Team Motivation FMGE Coaching Academy

Mock Test – 3
1. A 30 yr old patient having a past history of b. Ach is removed from the neuromuscular
seizures though well controlled is to be operated junction
for a laproscopic surgery. Which of the following c. Closure of nicotinic Ach receptors
inhalational agent should be avoided d. Exhaustion of ATP
a. Nitrous oxide 9. Hypertonic urine is excreted due to absorption of
b. Isoflurane water in
c. Enflurane a. DCT
d. Desflurane b. Ascending part of loop of Henle
2. Which of the following causes Tachycardia and c. Descending part of loop of Henle
Hypertension d. Collecting ducts
a. Pancuronium 10. During aerobic exercise, blood remains relatively
b. Atracurium constant in which of the following organs
c. Vecuronium a. Brain
d. Rocuronium b. Heart
3. A patient who is a chronic smoker is posted for c. Kidneys
varicose veins surgery and regarding smoking the d. Skeletal muscle
following advice is given during PAC 11. A small Ca2+ binding protein that modifies the
a. Stop 4 - 6 weeks prior to surgery activity of many enzymes and other proteins in
b. Stop at least 2 weeks prior to surgery response to changes of Ca2+ concentration is
c. Omit the day prior to surgery a. Cycline
d. Not needed to stop since nicotine levels will b. Calmodulin
be maintained c. Collagen
4. All the following decrease EtCO2 except d. Kinesin
a. Oesophageal intubation 12. Positive feedback action of estrogen for inducing
b. Malignant Hyperthermia LH surge is associated with which of the following
c. Disconnection of tube from circuit steroid hormone ratios in the peripheral
d. Cardiac arrest circulation
5. All the following agents increase Intra Cranial a. High estrogen : High progesterone
Tension (ICT) except b. High estrogen : Low progesterone
a. Halothane c. Low esterogen : High progesterone
b. Thiopentone d. Low esterogen : Low progesterone
c. Ketamine 13. ST segment elevation is seen in
d. Suxamethonium a. Prinzmetal’s angina
6. ‘Flare’ in Triple response is mediated by b. Acute pericarditis
a. Axon reflex c. Acute MI
b. Arteriolar dilation d. All of the above
c. Histamine release 14. Which is responsible for respiratory drive
d. Local hormones a. O2
7. Membrane integrity of RBC is due to b. CO
a. G-protein c. CO2
b. Hemoglobin d. Bicarbonate ions
c. Spectrin 15. In cushing syndrome, the following features are
d. Ankyrin found except
8. Skeletal muscle contraction is terminated by a. Hypotension
a. Removal of calcium from the sarcoplasm b. Rapidly increasing adiposity

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Mock Test – 3
c. Polycythaemia b. Death
d. Impotence with atrophy of testis c. Finger prints
16. During binding of the 4 molecules of O2 by the Hb, d. Thermal deaths
the affinity for the binding of one of the following 24. Radiological signs of fetal death includes all
except
is the greatest
a. Overlapping of skull bones (Spaulding’s
a. First molecule
sign)
b. Second molecule b. Hyperextension of spine
c. Third molecule c. Collapse of spinal column
d. Fourth molecule d. Gas in aorta
17. Thalamus is a major sensory relay station for all 25. Testamentary capacity means:
except a. Mental ability to give evidence in court of
a. Taste law
b. Hearing b. Mental ability to file a legal case
c. Vision c. Mental ability to make a contract
d. Smell d. Mental ability to make a valid will
18. A travelling nerve impulse does not depolarize the 26. Tache noire refers to
area immediately behind it, because a. Postmortem staining
a. It is hyperpolarized b. Flaccidity of eyeball
b. It is not self propagating c. Wrinkled dusty sclera
c. The condition is always orthodromic d. Maggot growth
d. It is refractory 27. One of the following is a sure sign of rape:
19. The inability to perceive the texture & shape of an a. Ruptered hymen
object occurs in lesion of b. Presence of semen in the posterior fornix in a
a. Lateral spino-thalamic tract 20 years old girl
b. Nucleus gracilis c. Presence of semen in the posterior fornix in a
c. Spino reticular tract 14 years old girl
d. Nucleus cuneatus d. Presence of semen in the posterior fornix in
20. Which inhibits gastrin secretion 16 years old married girl
a. Secretin 28. A cognisable offence signifies:
b. High gastric pH a. Punishable with life imprisonment.
b. Arrest without warrant.
c. Insulin
c. Arrest on the issue of warrant by
d. Calcium
magistrate
21. CSF is principally produced by
d. punishable with imprisonment upto
a. Choroid plexus 7years & fine
b. Arachnoid granulation
29. Pyromania is a type of:
c. Floor of fourth ventricle
a. fear from height
d. Periaqueductal grey matter
b. setting fire
22. Resting membrane potential of nerve is close to
c. fear in close places
the isoelectric potential of
d. Stealing things of very less value
a. Sodium ion
30. Tactile hallucination is seen in chronic addiction
b. Potassium ion
with:
c. Chloride ion
a. Cannabis
d. Calcium ion
b. cocaine
23. Thanatology is the study of:
c. Opium
a. Police system.
d. LSD

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Mock Test – 3
31. Ballooning of lung is seen in : d. The net breakdown of glycogen is
a. Wet drowning increased
b. Dry drowning 36. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for
maintaining blood glucose levels by releasing
c. Immersion syndrome
glucose from its storage form in the liver?
d. Secondary drowning a. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
32. Oral testimony is exempted in the following
b. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
conditions except:
a. Dying declaration c. Glycogen phosphorylase
b. Chemical examiner’s report
d. Glycogen synthase
c. Medical evidence given by a lower court
d. Medical evidence of injury as a witness. 37. The first line of defence in brain in conditions of
33. Which of the following statements about the citric
hyperammonemia is-
acid cycle is correct?
a. Oxygen is used to oxidise the acetyl group a. Urea formation
b. Glutamine synthesis
carbons of acetyl-CoA in the citric acid cycle.
c. Glutamate synthesis
b. Three molecules of NADH and one molecule d. Asparagine formation
of FADH2 are produced in one turn of the 38. False statement about hemoglobin structure
a. Hb has 4 polypeptide
citric acid cycle.
b. Iron is present in ferrous state
c. Oxygen is not used in the citric acid cycle, so c. Hb structurally similar to myoglobin
the cycle can occur in anaerobic conditions. d. Ferrous ions are in porphyrin rings
39. In a patient suffering from Cystinuria, which out of
d. The citric acid cycle produces the water that
the following amino acids is not seen in urine of
is formed during the complete oxidation of affected patients?
glucose. a. Arginine
34. A eats a very poor diet and consumes two bottles b. Methionine
of vodka a day. He is admitted to a hospital in c. Lysine
coma. He is hyperventilating and has low blood d. Ornithine
pressure and high cardiac output. A chest x-ray 40. A child was brought to paediatric OPD with
shows that his heart is enlarged. Laboratory tests complaint of passage of black colored urine. A
show that he is suffering from thiamin disorder of Phenylalanine metabolism was
(vitaminB1) deficiency. Which of the following diagnosed. A low phenylalanine diet and a
enzymes is most likely to be affected? supplementation of vitamin C were recommended.
a. Lactate dehydrogenase Which enzyme defect is expected in this child?
b. Pyruvate carboxylase a. Phenyl alanine hydroxylase
c. Pyruvate decarboxylase
b. Tyrosine transaminase
d. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
35. False about Epinephrine and glucagon effects on c. Homogentisic acid oxidase
glycogen metabolism? d. Hydrolase
a. The net synthesis of glycogen is decreased
41. Deterioration of food (rancidity) is due to
b. Glycogen phosphorylase is activated,
whereas glycogen synthase is inactivated presence of
c. Both are expressed in liver & muscles
a. Cholesterol

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Mock Test – 3
b. Vitamin E 49. Which of the following is true for ALL nucleotides?
c. Peroxidation of lipids a. They contain ribose, a phosphate and a
d. Phenolic compounds nitrogenous base
42. Acetoacetyl-CoA condenses with one more b. They are double-stranded and anti-parallel
molecule of acetyl-CoA to form c. They contain a pentose, a phosphate and a
a. Mevalonate nitrogenous base
b. Acetoacetate d. They contain deoxyribose, a phosphate
c. Fi-Hydroxybutyrate and a nitrogenous base
d. 3-Hydroxy 3-methyl-glutaryl-CoA 50. Tinea versiclor is caused by:
43. Δ9 indicates a double bond between carbon atoms a. E. flaccosum
of the fatty acids: b. Malassezia fur fur
a. 8 and 9 c. T. robrum
b. 9 and 10 d. T. schonleini
c. 9 and 11 51. The burrows of scabies are seen in:-
d. 9 and 12 a. Stratum Gerinatum
44. Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid of which type b. Stratum Corneum
a. 20: ω 6 c. Malphigean layer
b. 20: ω 4
d. Dermis
c. 8: ω 6
52. Painful Lymphadenopathy is seen in:-
d. 10: ω 6
a. Donavanosis
45. Competitive inhibitors stop an enzyme from
b. Syphilis
working by
a. Changing the shape of the enzyme c. Chanceroid
b. Merging with the substrate instead d. Gonnorhea
c. Blocking the active site of the enzyme 53. Ash leaf macule is seen in:
d. Combining with the product of the a. Tuberous Sclerosis
reaction b. Neurofibromatosis
46. Vitamin B12 and folic acid supplementation in c. Lymphangioma
megaloblastic anemia leads to the improvement of d. None
anemia due to: 54. PUVA therapy is used in:
a. Increased DNA synthesis in bone marrow a. Psoriasis
b. Increased hemoglobin production b. Lichen planus
c. Erythroid hyperplasia c. Melesma
d. Increased iron absorption d. Freckles
47. An increased melting temperature of duplex DNA 55. Time of collection of blood is important in
results from a high content of a. Microfilaria
a. Adenine + Guanine b. Malaria parasite
b. Thymine + Cytosine c. Leishmania
c. Cytosine + Guanine d. Babesia
d. Cytosine + Adenine 56. Schistosoma japonicum resides in
48. In purine biosynthesis carbon atoms at 4 and 5 a. Sup. Mesentric vein
position and N at 7 positions are contributed by b. Inf. Mesentric vein
a. Glycine c. Small intesine
b. Glutamine d. Gall bladder
c. Alanine 57. Which of the following is not true for prokaryotic
d. Threonine organism?

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Mock Test – 3
a. Nucleus is not bounded by nuclear which were alpha hemolytic colonies and catalase
membrane negative, identified as group a streptococci. Which
b. Chromosomes does not contain histones of the following tests will best identify the
c. 80S ribosomes are distributed in organism?
cytoplasm a. Bile solubility
d. Cell wall contains peptidoglycan as one of b. Optochin sensitivity
the major component c. Bacitracin sensitivity
58. The correct term for the transfer of genetic d. Novobiocin sensitivity
material between bacteria in direct physical 65. Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction
contact is can aid in diagosis of all of the following viral
a. Conjugation infection except
b. Transformation a. Adenovirus
c. Replication b. Astrovirus
d. Transduction c. Rotavirus
59. The agent responsible for causing mad cow d. Poliovirus
disease is thought to be a 66. A neonate develops encephalitis without any skin
a. Fungus lesions most probable causative organism is
b. Protozoan a. HSV I
c. Prion b. HSV II
d. Virus c. Meningococci
60. Which of the following is a drug that interferes d. Haemophilus
with the process of DNA production in the virus 67. EBV belongs to
that causes genital herpes? a. Retrovirus
a. Erythromycin b. Herpes virus
b. Vancomycin c. RNA virus
c. Amantadine d. Pox virus
d. Acyclovir 68. Methotrexate is antagonist of
61. Tinea versicolor is caused by a. Thiamine
a. Candida albicans b. Riboflabine
b. Malassezia furfur c. Folic acid
c. Aspergillus niger d. Niacin
d. None of these 69. Aspirin inhibits
62. Viruses which have teratogenic property are a. Lipoxygenase
a. Herpes simplex virus b. Prostacyclin sythesis
b. Cytomegalovirus c. Cyclooxygenase
c. Rubella virus d. Phospholipase
d. All of these 70. Immediate t/t of anaphylasis
63. Prausnitz kustner reaction is generated by a. Hydrocortisone
a. IgA b. Atropine
b. IgE c. Adrenaline
c. IgG d. Diphenhydramine
d. IgD 71. Doc for cerebral malaria
64. A person from village is complaining of a. Metakalfin
development of pustules of the leg. Culture was b. Quinine
done which showed gram positive cocci in chains c. Chloroquine

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Mock Test – 3
d. Primaquine d. Folic acid
72. Primaquine can cause hemolysis in case of 80. Anaesthetic agent that is C/I in presence of
deficiency of jaundice
a. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase a. Halothane
b. Galactose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase b. Ether
c. Methemoglobin c. Gallamine
d. Thiamine d. Nitous oxide
73. Digoxin act on heart by 81. Drug of choice for cycling Manic depressive
a. Dec. oreload psychosis is
b. Incre. force of contration a. Lithium
c. Dec. after load b. Carbamazepine
d. Dec. hert rate c. Sodium valproate
74. All follo. antibactarial agent inhibit bacterial d. Haloperidol
cellwall except 82. A two yrs old girl child is brought to the out
a. Penicillin patient with features of hand wringing ,stereotype
b. Isoniazid movements,impaired language and
c. Cephlosporins communication development, breath holding
d. Streptogramins spells,poor social skills and deceleration of head
75. Captopril exert antihypertensive effect by growth after six months of age.the most likely
a. Inhibit liver to syn thesis angiotensinogen diagnosis is
b. Inhibit conversion of AT I to AT II a. Asperger ssyndrome
c. Dec. renin prodution b. Rett's syndrome
d. Inhibit conversion of angiotensinogen to AT I c. Fragile x syndrome
76. DOC for Absence seizure d. Cottard syndrome
a. Carbamazepine 83. La belle indefference is seen in
b. Ethosuximide a. Conversion reaction
c. Phenobarbitone b. Schizophrenia
d. Phenytoin c. Mania
77. OK 432 or Picibanil is d. Depression
a. Sclerosant used to treat cystic hygroma 84. Confabulation is typically seen in
b. Immunosuprresive agent used after a. Alcoholism
transplantation b. Depression
c. Specific agent for interstitial ds of lung c. Mania
d. Is newr t/t for variceal bleeding d. Delirium
78. most effective hormonal means of emergency 85. NREM sleep is asso .with
contraception consist of a. Frequent dreaming
a. Estrone b. Night terrors
b. Estriol c. Inc. BP
c. Levonorgestrol d. Penile erection
d. Testosterone 86. A student wants to study the effect of changing the
79. Occurence of Neural tube defect can be reduced by amount of salt in the diet with blood pressure. In
optimizing intake of this experiment, what kind of variable is dietary
a. Vit A salt?
b. Ascobic acid a. Random
c. Vit E b. Fixed
c. Dependent

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Mock Test – 3
d. Independent a. -4 to 00C
87. A pathologist measures the cholesterol levels in b. 00C to 40C
three groups. What statistical test is used to c. -20C to +80C
compare the mean cholesterol level of these three d. +20C to +80C
groups? 96. Sputum can be disinfected by all except
a. Correlation a. Autoclaving
b. Chi-square test b. Boiling
c. ANOVA c. Cresol
d. T-test d. Chlorhexidine
88. A group of 100 patients undergo a blood sugar 97. Phase 4 clinical trial is carried out
test where the mean is 200 & the standard a. For drugs used in paediatric patients
deviation is 20. What is the 95% confidence b. For drugs used in rare diseases
interval of the mean? c. After a drug is marketed
a. 200 ± 1 d. Before the marketing approval of a drug
b. 200 ± 2 98. Which one can be eliminated by double blinding
c. 200 ± 3 a. Berkesonian bias
d. 200 ± 4 b. Recall bias
89. Which one better correlates with Sullivan's index c. Interviewers bias
a. Infant mortality rate d. Selection bias
b. Life expectancy at the age of one 99. True regarding elimination of neonatal tetanus in
c. Per capita income village
d. Numbers of years lived without disability a. Rate more than 1/ I 000 live births
90. Physical therapy for stroke is b. Attended deliveries less than 50%
a. Primordial prevention c. Attended deliveries more than 50%
b. Primary prevention d. Rate less than 0.1/1000 live births
c. Secondary prevention 100. For post-exposure prophylaxis, dose of human
d. Tertiary prevention rabies immunoglobulin is
91. ICD-10 stands for a. 10 IU/kg
a. International classification of death- b. 20 IU/kg
revision10 c. 30 IU/kg
b. International classification of disability- d. 40 IU/kg
revision10 101. During epidemic of hepatitis E, fatality is
c. International classification of disease- maximum in
revision10 a. Infants
d. International classification of drugs- b. Adolescents
revision10 c. Malnourished male
92. A person with visual acuity of < 6/18 qualifies for d. Pregnant women
a. Disease 102. In HIV, window period is time period between
b. Impairment a. Infection & onset of symptoms
c. Disability b. Infection & detection of antigen
d. Handicap c. Infection & detection of antibody
93. Cohort study is associated with d. Infection & fall in CD4
a. Prevalence 103. GATHER Approach is useful for
b. Odd's ratio a. Chlorination of water
c. Relative risk b. Counselling
d. All c. Refuse disposal
94. For case control study are true except d. Data analysis
a. Possibility of bias 104. Not included in Primary health care
b. Odd's ratio can be derived a. Equitable distribution
c. Relatively inexpensive b. Intersectoral coordination
d. Attributable risk can be known c. Appropriate technology
95. Storage temperature of vaccine is d. Treatment by doctors

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Mock Test – 3
105. Calories in 100 ml of breast milk is b. Food security
a. 45 Kcal c. Vector Borne Diseases
b. 65 Kcal d. Antimicrobial resistance
c. 85 Kcal 115. Mission Indradhanush is launched by
d. 105 Kcal a. Ministry of Health and family welfare.
106. Soiling index is used in b. Ministry of Women and Child Development
a. Air pollution c. Ministry of Social welfare
b. Water pollution d. Ministry of Education
c. Soil pollution
d. Sound pollution 116. which of the following is not a correct
107. Best method for prevention of infection by statement regarding to raynaud’s disease
medical professionals in a hospital setup is a. it is idiopathic
a. Hand washing b. it commonly affects women
b. Antibiotic c. exposure to cold precipitate vasoconstriction
c. Sterilization d. the lower extremity involvement is common
d. Use of mask 117. which of the following statement is correct in
108. Disinfection of water by routine chlorination case of squamous cell carcinoma of lip
can be classified as a. lymph node metastasis occur early
a. Concurrent disinfection b. more than 90% cases occur in upper lip
b. Pre-current disinfection c. lesion often arises in the areas of persistent
c. Sterilization hyperkeratosis
d. Terminal d. radiotherapy is considered inappropriate
109. The first step in conducting an epidemic treatment for these lesions
investigation is: 118. which of the following statement is not
correct for locally advanced carcinoma of breast
a. Determine the number of cases
a. it constitutes the bulk of patients of carcinoma
b. Determine the population at rise
breast in india
c. Verifying the diagnosis
b. patients are staged as T3 or T4, N2 or N3
d. Calculating the incubation period
without distant metastasis
110. ROC curve is usually drawn between
c. neoadjuvant chemotherapy downgrades the
a. Sensitivity & (1-specificity)
disease
b. (1-sensitivity) & specificity
d. radical mastectomy is the treatment of choice
c. Sensitivity and specificity
119. which of the following is not a common
d. (1-sensitivity) & (l-specificity)
feature of bile duct stone
111. 'Rule of Halves' is seen in
a. obstructive jaundice
a. Accidents and Injuries
b. itching
b. Blindness
c. clay coloured stools
c. CHD
d. distended gall bladder
d. Hypertension
120. consider the following with reference to
112. Spot map in epidemiological studies refer to
oesophageal variceal bleed in portal hypertension
variation in distribution of a disease at:
1. infusion of vasopressin
a. International level
2. general resuscitation
b. National level
3. devascularisation procedure
c. Rural-urban level
4. endoscopic sclerotherapy
d. Local level
what is the appropriate sequence in the line of
113. Sampling technique which selects every fifth
person from a community is called: management
a. Simple random sampling
b. Systematic random sampling a. 1, 4, 2, 3
c. Stratified sampling b. 2, 1, 4, 3
d. Cluster sampling c. 4, 2, 1, 3
114. Theme for World health Day 2015 is d. 3, 2, 1, 4
a. Food Safety

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Mock Test – 3
121. a 50 yr old diabetic patient with c. 2 and 3 only
asymptomatic gall stone (>3cm) will be best d. 1, 3 and 4
treated by 128. with reference to ESWL consider the
a. early surgery following statements
b. bile salt treatment 1. it is the treatment of choice for stone larger
c. ESWL than 2 cm
d. Waiting till it become symptomatic 2. it is contraindicated in pregnancy
122. which of the following is not an indication for 3. it is treatment of choice for lower pole stone
surgical intervention in acute pancreatitis 4. it is associated with steinstrass phenomenon
a. acute fluid collection which of the statements given above are correct
b. pancreatic necrosis a. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. pancreatic abscess b. 2 and 4 only
d. diagnostic dilemma c. 3 and 4 only
123. the following disorders are high predisposing d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
conditions for carcinoma of colon except 129. the typical appearance of ‘spider leg’ on
a. ulcerative colitis excretory urography is seen in
b. villous adenoma a. hydronephrosis
c. familial polyposis coli b. polycystic kidney disease
d. peutz jeghers syndrome c. medullary sponge kidney
124. the following statement are correct about d. renal cell carcinoma
burst abdomen (abdominal dehiscence) except 130. pneumatosis intestinalis on a plain abdominal
a. peak incidence between 6th and 8th post radiograph is seen in
operative day a. congenital atresia of bowel
b. manage with nasogastric aspiration and b. meconium ileus
intravenous fluid c. volvulus neonatorum
c. cover the wound with sterile towel and d. necrotising enterocolitis
perform emergency surgery 131. with reference to FFP (fresh frozen plasma)
d. second dehiscence is very common which one the following statement is not correct
125. a patient presents to the emergency a. it is used as volume expander
department with pain and distension of abdomen b. it is stored at -40 deg centigrade
and absolute constipation, what is the c. it is a source of coagulation factors
investigation you would like to order d. it is given in a dose of 12-15 ml/kg body wt
a. plain x-ray abdomen 132. in primary hyperparathyroidism which one of
b. ultrasonography the following is most common finding
c. barium meal follow through a. solitary adenoma
d. colonoscopy b. double adenoma
126. motility disorders of oesophagus are best c. hyperplasia of two or more glands
diagnosed by d. carcinoma
a. barium meal 133. crush syndrome is managed by which of the
b. manometry following
c. radiography a. 20% dextrose
d. endoscopy b. Hydrocortisone
127. consider the following statements about c. Maintaining high urine output
systemic inflammatory response syndrome d. Acidification of urine
1. temperature either above 38 or below 36 134. high or low fistula in ano is termed according
degree centigrade to its internal opening present with reference to
2. heart rate less than 80 per minute a. anal canal
3. tachypnoea > 20/min b. dentate line
4. leucocyte count < 4000/mm3 c. anorectal ring
which of the statements given above are correct d. sacral promomtary
a. 1, 2 and 3 135. which of the following types of stomach
b. 1 and 2 only cancer carries the best prognosis

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Mock Test – 3
a. superficial spreading type c. 1 and 4 only
b. ulcerative type d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. linitis plastica type 142. the following operative procedure can result
d. polypoidal type in neurogenic voiding dysfunction except
136. what is the most common malignancy a. radical hysterectomy
affecting spleen b. ureterolithotomy
a. angiosarcoma c. abdominoperineal resection
b. hamartoma d. retroperitoneal lymph node dissection
c. secondaries 143. malignant lymphoma of thyroid is associated
d. lymphoma with which one of the following
137. cocket and dodd’s operation is performed for a. riedel thyroiditis
which of the following b. hashimoto’s thyroiditis
a. SFJ incompetence c. de quervain’s thyroiditis
b. Perforator incompetence d. infective thyroiditis
c. DVT 144. which of the following is the most common
d. Diabetic foot complication of pancreas divisum
138. which of the surgical procedure is considered a. obstructive jaundice
to have a clean – contaminated wound b. duodenal obstruction
a. elective open cholecystectomy for c. recurrent acute pancreatitis
cholelithiasis d. peptic ulcer
b. herniorrhaphy with mesh repair 145. examination of a patient with head injury
c. lumpectomy with axillary node dissection reveals that he opens eye on painful stimuli, is
d. appendicectomy with walled off abscess confused and localise painful stimuli correctly.
139. with reference to varicocele which of the What is his Glasgow coma scale
following is not correct a. E3V3M3
a. varicosity of cremastric veins b. E2V3M4
b. left side is affected mainly c. E2V4M5
c. feels like bag of worms d. E3V3M4
d. may lead to infertility 146. which of the following procedure is
140. Steering wheel injury on chest of a young contraindicated in treatment of hypospadias
man reveals multiple fractures of ribs and a. chordee correction
paradoxical movement with severe respiratory b. circumcision
distress. X ray shows pulmonary contusion on rt c. urethroplasty
side without pneumothorax or hemothorax. What d. meatotomy
is the initial treatment of choice 147. urine examination of a patient with struvite
a. immediate internal fixation renal calculi may reveal following except
b. endotracheal intubation and mechanical a. microscopic hematuria
ventilation b. crystalluria
c. epidural analgesia and oxygen therapy c. bacteriuria
d. stabilization with towel clips d. urine ph < 5
141. with reference to duodenal ulcers, consider
the following statements 148. The plane of reference that divides the body
1. they occur most often in second part of into anterior & posterior portion is:
duodenum
a. Sagittal
2. infection with h.pylori and NSAIDs induced
injury account for majority of cases b. Frontal
3. malignant duodenal ulcers are extremely rare c. Cross-Sectional
4. eradication of h. pylori has greatly reduced d. Oblique
the recurrence rate in duodenal ulcers 149. A typical spinal nerve is a:
which of the above statements are true a. Sensory nerve
a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. Motor nerve
b. 2, 3 and 4 only

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Mock Test – 3
c. Sympathetic nerve b. Middle cerebral artery
d. Mixed nerve c. Posterior cerebral artery
150. Which example is false regarding the d. Internal carotid artery
transitional epithelium: 158. Injury of ulnar nerve proximal to wrist causes
a. Collecting duct paralysis of all except:
b. Renal pelvis a. Palmar interossei
c. Ureter b. Dorsal interossei
d. Proximal part of urethra c. Opponenspollicis
151. The bipolar neurons are found in: d. Adductor pollicis
a. Cerebral cortex 159. Which is the type of joint seen in the growth
b. Cerebellar cortex plate:
c. Olfactory epithelium a. Primary cartilaginous
d. Dorsal root ganglion b. Secondary cartilaginous
152. The red nucleus is a feature of: c. Syndesmosis
a. Cerebrum d. Plane joint
b. Mid brain 160. The Couinaud’s segmental nomenclature is
c. Thalamus based on the position of the:
d. Cerebellum a. Hepatic vein & portal vein
153. The axillary artery in its first part is related b. Hepatic vein & biliary duct
posteriorly to: c. Portal vein & biliary duct
a. Posterior cord d. Portal vein & hepatic artery
b. Medial cord 161. The following statements concerning chorda
c. Lateral cord tympani nerve are true except that it:
d. Axillary vein a. Carries secretomotor fibres to
154. A female patient was operated for removed of submandibular gland
the breast on account of cancer. After the b. Join lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa
operation she developed “winging of scapula”. c. Is a branch of facial nerve
This could be due to injury to the: d. Contains postganglionic
a. Thoracodorsal nerve parasympathetic fibres
b. Long thoracic nerve 162. The paralysis of 3rd, 4th& 6th cranial nerve with
c. Radial nerve the involvement of ophthalmic division of
d. Subscapular nerve trigeminal localize the lesion to:
155. Pisiform is considered as sesamoid bone in a. Cavernous sinus
the tendon of: b. Apex of orbit
a. Biceps femoris c. Brainstem
b. Quadriceps femoris d. Base of skull
c. Gastrocnemius 163. All of the following are the components of the
d. Adductor longus white pulp of spleen, except:
156. The largest bursa in human body is: a. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
a. Subacromid bursa b. B cells
b. Prepatellar bursa c. Antigen presenting cells
c. Trochanteric bursa d. Vascular sinus
d. Infrapatellar bursa 164. The vertebral artery traverses all of the
157. Anterior choroidal artery is a branch of: following except:
a. Anterior cerebral artery a. Foramen magnum

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b. Subarachnoid space 171. A child suffering from severe PEM. Calories to
c. Intervertebral foramen be given per Kg body weight to regain weight is:
d. Foramen transversarium a. 100 kcal
165. Maximum growth of head occur in postnatal b. 150 kcal
life in: c. 200 kcal
a. 0 – 6 months d. 250 kcal
b. 6 – 12 months 172. Bag and mask ventilation in New born
c. 1 – 2 years resuscitation is contraindicated in:
d. > 5 years a. Diaphragmatic hernia
166. A girl can walk upstairs, alternating feet and b. Pulmonary hypoplasia
make towers of 8 cubes. She refers to herself by c. Trached-oesophageal fistula
pronoun “I”, knows name but not her age and d. Laryngomalacia
gender. The most likely chronological age? 173. Mongolian spot over buttocks and back are
a. 24 months seen in:
b. 30 months a. Mongols
c. 36 months b. Purpura
d. 42 months c. Scabies
167. Consider the following milestone ability to: - d. Normal
1. Crawl 174. A mother is preparing to breastfeed her
2. Indicate desire by pointing infant, it would be of value to her, if she were
3. Make tower of 4 cubes acquainted with:
4. Draw a line with crayon a. Moro reflex
Which of the following would expect of a 15 b. Rooting reflex
month baby? c. Grasp reflex
a. 1 and 3 d. Cough reflex
b. 2 and 4 175. Painless effusions in joints in congenital
c. 1, 2, 4 syphilis is called:
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 a. Clutton’s joints
168. Following is delayed milestone development: b. Bantons joints
a. Head elevation at 12 weeks c. Charcots joint
b. Pincer grasp at 9 month d. Synovitis
c. Bisyllable at 12 month 176. Length of feeding tube to be inserted for
d. Stand with support at 10 month transpyloric feeding is measured from tip of:
169. Bone age is normal in: a. Nose to umbilicus
a. Genetic short stature b. Ear lobe to umbilicus
b. Hypopituitarism c. Nose to knee
c. Hypothyroidism d. Ear lobe to knee joint
d. Emotional deprivation 177. Rubella syndrome does not cause:
170. Kwashiorkor is diagnosed in growth retarded a. Congenital heart disease
child along with: b. LBW
a. Edema and mental retardation c. Corneal opacities
b. Hypopigmentation and anemia d. Maculopapular rash
c. Edema and hypopigmentation 178. Best prognosis in neonatal seizures is due to
d. Hepatomegaly and anemia which of the following causes:
a. Hypomagnesemia

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Mock Test – 3
b. Hyponatremia a. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Hypocalcemia b. Ankylosing spondylatis
d. Hypoglycemia c. Lupus erythematosus
d. Reiter syndrome
179. Cyanotic heart disease with decreased
pulmonary blood flow is seen in:
185. Which of the following is the least likely
a. Transposition of great vessels radiological finding if an acute pulmonary
b. Hypoplastic left heart disease embolus is present?
c. Tricuspid atresia a. Central pulmonary arterial enlargement
d. Atrial septal defect b. Hampton’s hump
180. Commonest site of Charcot’s Arthropathy is c. Small pleural effusion
a. Ankle and foot joint d. Westermark’s sign
b. Knee 186. Which one of the following features are you
c. Hip most likely to see in a 3-month-old infant with
d. Shoulder Transposition of Great Vessels?
181. Painless symmetrical involvement of both a. Boot-shaped heart.
knees in congenital syphilis is known as: b. Flask-shaped heart.
a. Clutton’s joint c. Egg on side appearance.
b. Charcot’s joint d. Rib notching.
c. Septic joint 187. Which of these is the screening modality of
d. None of the above choice for DCIS (Ductal carcinoma in- situ) of
182. Histology of the Ewing’s sarcoma is breast?
characterized by the presence of all except: a. Mammography
a. CD99 b. Ultrasonography
b. Glycogen c. MRI
c. Reticulin d. PET Scan
d. Pseudo rosettes 188. Dense ‘popcorn’ calcification on
mammography is seen in -
183. Non-union following a pediatric lateral
a. Fat necrosis.
condyle fracture has been associated with which
b. Fibroadenoma.
of the following? c. Hamartoma.
a. Median nerve palsy D. Galactocele.
189. In a 40-year-old woman complaining of ankle
b. Radial nerve palsy
pain, radiographs reveal sclerosis and collapse of
c. Ulnar nerve palsy the navicular bone. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
d. Cubitus varus
a. Freiberg’s disease.
b. Kienboeck’s disease.
184. An otherwise healthy 37-year-old man has
had bilateral posterior heel pain for the pa.st year. c. Kohler’s disease.
Examination reveals fullness, warmth, and d. Sever’s disease.
tenderness over the posterior aspect of the heels. 190. Identify the diagnosis-
Radiographs are normal. Laboratory studies show
a normal CBC and an erythrocyte sedimentation
rate of 50 mm/h (normal up to 20 mm/h), and an
HLA-B27 is positive. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

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Mock Test – 3
a. Female breast at puberty
a. Normal Chest X Ray b. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
b. Metastasis c. Increase in left ventricular size due to
c. Miliary tuberculosis hypertension
d. Consolidation
d. Bone marrow hyperplasia in hemolysis
191. Identify the diagnosis on this IVP image-
196. All are the nuclear changes seen in necrosis
except:
a. Karyolysis
b. Pyknosis
c. Karyorrhexis
d. None of the above
a. Bifid ureter 197. Programmed necrosis is the term used for:
b. Left ureteric calculus with a. Necroptosis
hydroureteronephrosis b. Pyroptosis
c. Ectopic kidney c. Autophagy
d. Horse-shoe shaped kidneys
d. Apoptosis
192. The X Ray here is suggestive of-
198. In tattooing pigments are phagocytosed by
macrophages. These are present in:
a. Dermis
b. Lower part of epidermis
c. Upper part of epidermis
d. Mid part of epidermis
199. All are the action of platelet activity factor
a. Intestinal obstruction except:
b. Intestinal perforation a. Platelet aggregation
c. Intussusceptions
b. Vasoconstriction
d. Sigmoid volvulus
193. A barium swallow examination demonstrates c. Chemotaxis
a markedly dilated oesophagus with smooth d. Bronchoconstriction
narrowing of the distal oesophagus giving the 200. Proliferation of endothelial cells is done by:
appearance of a bird’s beak. What is the most a. Fibroblast growth factor – 2
likely diagnosis? b. Angiopoietins 1
a. Oesophageal achalasia. c. Transforming growth factor β
b. Paraoesophrageal hiatus hernia. d. Metalloproteinases
c. Peptic oesophageal stricture. 201. Nutmeg liver is the appearance of liver due to:
d. Carcinoma of oesophagus. a. Left ventricular failure
194. Identify the diagnosis- b. Right ventricular failure
c. Portal vein obstruction
d. All of the above
202. Glanzmann thromboasthenia is due to
deficiency of:
a. Chronic pancreatitis a. GpIa/IIa
b. Acute pancreatitis b. GpIIb/IIIa
c. Pancreatic carcinoma c. GpIb/IX
d. Pancreatic pseudocyst. d. Thromboxane A2

195. Example of pathologic hyperplasia is:

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Mock Test – 3
203. All are the examples of Type II c. LH surge
hypersensitivity except: d. Fall in body temperature
a. Pemphigus vulgaris 211. Which of the following is the cause of
b. Myasthenia gravis amenorrhoea in a lactating mother:
c. Polyarteritis nodosa a. Increase release of LH
d. Graves’ disease b. Increase GnRH secretion
204. Most common form of glomerulonephritis c. Hyperestrogenic state
seen in systemic lupus erythematosus is: d. Increased prolactin level
a. Minimal mesangial lupus nephritis 212. Best time of diagnosing fetal abnormalities by
b. Mesangial proliferative lupus nephritis USG:
c. Diffuse lupus nephritis a. 6 – 12 weeks of pregnancy
d. Membranous lupus nephritis b. 13 – 19 weeks of pregnancy
205. In senile cerebral amyloidosis there is c. 20 – 26 weeks of pregnancy
accumulation of: d. 27 – 32 weeks of pregnancy
a. AL 213. In case of Hydratiform mole with age 40 years
b. Aβ & complete family, the treatment of choice is:
c. AA a. Suction evacuation
d. ATTR b. D & C
206. Lung carcinoma can be due to all of the c. Total hysterectomy
following except: d. Panhysterectomy
a. Benzene 214. Normal pressue of manual vacuum aspiration
b. Asbestos performed for MTP is:
c. Arsenic a. 60 – 70 mmHg
d. Nickel b. 50 – 60 mmHg
207. Expression of ERBB1 is seen in carcinoma c. 70 – 80 mmHg
lung except: d. 80 – 90 mmHg
a. Squamous cell 215. Post-partum haemorrhage in a spontaneous
b. Adenocarcinoma delivery is commonly due to:
c. Small cell a. Traumatic
d. Large cell b. Uterine atony
208. Till what time of pregnancy uterus remains a c. Blood coagulopathy
pelvic organ? d. Mixed causes
a. 8 weeks 216. Danzole is;
b. 12 weeks a. Anabolic steroid
c. 16 weeks b. Androgens agonist
d. 20 weeks c. Antiandrogens
209. Ovulation is due to surge of: d. 5 – alpha – reductaseinhibitor
a. FSH 217. Not associated with twin pregnancy:
b. LH a. Pre-eclampsia
c. Prolactin b. Oligohydramnios
d. TSH c. Antepartum haemorrhage
210. All of the following are indicator of ovulation d. Atonic uterus
except: 218. In a RH negative mother who has delivered a
a. Increase in cervical mucus RH positive baby, prophylactic anti D is indicated:
b. Abdominal cramps

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Mock Test – 3
a. If the indirect coomb’s test (ICT) is d. Intracavitary brachytherapy with
negative external beam radiation
b. If the ICT is positive with rising titres 226. Which of the following methods of
c. If the ICT is positive contraception should be avoided in women with
d. As a routine procedure epilepsy:
219. All of the following are associated with a. Oral contraceptive pills
pathogenesis of acute hydropsfetalis except: b. IUCD
a. Hydroproteinemia c. Condoms
b. Anemia d. Diaphragm
c. Hypoplasia of placental tissue 227. A 45 year old post-menopausal woman
d. Metabolic acidosis presents with vaginal bleeding. Transvaginal
220. IUGR is caused by all except: Ultrasound reveals an endometrial thickness of
a. Rh incapability 8.0 mm. The next step in the management should
b. Smoking be:
c. DM a. Hysterectomy
d. CRF b. Start progesterone therapy
221. While assessing foetal weel being by c. Histopathological examination of
cardiotocography significance is attached to: curettage
a. Late decleration d. Follow up sonography
b. Early decleration 228. The drug of choice to treat chlamydia
c. Sinusoidal wave infection in pregnancy is:
d. Variable decleration a. Tetracycline
222. Indication of acyclovir in pregnancy: b. Doxycycline
a. Disseminated herpes c. Erythromycin
b. Chicken pox in first semester d. Azithromycin
c. Prophylaxis in recurrent herpes 229. Endometrial cancer involving 50% of
d. All of the above endometrial. Extending to vagina, lymph nodes
223. A 40 years old female presenting with negative with positive peritoneal cytology is
abdominal distension, dyspnoea and weight loss is staged as:
found to have ascites and raised CA – 125. What is a. 3a
the most likely clinical diagnosis? b. 3b
a. Ca ovary c. 3c1
b. Ca cervix d. 3c2
c. Ca endometrium 230. Pain of ovarian carcinoma is referred to:
d. Genitourinary TB a. Back of thigh
224. Which of the following is not a germ cell b. Gluteal region
tumour of ovary? c. Anterior surface of thigh
a. Granulosa cell tumour d. Medial surface of thigh
b. Dygerminoma 231. Which of the following treatments for
c. Endodermal sinus tumour amenorrhoea is not supported by evidence:
d. Choriocarcinoma a. Combined oral contraceptive pills
225. Management of Ca cervix stage III B: b. Progesterone
a. Wertheims hysterectomy c. Tranexamic acid
b. Shautas procedure d. Ethamsylate
c. Chemotherapy

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Mock Test – 3
232. An antihormonal substance used to induce 239. Which of the following findings is diagnostic
ovulation is: of iron deficiency anemia:
a. Mefiprestone a. Increased TIBC, decreased serum
b. Clomiphene citrate ferritin
c. Tamoxifen b. Decreased TIBC, decreased serum
d. Raloxifen ferritin
233. Shape of cervical canal in nulliparous woman c. Increased TIBC, increased serum
is: ferritin
a. Circular d. Decreased TIBC, increased serum
b. Tubular ferritin
c. Transverse 240. A patient has Hb 6mg%, folic acid 8ng/ml,
d. Longitudinal vitamin B12 60pg/ml, serum iron 160µg/dl and
234. The most common cause of tubal block in MCV – 104. The diagnosis is:
India is: a. Iron deficiency anemia
a. Gonorrhoea infection b. Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Chlamydia infection c. Folic acid deficiency
c. Tuberculosis d. Pyriodoxine deficiency
d. Bacterial vaginosis 241. All of the following statements are true about
235. Which of the following ovarian tumour is sickle cell disease except:
most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy: a. Patient may require frequent blood
a. Serous cystadenoma transfusion
b. Mucinous cystadenoma b. Acute infection is the most common
c. Dermoid cyst cause of mortality before 3 years of
d. Theca lutein cyst age
236. The highest incidence of gestational c. There is positive correlation between
trophoblastic disease is in: concentration of HBS and
a. Australia polymerization of HBS
b. Asia d. Patient presents early in life before 6
c. North America months of age
d. Western Europe 242. A child aged 2 years presents with nonspecific
237. The most common pure germ cell tumour of symptoms suggestive of anemia. On peripheral
the ovary is: blood smear target cells are seen. He has
a. Choriocarcinoma hypochromic microcytic picture and Hb of 6gm.
b. Dysgerminoma He also has ‘a positive family history’ next
c. Embryonal cell tumour investigation of choice is:
d. Malignant teratoma a. Hb electrophoresis
238. A 30 years old female being evaluated for b. Coombs test
anemia reveals the following indices: RBC count – c. Liver function test
4.5 x 1012/L; MCV 55 fl; TLC 8000. There is no d. Osmotic fragility test
history of blood in transfusion. Which of the 243. A 23 years old female presents with anemia
following is the most likely diagnosis? and jaundice for 2 years. Peripheral smear shows
a. Iron deficiency anemia spherocytes. The best investigation to be done is:
b. Thalassemia major a. Reticulocyte count
c. Thalassemia minor b. Osmotic fragility testing
d. Megaloblasticanemia c. Coombs test

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d. Bone marrow aspiration c. Herpes zoster infection of trigeminal
244. Pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in: nerve
a. PNH d. Brain tumour
b. G6PD deficiency 250. A young girl presents with repeated episodes
c. Acquired aplastic anemia of throbbing occipital headache associated with
d. Thalassemia ataxia and vertigo. The family history is positive
245. A patient presents with a platelet count of 700 for similar headache in her mother. Most likely
X 109/L with abnormalities in size, shape and diagnosis is:
granularity of platelets. WBC count is 12 X 109/L, a. Vestibular neuronitis
Haemoglobin is 11g/dl and Philadelphia b. Basilar migraine
chromosome is absent. The most likely diagnosis c. Cluster headache
would be: d. Tension headache
a. Polycythemiavera 251. UMN lesion is characterised by:
b. Essential thrombocythemia a. Weakness & spasticity
c. Chronic myeloid leukemia b. Fasciculation
d. Leukemoid reaction c. Rigidity
246. Diagnosis of Hodgkins disease is based on all d. Localised muscle atrophy
of the following, except: 252. Which of the following is not affected by a
a. Reed-Sternberg cells lesion in posterior column of spinal cord:
b. Reaction cellular background a. Romberg’s sign
c. Atypical cells in background b. Temperature sense
d. CD 30 positively c. Vibration sense
247. Which of the following presents as d. Ataxia
mediastinal enlargement: 253. Which of the following is not a feature of
a. Promyelocyticleukemia extramedullary tumour:
b. CML a. Early corticospinal sign and paralysis
c. ALL b. Root pain or midine back pain
d. Diffuse histiocytic lymphoma c. Abnormal CSF
248. All of the following conditions are associated d. Sacral sparing
with venous and arterial thrombotic events, 254. Bilateral loss of ankle jerk and extensor
except: plantar response is seen in:
a. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria a. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
(PNH) b. Freidreich’s ataxia
b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation c. Tabesdorsalis
c. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura d. Lead poisoning
(ITP) 255. All are true about subacute combined
d. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia degeneration of spinal cord except:
(HIT) a. Due to deficiency of vitamin B12
249. A female has episodic, recurrent headache in b. Posterior column involvement
left hemicranium with nausea and paraesthesia on c. Corticospinal involvement
right upper and lower limbs is most probable d. Absent deep tendon reflexes
suffering from: 256. Which of the following is not a usual feature of
a. Migraine right middle cerebral artery territory infarct?
b. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia a. Aphasia
b. Hemiparesis

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Mock Test – 3
c. Facial weakness b. Accidental sulfonylurea ingestion
d. Dysarthria c. Accidental exogenous insulin
257. The term post traumatic epilepsy refers to administration
seizures occurring: d. Accidental metformin ingestion
a. Within moments of head injury 263. A 30 years old woman presented with
b. Within 7 days of head injury secondary amenorrhoea for 3 years along with
c. Within several weeks to months after galactorrhoea. The most likely cause of her
head injury symptoms would be:
d. Many years after head injury a. Craniopharyngioma
258. A patient with cushinoid features presents b. Prolactinoma
with hemoptysis; he shows no response to c. Meningioma
dexamethasone suppression test; most likely d. Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage
diagnosis here is: 264. Choose the best lab value for a patient with
a. Adrenal hyperplasia central diabetes insipidus:
b. Adrenal adenoma Urinary Osmolality Serum Osmolality
c. Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production a. 50 300
d. Pituitary microadenoma b. 500 260
259. Feature of addison’s disease include all of the c. 50 260
following except: d. 500 100
a. Asthenia 265. Most common cause of death in primary
b. Hyperpigmentation amyloidosis is:
c. Hypertension a. Respiratory failure
d. Abdominal pain b. Renal failure
260. All of the following are true about Type I DM, c. Cardiac failure
Except: d. Septicaemia
a. Family history is present in 90% of 266. IV Immunoglobulins are indicated in all
cases except:
b. Antibodies against β cells a. Kawasaki disease
c. Prone to Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) b. PAN
d. Insulin is required for management of c. GBS
DKA d. Bruton’s hypogammaglobulinemia
261. A 42 years old male has strong positive 267. All of the following are features of Wilson’s
Benedict’s test Random blood sugar is > 163 mg%, disease, except:
fasting blood sugar is > 200mg%. Next line of a. Haemolytic anemia
investigation is: b. Testicular atrophy
a. Urine glucose charting 5 hourly c. Chorea
b. Oral GTT d. Chronic active hepatitis
c. Repeat Benedict’s test 268. An elderly patient presents with hypertension
d. 24 hr urine sugar estimation and diabetes, proteinuria without renal failure.
262. A patient presents with symptoms of Antihypertensive of choice is:
hypoglycemia. Investigations reveal decreased a. Furosemide
blood glucose and increased insulin levels. C- b. Methyldopa
peptide assay is done, which shows normal levels c. Enalapril
of C-peptide. The most likely diagnosis is: d. Propranolol
a. Insulinoma

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Mock Test – 3
269. All of the following drugs can be used in the a. Topical tobramycin
management of hypertensive crises except: b. Oral amoxicillin
a. Hydralazine c. Intravenous acyclovir
b. Trimethophan d. Intravenous ciprofloxacin
c. Nifedipine 274. Caloric test is performed at
d. Indapamide a. 27 and 44 degree Celsius
270. The best chances of recovery after successful b. 30 and 44 degree Celsius
cardiopulmonary resuscitation are seen in: c. c. 30 and 37 degree Celsius
a. Ventricular tachycardia d. d. 37 and 44 degree Celsius
b. Ventricular fibrillation 275. Infection of submandibular area is known as
c. Asystole a. Vincent’s angina
d. Electromechanical dissociation b. Angina pectoris
271. What structure separates the scala vestibuli c. Ludwig’s angina
from the scala media? d. None of the above
a. Basilar membrane 276. Iatrogenic disorder due to over use of nasal
b. Reissner’s membrane drops is called
c. Organ of Corti a. Rhinitis sicca
d. Tectorial membrane b. Atrophic rhinitis
272. Three semicircular canal opens into vestibule c. Hypertrophic rhinitis
by ----------- openings d. Rhinitis medicamentosa
a. 3 277. Prime modality of Rx of Naso Pharyngeal Ca –
b. 4 a. Radiotherapy
c. 5 b. Surgery
d. 6 c. Chemotherapy
273. An 82-year-old female comes to the d. None of these
emergency department for the evaluation of right 278. The opening in case of Dacrocystorhinostomy
ear pain and drainage for the past two days. She is made in
saw her primary care physician approximately a. Superior Meatus
one week ago for decreased hearing from the right b. Middle Meatus
ear, and he performed aural irrigation to remove c. Inferior Meatus
impacted cerumen in her right ear. She has a d. None of the above
history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and 279. The most common diagnosis in a young boy
rheumatoid arthritis. Her medications include with history of profuse nasal bleeding is
hydrochlorothiazide, enalapril, glyburide, and a. Juvenile Naso pharyngeal angiofibroma
low-dose prednisone. On physical examination, b. Nasal polyp
her temperature is 37.2C (99F), blood pressure is c. Deviated nasal septum
146/74 mmHg, heart rate is 100/min, and d. Cirrhosis
respiratory rate is 16/min. There is marked 280. Seventeen year old patient, with fever of up to
tenderness with motion of the right earlobe. 39ºC, intense odynophagia, without improvement
Purulent discharge and granulation tissue is noted following full antibiotic treatment, presence of
on the floor of the right external auditory canal at multiple, large adenopathies in several lymph
the osseocartilaginous junction. The tympanic bases in the neck. Lymphocytosis in the blood
membrane appears intact. Which of the following count. All in the last 2 weeks. This presentation is
is the most appropriate treatment for this suggestive of:
patient’s condition? a. Acute pharyngotonsillitis

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Mock Test – 3
b. Hodgkin’s disease 287. Sudden increase in blood sugar in Diabetics
c. Infectious mononucleosis cause (Principles of Internal Medicine 16/e-
d. Ludwig’s angina Harrison vol
a. Myopia
281. The following statements regarding
b. Presbyopia
laryngomalacia are true: c. Anisometropia
a. It can cause inspiratory stridor. d. Hypermetropia
b. Stridor is relieved by lying the child 288. Aniseikonia means:
supine and when feeding. a. Difference in the axial length of the
c. Stridor is worse on lying prone. eyeballs.
d. It is more common in younger children b. Difference in the size of corneas
c. Difference in the size of pupils
282. Regarding quinsy, the following statements
d. Difference in the size of images formed
are true:
by the two eyes
a. A quinsy is otherwise known as a
289. Salmon patch is seen in
peritonsillar abscess. a. Glaucoma
b. It can be treated with antibiotics and b. Interstitial keratitis
drainage. c. Corneal ulcer
c. It is a collection of pus outside the tonsil d. Iritis
capsule. 290. The crystalline lens derives its nourishment
from
d. It often occurs in patients with acute
a. Blood vessels
tonsillitis.
b. Connective tissue
283. Regarding croup, the following statements are c. Aqueous and vitreous
true except: d. Zonules
a. It is also known as 291. Earliest field defect of glaucoma is
laryngotracheobronchitis. a. Baring of blind spot
b. It may be caused by parainfl uenza virus. b. Multiple field defects near macula
c. Ronnie's nasal step
c. Treatment may involve nebulised steroids
d. Arcuate scotoma
and beta-receptor agonists. 292. Rhegmatogenous detachment is seen in
d. It is most common in teenagers a. Glaucoma
284. Pulsatile tinnitus in the ear is due to b. Retinitis pigmentosa
a. Malignant otitis media c. Diabetes mellitus
b. Osteoma of external canal d. Retinoblastoma
c. Mastoid reservoir phenomena 293. Most severe papilloedema is caused by
a. Pituitary tumor
d. Glomus tumor
b. Frontal lobe tumor
285. Which of the following will cause c. Posterior cranial fossa tumor
retrocochlear hearing loss d. Medulloblastoma
a. Meniere’s disease 294. A man presents 6 hrs after head injury
b. Cochlear otosclerosis complains in of mild proptosis and scleral
c. Perilympg fistula hyperemia. The probe ble diagnosis is
a. Pneumo orbit
d. Acoustic neuroma
b. Caroticocavernous fistula
286. In Marcus Gunn pupil, the pupillary reaction
c. Retro orbital hematoma
with light is
d. Orbital cellulitis
a. Normal reaction
295. Treatment of choice for photopthalmia is
b. Sluggish reaction
a. Irrigation with antibiotics
c. No reaction with pin point pupil
b. Irrigation with local anesthesia
d. No reaction with dilated pupil
c. Irrigation with saline
d. Covering the eye

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Mock Test – 3
296. Flower petal appearance in fluorescein years complains of gradually progressive painless
angiography is seen in loss of vision. Most likely he has
a. Choroiditis a. Cataract
b. Cystoid macular edema b. Vitreous haemorrhage
c. Choroidal nodulitis c. Total rhegmatogenous retinal
d. Central serousretinopathy detachment
297. Oculomotor nerve palsy affects all of the d. Tractional retinal detachment not
following muscles, EXCEPT: involving the macula
a. Medial rectus 300. While working in a neonatal ICU. Your team
b. Inferior oblique delivers premature infant at 27 weeks of gestation
c. Lateral rectus and weighting 1500gm. How soon will you
d. Levator palpebrae superioris request fundus examination by an
298. The reciprocal inhibition of antagonistic ophthalmologist
muscle upon lateral gaze is explained by: a. Immediately
a. Sherrington law b. 3-4 weeks after delivery
b. Herring law c. At 34 weeks gestational age
c. Laplace law d. At 40 weeks gestational age
d. Hick's law
299. A 35 year old insulin dependent diabetes
mellitus (IDDM) patient on insulin for the past 10

Team Motivation FMGE Coaching Academy Page 22

 Team Motivation FMGE Coaching Academy
Mock Test – 3
Team Motivation FMGE Coaching Academy
Mock Test 3
Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans
1 C 51 B 101 D 151 C 201 B 251 A
2 A 52 C 102 C 152 B 202 B 252 B
3 A 53 A 103 B 153 B 203 C 253 D
4 B 54 A 104 D 154 B 204 C 254 B
5 B 55 A 105 B 155 B 205 B 255 D
6 A 56 A 106 A 156 A 206 A 256 A
7 C 57 C 107 A 157 D 207 B 257 C
8 A 58 A 108 B 158 C 208 B 258 C
9 D 59 C 109 C 159 A 209 C 259 C
10 A 60 D 110 A 160 A 210 D 260 A
11 B 61 B 111 D 161 D 211 D 261 B
12 B 62 D 112 D 162 A 212 A 262 C
13 D 63 B 113 B 163 D 213 C 263 B
14 C 64 B 114 A 164 C 214 C 264 A
15 A 65 A 115 A 165 A 215 B 265 C
16 D 66 B 116 D 166 B 216 C 266 B
17 D 67 B 117 C 167 C 217 B 267 B
18 D 68 C 118 D 168 C 218 A 268 C
19 D 69 C 119 D 169 A 219 C 269 D
20 A 70 C 120 B 170 C 220 A 270 A
21 A 71 B 121 A 171 C 221 A 271 B
22 C 72 A 122 A 172 A 222 D 272 C
23 B 73 B 123 D 173 D 223 A 273 D
24 B 74 B 124 D 174 B 224 A 274 B
25 D 75 B 125 A 175 A 225 D 275 C
26 D 76 B 126 B 176 C 226 A 276 D
27 C 77 A 127 D 177 C 227 C 277 A
28 B 78 C 128 B 178 C 228 D 278 B
29 B 79 D 129 B 179 C 229 B 279 A
30 D 80 A 130 D 180 A 230 D 280 C
31 A 81 C 131 A 181 A 231 D 281 A
32 D 82 B 132 A 182 C 232 B 282 C
33 B 83 A 133 C 183 C 233 C 283 D
34 D 84 A 134 C 184 B 234 C 284 D
35 C 85 B 135 A 185 A 235 C 285 D
36 C 86 D 136 D 186 C 236 B 286 B
37 B 87 C 137 B 187 A 237 B 287 A
38 C 88 D 138 A 188 B 238 C 288 D
39 B 89 D 139 A 189 C 239 A 289 B
40 C 90 D 140 B 190 C 240 B 290 C
41 C 91 C 141 B 191 B 241 D 291 A
42 D 92 B 142 B 192 A 242 A 292 A
43 B 93 C 143 B 193 A 243 C 293 C
44 A 94 D 144 C 194 B 244 A 294 C
45 C 95 D 145 C 195 B 245 B 295 D
46 A 96 D 146 B 196 D 246 C 296 B
47 C 97 C 147 D 197 A 247 C 297 C
48 A 98 C 148 B 198 A 248 C 298 A
49 C 99 D 149 D 199 C 249 A 299 D
50 B 100 B 150 A 200 A 250 B 300 C

Team Motivation FMGE Coaching Academy Page 23