, statement (I) is incorrect and statement and other junction is called the detecting
(II) is TRUE. junction.
130. Statement I : Hence, statement (I) is TRUE and statement

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(II) is also TRUE but statement (II) is not
The break statement provides an early exit
correct explanation.

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from for, while do/while and switch structures,
132. Statement I :
and the execution continues with the first
statement after the structure. A salient-pole rotor placed in a magnetic field
can produce an emf. proportional to the speed
Statement II :
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of the rotating machine because fo its variable
The continue statement, used in while, for do/ reluctance characteristic.
while loop, skips the remaining statement in
Statement II :
the body of that structure, and proceeds with
the next iteration of the loop. The above device is essentially a frequency
tachometer using a suitable pulse shaping
Ans. (b) circuit and an electronic counter.
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Sol. Break stat em ent term i nat es t he l oop


Ans. (b)
immediately and the next statement outside
the loop is executed. Continue statement 133. Statement I :
begins next iteration inside the loop. It skips Sensors are almost always transducers, but
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the execution of statements inside the body


transducers are not necessarily sensors.
of loop for the current iteration.
Statement II :
131. Statement I :
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Sensor are transducers that conver a physcial


A thermocouple transducer is based on
seebeck effect. quantity to a measurable quantity.

Statement I : Ans. (c)


In a thermocouple transducer used f or Sol. Statement-I is true – sensors are almost
temperature measurement the cold jucntion always transducers.
is usually kept in ice bath.
Sensors are used to sense the change in any
Ans. (b) physical quantity. Transducers are the type of
sensors which can measure the change in a
Sol.
physical quantity and convert one form of
Thermocouple is a device used primarily for energy into others.
the measurement of temperature and the
eg. LVDT – converts displacement into The image impedances for both the ports of
measurable voltage change. a symmetrical two port network are same.
Statement-II is false – sensors do not convert 136. Statement I :
a physical quantity into measurable quantity. The maximum number of logic gate inputs that
The just sense the portion of change in the can be driven from the output of a single logic

R
quantity and not the actual value. gate is called ‘fan-out’.
134. Statement I : Statement II :
Piezoelectric transducers have very good ‘Fan-out’ is due to the current sourcing when

TE
frequency response. the output is high, and is due to the current
Statement II : sinking when the output is low. Thus two
Piezoelectric transducers can be used for different values for ‘fan-out’ may result.

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measurement of both dynamic and static Ans. (a)
phenomena.
AS
Ans. (c)
ICH IIH
Sol.
Piezoelectric transducers are mainly used for
measurement of displacement. However,
they can be used for measurement of force,
M

pressure or, acceleration also.


It has very good frequency response, higher
m echanical and therm al stabi l it y, can
withstand high stresses etc. Sol.
The steady state response of piezo-electric
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transducer to a constant displacement is


zero. Hen ce, i t cannot be used f or
measurement of static displacement.
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i.e. statement (I) is TRUE but statement (II)


is false.
135. Statement I : Fan out = 4
A symmetrical two-port network is bound to for the figure show
reciprocal.
The maximum number of inputs fed from the
Statement II : output of a single logic gate. This can not be
A symmetrical network will have the same any number because fan-out depends on
magnitude of image impedance at both the current sourcing of the output when output is
ports. high of the logic gate and current sinking
capability of the output when the output is
Ans. (c) low. Thus two different values of fanout may
Sol. A symmetrical two port network is not result.
necessarily reciprocal.
Hence of the statements are true and Ans. (c)
statement II is explanation of statement-I Sol. Statement I is correct.
137. Statement I :
I/O devices can be assessed using IN and
PLA contains a fixed AND array and a
OUT instruction.
programmable OR array.
Statement II : Statement II is incorrect.

R
PROM contains a fixed AND array and a This depends on the type of processor.
programmable OR array. 140. Statement I :

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Ans. (d) On executing the HLT instruction, the
microprocessor enters into a half state and all
Sol. PLA contains programmable AND gate and

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the buses are tri-stated.
programmable OR GATE
Statement II :
Input Programmable Programmable Output On executing the HLT instruction, the
AS
AND GATE OR GATE microprocessor is disconnected from the
system bus till the reset is pressed.
PRO M contains f i xed AND G ate and
Programmable OR Gate Ans. (d)
Sol. After the execution of HLT instruction bus is
Input Fixed AND Programmable Output
GATE OR GATE in high impedance state.
M

138. Statement I : The microprocessor will be connected to


Stack works on the principle of LIFO system bus when a non-markable interrupt
(NM1) occurs, which is usually a reset in
Statement II : many cases.
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Stack pointer contains address of the top of


the stack. II is correct.
141. Statement I :
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Ans. (a)
Stack is organized as 8-bit storage in the
Sol. The last item to be inserted into a stack is microprocessor.
the first one to be deleted from it. Stack
pointer of the stack is used to track it. Statement II :

139. Statement I : Stack is a set of memory locations in R/W


memory reserved for storing information
I/O devices can be accessed using IN and temporarily during the execution of a program.
OUT instructions.
Statement II : Ans. (b)

Arithmetic and logic operations can be directly Sol. Stack is a 8-bit storage.
performed with I/O data.
Stack is used f or temporary storage of 144. Statement I :
memory location. The transportation lag in a system can be
easily handled by using Bode plot.
Both statements are correct. II is not an
explanation of I. Statement II :
142. Statement I : The magnitude plot is unaffected and only the

R
Static RAM memory devices retain data for phase plot shifts by T rad due to the
as long as power is supplied. presence of e–st.

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Statement II : Ans. (a)
SRAM is used when the size of read/write Sol. The transportation delay transfer function is
memory required is large. given by
T(s) = e–sT

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Ans. (c)
Sol.  Static RAM memory is a random access Let, if initially, the transfer function was,
AS
memory that retains data bits in its memory G 1(s) = G(s)
as long as power is being supplied
with G1  = G
 SRAM provides faster access to data and
more expensive than DRAM. SRAM is used
for a computer cache memory. and G1  = 1
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 DRAM is used in digital electronics where Now, with transportation delay


high capacity memory is required as it is
G 2(s) = G 1(s) ·T(s)
cheaper.
G 2 (s) = G(s) · e–sT
Statement-I is true statement-II is false
G2  = G as esT  1
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143. Statement I :
G 2  = 1
The stator winding of a control transformer in
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a synchro pair has a high impedance per Now, with transportation delay,
phase
G 2(s) = G 1(s) · T(s)
Statement II :
G 2(s) = G(s) · e–sT
The rotor of the control transf ormer is
cylindrical in shape. G2  = G as esT  1
Ans. (c)
G 2  = 1  T
Sol. The stator winding of a control transformer
in a synchro pair has high resistance to limit So, the bode magnitude plot is unaffected
starting current. while the bode phase plot just shifts down
The rotor of control transformer has salient by – T .
poles.
Sp, transportation lag in the system can I is incorrect.
easily be handled by Bode plot. Pheripherals can be analog as well
145. Statement I :
II is incorrect.
Isolated I/O method isolates memory and I/O
147. Statement I :
addresses.
The internal interrupt is initiated by some
Statement II :
exceptional condition caused by the program

R
In isolated I/O method, memory and I/O itself rather than by an external event.
interfaces have their own individual address
Statement II :
space.
External interrupt depends on external

TE
Ans. (d) conditons that are independent of the program
Sol. In isolated I/O method, peripherals are being executed at the time.

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accessed using the GP10 pins. In memory
Ans. (d)
mapped I/O peripherals are accessed in the
same fashion as memory is accessed. So Sol. Internal interrupts can be caused by various
AS
there is no such I/O addresses in Isolated I/ modules inside an embedded system and
O method. not by the program.
I is incorrect.
I is incorrect. External interrupts depend on external
conditions and are independent of the
I/O interface are accessed using GPIO program.
M

registers. II is correct.
148. Statement I :
II is correct.
146. Statement I : Swapping is sometimes called ‘roll-out/roll-in’.

Peripherals are electromechanical and / or Statement II :


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electromagnetic devices. Swapping is utilized in systems designed to


Statement II : support time-sharing.
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All the peripherals are digital and parallel Ans. (a)

Ans. (c) Sol. When a process is not execute for long time
then that process rollout and active process
Sol. Peripherals can be various sensors such as
is rollin in the memory for execution. This
a temperature sensor, pressure sensor etc.
mechanism enable the interleaved execution
These do not come under electromechanical of the process. So multiple processes can
or electromagnetic devices execute concurrently. So swapping is utilized
But Peripherals are electromechanical and / in system designed to support time sharing.
or electromagnetic devices also.
149. Statement I : Ans. (d)
MS DOS and Windows products have always
used implicit mounting when an attempt is first Sol. Virtual memory is designated virtual as the
made to access the media. memory management system makes CPU
realize that it has large size main memory at
Statement II :
its disposal while in reality only a limited

R
Unix has traditionally used explicit mount amount of main memory is available.
command to access the removable medium.
It uses some space of hard disk as an

TE
Ans. (b) extension of primary storage.

But hard disk is inside computer.


150. Statement I :

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Virtual memory is designated virtual because So I is incorrect, II is correct.
there is no such memory inside the computer.
AS
Statement II :
Virtual memory uses some space of the hard
disk as an extension of the primary storage of
the computer.
M
S
IE

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