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OSS 101

06
Bachelor's Preparatory Programme (B.P.P.)
(For Non 10+2)
Term-End Examination
June, 2014

OSS-101 : Preparatory Course in Social Sciences

Time : 2 hours Maximum Marks : 50

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OSS- 1 01
General Instructions :

Preparatory Course in Social Sciences (OSS-101) Questions 1— 50

(i) AU questions are compulsory, each of which carries one mark.

(ii) Each question has four alternatives, one of which is correct. Write the Sl. No. of your
correct alternative/answer below the corresponding question number in the answer
sheet and then mark the rectangle for the same number in that column. If you find that
none of the given alternatives is correct then write 0 and mark in column 0.

(iii) Do not waste time in reading the whole question paper. Go on solving questions one by
one. You may come back to the left out questions, if you have time at the end.

OSS-101 2
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0-*F1 Sf011eh Ffrrff N77 #,0 Ad 3th- 14--(- 3#t 5,011;17 anZiff 741 elq(141
/eVIIs 137 371sT r17 ik :ft OWei ffeqe* o Ic'vs7 ath- chicv o
cvI' /

Tro4 FFizi 77ff ate( kw* 7* mTiv cmd gif 27ft w-f
(iii) wq--ta
eg W geno <,11 Vi What * /

OSS-101 3
1. Which of the following is the subject-matter of Social Sciences ?
(1) Atoms, molecules
(2) Biological structures and functions
(3) Oceans and weather systems
(4) Human societies and cultures
2. A great political thinker of Ancient Greece was
(1) Kautilya (2) Comte
(3) Aristotle (4) None of the above

3. Which of these is a primary source of data ?


(1) Personal interview
(2) Census record
(3) Diaries and memoirs
(4) All of the above

4. A 'knowledge society' lays emphasis on


(1) guru-shishya parampara
(2) religious teachings
(3) ICT and computer education
(4) All of the above

5. The Neolithic Revolution was characterized by


(1) beginning of agriculture
(2) discovery of fire
(3) use of simple stone tools
(4) growth of towns and cities

6. The 'Flying shuttle' and 'Spinning jenny' are examples of


(1) toys
(2) new inventions of the Industrial Age
(3) new software programmes
(4) None of the above

OSS-101 4
(go -4 49.41 twit Act) fd 1H *t fozr-
4 ?
(1) *Emil aPj
(2) 44 4t-efrii 74 mchi

(3) i-mtivut 3ThfIT-TgRza

(4) 1:174 tiiim 141*W41

2. tom * thm-116,

(1) OreFr (2) ch.P.

(3) aR9, (4) WIT ci;lilfte

3. 1-44 4-4-14T 3ft-4


-1 mixAct, *a- ?
(1) ,Itirmen W4-11- 1K

(2) it*11

(3) ti Act.)

(4) ZriziT Rift

4. tiq t11.11A' -ftu q-1K td7 ?

(1) -Ti
7fguEr tritR

(2) UTfii*fkkgall
(3) Sit .t. 3k chima

(4) 7TAT Wft

5. leNlellul T11-1 shn i1 IT f tit z1CIc11 ?


(1) 131-41-41-4t 73Tras

(2) 34FT (g),3i

(3) TITURTIT Lictit-Pgri atAR1

(4) c.91 74 tier

6. *Ifirt kle.C11 31 t 1#141r 4-41' dgMkul ?

(1) itIOR1*

(2) attrAw IT *'qR 33i1ub-R1*

(3) •q7 414.e.diR

(4) ztrzjw ci;li ift

OSS-101 5
7. Which of these was a famous novelist who described life in 19th century England ?
(1) Karl Marx (2) Max Weber
(3) Charles Dickens (4) James Watt

8. The first 'superpowers' of the Modern World who dominated trade and conquest in the
16th century were
(1) England and France
(2) Spain and Portugal
(3) Greece and Italy
(4) U.S.A. and Russia

9. The Inca and Aztec were highly developed civilizations of


(1) Mesopotamia (2) Greece
(3) Latin America (4) Indus Valley

10. The Axis forces comprised the following during World War II :
(1) France, U.K., U.S.A.
(2) Spain, Portugal, Italy
(3) China, Japan, India
(4) Germany, Italy, Japan

11. The 'Cold War' lasted from


(1) 1914 —1918
(2) 1939 —1945
(3) 1945 —1990
(4) 1990 to the present time

12. The single 'superpower' in today's unipolar world is


(1) India (2) U.S.A.
(3) China (4) None of the above

13. The Ashvamedha' yajya is believed to have been performed in


(1) Pre-Vedic period
(2) Early Vedic period
(3) Late Vedic period
(4) Post-Vedic period

OSS-101 6
apt eavrt) ctA air) Tar-4 34.-elRichR A 4R. 4 ?
7. 194i 714T-4* Os
(1) chIc -gr.44 (2) 4W
(4) 4-ti 47
(3) Atc...4 f-41.
cila 3( fetA. Q. i.,310.1 3irt4 WM. crA
8. 164 714T-4 ogriit TIT -51iiM
41-4C 3TrigiW 'tied *11:1-01. `+-w4i6tir 2ff
(1) 174g Or
(2) 1:E1 T4TITU
(3) VIA (tti) e.(-11
(4) zLR'ET.R. 3AT
414 *11-eiclIcr 2121 ?
9. 4-chi (Inca) 3 RA.-* (Aztec) Ot3 f4-
(2) TM 0#0
(1) 4141e.A ti
3T4itwt (4) f4VEITt
(3)
A gft art) viiittfkd tqt
10. ra cflet -F041-4* PHIZiRoci
(1) OR,
(2) 144, TATa, ITjt-
(3) #1.4, \ANN, VIM
(4) A44 , re01,

11. Yid tt argfiT 2f1


(1) 1914 -1918
(2) 1939 - 1945
(3) 1945 -1990
(4) 1990A alt

12. aciiim Watzi WiTff )(#1 `+m416'

(1) 1-1-Rff (2) 1,74•R•


(4) zurajw A ct;1i clftTe
(3) 4ta.

13. `3TRATIV 37414R. 14m 4)10 R►ell TRIT ?


(1) 14-aft. chki
(2) mAch Afk- cbki
(3) aii*tAfk- shirt
(4) 387- shirt
OSS-101 7
14. The great ruler of the Kushanas was
(1) Kautilya
(2) Kanishka
(3) Chandragupta (4) Rudradaman
15. Who amongst these was not a Mughal ruler ?
(1) Akbar
(2) Babur
(3) Humayun
(4) Qutub-ud-din Aibak

16. Which nationalist leader criticized 'drain of wealth' in British India ?


(1) Tilak
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji
(3) Gandhi (4) Nehru
17. Whose name is associated with the sparking off of the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857 ?
(1) Surendranath Banerjee
(2) Lala Lajpat Rai
(3) Mangal Pandey
(4) None of the above

18. Rabindranth Tagore gave up his knighthood to protest against


(1) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(2) Sepoy Mutiny
(3) Partition of Bengal
(4) Partition of India

19. The Bolshevik Revolution took place in


(1) India (2) U.S.A.
(3) Russia
(4) South Africa
20. The Indian Constitution refers to 'Secularism' in terms of
(1) freedom of worship
(2) anti-religious attitude
(3) favouring one religion
(4) None of the above
OSS-101 8
14. F4Truff 2IT

(1) Arer (2) ch -14ct)

(3) *71. (4) twi-f

15. T411 ti.m 41Itich 2TT ?

(1) aTWAT

(2) ANt

(3) gill\

(4) Tact-3- -tq ich

16. fear trdzrr 4 1-4 aticF e-2f airawqr g0ZTd1 4cr ?


d-
(1) fd- (2) T-411-74
(3) Trit (4) 4t.,

17. 1857* t- f "r4-0 1;44 t4 4T *di w f t


(1) t0c4 efroff
(2) oiril cllAtta
(3) W:flu-a
(4) Trzjw -444h1iift -Tef

18. tf4.-1ivi 1Jilt 4 14,k14, Q-I 4 aTcril cii*e.'*t .341%1 f W(fell ?



(1) Amencimi cv-ilehiu6
(2) tRi f40q
(3) Giitio aidaRi
(4) IITW sidaiti

19. GI Mk ch 9h1 the ?


(1) ilTiff (2)
(3) 1,1 (4) 4iklut 315PMT

20. 1411-44 Tiratm 4 `.4414.{44T-df 4 aT11414


(1) TOT-3f4-4T t-ciClicll

(2) ktrrfilw tell


(3) RA 'ET“'T k4T

(4) ZtriT cf;)i

OSS-101 9
21. The Indian Constitution permits 'protective discrimination' for the following :
(1) Women and girls
(2) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(3) Religious minorities
(4) All of the above

22. A 'Federal' system refers to


(1) Presidential form of Government
(2) Powers to the States
(3) Military Rule
(4) None of the above

23. Minimum age for contesting Lok Sabha election is


(1) 18 years (2) 50 years
(3) 25 years (4) 16 years

24. Ryotwari, Mahalwari, Zamindari are examples of


(1) ruling dynasties
(2) peasant uprisings
(3) public distribution systems
(4) land tenure systems

25. Name the scholar who made a study of caste in Bisipara village of Orissa.
(1) F.G. Bailey (2) M.N. Srinivas
(3) G.S. Ghurye (4) None of the above

26. 'Brahmin', 'Kshatriya', Taishya' refer to


(1) Gotras (2) Jatis
(3) Varnas (4) Lineages

27. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes


(1) Zamindari System
(2) British Rule
(3) Untouchability
(4) Gender Discrimination

OSS-101 10
21. IIRtzf4tTR4 A‘-i1iRsi4 -4i*R+I-tutff-Rw trwErrd' S111i ardrrft ?
(1)Rtura474 ,411Ciamail-

(2) arlfkkd 'ff'dzIl 74 311ELNU A+3iAti.

(3) UTfik 31-0:FitgEf4"

(4)

22. `4itilie odia*Ai 3IRT4


(1) twilit i tig41-1:RrAil (aTumwgrw) Zf

(2) ti,rei. "VW tqT

(3) 14-AF kim-i

(4) ztrIT44 ail iftRef

23. zi c1 affs
(1) 1844 (2) 5044
(3) 25 (4) 16'44

24. 14-Tdrt, witrftRA-14) dqWul # ?


(1) xittn t1\71c.141
(2) 'Ff- ft
(3) 7q
(4) ill:tiket 3rurr-
di.

25. Tit44 31 .4-A R-Fr wait I


(1) 75.11.c.) (2) 7r1.7q.
(3) 11.7x. (4) WIT44 *Ter

26. 'owe, *Nzr, `.1qt1'14>ti;) si)cict)# ?


(1) Th (2) Ai
(3) Allf (4) c1411cici1

27. 31T4171 TAW 4 313Q4 17 tichl TAIRR. ant i t ?


(1) 74krft ii
(2) att 411t11
(3) 311

(4) 171-7Ef ( 01T4

OSS-101 11
28. 'Matrilineal' system is found in the following community :
(1) Nayars of Kerala
(2) Nagas of Nagaland
(3) Rajputs of Rajasthan
(4) Sikhs of Punjab

29. Drug addiction, crime and violence are all examples of


(1) Social institutions
(2) Social structures
(3) Social problems
(4) Socialism

30. Which of these are not characteristics of good governance ?


(1) Accountability
(2) Secrecy
(3) Rule of Law
(4) People's participation

31. Thagidari' project is an example of


(1) Local self-government
(2) N. G.0 .
(3) Public-private partnership
(4) All of the above

32. Which of these is included in the secondary sector of the economy ?


(1) Banks and Insurance
(2) Restaurants and Hotels
(3) Transport and Storage
(4) Manufacturing Industries

33. Industrial Policy of 1956 emphasised on a strong


(1) Public Distribution System
(2) Power generation
(3) Private Sector
(4) Public Sector

OSS-101 12
28. `iircici4nee r-41:2TT vaq 4 4 Aq-4 TrFiZi ?
(1) dim RR

(2) M1trag*71TTT

(3) 1‘11i441-1*1TATff

(4) li7T4* -WItg

29. Ta 4)•rTd, altfini a* rim] Wit 14m4) dqwui ?


(1) kiiiiiNch
(2) kiiJiAab titcHiall*
(3) miiiiNet) TigrFrrail*
(4) wimai<*

30. r44 31-Q ?


(1) ■
314:11611j1
(2) ii14414di
(3) cbiti W*41itii
(4) 7R" TreilTRIM

31. SITTftre ti el Ail Itiahl dqwui ?


(1) tvii-flert:4-•kiitm
(2) 1.1K-R(Wft ti11,51
(3) tficIAPcil-At m- a-4TL
(4) WIT Tit

32. IA 4 A4-4 aT21- 21-r *-P4-4izm 0-14 TrfarPeff ?


(1) *AIM
(2) 1ti 4 ilcri
(3) .3k *am
(4) fdPi. ut dt.1 41

33. 1956 *I' 311-€4ft I* Euzi vri.4 to:R* ?


(1) tuci,3Ach f4Muf 3PITT4I
(2) Wc4T
(3) At O'q
(4) tficiAct)

OSS-101 13
34. Which of the following is a challenge to democracy in India ?
(1) Socialism
(2) Communalism
(3) Communism
(4) Marxism

35. What was the objective of the First Five Year Plan ?
(1) Heavy industrialization
(2) Privatization
(3) Economic consolidation
(4) All of the above

36. Green Revolution benefitted the production of the following crop :


(1) Jute (2) Jowar
(3) Wheat (4) Tea

37. The study of the interaction of living organisms with one another and their
surroundings is called
(1) Chemistry (2) Ecology
(3) Physiology (4) Pharmacology

38. Air pollution is a result of the following activities :

(1) Mining

(2) Burning fuel wood

(3) Driving vehicles


(4) All of the above

39. An important aspect of climate change is

(1) Global cooling

(2) Global warming

(3) Global hunger


(4) Globalization
OSS-101 14
34. PHICIRgo 4 4 A-4-1ft Rrk-ffil ?
(1) tii.iNialc
(2) tisicitialq
(3) Takr4:1
(4) 1TRich4T4

35. WIT limicielTei ei)A-1 qt.; t ITT ?


(1) iTrft aft-thrft -pT
(2) PAcmui
(3) 3T112k ti lafri
(4) ZERIT Tlift

36. ikr, snA 4 PHRIRgo 4' cr1441T4F* dCLI WIT 1*T ?


(1) 7 (Tem) (2)
(3) 44, (4) ART

37. vflan *1 aTTERft t *-14 3174 tritkrr 4 aiff:fOrr aparzfq


(1) kti 1.1 (2) 141 cA
(3) gitltf qi (4) ailtm ofri

38. qi mvui f)i-i 4 4 14,1 ilfARitil -Triturrri ?


(1) 174 (w-gq)
(2) 'OF .*t W441 Q• Arimi
(3) ,:to ak,)
(4) 374ffi• RAI

39. ,irical3 tritAq ITFM1


14 17-1t

(1) iff)-4U Trerr (f04anal)


(2) qei Ttr4

(3) iff140 trR (f4


(4) kcflgntu1

OSS-101 15
40. Population growth in a poor country results in
(1) Prosperity
(2) Economic growth
(3) Improved technology
(4) None of the above

41. B.R. Ambedkar is chiefly remembered for the following :


(1) Combating child marriages
(2) Fighting caste discrimination
(3) Abolition of Sati
(4) All of the above

42. Gender-based discrimination can be observed in the following :


(1) Educating the girl child
(2) Right to divorce
(3) Equal pay for equal work
(4) Sex pre-selection

43. What is the characteristic feature of populations of developed countries ?


(1) High birth rate and high death rate
(2) High birth rate and low death rate
(3) Low birth rate and low death rate
(4) All of the above

44. Which of the following Indian States has the lowest density of population ?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Arunachal Pradesh

45. Diseases like tuberculosis, polio, diphtheria have been controlled by


(1) Family Planning Programme
(2) Immunisation Programme
(3) Minimum Needs Programme
(4) Mid-day Meal Programme

OSS-101 16
40. f4tia
..-.. og LifkoliN
(1) WI41
-
(2) alTrft
(3) (-iqi1Rici mitil141
(4) ztrziw 4 4 4,1i 4tTei

41. t.alTi. 3TRIW "TgrVIT 4 144-106ci 4 414A1 zrrq 6411 wiai


(1) 1.40 r f4ft
ATF
(2) AA OM Q' 7
(3) Tr41ITT it 3-41—eq
(4) ztrziT 1:011

42. 141-74 (1C;f4 1-31111TFM) 0114 PHROvi 4 4 wer ?


(1) -a-41%zil 7-4-m-%ung-r (Wm ter)
(2) cmict) r -ffir 3lftr+7
(3) Wrgf kentimil dcm
(4) Ri4i wiat cs i

43. fchRia tt aim-0 *r fe4re f4ttraT aqr ?


(1) -7-4:r AK .3w in
(2) 3iEfF i att fir +1.c3
(3) APT 7-
41 AR in
(4) 37z1W 1:4

44. -14-i 4 4 f4ti 1TRtZr TfWfr flu A1tit90-41111cci ?


(1) 39R Slql

(2) WT

(3) WORT
(4) 3Tfurr4F

45. - Afkw,foz4, fs941 44 *III 14-A1 cbleistoi itair ?


(1) tritoR goi

(2) c lchictKul cm 9M-I

(3) aTiaFtwar 91)+-1

(4) Ifte chi shii

OSS-101 17
46. When was the Soviet Union dissolved ?
(1) 1991
(2) 1987
(3) 1917
(4) 1947

47. Which of the following countries is in West Asia ?


(1) India
(2) Afghanistan
(3) Pakistan
(4) Kuwait

48. The Schengen Agreement is associated with


(1) Chinese Union
(2) European Union
(3) Soviet Union
(4) United Nations

49. Cross-border trade in goods and services, international property rights and people
comes under the purview of
(1) UNO
(2) WTO
(3) IMF
(4) UNICEF

50. Which of the following states has the most adverse sex ratio ?
(1) Kerala
(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Haryana

OSS-101 18
46. ThiWzrff 14Er ?
(1) 1991
(2) 1987
(3) 1917
(4) 1947

47. ITP*1. tz 144-1rc1ftla ?


(1) WO
(2) alrETTARR
(3)

(4) 3Act

48. (Schengen) ,:htltil TOW( 0 ?


(1) ,4141 TiEr
(2) ti,t)41ei TiEf
(3) Thr4zrff TiEr
(4) ti to

49. at1311 4-4.rall Tftrrr-tu eall4R, 3kitt4 (-14 ci aTfwg W4RTUTPT, ti4) *Tiff
TrPrf-
eff ?
(1) Wall
(2) Zktt.34.

(3) aT14-71:LTF.
(4) VAT

50. 1-44-irt a A 0q-IIT gafft.TW 3fta it-gftf 31-TO aim Trwr ?


(1) to
(2) aitli
(3) ki o 313
(4) ftziTuTT

OSS-101 19
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
wrzt f4R wrg

OSS-101 20