2K8 Stage 1 Exam

Paper 1

1. On which of the following neurotransmitters do TCA exert their effect?

(a) GABA
(b) Biogenic amines
(c) Glutamate
(d) Ach

2. Which of the following processes results in contraction of intestinal smooth

muscle
(a) uptake of Ca2+ by sarcoplasmic reticulatum
(b) shortening of the actin myosin filament
(c) application of NE…

3. Which of the following is essential for normal blood clotting?

(a) inactivation of heparin
(b) inactivation of fibrolysin
(c) adequate Vitamin K
(d) adequate Vitamin C

4. Which one of the following GI polyps carry the highest risk of becoming
malignant?
(a) villous polyps
(b) tubular polyps
(c) hyperplastic polyps
(d) harmatomatous polyps

5. Which of the following ions in saliva increases as flow rate decreases?

(a) K+
(b) Na+
(c) Cl-
(d) HCO3-

6. Which one of the following features during nerve stimulation best defines
rheobse?
(a) strength of response

7. What feature would be found in coarctation of the aorta?

(a) decreased blood pressure of lower limbs
(b) collapsing pulse
(c) increased pulmonary pressure
(d) distended neck veins
8. Which is correct?
(a) base of the pericardium connected to the sternum by sternopericardial ligaments
(b) pericardial sac is between the parietal and visceral layers of pericardium
(c) fibrous pericardium drains into the azygous
(d) anterior boundary of the oblique sinus formed by both fibrous and parietal layers
of pericardium

9. Which one of the following is not a normal function of granulocytes?

(a) diapedesis
(b) chemotaxis
(c) opsonisation
(d) phagocytosis

10. A 45 yr old man had PUD for 12 yrs and now presents with black tarry stools and
a Hb of 6.9g/dL. What type of anaemia does he have?
(a) Macrocytic & RI < 2
(b) Microcytic & RI >2
(c) Macrocytic & RI >2
(d) Microcytic & RI < 2

11. Which of the following statements about the great saphenous vein is correct?
(a) it is medial continuation of the dorsal venous arch of the foot
(b) located just posterior to medial malleolus of ankle
(c) lies deep to the fascia lata tendon
(d) is immediately related to the saphenous nerve of the thigh

12. Which of the following increases mucociliary action to increase clearance?

(a) pseudoepinephrine
(b) ambroxol
(c) dextrometraphan
(d) pholcodeine

13. The glomerular filtration rate is

(a) greater than 80% of plasma flow to glomeruli
(b) increases when oncotic pressure in glomerular capillaries decreases
(c) decreases when hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries decreases
(d) increased when pressure in bowmans capsule increases

14. Treatment of digitoxin overdose

(a) IV quinidine
(b) IM Mg
(c) Digitoxin antibodies
(d) K+
15. What is the characteristic of pancreatic juice secretion?
(a) it is increased by secretin secretion

16. Which structure is not found at the spinal level T12?

(a) lateral corticospinal tract
(b) spinothalamic tract
(c) fasciculate cuneatus
(d) intermediolateral cell column

17. Depolarization of the ventricles begins where?

18. Which muscle does the oculomotor nerve supply?

(a) ciliary
(b) lateral rectus
(c) superior oblique
(d) dilator pupillae

19. Which part of the nephron is most of the filtered glucose reabsorbed?
(a) proximal convoluted tubule
(b) descending loop of Henle
(c) distal convoluted tubule
(d) collecting duct

20. Which of the following concerning the hand in correct?

(a) the deep transverse metacarpal ligament attaches to the base of all the metacarpals
(b) the fibrous flexor sheath of the digits extend to the tip of the distal phalanges
(c) the sensory supply of the nail bed of the index finger is the median nerve
(d) the innervation of the muscles of the hypothenar is via the superficial branch of
the ulnar nerve

21. What is the name of normal tissue in an abnormal location?

(a) Harmatoma
(b) Granuloma
(c) Choristoma
(d) Teratoma

22. Parents are most likely to report feeling confused about their adolescents’ sense of
independence when their adolescent is in the _________ phase of identity.
(a) differentiation
(b) practice and experiment
(c) reapproachment
(d) consolidation
23. Which of the following conditions is not associated with nephrotic syndrome?
(a) amyloidosis
(b) membranous glomerulonephritis
(c) minimal change disease
(d) post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

24. The Energy in Kcal of 75 kg protein, 300g CHO, 100g fat

25. half life of PTH

(a) 20 mins
(b) 60 mins
(c) 3 days
(d) 5 days

26. Rate limiting step of heme synthesis

(a)

27. The first mediator in acute inflammation:

(a) leukotrienes
(b) histamine
(c) prostaglandins
(d) bradykinin

28. Which of the following actions is performed by renin?

(a) catalysis of angiotensin
(b) direct constriction of peripheral artery
(c) direct stimulation of aldosterone
(d) direct promotion of renal tubular Na+ reabsorption

29. A spinocerebellar lesion results in

(a) past pointing
(b) ataxic gait

30. Haemoglobin production involves:

(a) glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
(b) αaminolaevirdic acid synthetase
(c) ferrochetolase
(d) glutathione peroxidase

31. Relations of pectoralis minor

(a) 2nd part, anterior
(b) 2nd part, posterior
(c) 1st part,
32. Which of the following relatives with sickle cell anaemia would be most likely to
manifest the disease?
(a) mother
(b) sister
(c) grandfather
(d) father

33. Short tandem repeats are relatively used in finger printing analyses because they
are:
(a) simpler to cut using restriction enzymes
(b) less likely to be degraded
(c) ideally suited for PCR
(d) part of the extra chromosomal DNA

34. Where is the oblique sinus?

35. Which of the following gives rise to cells of the optic radiation?
(a) LGB
(b) MGB
(c) superior colliculus
(d) inferior colliculus

36. Which of the following links the urea and TCA cycle
(a) arginine
(b) aspartate
(c) ornithine
(d) fumarate

37. Lag storage curve seen in :

(a) malabsorptive syndrome
(b) reactive hypoglycaemia
(c) severe hyperglycaemia
(d) impaired glucose tolerance

38. Common peroneal nerve is closely associated with tendon of which muscle?
(a) semimembranosus
(b) semitendinosus
(c) biceps femoris
(d) adductor magnus

39. In which of the following is the greatest resistance to blood flow?

(a) aorta
(b) arteriole
(c) vena cava
(d) capillaries
40. Which buffering mechanism is slowest?
(a) pulmonary
(b) renin
(c) intracellular
(d) extracellular

41. The cause of greenhouse depletion of the ozone by:

(a) acid rain
(b) global warming

42. Which is correct about the blood supply to the brain?

(a) the anterior choroidal artery is a branch of the anterior cerebral artery
(b) the hypophysis cerebri has a well developed blood brain barrier through its
capillary bed
(c) the ICA terminates just inferior to the anterior perforated substance
(d) the vertebral artery courses along the anterior arch of the atlas and pierces the
atlanto-occipital membrane

43. Which is correct about the anatomy of the brainstem

(a) the cranial pt of the accessory nerves emerges from the medulla oblongata medial
to the olive
(b) the facial colliculus in the floor of the 4th ventricle comprises facial nerve fibres
around the abduces nerve nucleus
(c) fasciculus retroflexus ends medially in the nucleus raphe magnus
(d) the medial leminiscus ascends through the basilar pt of the pons and ends in the
Vpl nucleus of the thalamus

44. Which causes post transfusion haemolytic reaction?

(a) Gp O bld to gp A person
(b) Gp A bld to gp O person
(c) Gp bld to gp AB person

45. Which is true of dopamine?

(a) Parkinson’s disease is associated with increased dopamine activity
(b) Dopamine formation is decreased by oestrogens
(c) NE is an intermediate in dopamine formation
(d) Dopa decarboxylase is not found in the adrenal gland

46. What is true of the epidemiology of endemic disease in a hospital

(a) progressive increase in number of cases
(b) decrease in number of cases
(c) sustained number of cases
(d) sudden increase in the number of cases
47. An ECG has a RR interval of 10 small boxes with no deviation in intervals. What
is the heart rate?
(a) 60
(b) 100
(c) 120
(d) 150

48. Which is a branch of the profunda femoris?

(a) deep circumflex artery
(b) descending genicular artery
(c) lateral circumflex artery
(d) superior ascending genicular artery

49. Increase in ventricular mass in a person with HTN is due to:

(a) hyperplasia
(b) hypertophy

50. The diet of an individual diagnosed with nephritic syndrome should have:
a) normal protein, low sodium, low fat
b) high protein, low sodium, low fat
c) low protein, high sodium, low fat
d) normal protein, high sodium, low fat

51. Which is typical of wound healing?

a.
b. secretion of collagen type III by macrophages
c. angiogenesis to yield granular tissue
d. yields a highly vascular scar tissue

52. HIV influx into the cell is facilitated by which of the following:
a. gp 120 and CD4
b. gp 41 and CD8
c. gp 41 and CCR5
d. gp 120 and tyrosine kinase activity

53. The receptor for transforming growth factor β:

a. has tyrosine kinase activity
b. is linked to ion channels
c. is linked to G-proteins
d. is in the cytosol

54. Which agent is linked to atypical pneumonia?

a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Coxiella burnetti
c. Mycobacter
d. Pneumocystis carinii
55. Which describes the pharmacology of sucralfate?
a. It increases secretion of bicarbonate
b. It increases stomach acid secretion
c. It is inhibited by magaldrate

56. Which is not found with malnutrition?

a. decreased respiratory demand
b. decreased hypercarbic respiratory drive
c. decreased hypoxic respiratory drive
d.

57. A young male presented with pain in the ventral left thigh and lost vibration sense
and 2-point touch in that leg and thigh. Babinski was negative on both sides and his
examination was normal otherwise. Which describes the position of the tumour?
a. left spinal cord at T12
b. left spinal cord at S1
c. compression of ventral rami of lumbar segments
d. compression of dorsal rami of sacral segments