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Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof. Matt 21:43. Question, what nation was it taken from and subsequently given to? I think most of us can agree that it was taken from the Biblical Jews. After all wasn‟t that who Jesus was speaking to? It was. So are we to believe that he took it from the Jew whether they be „Lost Jews‟ or Hellenized Jew, or whatever name you want to give them, and handed it back to them? Doesn‟t it say it was given to “ANOTHER nation”? It is this question we shall answer without controversy.

I have recently learned that God calls Jews who follow not his ways Gentiles! No, they may not be physically Gentiles meaning, they may not be of the sons of Japheth (the progenitor of the Gentiles) but spiritually they are indeed Gentiles, and why not if “Flesh and blood

[genealogy] profiteth nothing, [and] it is the spirit that quickeneth [makes alive]? John 6:63 This goes both ways. A physical Gentile (descendants of Japheth) if he has received the Gospel, “the things of the spirit of God” 1 Corinthians 2:14, would then be a Jew and in God‟s eyes he IS. He would be a Jew by conversion. This explains how and why Paul could preach saying

“There is neither Jew nor Greek

Jesus [Spirit]”. Galatians 3:28 and yet again in Colossians 3:11 “…there is neither Greek nor Jew…but Christ is all, in all [Spirit].” This thing is far greater than flesh and blood.

there

is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ

So we ask again, what nation was the kingdom of God TAKEN from and GIVEN TO? Had not the Jews denied Christ? They did. So then WHO did he [Christ] give the kingdom of God to considering the Jews deliver[ed] him to the Gentiles to mock, and to scourge, and to

what nation could it have been given to?

crucify?

Matt 20:19. Presuming that it was indeed taken from the Biblical Jews or Hebrews,

Let‟s make some more interesting observations before we answer this question. How about the scripture "Salvation is OF the Jews" John 4:22. I‟ve encountered people who have literally read this scripture and replace “of” with “for”!? And why would anyone do that? Could it be because the word [of] doesn‟t have the same meaning as [for]. Yes. That is exactly why some have resorted to “deceitfully handling scripture “It means coming from does it not? Now If it's coming FROM the Jews WHO'S IT GOING TOO???????????It doesn't say Salvation in FOR the Jews now does it? Why would Paul say to Jews of any sort "let no man judge you in meat of drink or respecter of Sabbaths?"? He could not have been speaking to Jews at all. Doesnt 1 Timothy 1:4 support the scriptural premise that flesh and blood profiteth nothing?It certainly does neither give heed togenealogiesit says. Doesnt Titus 3:9 support the scriptural premise that flesh and blood profiteth nothing?Avoid foolishgenealogies.