Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a

nation bringing forth the fruits thereof. Matt 21:43. Question, what nation was it taken from and
subsequently given to? I think most of us can agree that it was taken from the Biblical Jews.
After all wasn‟t that who Jesus was speaking to? It was. So are we to believe that he took it from
the Jew whether they be „Lost Jews‟ or Hellenized Jew, or whatever name you want to give
them, and handed it back to them? Doesn‟t it say it was given to “ANOTHER nation”? It is this
question we shall answer without controversy.

I have recently learned that God calls Jews who follow not his ways Gentiles! No, they
may not be physically Gentiles meaning, they may not be of the sons of Japheth (the progenitor
of the Gentiles) but spiritually they are indeed Gentiles, and why not if “Flesh and blood
[genealogy] profiteth nothing, [and] it is the spirit that quickeneth [makes alive]”? John 6:63
This goes both ways. A physical Gentile (descendants of Japheth) if he has received the Gospel,
“the things of the spirit of God” 1 Corinthians 2:14, would then be a Jew and in God‟s eyes he
IS. He would be a Jew by conversion. This explains how and why Paul could preach saying
“There is neither Jew nor Greek...there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ
Jesus [Spirit]”. Galatians 3:28 and yet again in Colossians 3:11 “…there is neither Greek nor
Jew…but Christ is all, in all [Spirit].” This thing is far greater than flesh and blood.

So we ask again, what nation was the kingdom of God TAKEN from and GIVEN TO?
Had not the Jews denied Christ? They did. So then WHO did he [Christ] give the kingdom of
God to considering the Jews deliver[ed] him to the Gentiles to mock, and to scourge, and to
crucify?...” Matt 20:19. Presuming that it was indeed taken from the Biblical Jews or Hebrews,
what nation could it have been given to?

Let‟s make some more interesting observations before we answer this question. How about the
scripture "Salvation is OF the Jews" John 4:22. I‟ve encountered people who have literally read
this scripture and replace “of” with “for”!? And why would anyone do that? Could it be because
the word [of] doesn‟t have the same meaning as [for]. Yes. That is exactly why some have
resorted to “deceitfully handling scripture “It means coming from does it not? Now If it's coming
FROM the Jews WHO'S IT GOING TOO???????????It doesn't say Salvation in FOR the Jews
now does it? Why would Paul say to Jews of any sort "let no man judge you in meat of drink or
respecter of Sabbaths?"? He could not have been speaking to Jews at all. Doesn‟t 1 Timothy 1:4
support the scriptural premise that “flesh and blood profiteth nothing?” It certainly does “neither
give heed to… genealogies” it says. Doesn‟t Titus 3:9 support the scriptural premise that “flesh
and blood profiteth nothing?” Avoid foolish…genealogies.