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Explanation of Electronics and Telecommunication Engg. Prelims Paper-II (ESE - 2018)
SET - A
1. Consider the following statements regarding 2. Silicon devices can be employed for a higher
the formation of P-N jucntions: temperature limit (190 ºC to 200 ºC) as
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1. Holes diffuse across the junction from P- compared to germanium devices (85 ºC to
side to N-side. 100 ºC). With respect to this, which of the
following are incorrect?
2. The depletion layer is wiped out.
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1. Higher resistivity of silicon
3. There is continuous flow of current across
the junction. 2. Higher gap energy of siliocn
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4. A barrier potential is set up across the 3. Lower intrinsic concentration of silicon
junction. 4. Use of silicon devices in high-power
Which of the above statements are correct? applications
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(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (c) (b) 1, 2 and 3
Sol. Diffused electrons come into contact with holes (c) 1, 3 and 4
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the charged ions adjacent to the interface in higher temperature limit (190°C to 200°C)
a region with no mobile carriers called when compared to germanium devices (85°C
depletion region. to 100°C) implies that silicon devices can be
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NDqn
R
EFn EFP
1 EC
NDqn
n+
TE
EV
1
ND
qn Energy band diagram of tunnel diode
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qa2 1 a2 Since both n and p junctions are highly
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Vp * doped so fermi levels lies inside valence
2 qn 2 n
band of p type and inside conduction band
of n type semiconductor.
2 * 10 4 2 5. The hFE values in the specification sheet of
Vp
2 9 10 14 11.7 5 1300 a transistor are hFE(max) = 225 and hFE(min) =
64. What value of hFE is to be adopted in
r (Si) 11.7
M
practice?
= 2.92V (a) 64 (b) 100
From the given option, nearest value is (c) 120 (d) 225
2.85V.
Ans. (c)
S
R
0.1
Ic 0.02 =
600 0.6V 1 0.03 A
TE
+
VCE =49 A = 133.3
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IB – Also,
A
Af =
1 A
AS
= 0.98
133.3
= 49 Af =
1 1 133.0.03
0.6 o
Ic = 1mA 8. The magnitude of the gain in the
600 i
So, Ic = IB
R –
vi
Ic 1m vo
IB = 0.02 mA +
49
Vo
R R
Vi = (–1)
R
Vi R
0V Vo Vo 2 x
0V Then V =
i 2 2
TE
9. An op-amp is used in a notch filter. The notch
frequency is 2 kHz, lower cut-off frequency is
By virtual ground 0V at inverting terminal 1.8 kHz and upper cut-off frequency is 2.2
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kHz. Then Q of the notch filter is
By nodal analysis
(a) 3.5 (b) 4.0
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0 Vi 0 Vo (c) 4.5 (d) 5.0
= 0
R 2R
Ans. (d)
Vi V Sol.
= o
R 2R
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f0 2
Vo Quality factor,Q = f f 2.2 1.8 5
2 1
V = (–2)
i
Q = 5
Ans. (d)
By virtual ground 0V at inverting terminal
Sol. Given data
0 Vi 0 Vo
= 0 Rf
R R Gain = R 100
1
Input offset Voltage (V 1 – V2) 6 mV Applying nodal analysis at node ‘1’ we get
Input bias current = 500 nA
0 Vi 0 V1
Output off set voltage (V D)offset due to input = 0
1K 15K
offset is given by
R f Vi V1
(Vo)offset= 1 R V1 V2
=
1K 15K
1
R
= (1 + 100) (6 m) – 15 Vi = V1 ...(1)
= 101 × 6 m Applying nodal analysis at node ‘2’ we get
TE
= 606 mV
V1 0 V1 V1 V0
Output offset voltage (V o)offset due to input = 0
15K 1K 15K
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bias current
(Vo)offset= (Rf)I B V1 V V V0
1 1 =
= (4 fk) × (500 n) 15K 1K 15K 15K
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= 23.5 mV
17 V0
11. What is the gain of the amplifier circuit as V1 =
15K 15K
shown in the figure?
Vi V0 = 17 V1
1k 15k 15k V0 = 17 (–15 Vi) [From equation (1)]
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1k
– Vo
255
Vo Vi
+
12. The Kirchhoff’s current law works on the
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principle of conservation of
(a) 255 (b) 31 1. charge
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1000 10 3
L 1H
1
5A
TE
1 2 1
Stored energy, E Li 1 12
2 2
0 3 6 t(s)
E 0.5J
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(a) 100W (b) 600W 15. A sinusoidal voltage waveform has frequency
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(c) 900W (d) 1000W 50 Hz and RMS voltage 30V. The equation
representing the waveform is
Ans. (d)
(a) V = 30sin50t
Sol. The power is given by, P = i2R
(b) V = 60sin20t
For t = 0 to t = 3 sec. (c) V = 42.42sin314t
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3 f = 50Hz
= 500 W
Vmax = 30 2 = 42.42 V
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14. A coil of wire of 0.01 mm 2 area of 1000 turns The equation represeting waveform is
is wound on a core. It is subjected to a flux V(t) = Vmax sin t
density of 100 mWb/mm 2 by a 1A current.
The energy stored in the coil is V(t) 42.42 sin314t
(a) 2.0J (b) 1.5J
16. The current in a coil of self-inductance of 4H
(c) 1.0J (d) 0.5J
changes from 10A to 2A in t seconds and the
Ans. (d) induced emf is 40V. The time t is
di
V = L
dt
coil
For a specific time t,
R
I NO
V = L
t
Given, V = 40 V
TE
I = 10 – 2 = 8 A
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L= 4H
NC
8
40 = 4 × When coil is not energized, NC contacts are
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t
closed when coil is energized, NO contacts
Time, t = 0.8 seconds are closed.
17. Consider the following statements with respect 18. A 20 kVA, 2000/200 V, singl el-phase
to a relay: transformer has a leakage impedance of 8%.
1. A relay is energized if NC contacts are What voltage applied to the HV side will result
in full-load current flow in the LV side, when
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opened.
the LV side is short-circuited?
2. The pickup current is the minimum relay
coil current required to keep a relay (a) 64V (b) 86V
energized. (c) 132V (d) 160V
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
S
Ans. (d)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Sol. Base impedance referred to hv side
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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(Zb ) = 200
Ans. (c)
Leakage impedance referred to hv side,
Sol. In a relay, there are two switches, normally
open (NO) and normally closed (NC) (Zeq. ) = 200 0.08
= 16
When rated current is flowing in lv, then rated
current will also be flowing in hv.
20 1000
Rated hv current = = 10
2000
Let the voltage applied be V.
1200(220 40 0.25)
N2 =
V (220 2 0.25)
from Isc = Z
eq.
N2 1148rpm
V = Isc.Zeq.
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20. A 100 kVA, single-phase transformer has a
full-load copper loss of 600W and iron loss of
= 10(16) = 160V {As Isc Irated } 500 W. The maximum efficiency occurs at a
load of nearly
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19. The no-load current of a 220V DC motor is
2A with corresponding running speed of 1200 (a) 82.1 kVA (b) 83.3 kVA
rpm. The full-load current is 40A with an
(c) 91.3 kVA (d) 98.1 kVA
armautre resistance being 0.25. Assuming
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constant flux during this range of speed, the Ans. (c)
full-load speed will be
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Sol. Pi = 500 W
(a) 864 rpm (b) 948 rpm
(c) 1148 rpm (d) 1200 rpm (Pcu )fl = 600 W
Pi 500
Let the back emf during no load is Eb1 , k = (P ) =
cu fl 600
during full load is Eb2 .
k .913
S
Ia1 = 2 A, Ia2 = 40 A
The load, at which maximum efficiency
occurs, is given by
Eb1 k.N11
IE
Smax 91.3kVA
as 1 = 2
21. The starting current in an induction motor is 5
Eb1 N1 times the full-load current, while the full-load
Eb2 = N2 slip is 4%. The ratio of starting torque to full-
load torque is
Eb1 = V Ia1Ra ; Eb2 = V Ia2 Ra (a) 1.4 (b) 1.2
(c) 1.0 (d) 0.8
V Ia1Ra 1200
Ans. (c)
V Ia2 Ra = N2
Sol. Given that, I st = 5.I fl
sfl = 0.04
R
Ist = starting current
TE
2 Speed N
st Ist
then, Z = s fl . I
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fl fl
(d)
= (0.04)(5)2
Torque T
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st
1 Ans. (a)
fl
Sol. For dc series motor, torque is inversely
22. The applicable speed-torque curve for a DC proportional to the speed.
series motor is
The torque speed curve for a dc series motor
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is a rectangular hyperbola.
then, Ph = k1.f
Pe = k 2 .f 2 Pi
k = (Pcu )fl = 1
Ph Pe = Pi
For f = 40 Hz, Pi (Pcu )fl
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k1(40) k 2 (1600) = 140 .... (i)
Full load copper loss will be equal to
the core loss.
for f 30Hz
25. A shunt generator has an induced emf of 224V.
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k1(30) k 2 (900) = 99 ... (ii) When supplying a load, the terminal voltage
falls to 204 V. the armature and shunt field
Solving equations (i) and (ii)
resistances are 0.05 and 20, respectively..
k1 2.7 , k 2 0.02
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The load current, neglecting the armature
For f = 50 Hz, reaction, is
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(a) 376.0 A (b) 389.8 A
Ph = k1(50) = 2.7 50 = 135W
(c) 400.0 A (d) 410.2 A
2 2
Pe = k 2 (50) = (0.02) 50 = 50 W
Ans. (b)
24. If a transformer is designed for maximum Sol. The shunt generator equivalent circuit is
efficiency at rated current and voltage, the full-
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shown below
load copper loss will be
(a) much less than the core loss Ish IL
(b) much greater than the core loss
(c) equal to the core loss R t= 204 V
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Ra
(d) not definable by these given parameters R sh
Eb
Ans. (c)
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The primary and secondary number of turns (a) 2190V (b) 2170V
are, respectively
(c) 2150V (d) 2132V
(a) 1100 and 200
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Ans. (d)
(b) 550 and 100
Sol. During short circuit,
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(c) 275 and 75
(d) 184 and 33 Vsc = 60 V
Vsc 60
Zeq. =
4 Weber Isc = 4 = 15
Bmax = 1.2 10
cm2
IE
V1 1100
T1 = 4.44f = Xeq. 13.63
max 4.44 50 0.027
For full load, high voltage side current is I=
T1 = 183.5 184 turns 10A
Load voltage, when referred to hv side, will
V2 200
T2 = 4.44f = be equal to 2000 V
max 4.44 50 0.027
Voltage applied to hv terminals is nearly Sol.
equal to Electrochemical breakdown in a dielectric
occurs at hi gh t emperature. To av oi d
V1 = V2 + I.req cos Ixeq sin
electrochemcial breakdown, the dielectric
material should not be operated at high
= 2000 (10)(6.25)(0.8) (10)(13.63)(0.6)
temperature.
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V1 = 2131.78 Al so el ec t rochem i cal break down i n a
dielectric is accelerated by humidity.
30. Which of the following are the properties of
TE
V1 2132 V
Polytetrafluoroethyene?
28. During short-circuit test of a transformer, core
1. Extreme heat resistant
losses are negligible because
2. Low resistance to most chemical reagents
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(a) the current on the secondary side is rated
current 3. Excellent insulating properties over a wide
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range of temperature
(b) the voltage on the secondary side is zero
4. Non-hygroscopicity
(c) the voltage applied on the primary side is
low Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(d) full-load current is not supplied to the
transformer (a) 1, 2 and 3
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(b) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
(c) 1, 2 and 4
Sol. The core losses, i.e. eddy current and
(d) 2, 3 and 4
hysteresis loss are proportional to V 2 and
Ans. (b)
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V1.6 respectively..
Sol.
During short circuit test, the voltage applied
to the transformer is low, so the core losses Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTTE) or teflon
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are very low as compared to their full load 1. PTFE is extremely heat resistant (upto
v al ues. S o t hey are assum ed t o be 260°C).
negligible. 2. PTEE has outstanding chemcial resistance
29. Electrochemical breakdown in a dielectric i.e. being inert to most chemicals.
occurs at 3. PTFE has an excellent insulating properties
over a wide range of temperature upto
(a) very low temperatures only
250°C.
(b) very high temperatures only 4. PTFE is a non-hygroscopic material unlike
(c) very high temperatures concurrent with other plastics.
high humidity of the surroundings 31. For elements of the iron group, the net orbital
(d) very low temperatures concurrent with dipole moment in the solid state is
ambient humidity above 50% (a) Zero (b) 10 – 20
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orbital dipole moments. This is because the
incompletely filled shell in such atoms lies Non-magnetic medium have no magnetic
near the surface of the periphery of the atom susceptibility to magnetic fields.
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on account of which there are strong 33. Which of the following represent the properties
interacting forces with the neighbouring of carbon nanotubes ?
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atom.
1. High electrical conductivity
32. Which of the following statements are correct
2. Very high tensile strength
in respect of magnetic materials with magnetic
3. High thermal conductivity
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susceptibility ? 4. Low thermal expansion coefficient.
H
Select the correct answer using the code given
1. is dimensionless below.
2. The relative permeability of the medium (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
equals 1 . (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Ans. (d)
Tensile strength of CNT is very high upto
Sol. 63,000 MPa.
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(c) 4% (d) 5%
(a) A horizontal line
Ans. (d)
(b) A vertical line
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Sol.
(c) A sinusoidal signal
Error while measuring 5A current (d) A spot at the centre of the screen
Ans. (b)
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1
= 25 0.25A Sol.
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100
Since sinusoidal voltage signal is applied to
Reading will be ( 5 ± 0.25) A the vertical deflection plate of CRO and no
sim ul taneous si gnal i s appli ed t o the
horizontal deflection plate, then,
0.25
So, limiting error = 100% x = 0, y = Am sin t (Let)
5
M
y
= ±5%
35. A variable reluctance tachometer has 180 teeth
on its rotor. The speed of the shaft on which
x
it is mounted is 1200 r.p.m. The frequency of
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R
source, 3 known resistors, a resistor whose
2. Two-port network parameters
value is to be measured and a null detector.
Which of the following is not a source of errors 3. Amplifier gain and phase shift
in a Wheatstone bridge ?
TE
4. Harmonic distortion
(a) Limiting errors of the known resistors which of the above are correct ?
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(b) Poor sensitivity of the null detector (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Fluctuations in the power supply voltage (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(d) Thermal e.m.f.s in the bridge circuit.
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Ans. (b)
Ans. (c) Sol.
Sol.
T he v ect o r v ol t m et er i s basi cal l y an
Foll owing are the sources of error i n instrument used to measure amplitude and
wheatstone bridge: phase. Ho wev er i t can be used f or
M
R
Ish
G 146 M7
S Input C
Rsh MS B
TE
D
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D
M3
B
AS
Hence, required shunt resistance, G
Input C
M2
V 0.2
Rsh = I 3 Input B
sh 100 110
M1
Input A
M
200
=
99 As can be seen in the above diagram, only
M2 and M3 are the two transistors where
= 2.02 there is a potential difference between
source and bulk. So 2-NMOS transistors
41. In a 3-input CMOS NAND gate, the substrate
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R
unambiguous sensing of the shaft position,
(c) Vibration transducer
one employs a/an
(d) Displacement transducer
(a) Octal code
TE
Ans. (b) (b) BCD code
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Sol. (c) Binary Gray code
(d) Natural binary code
Unbonded strain gauge is mainly used in
displacement transducer. Ans. (c)
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44. A displacement of 12.5 mm results in a Sol. Requirement
secondary voltage of 5 V in an LVDT. If the Angular position of shaft is to be converted
then secondary voltage is 3.2 V, the absolute into digital information.
value of the corresponding displacement would
be It means analog data must be converted into
digital data.
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(a) 4 mm (b) 6 mm
Code wheel converts quantized data into
(c) 8 mm (d) 10 mm
coded form.
Ans. (c) for unambiguous sensing of the shaft position.
Sol. Binary gray codes are most suited.
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12.5 3.2 R 1
s2 s = 0
d2 = L LC
5
Putting the value, x(t) = 2r (t + 5) – 4 r(t) + 2r (t – 5)
40 106 1
s2 s = 0 L[r(t)] =
0.2 0.2 100 s2
s2 + 200s + 5 × 104 = 0
e5s
R
L[r(t + 5)] =
n = 5 102 rad/sec. s2
TE
L[r(t – 5)] =
s2
200 1
= Laplace transform of x(t)
5 100 2 5
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Since, 1 2e5s 4 2e5s
L[x(t)] = X(s) =
s2
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The system is under-damped.
47. If x(t) is as shown in the figure, its Laplace 48. The value of critical current density in a
transform is superconductor depends upon
1. Temperature
x(t) 2. Magnetic field strength
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10 3. Penetration depth
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
t
–5 0 5
S
Ans. (d)
Sol.
R
Now using Maxwell’s equation C = 10 × 10–6
B o J = 10 F
TE
x/ L
JC Jo e 50. In a two-elem ent series network, the
instantaneous voltages across the elements
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J = current density are
Hence, JC also depends on the penetration
sin314 t and 3 2 sin 314 t 45
depth.
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The resultant voltage across the combination
49. The maximum current in a series R-L-C
is expressed as Vcos(314t + ). Then the
network with variable frequency excitation is
1 A, when the applied voltage is 10V. The values of V and are
inductance has a value of 0.1 H. The Q-factor (a) 5 and 36.8° (b) 3.5 and 36.8°
at the maximum current is 10. Then the value
(c) 5 and –53.2° (d) 3.5 and –53.2°
of C is
M
Ans. (a)
(a) 0.01 F (b) 0.1 F
Sol. V1 = 1sin(314 t)
(c) 1.0 F (d) 10 F
V2 = 3 2 sin 314 450
S
Ans. (d)
Taking voltage V1 as reference
Sol. The resistance of the circuit can be found as,
V1 = 1 0
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V = IR (at resonance)
10 V2 = 3 2 45
R= 10
1 Total voltage, V = V1 + V2
Quality factor is given by
= 1 0 3 2 45
0L
Q= = 5 36.87
R
V = 5cos(314 t + 36.87°)
QR 10 10
0 = = 1000
L 0.1
51. The voltage transfer characteristics as shown
in the figure will relate to a Vi
D + Vi D Vo
Vo RL V
o Vi 0 OFF 0
– Vi 0 ON Vi
R
Vi
0
Vo
TE
1
e=
op
Sl
1. Voltage regulator
Vi
2. Half-wave rectifier
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3. Full-wave rectifier (iii) The transfer characteristic curve of a FWR
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which of the above is/are correct ? is (considering centre tapped and ideal diode)
Ans. (a) Vi Vo
M
+ + Vi D1 D2 Vo
Vi +
– Vz RL Vo
– – Vi 0 OFF ON Vi
Vi 0 ON OFF Vi
IE
For Vi Vz ; ZD is ON ; Vo Vz
Vo Vi
For Vi Vz ; ZD is OFF ; Vo Vi
Sl Vo
Vo op 1
e =
= e
–1 S l op
Vz
Vi
Vz Vi
Hence, option (a) is correct.
R
Ans. (c) Lower cut off Higher cut off
frequency frequency
TE
VCC
At higher frequency range internal capacitance
RC
offects the gain
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R1 Cte
Cb
53. A sample of germanium is made p-type be
Cce addition of indium at the rate of one indium
Rs C be atom for every 2.5 × 108 germanium atoms.
Sol. RL
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R2 Given, ni = 2.5 × 1019 /m3 at 300 K and the
Re
Vs Ce number of germanium atoms per m 3 = 4.4 ×
1028. What is the value of np?
(a) 3.55 × 1018/m3 (b) 3.76 × 1018/m3
Internal capacitances : (c) 7.87 × 1018/m3 (d) 9.94 × 1018/m3
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capacitance
1 2.5 × 108
Cc = Coupling capacitance (or) collector
? 4.4 × 1028
capacitance
Concentration of p-type impurities
At lower frequency range external capacitance
28
effects the gain 4.4 10
=
At higher frequency range internal capacitance 2.5 108
offects the gain = 1.76 × 1020 atom
hence ans (c) is correct We know
R
hie 1 k, hfe 30, hfe 0 Nyquist rate
f max =
2
hoe 20 106 , and RL 2.5 K
TE
The transistor is used in a single stage CE 1 1
Nyquist rate =
amplifier. The voltage gain and power gain, Conversion time 200 10 6
respectively, are
(a) 75 and 1750 (b) 25 and 2250 1
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f max = 2.5kHz
(c) 75 and 2250 (d) 25 and 1750 400 10 6
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Ans. (c) 56. In case of high pass filter, the transfer function
should be with
Sol. Given data
1. 1 pole and 1 zero
hie = Rb = 1 k
2. 2 poles and 2 zeroes
hfe = = 30 = Ai 3. 2 poles and 1 zero
M
Ans. (d)
R
Voltage gain (A V) = c
Rb Sol. Transfer function of HPF :
IE
RCS
2.5k 1st order HPF : H(s) =
= 30 1 RCS
1k
Zero : s = 0
= 30 (2.5)
1
= 75 Pole : s = –
RC
Power gain = A v AI
= (30) (75) ps2
2nd order HPF : H(s) =
= 2250 s2 ab c
55. An ADC has a total conversion time of 200 zero : s = 0, s = 0
s . What is the highest frequency that itss
pole : 2 poles
analog input should be allowed to contain?
57. Consider the following opinions regarding the 58. A resistance strain gauge is used to measure
advantage and disadvantage of a Mealy stress of steel which is stressed to 1200 kg/
model: cm2. If the gauge factor is 2.5 and the Young’s
1. Advantage: Less number of states (hence modulus of steel is 2 × 10 6 kg/cm 2 the
less hardware) percentage change in resistance of the gauge
is
Disadvantage: Input transients are directly
conveyed to output (a) 0.05% (b) 0.10%
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2. Advantage: Output remains stable over (c) 0.15% (d) 0.25%
entire clock period Ans. (c)
Disadvantage: Input transients persist for
TE
Sol.
long duration at output
stress
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Which of the above is/are correct? Since Young’s modulus, Y =
strain
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 stress
strain =
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Y
Ans. (a)
Sol. 1200
=
2 10 6
Mealy model
= 6 × 10–4
R / R
Gauge factor G f =
M
l / l
Output
Output
Inputs
Decoder R l
Next = G f ×
State Memory R l
Decoder Element
= G f × strain
S
= 2.5 × 6 × 10–4
= 15 × 10–4
So, percentage change is resistance,
IE
R
× 100 = 15 × 10–4 × 100
The output of mealy machine is a function R
of present state as well as present input, so = 15 × 10–2
output does not remain stable over entire = 0.15%
clock. 59. In a 4-stage ripple counter, the propagation
Input changes may affect the output of the delay of a flip flop is 30 ns. If the pulse width
circuit so input transient are conveyed to the of the strobe is 30 ns, the maximum frequency
output. at which the counter operates reliably is nearly
It require less number of states for (a) 9.7 MHz (b) 8.4 MHz
implementing same function. (c) 6.7 MHz (d) 4.4 MHz
Ans. (c)
TCLK
Sol. (tpd)FF
n
1 J Q 1 J Q 1 J Q 1 J Q
0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3
1 1
(tpd)FF|min =
1
K0 Q0
1
K1 Q1
1
K2 Q2
1
K3 Q3 n fCLK 10 10MHz = 10 nsec
R
CLK
61. In a master slave JK flip-flop
TCLK n(tpd)FF + Tstrobe
(a) both master and slave are positive edge-
TE
TCLK = Clock interval = ? triggered
(tpd)FF = Propagation delay of 1 FF = 30 nsec (b) both master and slave are negative edge-
n = number of flip flop = 4 triggered
Tsrobe = width of store signal = 30 nsec (c) master is positive edge triggered and slave
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is negative edge triggered
TCLK 4 × (30) nsec + 30 nsec
AS
(d) master is negative edge triggered and
1 slave is positive edge triggered
f CLK
120 30 10 9 Ans. (c)
(f CLK)max = 6.66 × 106 = 6.66 MHz Sol. Master slave JK flip flop is a way to avoid
60. For what minimum value of propagation delay the race around problem.
M
in each filp-flop will a 10 bit ripple counter skip A master slave JK flip flop is a combination
a count, when it is clocked at 10 MHz? of two clocked latches, the first is called master
(a) 5 ns (b) 10 ns and the second is called slave.
(c) 20 ns (d) 40 ns The master is positively clocked and the
S
R
Oscillator Sol. WIENER KHINCHIN THEOREM :
States that autocorrelation function of a wide
Phase detector is responsible for PLL to sense stationary random process is the
TE
operate in lock mode. inverse Fourier Transform of power spectral
density.
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PLL is said to be operated in lock mode
when frequency of FM input and VCO output Ruu( )
F.T.
S ()
uu
is same.
Ruu( ) = K e3
Phase detector recognizes f requency
AS
changes between the input and VCO signal.
K 2 3
Suu( ) =
( 2 3 2 )
63. Consider the following statements for signal
flow graph:
6K
1. It represents linear as well as non linear Suu
M
9 2
systems.
2. It is not unique for a given system.
a 2a
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Note : e t
F.T.
a 2
2
Sol.
periodic signal is
The signal flow graph approach is valid for
(a) 126 (b) 32
linear as well as non-linear systems.
One system can have different signal flow (c) 252 (d) 64
graph according to the order in which the Ans. (a)
equations are used to define the variable
written on the left hand side. So it is not Sol. A discrete time signal is
unique for a given system.
n n 1
64. The power spectral density of the stationary x[n] = cos sin
9 7 2
noise process N(t) having auto correlation Ruu
( ) = Ke
3
is x[n] = x1[n] + x2[n]
n B 25 4 29
x1[n] = cos
9
3 26 29 cos AB
2
N1 = K
0 3
cos AB
R
26 29
2
N1 = K 18K
/9 AB 83.7
TE
N1 18 for K = 1 67. When a transmission line section is first short
circuited, and then open circuited it shows input
n 1 impedances of 25 and 100 respectively..
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x2[n] = sin The characteristic impedance of the
7 2
transmission line is
AS
2 (a) 25 (b) 50
N2 = K
0
(c) 75 (d) 100
2 Ans. (b)
N2 = K
/7
Sol. Given
M
N2 = 14 K
Z sc 25
N2 14 for K = 1
Z oc 100
N = LCM (N1 N2) = 126
S
2
Z sc Z oc Z o
66. The angle AB between the vectors A =
2
3a x 4a y a z and B = 2a y 5az is nearly Z o 25 100
IE
x(t) = 20 cos 2 106 t 15 sin 2 100 t 3 2
1
R
2 21
Comparing with :
2
x(t) = A c cos c t sin m t 2
9
TE
15
2
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> 0.471
9
Bandwidth of FM signal = 1 (2 f max)
R
structure and not to filter type. (2 is incorrect.) 6 samples
per rotation
m2
FIR filters have linear phase characteristics. m3
TE
(3 is correct) m4
Since these are re-cursive, there is no 72. 1 Mpbs BPSK receiver detects waveform S1
feedback. (t) = A cos 0 t or S2(t) = A cos 0 t with a
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71. A signal is band limited to 3.6 kHz and three matched filter. If A = 1 mV, then the average
other signals are band limited to 1.2 kHz each. bit error probability assuming single sided noise
AS
These signals are to be transmitted by means power expected density N0 = 10–11 W/Hz is
of time division multiplexing. If each signal is nearly
sampled at its Nyquist rate, then the speed of
(a) Q(0.63) (b) Q(0.16)
the commutator (by assuming 6 samples per
rotation) is
(a) 864000 rpm (b) 144000 rpm
(c) Q 0.1 (d) Q 0.3
M
R
of 20 Hz bandwidth and if we use 3 bits/smaple log2 4
to represent each voltage sample, the bit rate
is = 5 MHz
TE
75. The value of A; where
(a) 1.9 103 bits/s (b) 19 103 bits/s
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A 3xya x xa y xyza z
(c) 2.16 103 bits/s (d) 21.6 10 3
bits/s
at a point (2, –2, 2) is
Ans. (c)
(a) –10 (b) –6
AS
Sol. Given
(c) 2 (d) 4
Number of output = 18 = N
maximum frequency of 1 output Ans. (a)
f max = 20 Hz
Sol. A 3xyaˆ x xaˆ y xyzaˆ z
samples
M
x y z
Bit rate : Rb = N × n × f s
Rb = 18 × 3 × 40
A 3y xy
IE
(a) 72.5 MHz (b) 67.5 MHz (a) 8 + e–t –4e–2t (b) 8 + e–t +4e–2t
(c) 25.0 MHz (d) 5.0 MHz (c) 8e–t –8e–2t (d) e–t –4e–2t
Ans. (d) Ans. (c)
Sol. Unit impulse response of a system : the breakaway point is
h(t) = 16 e–2t – 8 e–t (a) – 0.23 (b) – 0.42
Unit step response (c) – 1.47 (d) – 3.47
ds t Ans. (b)
= h(t) Sol.
R
dt
t
k
s(t) = h t dt G(s)·H(s) =
s s 1s 2
TE
1+G(s)·H(s)= 0
16 e2t 8 e t
s(t) =
2 1 k
1 = 0
s(t) = 8 e–t – 8 e–2t s s 1s 2
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s t 8 e t 8 e2t k = –s (s + 1) (s + 2) = – (s3 + 3s2 + 2s)
AS
dk
77. The low-frequency asymptote in the Bode plot = – (3s2 + 6s + 2)
ds
of
for breakaway point,
6(s2 10s 100)
G(s) 2 dk
s (50s2 15s 1) = 0
M
ds
has a slope of 3s2 + 6s + 2 = 0
(a) –10 dB/dec (b) –20 dB/dec s = – 0.42, – 1.57
(c) –40 dB/dec (d) –60 dB/dec s = – 1.57 won’t lie on RL. (As the total
S
6 s 10s 100
2 s = – 0.42
G(s) = 79. Consider the stability of the system shown
s 50s 15s 1
2 2
in the figure when analyzed with a positive
Low frequency assymptote slope depends real value of gain k in
upon the poles or zeros at origin. As, the 1. open-loop configuration
number of poles at origin is two, so the low
2. closed-loop configuration
frequency slope of bode plote
= 2 (–20)
R(s) + K(s + 1) C(s)
= –40 dB/decade. 2
– s (s+2)
78. For the open-loop system
K
G(s) H(s) = s(s 1)(s 2)
Which of the following statements is correct? stable.
(a) Both 1 and 2 are stable 80. The open-loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of
the Bode plot as shown in the figure is
(b) 1 is stable and 2 is unstable
(c) 1 is unstable and 2 is stable
–20 dB/dec
(d) Both 1 and 2 are unstable
Ans. (c) G(j) H(j) dBs –40 dB/dec
R
Sol.
2 20
+ k (s + 1) (r/s)
TE
2
– s (s + 2) –20 dB/dec
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Ks(s 2) K(s 20)
For the open loop configuration, trangular (a) (b)
AS
function s 20 s(s 2)
Sol.
poles s 0, 0, 2
As initial slope of bode plot is –20 dB/
As, there are repeated poles on origin, the decade, so transfer function will have a pole
open loop system is unstable. of order 1 at origin.
S
For the closed loop configuration, transfer The slope changes by a value of –20 dB/
function
decade at 2 radian/second, so there
G s will be a pole of order 1 at s = –2.
IE
=
1 G s H s The slope changes by a value of +20dB/
Characteristic equation is given by decade at 2 radian/second, so there
will be a zero of order 1 at s = – 20.
k s 1
CE: 1 0
s s 2
2 The correct transfer function will be
s3 + 2s2 + ks + k = 0 k s 20
Tf =
For above system to be stable, ss 2
R
Ks 2 Ks 2 Sol.
(a) 3 (b) 4
s s 1
1 1 R(s) C(s)
TE
10 10 – s1
+
Ks 2 Ks 2 –
(c) (d) 1
5 2
s s s1
1 1
10 10
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AS
Ans. (c)
Sol. 1
R(s) C(s)
The initial slope of Bode plot is +40 dB/ – + s 1
decade, so the transfer function will have
zero of order 2 at origin. 1
s 1
The slope of Bode plot changes by –100
M
TF =
s 105
2
ks
IE
or TF =
5
1 s
10
R(s)
1 C(s)
C(s) s
82. The closed-loop transfer function of the –
R(s)
system represented by the block diagram in
the figure is
+ C(s)
R(s) 1
s+1 1
– C s s 1
R s 1 s 1
1 + 1
s
s+1
–
83. In a unity feedback control system, the open- 84. Settling time is the time required for the system
loop transfer function is response to settle within a certain percentage
of
K(s 2) (a) maximum value
G(s) =
s2 (s2 7s 12)
(b) final value
Then the error constants KP, Kv and Ka, (c) input amplitude value
respectively, are
R
(d) transient error value
K K Ans. (b)
(a) , and (b) 0, 0 and
6 6 Sol.
TE
Settling time is defined as the time for the
K K
response to reach, and stay within, 2% of
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(c) , 0 and 0 (d) , and
6 6 its final value.
Ans. (a) 85. A unity feedback system is shown in the figure.
Sol. What is the magnitude of K so that the system
AS
is under-damped?
k s 1
G(s) = 2 s 2 7s 12 C(s)
s R(s) + K
s(s + a)
–
For a unity feed back systerm, k p, kv and ka
are given by
M
kp = lim G s
s0
k v = lim s G s
s 0 a2
(a) K = 0 (b) K =
4
S
ka = lim s G s
2
s0
a2 a2
(c) K < (d) K >
k s 1 4 4
IE
kp = lim
s 0 s
2 s2 7s 12 Ans. (d)
Sol.
k s 1
k v = slim s The characteristic equation is given by
0 s
2 s2 7s 12
k
CE : 1 0
2 k s 2 s s a
ka = lim s
s 0 s
2 s2 7s 12
s2 + as + k = 0
2k k Com pari n g wi t h standard equat i on
=
12 6 2 2
s 2ns n 0
n = k R(s) + 25 C(s)
s(s + 6)
–
a
=
2 k
R
For underdamped system,
(a) 0.33 s (b) 1.33s
<1
TE
(c) 2.33 s (d) 3.33 s
a Ans. (b)
<1
2 k Sol.
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Characteristic equation is given by
a
k >
AS
2 25
CE: 1 + = 0
s s 6
a2 s2 + 6s + 25 = 0
k>
4
Com pari n g wi t h standard equat i on
2 2
86. The transfer function G(s) of a PID controller s 2ns n 0 ,
M
is
(a) K1 + K2s + K3s2 n = 5,
6
K2 = 0.6
(b) K 1 K 3s 2 5
s
S
4 4
ts = 5 0.6 1.33 sec
n
(d) K 1s K 2s2 K 3s3
88. A unit-step input to a first-order system G(s)
Ans. (b) yields a response as shown in the figure. This
Sol. can happen when the values of K and a,
respectively, are
The transfer function of a PID controller is
k2 5.0
G(s) = k 1 k3 s
s slope at origin
c(t) R
87. For a closed-loop system shown in the figure, G(s) = ——
s+a
what is the settling time for ±2% settling of 0.1s
the steady-state condition, assuming unit-step 0 t
input?
(a) 10 and 10 (b) 5 and 10
1
(c) 10 and 5 (d) 5 and 5 a =
Ans. (*)
1
Sol. a = 10 sec
0.1
None of the given option is correct.
89. The open-loop transfer function of a sysrtem
is
R
k
Given transfer function, G(s) =
s a 10K
Step response C(s) = G(s)·R(s) 1 10s
TE
k When the system is converted into a closed-
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= loop with unity feedback, the time constant of
s s a
the system is reduced by a factor of 20. The
value of K is
k 1 1
=
a s s a
AS
(a) 1.9 (b) 1.6
(c) 1.3 (d) 1.0
taking inverse laplace transform,
Ans. (a)
c(t) = 1 e
k at
Sol
a
Open loop transfer function (OLTF)
M
dc t at
= ke 10k
dt =
(1 10s)
dc t Comparing with standard equation, i.e.
at t = 0, slope 50
S
dt
k1
k·eo = 50 1 s1
IE
k = 50
1 = 10
Again, the response may be assumed to
attain 63.2% of value at t = 0.1 sec. By using feedback, new time constant,
so, = 0.1 sec 10
2 = 0.5
20
k
The response, c(t) = 1 eat
a Closed loop transfer function (CLTF)
The standard response is 10k
=
10k 1 10s
c(t) = k1 1 e
t/
Sol. The bode plot of a lag compensator is of
10k form
=
10
10k 1 1 s
10k 1
|GH|
Comparing with standard equation, i.e.
R
k
1 s2
TE
10
2 = 0.5
10k 1
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10
= 10 k + 1
0.5
AS
The bode plot of a lag lead compensator is
k = 1.9 of form
90. The pole-zero configuration of the transfer
|GH|
f unction of a com pensator and the
corresponding Bode plot are shown in the
figure. The configuration is indicative of
M
j
× ×
p z z p
TF =
1 16s 1 0.1s
The bode plot of a lead compensator or PD
controller is a form
IE
GH |GH|
log
+20 dB/dec
-20 dB/dec
R
(c) 80 ns (d) 28 ns V 1 V ˆ 1
E arˆ a aˆ
r r r sin
Ans. (d) 1 10
sin cos aˆ
r sin r 2
TE
Sol. Average access time = hit × 10 + min × 100
= 0.8 × 10 + (1 – 0.8) × 100
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= (8 + 20) nsec 2 10
E 10 3 sin cos arˆ 3 cos cos aˆ
= 28 nsec r r
1 10 sin
92. A program structure that permits repeated sin aˆ
AS
r sin 2
r
operati on of a particular sequence of
instructions is known as
20 10 10
(a) subroutine E 3 sin cos arˆ 3 cos cos aˆ 3 sin aˆ
r r r
(b) loop
20 10 10
M
(c) module E 3 sin cos arˆ 3 cos cos aˆ 3 sin aˆ
(d) microprogramming r r r
Ans. (a) D oE (Electric flux density)
Sol. A program structure that permits repeated
S
10
V= 2
sin cos
r 2
0
the electric flux density at 2, ,0 is
2
D 22.1arˆ PC/m 2
(a) 32 1ar pC/m 2 (b) 22 1ar pC/m 2
(c) 10 2 ar pC/m2 (d) 5 8 ar pC/m 2
94. In an n-turn coil, the flux through each turn is 3. In an anisotropic medium, D and E have
(t3–4t) mWb. The magnitude of the induced the same direction
e.m.f. in the coil at t = 5s is 7.1 V. the number 4. For certain crystalline medium, varies
of turns in the coil is with the direction of E.
(a) 10 (b) 100
Which of the above statements are correct?
R
(c) 121 (d) 1000
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (b) (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
TE
Sol.
Ans. (c)
Flux through each turn
Sol. For an isotropic medium, the dielectric
t 4t
3 constant is same in all directions or is
m Weber
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constant.
t 4t 10
AS
3 3
Weber D E
Magnitude of induced emf at t = 5 sec = 7.1V
then D and E will have same direction for
nd isotropic material.
emf
dt
For homogeneous medium (or ) does
M
A
Zo = 75 ZL = 120+f80 B
C
f
R
D
Maximum impedance : Zmax = Zo × VSWR
E
Zo F
TE
Minimum impedance : Zmin
VSWR
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1 v
VSW R f A B . C D .E F
1 v
Product of sum
Z Z o 120 j80 75
v L
AS
Z L Z o 120 j80 75
A
45 j80 B
v
195 j80
C
2 2 f
(45) (80) D
v 0.43
M
195 2 (80) 2 E
F
1 0.43
VSWR
1 0.43
98. In a certain material medium, a propagating
VSWR 2.5
S
R
Ans. (a)
1 Preflected
Electrostatics field has E v
2
r3 Sol.
Pincident
TE
Magnitude of induction as well as radiation
field is same 1 v
SWR
1 v
j t j r 2 jt j r
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Io dlsin e e j I dlsin e e
o
4 r 4 r 2 1 v
AS
1.5
1 v
2
r r 2 v 0.2
1
r
Preflected 2
M
R
Power density at receiver = 2
4d
(c) 8 5 GHz (d) 16 5 GHz
22.5Gdt
TE
= 4 Ans. (c)
15 103 2
Sol. Cut-off frequency of TEmn mode
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22.5Gdt 2 2
Power desnity v m n
4 15 10 3 2 fc
2 a b
AS
4 C 8
Gdt A et where, v C 3 10
2 r r
f 3 109 fc
v m
2 a
4
Gdt = 2.5 8
0.12 3 10 2 9
fc 16 10
2a
S
Gdt 1000
a 1.875 cm
IE
22.5 1000
For TE11 mode :
Power density =
15 103 2 4
v 1 1
fc 2
2
22,500 2 a b
= 4
15 103 2
a 2
For WR90 waveguide : aspect ratio
Power density = 2.5 × 10–5 b 1
Power received = Power density × Effective
area at receiver v a2
fc 1 2
= 2.5 × 10–5 × 0.5 2a b
103. For a 4-element broadside antenna array,
3 10 8
fc 2
1 4 equals
2 1.875 10
(a) sin (b) cos
fc 8 5 GHz
cot
R
102. During wave propagation in an air-filled (c) (d) sin
2
rectangular waveguide
1. wave impedance is never less than the Ans. (b)
TE
free-space impedance Sol. For total phase shift :
2. propagation constant is an imaginary
dcos
number
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3. TEM mode is possible if the dimensions For broadside array progressive phase shift
of the waveguide are properly chosen between current element is zero
AS
Which of the above are correct? 0
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Distance between respective element
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
d
Ans. (c) 2
M
f
104. The open-loop transfer function of a system
has two poles on the imaginary axis, one in
TE o
IE
R
system in right half plane.
= 4
For stability, z = 0,
TE
1 1
so NP1 New steady state error (ess ) 0.25
kv 4
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105. The steady-state error for a Type 0 system for
unit-step input is 0.2. In a certain instance, 106. Which one of the following refers to the
this error possibility was removed by insertion frequency k in the frequency response of
of a unity gain block. Thereafter, a unit ramp an FIR filter?
AS
was applied. The nature of the block and new
steady-state error in this changed configuration 16 8
(a) (k ) (b) (k )
will, respectively, be M M
(a) integrator; 0.25 (b) differentiator; 0.25
4 2
(c) integrator; 0.20 (d) differentiator; 0.20 (c) (k ) (d) (k )
M M
M
Ans. (a)
Ans. (d)
Sol. If steady state error to unit step input is e ss ,
and positional error constant is k p, then Sol. F requency sam pl i ng st ruct ure i s an
alternative structure for an FIR filter.
1
S
ess = 1 k
p To derive the frequency sampling structure,
we specify the desired frequency response
1 at a set of equally spaced frequenies given
IE
1 + kp =
0.2 by
kp = 4
2
k = k
kp = lim Gs Hs 4 M
s0
107. Three processors with their respective process
The error due to step input is made to zero,
IDs given by P1, P2 and P3, having estimated
so type of system would have increased.
completion time of 8 ms, 4 ms and 2 ms,
Hence we can say that the unity gain block
respectively, enter a ready queue together in
used is an integrator.
the order P1, P2 and P3. What is the average
Now, the open loop transfer function will turn time in the Round Robin Scheduling
become, Algorithm with time 2 ms?
(a) 10 ms (b) 15 ms MVI A, 04H
(c) 20 ms (d) 25 ms RRC
MOV B, A
Ans. (a)
RLC
Sol. Given process id and their completion time
R
is as follows : RLC
ADD B
Pr ocess Id P1 P2 P3
RCC
TE
Completion time 8 m sec 4 m sec 2 m sec
(a) 02H (b) 05H
Process enter in the ready queue in the (c) 15H (d) 25H
order P1 P2 P3 and round robin scheduling
Ans. (b)
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algorithm is used with time quanta 2 msec
Gantt chart is given below : Sol.
AS
CY 0
P1 P2 P3 P 1 P2 P1 P1
(1) MVIA, 04H
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 A= 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0
Waiting time of P 1 (2) RRC
= 0 + (6 – 2) + (10 – 8)
M
Initial = 0
= 0 + 4 + 2 = 6 msec
Final 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0
Waiting time of P 2 CY
(2 – 0) + (8 – 4) = 2 + 4 = 6 msec
S
Waiting time of P 3 A= 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0
14 10 6 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0
= 10 msec
3
(5) RLC
108. In the following 8085 assembly language
program, assume that the carry flag is initially Initial = 0
reset. What is the content of the accumulator CY 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0
after the execution of the program? Final = 0
Sol. I nt ernet is based on packet swi tched
A 08H
network, where small unit of data called
(6) ADDB packets are routed through network.
111. Which of the following statements is correct in
08 H
respect of TCP and UDP protocols?
02 H
A+ B =
0A H (a) TCP is connection-oriented, whereas UDP
is connectionless
R
(7) RRC (b) TCP is connectionless, whereas UDP is
connection-oriented
Initial = 0
(c) Both are connectionless
TE
CY 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0
Final = 0 (d) Both are connection-oriented
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Ans. (a)
0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1
Sol. TCP is connection oriented, so it is suitable
for highly reliable transmission whereas UDP
AS
A 05H
is suitable for fast and normal information
109. The technique for using one set of addresses transmission.
inside a network and remapping those 112. A fixed radar station transmits 100 kW at 3
addresses to a different set of addresses that GHz. The smallest ocean-going ship has a
are seen outside the local network on the radar cross-section of 200 m 2. The radar
antenna gain is 16 dB. If detection requires a
M
internet is called
minimum of 1 nW/m2 at the radar antenna,
(a) network address translation
the effective range of the radar is nearly
(b) address resolution
(a) 7.1 km (b) 8.4 km
(c) network address mapping
(c) 70.7 km (d) 84.0 km
S
R
Smin 3.16 1011 watt Noise temperature of LNA = 40 k.
1/ 4
Pt G2 2
TE
Rmax = 3
4 Smin
1 Receiving Feed Horn LNA
100 103 39.8 2 200 0.12 4 Antenna
Rmax =
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4 3 3.16 10 11
Te = 40 k
AS
1
316.808 106 4 T = Tant + Te
Rmax = 11 3
3.16 10 4
T = 40 k + 15 k = 55 k = 17.4 dBk
Rmax = (5.05 × 1015)1/4
G = 40 – 0.4 = 39.6 dB
Rmax = 8430 m
M
G dB
Rmax 8.4km G(dB) T(dBk) 39.6 17.4 22.2
T k
113. A receiving antenna with a gain of 40 dB looks
114. A company operating taxicabs communicates
at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K.
The loss between the antenna and LNA input from its central office with the help of an
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due to the feed horn is 0-4 dB, and the LNA antenna at the top of a 16 m tower. The
antenna on the taxicabs is 1.44 m above the
G ground. The communication distance between
has a noise temperature of 40 K. The value
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dis ta
Receiving antenna nce
Sol.
hr = 1.44m
Sol. LNA
The communication distance between the
Feed
Horn central office and taxicab :
d = 3.57 ht hr km
h 8 sin
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circular orbit, is 117. The orbital period of a satellite in a circular
(a) directly proportional to its mass orbit of 500 km above the Earth’s surface,
(b) directly proportional to the square root of taking mean radius of the Earth as 6400 km
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its mass and Kepler’s constant as 4 × 105 km3/s2 is
nearly
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(c) directly proportional to the square of its
mass (a) 1.6 hours (b) 2.4 hours
(d) independent of its mass (c) 3.2 hours (d) 6.4 hours
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Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
Sol. Linear velocity of a satellite
4 2 a3
Sol. T2 =
GM
v
r
42 a3
M
T2 =
M = mass of the earth
Velocity of satellite is independent of its mass a = (6400 + 500) km = 6900 km
116. For a system with a wavelength of 23.5 cm
and a depression angle of sin–1 0.94, the km3
= 4 105
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T2 = 3
(a) 2.8 cm (b) 3.1 cm 4 105 103
(c) 3.5 cm (d) 4.0 cm
42 6900 3
T2 =
Ans. (b) 4 105
Sol. Given = 23.5 cm T2 = (5694)2
depression angle = sin–1 (0.94) T = 5694 sec
According to Rayleigh criterion for Roughness
T 1.58 hour
A surface is considered smooth at or below at
height of h if. 118. What is/are the advantage(s) of step-index
mono-mode fibre optical cable?
1. Manufacturing process is simple Ans. (a)
2. Bandwidth of several GHz-km is possible Sol. Given set of processes and their burst time
3. Splicing is easier is as follows:
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Burst 10 29 3 7 12
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
time m sec m sec m sec m sec m sec
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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First Come First Served (FCFS)
Ans. (b)
Sol. For single mode step index fiber
1. Manufacturing process is complex
P1 P2 P3 P4 P5
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2. High bandwidth upto GHz -km is possible. t=0
10 39 42 49 61
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3. splicing is relatively less easier.
119. Consider the following set of processes :
Waiting time of P 1 = 0 msec
Pr ocess P1 P2 P3 P4 P5
Waiting time of P 2 = 10 msec
Burst time 10 ms 29 ms 3 ms 7 ms 12 ms
Waiting time of P 3 = 39 msec
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First Come Fi rst Serv e (FCF S), non- Waiting time of P 4 = 42 msec
preemptive Shortest Job First (SJF) and
Round Robin (RR) (quantum = 10 ms). Waiting time of P 5 = 49 msec
Scheduling Algorithms for this process set Average waiting time
would imply which of the following features?
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t= 0
10 20 23 30 40 50 52 61 n1 = 1.484
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Waiting time of P 2 c = ?
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= 10 + (40 – 20) + (52 – 50)
2
= 10 + 20 + 2 = 32 msec c = 2.5 NA
2.405
Waiting time of P 3 = 20 msec
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Waiting time of P 4 = 23 msec NA = n12 n22 0.486
Waiting time of P 5
2
= 30 + (50 – 40) = 30 + 10 = 40 msec c = × 2.5 × 0.486
2.405
Average waiting time
0 32 20 23 40 115 c 3.17 m
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23 m sec
5 5
Directions :
1. Average waiting of SJF scheduling
Each of the following thirty (3) items consists of two
= 13 msec
statements one labeled as statement I and the other
2. Av erage wai t i n g time of F CF S as statements II. Examine these two statemnts
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5 m core diameter and core cladding indices (d) Statement I is false but statement II is
true
of refraction 1.484 and 1.402 is nearly
121. Statement I :
Vo
The width of depletion layer of a P-N junction (V1 – V2) = A
v
is increased under reverse bias.
Statement II : V
(V1 – V2) = o A v
Junction breakdown occurs under reverse bias.
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Ans. (b) V1 – V 2 = 0
V1 = V2
Sol. When the reverse bias is applied the electrons
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at n-side will get pulled from junction region V2
to the terminal region of n-side and similarly –
Vo
the holes at p-side junction will get pulled V1
+
towards the terminal region of p-side. This
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results in increasing the depletion region width
This concept of both the terminals being at
from its initial width. It results in increasing
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same potential is due to ideal op-amp
the elctric field strength.
characteristics and not because of both the
When we apply the voltage increasingly across terminals connected to same point.
the reverse biased diode a point is reached Hence statement-I is true statement-II is
where the current increases rapidly this is false.
called junction breakdown.
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input terminals of an operational amplifier are Optocouplers are used to separate AC and
almost at the same potential. DC ground.
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Statement : II requlation,
Superposition theorem cannot be applied to
ideal current sources if these source are I2 (Req )2 cos I2 (Xeq )2 sin
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V.r. 100
connected in casecade. E2
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Ans. (d) So, we can say that change in secondary
Sol. Statement 1 is wrong two unequal current voltage is due to transformer impedance
sources can e connected in parallel and the i.e.(Req )2 j(Xeq )2 and the load current
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total current will be equal to the sum sources.
(I2 ) .
However, two equal current sources can’t be
connected in series. If the leading Pf is considered then
Statement 2 is true cascading two ideal
I2 (Re q )2 cos I2 .(Xeq )2 sin
sources will lead in open circuit of one source 100
V.R. = E2
if the other source is opened.
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Hence, superposition theorem will not apply. Hence, voltage regulation can be zero, for
125. Statement I : (R e q ) 2 cos = (Xeq )2 sin .
When a transformer is loaded there is a change
So, bot h stat em ents are correct and
in its secondary voltage expressed as a
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Statement II :
Series DC motors are used for cranes and
The change in secondary voltage is due to the locomotives.
transformer impednace and the load current.
Statement II :
The regulation could be zero for leading load
condition. Series DC motors provide high starting
torques, a requisite for such applications.
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
Sol. W hen transformer is loaded, there is a
change in its secondary voltage. Sol. The torque speed characteristic of dc series
motor is given by
Transformer voltage regulation is given by,
Torque
128. Statement I :
If a squirrel cage motor is started at full rated
voltage, the power supply could be damaged.
Statement II :
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For squirrel cage induction motors, starting
current is high and power factor at starting is
low.
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Speed
Ans. (d)
So, we can say that, the dc series motor Sol. For squirrel cage induction motors, starting
provides high starting torque. So dc series current is high and power factor at starting
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motor are more suited for loads having high is low.
inertia, such as locomotives and cranes.
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Due to high current, there may be a dip in
Both statements are correct, and statement supply voltage, as line impedance drop will
Ii is the correct explanation of statement-I. be high at high current.
127. Statement I : Extremely high starting time may also lead
to high heating of rotor and supply, but it is
An induction motor always runs at a speed
highly unlikely that power supply might get
less than its synchronous speed.
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damaged.
Statement II : So statement I is incorrect and statement II
is correct.
Synchronous speed of induction motor
depends on the frequency of supply and If the sequirrel cage motor is started at full
S
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So, statement (I) is incorrect and statement and other junction is called the detecting
(II) is TRUE. junction.
130. Statement I : Hence, statement (I) is TRUE and statement
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(II) is also TRUE but statement (II) is not
The break statement provides an early exit
correct explanation.
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from for, while do/while and switch structures,
132. Statement I :
and the execution continues with the first
statement after the structure. A salient-pole rotor placed in a magnetic field
can produce an emf. proportional to the speed
Statement II :
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of the rotating machine because fo its variable
The continue statement, used in while, for do/ reluctance characteristic.
while loop, skips the remaining statement in
Statement II :
the body of that structure, and proceeds with
the next iteration of the loop. The above device is essentially a frequency
tachometer using a suitable pulse shaping
Ans. (b) circuit and an electronic counter.
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quantity and not the actual value. gate is called ‘fan-out’.
134. Statement I : Statement II :
Piezoelectric transducers have very good ‘Fan-out’ is due to the current sourcing when
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frequency response. the output is high, and is due to the current
Statement II : sinking when the output is low. Thus two
Piezoelectric transducers can be used for different values for ‘fan-out’ may result.
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measurement of both dynamic and static Ans. (a)
phenomena.
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Ans. (c)
ICH IIH
Sol.
Piezoelectric transducers are mainly used for
measurement of displacement. However,
they can be used for measurement of force,
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R
PROM contains a fixed AND array and a This depends on the type of processor.
programmable OR array. 140. Statement I :
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Ans. (d) On executing the HLT instruction, the
microprocessor enters into a half state and all
Sol. PLA contains programmable AND gate and
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the buses are tri-stated.
programmable OR GATE
Statement II :
Input Programmable Programmable Output On executing the HLT instruction, the
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AND GATE OR GATE microprocessor is disconnected from the
system bus till the reset is pressed.
PRO M contains f i xed AND G ate and
Programmable OR Gate Ans. (d)
Sol. After the execution of HLT instruction bus is
Input Fixed AND Programmable Output
GATE OR GATE in high impedance state.
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Ans. (a)
Stack is organized as 8-bit storage in the
Sol. The last item to be inserted into a stack is microprocessor.
the first one to be deleted from it. Stack
pointer of the stack is used to track it. Statement II :
Arithmetic and logic operations can be directly Sol. Stack is a 8-bit storage.
performed with I/O data.
Stack is used f or temporary storage of 144. Statement I :
memory location. The transportation lag in a system can be
easily handled by using Bode plot.
Both statements are correct. II is not an
explanation of I. Statement II :
142. Statement I : The magnitude plot is unaffected and only the
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Static RAM memory devices retain data for phase plot shifts by T rad due to the
as long as power is supplied. presence of e–st.
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Statement II : Ans. (a)
SRAM is used when the size of read/write Sol. The transportation delay transfer function is
memory required is large. given by
T(s) = e–sT
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Ans. (c)
Sol. Static RAM memory is a random access Let, if initially, the transfer function was,
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memory that retains data bits in its memory G 1(s) = G(s)
as long as power is being supplied
with G1 = G
SRAM provides faster access to data and
more expensive than DRAM. SRAM is used
for a computer cache memory. and G1 = 1
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143. Statement I :
G 2 = 1
The stator winding of a control transformer in
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a synchro pair has a high impedance per Now, with transportation delay,
phase
G 2(s) = G 1(s) · T(s)
Statement II :
G 2(s) = G(s) · e–sT
The rotor of the control transf ormer is
cylindrical in shape. G2 = G as esT 1
Ans. (c)
G 2 = 1 T
Sol. The stator winding of a control transformer
in a synchro pair has high resistance to limit So, the bode magnitude plot is unaffected
starting current. while the bode phase plot just shifts down
The rotor of control transformer has salient by – T .
poles.
Sp, transportation lag in the system can I is incorrect.
easily be handled by Bode plot. Pheripherals can be analog as well
145. Statement I :
II is incorrect.
Isolated I/O method isolates memory and I/O
147. Statement I :
addresses.
The internal interrupt is initiated by some
Statement II :
exceptional condition caused by the program
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In isolated I/O method, memory and I/O itself rather than by an external event.
interfaces have their own individual address
Statement II :
space.
External interrupt depends on external
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Ans. (d) conditons that are independent of the program
Sol. In isolated I/O method, peripherals are being executed at the time.
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accessed using the GP10 pins. In memory
Ans. (d)
mapped I/O peripherals are accessed in the
same fashion as memory is accessed. So Sol. Internal interrupts can be caused by various
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there is no such I/O addresses in Isolated I/ modules inside an embedded system and
O method. not by the program.
I is incorrect.
I is incorrect. External interrupts depend on external
conditions and are independent of the
I/O interface are accessed using GPIO program.
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registers. II is correct.
148. Statement I :
II is correct.
146. Statement I : Swapping is sometimes called ‘roll-out/roll-in’.
Ans. (c) Sol. When a process is not execute for long time
then that process rollout and active process
Sol. Peripherals can be various sensors such as
is rollin in the memory for execution. This
a temperature sensor, pressure sensor etc.
mechanism enable the interleaved execution
These do not come under electromechanical of the process. So multiple processes can
or electromagnetic devices execute concurrently. So swapping is utilized
But Peripherals are electromechanical and / in system designed to support time sharing.
or electromagnetic devices also.
149. Statement I : Ans. (d)
MS DOS and Windows products have always
used implicit mounting when an attempt is first Sol. Virtual memory is designated virtual as the
made to access the media. memory management system makes CPU
realize that it has large size main memory at
Statement II :
its disposal while in reality only a limited
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Unix has traditionally used explicit mount amount of main memory is available.
command to access the removable medium.
It uses some space of hard disk as an
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Ans. (b) extension of primary storage.
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Virtual memory is designated virtual because So I is incorrect, II is correct.
there is no such memory inside the computer.
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Statement II :
Virtual memory uses some space of the hard
disk as an extension of the primary storage of
the computer.
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S
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